MICROBIOLOGY 20101. The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population: a. Outbreak b. Zoonotic c. Endemic d. Sporadic 2. A causative agent of peptic ulcer a. Escherichia coli b. Bordetella pertusis c. Shigella dysenteriae d. Helicobacter pylori 3. The “four o’clock habit” promoted by the Department of health is designed to prevent the spread of: a. Dengue fever b. Tuberculosis c. Malnutrition d.malaria 4. The first drug available for HIV: a. ZDU b. RMP c. TMP d. CMC 5. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate antigen: a. Hay fever b. Anaphylaxis c. Asthma d. Desensitation 6. A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation: a. Cilium b. Trichome c. Flagellum d. Pilus 7. The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because: a. It can discolour the meat b. It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines c. It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments d. It is not readily available 8. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supply: a. Lysol b. Chlorine c. Ozone d. Reverse osmosis 9. An object that is able to harbour and transmit microorganisms: a. Mite b. Fomite c. Arthropod d. Vector 10. Administration of a toxoid cenfers: a. Naturally acquired active immunity b. Naturally acquired passive immunity c. Artificially acquired active immunity d. Artificially acquired passive immunity 11. An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible to population during a specific period: a. Morbidity rate b. Prevalence rate c. Mortality ate d. AOTA 12. The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by: a. Population size b. Duration of exposure c. Concentration of all the disinfectant d.AOTA 13. Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as: a. Koplik spot b. Peyer’s patches c. Rose spots d. Rashes 14. Anaerobic bacteria that drive energy by converting formats, acetates and other compounds to methane: a. Microaerophilic b. Metanochromi c. Methanogenic d. Cyanobacteria 15. Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with: a. Attenuated microorganisms b. Immunoglobulin preparations c. Toxoids d. Cyanobacteria 16. Nosocomial infections are: a. Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital b. Infections of the nasal area c. Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose d. Infections among animals MICROBIOLOGY 2010 17. The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as: a. Pathogenicity b. Virulence c. Toxigenicityd. Toxicity 18. The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to: a. Industrial wastes b. Fecal coliforms c. Red tide d. Oil spills 19. The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is: a. Straight b. Slim c. Blunt d. Curved 20. It refers to water suitable for drinking: a. Potable b. Edible c. bacteria-free d. Odor-free 21. Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as: a. Fermentation b. Putrefaction c. Dentrification d. Transpeptidation 22. Rod-shape bacteria curved from commas are known as: a. Bacilli b. Cocci c. Spiral d. Vibrios 23. This statement is true about viral infection: a. Viral infection are self limiting b. Viral infection confer lifetime immunity c. viral infections are treated by antibiotics d. All the statements are correct 24. The heat stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the host is known as: a. Tetanospasmin b. Aflatoxin c. Enterotoxin d. endotoxin 25. To ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is known as: a. Invasiveness b. Pathogenicity c. Toxigenicityd. Virulence 26. The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as: a. Mutualism b. Commensalism c. Symbiosis d. AOTA 27. Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be: a. Recyclable b. Biodegradable c. Earth-friendly d. Reversible 28. Dengue virus vector: a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Aedes agypti c. Anopheles mosquito d.NOT A 29. It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin: a. Tinea capitis b. Tines corporis c. Trichophyton rubrum d. Malaserria furfur 30. The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners a. Chlamydia b. Salmonella typi c. Pneumocystis carinii d. Legionell pneumophila 31. The following are communicable diseases, except: a. Measles b. Tetanus c. Pneumonia d. hepatitis 32. The following are zoonotic disease, except: a. Mumps b. Leptospirosis c. Anthrax d. Brucellosis 33. Hansen’s disease is caused by: a. Mycobacterium leprae b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Myoplasma leprae d.NOTA 34. The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except: a. Makes use of an autoclave b. Causes oxidation of cell components c. Makes use of steam under pressure d. Can kill both vegetative cells and spores 35. A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the: a. Endospore b. Exospores c. Trasposon d. Capsule 36. Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as: Death phase 50. Bacillus thuringiensis c. Viruses 44.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 a. A process by which bacterial endospore return to its vegetative state: a. 80s c. Glassware 48. The organism with atypical cell wall: a. Pleomorphism d. Sporulation 51. X-ray b. Thermophiles b. Water d. Clostridium botulinum 49. Stationary phase d. 100s 52. Sulfonmide b. R plasmids c. The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals d. NOTA . Cytoplasm d. Tansposons d. Sunlight d. Chlamydias d. Koch’s postulates include the following. The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology. Enriched media b. 70s b. Acidophies d. Log phase b. Psychrophies c. Nucleus c. except: a. Protozoa b. Bacillus stearothermophillus d. Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth: a. UV c. 90s d. Mesophiles 53. Mutagenicity c. Ribosomes b. Sanitizer d. Salvarsan d. Pasteur flask d. Mycoplasms b. A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency: a. A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity: a. Differential media 40. Dimorphism b. Germination d. Polymorphism b. d. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave. An example of ionizing radiation: a. Lag phase c. b. Anaerobic media d. Ribosomes of candida albicans are reffered to as: a. Fractional sterilization c. F plasmids b. Terms “aerobic” and “anaerobic” b. except: a. The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured 45. Rickettias c. Antiseptic b. Disinfectant c. Penicillin c. The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes: a. Selective media c. Germination d. c. Germicide 41. Rickettias c. Olive oil b. Fleximorphism 47. Mitochondria 43. The suspected organism should be present in health individuals b. Organisms that can grow at body temperature: a. NOTA 39. Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects: a. Both B and C 37. The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory c. A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the spores is known as: a. Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes: a. Chlamydias d. Myoplasmas 38. Thioglycollate agar is an example of: a. AOTA 42. except: a. Culture media c. The first chemotherapeutic agent significally discovered and evaluated: a. Virus b. Polymorphism c. Sporulation b. Fermentation 46. Transverse binary fission c. Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV: a. spore 56. which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health among various sectors: a. NOTA 60. Diatom c. Physical Hazards d. Theory of spontaneous generation b.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 54. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster: a. Sentrong sigla d. Euglenoid d. NOTA 68. National Drug Policy Program d. Coal Mine health and Safety Act e. Mesothelioma b. NOTA 57. Phagocytes d. Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration: a. NOTA 61. Workers compensation law c. Capsule d. Internal Management b. QUERT d. Transformation d. NOTA 58. A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust: a. NOTA 65. burn. National Health Objectives c. A type of industrial hazard. Backyard gardening community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities under this program: a. Dinoflagellate b. The following are the functions of Amiotic fluid. NOTA 69. Ergonomic e. OSH Act b. NOTA 66. CO2 d. CO c. NOTA 67. Conjugation c. An employee liability law that provides financial support for workers unemployed because of work related injuries: a. Civilian rehabilitation d. Health Regulation Development e. which includes ambient heat. UNICEF d. Transduction b. Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health related matters: a. Physical d. Sentrong sigla d. Health Passport Initiative e. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy b. Lead ` e. A priority program of DOH. WHO e. NOTA 64. Health regulation c. PhilHealth b. Germ Theory d. Herbal and Philippine Traditional Medicine e. Virion b. DOH Hospitals c. noise and vibration: a. Chemical Hazards c. A structurally mature infections viral particle: a. Sentrong Sigla e. Biological b. T-cytotoxic lymphocytes 59. A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus: a. Ergonomic hazards e. Its main objective is attained by all people of the highest possible level of health: a. Health Passport Initiative e. Health Sector Reform Agenda b. Capsid c. except: . Both A and C 55. Health Sector Reform Agenda b. External Affairs d. Koch’s Postulates c. Sulfur dioxide b. An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning: a. DOH b. NOTA 62. Another priority program of DOH. B-lymphocytes c. Nutrition Program c. WHO c. National Health Objectives c. A theory that states that life originates from none life: a. Chemical c. NOTA 63. which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and hospitals: a. T-helper lymphocytes b. Allows the movement of fetus d. CO2 b. Smaller size b. AOTA e. Cleavage e. Irradiation d. A and B e. REA c. Steven johnson’s syndrome b. Tranquilizers d. Vit. NOTA c. Alkalinification c. NOTA 81. Pregnancy b. Middle stage c. Poor coordination e. Provides stable temperature 70. B and C 76. AOTA e. NOTA 72. RDA b. minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual: a. Heart defects d. The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement: a. Overnutrition e. Hang-over d. This is a period between conception through complete delivery of the product of conception: a. RAD d. Undernutrition d. NOTA . Manganese c. Wernicke-korakoff syndrome d. snow. RAE e. Pellagra c. A b. NOTA 82. digestion. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity: a. Cirrhosis b. The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome.NOTA 80. K e. A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidant a. A and B e. A and B e. Fatty liver d. Acidification` b. Allows the fetus to float b. Chromium d. A drug treatment of alcoholism. Vit. Down syndrome c. E d. Canning b. It describes the amount of energy. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake. which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol a. Copper b. Drying e. transport and excretion of nutrients: a. Final stage e. A and B e. pond or slow moving river stream brought about by the accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the number of organisms: a. Alcoholism c. Deficiency of thiamine leads to: a. B and C 84. Eutrophication e. Zinc e. absorption. Pasteurization c. Alcoholic hepatitis c. Vit. Beri-beri b. Third stage d. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain.NOTA 77. Sulfur dioxide c. Vit.NOTA 79. Nitrogen oxide d. Cirrhosis b. B and C 83. electron transport and wound healing: a. Naltrexone b. Antabuse c. Primary malnutrition b. NOTA 73. NOTA 71.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 a. Fertilization c. Secondary malnutrition c. Nitrification d. Vit. Protects against mechanical injury e. Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts: a. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication. Initial stage b. NOTA 75. NOTA 74. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis. air or fog a. Stomatitis d. Implantation d. except: a. Deformities of limb c. Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic microorganism: a. D c. protein.NOTA 78. B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called: a. Polio virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome b. example the Pneumococcus. except: a. the one that binds to cell receptors and one that has the toxic acrtivity d. Both pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children . They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli c. and as a result some bacteria have many serologis types c. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct. Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically. They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria ar4e correct. Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome c. It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways b. The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity. the organism forms budding yeasts d. c. whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do. Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children. except: a. Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils d. They are integral parts of the cell wall b. Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida). It is dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body b. Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells c. Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin. except: a. which one of the following statements is least accurate? a. Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria. except: a. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct. Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses. Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome d. Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome 86. Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules. which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines 89. Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis b. d. hence the primary site of infection is the lungs c. 87. When cultured in the laboratory. The following statements regarding coccidiodes immitis are correct. 88. But leaves antigenicity intact. Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria 90. which one of the following is least accurate? a.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 85. which inactivates its ability to cause disease b. d. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines. Penicillin is very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reations. Which of the following is least likely to do this? a. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Gonococcus e. Staphylococcus aureus d. Mumps virus 92. Hepatitis A virus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody response b. Polio virus c. Streptococcus agalactiae c. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Streptococcus pyogenes e. A group of streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis a. Streptococcus agalactiae c. kidney shaped diplococcic. Penicillin acts as a hapten. The pneumococcal vaccine contains capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Penicillin a T-dependent antigens. C4. C2 and C3) to release inflammatory mediators 93. A gram-negative. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pneumonia 98. The causative agent of suppurative disease like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative disease like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis a. Streptococcus agalactiae c. Clostridium tetani b. Bacillus antracis 99. In these allergies. Penicillin binds to carrier proteins. The causative agent for food poisoning. Meningococcus d. Gonococcus e. oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule referred to as glycocalyx a. Normal flora of the skin but may cause “stitch abscess” and sepsis a. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper T-cell d. A gram-negative. Streptococcus agalactiae c. kidney bean shaped diplococcic causing gonorrhoea a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Streptococcus pyogenes e. 91. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pneumonia 96. Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them c. The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults. Streptococcus agalactiae c. Streptococcus pneumonia 94. Listeria monocytogenes c. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Clostridium tetani b. TSS and skin boils a. Listeria monocytogenes c. Penicillin interacts with the early comnplements (C1. Bacillus antracis . and otitis media and sinusitis in children a. Streptococcus pneumonia 97. Streptococcus pneumonia 95. Rotavirus d. Which of the following is the most accurate: a. Staphylococcus aureus d. Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 e. Meningococcus d. A. Shigella dysenteriae E. Gonococcus D. Shigella dysenteriae E. non.glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter’s disease. Clostridium botulinum E. Facultative gram negative rods. Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile”. spore. Corynebacterium diphtheria 106. Clostridium perfringens C. Closrtidium tetani D. . It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis. Clostridium botulinum E. Escherichia coli C.D. Camphylobacter jejuni B.forming rod. Clostridium tetani 102. A gram negative. Listeria monocytogenes B. The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods. Salmonella typhi D. A. A. whose capsule is composed of poly. Aerobic. Urinary tract infection (UTI). A. spore. Listeria monocytogenes c. A halophilic coma shaped. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium botulinum E. Vibrio cholerae 111. Escherichia coli C. A. Clostridium dificile B. Clostridium dificile B. Clostridium tetani 103. it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system.lactose fermenting bacilli. In stained smear. non. A. non. Shigella dysenteriae E. Clostridium tetani b.forming rods. Meningococcus C. Escherichia coli C. Closrtidium tetani D. Vibrio cholerae 110. Closrtidium tetani D. Gonococcus D. Large. Anaerobic. Vibrio cholerae 109. Corynebacterium diphtheria 105. Salmonella typhi D. Meningococcus d. Closrtidium tetani D. Anaerobic. Camphylobacter jejuni B. Clostridium perfringens C. Bacillus antracis 101. A. Salmonella typhi D. Corynebacterium diphtheria 104. A. Clostridium perfringens C. A. Bacillus antracis E. gram negative bacteria. Clostridium botulinum E. gram-positive with terminal spore affecting neutrotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm a. coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in Skirrow’s agar. which is a normal flora of the intestine. Corynebacterium diphtheria 108. A. Clostridium dificile B.positive.lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery). sepsis neonatal meningitis and “travellers diarrhea” are the most common disease caused by this gram negative. Listeria monocytogenes B. Clostridium dificile B. Bacillus antracis E.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 100. Meningococcus C. Clostridium dificile B. Camphylobacter jejuni B. The causative agent of gas gangrene. Corynebacterium diphtheria 107.spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients. gram. Clostridium perfringens C. Closrtidium tetani D. Gonococcus e. Clostridium botulinum E. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans B. Cytomegalovirus 123. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Treponema pallidum 117. Mycobacterium leprae C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Varicella. A.Barr virus B. No drug is effective to treat the disease. Cytomegalovirus 119. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Mycobacterium leprae C. Camphylobacter jejuni B. Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative. Escherichia coli C. Escherichia coli C. The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores). Salmonella typhi D. keratitis and encephalitis.Zoster virus D. Spirochete. Treponema pallidum 118.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 A.lactose fermenting. Gancyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis. Leptospira interrogans B. Salmonella typhi D. Epstein. Spirochete. Epstein. Cytomegalovirus 121. An acid. Epstein. while Acyclovir is ineffective. . A. Shigella dysenteriae E. Mycobacterium leprae C. but not C. Varicella. Borrelia burgdorferi E. A.Barr virus B. It can be treated wth Rifampicin.Barr virus B.fast. Human and bacterial cells have plasmid. Human cells undergoes mitosis. Cytomegalovirus 120. which is causative agent of lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycycline for early stage and Pen G for late stages. A. Leptospira interrogans B. A. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Leptospira interrogans B.Zoster virus D. bacterial and fungal cells? A. Epstein. An acid. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. Treponema pallidum 115. gram negative rod which is capable of producing H2S. Pyrazinamide and INH.fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Shigella dysenteriae E. A. Varicella.Jensen medium and is capable of producing Niacin. A. Mycobacterium leprae C.Zoster virus D. Leptospira interrogans B. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human. which is the causative agent of leptospirosis. Varicella.Zoster virus D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. non. which can be treated with Acylovir. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Treponema pallidum 116. Camphylobacter jejuni B. which can be seen in a palisade arrangement. Herpes Simplex virus Type C. A. Varicella. Mycobacterium leprae C. Vibrio cholerae 113. Vibrio cholerae 112.Barr virus B. Herpes simplex virus type 2 E. A. Cytomegalovirus 122. A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. The causative agent of herpes genitalis. The causative agent of infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma in East African children. Treponema pallidum 114. The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein. Herpes Simplex virus Type C.Barr virus B.Zoster virus D. Epstein. A. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 133. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 134. Diphtheria toxin C. Diphtheria toxin C. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes C. Causes the release of necrosis factor 130. Flagella D. bacteroides fragilis can be found. Conjugation. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage B. Activation of the lysozymes that degrades C..T cells B. except: A. The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. less acteive C. Tetanus toxin D. except: A. B. They are part of the bacterial cell wall.2 A. They are more heat stable than exotoxins. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin 126. Transduction of a chromosomal gene C. Cholera toxin B. D.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 bacteria or fungi whereas fungal cells do not have. B. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens? A. Cell wall B. The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct. Stimulates T. ribosomes are different. The following events involve recombination of DNA. on weight basis) than exotoxins. Escherichia coli is a normal flora D. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is: A. whereas bacterial Peptidoglycan. Tetanus toxin D. Inactivates elongation factor. 124. whereas exotoxins do not. Human and fungal cells have similar In contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains ribosomes. The following statements about the normal flora are correct. Capsule C. Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine A. IgG and IgM antibodies D. D. Nose is one of the most common of the throat.ribosome to a G protein A. 125. The most common organism found on the skin C. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis B. They bind to specific cell receptors.2 D. Blocks release of acetylcholine B. Facilitation of phagocytosis the cell wall D. whereas exotoxins are not. Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin? A. 128. Colon is the major site where is Staphylococcus epidermis. Cholera toxin B. Helper. Activated macrophages secreting proteases C. except: A. Tetanus toxin D. Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP. Transposition of a mobile genetic element D. site Staphylococcus aureus can be found. Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 132. Cholera toxin . They are less potent (ie. such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor 127. Botolinum toxin E. Diphtheria toxin C. Ribosomes 131. Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins 129. Botolinum toxin E. Which of the following statements is the most important fubction of antibody in host defense against bacteria? A. Diphtheria toxin C. Botolinum toxin E.cells to produce cytokines A. Botolinum toxin E. B. Cholera toxin B. Clostridium perfringens C. Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector? A. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent? A. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be causative agent of his urinary tract infection? A. Streptococcus faecalis C. Coxiella burnetii 143. Tetanus toxin D. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram. Streptococcus pyogenes from D. Escherichia coli B. A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis. except: A. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 136. Nose D. The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Streptococcus aureus Neisseria meningitidis 140. whereas C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Salmonella typhi C. vomiting and diarrhea. serotypes. Rickettsia typhi D. Bacillus cereus B.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 B. Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple because it cannot synthesize suffient ATP. Colon C. what is the most likely source of the bacteria? A. Clostridium perfringens C. Skin C. wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish: A. Throat B. Salmonella typhi 141. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non. Escherichia coli 145. Urethra 139. Five hours after eating friend rice at a restaurant. Lyme disease D. Tetanus toxin D. Diphtheria toxin C. Colon D. Staphylococcus aureus from Streptococcus faecalis staphylococcus epidermidis B. Epidermic typhus 142. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following organisms? .negative rods. Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA one serotypes and is bounded by a cell wall D. Vibrio cholera 138. Lyme disease B. According to your knowledge of the normal flora. Haemophilus influenzae B. Cholera toxin B. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 135. The coagulase test. Botolinum toxin E. Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells? A. You are called investigate. except: A. Most Chlamydia are transmitted by arthropods.lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of swarming motility. Protues vulgaris B. Streptococcus fecalis D.you and your friends developed nausea. Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms A. which is caused by a member of the viridians group of Streptococcus. An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery.year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A 55. Which of the following sites is most likely to be source of the organism? A. Plague C. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli D. Streptococcus pyogenes from C. Oropharynx B. Psittaci has only B. 144. The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct. Vagina 137. Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite C. Serratia marcescenes D. 151. except: A. Interferon inhibits the growth of both C. 150. The following statements concerning this fact are correct. It is a defective virus that is missing C. Their virions contain RNA polymerase. They each have a single antigenic type. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. D. except: A. 155. Rotavirus D. Streptococcus agalactiae 147. D. the cell D. Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that repressed. Coxsackie virus B. The following viruses posses double. 149. C. HIV virus 152. except: A. except: A. Passive.enveloped RNA viruses. that cause human disease. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside in order to obtain nucleotides. Their virions contain RNA polymerase.stranded DNA. C. It consists of RNA without a protein or for replication to occur.active immunity D. It requires RNA polymerase in the particle B. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA B. It causes tumor in experimental animals. The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct. Adenovirus 154. Rotavirus 153. Passive immunity C. except: A. except: A. bacterial genes. available for both viruses. They are enveloped RNA viruses. except: A. the DNA coding for the matrix protein. They each have a single antigenic type.zoster virus B. Proteus vulgaris D. Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell C. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes. Active immunity B. The following viruses posses an outer envelope of lipoprotein. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Papillomavirus C. The following statements about lysogensy are correct. Mumps virus D. A.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 A. except: A. They each have multiple antigenic types. They are non. B. The following viruses posses RNA polymerase in the virion. D. Nocardia asteroides C. lipoprotein outer coat. They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol. Streptococcus faecalis B. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes. The following statements concerning interferon are correct. Influenza virus D. The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct. Herpes simplex virus C. 157. Cell-mediated immunity 148. Viruses DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA. Vaccines containing killed organisms are B. Hepatitis A virus B. Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong? A. B. Their virions contain RNA polymerase. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent patient. Escherichia coli 146. except: A. C. They are enveloped RNA viruses. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Viruses replicate independently of C. B. Viral genes responsible for lysis are D. D. Interferon is induced by double. D. Varicella. Which of the following statements best describe a viriod? A. The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct. 156. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA DNA and RNA viruses in order to obtain nucleotides B.stranded DNA as its genome. They do not integrate their genome into . Smallpox virus C. RNA non. A. St. DNA enveloped virus C. Cytomegalovirus D. DNA non. Herpes simplex virus A. Hepatitis C. Skunk. Meningitis 165. B. Oral administration of live vaccine B. Hepatitis C virus C. 167.enveloped virus D. D. Human papilloma virus E. A. Hepatitis C virus C.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 the DNA of the host cell. Viriod B. The initial site of viral replication is the C. The following clinical syndrome are associated with infection by picornavirus. Human papilloma virus E. Hepatitis B virus D. RNA enveloped virus E. RNA enveloped virus E. RNA enveloped virus E.enveloped virus D. Parenteral administration of live vaccine of inactivated vaccine D. It is important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients. Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus. A. Human papilloma virus E. Cytomegalovirus D. Viriod B. St. It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix. the rabies vaccine must be given. except: A. Hepatitis A virus C. Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus? A. rabies immune B. DNA non. 158. Human papilloma virus E. Viriod B. except: A. Louis encephalitis virus B.enveloped virus D. DNA enveloped virus C. Louis encephalitis virus B. 166. Cytomegalovirus D. DNA non. Hepatitis C virus C. except: A. Dengue virus 170. Human papillomavirus A. The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct. Dengue virus 169. Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin 164. attenuated C. St. Louis encephalitis virus B. DNA enveloped virus C. Mononucleosis D. The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct. except: A. Gamma globulin is used to prevent the asymptomatic infection in children. Louis encephalitis virus B. Parenteral (intramuscular) administration C. Cytomegalovirus D. The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic encephalomyelitis.enveloped virus 162. DNA enveloped virus C. makes diagnosis of hepatitis A. DNA non. Cytomegalovirus B. Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually gastrointestinal tract. Dengue virus . RNA non. Human T. Hepatitis A virus commonly causes D. Hepatitis C virus C. RNA enveloped virus E. The vaccine caontains live. disease in exposed persons.enveloped virus 159. Rotavirus A. Dengue virus 168. Myocarditis/Pericarditis B. If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as globulin must also be given. Viriod B.enveloped virus 161. exposure prophylaxis. RNA non. St.enveloped virus 160.cell leukemia virus A. A. When the vaccine is used for postrabies virus. Herpes simples virus 163. The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections. Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus should not be used for transfusion. RNA non.enveloped virus D. Psychrophilic. The bacterial organelle that is used for motility: A. Pili C. Fungi C.negative bacteria cell wall contains the following components. Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission: A. The peptidoglycan of gram. Flagella B. Highly resistant to disinfectants C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Nucleus C. DNA E. heart valves. Plasmids C. A rid. The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores: A. except: A. Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as: . Protozoa D. A. 174. This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces. Human papilloma virus E. This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin. An intracytoplasmic granule may contain: A. They are relatively small. 40 layers thick C. facultative anaerobic stretobacillus B. especially in soil deprivative D. Phospholipid 179.glutamic acid B. except: A. Mesosomes D. Lipotechoic acid C. Produced under condition of nutritional B. Mesophilic. Mesophilic. The following are true about prokaryotes. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the DNA. Slime layer C. This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial cells. Flagella 185. Techoic acid 183. Their genes are dedicated to essential D. Hepatitis C virus C. nuclear membrane. Shape B. Dengue virus 172. Lipoproteins B. Cytoplasmic membrane proteins C. C. Porins are: A. B. Psychrophilic. Gram. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a functions only. Cytomegalovirus D. Flagella B. Fimbriae C. Phylogenetic prokaryotic are based on: A. Can survive for many tears.negative bacteria probably is: A. Pili D. Nucleic acids B. Bacteria B. Transposons 180. Dipicolinic acid D. Mitochondria B. Flagellin C. 20 layers thick B. Mitotic apparatus D. 1 layer thick 177. Outer membrane proteins B. teeth and even catheters: A. Killed by heating at 100 C 186. Steroids D.Periplasmic proteins D. Helminths 175. They lack autonomous organelles.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 171. obligate anaerobic bacilli C. except: A. Capsule B. 10 layers thick D. Shared morphologic attributes C. A. Evolutionary relationships characteristics D.like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and killed by the presence of oxygen is best described as: A. obligate aerobic bacili D. Cilia D. Nucleoid B. which is the necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms: A. obligate anaerobic bacilli 187. Nuclear membrane 173. It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening. The following are true for endospores. Virus lack all of the following organelles. St. except: A. Polymerized d. Louis encephalitis virus B. Endospores 184. Glycogen C. 80 layers thick E. Spindle fibers 182. Helminths 176. Inclusion bodies 178. Capsule D. Pseudopods 181. The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity occurs but cells do not divide is the: A. Endemic B. In-vitro growth rates 202. This is described as: A. Intracellular and extracellular survival . Generation time D. Symbiosis D. Death phase 189. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids B. Which of the following statements is true about drug resistant plasmids? A. Acute 201. Pathogenicity C. Heterotrophs B. The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are: A. Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin 194. Oxidative fermenters 193. It is mediated by a bacterial virus B. Virulence B. It is indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host: A. Thermal death time B. Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time.negative bacteria C. Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called: A. Heterofermenters C. Epidemic C. Disease B. This period is characterized by mild aches. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili D. Two of the above 195. Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic components:the RTF and r determinant D. Lag phase D. Infection C. Attenuation D. This is described as: A. It is found only in gram. The two major components of virulence include: A. Carbohydrates/Nucleic acid/Steriods C. Convalescence stage 200. Which of the following organism is a predatory bacterium? A. Disease B. May be divided into two distinct genetic B. Autotrophs C. Thermal death point 190. Activated transport C. Decline phase B. Nucleic acid/Chitin/Peptidoglycan D. Invasiveness and toxigenicity B.negative bacteria 196. Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by: A. The number of cases of Filipino with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. Infestation C. Glyoxalate hunt fermenters B. Faciliated diffusion D. Infection D. Stationary phase B. Photoautotrophs 188. Chronic D. It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria: A. Parasitism 197. Any of the above 192. It is the relationship between the host and normal microbiota: A. Acute B.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 A. Pandemic D. Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus B. malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease: A. Illness stage D. Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation? A. Chemoautotrophs D. Found only in gram. Carrier. It requires the F factor C. Log phase C. Subacute C. Latent 199. Adherence factors and antiphagocycotic mechanisms C. Corynebacterium diphtheria 191. Syndromes 198. Salmonella thypinurium C. Homofermenters D. Prodormal stage C.mediated transport B. Pseudomonas seruginosa D. The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as: A. Growth rate constant C. Lincomycins D. They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. except: A. Tetracyclines C. they are also known as lipopolysaccharides. Orchidaceous 210. Urethra C. Cephalosporins 212. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. griseus D.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 D. Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving. Escherichia coli B. Clostridium tetani D. except: A. Bacillus anthracis B. Capsules and spreading factor 203. Srep. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or adeficiency of: . The following statements are true about endotoxins. 207. Bacillus anthracis 211. Colon C. Bacillus anthracis B. Nodosus B. Teeth B. Skin 208. except: A. Bacillus polymyxa D. They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins. Ster. Aminoglycosides B. Bronchi D. although the growth of the organism is inhibited. is produced by: A. Corynebacterium diphtheria 204. Vancomycin is produced naturally from: A. The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclise. B. Mouth 209. Clostridium tetani D. Orientalis C. Strep. Clostridium botulinum C. The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora: A. Polymixin is produced from: A. The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora. Strep. Skin B. The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian proteinsynthesis by inactivating EF2 of eukaryotic cells is produced by: A. D. Bacillus subtilis B. Staphylococcus aureus 206. Corynebacterium diphtheria 205. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. C. The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms. resulting in accumulation of cyclic AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining is: A. Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins. Vagina D. where it blocks the release of acetycholine. The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves. Clostridium botulinum C. Bacillus cereus C. Mercurochrome C. It is a large. Dry heat(oven) C. Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic. Strep. heat-killed Bordetella pertusis D. Antisepsis D. Nystatin is produced naturally from: A. Merthiolate C.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 A. Sterilization B. Bacitracin C. Radiation D. Chloramphenicol C. This antibiotic has been found to be toxic. Formaldehyde C. Filtration 223. Chlorine B. This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. except: A. L-glutamic acid B. Strep. Strep. Asepsis 217. heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa 224. Penicillin B. Nucleic acid 225. gram-positive rod . Iodine 218. Polysaccharide D. Plasmid that codes the penicillinase B. Silver sulfadiazine D. It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice: A. Hydrogen Peroxide D. tetanus toxoid. tetanus toxoid. Certain cytochromes 213. It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive soluyions: A. The following are milk-borne pathogens. Diptheria toxin. Noursei C. Polymixin 216. Cycloserine 215. Hydrogen peroxide 219. Ethylene oxide B. Merthiolate B. Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic: A. Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution? A. Pateurization 220. except: A. Gentamicin B. This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose patients have Gonorrhea: A. heat-killed Pseudomonas aerginosa C. The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of: A. Diptheria toxoid. D-glutamic acid C. Vancomycin D. Autoclave B. Filtration C. Natalensis 214. Diptheria toxoid. Silver nitrite 221. Acids and alkalis D. Disinfection C. Mycobacterium bovis B. It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids: A. but not all microorganisms: A. Diptheria toxin. Ethylene oxide D. Salmonella C. It refers to the killing of many. Cellular growth rates D. Strep. Streptococcus D. Bacitracin D. Clostridium 222. tetanus toxin. tetanus toxin. so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB: A. Griseus D. Nodosus B. heat-killed Bordetella pertusis B. Autoclaving B. The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following: A. Autolytic enzymes C. The presence of pili D. Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium C. Its characteristic morphology and gram stain B. Puerperal sepsis D. It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins. Sterptococcus pneumonia 232. It is actively motile. Production of IgA protease 233. Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin C. Scarlet fever B. 226. Viridans streptococci D. Hyaluronic acid capsule D. 19 231. Pharyngitis C. 12 D. Sterptococcus agalactiae C. Gram staining B.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 B. Coagulase test D. Oxidase positive 234. Rheumatic fever 230. In the laboratory. Polysaccharide capsule B. Genus-specific protein D. The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis: A. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate . B. It is a spore former. Sterptococcus pyogenes B. The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis: A. It is a spore former C. Catalase test C. An example of a streptococcal disease sequel: A. Neisseria meningitides may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhoea by: A. D. 227. It is a short. gram-positive rod C. Anaerobes C. 7 C. Gram positive B. Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics. Protein A 228. It can live inside phagocytic cells. Neisseria are all: A. except: A. Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhoea? A. 2 B. D. The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus: A. the most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci: A. Group A carbohydrate C. M protein B. Coagulase positive D. Hemolysis test 229. It can live inside phagocytic cells. Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough? A. Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre D. Serratia 240. Klebsiella 241. Leprosy may manifest itself as: A. non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract C. proteus B. Handling of infected tissues 236. except: A. urease positive and motile. A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following. All of the above 237. Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen. It most likely belongs to the genus: A. Serratia D. the intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting. This organism probably belongs to the genus: A. Contact with contaminated urine E. Mucous membrane lesions C. Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide . Lepromatous leprosy B. The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans: A. B and C 242. Pulmonary form D. Ulderoglandular form B. A and B D.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 235. nosocomial pathogen: A. Kleibsiella pneuminiae D. Tularemia may occur in: A. Blood-sucking arthropods B. falcutative anaerobic. Escherichia coli 239. D. Klebsiella B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible B. Animal bites and scratches D. Escherichia C. The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by: A. Contact with contaminated feces C. All of the above 238. The organism is lactose negative. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions 243. Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later B. Oculoglandular form C. A gram negative. Proteus vulgaris C. Cutaneous lesions B. Tuberculoid leprosy C. Proteus D. Pseudomonas C. Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms? A) Formalin-ether B) Kato thick smear C) Stool dilution D) A and B E) B and C 249. The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis 251. Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present 244. Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 C. Blastocyctis hominis is a: A) Zooparasite B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst C) New name for Enatamoeba coli D) Bacteria 250. In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found: A) Stool B) Urine C) Sputum D) All of the above E) None of the above 248. The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is: A) Sporozoite B) Trophozoite C) Merozoite D) Cysts 246. unstained preparation: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis 253. Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis 252. The smallest known free-living microorganism is: A) Viruses B) Mycoplasma species C) Rickettsia D) Chlamydiae 245. The VDRL test D. A class in which only parasitic forms occur: A) Sarcodina B) Mastigophora C) Ciliata D) Sporozoa 247. Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica . MICROBIOLOGY 2010 D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis 254.s dots) is often seen in infections with: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale 260. In clinical cases of malaria. Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer. Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by: A) Bite of the vector insect . The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis 255. Man may acquire Toxoplasma from: A) Mice B) Cats C) Dogs D) Pigs 263. As a rule. Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts): A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis 256. The sexual cycle is the: A) Sporogony B) Schizogony C) Either B or C D) Neither B nor C 259. only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood. which includes: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale 261. The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale 262. the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is: A) The period just before a paroxysm B) At the beginning of a paroxysm C) During the late paroxysmal stage D) The period just following a paroxysm 257. Definitive host of human malarial parasites: A) Any domestic animal B) Anopheles mosquito C) Man D) B and C 258. Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by: A) Stool examination B) Thin blood film C) Flourescent antibody tests D) Intradermal test 264. This organism causes tropical elephantiasis: A) Loa loa B) Onchocerca volvulus C) Wucheria bancrofti D) Dracunculus medinensis 275. The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection: A) Dog B) Cat C) Pig D) Cattle 271. An axostyle is present in this organism: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale 267. This causes visceral leishmaniasis: A) Leishmania donovani B) Leishmania tropica C) Leishmania braziliensis D) Trypanosoma cruzi 270. The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis . The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance: A) Chilomastix mesnili B) Giardia lamblia C) Trichomonas hominis D) Retortamonas 266. Trophozoite that resembles “old man’s eyeglasses”: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale 268.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst C) In the body of the parasitic nematode D) Ingestion of infected food 265. “Old world” hookworm: A) Necator americanus B) Ancylostoma duodenale C) Ancylostoma caninum D) Toxocara canis 274. The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism: A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Strongyloides stercoralis 276. A viviparous organism: A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Trichenella spiralis C) Hookworm D) Pinworm 272. Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal? A) Hookworm B) Pinworm C) Trichinella spiralis D) Trichuris trichiura 273. This organism has lemon-shaped cysts: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale 269. The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans: A) Hymenolepsis nana B) Hymenolepsis diminuta C) Dipylidium caninum D) Taenia solium 283. Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Strongyloides stercoralis C) Hookworm D) A and B E) B and C 280. The eggs of this worm are operculated: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum 286. Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with A) Whipworm B) Hookworm C) Pinworm D) Large intestinal roundworm 282. The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis 278. The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked. Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of: A) Pig B) Monkey C) Dog D) Cat 279. which contain this organism: A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis 287. The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine: . This causes Egyptian hematuria: A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola hepatica 288. Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth. infected fish: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum E) Echinococcus granulosus 284. Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism: A) Hookworm B) Whipworm C) Pinworm D) Ascaris lumbricoides E) Strongyloides stercoralis 281. The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum E) Echinococcus granulosus 285.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 277. The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of: A) Myasthenia gravis B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C) Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia D) Rheumatoid arthritis 293. 295. In group A beta hemolytic streptococci. This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish: A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis 290. the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of: A) Capsule B) Mucopeptide layer C) M and/or T proteins D) Extracellular products such as streptolysin O. B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns. This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke: A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis 291. which is produced only by group A streptococci 296. In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis: A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 A) Schistosoma hematobium C) Schistosoma japonicum B) Schistosoma mansoni D) Fasciola hepatica 289. Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by: A) Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus B) Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant’s serum C) Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant . C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane. D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O. The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is: A) Antibody thyroglobuin B) Antibody to DNA C) Antibody to mitochondria D) Antibody to smooth muscle 294. The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has: A) Anemia B) Circulating immune complexes C) Hashimotos’s thyroiditis D) Pernicious anemia 292. C) The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form. D) Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.MICROBIOLOGY 2010 297. Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following viruses? A) Varicella-zoster B) Cytomegalovirus C) Poliovirus D) Herpes simplex virus 298. B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA. Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body. A hapten is a substance that: A) Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule C) Induces tolerance when given alone D) When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes 300. Which of the following is a characteristic of the “positive strand” RNA virus? A) The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication. skin and nails only are likely to belong to genus: A)Epidermophyton B) Trichophyton C) Microsporum D) Trichosporum 299. .