ATG REVISION QUESTIONS1. The principles on which the production of lift are based on are a. Boyle's Law b. Bernoulli's Theorem c. Reynolds Number 12. During flight at zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of the wing would be: a. less than atmospheric pressure, b. equal to atmospheric pressure, c. greater than atmospheric pressure. 2. When considering aerodynamic forces, the effect of size is related to a. Joule's Law b. Bernoulli's Theorem c. Reynolds Number 13. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the: a. amount of airflow above and below the wing, b. point at which the CG is located, c. distribution of high and low pressure acting on the wing. 14. 3. Newton's first Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia states a. to every action there is an equal and opposite reaction b. force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration c. every body persists in a state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external unbalanced force. In the lift formula, V² is: a. IAS b. EAS c. TAS 15. In the lift formula, ½ρV² is: a. EAS b. TAS c. Static energy 16. One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to: a. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed; b. increase the angle of descent without increasing airspeed; c. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made. 17. It is true to say concerning the use of flaps during approach and landing that a. flaps decrease lift which increases the stall speed, b. flaps provide an increase in lift, c. a steeper than normal approach is necessary because of increase in stall speed. 18. It is true to say regarding the use of flaps during level turns that: a. using a constant flap setting and varying bank has no effect on stall speed, b. the addition of flaps increases the stall speed, c. the addition of flaps decreases the stall speed. 19. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended is lower than cruising speed because: a. the additional lift and drag created would overload the wing structure at higher speeds, b. the flaps will retract automatically at higher speeds, c. too much drag is induced. 20. When gliding for range, the speed at which the glide is conducted is: a. Minimum L/D ratio. b. Minimum drag to minimum lift ratio. c. Maximum L/D ratio. 21. When gliding into a head wind the best glide angle will be achieved at a. an IAS which produces the best lift/drag ratio b. an IAS which is higher than that for best lift/drag ratio c. an IAS which is lower than that for best lift/drag ratio, but which is higher than that required for best endurance 22. If airspeed doubles while the angle of attack remains the same, the drag will: a. remain the same, b. double, c. be four times greater. 23. As airspeed increases in level flight, total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum L/D speed because of the: a. increase in induced drag b. increase in profile drag c. decrease in profile drag 4. The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane is known as the angle of a. incidence b. dihedral c. attack 5. In order to maintain altitude while decreasing airspeed: a. increase angle of attack to compensate for decreasing lift, b. increase angle of attack to produce more lift than drag, c. decrease angle of attack to compensate for increasing drag. 6. 7. 8. If the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at a higher speed will be: a. twice than that at a lower speed, b. three times more than that at the lower speed, c. four times more than that at the lower speed A wing designed to produce lift resulting from relatively : a. high air pressure below and above the wing surface, b. low pressure below and high pressure above the wing surface, c. high pressure below and low pressure above the wing surface. The changes in aircraft control which must be made to maintain altitude while airspeed is decreasing are to a. increase angle of attack to produce more lift than weight b. maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase angle of attack c. to increase angle of attack to compensate for decreasing lift 9. The point of an aerofoil through which lift acts is the a. centre of pressure b. centre of gravity c. centre of rotation 10. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the: a. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing, b. force produced perpendicular to the relative flow, c. reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air over a curved surface. 11. On a wing, the lift force acts perpendicular to and the drag force acts parallel to the: a. chordline, b. longitudinal axis, c. flight path REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 PAGE 1 24. Changing the angle of attack of a wing, enables control of the: a. lift, gross weight and drag, b. lift airspeed and drag, c. airspeed, weight and drag. 25. As airspeed decreases in level flight, total drag of the aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum L/D speed because of the a. increase in induced drag, b. increase in parasite drag, c. decrease in induced drag. 26. 27. Regarding the angle of attack, it is true to say that: a. a decrease in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing and decrease drag, b. an increase in angle of attack will decrease impact pressure below the wing and decrease drag, c. an increase in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing and increase drag, An aircraft at 100 mph produces 1,000 lb. of drag. If angle of attack remains the same but airspeed is doubled, total drag would increase to: a. 2 000 lbs., b. 3 000 lbs., c. 4 000 lbs. 36. Stability about the lateral axis is given by: a. the elevators b. wing dihedral; c. the horizontal tailplane; d. the ailerons. 37. Stability about the longitudinal axis is given by: a. elevators; b. ailerons; c. wing dihedral 38. Moving the centre of gravity aft will: a. reduce longitudinal stability; b. increase longitudinal stability; c. have no effect on longitudinal stability. 39. If the aircraft has a nose-up pitch displacement, the effective angle of attack of the tailplane: a. remains the same; b. changes and causes the tailplane to apply a restoring moment; c. will not change if the pitch up was due to elevator selection. 40. The longitudinal static stability of an aircraft: a. is reduced by the effects of wing downwash; b. is increased by the effects of wing downwash; c. is not affected by wing downwash. 28. In comparison with a low aspect ratio wing, a high aspect ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have: a. decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack, b. increased drag, especially at high angles of attack, c. increased drag, especially at low angles of attack. 41. To ensure longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the C of G: a. must always coincide with the C of P; b. must be forward of the Neutral Point; c. must be aft of the Neutral Point. 29. In comparison with a high aspect ratio wing, a low aspect ratio wing in a constant airflow velocity will have, a. decreased drag, especially at low angles of attack. b. decreased drag, especially at high angles of attack, c. increased drag, especially at high angles of attack. 42. Wing dihedral gives a stabilising rolling moment by causing an increase in lift: a. on the down-going wing when the aircraft rolls; b. on the lower wing when the aircraft sideslips; c. on the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked altitude. 30. If an aircraft is stable, this means that: a. it is in a state of balance; b. if it is displaced it will return to its original position without any correction by the pilot; c. if it is displaced it must be returned to its original position by the pilot operating the controls. 43. A high wing configuration gives: a. more lateral stability than a low wing; b. less lateral stability than a low wing; c. the same lateral stability as a low wing. 44. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates for a long time with only small reductions of amplitude on each oscillation. It would be said to have: a. low damping; b. high damping; c. negative damping. 45. The presence of the fuselage in an aircraft with a high wing during a sideslip: a. increases the lift on the lower wing and decreases the lift on the upper wing thus creating a stabilising moment; b. increases the lift on both wings thus creating a stabilising moment; c. decreases the lift on the lower wing and, increases the lift on the upper wing thus creating a destabilising moment. 31. For an aircraft which is neutrally stable in roll, following a wing drop: a. the wing would tend to return to the level position; b. the wing would continue to drop; c. the wing would remain in its displaced position. 32. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is: a. statically and dynamically unstable; b. statically stable but dynamically unstable; c. statically unstable but dynamically stable. 33. Longitudinal stability is given by: a. the fin; b. the wing dihedral; c. the horizontal tailplane. 34. An aircraft is constructed with dihedral to provide: a. lateral stability about the longitudinal axis; b. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis; c. lateral stability about the normal axis. 46. Sweepback of the wings will: a. increase lateral stability; b. decrease lateral stability; c. not affect the lateral stability. 35. Lateral stability is given by: a. the ailerons; b. the wing dihedral; c. the horizontal tailplane. 47. If an aircraft is yawed to a large angle of sideslip: a. directional stability will be lost; b. if the sideslip angle is too large the fin may stall and directional stability will be decreased; c. the rudder will always have to be used to return the aircraft to its original position. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 PAGE 2 have no effect on longitudinal stability. having the wings swept back. the position of the C of G: a. c. positive static stability c. If weight is increased the maximum gliding range of an aircraft: a. decrease c. 67. aircraft with high wing configuration. 53. decreases because thrust decreases and drag is constant. the drag will be the same as in level flight because the IAS is the same c. 55. c. 64. unstable about the longitudinal axis. An aircraft with a `Dutch roll' instability will: a. the amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag c. As bank angle is increased in a level turn at a constant IAS. experience simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw. c. Moving the centre of gravity aft will: a. directionally neutrally stable. 60. 56. Reduced force. For a level turn at a constant IAS if the radius of turn is decreased the bank angle and load factor will: a. longitudinal stability is reduced c. b. If it then yaws to port it is: a. yawing and is controlled with the ailerons. 52. experience oscillations in pitch. an aircraft continues to oscillate at a constant amplitude. Stability of an aircraft about its lateral axis is normally provided by the: a. b. To cover the greatest distance when gliding. 73. b. c. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as: a. b. 54. c. b. unstable about the lateral axis. decreases b. increase longitudinal stability b. dynamically stable but statically unstable c. reducing the size of the fin. Increasing the size of the fin: a. As altitude increases the excess power available: a. directionally dynamically stable. Increased force. decreases because drag increases and thrust decreases b. the drag will be greater than in level flight because of the increased induced drag b. remains the same. very small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch b. To ensure longitudinal stability in flight. c. c. go into a spiral dive following a lateral disturbance. 72. increase b. the one that gives the highest L/D ratio. aircraft with swept back wings. the aircraft displays: a. If an aircraft is loaded to the rear of the CG range. 49. increases because the power required decreases and power available is constant c. When the landing gear is lowered. dynamically neutral b. directional stability about the normal axis. it will tend to be: a. as high as possible within VNE limits c. pitching and is controlled with the elevator. b. a combined rolling and yawing motion. remain the same b. directional stability about the longitudinal axis b. 48. larger stick forces are required to pitch because the aircraft is very stable. The aircraft nose initially tends to return to the original position after the elevator is pressed forward and released. It is: a. aircraft with low wing configuration. 69. negative stability. decreases because the power available decreases and power required increases. Dutch roll may be prevented by: a. decrease lateral stability c. longitudinally neutrally stable b. Dutch roll is: a. increases c. It is: a. 50. longitudinally unstable. near to the stalling speed b. b. dynamically unstable longitudinally. increases longitudinal stability and directional control. 68. 58.62. increase lateral stability b. reduce longitudinal stability c. As altitude increases the excess thrust at a given IAS: a. elevators. decreases because the power available decreases and power required is constant b. rolling and is controlled with the ailerons. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 PAGE 3 . The angle of climb is proportional to: a. should coincide with the neutral point. 61. the amount by which the lift exceeds the weight b. An aircraft is yawed to starboard and the rudder is then centralized. ailerons c. reduces lateral stability. increases because drag decreases and thrust is constant c. A high wing aircraft has the thrust line above the drag line. increases the size of the keel surface giving increased directional stability. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis. fitting yaw dampers. 66. should not be aft of the neutral point c. After a disturbance in pitch. the load factor will: a. No force. b. In a level turn at a constant IAS: a. c. primarily a pitching instability c. the angle of attack of the wing. negative dynamic stability. should not be forward of the neutral point b. remain the same. not affect lateral stability. directionally statically stable. 70. A type of slow roll b. When the C of G is close to the forward limit: a. c. The fin gives: a. 65. Pendulum stability is a property possessed by: a. tailplane b. sluggish in aileron control. b. 63. 71. 57. the force required on the tailplane to maintain straight and level flight is: a. the drag will be less than in level flight because the lift is less. 51. the gliding speed must be: a. laterally unstable c. increase c. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates with increasing amplitude. Increasing the size of the fin will: a. 59. decrease. climbs and descents. it helps to overcome adverse yaw. 76. properly applied. increase the stalling speed. induce a root stall c. giving the tip a sharp leading edge b. With engine power on. is constant at all altitudes c. At altitudes above sea level the IAS stalling speed will be: a. 77. the CL for maximum L/D ratio. turn indicator and VSI b. the lift decreases and the drag decreases b. If the aircraft weight changes by 6% the stalling speed will change by approximately: a. 15 c. weight. 84. moves aft with increased angle of attack c. prevent a root stall b. automatically compensating pitch changes at high speeds. increase with altitude increase b. 87. 86. bank and trim. above the normal stalling speed b. At angles of attack above the stalling angle: a. a stall could occur on the wing with the up aileron c. A stick shaker is: a. if weight is increased the stalling angle of attack is: a. the CL for zero lift c. below the normal stalling speed c. the same as the normal stalling speed. not effect the stalling speed c. c. an artificial stability device c. a high Mach number warning device b. wash-out on the wing. at the tip b. the lift decreases and the drag increases c. To produce the desired effect. 82. The most important function of a rudder during coordinated flight is that: a. there would be no effect on stalling. wash in on the wing c. depending upon the design of the trim tab controls. Second stage of climb. straight and level flight. decrease the stalling speed b. The separation point of the boundary layer: a. the stalling speed would be: a. 98. and ailerons are operated: a. it prevents skid. preventing the aircraft from getting into a stall c. c. at the centre of the span c. In an aircraft just after take-off. assisting the pilot to move the controls against high air loads b. A fixed spoiler on the leading edge of the wing at the root will: a. the instruments to rely on first to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery are a. 99. decreased c. The stalling speed is determined by: a. a device to vibrate the control column to give a stall warning. Increasing aircraft weight will: a. In a steady turn an aircraft experiences 3g. 78. If the aircraft is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded limits. 83. lower than with the C of G on the aft limit b. Flight manoeuvres are generally divided into four flight fundamentals: a. 6% 81. at a higher speed than with power off 80. increasing the stalling angle of the wing b. b. A stall warning must be set to operate: a. at a lower speed than with power off c. remains constant up to the stalling angle. Turn indicator and ASI 100. 91. A stick pusher is a device for: a. 85. If an aircraft is flying close to the stall. a constant angle of attack c. Wing tip staIling may be prevented: a. a constant true airspeed b. 95. fast flight and stalls. applying rudder overcomes the asymmetrical thrust of the propeller as the turn is initiated. b. the same as with the C of G on the aft limit. 12% c. turns. trim tabs must be adjusted: a. the same. 94. giving the tip a sharp leading edge. a stall could occur on the wing with the down aileron b. This WAT limit is most critical at: a. c. the same as at sea level b. With the C of G on the forward limit. c. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing. 92. On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall will commence: a. decreasing the drag of the wing c. At the root. The indicated stalling speed of an aircraft at a given weight: a. Third stage of climb. slow flight. moves forward with increased angle of attack b.74. 30 b. 96. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 88. increased b. take-offs. decreases with altitude increase. at a speed just below stalling speed b. a constant indicated airspeed A typical stalling angle of attack is: a. aircraft power. at the stalling speed. 3% b. b. higher than the C of G on the aft limit c. at the same speed as with power off b. in the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces they affect. wash-in on the wing c. Final stage of climb. b. at a speed above stalling speed c. ASI and altimeter c. A leading edge slat is a device for: a. 97. the stalling speed will be: a. 90. 89. the lift increases and the drag increases. less than at sea level c. wash out on the wing b. 93. PAGE 4 . give a shorter landing run. 5 79. an aircraft will stall: a. greater than at sea level An aircraft wing stalls at: a. altitude and temperature are of most importance. Wing tip stalling may be prevented by: a. in the same direction as the primary control surfaces they affect. 75. the maximum value of CL b. pitch. if any.75 to 1. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? a. Maximum single-engine rate of climb b. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? a. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. c. A mineral based hydraulic fluid will require all components to be fitted with: a. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? a. b. altitude and ability to climb 50 ft/min. b. c. Snow flakes. light straw c. Inward and aft. b. From . Increases with altitude c. With one engine inoperative. c. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. From 1. when the engine is at idle RPM. Ice crystals. b. The one with centre of thrust farthest from the centreline of the fuselage. Porpoise. then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed. the system pressure fails to rise above two thirds maximum normal working pressure. c. An airspeed slightly above Vmc. c. A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up. Severe porpoising. Heading. Application of aileron alone when rolling into a turn will result in unbalanced flight for the duration of the aileron input and will result in a. While manoeuvering at minimum controllable airspeed to avoid overbanking b. Heading and altitude. 116. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. b. either of the above may be correct depending on the direction of the turn 102. 115. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow? a. twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. c. a pressure relief valve is stuck slightly open. 112. 108. What procedure is recommended for an engine out approach and landing? a. b. synthetic rubber seals. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. Below . 103. accumulator charge pressure is too low b. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane? a. Heading. twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc? a.20 to 250 Mach. What criteria determines which engine is the ‘critical’ engine of a twin-engine airplane? a. b. Severe pitch down movement when the centre of pressure shift forward. b. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude 107. does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane with un-supercharged engines? a. None b. With full flaps and gear extended. In a light. butyl rubber seals c. Best engine-out rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground. twin-engine airplane? ACCELERATE TOa. 120. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. has a low induced drag coefficient throughout the speed range b. c. 106. Outward and forward. Transonic index. Critical Mach number. c. b. hydraulic fluid is: a. b. c. A wing with marked sweep-back a. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 111. c. b. has a high induce drag coefficient throughout the speed range c. Wingover. the engine RPM is too low c. 114. DTD 585. c. Initial buffet speed. Critical Mach number 113. c. then lift off and climb at that speed. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur? a. Inward and forward. 122. Decreases with altitude. sideslip b. What performance should a pilot of a light . The one with the centre of thrust closest to the centreline of the fuselage. What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? a. 109. A severe moment or ‘tuck under’. except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold. 118. the probable fault is: a. 105. twin-engine airplane represent? a. Dutch roll.101. skid c. What is the movement of the centre of pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are shock-stalled first?. PAGE 5 . Supercooled water droplets. b. 110. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. The critical Mach number will increase significantly. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. blue b. c. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. 121. b. When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. c. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? a. What effect. c. natural rubber seals b. a. Aircraft icing in flight is due to: a. Vmc. What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? a. 117. 104. b. In a hydraulic system.75 Mach.20 Mach. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light. has a reduced induced drag coefficient at the high speed range 119. then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed. A normal approach. c. Supersonic Mach number. red. Transonic Mach number. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light. With climb power on. Excessive pressure due to thermal expansion in a closed circuit may be relieved by a: a. eliminate vibration of the main wheels c. 130. Oils and greases should not be used on joints in oxygen lines because a. the maximum speed of the aeroplane in the landing configuration 141. A visco-static fluid is one which: a. If after take-off from sea level the aircraft climbs at 1000 fpm. 140. but slowly returned to normal after activation of the system was completed. expansion of hydraulic fluid due to high temperature REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 135.000 ft yet c. the brakes will feel spongy c. Pressure relief valve. reduce nosewheel vibration during ground operations 139. the brake pedal will experience no resistance as it travels to the floor b. low hydraulic fluid level c. During a climb. Flow control valve b. maintains a constant volume of fluid to the circuits at all times b. The purpose of a shimmey damper is to a. a weak return spring c. decrease at half the rate of the out side pressure 145. a leak in the flap actuating cylinder b. maintains a constant viscosity at a specific working temperature c. the cabin VSI uses: a. the maximum speed at which the undercarriage may be lowered b. low accumulator gas pressure b. low accumulator system pressure c. The most likely cause of this would be a. The hand pump in a hydraulic system is used to a. The purpose of an accumulator is to: a. the negative relief valve is stuck closed b. low fluid level 134. 124. Excessive system pressure fluctuations may be due to: a. the safety valve failing to operate due to faulty weight switches b. air in the system b. maintain system pressure in flight c. none of the doors are able to be opened. a likely cause is a. provide an alternative. A lower than specified accumulator gas pressure may a. Snow. 128. prevent cavitation at the pump b. low accumulator charge pressure. c. maintains a constant viscosity at all working temperatures b. the negative relief valve opening one landing c. static pressure measured at the aircraft altitude b. reduce the emergency source of hydraulic power c. If air has leaked into the lines of a foot operated hydraulic brake system a. they may start a fire c. to eliminate hydraulic hammering. maintain a constant pressure in the system. the maximum speed at which the aeroplane may be flown with the undercarriage extended c. a flap circuit to reduce the rate of movement in both directions b. What is the worst condition to land regarding hydroplaning? a. 126.123. 127. 125. provide. This could be caused by a. A possible cause is a. in an emergency. a leak in the component actuator c. eliminate vibration of the tailwheel b. On a given aircraft’s pressurisation panel the cabin altitude has been set to 8000 ft and cabin rate of change is set to maximum (2000 fpm). decrease at twice the rate of the outside pressure c. the use of incorrect door opening procedures 143. eliminate cavitation in the pump supply b. Slush. A one-way restrictor valve may be fitted to: a. With reference to aeroplane operating manuals. non-return valve 132. the term Vle refers to a. the pilot notices that the cabin altimeter and VSI are reading the same as the aircraft altimeter and VSI. accumulator c. cabin differential pressure c. Whilst operating a hydraulic system. the cabin pressure would initially a. The component in a hydraulic system that will be set to the highest pressure is the a. they will cause the connections to oxidise (rust) PAGE 6 . high accumulator charge pressure b. to provide pressure for emergency use c. in an emergency to the engine driven pump 131. the hydraulic accumulator will provide an increase in the number of brake applications in an emergency: a. Excessive brake travel could be due to a. remain the same as outside pressure up to 8000 ft b. pump hydraulic fluid from the accumulator into the reservoir b. maintain a constant temperature throughout the system. will not form sludge or thicken when it is stationary in the system. static pressure measured inside the cockpit 142. assist in damping out system pressure fluctuations. the safety valve has opened 144. the hydraulic pressure dropped abnormally low. b. an undercarriage circuit to reduce the speed of operation on lowering c. a supply of fluid for the pump c. the aircraft is not above 10. if the initial charge pressure is increased b. Standing water. To measure the rate of climb of the cabin in a pressurised aircraft. If fully extended hydraulic flaps start to re tract when the aircraft is below Vfe. they can clog the lines b. Most modern hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised to: a. A variable volume pump: a. pressure relief valve b. if the initial charge pressure is exhausted 136. a fluid leak in the master cylinder 137. application of light foot pressure will cause the brakes to grab 138. Pressure reducing valve c. if the initial charge pressure is reduced c. After a flight in a pressurised aircraft. In a wheelbrake circuit. reduce the amount of fluid stored in the accumulator 133. allow fluid pressures to become excessive b. a speed brake to ensure it moves out quickly and moves in slowly. c. 129. If forward facing fuel tank vents are bent backwards a. MLW 156. Why is it desirable to leave an aircraft with full fuel tanks if parking it overnight? a. anti-detonation resistance b. the main engine pump b. maintain a rate one turn 164. a low rate of climb on a cold day 172. A special heater with its own fuel supply 158. 160. allowing an engine to draw from either tank b. Fuel system booster pumps are normally: a. An electrically driven starter motor 168.146. Combustion heating is normally provided by a. fuel of the next lower octane rating b. 50% b. MZFW c. calorific value b. AVGAS 100/130 is coloured a. Humidity is controlled at a.000 ft for longer than 60 mins c.000 ft c. The use of supplemental oxygen by a pilot in a pressurized aircraft is mandatory a. clear b. ram air vent pressure will maintain supply to the engine cylinders. increased fuel pressure may damage the boost pumps b. For cruise in an unpressurised aircraft at FL270 a diluter demand oxygen system a.000 ft b. clear b. booster pumps c. the percentage of maximum manifold pressure that can be used in lean mixture c. The octane rating of fuel is an indication of its a. Which of the following ice protection systems is designed to be used only for de-icing? a. A weight of Basic Operating Empty Mass plus payload is known as: a. The 100 indicates a. Only used in an emergency 166. blue c. A bootstrap system c. Autopilots are designed to maintain attitude and so should be used during flight through turbulence 159. A girthstrap system REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 169. fuel tank vents. reduced tank pressure may cause tuel starvation or vapourisation c. Prevention of condensation of water in the tanks b. green 154. 161.000 ft for longer than 60 mins 147. are suitable for prolonged use up to 33. Fuel vapourisation would most likely be caused by a. In the event a booster pump fails in the engine fuel system: a. Pneumatic system 165. The volatility of a fuel is its a. provide extra power at take-off b. Alcohol spray b. a high rate of climb on a cold day b. The compressor stage of a gas turbine engine 167. Autopilots should always be off for take-off and landing c. fuel will be drawn through the pump by-pass b. The purpose of an electric boost pump is to a. are suitable for prolonged use up to 40. a mixture of the next lowest and the next highest grade 152. A fuel has a rating of 100/130. volatility c. When disengaging an autopilot a pilot’s main concern should be to a. with equal amounts in each tank c. at all times when the cabin altitude is above 10. AVGAS l00LL is coloured a. Only used on the ground b. If fuel of the specified octane rating cannot be attained it is permissible to use a.000 ft b. The turbine stage of a gas turbine engine b. at all times when the aircraft is above 10. mass per unit volume c. Many autopilots should not be engaged above certain limiting IAS values b. Which statement is incorrect regarding autopilot operation? a. guard against sudden changes in aircraft attitude b. Cross feeding in a fuel system is primarily for a. Prevention of drying out and cracking of fuel lines c. increased tank pressure may cause fuel tank rupture PAGE 7 . electrically operated c. is not suitable for prolonged operations b. A typical engine bleed air system used on a turbojet aircraft is also known as a. A small gas turbine engine b. green 153. vapour forming tendency 151. A bleed air heating system obtains a supply of hot air from: a. the fuel in that tank will become isolated c. Vapour locks in fuel system pipelines are prevented by: a. Only used in flight c. 162. blue c. maintain straight and level flight c. A petrol driven engine c. a high rate of climb on a hot day c. the anti-detonation rating of the fuel in lean mixture 155. 30% c. to balance the fuel. The heat exchangers c. air operated. engine driven b. 85% 157. transfer fuel from one tank to another c. guard against vapour locking 170. Continuous flow oxygen systems a. need not supply 100% oxygen 148. at all times for a flight planned above 10. MRW b.000 ft 149. are suitable for prolonged use up to 25. to allow the auxiliary tanks to top up the main tanks as fuel is drawn from the mains 171. resistance to detonation 150. fuel of the next higher octane rating c. The exhaust system of a piston engine b. the proportion of iso-octane and neoheptane blended in the fuel b. On a modern aircraft the APU is a. Ensure correct grade of fuel has been loaded 163. A jockstrap system b. The exhaust shroud of a piston engine c. Hot air c. would deliver oxygen under pressure c. The APU is normally: a. voltage regulation: a. c. c. 191. KVAR and KW. c. Not change. An alternator is: a. b. circuit which is mainly inductive: a. By altering the rotor speed. 185. a. b. Decrease. If frequency increases capacitive reactance will: a. Increase. Impedence will decrease. 176. An AC generator. 175. 174. 178. and almost lossless stepping up or down of voltage. falls to zero and then rises to a maximum in the opposite direction and falls to zero. 196. In an a. 181. Frequency is controlled by: a. 184. Between 395 and 495 Hz. and then rises in the same direction to a maximum and falls to zero. high tyre pressure. 179. c. b. A frequency of 400 cycles per second. b. c. A 400 Hz supply has: a. Whenever generators are operating in series. c. High taxi speed. Is by varying the drive rpm b. Impedence will increase. Aircraft heaters which draw on hot air from around the exhaust manifold a. Low taxi speed.173. b. b. KVA or Amps. c. b. PAGE 8 . The rotor windings. The rotor. Easy. To increase the real load taken by a paralleled AC generator. The stator. b. Generator drive torque and excitation are increased. One load meter to measure total system load b. Twice as many turns on the secondary as on the primary. Output from an AC generator is taken from: a. "generation system which is paralleled" a. In a typical aircraft constant frequency paralleled AC system the line voltage is: a. c. c. Current and voltage will be 'in phase'. c. One advantage of a main a. Paralleled AC generators will have: a. 115 volts. c. b. By increasing the real load on the other generators. Volt/Amps c. Between 350 and 450 Hz. through the excitation circuit of the generator. The moving part of the AC generator is: a. supply system is: a. Excitation current. Impedence will remain constant. The use of a lower than specified grade of fuel in an engine is likely to a. 200 volts. Half as many turns on the secondary coil as on the primary coil. b. KVA and power factor. Power factor is: a. Rises to a maximum in one direction. falls to zero. b. b. 194. A rotary switch for a de-icing system. 192. When is tyre heating most likely to occur. c. may cause carbon monoxide poisoning c. b. the: a. The frequency of aircraft constant frequency systems is maintained: a.C. b. 198. The stator windings. b. Generator excitation is increased. result in an over-lean mixture c. All generators are run off the same engine. b. Real load / Wattless load REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 193. One volt meter for each generator.c. Generator drive torque is increased. are unlikely to cause carbon monoxide (ie poisoning as exhaust gases are easily detected by smell 187. That most aircraft services require three phase supply. 208 volts. One of the advantages of three phase generation over single phase generation is: a. The exciter. A static inverter. A transformer which halves the voltage will have: a. A generator has its own constant speed drive. Voltage does not need to be changed. In a constant speed A.c. Current will lead voltage. result in detonation 186. Real load / Apparent load b. Load sharing circuits are necessary: a. That it gives lower cable weights and more compact generators. Four times as many turns on the secondary as on the primary. 195. 189. cause lead fouling of the spark plugs b. Batteries are not needed. 197. are used only in twin-engined aircraft b. c. c. Rises to a maximum in one direction and then remains constant. c. One load meter for each generator. Between 380 and 420 Hz. c. low tyre pressure. Current will lag voltage.C. 183. generator. Rises to a maximum in one direction. b. b. An impedance of 400 ohms. at: a. high tyre pressure. c. Volts/Frequency 182. That there is a more efficient conversion of mechanical energy to electrical energy. Whenever generators are operating independently c. In an A. Whenever generators are operating in parallel. Speed of rotation. All engines are run at the same rpm. The voltage of an AC generator: a. c. In a non paralleled constant frequency AC system the generator loadmeters will normally measure. 180. Is by the insertion of variable resistors into the circuit. Excitation voltage. b. Is by varying the excitation current. c. Low taxi speed. A capacity of 400 000 watts. 188. 190. Impedance is: a. c. A low reactive load on one generator is compensated for in a paralleled system: a. Apparent load / Real load c. c. b. 177. If the frequency is increased in an inductive circuit: a. Volt/Watts b. The exciter. open twice during the normal "Otto" cycle. When a generator is on line: a. b. capacitors are fitted. b. three months c. 205. 206. What is the colour of a hand held fire extinguisher? a. The valves of a four stroke piston engine will each: a. Battery state of charge must be checked every: a.C. c. Due to a minimum load. at half the speed of the crankshaft. 216. c. the battery indicates a discharge c. 201. The stator windings. To prevent a circuit overheating: a. 203. Circuit breakers are fitted: a. has low current c. Sodium Chloride. b. b. c. A hydraulic clutch. If an A. b. To vary the generator speed in proportion to load. year. Freon b. b. c. Red. c. 217. Load shedding will cause the: a. Generator circuit breaker for that generator will have opened. 213. 220. b. As the torque load increases on an induction motor it will: a. b. The CSD functions: a. An extinguisher used for Class C fires. Light Allloy b. current to reduce. D. c. b. An earth return circuit is one which: a. 225. c. The excitor. If the CSD disconnect switch is used. six months b. 218. Methyl Bromide. at the same speed as the crankshaft. 212. c. c. voltage to increase c. b. open four times during the normal "Otto" cycle 224. Speed up. The fuse wire melting. Green. c. fuses are fitted c. generator. Slow down. Re-instated in flight from the electrical supply compartment. 208. By a ram air turbine. The capacity of a battery is rated in a. volts b. A ruptured red disc on the nacelle skin of a gas turbine engine bay fire extinguisher indicates: a. A common type of fire extinuigshant in use is: a. generator control relay tripped the: a. initially excited by residual magnetism c. An APU is driven: a. 204. has a return lead for that circuit. in series with the load c. it is at correct RPM b. c. Re-instated in flight from the flight deck. to allow lubrication between the contact surface. the drive can be: a. 215. initially excited by direct current from the battery busbar b. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 PAGE 9 . Which type of fire extinguishant may be also be found on gas turbine aircraft? a. 207. To maintain constant generator speed. 210. generators are normally: a. in parallel with the load b. to allow for expansion throughout the working temperature range of the engine. 221. On an aircraft A. Generator circuit breaker for that generator trips and busbar tie breaker trips 200. Barium Oxide. Varies the turns ratio automatically to maintain a constant output voltage with varying input voltage. Fireproof bulkheads not having the benefit of cooling air are manufactured from: a. ram air is directed over major components b. Krypton 223. allows excessive current. CO2 fire extinguisher. A universal joint. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates: a. current to increase b. By an hydraulic motor. b. Titanium c. That excess pressure has been released to return it to safe limits. By its own dedicated gas turbine. The rotor. The fuse detatching from the panel.C. The extinguisher is overcharged and therefore over pressurised. Magnesium 222. Black. 219.C. c. b. in parallel with the fuses. the output is usually taken from: a. b. open once during the normal "Otto" cycle. Any fire extinguisher coloured red. A short circuit: a. initially excited by ground power. Generator circuit breaker for that generator will close. When a fuse is “popped” or “blown”. c. at twice the speed of the crankshaft. The type of fire extinguisher that would be used for an electrical fire is: a. In the event of a mechanical failure occurring in the generator the CSD is protected by: a. c. it is connected to the bus-bar. Only reinstated when the aircraft is on the ground. Quill drive. b. An auto-transformer: a. Argon c. c.199. c. has a common earth return lead for all circuits c. The extinguisher has discharged due to excess pressure. b. 202. ampere-hours. Tappet and rocker arm clearance is essential: a. 209. it is: a. to allow for valve operation by the cam. watts c. uses the aircraft structure as the return b. 211. 214. Maintain RPM. b. has high resistance b. Has only one coil which is used as both primary and secondary. To maintain a constant ratio between engine speed and generator speed. Will maintain a constant output frequency with a varying supply frequency. ram air. at the end of the power stroke. is increased by delaying the closing of the inlet valve. Valve "Dwell" is: a. requires no reserve of oil. Valve overlap occurs: a. the: a. If the fuel pressure warning light comes on in flight the: a. is normally manufactured from metallic sodium to assist with cooling. insulation of the contacts. supplied at a constant flow rate to the engine. a permanent magnet. 238. b. c. normally driven by the engine. the sump. b. c. is a relief valve excess oil pressure. of all types are lubricated by the fuel that passes through them. pressurisation. the gas temperature will be reducing. c. Excessive arcing across the contact breaker points of a magneto when the points are open is prevented by: a. self lubricating type. a separate tank. 231. b. 232. b. to ensure a gas tight seal when the valve is closed. jack ram displacement. is driven on a common shaft and has the same capacity as the scavenge pump. normally activated during high temperature engine starting. 247. c. the same speed as the engine. the period a valve remains closed. Fuel pump delivery is normally: a. 240. 234. wet sump type. 239. before returning to the sump. 251. half the speed of the engine. c. b. b. booster pumps must be isolated. b. normally activated during low temperature engine starting. c. c. c. at the end of the induction stroke. normally has a hollow head filled with sodium. When the piston of a four stroke piston engine is towards the end of the power stroke: a. 228. The compression ratio of a piston engine is the: a. maintains a reserve of oil in a separate tank. The pressure filter in a dry sump lubrication system is: a. will advance. the generator warning light fails to extinguish. a diode being fitted. main fuel pump must be isolated. compressor oil. 246. The reserve of lubricating oil of a wet sump piston engine is stored in: a. supplied at a constant pressure. b. the pipe system. b. controlled by a pressure relief valve. a condenser being fitted. b. c. on leaving the pressure pump. at the end of the exhaust stroke. c. The oil tank of a dry sump lubrication system has a space above the oil to provide for: a. b. dry sump type. b. PAGE 10 . b. The weight of charge induced into a piston engine cylinder during normal operation: a. b. located between the pressure pump and tank. Booster pumps are: a. b. fuel will be isolated in the tank. once every two revolutions of the engine. normally used for priming the engine only. c. 250. The pressure pump of a dry sump lubrication system: a. located between the scavenge pump and the tank. c. b. 233. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 245. battery current. ratio of the cylinder volume when the piston is at BDC to the cylinder volume when at TDC. Normally on most piston engines the lubrication oil of a dry sump system is cooled: a. the engine continuing to run normally. 249. 248. The magnetic field in a magneto is provided by: a. should not be run when the fuel system is dry. c. the engine stopping when the battery is totally discharged. b. fuel will continue to be drawn through the booster pump bypass by the engine driven pump. c. booster pumps must be switched on. b. once every fourth revolution of the engine. has a greater capacity than the scavenge pump. c. c. has less capacity than the scavenge pump. ignition timing: a. electrically operated. before returning to the oil tank. c. b. 241. On a four stroke engine the ignition spark will occur: a. On engine start up. variation between the volume of the combustion chamber and the swept volume. c. failure of the initial excitation of the magneto. the gas temperature will remain constant until BDC. c. c. 244. twice the speed of the engine. With increase of engine speed. is increased by closing the exhaust valve before TDC. 230. b. located after the pressure pump. b. 229. In the event of booster pump failure.226. expansion of the oil and frothing. b. c. 242. b. The oil cooler of a dry sump lubrication system is normally cooled by: a. 236. the period taken by the rocker to take up the clearance gap before operating the valve. A dry sump lubrication system: a. water. this will result in: a. 235. an excitation field circuit. Valve springs are primarily duplicated to: a. 227. The majority of aircraft piston engine lubrication systems are of the: a. to prevent the valve dropping into the cylinder in the event a spring breaks. difference in pressure generated when the piston is at BDC to that generated at TDC. c. supplied at a constant volume. c. 243. will remain constant. Fuel pumps: a. b. c. to reduce valve bounce. are normally electrically operated. c. once each revolution of the engine. normally has a hollow stem partially filled with sodium. maintains a reserve of oil in the sump. c. c. the period a valve remains open. 237. The exhaust valve of a piston engine: a. The distributor rotor on a four stroke engine rotates at: a. is reduced by closing the inlet valve after BDC. pump must be isolated and the remaining fuel in the tank transferred by the transfer pumps. b. will retard. the gas temperature will be at its highest. 252. The by-pass valve of a dry sump lubrication system is: a. b. b. 274. the engine lubrication system. The impeller of a supercharger rotates: a. remain approximately the same c. Engine temperature is normally indicated by: a. The turbocharger impeller is: a. The turbocharger impeller is situated: a. 269. ensure the valves close b. When an aircraft is inverted in flight. reduce due to the reduction in ambient temperature b. cylinder head temperature gauge. must be checked before attempting to start the engine. c. airflow from a supercharger. To prevent fuel starvation due to sudden opening of the throttle: a. prior to the fuel injector. c. must be checked at idle RPM c. the engine lubrication system b. fuel starvation of the engine may be prevented by: a. period when both inlet and exhaust valves are closed. c. A supercharger normally rotates at: a. the cylinder head temperature will: a. 258. An alternative name sometimes given to the choke is the: a. the engine lubrication system temperature gauge. A slight increase of power of a supercharged engine up to its rated altitude is due to: a. airflow from a compressor bleed. baffles. b. air deflection plates. the timing being retarded. 254. c. 262. 275. b. intake controller. the power jet. b.253. 277. a self contained oil system. 279. venturi. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 267. c. boost reversal b. Piston engine hydraulicing: a. the indicated pressure in the inlet manifold between the impeller and the inlet valves. the pressure indicated in the supercharger. At low engine RPM. driven by intake ram air. 256. 268. hot air from the cooling system. increase b. 263. 278. the engine master temperature gauge. at the rear of the engine. grease packs c. as the piston descends the cylinder the temperature will: a. remain relatively constant. Piston engine valve 'dwell' is the: a. ensure a gas tight seal when the valves are closed. 260. at the front of the engine. the pressure balance duct is fitted. 271. The supercharger is normally positioned: a. at the side of the engine. ten times engine crankshaft RPM. the indicated pressure in the inlet prior to the carburettor. c. b. temperature is controlled by a thermostat. c. 280. 272. the accelerator pump is fitted. the engine hydraulic system. An over-rich mixture on starting a piston engine may be due to: a. In a liquid cooled engine cooling system: a. air is ducted through drillings in the cylinder head walls. b. 259. before the carburettor. oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the engine is running. oil leaking past the piston rings b. b. The supercharger main bearings are lubricated by: a. c. PAGE 11 . During the power stroke of a piston engine. The camshaft of a piston engine normally rotates at: a. an increase in the weight of charge entering the cylinders due to temperature reduction. 264. the same speed as the crankshaft c. obtain a close fit with the cam face c. half the speed of the engine crankshaft. after the carburettor. The supercharger is normally located: a. grease packs. nine to ten times the speed of the engine crankshaft. Piston engine hydraulicing is caused by: a. contaminated fuel c. Carburettor anti-icing is normally provided by: a. b. c. twice the crankshaft RPM b. hot oil from the engine lubrication system. the enrichment jet is fitted. c. 255. period a valve remains open b. twice the speed of the crankshaft. a rich mixture. can be ignored on inverted engines b. b. c. twice the speed of the engine. a reduction in air density resulting in a richer mixture c. b. period between valve overlap c. a stand tube. b. 266. Manifold boost pressure is: a. b. oil leaking into the combustion chambers when the engine is static c. The purpose of valve springs are to: a. spray mat heater elements. 257. ram air. four times the engine RPM c. b. entering the cylinders b. butterfly. cowl gills. b. temperature is controlled by a master pump. b. driven by exhaust gases. between the carburettor and the inlet manifold. excessive oil pressure in the engine lubrication system b. In an air-cooled piston engine: a. fins are incorporated to increase the cylinder and head surface areas. Air is directed over the cylinder wall fins by: a. b. decrease c. fuel is used to cool the coolant. in the exhaust system. half the speed of the crankshaft b. 270. c. the hand priming pump plunger in the out position c. 265. c. the carburettor balance duct. c. in the exhaust manifold. b. 276. increase due to the increased weight of charge. mounted on the same shaft as the turbine. due to the reduction in temperature. air is used to cool the cooling oil. a slight increase in the volume of charge. c. Turbocharger main bearings are lubricated by: a. black smoke from the exhaust of a piston engine may indicate: a. 273. As a supercharged engine climbs to high altitude. Cooling air is normally provided by: a. c. 261. c. c. An area of high pressure is found. Lengthen the take off distance because the air is less dense.S. Remain unaffected. In the choke tube area of the fuel nozzle: a. the aircraft hydraulic system. 307. an increase in humidity would: a. There is no difference in pressure. the service ceiling would: a. 303. b. fully open b. When a supercharged engine reaches its rated altitude with the throttle valve fully open. Total moments will remain the same. If the landing gear of an aeroplane moves forward during retraction the: a. rise.281. Increase. Maintain the engine at a constant RPM. c. 304. b. Coarse pitch is selected to give maximum cooling airflow. 302. c. b. Decrease the diameter. is heated to prevent congealing of the oil. 288. The blade angle is: a. Decrease. A variable pitch constant speed propeller: a. 282. The maximum flap operating speed. Synchronizing of propellers is based on: a. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to propeller pitch. RPM lever set to high. The leading edge of the blade faces forward. If a leak occurs in the exhaust system of a turbo-charged piston engine prior to the turbine: a. A propeller’s ability to absorb power may be improved by: a. fully closed. b. A turbo-charger's main bearings are lubricated by: a. The same as the angle of attack. When flying in low temperatures conditions: a. 296. When piston-engined V. critical height will be increased b. b. b. With an increase in temperature. b. c. Extra fine pitch is selected to increase cooling airflow to the engine. 290. When engine starting is initiated the waste gate of a turbocharger will be: a. The throttle of the engine should be fully closed first. c. Shorten the take-off distance because the air is less dense. b. b.U. b. c. An area of low pressure is found. boost control lever c. Loss of oil pressure in the C. b. The helix angle is: a. 301. on start up the boost pressure will a. Equal to the angle of attack plus blade incidence angle.U operation should be kept to a minimum.P propeller is to be feathered: a. 292. the waste gate b. The feathering switch should be first operated.U. On a supercharged engine.U should be exercised periodically to prevent the oil congealing. b. c. Cancelling out the gyroscopic effect and increasing the torque. Extra fine pitch is selected to reduce the load on the engine. c. c. the waste gate will fail to close as altitude is increased c. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 294. b. a self contained lubrication system c. If the atmospheric pressure and temperature remain the same. remain constant c. Maintain the propeller at a constant RPM. b. 289. The use of counter-rotating propellers has the effect of: a. b. The pitch is controlled on a constant speed variable pitch propeller: a. increase RPM allowing further altitude to be gained b. The C. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance.S.U. c. The angle of advance. Decrease. The ignition of the engine should be switched off first. 305. 291. Equal to the angle of advance plus the helix angle. c. the throttle valve. The maximum landing gear extended speed. Increase the solidity. wastegate of a turbo-charger is: opened by spring pressure opened by oil pressure opened by electric actuator. All propellers develop the same thrust. The C. The airspeed that a pilot would be unable to identify by the colour coding of an ASI is: a. Total moments will increase. Prior to engine starting: a. b. partially open c. be lost motion. Cancelling out the gyroscopic and toque effect. PAGE 12 . 297. b. fall b. All rotate at the same speed. By the throttle.S. Equal to the angle of advance plus the incidence angle. Eliminates the need for constant adjustment to engine RPM. density altitude will: a. 293. b. As air density decreases. c. A supercharger's output is normally controlled by: a. c. 306. c. c. By the C. All propellers are set to the same pitch angle. The angle of advance of a propeller is: a. Increase. 284. The trailing edge of the blade faces forward. c. 300. 295. In the feathered position: a. c. Remain unaffected. 283. Lengthen the take off distance because the air is more dense. Increasing the gyroscopic effect and the torque.S. the waste gate will close normally as altitude increases. increase boost c.S. any further opening of the throttle in the cockpit will: a. The same as the helix angle. b. 287. b. The C. By the RPM lever. The a. 285. Excessive oil pressure in the C. 299. A variable pitch constant speed propeller is designed primarily to: a. Eliminates the need for constant changes to mixture setting. Overspeeding of the propeller in flight may be the result of: a. Maintain the propeller at a constant thrust. The thrust face faces forward.S. Total moments will decrease. 298. The same as the blade angle.U. The never exceed speed. Decrease the solidity. the engine lubrication system b. c. b. c. c. Equal to the angle of attack plus the angle of advance. 286. At sea level. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition. The ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower. throttle. b. Used to get rid of excess fuel after an aborted start. Which of the aircraft mentioned has the highest stalling angle? a. 330. c. Fitted around the propeller intakes. 332. To compensate for the reduced vertical lift component. Left around the vertical axis and right around the longitudinal axis. Timing the run-down to check for structural failure. Pneumatic boots that are used for de-icing are: a. Throttle. mixture. Aircraft B has a span of 80 ft and a chord of 10 ft. b. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 326. b. 323. b. Leans the mixture. c. The system used to supply an aircraft instrument that operates on alternating current is: a. Manoeuvrability. c. To switch systems on and off. An alternator that is mechanically driven by the engine. c. To prevent the battery from being overcharged. b. Refer to the previous question.7. PAGE 13 . b. The use of fuel with an incorrect octane rating may lead to: a. Prevent spiral instability. c. the Manifold Pressure Gauge will read: a. tends to turn the aircraft: a. Vent excess temperature. c. Electrical power of a battery is measured by: a. What is the reason for the twist in the propeller? a. RPM. Amp/hr. Propeller efficiency is defined as: a.25 hPa. (generators). The number of cells in the battery. Decrease. c. 7000 lbs. c. Design requirement to keep the centrifugal twist axis in the centre. The purpose of the reverse current cut-out switch in the electrical system is: a. c. c. To prevent overloading of a system. Magnets. Right around the vertical axis and left around the longitudinal axis. The voltage. it: a. RPM. RPM. A. 312. The ratio of shaft horsepower to brake horsepower. How much does 100 Imp Gal of fuel weigh? a. To compensate for the reduced horizontal lift component. 334. The SG of AVGAS is 0. 319. Static pressure. 1013. c. 328.M. Aircraft C has a span of 48 ft and a chord of 4 ft. A battery. Reduce adverse aileron yaw. 329. b. A transformer. Detonation. Minimum power speed. b. Fitted on the leading edge of the wing. The load capacity of a battery is measured in: a. 315. 320. b. Puts more air into the mixture. c. b.92”. c. To switch off the generator. c. When the turbine section explodes after overspeeding. B. b. when disturbed from a condition of steady flight. c. An inverter. b. c. C and B. 29. The venturi. A higher manifold pressure. The ratio of brake horsepower to thrust horsepower. Amps/hr. b. 318. is know as: a. butterfly valve and manifold. b. b. 70 lbs.F. 327. Is burning oil. The angle of attack is increased during a turn: a. Fitted on the leading edge of the wing and stabilisers. Pre-ignition. 311. The engine air intake. The correct method of increasing power on an aircraft fitted with a constant speed propeller is: a. B and C. To cancel out the effect of the high speed near the tips. 313. Improve lateral stability. b. To see how much power a system requires.308. Has incorrect timing. When carburettor heating is used. b. A crankshaft with counter balances can be damaged by: a. To compensate for increased aeroplane drag. Blow out excess oil. b. c. b. c. Left around the vertical axis and left around the longitudinal axis. c. E. When the weight of the aircraft is increased the stalling speed will: a. Full throttle height. c. To prevent the battery from losing its charge by driving the generator. When flying for endurance an aircraft must be flown at: a. To keep the propeller flying at the most efficient angle at all sections. throttle. b. Mixture. 314. Stability. Which aircraft has the highest aspect ratio and which aircraft has the lowest aspect ratio? a. c. Carburettor icing. Ohm. When the aircraft exhaust smoke is blue. c. C. b. 331. b. Operating the engine with too rich a mixture. 324. c. c. Aircraft A has a span of 50 ft and a chord of 6 ft. 322. Volts. The intake manifold only. Remain the same. 309. b. Has a too rich a mixture. A magneto obtains its current from: a. 310. 325. it means the aircraft: a. b. c. 321. Relieve excess sump pressure. Controllability. Minimum drag speed. 700 lbs. b. 316. A tailwheel aircraft with a propeller turning clockwise as viewed from the cockpit. c. The breather pipe on an engine is used to: a. 317. Increase b. mixture. 333. Closing and opening the throttle in rapid succession. Richens the mixture. c. Carburettor icing occurs at: a. b. The “blow-out” process on turbine engines is: a. A and B. Differential ailerons are installed to: a. Circuit breakers are installed in aircraft: a. c. The absolute ceiling is: a. You should use plastic containers. c. The temperature only peaks. b. Pre-ignition. The temperature of the fuel has no effect. b. Drop in Manifold Pressure. c. 342. c. The amount of fuel entering the inlet manifold is reduced. c. c. b. Operation of the mixture control to the lean position controls: a. b. 349. when the MP is reduced: a. Conditions favourable for the formation of icing: a. 345. 338. c. Twenty-four cells. Provide less electrical power. 348. The most electrical power is supplied by: a. 356. Minimum speed is less than the maximum speed. the lowest value would indicate: a. 344. Constant pressure. The most likely immediate effect of using fuel of too low an octane rating is: a. Absorption of water into aviation fuel is more likely: a. The generator. With large variations of the position of the centre of pressure. 362. The velocity of the gases through the turbine can be very high: a. Carburettor icing on an engine with a variable pitch propeller can be noticed by: a. The maximum level an aircraft can attain full throttle. c. On a turbocharged aircraft the turbocharger is powered by: a. The amount of air entering the inlet manifold is increased. A twenty-four volt lead acid battery would have: a. b. Provide more power at lower rpm. With reference to aircraft fitted with constant speed propellers. c. Constant volume. Bond the aircraft to the fuel nozzle. A suction pump supplies vacuum to: a. c. In relation to a generator an alternator will: a. Height of the aircraft. b. c. Drop in RPM. With small movements of the centre of pressure. b. High temperature and high humidity. Kgs/cu metre. To eliminate the risk of fire when refuelling: a. 357. Minimum speed is more than the maximum speed. The amount of air entering the inlet manifold is reduced PAGE 14 . The electrical motor. Fuel burn rate. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 351. Combustion in a gas turbine engine occurs at: a. Oil and air. VSI. At 40 amps for 10 hours. b. 360. On the power available/power required versus TAS graph. b. The battery. c. Nineteen cells. Drop in RPM AND Manifold Pressure. 340. b. 355. fuel truck. Have an earth lead between ground. b. An increase in temperature will cause an increase in density. Mass of the aircraft. c. Speed for range. b. DC generator. The main load carrying part of the wing structure is: a. 352.335. Six cells. In hot fuel. b. The temperature and RPM peaks. c. The level at which the aircraft can only climb at 100 ft/min. b. ASI. At 4 amps for 10 hours. b. b. Because of the high temperature and speed of sound. DI and Turn Indicator. Pre-ignition. b. Minimum drag. b. c. The level beyond which the aircraft cannot climb. fuel nozzle and the aircraft. Steel springs. b. Detonation. c. 361. Magnets. 339. c. A twenty-four volt Nicad battery would probably have: a. The rib. b. c. c. High humidity and low temperature. c. b. The blade angle decreases. Turn indicator and DI. In level flight the balance of forces is affected by: a. The blade angle increases. 353. Speed for endurance. The strength of the wing structure will have to be greater: a. Twenty-four cells. Detonation. Twelve cells. c. 359. c. Minimum speed I equal to the maximum speed. c. With cold fuel. Rubber blocks or bunjees. b. Choose the correct statement: a. AH and DI. c. The spar. Density is measured in: a. 358. On an EGT gauge the mixture is set at lean when: a. 350. b. An increase in humidity will cause a decrease in density. The operation of an oleo leg is based on: a. c. Weigh more and be bigger. 346. 336. c. A battery rated for 40 amps/hr means it will operate for: a. Pounds per square metre. 343. 347. b. An increase in humidity will cause an increase in density. The leading edge. Because they are supersonic. Because of the speed of sound being low. Overheating. At 10 amps for 40 hours. Exhaust gases. AC generator. The blade angle remains the same. The centre of pressure has no effect on wing strength. Constant velocity. A cool running engine. b. AC/DC generator with TR unit. b. Twelve cells. b. b. 341. An aircraft magneto depends on the following to generate electrical power: a. c. The engine. At the absolute ceiling the: a. Too low an octane rating (anti-clock value) can cause: a. 354. High temperature and low humidity. c. Hectopascals. 337. The temperature and RPM have peaked and then 2 units richer. In a pressurized aircraft you are cruising at Flight Level 290 and are at Maximum Differential. The axial flow. b. b. c. The Pressure pump. Low r. The push rod.p. – throttle. 381. During the exhaust stroke. c. 388.T. For lubricating the accessory gearbox. 376. Causing the engine to run roughly. 366. About 20° before T. Throttle – mixture – r. 379. 380. b.T.C. c. Stopping the engine. – throttle – mixture. In a piston engine the spark would occur: a. c. Using too rich a mixture. The correct procedure would be to: a. The float and diffuser. To obtain best efficiency and effective fuel consumption with a constant speed propeller the best setting would be: a. c. detonation is suspected. A centrifugal first stage and an axial flow second stage. Only the fuel injection engine is affected by impact icing. The possible cause was a blocked fuel tank vent. c. Increase rate of climb. c. Mass balance on an aileron is used: a. b. A horizontally opposed engine. Pre-ignition. To eliminate flutter. the probable cause would be: a.C. R.m. c. The type of reciprocating aero-engine which could use a wet sump would be: a. 370. The tappet. b.m. Piston engines and turbine engines. Comparing a carburettor engine to a fuel injection engine: a.m. Lift off after his lift off point and stay below his flight path. Valve overlap occurs between: a. 387. b. The compression stroke and the power stroke. Aileron reversal is most likely to occur: a.p. At very low speeds. A radial engine. An ignition system in which spark can be lethal is used on: a. The flow of fuel from the tank to the carburettor is controlled by: a.363. The Scavenge pump. The exhaust stroke. c. The enrichment jet. b. – mixture. Mixture – r. Aircraft ignition systems have the following characteristics: a. Low r. During the induction stroke. The H. You must: a. The oil pump which has greater the capacity is: a. Increase the cabin altitude.T. b. During the power stroke. In a piston engine ignition occurs during: a. During operation of a reciprocating engine the piston is travelling up a. After about 20 minutes flight with full tanks the engine stops but restarts immediately after selection of another tank: a. The induction stroke and the power stroke. The exhaust stroke and induction stroke. c. High r. Throttle – r.p. 369. b. c.m.p. c. 372. At very high speeds. 373. b.m. Turbine engines only. 385.C. b. To assist the pilot in moving the controls.D. Detonation. Using fuel of too low an octane value. c.m. would be prevented by: a. b. To avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a heavy aircraft it is best to: a. c.D. b. c. The Scavenge and Pressure pumps must have the same capacity. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 383. The rocker arm. A rich idling mixture. Increase the cabin altitude by at least 4000 ft.p. 371. c. For lubricating the big end and main bearings. c. b. Mixture – r. system requires suppressors and is more likely to cause radio interference. 375. 368. The part of the valve gear which absorbs the wear from the cam is: a. Entering a climb from cruise flight the correct sequence is: a. b. To prevent aileron drag.p. Va. Reduce RPM. For lubricating the cylinder walls. b. b. The power stroke. system requires only a light harness. PAGE 15 . c.p. Lift off before his lift off point and stay downwind of his flight path. The main jet. A breakage or disconnection of the magneto earth wire will have the effect of: a. (fine pitch) for take-off. 377. c. The accelerator pump. b. Lift off before his rotate point and stay upwind of his flight path. 20° after T. b. Vso. system uses a light harness and a transformer coil. 382. 374. 378.m. Using fuel of too high an octane rating. 364. Throttle – r. Make it impossible to stop the engine by switching off ignition.p. The compression stroke c. The axial flow first stage and a centrifugal second stage. – mixture. You wish to climb to Flight Level 300. b. c. Decrease the cabin altitude by at least 4000 ft. An inverted in-line engine. 365. b. 384. Reduce speed. Only the fuel injection engine is affected by fuel evaporation icing. b. (course pitch) for take-off. b. The speed at which full deflection of the flight controls can be made is: a.m. High pressure oil is required in a piston engine: a. 367.m. The L. b. c. – throttle. b. A loss of power when opening the throttle from Idle to 1500 r. c. At large angles of attack. b. c. (high pitch) when cruising. If the cylinder head temperature and oil temperature are unusually high. The L. The jet engine compressor which provides the biggest frontal areas is: a. c. When establishing climb power after take-off the correct sequence: a. The needle valve and float. Piston engines only.p.m.D. About 20° after T. 386.p. During a climb in an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller. c. Both are affected by impact icing. Vmd. A reservoir. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative airflow is known as the angle of: a. A stringer. 414. The angle of incidence. Pitching and is controlled with the elevator. b. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the: a. The toe brakes. 406. Wingspan to the wing root. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 404. c. b. an aircraft will rotate around its: a. During a change in pitch attitude. b. 407. 393. Class C fires. Perpendicular to the airflow. b. The best way to determine the pro-charge pressure in an hydraulic accumulator is to operate the following service until the pressure drops: a. Opposite to the relative airflow. c. c. Greater than atmospheric pressure. 397. and increase drag. Aspect ratio of the wing is defined as: a. c. Its brittleness. c. 408. c. b. 405. c. c. the pressure along the upper surface of the wing should be: a. PAGE 16 . b. A former 399. b. During a change in bank. b. 400. The rate-rate system. During flight. 396. the pilot would be prevented from engaging by: a. A bi-metal lie type switch. Centre of gravity and longitudinal axis. Pump the brakes to allow cooling periods. Attack. c. The angle between the chord of an airfoil and its direction of motion relative to the air is known as: a. Dihedral. Rotation about the longitudinal axis is known as: a. A gear type of pump. Class A fires. During flight with a zero angle of attack. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing. b. A decrease in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing. Centre of pressure and longitudinal axis. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing. c. 401. if a change is made in pitch attitude. A hydraulically operated control system. b. A wet start. The lift produced by an airfoil is the force produced: a. 413. A vane type of pump. c. Centre of gravity. c. 398. The dihedral angle. b. Equal to atmospheric pressure. b. 395. b. b. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as: a. 390. c. A hung start. Emergency gear operation. Less than atmospheric pressure. an aircraft will rotate around its: a. the best way to use the brakes would be: a. c. 411. b. b. In a modern automatic pilot system if one of the modes were inoperative. Yawing and is controlled with rudder. Emergency flap operation. Centre of gravity and lateral axis. The flaps. b. Use maximum braking as soon as possible after touch down. Emergency brakes. c. A diaphragm type pump. The most suitable property for a metal used to construct fairings would be: a. b. Longitudinal dihedral. Midpoint of the datum line. c. The main longitudinal member in a Truss type of fuselage construction would be: a. c. Centre of gravity and longitudinal axis. b. Centre of gravity. Square of the chord to the wingspan. A Hydraulic jack. 392. The lubricating system of a piston engine normally uses the following type of pump: a. b. A longeron. A fire wire or live wire system c. With reference to angle of attack: a. c. Yawing and is controlled with the rudder. 391. 409. When operating the wheel brake system when stopping distance is important. c. Manual reversion is possible on: a. Class B fires. The angle of attack. Its toughness. 412. b. Centre of pressure. 394. 410. Halfway between the chord line and the relative airflow. The angle between the chord line of a wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is known as the angle of: a. The most modern fire detection system uses: a. b. c. The three axis of the aircraft intersect at the: a. b. and decrease drag. Rolling and is controlled with the rudder. Rolling and is controlled with the ailerons. Centre of pressure and lateral axis. Fires originating in electrically powered equipment are classified as: a. c. Centre of gravity and lateral axis.389. Rolling and is controlled with the ailerons. Its malleability. The hydraulic service usually provided by the accumulator is: a. Centre of lift. A hot start. b. A thermo-couple warning system. Reduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air over a curved surface and acting perpendicular to the mean surface. An accumulator. Wait until the speed has dropped to below 100kts and then use maximum braking. and increase drag. When a jet engine starts normally but fails to accelerate above 30% r. c. c. b. A hydraulically assisted control system. The undercarriage. Centre of pressure. c. b.p.m. Force produced perpendicular to the relative airflow. Incidence. Force produced perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. Attack. A cable operated control system. c. it is called: a. The unit which is usually used in a hydraulic system to operate the various services is called: a. 402. The manual reversion system. Wingspan to the mean aerodynamic chord. The interlock system. Incidence. 403. an aircraft will rotate around its: a. The point on the aerofoil through which lift acts is called the: a. lift is greater than weight. When entering a turn. The primary function of rudder. b. When the angle of attack of an airfoil is increased from 1º to 8º the centre of pressure will: a. c. In order to maintain altitude whilst decreasing speed the pilot should: a. The reason a light general aviation aeroplane tends to nose down during power reductions. Be four times greater. lift is greater equal to weight. b. The angle of attack at which the aircraft stalls: a. The angle of attack is increased. Control yawing about the vertical axis. 3000 lb c. Remain the same. trim tabs must be adjusted: a. b. b. 435. 417. the primary function of rudder is to: a. b. Both lift and drag of an aerofoil are: a. 433. b. 423. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for decreasing lift. If power is increased (airspeed constant). c. c. b. c. If the angle of attack remains the same but the airspeed is doubled. b. Regarding the use of rudder in conventional aircraft to compensate for the effects of torque: a. Varies directly with the degree of bank. b. Load factor. b. c. is that the: a. Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached. c. 434. Is dependant upon the speed of the airflow over the wings. Exceeding the critical angle of pitch. Weight. b. Which statement is true relating to factors which produce stalls: a. the angle of attack which results in a stall: a. Frost on an aircraft’s wings will have the effect on an aircraft’s performance of: a. c. c. left rudder pressure must be added. The critical angle of attack is reached at a higher IAS. 427. Thrust line acts horizontally and above the force of drag. and air density. 429. In the opposite direction to the primary control surfaces they affect. c. b. angle of attack. c. Is a function of speed and density altitude. right rudder pressure must be added. Assume the aircraft is cruising at 100 mph and creating 1000 lb of drag. Centre of pressure is located forward of the centre of gravity. Operating at high airspeeds. In such a direction as to remain flush with the primary control surfaces they affect. Double. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 436. c. Decreasing the lift and decreasing the drag. b. b. 419. 420.415. True airspeed. while entering a turn from straight and level flight. Remains constant regardless of bank. is to: a. To produce the desired effect. If the airspeed of an aircraft is doubled but the angle of attack is held constant. In the same direction as the primary control surfaces they affect. If power is reduced (airspeed constant). Turbulent air causes an increase in stall speed because: a. Total lift has decreased. Overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the higher wing. b. Load factor. Is a function of speed and density altitude. Developing lift. Centre of gravity. Proportional to the square of the velocity (V²) of the relative airflow. load factor. 421. 422. Prevent the aircraft from rolling about the longitudinal axis. Inversely proportional to the area of the wing. right rudder pressure must be added. No problem for pilots of light aircraft. Design of the wing. For a given aerofoil. the total drag would be increased to: a. c. Move aft. The stalling angle of attack depends upon the speed of the airflow over the wings. 424. Angle of attack. Exceeding the critical angle of attack. c. 432. 437. Overcome the yaw caused by the raised aileron on the higher wing. Overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the lower wing. b. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight. Allow the aircraft to pitch about its lateral axis. Increasing the lift and decreasing the drag. Thrust is greater than drag. Which of the following statements generally describes the relationship of the forces acting on an aircraft that is climbing at a constant airspeed and at a constant power: a. The hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is: a. Using high power settings. load factor or airspeed. Move forward. Will remain constant regardless of gross weight. c. PAGE 17 . In all aircraft stalls are caused by: a. Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than weight. c.. weight. The critical angle of attack has decreased. b. Aerodynamic centre. Centre of pressure. and power. b. 416. th eparasite drag will: a. c. because in the turn: a. An aircraft in a steep-banked turn stalls at a higher IAS than it does with the wings level. Varies with the speed of airflow around the airfoil. 425. b. 431. Centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of pressure. 428. The TAS is abruptly increased. c. Total thrust is equal to total drag. c. If airspeed is decreased (power constant). b. What determines the angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls: a. and power. The load factor is suddenly decreased. 430. b. c. A loss of airspeed. Thrust is greater than drag. then increase the angle of attack. Remain unaffected. 2000 lb 426. Frost covering the upper surface of an aerofoil will usually cause: a. b. 4000 lb b. c. total lift is equal to total weight. Decreasing the lift and increasing the drag. The aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal. c. c. Proportional to the increases and decreases in the velocity of the relative airflow. 418. The aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal. Indicated stall speed is affected by: a. Coarsen the blade angle. Will produce a large angle of attack with respect to its relative airflow. Blade angle consists of helix angle and angle of attack. Decreased lift and increased drag. Vortex operation begins with the initiation of the take-off roll. 459. Vortices tend to remain level for a period of time. Added to the total weight of the aircraft. When establishing a climb. c. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence: a. 448. if speed is increased and the power setting is constant. 440. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 450. b. Will produce a low slipstream velocity. Low pitch blade angle. Permit a safer take-off over high obstructions. Fowler flaps. 445. The blade angle of a propeller will: a. Angle of incidence of the blade. b. the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and: a. Be greater at 70% radius. Which statement is true regarding the use of flaps during turns: a. the constant speed propeller should be set at a propeller blade angle which: a. To establish a climb after take-off in an aircraft equipped with a constant speed propeller. The effect of flaps is to: a. Be greater at the tip. Helix angle consists of blade angle and angle of attack. the propeller blade angle will: a. c. c. Increasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. Remain constant. 451. Wing loading of an aircraft is determined by a value which is the: a. Torque. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach will: a. Torque. the load factor would: a. c. Will produce a small angle of attack with respect to its relative airflow. the probability of induced roll increases when the encountering aircraft’s: a. PAGE 18 . Gross weight divided by the span. b. More torque than lift and less thrust than drag. b. 455. Slotted flaps. And this aircraft should not be flown with this gross weight. Ratio of the wing area to the horsepower. Decreased pressure on the flat side of the blade and increased pressure on the curved side. 446. Decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. c. Which is correct of the following statements: a. Manifold pressure. Shape and angle of attack of the blade. 570 lb above maximum permissible and this aircraft should not be flown with this gross weight. Gross weight of the aircraft divided by the wing area. c. Mixture. Fine the blade angle. 2650 lb. b. 447. Yield load. Drag. b. 449. 452. Air deflection produced by a rotating propeller causes dynamic pressure on the engine side of the propeller to be greater than atmospheric pressure. 458. 460. Split flaps. In relation to an aerofoil the propeller provides: a. The addition of flaps increases the stall speed. mixture and then manifold pressure. 454. Small angle of attack and high RPM. b. 457. b. b. b. Load factor. c. b. b. And flown in turbulence creating a 3. Centrifugal twisting moment. Attitude is higher than that of the generating aircraft. b. The use of flaps will produce: a. Thrust. c. c. Aerodynamic twisting moment. propeller thrust is the result of the: a. Aerodynamically. c. Load factor is the actual weight supported by the wings at any given moment: a. b. a constant speed propeller should be set to a blade angle which will produce a: a. c. Improve the Lift/Drag ratio at small flap settings. Decrease when the airspeed decreases. the proper sequence of engine control adjustment is to increase: a. The force tending to twist a propeller blade of a constant speed propeller to fine pitch is: a. when maximum power and thrust are required. above maximum permissible and this aircraft should not be flown with this gross weight. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced lift. Large angle of attack and high RPM. Divided by the normal weight of the aircraft. 442. Angle of attack equals helix angle. More thrust and less torque than lift and drag. Increase control-effectiveness at slow airspeeds. Be greatest at the root. RPM. Using a constant flap setting and varying the bank has no effect on the stall speed. If wake turbulence is encountered. c. If this aircraft was loaded to a gross weight of 2650 lb. 461. During take-off.8. And a load factor of 3. With a CSU. c. Heading is aligned with the flight path of the generating aircraft. what air load would be imposed upon its structure? a. Increased lift and decreased drag. 150 lb. c.8 load factor. Permits approaches in aircraft with a good L/D ratio. The lowering of flaps decreases the stalling angle except with: a. b. Improve the Lift/Drag ratio. If the angle of bank were held constant and the airspeed varied. b. followed by RPM and then mixture. c. c. b. The addition of flaps decreases the stall speed. c. Provide steeper gliding angle. Spoil the Lift/Drag ratio. Airspeed is slower than that of the generating aircraft. Increased lift and increased drag. Assume an aircraft is certified with a maximum gross weight of 2500 lb.438. b. 443. c. The primary function of flap is to: a. 441. c. To develop maximum power and thrust. b. 444. Large angle of attack and low RPM. Power loading. 453. b. Increase the angle of descent with increasing airspeed. c. Vary depending on the rate of turn. Decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. b. c. b. Less thrust and more torque than lift and drag. The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing and the gross weight in flight is known as: a. Decrease the angle of descent with increasing power. c. Multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft. 439. c. 456. c. b. b. thus generating: a. followed by RPM and then manifold pressure. Vortex generators. 485.462. the lighter the aircraft. c. Aileron drag. 66 Knots. An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in: a. b. an increase in airspeed will result in: a. b. c. Under the bottom surface. The characteristics which would improve lateral stability are: a. the rate of turn is varied. When taking off with an obstacle ahead the best speed to use for the initial climb would be: a. during a level turn. b. c. b. 477. The type of drag which decreases with increase in speed is: a. Which statement is true if.5 G 467.5 G b. 482. The lower the airspeed the less the rate of turn for a specific bank angle. 465. High speed. Is directly related to the aircraft’s gross weight. Angle of attack and airspeed. A steady Rate 1 turn. Mass balance. Constant load factor regardless of changes in angle of bank. b. The additional load imposed on the wings during a level coordinated turn in smooth air is dependent on the: a. b. A level turn. A decrease in turn radius. At a constant power setting the rate of climb of an aircraft is greater when the wings are level than when in a climbing turn because. low centre of gravity. During take-off. b. If. the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a co-ordinated constant altitude turn: a. Vx b. Induced drag. the rate of turn is kept constant. Wing loading is greater. Is constant. c. Need to decrease the angle of bank to maintain the same rate of turn. b. b. Varies with the rate of turn. Remain constant. b. the faster the rate and the smaller the radius of turn. An increase in airspeed results in an increase in radius. To be suitable for supersonic flight an aerofoil should have: a. A slipping right turn. A climbing turn. 484. Interference drag. c. It is not necessary to hold off bank in: a. Rate of turn. The same distance in still air conditions. In a constant altitude co-ordinated turn. High angle of attack. For a specific angle of bank and airspeed. In a steady climb. b. c. 483. or adverse yaw. 466. An increase in the radius of turn. A laminar flow section. b. Forward centre of gravity. b. b.0 G c. b. 0. The vectors shown below indicate: a. Va c. Longitudinal dihedral. c. 463. b. large keel surface. Form drag. c. What is the stall speed of an aircraft under a load factor of 2 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 80 knots? a. low centre of gravity. the load factor would: a. Vy 486. dihedral. c. 1. An increase in airspeed results in a decrease in radius. Centrifugal force and gravity. b. 476. A skidding right turn. c. c. Centre of lift is nearer the trailing edge. For a given angle of bank. A wing would be called polymorphic if fitted with: a. 468. the load factor imposed on an aircraft is the result of: a. Increasing the airspeed while maintaining a constant load factor during a level co-ordinated turn would result in: a. Which statement is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an aircraft in a co-ordinated turn at a constant altitude? a. 84 Knots. The same radius of turn. Servo tab balance. c. 479. b. Further in a tail wind. is most likely at: a. If. 120 Knots. c. A decrease in airspeed results in an increase in radius. A gliding turn. A very sharp leading edge. Angle of bank. 112 Knots. c. b. 469. c. A skidding left turn. c. 473. For any specific angle of bank and airspeed. while holding the angle of bank constant. The type of control balance used to oppose flutter is: a. 471. c. 1. c. A well rounded leading edge. High keel surface. At the trailing edge. The effect of inertia moment would be increased with: a. Vary depending upon airspeed. Vertical lift component is greater. The increase in load factor that would take place if the angle of bank were increased from 60º to 70º is: a. b. b. c. when level. Rate of turn and airspeed. The first shock wave on an aerofoil approaching the speed of sound occurs: a. 475. Inset hinge balance. Split flaps. More slowly in a head wind. c. Sweepback. Need to increase the angle of bank to maintain the same rate of turn. Fowler flaps. the rate and radius of turn will not vary. 472. Increase if the speed is increased. the: a. 470. b. Centre of gravity well aft. c. A heavy aircraft in relation to a lighter aircraft of the same type will glide: a. high centre of gravity. c. 480. b. 74 Knots. anhedral. 478. On the top surface. the load factor was kept constant: a. 464. 474. 90 Knots. Centre of pressure well aft. during a level co-ordinated turn. 481. Low angle of attack. c. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 PAGE 19 . What is the stall speed of an aircraft under a load factor of 2 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots? a. True airspeed. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 505. 488. In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by: a. Total Drag. Lift available over lift required. When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the: a. d. Profile Drag. In a gas turbine engine. In a single spool gas turbine engine. When starting a turbo-jet engine: a. Internal mass airflow divided by the external mass airflow. 1. c. while holding the angle of bank constant. the rate of turn is increased. Independent of turbine rpm. c. The dividing line between Laminar Flow and Turbulent Flow around an aerofoil is known as: a. Eliminating both gyroscopic and toque effects. c. heated via a heat exchanger. thrust increases. c. Temperature increases d. b. 496. velocity 506. For a fan jet engine. Reduces with increasing height. b. Remain the same. b. 489. b. Apart from warning devices the aerodynamic warning of the approaching stall is: a. b. Increases in volume. Pressure rises and velocity falls. The difference between RAS and EAS is: a. c. An aft centre of gravity. 491. Increasing gyroscopic effect but reducing torque effect. Flows directly onto the turbine blades. take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to: a. Thermal expansion. PAGE 20 . which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary. c. Induced Drag. c. 497. To be longer because of the lower density. An excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot start. The attitude of the aircraft. 493. Blade creep. Turbo compressors. 504. b. Contra rotating propellers have the effect of: a. c. b. 1225 gms/cubic metre 495. c. 510. The APU. b. TURBINE ENGINES 502. c. c. d. b. Is directed onto the turbine by the nozzle guide vanes. Reynolds Number. pressure c. 507. Vary depending on speed. c. 498. The effect of size when considering aerodynamic force is allowed for by: a. Within the combustion chambers the burned fuel/air mixture: a. 512. 499. Low aspect ratio. As air density increases. To be unaffected because it is not given in the take-off performance graph. Reduces in volume. Increases with reduced density. Skin Friction Drag. c. When considering gas turbine engine performance. The engine should start between 60 to 80 seconds after the fuel shut off lever is opened. b. A sharp dropping of the nose. c. b. Washout. If. b. b. If the humidity is high you would expect the take-off run: a. The rate of climb of an aircraft is determined by: a. b. Aileron reversal is most likely to occur at: a. b. The same as turbine rpm. A forward centre of gravity. c. b. Line of mean camber. b. Very low speed. b. Less than turbine rpm. pressure and temperature rise. 503. Mass fuel flow divided by the internal mass airflow. The diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is a device in which the: a. c. c. c. b. Maintains a constant volume. the load factor would: a. Bleed air from the engines. the compressor rpm is: a. d. The density of the air at sea level in ISA is: a. c. b. b. Remains the same with increasing height. 1. Pressure rises at a constant velocity. Transition Point. As temperature increases. b. 511. Internal mass airflow divided by the mass fuel flow. Large angle of attack. After the gas leaves the combustion chambers it: a. Oil pressure. combustion occurs at a constant: a.3 Times the speed at the bottom of the ASI white arc. Bernoulli’s Theorem. b. Buffet of the tail surfaces. 492. a change in ambient temperature or air density means that: a. No change occurs. 1225 kg/cubic metre. The effect of induced drag can be reduced by: a. Velocity rises and pressure falls. A hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits. To achieve the correct Vref at maximum landing weight you would approach at: a. The lift/drag ratio. volume b. b. 490. Compressibility. Separation point.487. Ignoring the effect of Mach Number. Velocity. Position error and instrument error. the stalling speed (IAS): a. Pressure rises. and Interference Drag is: a. Increasing the angle of incidence at the tip. b. Greater than turbine rpm. To be shorter because of the higher density. 1. 500. In a gas turbine engine. c. compressor blades. c. The resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces. thrust increases. Pressure drops. 509.225 gms/ sq metre c.3 Times the speed at the top of the ASI white arc. The sum of Form Drag. Is directed onto the turbine blades by variable guide vanes.3 Times the speed at the bottom of the ASI green arc. The possibility of a spin developing into a flat spin is greatest with: a. Vary depending on weight. 501. Velocity decreases. c. 508. External mass airflow divided by the internal mass airflow. Power available over power required. Position Error. Separation point. A small inertia moment. d. the by-pass ratio is the: a. 494. Reducing gyroscopic effect but increasing torque effect. c. Very high speed. 1. d. Ram air. c. 526. Air is supplied to an air starter motor. c. Give the gas a swirl. Compressor surge may be identified by: a. In a clamshell door type thrust reversal system. b. Ball or roller bearings. 516. 531. c. c. Compressor surge may be indicated by: a. 525. Needle roller bearings. Tend to straighten the gas flow. c. A free turbine is: a. on starting. The BMW Hollow Blade. 25% leaves the engine as thrust. Is automatically switched off when the required rpm are reached. this indicates: a. 521. c. Increases as it passes through the turbine. 530. of the total energy produced. The burner feed. 538. The main turbine/compressor engine shaft is normally mounted on: a. Controls fuel flow from the tank to the fuel flow control unit. b. the air: a. accelerates to a figure below idle rpm and fails to accelerate above that value.513. c. b. Passes through the diffuser. The action of the swirl vanes in a combustion system is to create: a. Is used to pressurise the fuel tank. 40% leaves the engine as thrust. 537. 524. c. b. Fully reversed. Prior to engine starting a gas turbine engine. c. b. Discharged at approximately 45 degrees. c. Throttle must be opened slowly. c. Nozzle guide vanes: a. Fir tree attachments. Immediately aft of the combustion chambers. A smooth flow. A back flow. b. A gas turbine engine. Ignition commences at the same time the starter motor engages. Must be closed. Always mixed with the normal exhaust gas in the jet pipe. 517. Ignition commences when fuel starts flowing into the combustion system. b. d. Passes into the primary and secondary zone of the combustion chamber. 535. the electric motor: a. The compression ratio is the: a. b. c. b. b. c. d. the exhaust gases are: a. A wet start. b. 515. b. Ignition commences ten seconds after the start button has been pushed. b. 534. b. Remains constant as it passes through the turbine. c. Are found immediately after the turbine assembly. In the event a surge is suspected in the compressor of a gas turbine engine. 520. Increased engine rpm. b. A reduction in engine gas temperature. 522. To generate a rotary motion to the mixture before it enters the combustion chamber. b. Cool the gas before it reaches the turbine. REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 529. c. Reduces as it passes through the turbine. Passes into the swirl assembly of the combustion chamber. Ratio between the pressure at the inlet to the compressor and the outlet of the compressor. c. To just two or three combustion chambers. the throttle: a. 90% leaves the engine as thrust. To generate a rotary motion to the air in the secondary air flow. Fuel on entering the combustion chamber is primarily atomised by: a. Sometimes mixed with the normal exhaust gases in the jet pipe. Loss of efficiency of turbine blade tips are minimised by: a. Must be set at ground idle. Ratio between the entrance to the engine intake and compressor outlet pressure. Fuel Control Unit b. 532. A rapid increase of power. Modern gas turbine engine turbine blades are normally attached by: a. The dilution holes. 536. Discharged at 90 degrees. Ball bearings only. 533. when reverse is selected. c. b. A fall in engine gas temperature. A straightened flow. c. Air bleed. b. b. The De Laval Bulb Root. c. PAGE 21 . 528. Always exhausted separately. Blade tip shrouds. 527. The swirl assembly. Must be manually disconnected when the engine has reached the required rpm. b. c. In an air start system: a. c. In an automatic electrical starting system in a gas turbine engine the: a. 514. b. 523. A hung start. Connected to the high pressure compressor of a two spool engine. In a basic turbojet engine. the: a. An indication of vibration. c. d. Igniters are fitted: a. The injector control unit. The fuel injection jets. b. To generate a rotary motion to the air in the inlet to the primary combustion zone. The swirl vanes. c. Not connected to the compressor. The high pressure fuel cock: a. b. 519. The fir tree method. Some secondary air is directed through the dilution holes in the combustion chambers to: a. b. Create a swirl effect of the mixture. Must be set at a value above ground idle. Engine must be shut down. Passes into the primary zone of the combustion chamber. Atomise the fuel prior to combustion. In each combustion chamber. or vanes. 518. 60% leaves the engine as thrust. In an electrically operated gas turbine start system. The gas temperature: a. Fuel is fed to the engine from the supply system via: a. Is used to control fuel flow to the engine. Ratio between the inlet to the engine and the exhaust outlet pressure. Air is blown through the compressor inlet to rotate the engine. Throttle must be closed slowly. In a By-Pass engine. c. An increase in jet pipe temperature. Connected to the low pressure compressor. c. of a combustion chamber are fitted: a. Air is blown through the turbine to rotate the engine. The diffuser. c. approximately: a. b. the by-pass exhaust is: a. On leaving the compressor. Is automatically switched off after a specified period of time or the engine is at sustaining rpm. 5 to one. At a high angle of attack and high mach number 560. When starting a twin spool compressor engine: a. A temporary lengthening of the blade. b. d. Irregular c. Blade creep is: a. The compression ratio of the compressor: a. d. A modern jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons plus roll control spoilers is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number: a. Is the measure of air pressure between each stage. Within the Mach cone b. Triangular 542. The same as subsonic d. Compressor bleed. generally produces a pressure ratio of: a. c. b. in a climb and descent? a. Their angle of incidence increases from root to tip b. Aircraft ground speed c. Their angle of attack reduces from root to tip. The main bearings of the compressor/turbine drive shaft are: a. A shock stall occurs when laminar flow breaks down: a. VMO cannot be exceeded 555. Spanwise outward flow of the boundary layer d. Behind the leading edge b. the spoilers may be active. b. Above MDET 543. and that done by the diffuser is approximately: a. d. MCRIT is the free stream Mach number at which: a. b. the pressure pattern on the top surface will become: a.539. The low pressure spool is rotated first to avoid surge. b. Rise fall 551. Ball or roller bearings. Move from 25% chord to the leading edge d.0M 558. Turbo-fans.0 M d. b. d. Remain the same d. 553. One of the factors leading to pitch-up at the stall on swept wing aircraft is: a. Ball bearings. Their angle of incidence reduces from root to tip. The compressor blades of an axial flow compressor are curved throughout their length and: a. c. c. If descending at MMO. Behind the trailing edge c. Just below 1. d.0. 90%. Indicated Airspeed is increasing c. The inboard and outboard ailerons are active. Decreases. c. A permanent lengthening of the blade. Both spools are rotated to avoid surge. Increases b. Just above 1. 545. Behind the shock wave d. When airflow over a wing becomes supersonic. 40% to 60%. Is the measure of air pressure between the diffuser and combustion chambers. b. If climbing at MMO. Exactly 1. The first local mach number at any point on the aircraft equals M1. Flight level airspeed d. Nylon bearings. A basic centrifugal compressor. Compressor surge may be minimised by use of: a. Only the inboard ailerons are active. Rise rise c. Aircraft TAS b. c. HIGH SPEED FLIGHT 548. d. Move aft to the trailing edge REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 554. l5 to one. as the free stream Mach number approaches M 1. d. In front of the oblique shock wave 549. 547. What is the relationship of VMO and MMO. 4 to 4. The bow shock wave attaches to the wing leading edge b. A mach trim system operates: a. Reverse thrust power available is: a. the spoilers may be active. When a supersonic airflow passes through an oblique shockwave static pressure will (i) and temperature will (ii) a. 50%. c. pressure disturbances from the aircraft will be felt only: a. Is the measure of air pressure between compressor inlet and compressor outlet. Move aft to about 45% chord b. Move forward to about 25% chord c. Swirl vanes. 546. Decreases c. 556. At high M c. Only the outboard ailerons are active. c. At what speed does a shock wave move forward over the ground? a. Rearward movement of the cp 541. c. the centre of pressure will: a. In front of the Mach cone c. c. d. The bottom shock wave reaches the wing trailing edge d. Rectangular b. Reduced by tip shrouding.0 M c. Reduced by disc shrouding. 25%. On a typical symmetrical aerofoil. Modern centrifugal compressors produce a balance of air compression between that done by the impeller. then increases above certain mach number 557. 130 to one. At all M b.0 M b. 540. Airflow separation at the root c. b. The high pressure spool is rotated first to avoid surge. d. Fall fall d. 50% to 50%. Fixed inlet guide vanes. 10% to 90%. 552. 544. the spoilers may be active. The centre of pressure is at its most rearward point PAGE 22 . The least energy loss through a normal shockwave occurs when ML is: a. 550. Mach number is decreasing d. 20% to 30%. Negative camber at the root b. At low M d. The free turbine only is rotated to avoid surge. When an aircraft is flying at speeds above Mach 1. Speed of sound at ground level 559. If climbing at VMO. not the ailerons. d. If climbing at VMO. Is the measure of air pressure between free stream pressure and compressor outlet.0 c. it is possible to exceed MMO b. Their angle of attack increases from root to tip. b. In front of the normal shock wave d. 100%. Well above 1. Fall rise b. Needle roller bearings. The shock wave angle of a supersonic aircraft at increasing Mach number: a. Only the spoilers will be active. c. 30 to one. 561. Speeds where the airflow is partly subsonic and partly supersonic. form drag. Delay higher 569. Adjust the stick force per g gradient d. The two areas of speed instability in transonic aircraft are: a.4 d. A flatter bottom surface b. The coefficient of drag decreases then increases d. c. 573. Speeds where the airflow is completely supersonic. Lead to more prominent shockwave formation d.0 PAGE 23 . Oblique b. Trim the aircraft nose down 572. b. The coefficient of drag increases c.4 above M 1. The ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions. but will. d.414 twice 564. induced drag and wave drag b. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic speed range: a.98 REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 568. Hasten higher b. b. M 0. form drag. In the transonic range CLMax will speed will (ii) a.154 half c. M 0. Adjust for aileron reversal b. form drag. in practice gain (ii) that increase a.81 b. Reduce the aft shift of CP in the transonic range. 1. A very sharp leading edge 565. Normal d. Compared to a straight wing of the same aerofoil section a wing swept at 30º should theoretically have an MCRIT (i) times MCRIT for the straight wing. Sufficient to slow the local airflow to subsonic values 567. Decrease increase (i) and the 1g stalling 571. The coefficient of drag increases then decreases b. The coefficient of drag decreases 563. On a typical transonic aerofoil the transonic rearward shift of the CP occurs at about: a. The ratio of the aircraft’s LAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions. Compared to a normal transonic aerofoil section a supercritical section has: a. wave drag. M 0. and induced drag d. The speed of sound. d. Shockwaves at MFS above MDET will be: a. The term ‘transonic speed’ for an aircraft means: a. The ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at sea level. Total Drag at high Mach numbers is a combination of: a. Increase decrease c. above VIMD M 0. form drag.75 to M0. Sin 30º half b. 570. skin friction drag and interference drag c. Delay lower d. Decrease decrease d. Speeds between M 0. Profile drag. One function of the Mach trimmer is to: a. interference drag.89 to M0. Induced drag.0 d. Mach number is: a.75 to 0.75 to M0.98 c. below VIMD 566. below VIMD M 0. Speeds where the airflow is completely subsonic. Maintaining thickness/chord ratio but changing to a supercritical wing section will: a. Induced drag. Detached c.89 c. Increase increase b.4 and M 1. Maintain the required stick force gradient c.89 to 0. Wave drag. A flatter top surface c. M 0. A more cambered top surface d. Hasten lower c. Compared to straight wings of the same aerofoil section swept wings (i) the onset of the transonic drag rise and have a (ii) CD in supersonic flight a. 1.98 b. interference drag and zero lift drag 562. above VIMD above M 0. Cos 30º twice d. c. Make lateral stability more critical c.81 to M1. Give the aircraft an increased range b. 83. 85. A C C B C 192. 296. 59. 291. 194. 70. B A A A C A C B B C A B A B A B B B B A C 371. 400. 41. 76. 448. 103. 339. 456. 441. 107. 303. 25. 284. C B A B 397. 256. 91. 213. 249. 410. B C C B C 392. 305. 315. 255. 386. 359. 465. 112. 149. 53. 155. 483. 406. 146. 180. 132. 49. 336. 464. 435. 487. 344. 444. 462. 210. B C C C C 116. 491. C B A C B 342. 422. 259. 378. 468. 434. 353. 486. 404. 154. 308. 300. 394. 356. 60. 88. 228. 409. 346. 6. 244. 365. 124. 398. 281. 24. 185. C A A A B 242. 348. 264. 22. 11. 428. 30. 72. B C B A C B B A C C A B A A A 101. 279. 470. 122. 369. 14. B C B C B 21. 322. A B A B A 466. 275. 494. 374. 218. 74. A C C A B 366. 209. 141. B B A C REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 PAGE 2 . 212. 134. 115. A B B B A 316. 323. 427. 254. B C B B A C C A C B C B C A B C C A B A B 71. 129. 376. 367. 418. 96. 82. 15. 500. 399. A B C A A 416. 169. 453. 65. 472. 373. 203. 493. 393. 417. 390. 75. 34. 144. B C C C A B C B A C C C B B A A B A C B A 42. 290. 477. 460. 44. 343. 381. 87. B C C C A 216. 193. 320. 232. 478. 153. 57. 220. 440. 181. 79. 495. 231. 61. 20. B A A B A A B B B A B B A A C C A B C C B 121. 84. 130. 268. 253. 260. 415. 499. 332. C C C A B B C B B A C C A B A 451. 408. 252. 389. 226. B B C B 97. 287. 328. 352. 349. 37. 484. 200. A A A C A B C A A A B C B B A 151. 108. 430. 363. 238. 250. 223. 498. 63. 457. 105. 102. 159. 306. C C C C A 266. A A B B A 142. 77. 170. B A C A B C B B A A C A C C A 16. 46. 156. 288. 176. 405. 211. 199. 364. 214. 345. 69. 202. C B C C C 292. 341. 136. 317. 433. 240. 138. 28. B A A C B 442. 7. 230. B C C C C 166. 175. 325. 385. 496. 327. 276. 98. 64. 479. 163. C B C A A C A C C B B C C A A A C A C C C 471. 43. 248. 265. 246. 314. 219. 307. 439. 490. 423. 90. 234. 384. 360. 407. 67. 52. 269. 27. 148. 358. 106. 355. 73. 217. 262. 10. 473. 123. 436. 304. 117. B A B B C B B C A C B A C A B A A B A C C 271. 368. C C C B A B C C A C A B A A B C B C C B C 171. 139. 135. 414. 474. 208. 173. 179. 391. 177. 23. A C B A 497. 94. 261. 337. 8. 426. 236. 35. 382. 241. 362. 33. 235. 412. 31. 113. 379. 309. 145. 372. 178. 454. 482. 475. 446. 458. 489. 131. A B B A C A A C A C A C C C A 351. 420. 104. 449. 402. 227. 125. 311. 95. 110. 164. 81. 313. 424. 273. 78. 50. 183. 425. 29. 431. 267. 198. C C C A 197. 167. 312. 481. 294. 190. 224. 39. 326. 206. 283. B B A B 347. 295. 215. 111. 450. 469. 118. C C A A 247. B A A A A 92. 58. B B C A C 66. 383. 196. B C C A A C C C A B C A C C A 51. 150. 380. 152. 310. 182. 184. A B A B A C A A C C A C C B A 301. 413. 26. 237. 396. 289. 161. 233. 333. 485. 174. 338. C B C C A B B C A C A A B A C B B C A B C 421. 188. 114. 488. 62. 302. 157. 143. 298. 40. 89. 5. 361. 286. 263. 429. 186. 205. 318. 377. 207. 272. 245. 452. 126. 354. 158. 293. 56. 403. 13. 432. 388. 4. 189. 467. 165. 285. 229. 282. 109. 370. 270. 32. B B B B 147. 133. A C C A C 47. 459.ANSWERS: ATG REVISION QUESTIONS 1. 280. 9. A A B C 297. 443. 18. 162. 331. 299. 54. 128. 168. 357. 455. 476. 258. 93. 274. 340. B B C B C A A B C C B B C C A A C A C C B 221. 68. 324. 350. 19. 191. 195. 38. 55. 334. 3. 86. 243. 387. 160. 80. 12. B B C A B 492. 239. 140. 463. 127. 17. 419. 278. 45. 411. 395. A B C B A B C B C B C A C B B 401. 187. 257. 461. 319. 100. 445. 277. 204. 222. 330. 99. 120. 137. 375. 119. 437. 2. 36. 480. C A C A B B C B A B B A C C B 201. 172. 335. C A B B C C C C A C C A A C A C A C A A B 321. C B A C 447. 329. 48. 225. 438. C A C A B A B C C C B B B B A 251. 520. 509. 549. A A A A 521. 522. 560. 511. 527. B C D C 561. 567. 573. 542. 540. 519. B A A D A 510. 516. 533. 508. 552. 537. 551. 512. B C A B A 545. 517. 502. 523. C A C A 541. 507. 531. 557. 514. 554. 536. B A B B 505. A B A B A C 555. 562. 571. 503. 504. 572. D B B C 515. 534. 524. 546. 538. 568. 526. B D C A A 565. 518. A A A C C 530. 543. 564. 513. 559. B B C B C 550. 544. 529. D B C B C B REVISION QUESTIONS: CPL ATG 573-3 PAGE 2 . B B C C A C 535. 548. 556. 532. 569. 563. 539. B C B B A 570. 528. 506. 566. 553.501. 558. 547. B A B C A 525.