RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS 1RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS 1. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces organic acids and it: a) Forms a gelatinous matrix b) Derives energy from constituents c) Metabolizes substrate from saliva d) Lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus acidophilus 2. a) b) c) d) The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is: Actinomycesviscosus Streptococcus mutans Streptococcus salivarius Lactobacillus acidophilus 3. a) b) c) d) e) What is Enameloplasty? Extension of outline form Adding synthetic enamel to surface The procedure of reshaping grooves with rotary cutting instruments Removal of the entire thickness of enamel None of the above 4. a) b) c) d) Sensitivity can be felt in enamel due to the presence of: Enamel lamellae Enamel tufts Enamel spindles Enamel sheath 5. a) b) c) d) What class/ classes ofcavities is/are found on the all teeth ( anterior or posterior) Class I, II Class III, IV Class I, V, VI Class II, IV, V 6. All enamels must consists of : a) A cluster of enamel rods protruding from cavity b) Full length enamel rods or full-length rods supported by shorter rods terminating on sound dentin c) Cavity outline placed on rough curve d) Cavity outline placed on irregular lines e) None of the above 7. a) b) c) d) e) Affected dentin differs from infected dentin in that it has: Been invaded by microorganisms Are precisely the same Not been invaded by microorganisms A soft texture None of the above 8. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative procedure? a) Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs. b) Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors c) Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface d) Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation 9. a) b) c) d) Discoloration of the tooth under big amalgam restoration can be prevented by: Using cavity varnish Using correct alloy: mercury ratio Using zinc phosphate cement base Washing the prepared cavity with NaOCl3 10.Gingival cavosurface margin is beveled in a class II cavity for amalgam restoration to: a) Get a lap joint on the cavosurface angle b) Remove the unsupported enamel rods c) Get burnishable thickness of amalgam d) Move the cavosurface away from the contact 11.The position of the gingival margin of a class II amalgam preparation is dictated primarily by: a) Aesthetics b) The location of the gingival margin c) The extent of carious lesion d) The thickness of the enamel a) b) c) d) e) 12. A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is: At right angles to the pulpal floor Parallel to the long axis of the tooth At an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor Determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove None of the above 13.A newly condensed amalgam restoration seems to chip away when being carved. What is the likely cause of this problem? a) b) c) d) e) A low-copper alloy was used Moisture contamination occurred The alloy was incompletely wetted with mercury The amalgam was not condensed with the recommended pressure The amalgam was condensed after its working time elapsed 14. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III composite preparation, the preparation becomes contaminated with saliva. In response, the dentist should do which of the following? a) Blow away the saliva with air, then proceed b) Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation, then proceed c) Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet, rinse the preparation with water, dry it with air, then proceed d) Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat the etching procedure 15.Resistance forms is the ability to withstand masticatory stress and this is established by: a) Bulk of the restorative material b) Strength of the restorative materials c) Compressiveness d) Compactness 16.Proper pulpal depth of all restoration may be considered as: a) Convenience form b) Outline form c) Retention form d) Resistance form e) None of the above 17.Hand cutting instrument are composed of: a) Handle and blade b) Handle, shank and blade c) Shank and blade d) Handle and shank e) None of the above 18.Luting cements may get rapidly dissolved due to: a) Occlusal forces b) Microorganisms c) Marginal leakage d) Casting technique 19.Guard is use for: a) Mechanical devices The following are represent the fundamental grasps for hand instruments: a) Pen grasp b) Inverted pen grasp c) Modified palm and thumb grasp d) Palm and thumb grasp e) All of the above 21.b) c) d) e) Unnecessary with hand cutting instruments Useful only for dental students Finger positions of hands opposite that using the instrument None of the above 20.Finish of the enamel margin at the gingival cavosurface on a cavity prepared for amalgam a) Not indicated because of the poor tensile strength of amalgam b) Accomplished by creating a steep cavosurface bevel c) Not requires since no stress is placed on this region of the restoration d) Accomplished by removing unsupported enamel rods and prisms 23. 0.The restorative material that is most anticariogenic is: a) Composite resin b) Dental amalgam .The axial wall of the class V cavity preparation is: a) Flat b) Concave c) Convex d) Convex only incisocervically 24.5 to 1 mm enamel and margins are prepared slightly incisal to free gingival crest with a finish line as: a) Shoulder with bevel b) Knife edge c) Chamfer finish line d) Shoulder 25. labial surface preparation removes approx.In direct veneering.Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when: a) Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip b) Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip c) Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip d) Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip 22. Silicate Cements is: a) Do produce an irritating effect on pulp b) Do not produce an irritating effect on pulp c) Are harmless d) Are innocuous e) None of the above 29.ZINC OXIDE AND EUGENOL SHOULD NOT BE USED UNDER: a) Porcelain filling material b) A resin filling material c) Gold inlays d) Amalgam restorations e) None of the above .Which of the listed principles of the cavity preparation is of least importance for the reception of a silicate? a) Extension for prevention b) Resistance form c) Finishing of enamel d) Debridement 30.A notable difference in class II cavity preparation for composite and for amalgam is in: a) Proximal box b) Pulpal wall c) Axial wall depth d) None of the above 28.A base or liner which is contraindicated beneath filled or unfilled resins is: a) Glass ionomer b) Calcium hydroxide c) Polycarboxylate cement d) Zinc oxide eugenol 27.c) Calcium hydroxide d) Glass ionomer cement 26. c. color 14. c. b. b. b. Which class III lesions listed below should not be filled with composite resin? mesial-lingual of canines distal-lingual of laterals mesial-lingual of centrals distal-lingual of canines distal-lingual of canines 12. c. c. a. d. a. a.resto board exam 2 11. High copper dental amalgam alloys involve what ranges of copper in their composition 1 to 4% 5 to 8% 10 to 30% 50 to 60% 10 to 30% 13. b. a. c. b. How many line angles does a class 2 have? 9 10 11 12 11 16. d. d. b. c. a. The second number on those instruments having a three-number formula indicates the a. d. a. That form in class III cavities which helps to insure the proper line of force for condensation of direct filling gold is: . c. d. angle of the cutting edge in degrees length of the blade in millimeters length of the blade in tenths of a width of the blade in millimeters length of the blade in millimeters 15. The typical divergence of all ways of a cast metal restoration Inlay taper Bevelling Reverse curve Butt joint Inlay taper centigrade millimeter 17. b. Tarnish means a change in color texture a. d. a. b. c. d. d. outline form resistance form retention form convenience form convenience form 18. Finish of the enamel margin at the gingival cavosurface on a cavity prepared for amalgam a. not indicated because of the poor tensile strength of amalgam b. accomplished by creating a steep cavosurface bevel c. not requires since no stress is placed on this region of the restoration d. accomplished by removing unsupported enamel rods and prisms d. accomplished by removing unsupported enamel rods and prisms 19. Stainless steel pins are principally used in conjunction with amalgam restorations to enhance: a. retention b. strength c. resistance form d. all of the above a. retention 20. a. b. c. d. d. Gold inlays have improved retention when there is a large cement film thickness the opposing walls diverge towards the there is less surface area involved in the the axial length in the cavity preparation the axial length in the cavity preparation 21. a. b. c. d. b. Retention form is created in a class V cavity prepared for direct filling gold at the mesial and distal axial line angles the occlusal and gingival axial line angles the four point angles of the cavity circumferentially around all walls the occlusal and gingival axial line angles 22. a. b. c. d. b. Retention form for composite resin restorations is achieved by a chemical bond with the tooth adhesion to the enamel and dentin mechanical undercuts all of the above adhesion to the enamel and dentin occlusal preparation is increased is increased 23. a. b. c. d. c. Retention form for composite resin restorations in class III preparations is achieved by sharp, well-defined line angles parallel walls rounded undercuts at the incisal and gingival point angles sharp, cute point angles at the incisal, labioaxiogingival, and linguoaxiogingival rounded undercuts at the incisal and gingival point angles 24. In class V preparations to receive composite resin, the extension is determined by the a. b. c. d. b. position of the gingival crest extent of caries involvement contour of the tooth caries susceptibility of the patient extent of caries involvement 25. A commonly used acid solution for etching enamel in conjunction with composite resin restorations is a. 50% phosphoric acid b. 50% sulfuric acid c. 75% phosphoric acid d. 50% silicophosphoric acid a. 50% phosphoric acid 26. a. b. c. d. c. Most amalgam alloys are comprised approximately of what percentage of silver 50% 60% 70% 80% 70% 27. Delayed expansion of amalgam restorations is associated with which two factors listed below a. insufficient trituration and condensation b. high residual mercury c. the contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and condensation d. the failure to use cavity varnish a. insufficient trituration and condensation c. the contamination of the amalgam by moisture during trituration and condensation 28. Cavity liners are used to: a. b. c. help retain the restorative material protect the pulp add strength to the restorative material d. b. decrease the setting expansion of protect the pulp amalgam 29. a. b. c. d. c. When mixing zinc phosphate cement, a cool glass slab is used to: accelerate the setting time create more free zinc oxide in the set cement increase the powder-liquid ratio increase expansion of the set cement increase the powder-liquid ratio 30. All of the following statements are true regarding glass ionomer restorations except a. GI is often the ideal material of choice for restoring root surface caries in patients with high caries activity b. the best surface finish for a GI restoration is that obtained against a surface matrix c. GI adheres to mineralized tooth tissue d. GI are somewhat esthetic and polish much better than composite d. GI are somewhat esthetic and polish much better than composite 31. a. b. c. d. b. Zone II of carious dentin is also referred to as: normal dentin sub-transparent dentin transparent dentin turbid dentin sub-transparent dentin 32. a. b. c. d. b. Pit and fissure caries does not spread laterally to a great extent until the: pulp is reached dentinoenamel junction is reached cementoenamel junction is reached marginal ridge is reached dentinoenamel junction is reached 33. except: a. b. c. d. b. When comparing the physical properties of filled resins, all of the following are true filled resins are harder unfilled resins have a lower coefficient of thermal expansion filled resins have a higher compressive strength unfilled resins have a lower modulus of elasticity unfilled resins have a lower coefficient of thermal expansion 34. a. b. c. d. Small size filler in composite resins results in a composite resin that has: better finishing characteristics but a lesser resistance to wear a greater resistance to wear but doesn’t finish well better finishing characteristics and a greater resistance to wear a lesser resistance and also doesn’t finish well a straight chisel c. The outline form of a class V composite preparation resembles that of a class V amalgam preparation except for what important feature listed below? a. Which of the following instruments is designed to most effectively plane the enamel of the facial and lingual walls of a class II amalgam preparation a. better finishing characteristics and a greater resistance to wear 35. Produce a smoother amalgam restoration c. Allow overfilling of the material d. d. none of the above b. conditioner c. Serve as a guide to determine the completed restoration c. an enamel hatchet . a gingival margin trimmer b. conditioner 37. a spoon excavator c. a. Solubility in oral fluids is one of the basic disadvantages of: Compomers Glass ionomer filling materials Composite resins Silicate cements Silicate cements 40. a. A properly acid-etched enamel surface appears somewhat yellow in color identical to unetched enamel dull white and chalky slightly gray with a shine dull white and chalky 36. b. d. Prevents escape of amalgam during condensation b. c. the internal line angles are much more rounded 38. b. etchant b. The matrix for a class II amalgam has occlusal extensions to: a. Which component of a dentin bonding system below functions primarily to remove the smear layer of dentin a. an enamel hatchet d. Allow overfilling of the material 39. pulp protection is not required d. adhesive b. c. the internal line angles are much more rounded c. d. no retentive grooves are necessary b. primer d.c. c. c. hasten polymerization of the resin c. b. Class II lesions usually start as an area of a. c. b. The use of a eugenol-containing material under resin will a. Deciduous teeth are etched longer than the permanent teeth because enamel rods are regularly arranged enamel rods are irregularly arranged enamel of primary teeth are harder enamel rods of primary teeth are denser enamel rods are irregularly arranged 47. d. b. Are reasons why the pulpal/axial walls of cavity preparation should be at the correct level in dentin. b. c. a. d. inhibit polymerization of the resin 44. c. d. enhance the polymerization of the resin a. d. c. the degree of microleakage: increases decreases remains the same does not occur decreases 45. c. a. except . d. As amalgam ages. c. b.41. The dentin primer creates microporosities in the dentin surface removes the smear layer and smear plugs enhances bonding of the composite and dentin better esthetics enhances bonding of the composite and dentin 43. Alloy-Hg ratio by weight 1:1 5:7 1:3 7:5 5:7 46. inhibit polymerization of the resin b. b. not affect the polymerization of the resin d. a. b. a. discoloration at the marginal ridge undermining opacity softness opacity 42. b. modified palm and thumb grasp b. palm grasp a. d. c. b. Luting GIC type I type II type III type IV type I Restorative Dentistry Board Questions 3 Restorative Dentistry Board Questions 1. It serves as a guide to determine the completed restoration. modified palm and thumb grasp 49. d. The instrument grasp wherein the instrument is held by the palm and directed by the palm and fingers is a. a. to avoid seating the restoration on the DEJ to take advantage of elasticity of dentin to allow enough bulk of the material to avoid too much loss of enamel tissues to avoid seating the restoration on the DEJ 48. pen grasp d.a. c. c. a. It allows for overfilling the amalgam. b. It prevents escape of the amalgam during condensation . Creep of amalgam means movement of amalgam away from the cavity margins movement of the amalgam towards the cavity margins movement of amalgam away from the cavity movement of the amalgam towards the cavity movement of the amalgam towards the cavity margins 50. b. C. a. d. modified pen grasp c. b. B. Why is a matrix for a Class II dental amalgam restoration extended occlusally to the cavity preparation? A. a. then repeat the etching procedure. then proceed D. Blow away the saliva with air. Pulpal irritation C. entirely in dentin . derives energy from constituents Lactobacillus acidophilus C. Coefficient of thermal expansion 3. the preparation becomes contaminated with saliva. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet. dry the preparation with air. Rinse away the saliva with water.2. dry the preparation. Rinse away the saliva with water. The reduction of which of the following represents the most significant advantage of acid-etch technique? A. In a Class III composite preparation. metabolizes substrate from saliva D. then proceed. forms a gelatinous matrix B. the dentist should do which of the following? A. Streptococcus murtans is considered to be a principal etiologic agent of caries because it produces organic acids and it: A. After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III composite preparation. Microleakage B. 4. In response. then proceed C. retention should be placed: A. rinse the preparation with water. B. dry it with air. Setting shrinkage of the matrix D. in the axial wall C. lives symbiotically with 5. 4.3. composite restorations: 1.2. perpendicular to the gingival B. just past the extent of the carious lesions C. C. allows for the more preferred end-on etching of the enamel rods.2. conventional cavity design B.B. provide greater potential for strengthening the remaining tooth structure A. but not 6. Reasons for incorporating an enamel cavosurface bevel in preparations for bonded. parallel to the long axis of the tooth E.4. 1. at the respective line angles of the tooth 7.4 B. at the expense of facial and lingual walls. 2. beveled conventional design 9.3. 3. provides more surface area for bonding 2.5 E.2.4.5 8. modified design D.3. direct. both A & B E. increase retention 4. both B & C The gingival-to-occlusal divergence per wall from the line draw of an inlay/onlay tooth preparation is: . 1. 1. reduce leakage 5. at the DEJ the axial wall D. The position of mesial and distal cavity margins in a Ferrier Class V direct filling gold restoration should be: A.3.5 C. 1. in an easily cleansable area margins D.2. Basic preparation designs most frequently used for tooth-colored restorations of Class II cavities: A.5 D. flame shaped diamond bur E. 11. 30 to 40 degree D. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip B. this can be achieved by using: A.A. 12. # 169L D. 2 to 4 degrees D. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip . 2 to 3 degrees C. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip C. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when: A. # 33 ½ B. none of these. more than 40 degrees B. 2 to 5 degrees B. 140 to 150 degrees 13. 10. # 271. less than 30 degrees C. # 253 C. # 253 C. # 271. The amount of occlusal marginal metal bevel for inlay is: A. Used in preparing occlusal and gingival bevels: A. # 33 ½ B. # 169L D. 3 to 5 degrees E. flame shaped diamond bur E. Shallow retention grooves on facioaxial and linguoaxial line angles are usually indicated if tooth is short for inlay/onlay restoration. cavitated. parallel to the long axis of the tooth B. Primarily indicated on preparations located on root surfaces. The ideal bur to used is: . at right angles to the dentinal tubules D.D. at a 15 degree angle to the long axis of the tooth. facial / lingual slot preparation 15. beveled conventional preparation design C.The initial procedure in preparing the outline form of the proximal box of a Class II cavity preparations for amalgam is the isolation of the proximal enamel by the proximal ditch cut. modified preparation D. box-only preparation C. beveled conventional preparation design E. conventional preparation design B. 17. parallel to the nearest external surface C. facial / lingual slot preparation 16. conventional preparation design B. box-only preparation E. carious lesions usually surrounded by enamel and for correcting enamel defects. modified preparation D. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance from the primary grooves to the cusp tip 14.Primarily indicated for the initial restoration of smaller. the direction of retention pin holes should be: A. perpendicular to the occlusal or the gingival floor of the preparation E. In pin-retained amalgam restoration. A. A. 22. both A & B E. #245 D. 0.Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-tooth syndrome: . the mesiofacial and mesiolingual margins of a conservative preparation should clear the adjacent tooth by only: A.4 to 0.Indicated when deep gingival extension of proximal box is anticipated: A.A. presence of primary and secondary flare D. except: A. 0.4mm D. A. #33 ½ B.Involves the occlusal and proximal surface/s of a posterior tooth and may cap one or more but not all the cusps. converging proximal walls.The following characteristics are true for both inlay and onlay cavity preparation. round wedge B. #169L E. cast inlay restoration D. beveled cavosurface margins B.Used to cleaved away the remaining undermined proximal enamel to establish properly the direction of the mesiolingual and mesiofacial walls: A.5mm 19.2 to 0. none of these 20. # ¼ 18. triangular wedge C. pin-retained restorations C. reduction of cusp/s for C. enamel hatchet B. all of them 21. angle former D. # 2 C.3 to 0.1 to 0. binangle chisel C. 0.Ideally. both A & B D. lightly beveled axiopulpal line angle capping E. 0.2mm B. cast onlay restoration 23. in a MO Class II cavity preparation for amalgam. amalgam restorations B.3mm C. . less wear on opposing tooth structures B. decrease polymerization shrinkage D. thin beveled margins can break off during sealing C. slightly diverging as the walls approach the proximal surface D. skirt preparation D. both B & D 25.In a class 2 prepared cavity for dental amalgam.This phenomenon proposes that flexure of the tooth at the cervical margin while under load is responsible for the progressive breakdown of the brittle dental tissues. attrition B. at right angles to the gingival floor C. facial and lingual surface groove extension 24. collar preparation C. except: A. slightly diverging as the walls approach the occlusal surface. beveled margins remove less tooth structures B. abfraction E. easier to polish if adjusted E. the facial and lingual proximal walls should be formed: A.Indirect composites is superior to porcelain for intracoronal posterior esthetic restorations for the following reasons. 26. lower bulk fracture rates C.Butt joint margins are recommended in an indirect composite inlay preparation for the following reasons. Erosion C. beveled margins are more likely to fracture under occlusal force . A.A. approximately parallel with each other B. Abrasion D. slot preparation B. except: A. better marginal adaptation 27. B. both B & C . both A & B E. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs. first premolar. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation.Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative procedure? A. dovetail design C.D.In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam. beveled margins are more difficult to prepare in the mouth. the primary retention form is provided by: A. 28. molar. D.During the preparation of a Class II cavity. Distofacial of a mandibular first B Facial of a mandibular first premolar. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors C. D. Beveled margins are more difficult to finish in the lab. C. E. coving the internal line angles D. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface. Lingual of a mandibular 29. which of the following permanent teeth pulp horns will be the most subject to accidental exposure? A Distofacial of a maxillary first molar. occlusal convergence of facial and lingual walls B. 30. d. V. b.RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS 4 RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY BOARD QUESTIONS 1. d. a. a. c. It is the separation and or loss of tooth structure as a result of trauma Attrition Abfraction Fracture Abrasion 6. Class I. II Class III. IV Class I. d. b. c. b. IV Class II. It is a wedge shaped loss of tooth structure limited to the cervical areas Attrition Abfraction Fracture Abrasion 5. a. a. It is the loss of tooth structure resulting from directing friction forces between contacting teeth Attrition Abfraction Fracture Abrasion . Which cavities below can involve any teeth. c. anterior or posterior. V 2. c. b. c. d. c. The most ductile and malleable metal is: Silver Gold Copper Platinum 4. a. b. a. IV. d. b. The following are contraindications of an amalgam restoration except: Moderate to large restoration Esthetically prominent areas of posterior teeth Restoration that are not heavy occlusal contacts Restoration that extends onto root surfaces 3. d. Simple fracture of the tooth crown involving little or no dentin 12. 9. Tooth loss as a result of trauma b. Class II onlay cast metal restoration 14. c. d.7. Extensive fracture of the tooth crown involving considerable dentin and involving the pulp c. Class 10 Elli’s Classification of fracture d. b. an extensive fracture of the tooth crown involving considerable dentin but no pulp is: Class 4 Elli’s Classification of fracture Class 6 Elli’s Classification of fracture Class 2 Elli’s Classification of fracture Class 5 Elli’s Classification of fracture The following are the etiology of attrition except: Chewing of fibrous food Bruxism Pipe smoking Loss of posterior teeth 11. d. Class II inlay cast metal restoration c. c. Fracture of tooth root with or without loss of crown structure d. Class I onlay cast metal restoration d. b. d. b. Class 7 Elli’s Classification of fracture c. b. It is a cast metal restoration that involves the occlusal and proximal surfaces of the posterior tooth and may cap one or more but not all of the cusps a. a. d. incomplete fracture of the tooth or cracked tooth is: a. a. It is the loss of tooth structure resulting from direct frictional forces between teeth and an external object Attrition Abfraction Fracture Abrasion The following are indications of a cast metal restoration except: Large restoration Endodontically treated teeth High caries rate Teeth According to Elli’s Classification of fracture. 8. According to Elli’s Classification of fracture. c. Traditional gold . c. Class 9 Elli’s Classification of fracture b. 10. Class 3 Elli’s Classification of fracture is: a. a. Class 5 Elli’s Classification of fracture 13. The following are the presently used distinct group of alloy except: a. a. Class I inlay cast metal restoration b. d. Onlayshas the iniatial pulpal florr depth of: 1. Titanium Palladium silver Low gold 15. Investing Casting A and B None of the above 19. A and B d. d. Class II onlay cast metal restoration 16. It is a cast metal restoration that only involves the proximal surfaces of the posterior tooth and may caps all of the cusps a.0 mm 2.b. Rounded open embrasures and softened facial angles c. It is a process of forming an object by pouring a molten metal into a mold a. In conservative esthetic procedure. a. d. a. the shape and form of a female’s dentition apprearance should be: a. d. c. c. d. States that a smile when viewed from the front is considered to be esthetically pleasing if each tooth in that smile (starting from the midline) is approximately 60% of the size of the tooth immediately mesial to it. The following are the advantages of pins except: Crazing enamel and pulp One appointment More conservative of tooth structure More economical 17. b. c. Class I inlay cast metal restoration b. Incisal embrasure with more closed and prominent incisal angles (less rounded) b.0 mm 1. c. b. c.5 mm 2. b. Class I onlay cast metal restoration d. Class II inlay cast metal restoration c. b.5 mm 18. Shape and form Position and alignment Golden proportion Symmetry and proportionality 20. None of the above . a. none of the above 2. Does not utilize the box shape and flat floor c. Utilizes a rounded pulpal floor e. None of the above 3. Is that shape and placement of cavity walls that enables tooth to withstand stress b. ENAMELOPLASTY IS: A. Enlargement of small defects which are filled with amalgam as preventive measure d. Preparation and restoration after caries ha begun b. The convenience form b. PROPHYLACTIC ODONTOMY IS: a.Resto board 5 Restorative Dentistry Seminar II 1. removal of the entire thickness of enamel E. The procedure of reshaping grooves with rotary cutting instruments D. Finishing the enamel walls . Extension of outline form B. Reshaping of grooves e. None of the above 4. Does not take into consideration resistance of tooth to fracture d. ADDITONAL RETENTION IN THE PROXIMAL PORTION OF THE PREPARATIONS IS AFFORDED BY: a. Adding synthetic enamel to surface C. A routine procedure on all patients c. RESISTANCE FORM: a. Proximal and occlusal walls converging occlusally . Resistance form e. Must be carried to the same depth into dentin as average preparation b. None of the above 7. IN TEETH WITH CONSIDERABLE OCCLUSAL ABRASION. THE PREPARATION: a. None of the above 8. Reduced cusps c. Must not be carried to the same depth into dentin as average preparation d. PROPER PULPAL DEPTH OF ALL RESTORATIONS MAYBE CONSIDERED AS: a. AMALGAM FRACTURE IN CLAS II PREPARATIONS CAN BE PREVENTED BY: a. Retention form d. A rounded pulpal floor d. Convenience form b. The retention form c. Should not be carried into dentin e. Adequate beveling of axiopulpal line angles b. Enameloplasty e. None of the above 6. Parallel proximal and occlusal walls b. Rounded pulpal floor d. BASIC RETENTION FORM IN CLASS IICAVITY PREPARATIONS FOR AMALGAM INCLUDE: a. Enhancing the axiofacial and axiolingual line angles e. Must be carried deeper into the dentin c. None of the above 5. Finishing the margins d. Outline form c.c. Proximal and occlusal walls converge c. Outline form d. Not been invaded by microorganisms d. THE OCCLUSAL DIVERGENCE OF THE VERTICAL WALLS IN PREPARATIONS FOR INLAYS MAYBE CONSIDERED AS: a. None of the above 9. Convenience form c. Parallel proximal and occlusal walls b. Location of margin and degree of smoothness desired e. Rounded pulpal floor e. Finishing the enamel walls e. Type of restorative material to be placed in preparation d. A soft texture e. None of the above 12. All of the above . None of the above 10. Been invaded by microorganisms b. Reduced cusps d. AFFECTED DENTIN DIFFERS FROM INFECTED DENTIN IN THAT IT HAS: a. Directions of enamel rods b. BASIC RETENTIONFORM IN CLAS II CAVITY PREPARATION FOR INLAYS INCLUDE: a. CONSIDERATIONS TO BE UNDERTAKEN IN TE FINISHING OF ENAMEL WALLS AND MARGINS INCLUDE: a. None of the above 11. Retention form b. Are precisely the same c. Support of enamel rods c.e. Silicate cement. Cavity outline placed on rough curve d. The cavity preparation is deep d.13. A cluster of enamel rods protruding from cavity Full length enamel rods or full-length rods supported by shorter rods terminating on sound dentin c. Lessening of tactile sense and rapid removal of tooth structure d. None of the above 14. Sealing gingival margin c. b. None of the above 17. THE ADVENT OF ULTRA HIGH SPEED REQUIRES CONSIDERATION OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS IN FINISHING ENAMEL WALLS: a. resin material. Marginal metal that is easily burnished e. Cavity outline placed on irregular lines e. Provides marginal metal more easily burnished and adapted d. porcelain inlays and amalgam are used c. Permits a marginal seal in slightly undersized castings c. The cavity preparation is large b. When a pulp capping is present e. BEVELLING IS CONTRAIONDICATED WHEN: a. None of the above 15. ALL ENAMELS MUST CONSISTS OF: a. Produces a stronger enamel wall b. All of the above 16. THE BEVEL IS GENERALLY: . Margin seal b. BEVELLING FOR INLAY PREPARATIONS SERVES THE FOLLOWING UEFUL PURPOSES: a. Assists in sealing gingival margins of inlay e. a. The entire thickness of the enamel wall d. Production of sterile field c. IN SELECTING AN INTERMEDIATE BASE THE FOLLOWING CRITERIA SHOULD BE CONSIDERED: a. One-third the thickness of the enamel wall c. Effectiveness of the agent b. Harmful to odontoblasts d. Ability of material to prevent postoperative discomfort d. Ability of material to eliminate postoperative discomfort c. One-fourth the thickness of the enamel wall e. Porcelain filling material . All of the above 19. ZINC OXIDE AND EUGENOL SHOULD NOT BE USED UNDER: a. Effect of material on clinical success of restoration f. THE BASIC CONSIDERATIONS IN PERFORMING CAVITY STERILIZATION ARE: a. All of the above 20. None of the above 21. Ability of material to protect the pulp b. One-half the thickness of the enamel wall b. Harmful to pulpal cells e. Do produce an irritating effect on pulp b. None of the above 18. Are harmless d. SILICATE CEMENTS: a. Are innocuous e. Effect of material on clinical success of restoration e. Do not produce an irritating effect on pulp c. HAND CUTTING INSTRUMENTS ARE COMPOSED OF: a. Has a good psychologic effect on apprehensive patient e. A resin filling material c. Permits only class II preparations e. Fatigued is lessened for operator b. Reduces number of visits for patients c. None of the above 24. Permit only class I preparations d. Amalgam restorations e. Gold inlays d. margins and occlusal form c.b. None of the above 23. Reflected light b. Permits only class II preparations b. shank and blade . All of the above 25. Hemorrhage into dentin e. Indirect lighting c. Handle and blade b. AN IMPORTANT JUSTIFICATION FOR QUADRANT PREPARATION IS: a. None of the above 22. Gradual diffusion of metallic ions into the dentin d. The opportunity for restoring proper contours. Handle. DARKENING OF TOOTH STRUCTURE ADJACENT TO AN AMALGAM RESTORATION MAY BE DUE TO: a. contacts. ADVANTAGES OF PERFORMING MULTIPLE PREPARATIONS AT ONE APPOINTMENT ARE: a. Reduces overall time for complete treatment d. Single bevels e. Instrument design e. No bevels d. THE EFFECTIVE USE OF ANY INSTRUMENT IS DICTATED BY THE: a. Ability and preference of operator b.c. Multiple bevels c. Modified palm and thumb grasp . None of the above 27. ENAMEL HATCHETS. Metals used in manufacture c. THE FOLLOWING REPRESENT THE FUNDAMENTAL GRASPS FOR HAND INSTRUMENTS: a. GINGIVAL MARGINAL TRIMMERS AND SPOON EXCAVATORS HAVE: a. Heat treatment and tempering d. THE BOLEY GAUGE: a. May be placed under stress and dropped d. Shank and blade d. Has many applications in dentistry c. Pen grasp b. None of the above 29. Handle and shank e. None of the above 28. None of the above 26. Will not rust e. Bibevels b. CHISELS. Inverted pen grasp c. Should not be free from moisture b. Useful only for dental students d. Finger positions of hands opposite that using the instrument e. None of the above ANSWER KEY: 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) E 13) B . Mechanical devices b. Palm and thumb grasp e. All of the above 30. GUARD ARE: a. Unnecessary with hand cutting instruments c.d. Periodontal objectives prior to restorative dentistry procedures are A.14) C 15) E 16) B 17) D 18) E 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) E 25) B 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) E 30) D RESTO REVIEW QUESTIONS 6 RESTO REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. elimination of all diseased gingival attachments with the resultant crevt- . cular depth as close to zero as possible B. is a sanitary pontic B. lingual width of the tooth it replaces? A. Ridge lap pontics cause pressure atrophy of the residual ridge resulting in A. labial axiogingival and the linguo. seven-eighths C. elimination of all diseased root structure utilizing resection techniques 5 C. four-fifths B. labial axioincisal and labial axiogingival thirds E. elimination of all etiological factors responsible for periodontal disease D. five-eighths F. is difficult to maintain ^. none of the above 4. one-fifth D. chronic inflammation of the ridge and . the same E. The two most critical areas in full coverage preparations for veneer crowns that are contributory to poor esthetics and periodontal inflammation are the A. A and B E. none of the above 5. none of the above 2. A pontic should be what part of the facia. A and C F. A modified ridge lap pontic A. 3. labial gingival bevel and the proximal finish line D. labial axioincisal and the proximal finish line B. should contact the ridge with pressure E. is an all convex pontic except the occlusal surface D. causes chronic inflammation C.1 gingival finish line C. A and B E. one month C three months D.papillae B. destruction of support of the abutment teeth D. surgical removal of the papillary tissue D the elimination of veneering material on the proximal surfaces 9 To prevent marginal inflammation. gingival third . the bleeding problems associated with performing restorative procedures 8 The controlling factor to preserve adequate embrasure spaces in full coverage restoration A contacts placed at the occlusal third B tooth preparation C. three weeks B. the most critical area in restoring contours on a tooth is the A. the kinetic theory B. A and C F. hypersensitivity C. five months 7 The primary reason for the delay is because of A. all of the above 6 Restorative procedures following Vestibular surgery should be delayed A. middle third D. occlusal surface C. creeping reattachment D. occlusal third B. ulceration of the ridge tissue C. endodontics and full coverage 17. hypercementosis . root canal therapy C. cold application B. have very high compressive strength C. painful C. telescopic crowns C. thickening of the periodontal ligament space D. loss of lamina dura E. The tissue on the infrapontic surface of a pressure ridge lap pontic is usually A. have a long setting time jg E. cause minimal pulp irritation D. orthodontics E.E. highly keratinized 11 The treatment of choice for tilted teeth is A. extraction B. normal B. chronically inflamed D. thinning of the lamina dura C. full crowns D. One primary advantage of polycarboxylate cements is that they A. plaque free E. pulpotomy >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> 14. The earliest apical radiographic change seen in a pulpally involved tooth is A. are insoluble in oral fluids B. The involved tooth is best treated by which of the following? A. lingual margin 10. A patient complains of a toothache triggered by heat and relieved by cold. are reliable inhibitors of secondary caries 13. 12. apical resorption B. bite-wing D. This indicates A. bisecting technique C. low coefficient of thermal expansion . zinc phosphate cement B. high coefficients of thermal conductivity 19. The radiographic procedure of choice for use in periodontal examination is the A. used to reinforce the restorative material B. pulpal hyperemia D. germicidal cements 18. used to retain the amalgam in the cavity preparation D. to be used only as temporary restoration 17. used to reduce the setting expansion of the amalgam C. pantograph E. Which of the following types of base materials must not be placed in contact with polymethyl methacrylate? A. used only in teeth to be crowned E. The patient complains that the tooth is hypersensitive especially under chewing pressure.15. laminograph 16. periodontal ligament involvement C. paralleling technique B. zinc oxide eugenol cements D. calcium hydroxide C. Cement bases should have which of the following characteristics? A high edge strength B. A patient returns to the office two days after a dentist has placed an MOD inlay in a maxillary premolar. What is the role of pins in restoring a large amount of lost tooth structure in a molar tooth? They are A. chemical irritation B. cyanoacrylate C. require extensive preparation of the abutment teeth 22. zinc oxide eugenol D. Pulpal sedation and protection is most frequently attained by using A. mechanical retention of cement with the casting B occlusal dovetail C. adhesiveness 20. cement adhesion D. reverse bevel C. calcium hydroxide B. present esthetic problems B. proximal contact 23. are unstable C. sharp line angles 21. are costlyD. Which of the following does not aid in retention of a two surface inlay? A. parallel walls E. dovetail D. cavosurface bevel B. high ductility E. the greatest disadvantage of precision intracoronal attachments when they are used in partial denture construction is that they A. low coefficient of thermal conductivity D. Resistance to proximal displacement of a two surface inlay depends on which of the following? A.C. Of the following. zinc phosphate cement . should only be used on molars C. reduces plaque formation 25. for full coverage preparations.enhances mechanical and esthetic factors 28. reduces marginal leakage B. there are advantages in using nonvital teeth. A wide labial or buccal shoulder for fun crown preparations A. eliminates galvanic shock D. is determined by the pulp B. is desirable in lateral incisors B. In restoring periodontally involved tee is desirable to use tlh it A. full coverage wherever possible B. Cavity varnish is a useful material in restoring teeth with amalgam because it A. Which of the following is such an advantage? A. eliminates sensitivity C. partial coverage wherever necessa and possible D. The convergence of the proximal walls of a crown preparation A. may jeopardize the pulp 27. should be 8 to 12 degrees from vertical D. porcelain fused to gold .24. a splint on all remaining teeth C. should be no more than 2 to 5 de from vertical gre* C. is obtainable only with burs D. In specific instances.usually limits the design of the preparation B 0f!ers a better crown-root ratio C. is determined by the position of the soft tissue 26. a clear field with minimal bleeding c. fully rectified current^ B. coagulation current C. fully rectified current D. nitrous oxide and oxygen analgesia B. usually needed B. performed by a heated electrode D. accomplished with a hot electrode and an electronic arc 34 A factor determining the setting for the cutting current is A room temperature B amount of anesthesia .delayed healing 31 Most cutting procedures with electrosurgery the oral cavity are best accomplished by A. not needed for endodontically involved teeth 33 Electrosurgery is A. profound anesthesia is A. pacemaker D..29. partially rectified current 32 In the use of electrosurgery in the oral cavity. Electrosurgery can be used safely in connection with A. never needed C almost always needed D. ether anesthesia C. accomplished with a cold electrode and an electronic arc C. Use of electrosurgery for recontouring gingival tissues results in A.ethyl chloride 30. the same as electrocautery B.a good firm scar tissue B. because it permits the use of higher currents C. activated only for fulguration 39 The crown-root ratio A. can easily be decreased in periodontally involved posterior teeth B. primarily for fulguration B. activated upon touching the tissue for cutting C. more damage to tissue D. requires the need of retraction cord 36. activated intermittently while cutting the tissue D. size of the machine being used D. activated before cutting the tissue B. tissue thickness 35. A too low setting of the control dial for cutting results in A. because it allows the use of lower currents 38 The foot control should be A. can be decreased in periodontally . fulguration B dessication C.C. requires the use of coagulation current C. eliminates the need for retraction cord D.less damage to tissue 37 The indifferent plate is used A. requires healthy gingival tissue B. should never be decreased in periodontally involved anterior teeth C. Electrosurgical preparation of the sulcus for impression taking A. primarily for electrodessication D. Spreading –cone shaped into the enamel the apex of the cone being the deepest part. decrease vertical dimension D. 2. 1. Spreading –cone shaped into the enamel the base of the cone being the deepest part. 3. have no effect on facial height C. Spreading into the dentin in conical form base pointing toward the pulp (a) 1&3 (b) 1&3 (c) 2&3 (d) 2&4 3-proximal caries usually starts: (a) (b) Between the contact and the marginal ridge At the contact areas . none of the above Resto Exam 7 1-the main purpose in finishing the enamel walls of a cavity preparation is to? (a) Allow the restoration to properly polished (b) Remove the loose enamel rods (c) Insure the prevention of recurrent caries (d) Smooth the walls to allow better adaptation of the restorative material 2-which of the following are characteristic features of proximal cerise on premolars and molars. result in an increased vertical dimension B. Spreading into the dentin in conical form the apex pointing toward the pulp 4.involved anterior teeth D. none of the above 40 Decreasing the crown-root ratio in the posterior segment will A. (a) True (b) False 8-in mo preparation there are how many point angles (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 9-dental hand cutting ins instrument are angled in order to : (a) Provide better manipulative control . (a) True (b) False 6-perventive measures to preclude cracked teeth include: (a) Early diagnosis of susceptible teeth (b) On laying cusps with reverse bevels (c) Placing pins horizontally in to the dentin of the buccal and lingal internal walls and restoring with amalgam (d) Full coverage (e) All of the above are correct 7-caries prevention can be successful if routine periodic regimen of topical application of fluorides is maintained.(c) Gingival to the free margin of the gingival tissue (d) Gingival to the contact area and occlusal to the free margin of the gingival tissue 4-a carious lesion involving the buccal developmental groove of a mandibular molar is a: (a) Class I lesion (b) Class II lesion (c) Class III lesion (d) Class IV lesion (e) Class v lesion (f) Class VI lesion 5-the only methods of detecting caries now available to the practitioner are bay means of radiographs and clinical examination. (b) Produce a better distribution of force (c) Increase efficiency (d) Provide proper access (e) Bring the cutting edge of the instrument within 3 mm of the central axis of the handle (f) Only (a) and (c) are correct (g) Only (b) and (d) are correct (h) All of the above are correct 10-cutting instruments should be thoroughly sharpened : (a) To reduce pain (b) To effectively control the instrument (c) To create smooth surfaced walls (d) To avoid injury to the tooth (e) All above are correct 11-control of pain during dental procedures is limited to general.000 rpm (b) 300.000_100.000 rpm revolutions per 14-an important advantage of using rotary instrument speeds above 100_000rpm in cavity preparation is that : . local. and anesthetics.000 rpm (c) 200.000 rpm (d) 20. (a) True (b) False 12-match the following list (a) # 1556 (b) # 331 (c) # 169 (d) # 156 (e) # 15 13-the term high speed is designated for rotary instrumentation speeds of minute? (a) 400. copper 17-marginal breakdown is greater in the dental amalgam: (a) Containing zinc vs zinc free alloys (b) Exhibiting high creep characteristics (c) Known as dispersion alloys (d) With a high gamma I phase vs high gamma II phase 18-the principal purpose of trituration is to: (a) Coat the alloy particles with mercury (b) Dissolve the alloy particles in the mercury (c) Reduce the amount of gamma II in the set amalgam (d) Reduce the size of the original alloy particles as much as possible .minimum (b) Tin 29% maximum (c) Copper 6%. maximum (e) Mercury 3% maximum (f) All of above correct 16-the amalgam exhibiting the least degree of creep is: (a) Lathe cut (b) Spherical combinations of spheres and filings (c) Micro fine (d) Dispersed phase high.maximum (d) Zinc 2%.(a) There is reduction in vibration perceptible to the patient (b) Heat is not generated when the bur or diamond instrument contacts the tooth (c) Pulpal damage cannot result from this rotational speed (d) It is safer for the operator 15-the ADA specifications (1970) in percentage by weight of constituents of a conventional amalgam are: (a) Silver 65%. (a) An acute (b) An obtuse (c) A right 22-for a class II amalgam preparation the axiopulpal line angle should be finished by: (a) Beveling (b) Rounding (c) Extending it pulpally (d) Finishing as a sharp line angle 23-the function of matrix is? (a) Act as a retaining wall (b) Assist in contouring and shaping the restoration (c) Prevent rubber dam from being the restoration into the restoration (d) Prevent saliva or blood from seeping into the restoration (e) All of the above are correct .19-the mercury –alloy ratio in amalgam after condensation should be approximately (a) 3 to 2 (b) 5 to 3 (c) 8 to 5 (d) 1 to 1 20 contaminating amalgam with moisture during condensation results in: (a) Pitting and blistering (b) Internal corrosion (c) The amalgam s loss in strength (d) Postoperative pain (e) All of the above are correct 21-proximal cavosurface wall in class II preparation for the reception of an amalgam should be finished at angle to the external surface . Overheating an amalgam restoration when finishing polishing will: (a) Bring mercury to the surface (b) Cause eventual corrosion (c) Result in early fracturing at the margins (d) Result in surface pitting (e) All of the above are correct 28-the cohesive gold used only as bulk filler is : (a) Mat gold (b) Electroloy (c) Spherical (powdered) (d) Gold foil 29-bases compatible with cohesive gold restoration are: (a) Zinc and eugenol preparations hardened with zinc acetate crystals .24-wedges may be used to: (a) Protect the gingiva during hand or rotary instrumentation (b) Act as a quick separating agent (c) (d) Stabilize band material placed between teeth to prevent abrading the proximal surface adjacent to the one being treated All of the above correct 25failure to finish and polish an amalgam restoration: (a) Leaves a rough surface subject to corrosion (b) Leaves a surface conducive to plaque accumulation (c) Encourages galvanic action (d) Leaves a surface difficult to keep clean (e) All of the above are correct 26-in proper placement of amalgam restoration burnishing is contraindicated: (a) True (b) False 27. (b) Proprietary calcium hydroxide preparations (c) IRM (intermediate restorative materials) (d) Zinc phosphate cement 30-annealing by passing cohesive gold through a pure alcohol flame is the preferred method for: (a) Spherical (powdered )gold (b) Mat gold (c) Electroloy (d) Gold soil resto board exam 8 1-“bridging “in cohesive gold restoration refers to: (a) (b) (c) The layering or lapping of gold foil over that which has previously been condensed The moving of the condenser point systematically over the cylinder of gold foil so that each apply overlaps the previous compaction The failure to completely compact each cylinder of gold 2-the gold alloys used for casting contain at least per cent of precious (a) 55% (b) 65% (c) 75% (d) 85% 3-if a gold alloy has a fineness of 75o.it has how many carts? (a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 20 4-in a class II MO inlay preparation the gingival bevel should be placed at: (a) 49_60 degrees (b) 60_75 degrees . The advantages exhibited by fused porcelain inlays are: (A) Good marginal integrity (B) Insoluble in the oral fluids (C) High degree of edge strength (D) Color harmony with tooth structure 10-which of the following elastic impression materials my be put aside for up to hour before pouring a model? (a) Agar hydrocolloids .(c) 30_45 degrees (d) 15_30 degrees 5-when subjected displacement forces a cast gold restoration is retained in position in position in the tooth primarily by: (a) Retention and resistance form of the preparation (b) The cement or luting media (c) Sharp line angles or point angles (d) All of the above correct 6-direct wax patterns should be constructed with: (a) Type A inlay casting wax (b) Type B inlay casting wax (c) Type C inlay casting wax 7-the proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloys is: (a) The oxidizing zone (b) The reducing zone (c) The zone closest to the nozzle (d) Combination of the oxidizing and reducing zone 8-gold is cast into a hot mold to: (a) Hasten solidification of the gold (b) Maintain thermal expansion of investment (c) Eliminate oxides on the gold casting (d) Maintain molecular tension 9. (c) .(c) .(b) .(c) .(d) (g) (b) .(b) Alginate (c) Mercaptan rubber (polysulfide’s) (d) Silicone rubber 11-which of the following materials exhibit adhesive qualities? (a) Zinc phosphate cement (b) Polycarboxylate cement (c) ASPA (alumminosilivatepolycrylatecement ) (d) BIS-GMA resins (composites) 12-setting time of zinc phosphate cement may be increased by: (a) Using slab cooled to just above the dew point (b) Using a lower ratio of liquid to powder (c) Using a longer mixing time (d) Adding the increments of powder slowly (e) (a) .(d) (f) (a) .(c) (f) (a) .(b) .(d) (g) All of the are above correct 14-mixing of silicate powder and liquid should: (a) Be down on a glass slab at room temperature (b) Be down with an agate spatula (c) Be bone slowly .(d) (h) All of the are above correct 13-which of the following are disadvantages of a silicate restoration? (a) High acidity initially (b) High alkalinity on setting (c) It does not take a smooth finish (d) It will desiccate if not kept moist (e) (a) . 15-As it hardens a properly placed silicate cement restoration may be expected to: (a) Expand (b) Expand and later contract (c) Contract (d) Contract and later expand 16-a composite is a: (a) Pure resin (b) Fileted silicophosphate (c) Filled methyl methacrylate (d) None of the above correct 17-the filled resin composites differ from the silicates because: (a) They are not ant cariogenic (b) They are less brittle (c) They less affected by abrasion (d) They are not affected by mouth –breathing (e) They are not soluble in the oral fluids (f) All of the above correct 18-the term “autopolymerizing” as applied to acrylic restoration. would indicate that: (a) They are self –curing (b) Heat is required to induce polymerization (c) They are self-curing without formation 19-the advantage of a methyl methacrylate unfilled restorative is: (a) That it can be finished smoothly (b) That it has a low degree of flow (c) That it is nonirritating to the pulp (d) That its wear resistance is high 20-beses compatible with resins are: . (b) .(a) Zinc oxide and eugenol preparations (b) Zinc phosphate cements (c) Calcium hydroxide preparations (d) Varnishes 21-thephysical properties of the following materials are weakened by the inclusion of pins in the restoration? (a) Amalgam (b) Methyl methacrylate (c) Composite resins (d) Cast restoratives 22-pins are used with amalgam to: (a) Strengthen the amalgam (b) Provide retention (c) Resist fracture of amalgam (d) Decrease the stress on weak teeth 23-twist (spiral) drills are: (a) Designed to be used clockwise or counter-clockwise (b) Designed to cut channels in dentin or enamel with equal efficiency (c) End and side cutting tools (d) Made of high quality tool steel 24-which of the following factors affect enamel boning? (a) A clean tooth surface (b) A dry tooth surface (c) A chemical union resin and enamel apatite (d) An acid –conditioned enamel surface (e) (a) .(b).(d) .(c) (f) (a) . (a) True (b) false 26-the material of choice in pulp capping is: (a) zinc oxide and eugenol (b) steroids in combination with antibiotics (c) polycarboxylate cements (d) calcium hydroxide 27-30atch the following in the corresponding number: (27) chemicomechanical (28) Mastication (29) tooth brushing (30) Exanthematous (a) Attrition (b) Erosion (c) Abrasion (d) hypoplasia resto board exam 9 Board Questions: Restorative Dentistry .(g) All of the are correct 25-aplplication of a BIG-GMA sealant makes it unnecessary to replace a no carious defective margin between a metallic restorative and the enamel. d. c. c. d. Silicate Resins Glass ionomer Amalgam . b. Glass ionomersfor non-caious gingival lesions requires: a. Resistance forms is the ability t withstand masticatory stress and this is estab. Burnishing is the last step in the manipulation of this filling in a prepared cavity: a. d. d. Cavity preparation for Class 1 amalgam restoration should have this final occlusal outline: a. Celluloid strips Banding strips Clear plastic crown forms Copper bands 3. Bulk of the restorative material Strength of the restorative materials Compressiveness Compactness 5. Fractured incisors and large Class IV cavities is resorted using this type of matrix: a. Definite line angles in the cavity Slight cavity preparation Definite angles in the cavity Precise cavity preparation 4. Multicurved with no sharp angles Multicurved with rounded point angles Multicurved with grooves Multicurved with sharp angles 2. c. b. b. b. c. d.1. b. c.ished by: a. b. c. Positive rake angles Negative rake angles Few rake angles Many rake angles 8. Where is the retention accomplished in cavity preparation for resin Class III & Class V? All of these options depending on the size of cavity Gingivally and incisally in enamel Gingivally and incisally in cementation Gingivally and incisally in dentin 10. d. a. Large Class two cavities with cusps involvement are best restored with: a. a. b. c. c. How do you increase the setting time of zinc oxide eugenol paste? . d. b.6. 7. d. What is the measurement used in periodontal health and treatment requirements in a community? CPTIN OHIS PMA OHI What do you call when the design of the burs have the face infront of the radial lines which is associated with its strength? a. b. Gold foil Amalgam with pins Gold overlays Gold casting 9. c. d. d. Removal of unsupported enamel on the proximal surface of a Class III cavity preparation b. The outline form of the cavity preparation 12. In a MO preparation. a. c. b. d. Extension for prevention is directly related to: a. Heating the spatula and slab and adding alcohol Cooling the spatula and slab and mix with boroglycerine Heating spatula and slab before mixing Heating the spatula and slab and adding salt 11. there are how many point angles? a. Which of the listed principles of the cavity preparation is of least importance for the reception of a silicate? a. c. d. Depth of the axial wall of a Class III cavity preparation c. True False 14. Elimination of all carious dentin beyond the average depth of the pulpal wall of a Class I cavity preparation d. Extension for prevention Resistance form Finishing of enamel Debridement 13. Caries prevention can be successful if a routine periodic regimen of topical application of fluorides is maintained. b. 2 4 6 8 .a. b. c. b. b. To reduce pain To effectively control the instrument To create smooth surfaced walls To avoid injury to the tooth All of the above are correct 16. Overheating an amalgam restoration when finishing and polishing will: a. d. c. Mercury 3% max. c. All of the above are correct 17. b. e. Contaminating amalgam with moisture during condensation results in: a. f. d. Zinc 2% max. b. Tin 29% max. d. e. Pitting and blistering Internal corrosion The amalgam’s loss in strength Postoperative sensitivity All of the above are correct 18. e. c. e. The ADA specifications (1970) in percentage by weight of the constituents of a conventional dental amalgam are: a. The cohesive gold used only as a bulk filler is: . Bring mercury to the surface Cause eventual corrosion Result in early fracturing at the margins Results in surface pitting All of the above are correct 19. b. Cutting instruments should be thoroughly sharpened: a.15. c. Silver 65% min. d. Copper 6% max. b. Bases compatible with cohesive gold restorations are: a. d. The proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloy is: a. d. e. When subjecte to displacement forces. c.a. b. Mat gold Electroloy Spherical (powdered) Gold foil 20. d. c. b. a cast gold restoration is retained in position in the tooth primarilyby: a. c. b. d. The oxidizing zone The reducing zone The zone closest to the nozzle Combination of the oxidizing and reducing zone 23. c. They are self-curing Heat is required to induce polymerization They are self-curing without heat formation Polymerization shrinkage occurs toward the cavity walls Polymerization shrinkage is compensated for the proper technique of application . The term “autopolymerizing” as applied to acrylic restorations. Retention and resistance form of the preparation The cement or luting media Sharp line angles or point angles All of the above are correct 22. would indicate that: a. d. Zinc oxide and eugenol preparations hardened with zinc acetate crystals Proprietary calcium hydroxide preparations IRM Zinc phosphate cement 21. c. b. c. Twist drills are: a. They are not anti-cariogenic They are less brittle They are less affected by abrasion They are not affected by mouth-breathing They are not soluble in the oral fluids All of the above are correct 27. e. d.24. One week after insertion of a Class II restoration the patient presents with a complaint of tenderness on mastication and bleeding from the gingiva. b. b. Check the occlusion Check the contact area Consider the probability of a hyperaemia Explain to the patient that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissues and prescribe an analgesic and warm oral rinse 26. b. The filled resin composites differ from the silicates because: a. The dentist should initially: a. c. c. Which of these failures occurs most frequently with a cemented pin? . The advantage of methyl metacrylate unfilled restorative is: a. d. f. d. Designed to be used clockwise or counter clockwise Designed to cut channels in dentin or enamel with equal efficiency End and side cutting tools Made of high quality tool steel 28. b. Pin failure may occur for any one of thefollowing five reasons. d. c. That it can be finished smoothly That it has a low degree of flow That it is non irritating to the pulp That its wear resistance is high 25. e. c. b. c. c. A composite is a: a. c. a) b) c) d) The ideal enamel-amalgam interface butt-joint lap-joint sliding lap-joint sliding butt-joint 2. Fracture of the dentin At the cement dentin interface Fracture of the pin At the pin restorative material interface Restorative material fracture 29. d.a. b. d. b. Allowing the cavity preparation to dehydrate by evaporation through air drying Desiccating the preparation with a gentle intermittent stream of warm air Keeping the heat within the tooth at no more than 20◦F above normal body temperature d. d. b. Extending the excavation at least 1-2 mm beyond the carious lesion to ensure removal of all pathology 30. Sensitivity can be felt in enamel due to the presence of enamel lamellae enamel tufts enamel spindles enamel sheath . Pulpal irritation is reduced by: a. Pure resin Filled silicophosphate Filled methyl methacrylate None of the above are correct resto board exam 10 Resto Board questions 1. a. a. 5. The mesial and distal walls of a class I amalgam preparation should diverge slightly towards the occlusal surface to: a. a. The position of the gingival margin of a class II amalgam preparation is dictated primarily by: aesthetics the location of the gingival margin the extent of carious lesion the thickness of the enamel 8. provide convenience form b. Calcium hydroxide cavity varnish glass ionomer cement zinc oxide eugenol 6. make condensing of the amalgam easier 7. c. a. Which line angle below is rounded when preparing a class II amalgam preparation axiobuccal axiolingual axiopulpal none of the above 9. provide resistance form c. The outline form of the classical class V amalgam preparation is square deformed trapezoid triangle rectangle . c. b. d. b. c. c. b.3. d. Restorative pins for amalgam restoration should be placed: As close to the DEJ as possible In multiple numbers for retention In line with the long axis of the tooth Parallel to the external surface of the tooth 4. a. d. c. b. d. a. afford support for the mesial and distal marginal ridges d. Alloy-Hg ratio volumetrically 1:1 5:7 1:3 7:5 The pulp protection agent contraindicated under composites a. d. c. b. d. b. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative procedure? a. prior to the final carving of the restoration b. the primary retention form is provided by: a. Beveled margins are more difficult to finish in the lab. except: A. beveled margins are more likely to fracture under occlusal force D. E. 14. 12. none of the above 11. after the final carving of the restoration d. dovetail design . Facial of a mandibular first premolar. In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam. occlusal convergence of facial and lingual walls b. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors c. Distofacial of a mandibular first molar. beveled margins remove less tooth structures B. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar. which of the following permanent teeth pulp horns will be the most subject to accidental exposure? a. thin beveled margins can break off during sealing C. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation. D. During the preparation of a Class II cavity. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface. premolar. as soon as the amalgam has been condensed into the prep c. beveled margins are more difficult to prepare in the mouth. C.10. b. When is the matrix band removed from the tooth a. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs. d. Lingual of a mandibular first 13. b. Butt joint margins are recommended in an indirect composite inlay preparation for the following reasons. 1. when extension of the mesiodistal dimension of the tooth is necessary to form a contact with an adjacent tooth.5mm tooth structure A. none of these.3 B. 1. Used to prepare a retentive lock in the axiolingual line angle to enhance retention form of the proximal box. 1. Wedging technique indicated for patient with recession of interproximal tissue level: A. 20. a molar that is treated endodontically. Beveling the gingival cavosurface margins for an inlay/onlay restoration will: A. 1. 3 only. usually creating a reverse curve in the outline. ridge is crossed by a deep fissure c. presence of fracture lines in enamel and dentin C.4 E. #169L 4. # ¼ A.4 C. 2 & 3 C. A. a separate MO and DO outline forms leave less than 0.2. Cast metal restorations are indicated for which of the following conditions? A.c. D. double-wedging D. 12. ridge is undermined by caries b.3. E. Viewed from the occlusal. 1. extend preparation to the gingival embrasure making the area self-cleansing . single-wedging B. #33 ½ 2. 18. the directions of the mesiofacial enamel wall is parallel to the ________. B. 17. both A & B e. both B & C 15. presence of facial and lingual smooth surface caries in addition to the carious occlusal and proximal surfaces. 1 only E. 3 only. all of these E. large proximo-occlusal caries but the facial and facial tooth surfaces are relatively noncarious. facial cusp ridge B. removed unsupported enamel C. Cutting through the oblique of maxillary first molar is indicated only if: a. wedge-wedging 19. “piggy-back” wedging C. 3. 1 & 2 B. 16.2 & 3 D. enamel rod directions D. coving the internal line angles d. help improve the fit of the casting in the gingival margins B. long axis of the tooth C. #245 3.4 D. Have adequate strength to resist breaking or tearing Non-elastic Have adequate dimensional accuracy.Actinomycesviscosus C. e.2. usually tooth preparation is not indicated. direct.4. Initial carious lesion is limited to the enamel and is characterized by intact surface. 21. c.4.occlusal wall C. primary caries D. mesial/distal wall 26. 1. incipient caries 25. none of the above. b. pulpal wall E. a.4 B. stability and reproduction of details Must be able to be disinfected without distortion 23. rampant caries E. low modulus of elasticity e. composite restoration versus dental amalgam. conservation of tooth structure c.axial wall D.2. create a metal that is burnishable.5 a. Advantages of bonded. C.D. at right angles to the pulpal floor . except: free of toxic or irritating components.3. Streptococcus salivarius b. In a Class 2 preparation.5 22. a.5 E. recurrent caries b. 1.Streptococcusmutans D. 1.2.3. The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is: a. 2. no corrosion A.4.3. this wall joins the facial wall where retention groove is placed. 1. facial/lingual wall b. Final impression material for onlay restoration should have the following qualities.3.5 D. d. A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is: a. Lactobacillus acidophilus 24. but a porous subsurface.2. E. Esthetics b. low thermal conductivity d. a. arrested caries C. to remove loose enamel rods C. The dentist bevels the gingival margins of a gold onlay preparation. 27. to minimize marginal opening D. e. at right angles to the pulpal floor b. This process serves each of the following. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove e. 28. Moisture contamination occurred. c. 29. none of the above.b. b. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor d. to minimize the need for gingival extension . A newly condensed amalgam restoration seems to chip away when being carved. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor d. to facilitate finishing b. What is the likely cause of this problem? a. parallel to the long axis of the tooth c. The distal wall in an MO cavity on a mandibular second premolar is: a. The amalgam was condensed after its working time elapsed. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove e. d. except: a. parallel to the long axis of the tooth c. The alloy was incompletely wetted with mercury. The amalgam was not condensed with the recommended pressure. A low-copper alloy was used. none of the above. decreased value b. intensified color D. After 2 years After 24 hours After 3-5 months After 3-5 days * 5. The amalgam restoration should be burnished after: a. increased value C. b. ½ 1/3 ¼ * ¾ 3. c.30. Delayed expansion of amalgam starts: a. b. b. Causes delayed expansion of the restoration Minimizes the formation of oxides Both A and B * None of the above . The dentist adjusts the shade of a restoration using a complementary color. d. increased translucency resto board exam 11 1. b. c. d. Discoloration of the tooth under big amalgam restoration can be prevented by: a. c. The intercuspal width of an ideal class I cavity (occlusal) preparation for amalgam should be: a. d. c. The presence of zinc in amalgam alloy: a. b. 2 to 3 minutes * 10 to 15 minutes 1 hour 24 hours 4. d. This procedure will result in a. Using cavity varnish * Using correct alloy: mercury ratio Using zinc phosphate cement base Washing the prepared cavity with NaOCl3 2. d. c. d. Friction-locked pin Cemented pin Self-threading pin * None of the above 11. c. The metal in dental amalgam alloy in which mercury would dissolve maximum is: a. 6 12 11 * 7 10. d. b. Luting cements may get rapidly dissolved due to: . The number of line angles in class II amalgam cavity are: a. Cemented wire pin * Self-threading pin Friction-locked pin None of the above 12. Amalgam which exhibits least creep and marginal breakdown is: a. c. b. b. c. d. Most frequently used pin type is: a. b. d. Silver Tin * Copper Zinc 8. High copper admixed alloy High copper spherical alloy * Conventional lathe cur alloy Conventional admixed alloy 7. d. The least traumatic and most versatile pin system is: a. Gingival cavosurface margin is beveled in a class II cavity for amalgam restoration to: a.6. c. c. Get a lap joint on the cavosurface angle Remove the unsupported enamel rods * Get burnishable thickness of amalgam Move the cavosurface away from the contact 9. b. b. 1 to 2 mm 3 to 4 mm * 2 to 3 mm Similar to that self-threaded pins 13. c. Depth hole of cemented pins should be: a. b. d. d. c. Proximal box Pulpal wall Axial wall depth * None of the above 18. d. b. c. c. b. d. Occlusal forces Microorganisms * Marginal leakage Casting technique 14. The axial wall of the class V cavity preparation is: a. d. c.a. Following methods prevent microleakage around porcelain inlay: a. d. An acid base reaction 8 Polymerization reaction Combination of acid base and polymerization reaction Chelation 19. Flat Concave Convex * Convex only incisocervically 16. c. c. A notable difference in class II cavity preparation for composite and for amalgam is in: a. d. Glass ionomer Calcium hydroxide Polycarboxylate cement Zinc oxide eugenol * 17. Composite resin Dental amalgam Calcium hydroxide Glass ionomer cement * 20. Closer fit Use of dual cure resin cement * Both the above None of the above 15. The setting reaction of glass ionomer cement is basically: a. d. c. d. c. Need for extended training . b. b. b. Major disadvantage of CAD/CAM system is: a. b. b. The restorative material that is most anticariogenic is: a. A base or liner which is contraindicated beneath filled or unfilled resins is: a. d. b. c. d. labial surface preparation removes approx. High cost Both of the above * Designing of restoration takes more time 21. c. c. Which of the following materials is most popular for indirect veneering technique? a. 0. d.5 to 1 mm enamel and margins are prepared slightly incisal to free gingival crest with a finish line as: a. Composite restoration may not be fabricated: a. Processed composite Cast ceramic Fieldspathic porcelain * Microfill composite 24. In direct veneering. b. It has been found that direct veneer restorations have more limited prognosis and tendency to discolor within: a. d. b. Directly on prepared tooth In dies and models By heat polymerization By casting using lost wax technique * 22. b. Shoulder with bevel Knife edge Chamfer finish line * Shoulder 23. d. 1 to 2years 3 to 5 years * 5 to 7 years None of the above .b. b. A composite veneer Porcelain veneer * Both of the above None of the above 25. c. d. c. A silane perimeter is used to condition the internal surface of the which of the following indirect veneer? a. c.