;Chapter 141) The process in which one party consciously interferes in the goal-achievement efforts of another party is: A) corporate policy. B) re-engineering. C) conflict. D) job specialization. E) discipline. 2) Conflict is a natural phenomenon of organizational life. The following are reasons why it can not be completely eliminated EXCEPT FOR: A) heterogeneous employees create a perfect environment. B) organizational members have different goals. C) people in organizations don't all see things alike. D) resources are scarce and people are willing to fight over them. 3) The existence of conflict has a positive side which can stimulate the following EXCEPT FOR: A) innovation. B) complacency. C) change. D) creativity. 4) Conflicts have causes that are separated into three general categories which are: A) policy, procedures, and rules. B) communication differences, structural differentiation, personal differences. C) grievance, mediation, and the arbitration process. D) mission, purpose, and objective standards. E) strategic, tactical, and operational planning. 5) Differences that encompass those conflicts arising from misunderstandings and different meanings attached to words are: A) personal differences. B) cultural harmony. C) structural differences. D) evaluation differences. E) communication differences. 6) The creation of horizontal (departments) and vertical levels (organizational hierarchy) brings about efficiencies through specialization and coordination, but at the same time produces: A) ambiguous job standards. B) the opportunity to resolve personal conflicts. C) unity of command and job standards. D) the potential for structural conflict. E) stress, burnout, and emotional disorders. 7) Actions taken by a supervisor to enforce the organization’s standards and regulations is referred to by the general term: A) discipline. B) enforcement. C) regulation. D) assertion. E) standardization. 8) The following are basic approaches or techniques a supervisor could use to resolve conflicts in his/her department EXCEPT FOR: A) force. B) accommodation. C) collaboration. D) compromise. E) unavoidance. 9) The best resolution technique for managing a conflict that is trivial, when emotions are running high, and where time can help cool things down is: A) avoidance. B) compromise. C) force. D) collaboration. E) accommodation. 10) A type of conflict resolution a supervisor would use to satisfy his/her own needs at the expense of the other party by using his/her formal authority is: A) compromise. B) avoidance. C) collaboration. D) accommodation. E) force. 11) A conflict resolution approach that requires each party to give up something of value is a(n): A) joint venture. B) compromise. C) forcing technique. D) avoidance strategy. E) collaborative experience. 12) Collaboration is a resolution technique that characterizes the ultimate: A) disillusion of the group. B) creation of conflict. C) win-win solution. D) win-lose solution. E) disdain of employees within the group. 13) Every supervisor has a basic resolution approach that reflects his/her: A) job specialization. B) family. C) disposition. D) manifest destiny. E) personality. 14) Assuming it is crucial for a supervisor to resolve a conflict as quickly as possible, the order of preference should be: A) force, accommodate, and compromise. B) accommodate, collaborate, and avoid. C) console, compromise, and listen. D) extend, collaborate, and demand. E) collaborate, reward, and appraise. 15) Discipline generally follows a typical sequence of four steps that include the following EXCEPT: A) verbal warning. B) written warning. C) suspension. D) secret probation. E) dismissal. 16) A stimulation technique that induces conflict by using rumors and ambiguous messages in a department is: A) leadership. B) organizing. C) communication. D) cultural diversity. E) unity of command. 17) A person who purposely presents arguments that run counter to those proposed by the majority or against current practices is performing the role of a: A) decision maker. B) figurehead. C) spokesperson. D) devil's advocate. E) liaison. 18) It is important for a supervisor's survival to adopt a conflict-management style that is compatible with the: A) competition. B) job specification. C) division of labor. D) organization. E) unity of command. 19) To be effective, a supervisor should adjust his/her actions according to the: A) philosophy of the labor union. B) political nature of the organization. C) physical environment of the group. D) by-laws of the organization. E) religious affiliations of the group. 20) The actions you take to influence or attempt to influence the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within your organization is: A) politicking. B) unity of command. C) cohesiveness. D) bureaucracy. E) manipulation. 21) Organizations are made up of individuals and groups with different values, goals, and interests. This sets up the potential for conflict over: A) resources. B) global warming. C) acid rain. D) government regulations. E) industry standards. 22) The following are questions that should be answered by a supervisor to help differentiate ethical from unethical politicking in the organization EXCEPT FOR: A) whether the political activity conforms to standards of equity and justice. B) your political affiliation is consistent with your financial contribution. C) the rights of other parties. D) self-interest versus organizational goals. 23) A problem associated with an employee’s lack of desire to do the job, not with his or her abilities, becomes a discipline problem and may be classified into all of the following categories EXCEPT: A) battery. B) attendance. C) on-the-job behaviors. D) dishonesty. E) outside activities. 24) The process in which two or more parties who have different preferences must make a joint decision and come to an agreement is: A) negotiation. B) cultural diversity. C) conflict resolution. D) resource allocation. E) cultural norming. 25) The type of bargaining process that operates from a zero-sum condition is: A) collective bargaining. B) target-point negotiation. C) integrative bargaining. D) distributive bargaining. E) coalition negotiation. 26) What conflict arises from misunderstanding and different meanings attached to words? A) Structural differentiation B) Personal differences C) Communication differences D) Distributive bargaining 27) What resolution technique goal is to maintain harmonious relationships by placing another's needs and concerns above your own? A) Collaboration B) Compromise C) Forcing D) Avoidance E) Accommodation 28) Which resolution technique goal might appear to be a "cop-out?" A) Avoidance B) Compromise C) Collaboration D) Forcing E) Accommodation 29) Action that begins with a verbal warning, and then proceeds through written reprimands, suspension, and finally, in the most serious cases, dismissal: A) inevitable consequences. B) justifiable termination. C) progressive discipline. D) logical punishment. E) discordant justification. 30) Documentary written evidence of an employee’s activities that tells what has transpired over a given period of time is referred to as a(n): A) document path. B) narrative description. C) activity script. D) activity log. E) paper trail 41) Conflict can be separated into three general categories: _____________ differences, _____________ differentiation, and _____________ differences. Answer: communication, structural, personal 42) The third source of conflict is ________ ________. These include value systems and personality characteristics that account for individual idiosyncrasies and differences. Answer: personal differences 43) A supervisors goal of _____________ is to maintain harmonious relationships by placing another's needs and concerns above your own. Answer: accommodation 44) _____________ is the best conflict approach when time pressures are minimal, when all parties seriously want a solution, and when the issue is too important to be compromised. Answer: Collaboration 45) _________ _________ encompass conflicts arising from misunderstandings and different meanings attached to words. Answer: Communication differences 46) A supervisor may use communications, bring in outsiders, restructure the department, or appoint a devil's advocate in order to stimulate _____________ in his/her department. Answer: conflict 47) Maybe the most important factor leading to politics within organizations is the realization that most of the “facts” that are used to ________ ________ ________ are open to interpretation. Answer: allocate limited resources 48) There will be times when, to get things done or to protect your interests against the maneuvering of others, a supervisor will have to engage in _____________. Answer: politicking 49) The phrase ________ ____ ____ ________ conjures up some of the more emotional elements in any organization. Answer: conflict in an organization 50) Before you consider your political options in any situation, you need to evaluate the situation. The key situational factors are your organizations _____________, the _____________ of others, and your own _____________. Answer: culture, power, power 51) Every organization's culture is somewhat different, and if a _____________ strategy is to succeed, it must be compatible with the culture. Answer: political 52) _____________ is a social rank or the importance one has in a group. Answer: Status 53) Fair treatment of employees demands that disciplinary action be _____________. Answer: consistent 54) The ________ ________ ________ doctrine permitted employers to discipline or discharge employees at their discretion. Answer: employment-at-will 55) There are two general approaches to negotiations: _____________ bargaining and _____________ bargaining. Answer: distributive, integrative 56) Integrative problem solving operates under the assumption that there is at least one settlement that can create a ________ ________ solution. Answer: win-win 57) In distributive bargaining, each party has a ________ ________ that defines what it would like to achieve. Answer: target point 58) For ________ ________ negotiations to succeed, the conditions of openness with information and frankness between parties; a sensitivity by each party to the other’s needs; the ability to trust one another; and a willingness by both parties to maintain flexibility, must be met. Answer: integrative bargaining 59) If you assume a ________-________ game, you may miss opportunities for trade-offs that could benefit both sides. Answer: zero-sum 60) When negotiations get tough, avoid the tendency to attack your opponent. It’s your opponent’s ideas or position that you disagree with, not him or her personally. Separate the ________ from the problem, and don’t ________ differences. Answer: people, personalize Chapter 15 1) An alteration of an organization’s environment, structure, technology, or people is referred to as: A) expansion. B) change. C) reduction. D) improvement. E) modification. 2) External forces that create a need for change for a supervisor include the following EXCEPT FOR: A) economic forces. B) long range plans. C) government regulations. D) technology. E) the marketplace. 3) Internal forces that create a need for change for a supervisor include the following EXCEPT FOR: A) compensation and benefits. B) new equipment. C) government regulations. D) employee attitudes. E) long range plans. 4) People who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for overseeing the change process are called: A) creditors. B) change agents. C) stockholders. D) stakeholders. E) wholesalers. 5) The process of makingsystematic change in an organization is referred to as: A) organization development. B) strategic planning. C) organization downsizing. D) corporate by-laws. E) static equilibrium. 6) Outside consultants hired by an organization to provide advice and assistance for major system- wide changes may be at a disadvantage because they have an inadequate understanding of the organization's: A) operating procedures. B) history. C) culture. D) personnel. E) all of the above. 7) The following are steps in a traditional change process EXCEPT FOR: A) unfreezing the status quo. B) maintaining complacency. C) changing to a new state. D) refreezing the new change to make it permanent. 8) In the traditional change process, unfreezing the equilibrium state can be achieved by the following ways EXCEPT FOR: A) combining the increase of driving forces with the decrease of restraining forces. B) decreasing restraining forces. C) not combining the increase of driving forces with the decrease of restraining forces. D) increasing driving forces. 9) The type of view of change that takes into consideration that environments are both uncertain and dynamic is the: A) mechanistic model. B) conservative view. C) traditional view. D) contemporary view E) bureaucratic model. 10) Many of today's supervisors are having to learn to manage in a world of constant: A) autonomy. B) change. C) complacency. D) independence. E) stagnation. 11) One of the most well-documented findings in the study of people at work is that individuals: A) resist discipline. B) resist change. C) create games at work. D) dislike work. E) welcome change. 12) Resistance to change can surface in the following forms for a supervisor EXCEPT FOR: A) overt. B) immediate. C) deferred. D) implicit. E) covert. 13) The type of resistance efforts that are more subtle and difficult for a supervisor to recognize are the: A) overt resistance efforts. B) implicit resistance efforts. C) deferred resistance efforts. D) immediate resistance efforts. E) immediate hostility efforts. 14) Employees often fear any change in their work environment may reduce their: A) suspension of work. B) employment turnover. C) unemployment income. D) job security or income. E) cultural diversity. 15) Evaluative statements or judgments made by employees concerning objects, people, or events that reflect how people feel about something are their: A) social responsibilities. B) attitudes. C) expected values. D) decision trees. E) implicit values. 16) The reasons that people resist change include all of the following EXCEPT FOR: A) threat to jobs and income. B) threat to ego. C) humans are creatures of habit. D) threat to established power relationships. E) fear of the unknown. 17) Techniques to overcome resistance to change include all of the following EXCEPT FOR: A) opening channels of communication. B) building trust. C) providing incentives. D) announcing change in the newspaper. E) involving your employees. 18) The ability to combine ideas in a unique way or to make unusual associations between ideas is called: A) innovation. B) analogy. C) creativity. D) idealistic. E) dreaming. 19) The process of turning a creative idea into a useful product or service, or method of operation is called: A) idealistic. B) analogy. C) innovation. D) creativity. E) dreaming. 20) Creativity can be viewed as a fourfold process consisting of all of the following EXCEPT FOR: A) ideas. B) innovation. C) incubation. D) inspiration. E) perception. 21) An innovative culture is likely to have the following characterisitcs EXCEPT FOR: A) low external controls. B) acceptance of ambiguity. C) closed systems focus. D) tolerance of risks. E) tolerance of the impractical. 22) Research finds that champions have common personality characteristics that include all of the following EXCEPT: A) extremely high self-confidence B) persistence. C) energy. D) tendency to take risks. E) low levels of innovation. 23) Sitting on an idea and using the time to collect massive data that may be stored, retrieved, studied, reshaped, and molded into something new is referred to as the process of: A) inspiration. B) job design. C) incubation. D) perception. E) innovation. 24) Of the variables found to stimulate innovation, within the Human Resource category, we find that innovative organizations do all of the following EXCEPT FOR: A) seek employees that are not creative and resist change. B) actively promote development. C) offer employees high job security to reduce the fear of getting fired for making a mistake. D) encourage individuals to become champions of change. E) actively promote training. 25) In the creative process, the moment when all your prior efforts come together successfully is referred to as: A) inspiration. B) innovation. C) incubation. D) perception. E) illusion. 26) The traditional view of change might have been appropriate to the relatively calm environment that most organizations faced: A) before the 1920s. B) in the 1980s and 1990s. C) in the 1950s, 1960s, and 1970s. D) in the 1930s and 1940s. 27) Of the reasons given for resisting change, which one threatens the specialized skills held by an employee? A) Threat to established power relationships B) Selective perception C) Threat to expertise D) Threat to interpersonal relationships 28) When the grapevine is active with rumors of cutbacks abd layoffs, what type of communication should be used by the supervisor to calm the workforce? A) convoluted and obtuse. B) loud and overbearing. C) honest and open. D) ambiguous and misleading. E) cool and detached. 29) In the three-step process of change, the step in which we stabilize the new situation by balancing the driving and restraining forces is known as: A) unfreezing. B) flash freezing. C) deep freezing. D) refreezing. 30) When considering the internal forces creating a need for change, remember that an organizations workforce is rarely static and its composition changes in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A) species. B) age. C) education. D) gender. E) nationality. 41) If it weren't for _____________ the supervisor's job would be relatively easy. Answer: change 42) These ________ ________of change tend to originate primarily from the internal operations of the organization or from the impact of external changes. Answer: internal forces 43) The assembly line in many industries is undergoing dramatic changes as employers replace human labor with _____________ advanced mechanical robots, and the fluctuation in labor markets is forcing managers to initiate changes. Answer: technologically 44) In addition to the external forces noted previously, ________ ________ can stimulate the need for change. Answer: internal forces 45) The traditional view of change is often illustrated as a three-step model. According to this model, successful change requires ________ the status quo, ________ to a new state, and ________ the new state to make it permanent. Answer: unfreezing, changing, refreezing 46) In the traditional view of change, the ________ ________ which direct behavior away from the status quo can be increased. Answer: driving forces 47) In the traditional view of change, the ________ ________ which hinder movement from the existing equilibrium can be decreased. Answer: restraining forces 48) Changes substitute ________ and ________ for the known, and human beings don’t like ________. Answer: ambiguity, uncertainty, ambiguity 49) If employees _____________ and have confidence in you, they are less likely to be threatened by changes you propose. Answer: trust 50) Evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people, or events, describes an _____________. Answer: attitude 51) In changing a negative attitude, the first two steps are to _____________ it and determine what _____________ the attitude. Answer: identify, sustains 52) In general usage, _____________ means the ability to combine ideas in a unique way or to make unusual associations between ideas. Answer: creativity 53) _____________ is the process of taking a creative idea and turning it into a useful product, service, or method of operation. Answer: Innovation 54) _____________ involves how you see things. Answer: Perception 55) _____________ display characteristics associated with dynamic leadership. Answer: Champions 56) The ________ ________ that are part of a person's job often play an important role in satisfying the individual's social needs. Answer: interpersonal relationships 57) _____________ involves taking an inspiration and turning it into a useful product, service or way of doing things. Answer: Innovation 58) Research finds that _____________ have common personality characteristics. Answer: champions 59) When communication is _____________ and people are _____________, they often contrive scenarios that are considerably worse than the actual "bad news." Answer: ambiguous, threatened 60) The resistance to change that relates to changes in organizational policies and practices that may threaten the expertise of specialized groups and departments is known as a ________ ________ ________. Answer: threat to expertise Chapter 16 1) Just under 12 percent of the unionized work force in the United States is in the: A) private sector. B) government sector. C) non-profit sector. D) public sector. E) right to work states. 2) The act to reduce discretion of a supervisor taking disciplinary action, whereby, the right to have differences evaluated by a third party, the existence of a grievance procedure and the quasi-legal labor-management relationship is called: A) mediation. B) collective bargaining. C) arbitration. D) conciliation. E) cultural norms. 3) Also known as the Labor and Management Reporting and Disclosure Act, this legislation protects union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions. Its thrust is to require all unions to disclose their financial statements. A) Taft-Hartley Act B) Landrum-Griffin Act C) RICO D) Wagner Act E) none of the above 4) Successes made by unions at the negotiating table that carry over to influence the wages, working conditions, and terms of employment for workers who are not unionized is called: A) maintenance of membership agreement. B) roundtable of discussion. C) yellow-dog contract. D) spill over. E) negotiating principle. 5) Guaranteeing workers the right to organize and join unions, to bargain collectively, and to act in concert to pursue their objectives, the act that specifically requires employers to bargain in good faith over mandatory bargaining issues—wages, hours, and terms and conditions of employment is referred to as the: A) Railway Labor Act. B) Norris-La Guardia Act. C) National Labor Relations Act. D) Landrum-Griffin Act. E) Labor-Management Relations Act. 6) The Wagner Act guaranteed to workers all of the following EXCEPT FOR: A) National Emergency Provision. B) the right to act in concert in pursuit of their objectives. C) the right to bargain collectively. D) the right to organize and join unions. 7) Specifying unfair union labor practices was the major purpose of the: A) Taft-Hartley Act. B) National Labor Relations Board. C) Right-to-Work-Laws. D) Wagner Act. E) Railway Labor Act. 8) The labor agreement stipulating that employers, although free to hire whomever they choose, may retain only union members and that all employees hired into positions covered under the terms of a collective bargaining agreement must, after a specified probationary period of typically thirty to sixty days, join the union or forfeit their jobs is known as a: A) union shop. B) maintenance of membership. C) closed shop. D) agency shop. E) open shop. 9) A situation where employees are free to choose or not join the union is a(n): A) closed shop security agreement. B) free-rider. C) union scab. D) joint venture. E) open shop. 10) All of the following are types of union security agreements EXCEPT: A) right to work. B) open shop. C) maintenance of membership. D) union shop. E) agency shop. 11) An agreement that requires nonunion employees to pay the union a sum of money equal to union fees and dues as a condition of continuing employment is referred to as a(n): A) agency shop. B) union shop. C) maintenance of membership. D) open shop. E) closed shop. 12) The board that was given the responsibility for determining appropriate bargaining units, conducting elections to determine union representation, and preventing or correcting employer actions that can lead to unfair labor practice charges is the: A) Department of Labor. B) National Management Labor Board. C) Human Relations Board. D) American Arbitration Association Board. E) National Labor Relations Board. 13) The concept that parties in a negotiation must come to the bargaining table ready, willing, and able to meet and deal, open to proposals made by the other party, and with the intent to reach a mutually acceptable agreement is referred to as: A) bargaining for solidarity. B) bargaining in good conscience. C) bargaining for power. D) bargaining for control. E) bargaining in good faith. 14) When employees become dissatisfied with a certified union they may request a: A) representation decertification election by the National Labor Relations Board. B) deauthorization election. C) mediator. D) conciliator. E) new election by the National Labor Relations Board. 15) When a majority vote is received in a representation certification election, the NLRB certifies the union and recognizes it as the exclusive: A) international union. B) union steward. C) bargaining agent. D) scab union. E) bargaining unit. 16) A process for negotiating a union contract and for administrating the contract after it has been negotiated is: A) collective bargaining. B) grievance procedure. C) mediation. D) arbitration. E) conciliation. 17) The four issues appearing consistently throughout all labor contracts include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Wages. B) Location. C) Terms and conditions of employment. D) Hours. E) Grievance procedure. 18) A labor union will not have a binding contract until it is submitted and: A) arrives at a tentative agreement. B) gets management approval. C) goes to binding arbitration. D) consults a mediation board. E) rank-and-file members vote to approve the contract. 19) Once a contract is agreed upon and ratified, it must be: A) sanctioned by both parties. B) tentatively agree upon. C) put to union vote. D) reduced to writing. E) administered. 20) The concept that management is guaranteed the right to allocate organizational resources in the most efficient manner; to create reasonable rules; to hire, promote, transfer, and discharge employees; to determine work methods and assign work; to create, eliminate, and classify jobs; to lay off employees when necessary; to close or relocate facilities with a sixty-day notice; and to institute technological changes is referred to as: A) council responsibility. B) management rights. C) union allowance. D) management responsibility. E) labor awareness. 21) A technique whereby a neutral third-part individual conducts a hearing to gather evidence from both labor and management is called: A) interest arbitration. B) negotiation. C) fact-finding. D) rights arbitration. E) grievance arbitration. 22) An illegal strike where employees refuse to work during the term of a binding contract is called: A) a walkout. B) an economic strike. C) a wildcat strike. D) a secondary boycott. E) lockout. 23) Procedures designed to resolve disputes as quickly as possible and at the lowest level possible in the organization are known as: A) interest arbitration. B) labor-management. C) contract administration. D) counseling. E) grievance procedures. 24) The first step in the collective batgaining process for labor and management is called: A) preparation for negotiation. B) negotiation. C) contract administration. D) voting. E) contract ratification. 25) An illegal strike in which employees refuse to work during the term of a binding contract, often as a result of ambiguities in the current contract, is known as a: A) boycott. B) strike. C) wildcat strike. D) hot cargo. E) labor dispute. 26) Employees join unions for the following reasons EXCEPT: A) influence on work rules. B) compulsory membership. C) higher wages and benefits. D) greater job security. E) to avoid conflict. 27) A government agency that assists labor and management in settling their disputes. A) Occupational and Safety Board B) National Labor Relations Board C) Impasse Resolution Service D) Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service 28) The four stages of contract administration follow EXCEPT: A) getting the contract terms out to all union members and management personnel. B) implementing the contract. C) interpreting the contract and grievance resolution. D) monitoring activities during the contract period. E) isolating problems that arise. 29) A union arrangement where a union “controlled” the source of labor, and an individual would join the union, be trained by the union, sent to work for an employer by the union and the union acted as a clearinghouse of employees is referred to as a(n): A) controlled shop B) closed shop C) labor shop D) union shop E) restricted shop 30) Although the goal of contract negotiations is to achieve an agreement that is acceptable to all concerned parties, sometimes that goal is not achieved, negotiations break down, and this is said to have occurred: A) lockout. B) grievance. C) wildcat strike. D) impasse. E) economic strike. 41) A ________ is an organization of workers, acting collectively, seeking to promote and protect its mutual interests through collective bargaining. Answer: union 42) Labor relations is a term used to include all activities within a company that involve dealing with a ________ and its ________. Answer: union, members 43) Gains made by unions often ________ ________ into other nonunionized sectors of the economy. Answer: spill over 44) The ________ ________ contract stipulates rules that apply to all members, thus providing fairer and more uniform treatment. Answer: collective bargaining 45) The National Labor Relations Act guaranteed workers the right to _____________ and join unions, to _____________, and to act in concert in pursuit of their objectives. Answer: organize, bargain collectively 46) The National Labor Relations Act is more frequently called the _____________ Act, while the Labor- Management Relations Act of 1947 is referred to as the ________ ________ Act. Answer: Wagner, Taft-Hartley 47) The major purpose of the ________-________ Act was to amend the Wagner Act by addressing employers’ concerns in terms of specifying unfair union labor practices. Answer: Taft-Hartley 48) By declaring the ________ ________ illegal, Taft-Hartley began to shift the pendulum of power away from unions. Answer: closed shop 49) Whereas the Wagner Act required only ________ to bargain in good faith, Taft-Hartley imposed the same obligation on ________. Answer: employers, unions 50) When a majority vote is received in a representation certification election, the NLRB certifies the union and recognizes it as the exclusive ________ ________. Answer: bargaining unit 51) The term ________ ________ typically refers to the negotiation, administration, and interpretation of a written agreement between two parties that covers a specific period of time. Answer: Collective bargaining 52) When labor and management in the private sector cannot reach a satisfactory agreement themselves, they may need the assistance of an objective third-party individual. This assistance comes in the form of ________ ________ ________, ________-________, and ________ ________. Answer: conciliation and mediation, fact-finding, interest arbitration 53) An agreement that requires nonunion employees to pay the union a sum of money equal to union fees and dues as a condition of continuing employment is referred to as an ________ ________. Answer: agency shops 54) The least desirable form of union security from a union perspective is the ________ ________. Answer: open shop 55) Negotiations have only three possible preliminary outcomes. First, and obviously preferable, is agreement. The other alternatives, when no viable solution can be found to the parties' differences, is a _____________ or a _____________. Answer: strike, lockout 56) An ________ ________ occurs when the two parties cannot reach a satisfactory agreement before the contract expires. Answer: economic strike 57) Strikebreakers may also be referred to as ________ or ________ and are usually individuals who are not employed by the company prior to the strike, but rather hired prior to or during the strike to keep production or services going. Answer: scabs, rats 58) A _____________ strike is an illegal strike where employees refuse to work during the term of a binding contract. Answer: wildcat 59) Under ________ ________, generally a panel of three individuals—one neutral and one each from the union and management—hears testimony from both sides. Answer: interest arbitration 60) In the public sector, a particular form of arbitration, called ________-________ ________, is witnessed. Both sides present their recommendations, and the arbitrator is required to select one party’s offer in its entirety over the other. Answer: final-offer arbitration