Social Planning Page 1 of 28 pagesSOCIAL PLANNING MOCK EXAM Practice Questions on Methods of Research, Demography, Shelter, and Social Services 1. Which is not a key feature of the professional planning process? (A) Proactive (B) problem-solving (C) algorithmic (D) futuristic (E) people-driven 2. According to the American Institute of Certified Planners, four of the following define ‘environmental planning’ practice except one? (A) ‘planning process’ (B) ‘post-modern’ (C) ’professional level’ (D) ‘public interest’ (E) ‘comprehensive’ 3. This pertains to the process wherein large numbers of people, driven by demographic factors, live together in important locations -- a process that is always accompanied by economic agglomeration, spatial alteration, and socio-cultural change. (A) Industrialization (B) Urbanization (C) Social Transformation (D) Modernization 4. In causal order, which should come first in this series or chain of intertwined, multi-dimensional problems?. (A) Climate Change (D) Land Use Changes (B) Unmanaged Population Growth (E) Pollution and Environmental Degradation (C) Poverty (F) Carbon Footprint 5. According to David Satterthwaite, 95% of deaths and serious injuries from major disasters in the period 1950-2007 occurred in low-income to middle-income countries, and 90% of these deaths happened to the poorest people. Which conclusion is supported by this information? (A) poverty, which means low income and low education, is the major cause of disaster (B) countries in typhoon belts and Ring-of-Fire region of the world tend to be poor because of frequent disasters (C) poverty and its physical dimensions, i.e. location of homes and livelihoods, increases people’s vulnerability to disaster (D) the poorer a country, the higher the illiteracy rate, hence the less informed and less prepared people tend to be. 6. In Michael P. Todaro’s Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central pull factor or main attraction of Third World cities to rural migrants even when these cities are unprepared to accept migration, is (A) “bright lights effect” or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment (B) possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of central city address (C) abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to insurgency wars in the countryside (D) substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the same level of skill, task, or occupation Social Planning Page 2 of 28 pages 7. Based on the 2010 NSO Census of Population and Housing, the total urban population of the Philippines is (A) larger than the total rural population (B) plateauing at a steady growth rate (C) stabilizing at the level almost equal to the rural population (D) fluctuating because of numerous urban calamities and terrorist attacks 8. In Francis Stuart Chapin’s Venn diagrams (1965), land use is shaped by a confluence of factors emanating from Economy, Nature, and Society, which are profit-making values, public interest values, and socially-rooted values. “Environmental services” or the functions of environmental elements to ensure livable conditions for humankind fall under (A) ‘profit-making values’ (B) ‘public interest’ values (C) ‘socially-rooted values’ (D) ‘spiritual & other-worldly values’ 9. In Third World countries where majority of people have low purchasing power, the biggest pressure to alter current ‘land use’ comes from (A) transport system layout (B) natural hazards (C) GDP growth (D) population growth (E) popularity of automobile 10. Urban planning is “concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the right time” for the right people. (A) John Ratcliffe (B) Lewis Keeble (C) Brian McLoughlin (D) George Chadwick (E) Alan Wilson 11. The following are the stated goals of ‘urban development policy’ (NUDHF) in the Philippines, except one: (A) to achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence (B) to slow down rural-to-urban movement by means of migration control and population management (C) to optimally utilize land and resources to meet the requirements of housing and urban development (D) to undertake a comprehensive and continuing program of urban development which will make available housing and services at affordable cost 12. This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust. (A) technocracy (B) shepherding (C) protectionism (D) championing (E) stewardship 13. Related to Thomas Malthus’ concept of ‘k’ as the population size constrained by whatever resource is in shortest supply, this principle refers to “the maximum population of a given species that can be supported indefinitely in a defined habitat without causing negative impacts that permanently impair the productivity of that same habitat.” (A) limits to growth (B) tipping point (C) range and threshold (D) carrying capacity (D) growth is merely quantitative while development is thoroughly qualitative (E) growth is indicated by income and infrastructure. peace and order 17. transactive planning. The following are the central questions of planning and management.Social Planning Page 3 of 28 pages 14. (B) growth refers to the entire macro-economy while development refers to people and society (C) growth is a pre-condition to development but not enough in itself. (D) The poor and the marginalized always know what is best for society. and user-friendly document (B) A plan can only indicate piecemeal and incremental changes in a process called ‘muddling through’ (C) Planning process is as important as planning output. Which principle of ‘Sustainable Development’ most directly supports the saying “Think Global.’ what is the relationship between the concepts of ‘Growth’ and ‘Development’? (A) these two realities are essentially similar. hence. Act Local. concise. interchangeable in use.” (A) Principle of Subsidiarity (C) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (B) Polluter Pays Principle (D) Duty to Care and Not Cause Environmental Harm 16. creative mass actions and backroom negotiations? (A) Equity or Activist or Advocacy Planning (C) Liberal Pluralistic Planning (B) Communicative Planning (D) Disjointed Incrementalism 20. thereafter. our buildings shape us. Which question seeks to determine efficacy or success of a chosen option or course of action? (A) “where are we now?” (D) ”how do we get there?” (B) “where are we going?” (E) “what resources do we need to get there?” (C) “where do we want to be?” (F) “how do we know if it is working?” 18. it is necessary but not sufficient condition. Which basic principle of ‘Sustainable Development’ means responsibility and accountability to future populations? (A) Common Heritage of Humankind (B) Inter-generational Equity (C) Caring Capacity (D) Parity of Compeers 15. The development of planning theory after World War II as influenced by the schools of policy planning. Which school of thought maintains that planners should abandon their presumed neutral stance and instead adopt the side of ‘the poor and the disadvantaged’ to demand for corrective or remedial measures from the State and from the Market through ‘pressure from below’ by way of conflict confrontation.” This quotation is attributed to (A) Winston Churchill (B) George Washington (C) Theodore Roosevelt (D) Napoleon Bonaparte . while development is indicated by tranquility. According to theorists of ‘Social Development‘ and ‘Sustainable Development. 19. “First we shape our buildings. and communicative planning has emphasized the core principle that (A) A plan should be a clear. advocacy or equity planning. homes. and behaviors of people towards desired societal goals 23. that sustains the slumlord and the land rapist. It is the claim of convenience – or its illusion – that drives the expressway through neighborhoods. This incorporated Garden City ideas and attempted at some kind of social engineering. Manuel Castells. with our consent. variety. William Levitt. habits. Albert Z. greenways. He proposed the ‘neighborhood unit’ (1929) as a self-contained ‘garden suburb’ bounded by major streets. Guttenberg . In “Death and Life of Great American Cities” (1961) and “Economy of Cities” (1969). parks. community centers. Edwin C. build cynically in the flood plain. fell the great forests.Social Planning Page 4 of 28 pages 21. fill protective marshes.’ (A) Jane Jacobs (B) Ian McHarg (C) Konstantinos Doxiadis (D) Rachel Carson (E) Arne Naess 24. All of the following schemes are associated with ‘New Urbanism’ except: (A) Mixed Use Zoning (B) Neo-Traditional Design (C) Exclusionary Zoning (D) Pedestrianization 27. Whyte (C) Robert Moses. a taximeter of indifferent greed. (A) Herbert Gans (B) James Howard Kunstler (C) Joel Garreau (D) Jane Jacobs 26. mindsets. William H. thus s/he advocated for heterogeneity. Richard King Mellon (D) TJ Kent. and mixture in the geographic clustering of firms as well as in the composition of city districts and neighborhoods. sex. In the name of profit they pre-empt the seashore and sterilize the landscape. The following planners were most concerned about “human scale and the social usage of urban space” (A) David Harvey. and other demographic factors of social groups (C) implementing service-oriented social programs to marginalized social sectors (D) changing values. ‘Social Engineering’ refers to (A) designing and building social facilities and infrastructure for the public (B) manipulating age. Kevin Lynch. this planner maintains that ‘diversity’ promotes innovation among proximate firms and spurs the growth of cities. This started as a US federal program in 1949 which aimed to rehabilitate the outworn or decaying sections of any town by extending fund assistance to LGUs to undertake improvements in streetscapes. with shops at intersections and a school in the middle. and priceless parks. the polluters of rivers and atmosphere. its size would be defined by school’s catchment area with a radius of quarter-mile or 402 meters. Ray Pahl (B) Jane Jacobs. (A) Clarence Perry (B) Clarence Stein (C) Clarence Thomas (D) Clarence McKay 22. (A) land re-adjustment (B) urban restructuring (C) infill and densification (D) urban renewal 25. ‘It is the merchant’s ethos. etc based on anticipation that future tax revenues from real estate will pay for present costs. ethnicity. Banfield. housing. km 35. A chart-like tool to measure ‘centrality’ of a place particularly its range of economic and social functions. If a particular service or function such as elementary school enrolment is represented by the formula. A 21st century innovation in New York City wherein a private building can earn 20% additional “floor space incentive” if it can create and maintain a large open space around it. What key words are not part of vision “Plan NYC 2030” of New York City. This school of thought holds that settlements form in a balanced manner. brownfields.95 sq.75 sq.km (C) 0. (A) Galaxy of Settlements Theory (B) Central Place Theory (C) Geographic Determinism (D) Dependency Theory 34.’ which can be seen in (A) gated subdivisions (B) cybercities (C) skyscrapers (D) medium-security correctionals (E) gang-based communities 30. the catchment area of a central place takes the shape of a hexagon rather than a perfect circle.km (B) 0. the financial capital of the world? (A) ‘business-oriented’ (B) ‘bottom-up’ (C) ‘street-level’ (D) ‘pedestrian-oriented’ (E) ‘neighborhood-based (F) ‘human scale’ 33. is called (A) Matrix (B) Isotims (C) Isodapanes (D) Scalogram . A 21st innovation in New York City wherein a private building can earn 33% additional “floor space incentive” if it can allocate 20% of its dwelling units to low-income households.Social Planning Page 5 of 28 pages 28. In Walter Christaller’s Central Place Theory.50 km and diameter is one (1) km? (A) 0.85 sq. is called-- (A) ‘Philantrophic Shelter’ (B) ‘Habitat for Humanity’ (C) ‘Inclusionary Housing’ (D) ‘Preferential Housing’ 32. displaying both hierarchy and equilibrium arising from the interdependence between big and small settlements and from the complementation between their respective scope of functions. Edge Cities’ have been described as the “tenements of the Information Age” because they have (A) been built around clusters of dilapidated townhouses and ghettoes in the edges of the cities (B) many high-density condominium developments designed for people working in nearby office towers (C) sprung up in grayfields. is called-- (A) Landscape Concordat (B) Public-Private Partnership (C) Quid Pro Quo (D) Privately-Owned Public Spaces 31.65 sq. they tend to be spread evenly and symmetrically in isotropic space. According to Edward Soja of UCLA (2000).” what would be the catchment area of elementary school if its radius is 0. “C = 2. the term ‘carceral cities’ in post-industrial era refers to fortress-like enclosures or settlements which are seemingly obsessed about their security and their ‘privatopia.km (D) 0.6r²d. and abandoned industrial or commercial sites (D) populations made up mostly of recent immigrants 29. In HLURB Guidelines. Philippines does not have compact land mass with homogenous features (B) archipelagic nature creates natural discontinuities that render movement & economic exchange difficult (C) spatial integration between urban and rural areas is impeded by poor transport that inflates prices (D) all of the above 39. and generates own progress. “Development process should be redefined in such a way that urban development promotes rural development while rural development supports urban development. 12.Social Planning Page 6 of 28 pages 36. domestic materials and locally produced goods and adopt measures that help make them competitive.” (John Friedmann) (A) agropolis / agropolitan approach (C) agro-based countryside development (B) rurban interlink (D) Michael Lipton model 42. RA 7916 reiterates Sec. and Gary S. which of the following does not fall under the ‘social sector’? (A) Education (B) Tourism (C) Health (D) Police Protective Services (E) Sports and Recreation 43. a huge sports stadium. good health. The weakness of applying Central Place Theory in a simplistic way on the Philippines is that (A) unlike other countries. According to economists Theodore Schultz. or a tertiary-level hospital can not be established in each and every Philippine municipality? (A) spatial equity and bio-geographic equity (B) specialization and concentration (C) market range and threshold population (D) profitability and pecuniary interest 38. All of the following are practical applications of Central Place Theory in the Philippines. determines how a local community or region absorbs new technologies. Art XII of Philippine Constitution. What Christallerian principles form the basis why a state university. except one. In HLURB Guidelines.backflow (C) economic nationalism or Filipinism (B) trickle up and trickle down (D) forward linkages and backward linkages in production 41. "The State shall promote the preferential use of Filipino labor. expands productive capacity. attitudes.outflow . Jacob Mincer. (A) Seven Domains of Intelligence (B) Intellectual Quotient (C) Managerial Aptitude (D) Human Capital 40. and entrepreneurial qualities. which of the following does not fall under the ‘economic sector’? (A) Housing (B) Mining (C) ICT and Business Process Outsourcing (D) Mariculture (E) Small Scale Industries . this collective term for people’s “embodied” assets such as knowledge. a consumer mall." What technical planning concept pertains most aptly to this? (A) inflow . skills. (A) location of health centers (B) location of trial courts (C) location of beach resorts (D) location of police stations 37.Becker. but public hearings and open consultations are mandatory at which step of 12 steps? (A) after area inventory. and sports facilities are located relatively close to each other. (A) Freiburg or Freetown (B) Borough (C) New Town (D) Country Estate (E) Eco-Industrial Park 45. constituents are engaged by LGU to participate throughout the entire CLUP- ZO process. (E) short blocks. while _______ is a judgmental statement of what an analyst believes to be the most likely logical future according to his/her subjective evaluation. curvilinear streets. community assembly center. plaza. ‘no-car policy’ declared on selected streets during holidays.Social Planning Page 7 of 28 pages 44. frequent four-way intersections. strolling and biking promoted. and zoning plan (C) after formulation of Vision-Mission-Goals (D) after completion of opinion poll or survey 46. This refers to any large-scale master-planned development which includes housing. and at the same time. It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively planned as a unitary entity such that innovations in site design and building design are rewarded by government with some flexibility in zoning. (A) Wilderness (B) Tourism & Recreation Zone (C) Rangeland (D) Open Space . livable. profiling. and forecasting (B) after adoption of spatial strategy. attainable. work places. (C) 300-m average distance of homes to variety of transport choices like buses. In ideal conditions. analysis. church. The “SMART test” by George Doran means that both ‘task objectives’ and ‘process objectives’ have to be specific. Which of following does not enhance ‘connectivity’ to create sociable. based on the assumption that it can be built from zero. measurable. A ‘projection’ or ‘prediction’ is a conditional statement about the future based on mathematical computation or statistical model that uses available data to extrapolate past and present trends into the future. land use policies. FX vans. It offers opportunities for adventure recreation or passive leisure at low-cost. (A) Enterprise Zone (B) Sites and Services model (C) Zonal Improvement Program (D) Planned Unit Development 49. and related facilities within a self-contained set-up. health- oriented communities? (A) cul-de-sacs. more or less. usually relaxation of standards or their replacement with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU. realistic. and ____ (A) tenable (B) truthful (C) time-bound (D) testable (E) treatable 47. serves as protection buffer around sensitive areas and hazardous installations. (A) premonition (B) forecast (C) foresight (D) vibration (E) prophecy 48. steel gates on road corners. long blocks. scanning. unobstructed sidewalk easements and pedestrian pathways 50. walkable. family pets wander & provide biodiversity excitement (B) school. and shuttles to railway stations (D) bicycle lanes are delineated. This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to the amenity value of the environment. multi-nodals. In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030. neighborly behavior of residents. “Settlements. radials. and promenades (D) Paths. intermodals (C) Arched gateways. edges. Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch.Social Planning Page 8 of 28 pages 51. According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961). boulevards.” “Protection. arterials. He identified the elements of legibility of place as: (A) Circumferentials. among others. and residuals (B) Skyscrapers. structure and meaning. This refers to the goal or principle of urban design that a place needs to foster a ‘sense of security and pleasantness’ emanating from vibrant street life.” (A) ‘Cosmopolitanism’ (B) ‘Semiotics’ (C) ‘Sense of Place’ (D) ‘Symbology’ 55. waterfronts. ‘Quiapo church’ would be a landmark while Divisoria would be termed as (A) Flea Market (B) Icon (C) District (D) Nodule (F) Transshipment 56. sinkholes. erosion once their topsoil is exposed. (A) ‘geohazards’ (B) ‘brownfields’ (C) ‘environmentally critical’ (D) ‘naturally forbidden’ 52. landslides. and landmarks 54. “Urban design uses the climate. and positive social interaction. (A) legibility (B) imageability (C) SIR . districts. customs. nodes. Urban design strengthens the city’s character by reflecting its cultural layers and by enabling residents and visitors alike to ‘read the city’ by way of its history.” “Production. skyways. subsidence. natural landscape as well as built assets to create distinctive places that contribute to local identity. icons. a good ‘urban design’ is one where residents and visitors can use a ‘cognitive image’ or ‘mental map’ of the city as they navigate through the territory in the process of ‘wayfinding’.smooth interpersonal relations (D) conviviality (E) peace and tranquility .” and “Infrastructure” are discussed as -- (A) Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit (B) Land Use Zones that exclude one another (C) Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local level (D) Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city 53. These areas are so called because they pose serious dangers to human settlements due to their high susceptibility to. and visual elements. seascapes. space observatory. Which goal of “Smart Growth USA” addresses social participation? (A) Direct growth toward existing population centers. deliberately combats ‘amorphic sprawl’ by means of (A) mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning (B) design of walkable. ‘Smart Growth USA. Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities? (A) absorbs air pollution (B) gives off oxygen (C) cools the air as water transpires (D) provides habitat to wild beasts (E) provides shade with less electricity required (F) muffles noise and creates an island of peace 62. Which design can be credited for ‘Community Connectivity’ under LEED of the US Green Building Council? (A) greenfield site located within short walking distance to many common amenities (B) public rental housing connected by on-ramps to a large freeway intersection (C) seven-storey commercial building linked to a food processing plant at a center a 10 hectare complex (D) socialized housing site beside academic buildings of a state university (E) suburban brownfield within 500 meters from light rail public transportation 60. (A) outstanding landscapes. and science centrum (C) heritage sites and historic places (D) municipal plazas and public parks 61. farmland. Presidential Decree 2146 defines ‘amenity areas’ as those with high aesthetic values such as the following. health-oriented settlements (C) integrated and clustered commercial-cum-industrial development (D) interconnected modes of transport (E) compact development through infilling (F) All of the above 58. except one. natural beauty. An example of positive easement is one that (A) preserves a certain habitat (C) allows the right to harvest a natural crop (B) protects a certain stream (D) stipulates not to drain a wetland . thru public spending on infrastructure and utilities (B) Foster distinctive. attractive communities with a strong sense of place by creating walkable neighborhoods and providing a variety of transportation choices (C) Make development decisions predictable. and environmentally sensitive areas 59.’ with its ten declared principles. sociable. and viewscapes (B) planetarium. and encourage stakeholder collaboration in development decisions (D) Create a range of housing choices and opportunities by allowing mixture of land uses (E) Preserve and protect open space. bikable. fair. and cost effective.Social Planning Page 9 of 28 pages 57. sewerage. Diane Carney (1998) and adopted by UNDP (1997). looks at collective non-market assets of people such as trust. solidarity. Coleman (1988). and cemeteries. “residence” is not just the home structure per se but can include accessory structures such as private garage. hospitals. norms of reciprocity. materialism. daycare. (A) Population Management (B) Social Welfare Development (C) Infrastructure Planning (D) Social Planning 70. A tool used to create elite landscapes that convey socio-economic identity. The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site is known as: (A) Gross Leasable Area (B) Buildable Site (C) Floor Area Ratio (D) Structure to Site Proportion 69. fetishism. crisscrossing electricity/telephone cables. water. and the provision of public utilities. and conspicuous consumption all hindering one’s appreciation of outstanding built structures and cityscapes. detailed ornamental iconography. (A) Theory of Social Change (B) Social Mobilization (C) Theory of Social Learning (D) Theory of Social Capital . home office. homes for the aged. The ‘clutter of cities’ consists of disorderly utility lines. parks. oversized advertising billboards which contain messages of sensualism. Under the National Building Code. (A) visual blight (B) litter and nuisance (C) aesthetic decay (D) street anarchy (E) communicative pollution 64. and -- (A) carinderia (B) farm and poultry (C) day care center (D) guardhouse (E) warehouse 67. This theory propounded by James S. rehab centers. political propaganda. and other manifestations of conspicuous consumption (A) millionaires’ row (B) red light boulevard (C) gentrification (D) yacht and polo club (E) large lot zoning 65. equality. and other resources that are inherent in social relations and embedded in social networks. characterized by imitation of rustic estates or feudal-age manors.Social Planning Page 10 of 28 pages 63. sari-sari. low density housing development means ______ dwelling units per hectare. common purpose. (A) 35 and below (B) 36 to 150 (C) 151 to 210 (D) 211 and above 66. A ‘single detached dwelling unit’ is defined as a house that is (A) good for one household (B) intended for ownership (C) completely surrounded by yard or open space (D) with one or more of its sides abutting the property line 68. This refers to population-focused planning that seeks to enhance people’s capacities to meet their own needs through improvements in ‘social infrastructure’ such as mass shelter. superfluous signages. Robert Putnam (1993). storehouse. servants quarter. etc. power. schools. In the Philippines. physical safety. or project. and management holds the same meaning as the statement “people are the principal actors. esteem. peace and order. (C) People are not passive beneficiaries or mere recipients of dole-outs. In the words of PD 933. love and belongingness.” and non-material “human needs. implementation. economic housing.” Which grouping of needs was elaborated on by Abraham Maslow? (A) food. ‘Ekistics’ or the ‘science of human settlements’ by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis was built upon the concept of “basic needs. group. who affects or is affected by -. (D) Participation hastens people’s ownership of their problems and builds community leadership so that they gain control over their own fate and learn to make critical decisions for their common future. The following are the basic elements of ‘human settlements’ according to Dr. freedom of belief. identity. communication. which category of indicators of human ability and well-being would have a clear spatial dimension? (A) “to be” (B) “not to be” ( C) “to dream” (D) “to become” (E) “to do” 75. efficiency. program. and empowering for the poor. (folk-work-place). and beauty 74. employment. health care. sanitation. self- actualization/self-realization (D) freedom. sex. low-cost housing. (B) The very process of participating is. in and of itself. Which one pertains to the built environment or physical capital? (A) anthropos (B) Nature (C) shells and networks (D) society (E) social structure 73. . clothing. An individual. and the beautiful” (C) family. quality of life. is called (A) recipient / beneficiary (B) proponent / exponent (C) advocate (D) stakeholder 76. liberating. In ‘Quality of Life Assessment’. and transportation (C) physiological needs. Konstantinos Doxiadis. security. (E) Community participation contributes to institutionalizing positive reforms envisioned by changes in policy. and ecological balance (D) habitability. community. ecological balance 72. educational. the good. and cooperative housing (B) Plato’s ideals of “the true. shelter. the “human settlements approach” emphasizes (A) socialized housing. or community who has a direct or indirect interest in a policy. procreation.the implementation and outcome of it. recreation. the subject rather than the object. of development.” which were later categorized by Johann Galtung into “material survival & security needs. well-being. social opportunity.” “social or enabling needs. education. (B) self-expression.positively or negatively -. organization. economy. employment. sector. Which of the following – all true! -.Social Planning Page 11 of 28 pages 71.about people’s participation in planning.” (A) Participation increases the likelihood that policy will be effective and will have long-term benefit as people provide data and feedback on ground-level needs and concerns to policy- makers and implementors. convenience. energy/fuel. water. A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning.Social Planning Page 12 of 28 pages 77. Martin Luther King Jr (D) Sherry Arnstein 79. explain effects of policies or actions. (A) Cause-Oriented Groups (B) Charities (C) Social Movements (D) Civil Society 82. to participate in. plans. The process of facilitating and arranging activities and action-plans of different interest-groups or sectors for the purpose of harmonizing. and programs. and consolidating inputs and outputs is called (A) Input-Output process (B) Mainstreaming (C) Coordination (D) Faci-pulation 81. or philanthropic considerations. This refers to the broad type of social research whose central objective is to solve urgent problems. What is meant by ‘theory’ in urban and regional planning as a multi-disciplinary field of social science? (A) an educated guess being tested by numerous experiments (B) outcome or proof to establish causal connection among key actors and factors (C) a set of principles derived from envisioned future state of society (D) a set of interrelated propositions or hypotheses that have been supported by several studies in the past . the following research approaches are more appropriate except one: (A) Experimental (B) Correlational (C) Causal-Comparative (D) Historical-Descriptive 83. religious. cultural. (A) Ralph Nader (B) Susan S. The process of obtaining from people technical advice or opinion which may or may not be followed is called (A) Consultation (B) Cooptation (C) Cooperation (D) Collaboration 80. as well as the expansion of their freedom of choice and action. It is the international collective term for inclusive. Because ‘environmental planning’ as a multi-disciplinary field utilizes the methods of social sciences. this planner wrote the classic “Eight Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation” which describes the varying degrees of people’s involvement in policies. and evaluate the impact of plans and programs on people. negotiate with. and hold accountable institutions that affect their lives. professional. synchronizing. control. non-State actors whose aims are neither to generate profit nor to seek governing power but to unite people around the broadest public interest based on ethical. scientific. influence. Fainstein (C) Dr.” (A) Self-Reliance (B) Needs Achievement (C) Entitlement (D) Empowerment 78. (A) Exploratory Research (B) Pure / Basic Research (C) Evaluation Research (D) Applied Research 84. develop a tool or social technology. World Bank describes this process as the “expansion of assets and capabilities of poor people. Social Planning Page 13 of 28 pages 85. Action. (B) Oxygen was removed by respiration. An environmental chemist in a laboratory reports a new discovery based on experimental results. Result . while the one in the dark remained yellow. Task. Travels. In scientific research. 89. the group of mold spores grown in total darkness is known as the (A) experimental group (B) pilot group (C) control group (D) test group (E) manipulated group (F) focus group 88. Articulate. Repeat (E) Simple. In the structure of informant interviews. it may be a characteristic. Action. (A) Variable (B) Frequency (C) Facet (D) Metrics (E) Degree 86. and studied. and the tubes were corked. while the other group was grown in total darkness. If the experimental results are to be ‘valid’. and one was placed in direct sunlight. The yellow solution in the tube in sunlight turned blue. environmental chemists in other laboratories should be able to (A) repeat the experiment with a different variable and obtain the same results (B) perform the same experiment and obtain different results (C) repeat the same experiment and obtain roughly the same results (D) perform the same experiment under different experimental conditions and obtain the same results 87. An investigation was designed to determine the effect of ultraviolet light on mold spore growth. (C) Carbon dioxide was removed by photosynthesis. the acronym “STAR” method stands for (A) Select. and the bromthymol blue turned yellow. trait or dimension of a person. Add-ons. Talk. or event that can be classified. Reflection (C) Situation. Which statement best explains why the solution in the tube placed in sunlight returned to a blue color? (A) Oxygen was used for photosynthesis. it refers to attribute of data that can take on different values. True. process. measured. (D) Carbon dioxide was produced by respiration. except one group was exposed only to ultraviolet light. Two test tubes were filled with a solution of bromthymol blue. A ‘problem tree’ is (A) a kind of tree that grows in the wrong place (B) a method of environmental impact assessment (C) a tool to understand cause and effect relations among problems (D) used to trace ancient roots of intractable development problems 91. An aquatic green plant was placed into each tube. object. In this investigation. One tube was placed in the dark. Refunds (B) Solve. Two groups of mold spores were grown under identical conditions. Analyze. A technician exhaled through a straw into each tube. Relate (D) Salaries. Test. Which of the following is not a research method? (A) questionnaire (B interview (C) appraisal (D) case study (E) survey 90. frequency. the following crops were computed to have their respective ‘difference of ranks squared’ (d2): rice = 1.200 100. and divergence (B) range. median. The strength of survey questionnaire as research instrument lies in (A) ability to provide baseline data (B) ability to measure quantitative variables (C) ability to reveal potential relations between different sets of data (D) ability to draw out the most sincere responses from informants 93.475 (B) 0. corn = 0.year earthquake? (A) 0.000 people.1 (B) 1. In 2008. wheat = 0. the Philippines had 68 million cell phone units. Probability is at times used in relation to natural cycles with mean return period or recurrence interval. beans = 0. convergence.2 (C) 0.01). the three measures of central tendency are: (A) midpoint. mode 94.9 (D) 0. In using descriptive statistics to study population and society. the ‘median’ is equivalent to the: (A) Average (B) variance (C) 50th percentile (D) quartile (E) quintile 96. Which is not an example of random sampling? (A) systematic sampling (B) stratified sampling (C) convenience sampling (D) cluster sampling 99. Ratio and Proportion. and threshold (D) mean. mongo = 1. what would be the annual probability of a 475. (A) descriptive statistics (B) deductive statistics (B) (C) analytic statistics (D) inferential statistics 98.002105 97. This measures the degree to which two variables are related but not necessarily in a cause-and- effect manner: (A) Coefficient of Correlation (B) Coefficient of Variation (C) Multivariate Function (D) Chi-Squared Statistic 95.Social Planning Page 14 of 28 pages 92. This branch of statistics aims to predict and draw conclusions concerning a population or its characteristics from mere sample chosen to represent the whole population. of which 63 million were used. and maximum (C) occurrence. Given ‘Spearman rho’ formula “r = 6Vd2 ⁄ n(n2-1)” what would be the ‘r’ value? (A) 1. what would be the approximate number of cellphone users in a rural barangay with 4. minimum. In a non-parametric test of correlation to determine if amount of fertilizer has anything to do with quantity of farm yield. (A) 80 (B) 400 (C) 600 (D) 1.2375 (C) 0.0438 (D) 0. If 35% of population in urban areas have buying power to own and use a cell phone while only 15% of population in rural areas can do the same. In all distributions of data. Probability sampling is selecting samples randomly to reduce bias in data collection such that chosen sample would contain the same variations that exist in the larger population.2 . If a flood that recurs once in 100 years has an annual probability of one percent (0. In a linear regression exercise where “x = distance in km from Stock Exchange building” and “y = price in pesos of land per square meter.47 (B) 0. (A) Crystal Ball (B) Knowledge Management (C) Delphi Technique (D) Oracle Method E) Authoritative Approach . (A) Multi-variate Analysis (B) Qualitative Analysis (C) Muddling Through (D) Phenomenology 109. or forecasting which gathers the independent views and judgments of recognized experts in panel discussion. Words are then arranged on a descriptive scale and given approximate numeric values for analytic purposes.000 is the intercept.28 (D) 10 (E) 100 105.y’ factors that can come from human attitude and idiosyncratic behavior. What would be the value of land per square meter if it were 15 kms from Stock Exchange? (A) 1. The use of a variety of methods.000 102. sources.010 (B) 1.000 is the slope and 16.96 (C) 3. This refers to amount of energy necessary to raise one gram of water one degree Celsius. or field team members.250 (C) 4. needs assessment.Social Planning Page 15 of 28 pages 101.000 106.000 (D) 10.100 (C) 1. its approximate equivalent in Systeme Internationale metric measurements is 1055 joules (A) calorie (B) Kelvin (C) BTU – British Thermal Unit (D) kilojoule (E) PSI – pounds per square inch 107. but such scale can not accurately reflect magnitude or intensity of variables or dimensions. or polls and consolidates their expert opinions thru a survey. This method uses ‘words’ rather than numbers to describe and measure classifiable data. at least three in kind or category.560 104. (A) sweeping generalization ( B) argumentum ad hominem (C) ecological fallacy (D) equivocation (E) begging the question (F) fallacy of affirming the disjunct or the consequent 103. This is an intuitive method of demand analysis.700 (E) 43. How many hectares are there in one square kilometer? (A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 1. How many acres are there in one hectare? (A) 2.047 (D) 8. to cross check and to validate information inorder to limit possible biases in a research study is called (A) corroboration (B) confirmatory test (C) triangulation (D) reconnaisance (E) cross-disciplinary control 108. This error in logic means that conclusions drawn from analysis of a group are applied to the group’s members without regard for individual variation or unknown ‘x. How many square meters are there in one acre? (A) 328 (B) 1.” the line of best fit (LOBF) equation is “y = -1000x + 16.000” where -1.600 (D) 1. The simplified “Rule of 69” to determine population ‘doubling time’ gives the formula ‘dt = 0.04%. A country currently has a population of 100 million and an annual growth rate of 3. with an average household size of 6. through dialogic and participatory processes such as cross-walking. and lack of food.090 (C) 1. An enumerative method of study which covers all the units of a population is called (A) holism (B) Gestalt (C) sociology (D) census 114. seasonal and historical diagrams. progression (B) births. mental categories. deaths. analyze their local conditions. participants can surface their own ideas. in an uncontrolled environment. Demography’ is the study of human population using statistical methods. to go through roughly similar experiences. and disease 113. what will be the population of this country in 40 years? (A) 150 million (B) 200 million (C) 300 million (D) 400 million (E) 600 million 118. This demographic concept refers to any age-group that is observed through time as its members are assumed. A remote village with 200 all-indigent households engaged in rainfed farming. the total Philippine population is expected to double in approximately (A) 32 years (B) 34 years (C) 36 years (D) 38 years 117. This refers to amount of population increase attributable to greater number of births than deaths per thousand population without considering in-migration and out-migration.693÷r’. disease. If the growth rate remains constant.230 (B) 1. due to isolation. preference ranking. (A) Quasi-Experiment (B) Naturalism (C) Direct Observation (D) Participant Observation 112. This family of cross-disciplinary. stagnation. and behaviors as naturally and as spontaneously as possible. community mapping. and other tools of rapid rural appraisal (RRA). and reproduction (C) transition. procreation. war. transect. would likely grow arithmetically. poverty. concerns. for the purpose of analysis. semi-structured interviews.290 .5 percent. (A) Reproductive Rate (B) Average Growth Rate Per Annum (C) Population Shift (D) Natural Increase 116. cross-sectoral approaches in research engages communities to share their indigenous knowledge. With their births-minus-deaths average of 30 persons per year. what would be the village’s projected total population in 3 years? (A) 1. This qualitative method from ethnography immerses the observer into the same conditions as those s/he is observing so that. (A) consort (B) cohort (C) ensemble (D) array (E) connivance 115.180 (D) 1. (A) Interactive Andragogy (B) Participatory Action Research C) Virtual Learning Network (D) Social Anthropology 111. The demographic concepts described as sources of change in the size and magnitude of population are: (A) copulation. such that if the Philippines AGR in 2000-2007 is 2.Social Planning Page 16 of 28 pages 110. in order to plan and to act on their own problems. and migration (D) famine. 4% per annum.04% per annum while Town FGHIJ has growth rate of 1.) is that (A) The former takes into account movement of people while the latter only considers reproduction and deaths. According to NSO 2009.400 in 2009. The main difference between the “economic method” of projecting population growth and the “mathematical methods” (arithmetic. 20.” but is premised on the widespread abundance of food. 122. (D) The latter is based upon the assumption of “do nothing” while the former ignores historic patterns. stroke. (D) Poor transport to Town FGHIJ makes movement difficult. and are called leading causes of (A) Fatality (B) Terminality (C) Corporeality (D) Mortality 123. This pattern of rapid population growth expressed by the formula Pt = Po ert is “seemingly without bounds” and is called “Malthusian. The whole country has a population growth rate of 2.130 120. heart diseases.400 (C) 21. cancer. .820 (D) 22. ‘Morbidity’ essentially refers to (A) mental insanity cases per 1000 population (B) incidence of disease per 1000 population (C) rate of contagion of epidemic every 72 hours (D) outbreak of plagues and pandemics every 3 years 124. which of following is likely true? (A) there is more out-migration from Town FGHIJ (B) there is more in-migration to Town FGHIJ C) Immigration and Emigration cancel out each other.Social Planning Page 17 of 28 pages 119. what would be its total year-end population by 2011? (A) 21. Using the ‘crude assumption’ method of computing migration flows.000 in 2008. together account for 50% of total deaths. geometric formulae.808 in 2010. Using geometric growth formula of Pt= Po(1+r)t at uniform r=2% per annum. (A) polynomial growth rate (B) parabolic growth rate (C) logistic growth rate (D) exponential growth rate 121. 20. and malignant neoplasms which are degenerative disorders due to lifestyle. (B) The former forecasts varying rates of growth of local economic output and creates alternative scenarios. (C) The latter does not consider ‘force majeure’ or recurrent natural disasters. etc. which is not true in all places. cerebrovascular diseases.224 (B) 21. Town ABCDE had a total year-end population of 20. The central difference between ‘birth rate’ and ‘fertility rate’ is (A) ‘birth rate’ pertains to fecundity of a woman while ‘fertility rate’ pertains to quantity & intensity of her sexual activity (B) ‘birth rate’ pertains to babies who survive while ‘fertility rate’ includes pregnancies which may or may not succeed (C) ‘birth rate’ refers to births in relation to total population while ‘fertility rate’ is in relation to average childbearing woman (D) ‘birth rate’ pertains to live births while ‘fertility rate’ includes still births. Pasay.7 average births in contrast to aggregate fertility rate of 3. (C) These NCR areas tend to physically decay with population density beyond a tolerable range. abortions & miscarriages (B) ‘birth rate’ pertains to babies who survive while ‘fertility rate’ includes pregnancies which may or may not succeed (C) ‘birth rate’ refers to births in relation to total population while ‘fertility rate’ is in relation to average childbearing woman (D) ‘birth rate’ pertains to live births while ‘fertility rate’ includes still births. and nearly 50% of women between ages 15 and 24 have had pre- marital sex and have experienced unwanted pregnancies.12% in Taguig City).22%.53% (versus highest rate at 2. 50% of women don’t want any more children. (B) Government and social institutions like family. Based on National Statistics Office’s definition. church. women of this age range are presumed to be fertile and child-bearing. 0. (D) New or young families in these NCR areas are likely to settle somewhere else. -0. all valid.3%. 0.Social Planning Page 18 of 28 pages 125. (B) These NCR areas are likely approaching their viable population limits. Makati. Which rational conclusion is supported by above data from ESCAP study1998? (A) Filipinos’ fondness for babies is waning.5 births per woman. 9% of women wanted to space births but could not do so. Mandaluyong. most considers sustainable capacity and livability? (A) These NCR areas have higher daytime population than nighttime population. the lowest population growth rates per annum in Metro Manila occurred in San Juan. premature deliveries.09%. City of Manila.03%. 17% of surveyed women wanted 2. Between census years 1990 and 2007. 126. and school need to be stricter about people’s sexual behavior (C) the women in the survey do not accurately represent the overall picture of Filipino womenfolk (D) there is apparently an unmet need for contraceptives and family planning among Filipino women (E) Filipino women are more burdened compared to men when it comes to birth control . (A) 12 yrs to 42 yrs (B) 14 yrs to 44 yrs (C) 15 yrs to 49 yrs (D) 16 yrs to 36 yrs (E) 17 yrs to 37 yrs 127. abortions & miscarriages 128. 0. Which of the following statements. premature deliveries. 0. ’ (A) 16-year-old who dropped out of school and became a houseboy (B) 67-year-old BSC degree-holder who owns and operates a neighborhood variety or sari- sari store (C) 20 year old on his third year of the course. All of the following are of productive age. signaling the tendency of total population to decline after replacement-level fertility (1. physical fitness. or active in the informal sector or underground economy (B) age 16 to 64 years regardless of gender. Which method uses population of larger geographic area to ‘interpolate’ population of a smaller geographic area? (A) ‘step down’ or area ratio method (B) logistic method (C) component method (D) shift share 133. and the number of children they want in accordance with their cultural and religious beliefs (C) encourage use of contraception among married couples (D) enforce one-child rule for all couples 130. underemployed.5%) has been attained. . secondary and tertiary schools. Because census age-groupings do not coincide with school-going ages for primary. The central difference between a ‘census’ and a ‘survey’ is that (A) census makes use of questionnaires while surveys make use of telephone interviews (B) census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling (C) census is done every 10 years while survey can be done by anyone anytime anywhere (D) only qualified demographers and statisticians ought to conduct a census 131. spacing. this method is used to disaggregate school-age population within a bracket into workable components. ‘Labor Force’ is more accurately defined as comprising all persons (A) age 18 to 65 years currently employed. and analytical skills 135. (A) sprague multiplier (B) sprengler multiplier (C) survival and dropout rate (D) disambiguation 132.1% to 1. numeracy.Social Planning Page 19 of 28 pages 129. The declared population policy of the Philippine government 2001-2010 aimed to (A) uplift ‘reproductive health’ of women as basis of population management (B) support couples in making decisions on the timing. mental health condition (C) age 15 to 64 years not in school nor under special care and actively seeking productive work or employment (D) age 14 years and above with demonstrated literacy. Bachelor of Science in Information Technology Management (D) 32-year old virgin entering the nunnery as a religious novice. but only one is strictly counted as part of the ‘Labor Force. economic status. writing. The historic shift of birth and death rates from high to low levels. is called (A) Population Reversal (B) Demographic Transition (C) Population Shift (D) Demographic Deceleration 134. qualification. (A) Primavera (B) Force Field Analysis (C) Logical Framework (D) Logical Decision Window 142. (C) Evaluation looks into the ‘why’ question while monitoring looks into ‘how much’. Which essential elements of LogFrame or “Z.O. An analytical. The hierarchic logic in LogFrame or “Z. and selecting a preferred implementation strategy. What does ‘ex post facto’ evaluation seek to do? (A) describe conditions under which an undertaking is effective (B) identify any unanticipated effects of an undertaking (C) determine whether stated goals have been achieved (D) all of the above .P.P.P” starts with broad goals which are subsequently broken down into purposes. The law that provides for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and housing program and establishes the mechanisms for the implementation of socialized housing in the Philippines (A) RA 7279 (B) RA 7160 (C) RA 1010 (D) RA 6969 137. what the key assumptions are. which contribute to results. and activities.O. which contributes to a goal 139. developing a ladder like chain of objectives. (D) Monitoring assesses the performance of project staff.P” are used for plan monitoring and evaluation? (A) targets and quotas (C) milestones and signposts (B) indicators and means of verification (MOV) (D) gauges and benchmarks 141. What color is used to represent residential areas in zoning map? (A) Yellow (B) Brown (C) Aqua Marine (D) Red 138. What is the central difference between ‘monitoring and evaluation’? (A) There is no difference between ‘monitoring and evaluation’ that’s why they always go together.Social Planning Page 20 of 28 pages 136. presentational. outputs. and how outputs and outcomes will be monitored and evaluated . (B) Monitoring looks at objective quantifiable data while evaluation weighs subjective judgments and perceptions. usually taking the form of a four-by-four table that summarizes what the project intends to do and how. objectives. stakeholder analysis. which lead to the objective. which define activities (C) The results of objectives lead to activities that contribute to the goal (D) Activities lead to results. (B) The goal leads to objectives. (A) Horizontal (B) vertical (C) lateral (D) diagonal 140. and management tool that involves problem analysis. evaluation assesses performance of project management (E) Monitoring is done within the control of project management while evaluation is done by higher management 143. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the LogFrame? (A) Results define the objective and activities contribute to goals. and incidence of poverty.9% in 1990 and averaged 33% between 2001 and 2010. according to official UNDP reports? (A) “Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger (E) “Combat HIV/AIDS. per capita income. stakeholder participation. society. and personal loyalty (B) No (D) Attainment would have been substantial were it not for the global economic recession of 2008-2009 149. adult literacy rate. Did the administration of President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo attain its Millennium Development Goal in poverty reduction? (A) Yes (C) Answer depends on one’s level of information. results. responsiveness D) impartiality. What does an ‘impact evaluation’ measure that is not clearly described in ‘terminal evaluation’ at project’s end? (A) key outputs or outcomes of a project (B) indicators. Which of the following statements on evaluation is false? (A) ‘Efficiency’ criterion asks whether results were achieved at reasonable costs (B) ‘Effectiveness’ criterion assesses how results impacted on the objective (C) ‘Relevance’ criterion assesses if the project fitted into the wider social context and priorities of government. Incidence of families below poverty line stood at 39. treasure. malaria and other diseases” (B) “Promote gender equality and empower women (F) “Improve women’s reproductive health” (C) “Achieve universal primary education (G) “Reduce child mortality” (D) “Ensure environmental sustainability (H) “develop global partnership for development” . credibility and usefulness 146. timeliness.2% (D) 15. political bias. Under which of the following Millennium Development Goals has the Philippines achieved the greatest accomplishment in the period 2000-2010.Social Planning Page 21 of 28 pages 144. and milestones (C) immediate results of an undertaking (D) long-term consequences on people.3% (B) 5. benchmarks. trust (B) outputs.6% 150. (A) Millennium Development Goals (C) Human Development Index (B) Index of Sustainability (D) GPI – Genuine Progress Indicator 148.4% (C) 10. talent. what is the official target of government in terms of reducing family poverty below the food threshold or subsistence threshold by the year 2015? (A) 0. Under Millennium Development Goals. outcomes. What are the four principles to guide evaluation? (A) time. An indicator of “Quality of Life” developed by Nobel Prize Laureate Amartya Sen. school enrolment rate. effects (C) adequacy. (D) ‘Sustainability’ criterion assesses whether the issuance of CNC or ECC was justified (E) ‘Impact’ criterion assesses whether project has made a dent on real-life conditions & needs of target beneficiaries 145. this composite measure combines life expectancy at birth. anticipation. and nature 147. (F) coddling by traditional patronage politicians because of voting power of large concentrations of urban poor 156. and 82. ethnic-related personal networks serving as safety nets that provide social solidarity and reciprocity (D) alternative modes of access to squatter areas by water through rivers. (A) Milton Friedman (B) Paul Krugmann (B) (C) Robert Solow (D) Gunnar Myrdal 153. 34. income distribution first worsens before it gradually improves in the long run. A gauge of income inequality. canals. waste matter.382 informal settler households in Metro Manila in 2004-2010. that result in the constriction.802 households settled along Pasig River. or reclamation of any portion of rivers.” According to Nobel Prize laureate Simon Kuznets. (A) wealth residual dichotomy (B) inverted ‘U’ hypothesis (C) the ‘J’ curve (D) Dismal Theory 152. “It gets worse before it gets better. The saying “the rich get richer and the poor get poorer” is related to concepts of ‘spread’ and ‘backwash’ in a regional economy that were first articulated by this Nobel Prize laureate for economics. What is the primary ‘mode’ of informal settlement in Metro Manila? (A) ‘along da riles’ (B) ‘along esteros’ (C) ‘along the Pasig’ (D) ‘occupation of public and private lands’ 155. or pollutive substances into rivers with at least 6-months imprisonment. creeks. easements. 21. The following reasons underlie locational motivation of urban poor to live in slum colonies and shantytowns. Of 145. residual public lands.367 settled along the ‘riles’. and drainage channels.Social Planning Page 22 of 28 pages 151. Commonwealth Act 383 of 1938 punishes the dumping of any refuse. both formal and informal (B) zero to low land rents and occupancy fees in marginal lands. it is measured graphically by dividing the area between the perfect equality line and the Lorenz curve by the total area lying to the right of the equality line in a Lorenz curve diagram (A) absolute poverty barometer (B) Gini coefficient (C) Kuznets curve (D) human deprivation index 154. improvement upon. as an economy experiences growth. occupation. while PD 296 of 1973 penalizes illegal encroachment. 6. creeks. and ditches.896 households occupied public and private lands. Which reason is socio-cultural in nature and serves to compensate for the lack of livelihood and employment opportunities in cities? (A) proximity to low-skill jobs and sources of income in the urban services sector. partial or complete closure of said waterways. and coasts (E) ease of disposal of solid wastes and liquid wastes into esteros. and danger zones (C) kinship-based.047 settled along esteros. esteros. with a prison term of (A) at least 2 to at most 10 years (B) at least 1 year (C) 3 to 5 years (D) 5 to 7 years . Social Planning Page 23 of 28 pages 157. Why is a mass housing project in the watershed area of La Mesa Reservoir Dam unsound and environmentally dangerous? (A) because a declared watershed is a protected area and hence not alienable and disposable (B) because domestic solid wastes and leachate from septic tanks can contaminate water supply for 12 million people (C) because trees to capture precipitation. Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UDHA that “developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be required to develop an area for socialized housing equivalent to at least 20% of total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost. are the priority in a catchment reserve (D) all of the above 159. serving as a middle point between emergency shelter and permanent housing for a timeframe of six months to two years. (A) Public Private Resources Exchange (C) Balanced Housing Development (B) Cooperative Housing Development (D) Corporate Social Responsibility 162. which one adopts an ‘as is. where is’ approach and hence not conducive to ‘land assembly’ for an integrated holistic settlement? (A) off-site resettlement (C) land readjustment (B) in-city relocation (D) medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter (C) on-site slum upgrading (E) collaborative models such as ‘Gawad Kalinga’ and ‘Habitat for Humanity’ 158. within the same city or municipality. In welfare-oriented societies. whenever feasible. which unit ought to prepare the local shelter plan of an LGU? (A) Planning and Development Office (C) Subdivision Homeowners Association (B) Local Development Council (D) Association of Barangay Captains 161. at the option of the developer.” so that both government and market can jointly provide for the needs of lower socio-economic classes. not housing and impervious structures. this is a shelter program designed to help homeless individuals and families progress toward self-sufficiency in an environment of security and support. (A) Mass Housing (B) Transitional Housing (C) Public Row housing (D) Cooperative Housing 160. Of the following solutions to address urban slums. In the absence of an operational Local Housing Board. In RA 9397’s amendment to expand socialized housing options of national/local government under RA 7279 UDHA. which common mode/program is being remedied for its uneven effectiveness in addressing homelessness? (A) transfer of homelot ownership in fee simple (B) public rental housing (C) usufruct or lease with option to purchase (D) time-share arrangements and communal shelter . water supply. What is minimum gross lot area of a row-house unit of socialized housing under Batas Pambansa 220? (A) 32 sqm (B) 36 sqm (C) 18 sqm (D) 22 sqm . stormwater drainage.Social Planning Page 24 of 28 pages 163. confiscation (B) readjustment. environmental thresholds and natural geohazards (C) demographic. park/playground (D) police station. 2006. According to Batas Pambansa 220. recreation. church. swap. purchase. transport vehicles. exchange. daycare center. As per HUDCC circular dated September 27. and eventually improve their homes to the extent of their affordability” (A) Zonal Improvement Program (B) Slum Upgrading (C) Unified Home Lending Program (D) Community Mortgage Program 165. & similar techniques 164. A condemned building is torn down to give way to an ‘infill’ housing project to keep labor force in the inner city. jail. the affordability level of housing is based on that portion of total gross family income that an average household would regularly allocate for shelter. government office. assembly hall. or where they choose to relocate to. a dwelling unit with total value of P300. disposal of solid and liquid wastes. ‘Land Banking’ refers to the right of government to acquire land in advance of actual need through (A) eminent domain. roads for circulation. and cellsites (C) water. public school. re-platting (C) raising revenues through Land Bank LBP bonds & treasury bills (D) sale. market for foodstuffs. the design of housing projects has to prioritize physical needs in the following order of importance. basketball court. re-alignment.000 or less is called (A) Low-Cost Housing (B) Socialized Housing (C) Economic Housing (D) Gawad Kalinga 166. fire station. expropriation. A house financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which “assists legally organized associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a tract of land under the concept of community ownership so that residents of blighted or depressed areas can own the lots they occupy. cemetery. negotiation. power. which is (A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60% 168. Under BP 220. solid waste facility (B) health center. Which of following important HLURB parameters would have the least and most minor issues in comparative terms? (A) past and present land use (B) suitability of terrain. telephone and cable trunk lines 169. (A) electricity. socio-economic and political considerations (D) locational motivation towards place or neighborhood 167. 40 m (D) 3.500 (C) 2. According to PD 1096 Nat’l Building Code of 1977 Sec 806. (A) one-fifth (B) one-sixth (C) one-eighth (D) one-tenth .0 m (D) 8.0 m (C) 6. at what scale or minimum number of family dwelling units would it be appropriate to allocate space for an elementary school as part of a socialized housing project? (A) 4. According to PD 957 Sec.000-2. In the GRZ or R-1 zone.000-5. 28.000 (B) 3. but low to medium density residential development would be ideally located in areas with slope of (A) 5% to 10% (B) 5% to 15% (C) 5% to 18% (D) 5% to 20% (E) 5% to 25% 174.499 (D) 1. According to BP 220.999 173. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 808.80 m (C) 3.40 m (B) 2. or alley. room ventilation in a dwelling unit without air conditioning or mechanical ventilation is based on the ratio that area of window opening should be at least ______ of floorspace. what should be the minimum distance of building exterior wall from the curb of street? (A) 5 m (B) 6 sm (C) 7 m (D) 8 m 177. of at least (A) 2. (A) 2.0 m 175. What is minimum gross lot area for single-detached family dwelling unit of open market housing under PD 957? (A) 90 sqm (B) 100 sqm (C) 110 sqm (D) 120 sqm 171. when a government office or public institution is located inside a private subdivision. shall not occupy more than 90% of a corner lot or 80% of an inside lot.Social Planning Page 25 of 28 pages 170. a habitable room in a residential dwelling unit should have a minimum area of 6 sq.80 m 178.500-1. and be built in such a way that its exterior wall is at least ____ from the property line. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 104. as measured from floor to ceiling. According to BP 220.0 m (B) 4. yard.m (14 m3) and ceiling height or headroom clearance. what is the maximum height of a residential structure as measured from the highest natural grade line on the property or from sidewalk level up to its roof? (A) 5 m (B) 7 m (C) 9 m (D) 11 m 176. a residential dwelling unit or “Group A” building shall have one side adjoin or have direct access to a public space. high-density residential structures can be allowed in flatlands with slope 0-5%. street. the rights of access of which group should take precedence? (A) the rights of property owners over the rights of the taxpayers (B) the rights of the general public over the rights of the subdivision homeowners (C) the rights of government officials over the rights of businessmen (D) the rights of public utility vehicle operators over the rights of private car owners 172.000-2. If the sidewalk is 3 meters in width. how much open space should an ideal elementary or high school campus have. By Philippine standards.5 meters or 8 feet. and the minimum horizontal clearance between their respective roof eaves or overhang is 1. this is the ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of an open-market subdivision as required under PD 957 or the Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protection Act? (A) minimum of 60% open space (C) 60% saleable and 40% non-saleable (B) minimum of 50% open space (D) 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable 186.Social Planning Page 26 of 28 pages 179.75 meters 182. The setback of a septic tank from a residential wall should be at least 1. According to RA 6541 National Building Code of 1972. if the minimum distance between 2 two-storey houses is 4 meters.6 meters (C) 3.5 meters or 5 feet while the setback of a disposal field or leach field is 2.. this is the maximum vertical distance between two landings (not steps) of a stairway. By Philippine standards.50 meters (C) 1. out of its total land area? (A) 60% or more (B) 50% or more (C) 40% or more (D) 30% or more .. casa. or place of ill-repute be allowed to locate in relation to a school? (A) 50 meters away or more (B) 100 meters away or more (C) at least 200 meters away (D) at least 500 meters away 187. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1003.4 meters (B) 2. Lower than US standards by 10%. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1207.6 meters (D) 4. What should be the minimum distance between your septic tank and leach field from your neighbor’s exterior wall? (A) 2 meters (B) 3 meters (C) 4 meters (D) 5 meters (E) 6 meters 183. the minimum parking requirement is ‘one parking slot for every. projections such as balconies or appendages of a dwelling unit should have this vertical distance between the established street/sidewalk grade and the lowest undersurface of balcony (A) 2 meters (B) 3 meters (C) 3.25 meters (B) 0.50 m. how far should a striptease joint. beerhouse. what would be the horizontal length of each building’s overhang from exterior wall up to the edge of roof? (A) 0.5 meters 181.’ (A) 100-125 m2 of floorspace (B) 100-125 m2 of business and customer service area (C) 100-125 m2 of titled property (D) 100-125 m2 of front yard 185. What should be the minimum distance between a drinking water-well or spring from the drainfield of a septic tank? (A) 15 m (B) 25 m (C) 35 m (D) 45 m (E) 55 m 184. (A) 2.5 meters (D) 4 meters 180.50 meters (D) 1. According to BP 220. incentives.5 hectares (D) 1. To compute for standard size of classroom. servers in all food establishments. whether formal or informal businesses? (A) lung X-ray & HIV-AIDS test from public hospital (B) health clearance from local health office (C) food testing report from Bureau of Food and Drugs lab (D) face mask and hairnet from Department of Health 192. instruments. this refers to policies.Social Planning Page 27 of 28 pages 188.000m2 (C) at least 10. services and actions that address the disadvantaged position of women in society by providing preferential treatment and affirmative action such as measures aimed to accelerate de facto equality between men and women. (A) Sexual Equality (B) Gender Equity (C) Women’s Liberation (D) Gender Parity (E) Feminist Empowerment . 4g.500 m2 (B) at least 5. This use in design of average measurements of body and bodily movements is an application of the field of (A) biomechanics (B) bionics (C) physiometrics (D) anthropometrics 189. and property rights approaches.5 hectares (C) 2. According to RA 9710 Magna Carta of Women of 2009 Sec. the major approach of the National Government to manage the environment by means of policies. What would be the required open space? (A) at least 2.5 hectares 191.40m2 (HLURB) or 3 cu. preparers. should have a campus area of at least seven hectares. processors. A University or Institution of Higher Learning with total enrolment of 10. 1. By Philippine standards.000m2 (D) at least 25. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975. what should be acquired individually by all food workers. Apart from taxes. Which ‘environmental management’ practice by firms is most encompassing of the four enumerated below? (A) ‘Disperse and Dilute’ (B) End-of-Pipe Treatment (C) Product Life Cycle Assessment (D) factory waste-exchange 195.000m2 190. and standards is called-- (A) Coerce and Compel (B) Contain and Constrain (C) Command and Control (D) Cash and Checks 196.m ‘bubble’ per pupil (PD1096 NBC) is multiplied by the ideal number of pupils per classroom as determined by DepEd. vendors. the minimum total area for a tertiary-level general hospital with 300 beds is (A) 4.5 hectares (B) 3. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975 Sec. programs.13a.000 or more. Which ‘environmental management’ practice by households is broadest of the four enumerated below? (A) Re-use (B) Reduce (C) Recycle (D) Reform lifestyles 194. washing of clothes and bathing cannot take place within what distance from any public well or public source of drinking water? (A) 25 meters (B) 100 meters (C) 150 meters (D) 200 meters 193. rules. Spanish Documents. religious sites and/or artifacts in the area. stone walls. farms. . This is the first law that marked the mainstreaming of gender issues into the agenda of development by promoting the “Integration of Women as Full and Equal Partners of Men in Development and Nation Building. written records of customs and traditions (E) Burial grounds or pictures thereof. (C) Historical accounts. rice fields. more GHG emissions aggravating air pollution. accidents. written and oral testimonies of living witnesses made under oath. social interaction. (D) Genealogical surveys. houses and other old structures. (C) exclusionary land use encourages satellite bedroom communities where work and other needs are not available (D) increased Vehicle Miles Traveled (VMT) correlates with traffic jams. and huge external economic costs borne by society in general (E) mothers with infants and young children are ‘zoned out’ of production as jobs in the CBD or in factory district are too far from home to enable women to successfully carry out both domestic duties and formal employment 199. water systems. and prevent other social problems. which category of evidence needs substantial assistance from a planner with extensive background in anthropology? (A) Tax declarations and proof of payment of taxes. labor productivity losses. reduce anomie. monuments. survey plans and/or sketch maps.” (A) RA 1010 (B) RA 7192 (C) RA 6969 (D) RA 8010 198. sociable communities deter crime. ancient documents. and neighborly behavior essential to local community-building (B) self-contained. balanced. or pictures thereof. lessen psychological distress caused by movement to/from work or school. increase quality family time. (A) Regional Autonomy (B) Ancestral Domain (C) Self-Government (D) Tribal Ownership 200. (B) Old improvements such as planted trees. orchards.Social Planning Page 28 of 28 pages 197. Of the following forms of evidence that Indigenous Peoples can use to claim aboriginal land. RA 8371 IPRA grants to Indigenous Cultural Communities and Indigenous Peoples the right to own and possess their tribal lands as a limited form of private ownership that does not include the right to alienate the same lands. Conventional ‘Euclidean’ or exclusionary zoning is faulted for the following valid reasons. Which reason comes from the feminist perspective of Jane Jacobs. et al? (A) rigid segregation of land uses unnecessarily lengthens travel distance to meet other needs and discourages walking.