PPME

Block 1Defending the New Nation: Who was the last active Continental Navy officer and the first U.S. Navy commissioned officer? John Barry Why were the border lakes between the U.S. and Canada of strategic importance during the War of 1812? The Americans planned to win the war by conquering Canada and needed control of the lakes to do so. Which of the following was NOT an innovation in naval warfare introduced by the U.S. between 1775 and 1815? Who fought at anchor in Plattsburg Bay to nullify Royal Navy long guns and maximize American carronades, and won the most strategic naval victory of the War of 1812? Thomas Macdonough During the War for independence, which countries came to the assistance of America with their navies? France, Spain, and the Netherlands How did the frigate Philadelphia complicate the Navy’s task in the War with Tripoli? The crew was captured after the frigate ran aground in Tripoli Harbor and the Pasha of Tripoli demanded for its three hundred sailors taken as prisoners of war. ransom In 1794, Congress authorized the president to create a naval force of 6 frigates in response to ____________________. the threat from the Barbary Powers of Africa's Mediterranean coast Sailing in Distant Waters: Which of following changes in the naval service did NOT pertain to enlisted Sailors in the era before the Civil War? Establishment of a retirement system In what years did the Second Seminole War take place? 1835-1842 Between the War of 1812 and the Civil War, the Navy had a variety of missions. These included ____________________. All of these answers are correct In the years before the Civil War, U.S. Squadrons established a regular presence in ____________________. the Mediterranean, off Africa and South America, in the Pacific, and in Asia Which of the following tasks did the Navy NOT undertake in the Mexican War? Blockade the coast of Cuba What tactical advantage did steam power have over sail power in naval warfare? Steam power enabled a warship to operate independent of the wind when engaged in battle. ____________________ designed a steam engine that was 40% more efficient, half the size, and significantly cheaper than standard steam engines. Benjamin Franklin Isherwood Which war left the U.S. with two seacoasts to defend, and propelled the U.S. into Pacific affairs? The Mexican War Select True or False: To encourage temperance onboard vessels, in 1831 the Navy allowed Sailors to receive money in lieu of the spirit, or “grog” ration. True ____________________ commanded the South Sea Exploring Expedition from 1838 to 1842. This six-vessel expedition surveyed South Pacific islands, charted continental coastlines, proved Antarctica is a continent, and collected natural history and ethnological specimens that formed the basis of the Smithsonian Institution's collections. Charles Wilkes Which Antebellum Navy leader earned the title “Pathfinder of the Seas” for his contributions to ocean science? Matthew F. Maury What was the main advantage of the “bottle-shape” of the Dahlgren gun? It kept the gun lighter by removing metal where it was not needed. 1 Which of the following accomplishments was NOT Matthew Fontaine Maury’s? Proved Antarctica is a continent. What was the significance of Matthew C. Perry’s expedition to Japan? The Japanese opened their ports to American ships. The Civil War and its Aftermath: What did the Union naval blockade of the Confederacy accomplish?. It captured transport vessels, creating acute supply shortages. Which of the following best characterizes the Navy between 1866 and 1880? Decreasing in size and deteriorating, with old and outmoded ships. The Naval War College was established in 1884: To provide officers the opportunity to study naval tactics, strategy, and policy. What international developments stimulated resurgence of American naval power in the 1880s? European nations competing and building large navies to defend their empires. ______________was in charge of Upper Mississippi River forces that participated in the captures of Fort Henry, Tennessee, Fort Donelson, Tennessee, and Island Number Ten, in the Mississippi River. Andrew Hull Foote ____________ made his first of several expeditions in 1886 that placed him in the vanguard of Arctic explorers. Robert Edwin Peary What did the Confederate raiders accomplish? They drove the carrying of trade to foreign ships, hurting the U.S. Merchant Marine fleet. Select True or False: Union forces controlled the western rivers, dividing the Confederacy and stopping Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops, a strategic advantage that resulted in greater mobility for Union troops. True Select True or False: After the Civil War the U.S. Navy fell into neglect, while navies of other countries modernized. In the 1880's, the U.S. Navy was modernized and joined the ranks of major world powers True In January 1865, the last Confederate port open to blockade-runners fell. Where was this port located?. Wilmington, North Carolina For what is David W. Taylor known? Which distinguished Civil War officer commanded the North Atlantic Blockading Squadron and led naval forces in the 1864 and 1865 assaults against Fort Fisher, North Carolina? David D. Porter What did Union control of the Mississippi River accomplish? It prevented Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops. The Navy on a Global Stage: Select True or False: In 1889, eleven nations had warship fleets larger than that of the United States, but less than two decades later only the British Royal Navy was larger than the U.S. Navy. True What organization did the Navy establish to institutionalize the contribution of female medical personnel? Navy Nurse Corps Who was the strategic thinker and Naval War College professor who developed the Theory of Sea Power? Alfred T. Mahan What two new weapons systems of the early 20th century enabled the Navy to fight over and under the surface of the ocean? 2 The airplane and the submarine The dawn of undersea warfare dates from 1900 with the launch of the ____________________. USS Holland As a result of the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922, the United States and the other victorious Allied powers ____________. drastically reduced their battle fleets, hoping to stop the arms race and prevent another global conflict. WWII in the Atlantic and European Waters: Select True or False: To man its tens of thousands of naval vessels, aircraft, and shore bases, the Navy enlisted over 3 million Sailors. True The breakdown of pre-war barriers to the enlistment of African Americans and women was due to wartime necessity and ____________________. the growing American support for social equality How many Allied merchantmen and warships did German and Italian submarines sink during the war? 3000 The cipher machine used by the Germans for radio communication security was called the ____________________. Enigma So the U.S. and British armed forces could synchronize not only their Atlantic but global operations and speak with one voice about the need for convoy escort vessels, amphibious landing craft, and similar materiel, in 1942 the two nations established an organization named the ______________. Combined Chiefs of Staff Early in World War II, which country proved especially effective in signals intelligence—the interception, decryption, and reading of enemy radio signals? Great Britain Significant social changes in the Navy during World War II had the greatest impact on which of the following American minority groups? Women and African Americans What U.S. Naval leader took steps to standardize anti-submarine training and tactics? Admiral Royal E. Ingersoll For a year after the United States entered the war, German U-boats successfully operated throughout the ____________________. Atlantic, Caribbean, and Mediterranean What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats? Jeep carrier What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats? True WWII in the Pacific: On what Japanese island did U.S. Marines raise “Old Glory” in February 1945? Iwo Jima Which battle marked the turning point of the Pacific campaign and was considered the most decisive naval battle of WW II? Midway Select True or False: Although the Battle of Okinawa was the last major operation of WWII, the U.S. Navy beat their Japanese adversaries with very few casualties. False What U.S. naval assets became primary striking assets after the morning of Dec 7, 1941? Submarines and aircraft carriers 3 Zumwalt. 4 .S. Duerk The climax of the Cold War was marked by U. 600 Why is the North Vietnamese naval attack on the USS Maddox in August 1964 important? It prompted Congress to pass the Tonkin Gulf resolution. At the climax of the Cold War 1989. What naval vessel types did the Navy deploy during the Cold War to discourage Soviet nuclear attacks on the United States? Submarines armed with nuclear ballistic missiles Which attack submarine was lost at sea with her entire crew while returning from operations in the Mediterranean Sea during the Cold War? USS Skorpion Who were the first African American and female officers promoted to flag rank? Samuel L. Gravely and Alene B. naval forces locate and track enemy surface and air naval forces? Radar August 1942 marked the start of a bloody six-month struggle for control of what island? Guadalcanal What two naval vessel types did the Japanese NOT destroy during the Pearl Harbor attack? Submarines and aircraft carriers The Cold War: What was the first major armed conflict of the Cold War? Korean War Greater than 95% of supplies and logistical support for troops in Vietnam came from this organization: Military Sealift Command (MSC) Which fleet improvements were introduced in the Navy in the later Cold War years? Ticonderoga-class cruisers and Los Angeles-class submarines In what way did the U. which authorized U. strategy in the early period of the Cold War for dealing with the Soviet Union and its allies? Containment Strategy The Navy's Cold War mission was to enforce containment of the USSR and its allies through: Maintenance of sea control in the world's oceans Forward deployment of naval forces to the periphery of Communist bloc nations Deployment at sea of nuclear-armed submarines to deter Soviet nuclear attack Navy-wide directives. Naval involvement in conflicts such as ____________________. True What key technical system helped U.S.” that were issued to improve the life of enlisted Sailors were the inspiration of what Admiral? Admiral Elmo R. Navy contribute to the successful resolution of the Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962? Navy ships blocked the delivery of Soviet missiles to Communist Cuba.S. Jr. Naval forces deployed to Grenada and Panama Littoral Operations: One of the most significant changes in the Navy in the mid-1990s was a transition from a blue water navy to a navy that would ___________________.S. What was the U. the SECNAV had generated enough support to build the size of the Navy to almost ____________________ ships. or “Z-grams. military operations in the Vietnam Conflict.S.Select True or False: Improvements in the Navy’s logistical capabilities played a significant role in victories of the Pacific campaign. S.S. awards are handed out in what manner? From most senior award to most junior Sailors are in a _________________. world governments. you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest. led offensive was launched in October 2001 against Al Qaeda and Taliban forces in Afghanistan? Operation Enduring Freedom Which command delivered large amounts of the tanks. ships did Iraqi mines damage in 1991 USS Princeton and USS Tripoli What was the name of the 1987-1988 Persian Gulf operation where U. from what position? Attention Traditionally. and supplies needed for Operation Iraqi Freedom to staging areas in Kuwait? Military Sealift Command Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched to: Liberate the Iraqi people Promote democracy in Iraq Block 2 Military Formations: As a leader. vehicles. when placed in formation one behind the other? File 5 .S. Roberts From which African nation did American forces withdraw when the UN-sponsored intervention failed? Somalia The Persian Gulf War was instrumental in opening up many opportunities for women in the following areas: Combat air squadrons All major warships Shore commands Global War on Terrorism: Select True or False: The destruction of terrorist cells following 9/11 was primarily confined to the Middle-East False Al Qaeda had established a training complex in ____________________. naval forces protected Kuwaiti oil tankers? Tanker War Which ship was damaged by an Iranian mine and was the catalyst for launching Operation Praying Mantis? USS Samuel B. True What was the Navy’s primary focus immediately after the 9/11 attacks? Homeland security Which U. naval units escorted Kuwaiti oil tankers through the Persian Gulf? Operation Earnest Will What is the name of the conflict in the Persian Gulf during 1987 and 1988 in which U. Somalia What two U. Afghanistan Select True or False: The United States. United Nations (UN). and international financial institutions joined to identify and destroy terrorist groups and their sources of funding immediately following 9/11.project power ashore in the littoral regions of the world The UN-sponsored intervention in Somalia in the mid-1990s resulted in ___________________.S. from which it supported terrorist activities worldwide. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade? Sergeant Major What is the definition of “prescribable items”? Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. the Fleet Response Plan is _________________. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP? 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review “Presence with a purpose” provides what? Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or on shorter “pulse” employment periods The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories: ________________________. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? The requirement to generate. sub. emergency surge. Items may be worn with uniform at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed basic Fleet Response Plan: When is a CSG considered surge ready? When they have completed integrated phase training When is a ship.S. U. capabilities-based response plan Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors? Prior to the seasonal uniform change Military Uniforms. and Courtesies: What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign country is played? Salute What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? Staff Sergeant What does Title 10. deployed Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. or squadron considered routine deployable? After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway phase training and certification of the unit for forward deployed operations sustainment At its core. a mission driven. Chief Master Sergeant What is meant by “under arms”? When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon What is the U. surge ready. routine deployable. and update the uniform regulations At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? At six paces or closest point of approach The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of _____________.S.Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? Baron von Steuben Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? Precision and automatic response As a leader. maintain. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? Sea Basing What does the 6 + 2 plan provide? 6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within 90 days The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? 6 6 . Customs. Which of the following was a defined role? The top technical authority and expert within a rating On 28 April 1967. or delete requirements 7 . multi-national exercises. hat device On 23 May. GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first _____________. add. normally in their own command Strengthen chief petty officer standards According to the 1918 BlueJacket’s Manual. or prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism Chief Petty Officer History: In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first? Voids in critical Navy billets. GMCM Delbert Black The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to __________. commands are responsible for what? Submitting requests to revise. broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change? It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1. the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. 1978. ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy. homeland defense. On 13 January 1967. Technical expert and example setter The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the _____. Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year? 1946 The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to ______. two roles of a chief petty officer were ________. Strengthen chief petty officer standards The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were _ ______. resource sponsors Changes to the AMD can come from what factors? Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a command is expected to operate Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command? Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR) In manpower management.Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)? Commander. security cooperation events. Fleet Forces Command The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as _______________. Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? Report directly to the Chief of Naval Personnel on enlisted retention rates Manpower Management: TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for ________________. deterrent operations. normally in their own command Voids in critical Navy billets. commands. personal inventory TFMMS Micro Manpower Change Application (TMMCA) allows a command to ____________________.S. states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ________________________. received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen All the answers are correct The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason? Until that point. initiate AMD change requests Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.15. Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy. quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions? Enlisted Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a command is expected to operate Naval Customs: In general terms. led by John Adams. Pollywogs Formal dinners promote ____________________. 8 . proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)? All answers are correct Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”? It is played today at many athletic events and parades Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U. Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October) Which of the following statements is true regarding the “Navy Hymn”? All the answers are correct Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written? To inspire U. Navy’s heritage. These days are ____________________.S. national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors The AMD is a single source document that provides ________________. __________ proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage.S. Customs and Traditions: Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and ______________________. Chief of Naval Operations. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle? All the answers are correct What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway? The Japanese hoped to lure the U. the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States Advocates for a Navy in 1775. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906. Sailors OPNAVINST 1300.” Charles Adam Zimmerman. Admiral Jay L. Johnson Midway Night has been observed since 2000. what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence? All the answers are correct The author of “Anchors Aweigh. a ship must ____________________. since the mid 19th century The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______. are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance While on watch. when large ships usually anchored or moored.7 The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle ____________________. the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive Boat hailing protocols became necessary ____________________. announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat Ships in the U. Blue Nose What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore? Alcohol was banned from U. and boating was required 9 . the burial at sea SecNav Instruction 1610. Morning and evening colors have been governed by Navy regulations since __________. Hazing The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is ____________________. All of these answers are correct All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT ____________________. “John Paul Jones!” He is ____________________.S. in the days prior to WWII.2A concerns ____________. Navy ____________________. Mossback A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor ____________________.all the answers are correct Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________.S. OPNAV Instruction 1710. Navy vessels in 1914. should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency Ship’s Customs and Traditions: Before commissioning. complete and pass a series of Sea Trials Today’s “Returning Home Pennant” ____________________. all the answers are correct What is the tradition of the quarterdeck? All the answers are correct All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT ____________________. a violation of SECNAV Instructions Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude? Golden Which statement is true concerning morning colors? Honors to foreign ensigns may be rendered by the playing of appropriate foreign national anthems Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat? Avoid walking on varnished areas The conduct of a Dining-In is defined by ____________________. walking on the port side You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out “Boat ahoy!” and the boat’s coxswain replies. the Officer of the Deck (OOD) ____________________. all the answers are correct Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in ____________________. the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck The “Returning Home Pennant” ____________________.” “truth can not be known. ____________________. Independence Day.” and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following? Nihilism An ethical person is __________________. decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning. All the answers are correct Select True or False: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number. These three are ____________________. in the days of sail. orders read. span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovospan the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo On modern ships. MILPERSMAN 1800-010 Half-masting the national ensign ____________________. Washington’s Birthday. Navy. True Freedom-based ethics focus on __________________. including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon. the quarterdeck ___________________. is distributed to the Commanding Officer. which receive special remembrance by the U.S. firing left the ship vulnerable Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies? All officers and crew face the ensign and salute. there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations. is a symbol of mourning and respect Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________. Sir.The Navy’s battle streamers ____________________. passing honors The Change of Command Ceremony always includes ____________________. is designated by the Commanding Officer While a ship is at anchor or at a pier.” False Select True or False: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics. officers. it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman Stars on Navy streamers Honors and Ceremonies: Passing honors are ____________________. and Memorial Day At the end of their careers. All the answers are correct There are three national holidays. 10 . and crew upon arrival in port The sloop Concord is notable because ____________________.” and “I stand relieved” Military Ethics Overview: Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel. all hands called to quarters. all Sailors may ____________________. The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is ____________________. and statements: “I relieve you. Consequentialism Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want. is it still possible to act ineffectively? Yes The key distinction(s) between a profession.” “no one can stop me. Reasoning Ethics and the Warfighter: 11 . moral reasoning. and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession. a reason-based approach to truth and justice Ethics in the Profession of Arms: What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional? The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society. right. Effectiveness Select True or False: A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good. and moral courage. The ability. True Aristotelian virtue. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads? It is the path to becoming a person of character Even with moral awareness. people must be morally ____________________. Effectiveness Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of one’s knowledge. skills. is/are ____________________. A professional ____________________ is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation. character-based ethics A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies __________________. “An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor” best defines ____________________. and values in order to accomplish the intended action. and art. All the answers are correct Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. Moral development requires certain conditions to occur. False Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong. with the objective of achieving moral____________________.” and “I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the following? Criminality Select True or False: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured.someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________. stoicism. and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of __________________. craft. Responsibility Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals? All of the answers are correct. Corporateness Moral development is a life-long process. All the answers are correct. self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________. and law The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________. True The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires ____________________. 12 . philosophy. it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum. Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths? Professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths. that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good the operation accomplished by Select True or False: In order for a war to be considered just. and viceversa. False The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants: Chaplains and medical personnel.Select True or False: The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention. True The two key criteria jus in bello criteria are ____________________. nor aid others in their attempt to escape. political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy. The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for ____________________. Political leaders Select True or False: All members of the U. clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment Just War Tradition: The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________. False The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________. discrimination and proportionality Select True or False: The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict. theology. True Select True or False: While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders. help to set the military professional apart Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war. False The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included ____________________. False Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct? I will not make an attempt to escape. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions. approving specific targets. False The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it ____________________. Prisoners of war Select True or False: A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage. and developing rules of engagement. reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good Select True or False: The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders.S. the Department of Defense is legislative branch of the federal government part of the A convening authority is responsible for ___________.00. a defense counsel.00 to write a magazine article concerning maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his squadron. unique ethical code. is the military equivalent of a civilian juror Which of the following is NOT true? Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military. as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.00. forfeitures of two-thirds pay for not than one year. All of the answers are correct Which of the following is true? Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the authority of the federal government. Another division collects $1. Which statement is NOT true? Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding Officer a framed picture of the ship valued at approximately $90. The Chief’s Mess presents the Commanding Officer with a sword valued at approximately $200. The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring.00 per sailor and presents the Commanding Officer with a brass bell valued at approximately $75. Which gift(s). does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at Captain’s Mast Conduct and Government Ethics: Which of the following would be prohibited? The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.Block 3 Military Justice System: Which of the following is true? A general court-martial is composed of a military judge. Two months later the commanding officer is given a framed picture of the ship worth $7. the Which of the following statements is NOT true? The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Which of the following statements is NOT true? The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses. if accepted by the Commanding Officer would most likely NOT be prohibited? One of the carrier’s divisions pitch in $2. Captain’s Mast A member of a general court-martial _________________. provides a service member the opportunity to file a complaint of wrongs against his or her commanding officer The Constitution ______________________. all of the answers are correct The maximum punishment which may be given at a special court-martial is limited to _______________.50 by the Ensign as a birthday present. reduction to paygrade E-1. the Ensign gives the commanding officer a stuffed animal for his daughter as an Easter present worth $8. three months of hard labor without confinement.00. A service member _____________. Two months later.00 by an Ensign (the ship’s communication’s officer) as a Christmas present. is also known as _____________. Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice __________. Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited? The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000. a prosecutor and at least five members. and bad conduct discharge more Nonjudicial punishment. one year confinement.00. Military personnel are governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice. 13 . Which of the following statements is true? Navy Regulations. paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer. maintenance. Which of the following is NOT true? Navy Regulations. include situations where ____________________________________. The records the Government is not required to release to the requester are referred to as _________________. True Select True or False: The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protection provided by the Privacy Act. All of the answers are correct.Privacy Act: Select True or False: The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access records maintained by the government and request amendments to erroneous information that may be contained in those records. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who is also the LT’s commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the unit’s radios in preparation for an inspection the following day. False What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data? All of the answers are correct A record is ___________________________________________. Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer ordered them to accomplish. Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. grouping. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. Chapter 10. Chapter 10. may Which of the following is true? 14 . The release of protected information to a third party. At the time the order was given. has the right to access all records held by the government that pertains to him or her. any collection. Which of the following is true? The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. the LT had never seen the major before. Which of the following is true? The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine major. Which of the following statements is true? An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order be a lawful order. The LT did not obey the given order. as well as to _____________________________________________ . from a A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except __________. and use of personal information. the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research Select True or False: The Privacy Act doesn't permit the subject of the record to access his or her information. or item of information about an individual maintained by an agency The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection. False. Lawful and Unlawful Orders: A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. without the consent of the individual of concern. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. Exempt. Chapter 10. remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander A carrier strike group ____________. and Functions of DON: Currently. and capabilities for which the services are responsible. (1) the Air Force’s Air Mobility Command. Coast Guard’s reserve component. the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U. including the U. _______ provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior.A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty Officer may be prosecuted Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.1 authorizes the Department of the Navy to develop force structure to accomplish which one(s) of the following? Primary functions. has two chains of command – administrative and operational The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.S. Code The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area? Pacific Command The Chief of Naval Operations _________________. U. Navy Regulations. Coast Guard’s reserve component. The LT protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. Missions. Paragraph1039 Roles. Maritime Administration and U. Navy and the U. Coast Guard. False.S. The functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense directive 5100. False.S.S. ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces. The CDR insists that his order be followed. As defined by Joint Publication 1-02. An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT). under What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal? Refuse the order and report to higher authority. the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U. Code __________ are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant commanders by the President of the United States or the Secretary of Defense. ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces. the primary purpose of an amphibious operation is to: Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft.S. the term “functions” in this context refers to: Those various activities. Select True or False: By Congressional statute. The LT even represents the facts in writing to the CDR. Initially authored in Executive Order 9877.S. Currently.S. Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is codified in law? The U. Title 10. The list of service-specific “functions” continues to evolve over time. operations.S.S.S. U. Marine Corps Maritime power projection includes: All of these answers are correct. (2) the Navy’s Military Sealift Command and (3) the Army’s Deployment and Distribution Command Surface Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States? 15 . Title 10. Missions Select True or False: By Congressional statute. Which of the following has been assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the Joint arena? The U. including the U. What should the LT do? Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to the CAPT. Maritime Administration and U. Coast Guard. Maritime Administration.S. the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense The United States’ two most senior ranking military officers are __________. the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense National Military Organization: ____________ is responsible for developing the National Military Strategy. by law. has two chains of command – administrative and operational Functional combatant commanders ___________________. (1) the Air Force’s Air Mobility Command. is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff The European Command ___________. the Central Command and the Pacific Command The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________. the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________. are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President Administratively. must place his duties as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties to the Secretary of the military service chief Navy as a The overseas area where U.S. (2) the Navy’s Military Sealift Command and (3) the Army’s Surface Deployment and Distribution Command The Chief of Naval Operations ___________. is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight provided by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff An outbreak of hostilities between India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the area of responsibility of ______________. Secretary of State and Secretary of Defense The United States’ two most senior ranking military officers are __________. the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________. Vice President. the President. The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff A carrier strike group ____________. has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations Enduring Freedom and Iraqi Freedom Administratively. the Central Command The Joint Staff ____________. interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is the area of responsibility of ______________. is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff 16 . always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Functional combatant commanders ___________________. remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander The Unified Command Plan ________________.The European Command The National Security Council's members include. always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff The Chief of Naval Operations _________________. _____________. force structures and responsibilities of the combatant commanders The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________. establishes the missions. are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States? The European Command The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________. globalization has exposed us to many new challenges globalization presents many opportunities As addressed in the President's cover letter to the National Security Strategy. because of the potentially devastating events of an attack with WMD. The National Security Strategy takes the position that ____________.The President’s cabinet includes ________________. prosperous. directing and executing the Global War on Terrorism is/are _________________. All of the answers are correct Stability operations. All of the answers are correct The National Defense Strategy _______________. the United States _______________. that there needs to be increased emphasis on protecting against attacks In order to establish favorable security conditions. include operations ranging from peacekeeping to substantial combat action 17 . the Secretary of Defense as a military representative The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area? Pacific Command The lead combatant command(s) in planning. Terrorism To complete the task of Expanding the Circle of Development. left unaddressed. and peaceful societies make foreign assistance more effective The National Security Strategy’s essential task of global economic growth includes ___________________. regional conflicts can lead to failed states The current National Security Strategy _____________. builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strategy. reorienting the State Department towards transformational diplomacy which promotes effective democracy responsible sovereignty and The National Security Strategy states that _____________. the United States will not rule out the preemptive force use of National Defense Strategy: The National Defense Strategy deals with ______________. The United States The National Security Strategy’s essential task of transforming the nation’s National Security Institutions will require _______________. the Special Operations Command National Security Strategy: The National Security Strategy states that ___________ is America's most immediate challenge. help build stable. All of the answers are correct The National Security Strategy states that ___________. as discussed in the National Defense Strategy. ________ must take the lead in order for the world to successfully confront problems like human trafficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction. recognizes that a secure international system requires collective action The National Defense Strategy’s view of deterrence is ____________. updated to take into account the time that passed and the events that have occurred has The National Security Strategy points out that _____________. the United States will ________. peace and international stability are most reliably built on a foundation of freedom. __________. All of the answers are correct As discussed in the National Military Strategy ________________. an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability to impose severe consequences in response to hostile or potentially hostile actions for deterrence to be successful Which of the following statements is not true? Concerning armed conflict. international criminal organizations. the National Military Strategy ______Deterring aggression and coercion ______________. the National Defense Strategy contemplates the use of all of the following except _____________. the National Military Strategy is limited to gaining a decisive victory. the protection of the United States against attack Which of the following will make the statement not true? The National Military Strategy _______________. post-conflict stability is the role of civilian government agencies and departments. All of the answers are correct Which of the following is true? The combatant commanders assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in developing the National Strategy. The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations A joint concept is __________________. Must be anticipatory in nature Joint Guidance and Resources: The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest position in the hierarchy of concepts. Capstone Concept for Joint Operations Which of the following is not true? None of the answers are correct Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________. Military To support the Joint Forces Functions of deploying and sustaining military capabilities? The national military strategy requires the armed forces to increase its expeditionary logistics capabilities In its guidance on the development of the Joint Force. winning the War on Terrorism while protecting the United States. terrorist networks. illegal armed groups and individuals The National Military Strategy is _________________. Experimentation ________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts. The non-state actors that menace stability and security may include __________________. states that defending the United States against missile attack is no longer a priority The priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in the National Military Strategy are: ______________. 18 . and (3) transforming the Armed Forces by fielding new capabilities and adopting new operational concepts Rogue states can threaten global and regional stability by ___________.When and if actual combat operations are necessary against a hostile force. the highest level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer The National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is __________________. (2) enhancing our ability to fight as a joint force. combat operations only when they can be conducted with other nations National Military Strategy: The complex battle space used by adversaries to threaten the United States include _______________. Joint Operations Concepts Development Process The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________. 10-20 years in the future A Joint Operating Concept __________________. Sea Power 21: _____________ is central to the Sea Shield concept. Capstone A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________. Which of the following is NOT true? Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges. a transformation achieved by combining technology. Sea Basing Which of the following statements is NOT true? 19 . identifies broad principles and essential capabilities Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus? Joint Integrating Concept A Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________ The Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan ____________. receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Operating Concept At the Joint level. the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning policies and new platforms The Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of expeditionary deployments and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater is ____________________. the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________. and cultural changes across the joint community Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________. Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan Joint Functional Concepts ________________. Sea Warrior will address the challenges brought on by ________. Joint Functional Concepts ____________ publications are the top group of joint doctrine documents in the hierarchy of joint publications.a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________. a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to generate effects and achieve an objective At the Joint level. the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________. describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow A Joint Operating Concept describes how a joint force commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________. intellect. Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theaters Which of the following is NOT true? ForceNet is the follow-on program to Task Force EXCEL – a fully integrated force wide network of linked computers. describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjoys today requires ________________. This led to the “American View” that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies.S. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War. The Chief of Naval Operations The foundation upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is ____________. in part. Sea Strike ______________. forward presence. the implementation of a continual process of rapid concept and technology development Sea Shield will protect U. control of the seas. Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navy’s ability to counter the increased risk to the United States in the future? None of the answers are correct. False. Sea Basing The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an example of ___________. the U. Select True or False: Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities.S. and networked intelligence Which of the following is true? The “Maritime Strategy” was Which of the following is NOT true? Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges. _______________. quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War? All of the answers are correct. Block 4 The American Way of War: Select True or False: The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. Select True or False: In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West. True One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was ____________________. False During the American Revolution. the Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia (“volunteer”) forces and proof that the United States didn’t need to maintain a large standing army. Sea Enterprise Sea Trial is concerned with ______________. is the ability to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea Sea Power 21 was published by ___________________. False Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars. the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation The Second Seminole War _______________. was created. Which of the following is NOT true? Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our forward presence globally. Sea Warrior and Sea Enterprise. 20 . the Continental Army ____________________. which were fought solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics. a large standing army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War. to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate nation Following the end of the First World War. national interests with defensive power based on ____________.ForceNet is the “glue” that binds together Sea Trial. have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communication Select True or False: Historically. the American military was engaged in ________________. the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available. what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and operating environment? The attitudes of Naval officers toward their job 21 . All the answers are correct One of the ways that maritime forces protect the homeland is to ______________. During the American Revolution. a series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in order to maintain order and discourage European intervention in the Western Hemisphere The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of _______________. increased competition for scarce resources Maritime forces provide decision makers with ______________. it did not see any threat to the existence of the nation Generals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the Confederate forces of Lee and Johnston in order to _______________. ______________ is one of the six key tasks of naval forces. During the time between the First and Second World Wars. then the second greatest peril is ____________________. General Winfield Scott’s capture of Mexico City during the Mexican War was ____________________. disrupt and neutralize threats far from the U. The Europeans who first settled what would become the United States ____________________. Fire During non-wartime activity. Select True or False: “Speed” is a characteristic of maritime forces.became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory Congress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing army during the latter part of the 19 th century because ____________________. the Navy will ____________________. True All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. Select True or False: Today’s Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descendents of the militias established by the early European colonists. the American land forces found success against the British through ____________________. the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact Cooperative maritime strategy ______________ will be required to partner to counter the maritime domain’s emerging threats. If the greatest peril during non-wartime activity is water in the hull.S. TRUE Maritime forces require the cooperation of land forces in order to protect our citizens FALSE The maritime domain supports what percentage of the world’s trade? 90% The Naval Way of War: By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict. All the answers are correct. TRUE Public opposition to fighting the Philippine Insurrection was largely based on _______________. One of the consequences of the expanding global economic system is ______________. tactics. in order to understand how the U. the values that traditionally have been held near and dear to the Navy. in a harmful way. and technologies. operational or tactical based on ____________________. if exploited. threats. tactics. in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives. 22 . the primary responsibility of every commanding officer is to ____________________.S.Navigation is ____________________. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and. an art of approximation Select True or False: According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea. let him do his job. and the tactics employed on battlefield to achieve those objectives the The enemy’s center of gravity ____________________. can change particularly at the operational and tactical level An enemy’s critical vulnerability ____________________. All of the answers are correct The Navy’s intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to limit the enemy’s freedom of action and to make a sea barrier. what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree? GPS The Navy’s organizational culture comes from ____________________. The U. All of the answers are correct. have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations “Put him in the position. they ____________________. will do the most significant damage to the enemy’s ability to resist us The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________. may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability Actions are defined as strategic. at this time.S. it’s important to know ___________________. the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions Which of the following is correct? The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine. not an avenue for maneuver U.S. is a vulnerability that. Navy What is the best example of Independence of Action? All of the answers are correct Why does the Navy still fear technological advances? It could irrevocably alter. In our time. Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at what level of war? Tactical The three components of military art are ____________________. False In close waters. and operational art The enemy’s center of gravity ____________________. Navy’s organizational culture Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________. Theory of War: An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war? It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________. Navy responds to new missions. strategy. ________________________. According to Admiral Nimitz. and give him hell if he does not perform” is the not-to-centralize philosophy of the U.S. NWDC SIPRNET site The UNTL is ____________________. all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through ____________________. Doctrine: Select True or False: Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force. A comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs. and sustaining major campaigns designed to accomplish operational Operational art was “born” during the ____________________. True Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs. development. by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives each The principles of war ____________________. and procedures are all non-prescriptive. False The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________. techniques. initiation. current capabilities Select True or False: Tactics. False The joint doctrine development process has four steps: ____________________. deals with the study. which means it must be followed without exception. theory. approval.can change particularly at the operational and tactical level Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________. Operational art ____________________. preparing. True Joint doctrine is based on ____________________. link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operations Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by ____________________. continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been ten years since the last revision 23 . conducting. Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications which ____________________. and practice of planning. True Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine? Detailed threat profiles Which of the following is NOT characteristic of NTTPs? They are not related to NWPs. concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________. maintenance Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs. True All doctrinal publications are reviewed ____________________. period following World War I operations and or strategic objectives The principles of war include ____________________. USMC Select True or False: Joint doctrine is authoritative. CNO and Commandant. All of the answers are correct Which of the following are considered command and control support? The people. logistics and training The process of command control includes which of the following? All of the answers are correct. including U. true Command and Control: Command and control is ___________________ . still under development in terms of specific details. May be placed under OPCON of a UN commander based upon a Security Council resolution Operational control or OPCON includes organizing commands and which of the following functions? All of the answers are correct. although the broad functions have been finalized According to the concept. All of the answers are correct Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through ___________________ . the JFMCC _______________________ .S. facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders. commander’s means of guiding a military operation Naval commanders exercise TACON over ___________________ . OPCON and TACON: All of the answers are correct The C² organization is defined to include ___________________ . JTF commanders Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the human nervous system? All of the answers are correct C² enables the Commander to ___________________ .Select True or False: Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine. All of the answers are correct Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON? Organization. It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing circumstances. U. forces. a system and a process Feedback is most important to control because ___________________ . all of the answers are correct OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ . All of the answers are correct What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations? Sea control Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC? All of the answers are correct 24 . Naval forces are ___________________ . Control is the ___________________ .S. The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as ___________________ its doctrine for tactical command and control Joint Force Maritime component commander: The JFMCC concept is _______________________ . The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ___________________. or COP. logistics. CWC Concept: Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because: In battle there is too much going on. What is the cornerstone tenet of the CWC concept? Command by negation The common operating picture. includes ______________. the Officer in Tactical Command’s (OTC’s) primary focus should be on: Conducting Carrier Strike Group (CSG) offensive operations against an adversary. The CWC would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because ___________________ . Expeditionary Strike Groups and other functional component to request JFMCC assets The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of: A service or component staff. The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to: All of the answers are correct Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________ . The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to ___________________ request specific support to execute assigned missions The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ___________________ . personnel support.The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________. the JFLCC and JFACC The Joint Force Commander has ___________________. too fast for one person to manage. Under the JFMCC concept. wide authority to organize the Joint Task Force The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint Forces Land Component Commander) serves which of the following purposes? Better integrate military assets during operations. the Navy's primary mission: Shifted in orientation to the littorals. All of the answers are correct The CWC concept addresses defense against: All of the answers are correct After the Cold War. The MARSUPREQ is designed to ___________________ enable the commanders of Carrier Strike Groups. augmented by service staff. both OPCON and TACON Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTF's maritime missions? The JFMCC The JFMCC’s subordinate commanders include: Both CSG and ESG commanders. and service-specific training would: Remain the responsibility of the service component commander. Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the Navy service commander component The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to: Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commander’s campaign plan. that is where the needed C2 assets will be Under Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept. 25 . The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept ______________________. must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in an Operation General Matter (OPGEN) The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate: All of the answers are correct. Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation: assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is intended to enable the carrier battle group (CVBG) commander to: Manage information overload Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept warfare commanders are given call signs that _______________. All of the answers are correct. Decentralization and command by negation are: Design keys of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) because they reduce complexity and information overload. Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed? To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is: Tactical Control (TACON): CWC Roles and Responsibilities: If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be ______________________ . All of the answers are correct Decentralized command is an effective approach because? It helps to prevent the CWC from being overwhelmed by information overload. It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve mission objectives. What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar? The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan and their it. roles in The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include ___________________ . All of the answers are correct Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure? JTF commanders Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to: Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders. Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ . immediately subordinate to the CWC What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept? All of the answers are correct The CWC will have _____________________ . TACON Which of the following is not an example of a coordinator under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept? Interagency Working Group Coordinator TACON over any single asset can be ___________________ . held by only one commander and any given time Which of the following are not examples of Functional Warfare Commanders? Secure Telecommunications Group Commander Which of the following is not a Principal Warfare Commander (PWC)? 26 Which of the following functions are the responsibility of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)? Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by: Either the Principal Warfare Commander (PWC) or the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ________________ . Tatical Control over any single asset can be ___________________ held by only one commander and any given time JFMCC/CWC Challenges: What are the challenges to the CWC concept? All of the answers are correct Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ___________________. developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite communications Select True or False: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution. False The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means ___________________. All of the answers are correct A downside of CWC’s dependency on communications is ______________. all of the answers are correct According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________. CWC creates broad war fighting specialists Important challenges for CWC include ___________________. All of the answers are correct According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of ___________________. 20NM What mitigates the concern that the CWC concept is too communications intensive? What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation? Origins and Development: Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander. False Strike operations are a component of which navy mission? Projecting power ashore Select True or False: During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi infrastructure. False Select True or False: Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft. False Select True or False: The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile. False Select True or False: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no “dumb” bombs were utilized. 27 False Select True or False: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units. False Select True or False: While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such operations for an extended period. False How do the Navy’s two principal missions influence events on land? Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power projection ashore directly influences those events. Select True or False: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike. False During Operation DESERT STORM, the Navy's capability to conduct amphibious operations ___________________. caused the Iraqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphibious attack which contributed to its forces being enveloped by coalition forces Select True or False: Submarines have no role in strike warfare. False The changes in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons learned in the 1990’s Gulf War were tested _______________. in the series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1990’s Operation DESERT STORM introduced ___________________ to the Navy mission of projecting power ashore. ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the Navy executes strike warfare? Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval Air Commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander FALSE CSG: Select True or False: The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class. False The Fleet Response Plan’s goal is to ______________. sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three of an emergency order months Select True or False: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed. False Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested. False Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile? all of the answers are correct Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________. All of the answers are correct Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navy’s strike warfare mission, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability. False The principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ___________. always a CV/CVN 28 and upon arrival in. an amphibious objective area may be provided by ____________. FALSE Carrier Strike Groups _______________. All of the answers are correct.Select True or False: Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling False Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile? All of the answers are correct. fuel and supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to them FALSE Select True or False: The Navy’s Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful use of carrierbased aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past several decades. Select True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile. FALSE Select True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile. False Carrier Strike Groups are dependant on Logistical Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of ammunition. the Perry-class guided missile frigates are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group. The Fleet Response Plan’s goal is to ______________. FALSE CV/CVN: What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates? Reduce the number of aircraft required Flight deck danger can be eliminated by: None of the answers are correct ___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power. sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three of an emergency order months Select True or False: Because they have no long-range strike capability. Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by _______________. Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to. Human organization Successful strike warfare depends upon ? All of the answers are correct Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVN’s unique capability to conduct air operations in: Sandstorms Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following? Permit 24 hour strike warfare Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force? Improved ship design What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy? Aircraft carrier The Carrier Air Department is responsible for: Flight deck control 29 . Viking. early warning A. this refers to? Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability. EA-6B Prowler D. Select True or False: Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval operations involve higher acceptance of risk in wartime and less toleration of risk in peacetime. etc. S-3B Viking Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets? Combat air patrol What is the principal limitation of PGMs? Cost Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are? 30 . ASW. E-2C Hawkeye C. F-14 Tomcat B. Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common? Recent mission changes Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following: National Command Authority Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by: All of the answers are correct Match the aircraft with their primary mission. The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its versions has all the following advantages except: ASW capability What do the Tomcat. A D C B 1. electronic attack 4. air defense and strike 2. Prowler. True Effective strike operations are coordinated through a negotiation process in which officers: Resist demands which could compromise the safety or performance of their units Maximize demands on other units for operational and logistics support Naval Air Strike Warfare is executed by: Aircraft Carrier Wing Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following? Permit 24 hour strike warfare What types of redundancy involves shipboard operations-critical units or components such as computers.Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organic assets? In-flight refueling Flight deck danger can be eliminated by: None of the answers are correct.? Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of the following? The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible for: Due to the complexity and dangers of flight operations. air refueling 3. what is the lowest position authorized to suspend flight deck operations? DECK CREW MEMBER CVW: Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through “punctuated stability”. radar antennas. while submerged to avoid damage to the system Submarines can communicate with surface units _____________. is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent and is responsible for all strike planning. and reporting strikes The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________. has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing. Improved targeting.Operates in adverse weather Converts “dumb” bomb into precision guided weapon Concept of Operations(CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include: battle damage assessment Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings. the tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path? Naval Component Commander (NCC). The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting system. TLAM firing unit The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________. especially through PGMs. numbers of missiles. Launch Area Coordinator (TAC). Which weapons caused the greatest damage to Iraqi targets in the Gulf War? Laser guided bombs What is the greatest cause of improved weapon accuracy? TLAM: Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile? survivability in a high threat environment Starting from the Joint Force Commander. What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch? The embarked air wing Advantages of PGMs include all but one of the following: reduced costs and maintenance expenses “Detection of enemy air or surface units by radar or other equipment carried in an airborne vehicle and transmission of a warning to friendly units” is the mission of: Airborne early warning What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition? All of the answers are correct. and time on target so firing units can execute the launch. coordination. “Circular Error Probability” refers to: Area in which 50% of ordnance can be expected to hit. reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver 31 . Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and from vertical launch tubes if so equipped The _____ assigns targets. Launch Sequence Plan (LSP) The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ________. either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both protects the missile during and serves as the missile's launch tube TLAM transport Which of the following is not true? Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral damage is not a concern Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks ___________. and the Joint Force Maritime Component Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present. TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC). when operating at periscope depth Submarines have the ability to launch ______________. Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War. Tomahawk Which of the following is true? Tomahawk missiles fired from submarines are identical to those fired by surface combatants. Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode? Maverick and Hellfire Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include: Chemical weapons Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force because they are: All of the answers are correct Select True or False: Surface warfare includes coordination of surface. Tomahawk Liaison Officer (TLO) Terrain masking ___________________. Maverick Short range protection of major surface units relies on which of the following? 32 . land. Tomahawk Strike Coordinator liaisons are placed with all the following except _________________. True The Recognized Maritime Position is difficult to maintain with complete accuracy for the following reasons: Adverse weather conditions A successful Surface Warfare Commander must achieve more than passive protection of the task force or avoidance of hostile contact. SLAM-ER. maintain a safe buffer around the task force during transit to operating areas. gain and maintain access to the operating area. and sea assets. involves flying around hills in order to remain concealed from detection by point-defenses around the target Which of the following is true? The Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joint Force Commander to act as the Executive Agent. and be prepared to conduct offensive operations Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode? Maverick and Hellfire Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to: All the answers are correct. What is the most critical task of the Surface Warfare Commander? Develop and maintain the Recognized Maritime Position Task force protection within a radius of 50 miles is accomplished by: Embarked helicopters and surface vessels Match the following missiles with their primary delivery craft: F/18 Hornet A. he is also required to ____________________. Penguin EA-6B Prowler HARM S-3B VIKINGHarpoon. Harpoon. Surface Warfare: Which is NOT among the primary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander? Direct submarine operations The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets: All of the answers are correct Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of “combat boats” has which of the following effects: Complicates the area of uncertainty for U. subsurface.S.The __________ is the central liaison point of contract for all aspects of TLAM employment at the Joint Force Air Coordination Center and works for the Naval Component Commander. HARM. In order to ensure TLAMs are effectively integrated into operations. SLAM-ER. forces. Maverick SH-60 Seahawk Hellfire. surface ships. security for Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include: Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology. and destroyers Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike group? E-2C Hawkeye Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations.S. and departing and landing aircraft. Naval Special Warfare: Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron? All of the answers are correct Select the statement that is NOT true. and launch Select True or False: Absence of major power challenges to U. involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions 33 .S. Aegis cruisers. Air Defense ________ enemy airborne platforms and weapons. False The Air Defense Commander must be: None of the answers are correct. and increased difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons. and sometimes assigned to Destroyer Squadron or Tomahawk Land Attack Missile command Air Defense: To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval operations. Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile air borne threats: Conduct sequential operations. increased speeds and ranges of weapons platforms. are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander Direct Action missions ____________________. and land bases True The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from: An AEGIS cruiser Select the platforms with long range capabilities Aircraft carriers. the most qualified commander well suited to support the surface warfare mission. including air defense for amphibious landings Select True or False: Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines.Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat? The Surface Warfare Commander is Tasked by the Composite Warfare Commander. Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence their actions. Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United States ____________________. maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data. aircraft. All of the answers are correct ____________________ is the primary mission of air defense. Defense in Depth Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission? Point defense ships and patrol craft Non-organic air defense support refers to: All of the answers are correct Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates: Optimum use of multi-role aircraft. naval forces. Ship-to-Objective Maneuver (STOM) 34 . All of the answers are correct The concept known as STOM includes which of the following? All of the answers are correct Key aspects of OMFTS include which of the following? All of the answers are correct Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts? All of the answers are correct The concept known as STOM includes which of the following? All of the answers are correct Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the Navy’s concept of Forward from the Sea. is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________. Counterterrorism A clandestine operation ____________________. It accomplishes this by ___________________. is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core training requirements The MK-V Special Operations Craft ____________________. delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarines The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________. low to medium threat environments A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________.The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________. Special Boat Teams The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________. All of the answers are correct The amphibious planning process ___________________. The concept that supports this aspect is known as ______________. limit and/or minimize the development. is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant commanders A SEAL team is composed of ____________________. Select the statement that is NOT true Operations that include actions to prevent. possession and employment of weapons of mass destruction are part of the ____________________ mission Introduction to Expeditionary Warfare: The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to previously deployable forces? All of the answers are correct The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ___________________. All of the answers are correct An amphibious force might include which of the following? All of the answers are correct Advantages gained by using Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) must be maintained by the landing force. is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________. a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ____________________. organizational-level maintenance Which of the following is NOT true? Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ship’s company. A military operation launched from the sea with the primary purpose of introducing a landing force ashore” is the definition for what term? An amphibious operation Strengths of amphibious operations do not include which of the following aspects? The Commander. The Navy’s two hospital ships ___________________. a senior Marine Corps officer. can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U. and other support required to maintain operations The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered ____________________. the Military Sealift Command (MSC) The Military Sealift Command’s Combat Prepositioning Force ____________________. battalion Naval Logistics: MSC’s Kilauea Class ammunition ships ____________________. Not All of the answers are correct. The ESG provides substantial resources to supplement the assault force that include which of the following? The Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine infantry ______________. Demonstration An Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) and a Carrier Strike Group CSG) can be combined to form what organization? An Expeditionary Strike Force (ESF). A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageous course of action is known as a ______________. the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force The processes used to get materiel. The Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) is a versatile sea-based force capable of which of the following? All of the answers are correct.S.S. services. Army mechanized division The Navy Component of the U. Landing Force (CLF). contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each The Military Sealift Command’s eight fast sealift ships ____________________.Expeditionary operations include which of the following? All of the answers are correct. is responsible for which of the following? The Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine infantry ______________. the provision of personnel. and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of the Navy’s logistics process? Distribution 35 . supports Army prepositioning requirements The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which class of supplies? Class V The bulk of the Navy’s combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by ____________________. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is ____________________. Have no armament The sustainment element of the logistics process is ____________________. logistics. Not raid Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) ______________. A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageous course of action is known as a ______________. AX Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________. the Near-term Reconnaissance System (NMRS) vehicle ___________________. When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine. downloaded for The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization System ___________________. treatment. and evacuation is considered a part of which logistics functional area? Health Services Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necessary to keep up with carrier strike groups? NOT SIRIUS CLASS Ready Reserve Force ships _______________. by the The ASW warfare commander’s call sign under the Navy’s Composite Warfare Commander concept is ___________________. strategic level The Dry Cargo Office ____________________. Acoustic and non-acoustic Which of the following is NOT true? U. handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by regularly scheduled liner service ocean Casualty collection. Which of the following is true? Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a submarine or an acoustic still must mine. Which of the following is NOT true? Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols. prevention of mutual interference and water space management Which of the following is true? Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing vessel. features a self-propelled.Prepositioned equipment—both afloat and ashore—is considered logistics support at the ___________________. those that are driven by Air Independent Propulsion systems typically snorkel at least once a day to recharge their batteries. sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded information can be analysis. Which of the following is true? Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out of the noise generated ship. The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms. are under Military Sealift Command control when activated Undersea Warfare: Which of the following is NOT true? While quieter than older diesel submarines. detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earth’s magnetic field caused by the submarine’ Which of the following is NOT true? The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive submarine operations. remotely-controlled Mine Neutralization Vehicle Wake homing torpedoes and sub-launched anti-ship missiles are weapons associated with ___________________. is launched and recovered through a torpedo tube The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are ___________________. Both nuclear and diesel powered submarines 36 . Which of the following is NOT true? Advances in sonar and computer technology have made underwater sound propagation entirely predictable Which of the following is NOT true? At then end of its preset battery life.S. NOT :are characterized by a designated ocean area being searched by several coordinated Which of the following is NOT true? In order for an active sonar system to detect a submarine. “Cooperation among the combatant commanders and their supporting joint force and component commanders is crucial?” Unity of Effort On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the best answer. other military forces during multinational operations. ___________________. Which of the following is NOT true? Surface detection sensors such as radar and ESM have proven to be ineffective in the search for submarines Which of the following is true? The Navy’s SSGNs are planned to carry 150 Tomahawk cruise missiles Which of the following is NOT true? NOT Mine hunting is based on locating individual mines Fundamentals of Joint Warfare: Select True or False: Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or integrates joint and single-service operations with the actions of supporting combatant commands. the submarine must make a noise that can be detected Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of the use of mines? ability to discriminate between friendly. are usually conducted to provide ASW protection for designated units The AN/SLQ-37 ___________________. and nonmilitary and other federal government agencies. is more likely to be a diesel powered submarine Area ASW operations ___________________. True Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement. report.) Geographic or functional Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship? Administrative Control (ADCON) The Combatant Commander’s campaign is based on which of the following? All of the answers are correct Which command is NOT a functional combatant command? U. is used to counter magnetic and passive acoustic mines The current submarine threat ___________________. hostile and neutral ships During the search phase of an ASW operation.Which of the following has mine counter measures as its primary mission? MH-53E helicopter Coordinated ASW operations ___________________. and correct performance? 37 .S. Southern Command The term joint forces includes which of the following commands? All of the answers are correct Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command? A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces from two or military departments. more Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally accomplished? By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and provides the commander a means to measure. Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following except ______________. and warfare support. foreign The Combatant Commanders’ plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by ________________. and disseminate an uninterrupted flow information while exploiting or denying an adversary’s ability to do the same. Forces Korea Select True or False: The combatant commander can give authoritative direction to subordinate commands and forces necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command. electronic protection. the Office of the Secretary of Defense Which of the following statements is NOT true? Information Operations is only concerned with information collected. Fundamentals of Information Operations: Which of the following statements is NOT true? Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both domestic and audiences. of Which of the following statements is true? 38 . the flow of information. process. processed and disseminated networked computer systems operated by an adversary.Control Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command? U. behavioral.S. and the interpretation of information by individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization are properties associated with which dimension of the information environment? Cognitive Which of the following statements is NOT true? Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of Operations Security actions. cultural. and other human attributes that influence decision making. True Which of the following document(s) provide(s) strategic direction for the combatant commanders? National Security Strategy and National Military Strategy Which of the following is NOT a function of the combatant commander? Budget and procure service-specific equipment. prisoner of war interrogation Department of Defense policy describes “information superiority” as: the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect. Which of the following statements is true? The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack. through electronic The psychological. computer network defense.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups.S. prisoner of war interrogation Which of the following statements is NOT true? The ability to attack U. Strategic Command Which of the following statements is NOT true? The ability to attack U. command and control. computer network exploitation Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________. Army’s ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a broad range of land power options to shape the security environment.S. light infantry does not.S. Which U. strategic responsiveness The ___________________ is the largest division in the U. and support operations? UH-60L Blackhawk Select True or False: Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift. the informational. the J-3 (Operations) The three dimensions of the information environment are ______________. Mechanized Infantry Division What are the “hidden” transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division? Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division. the physical. Which of the following statements is true? Not: Psychological Operations are those actions intended to generate insurrection among an adversary’s Psychological Operations include the dissemination of false information in order to deceive an adversary’s population. the relative importance of each quality criterion of information is universal and not influenced by things such as language. Army.S. Marine Corps. information Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks are a part of ___________________. Who has been given the specific responsibility to coordinate Information Operations (core capabilities) among the combatant commanders Commander. stability. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups. and the cognitive Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT ______________. 39 . and special operations support to combat. civilian population civilian The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are: NOT:computer network attack. general support. Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that are the bases of Information Operations’ ability to affect and defend decision making? Generally.S.Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or adversary automated systems or networks.S. The U. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault. False Select True or False: The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key differentiator between the U. Army and the U. U. Which of the following statements is true? NOT: All of the answers are correct The United States Army: Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following? The Mechanized Infantry Division The key difference between the airborne division and the light infantry division is: Airborne has the ability to conduct forcible entry operations.S. culture and religion. aeromedical evacuation. and computer network support. F. Precision engagement ___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemy’s center of gravity or other vital targets. most flexible aircraft capable of rapid strategic delivery of troops and cargo. A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to maneuver and fire. Army core competency? Sea-based operations Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U. Army to restructure and embed critical combat support capabilities almost exclusively in the Reserve Component? Viet Nam What is the primary mission of a brigade? NOT: To be the basic unit of maneuver at the tactical level Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command and control over all land forces. Army since the end of the Cold War include : More demand for peacekeeping A less stable global environment US Air Force: Select True or False: USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by specially-trained Special Operations personnel. False The U. and may be an allied or coalition commander. A. as well as tactical airlift and air drop? C-17 Globemaster III Which aircraft is considered the USAF’s front-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical close air support to friendly forces on the ground? A-10 Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time reference in support of strategic. D. Heavy divisions offer exceptional: Tactical mobility.S.S.S. Battalions What event caused the U. and tactical operations: Select all ___________________ allows the U. operational. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following aircraft: B-2 Which aircraft is the newest.S. Army The Air Assault Division is considered: All of the answers are correct. Strategic attack 40 . True ___________________ are capable of at least limited short-term self-defense and are commanded by lieutenant colonels. Platoon Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command and control over all land forces. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal risk and collateral damage.S.S. C. and may be an allied or coalition commander. Army Reserve Component? The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primary mission area.S. Army combat organizations from the largest to the smallest: E. TRUE List the U. U. G.S. B Challenges facing the U.True Which one of the following is NOT a U. Air Force function: Counterspace Select True or False: Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery systems used. Air Force function? Counterland ___________________ are actions taken to influence. or defend systems and decision-making. NOT 135 What characteristic of U.S. NOT Coordination. Air Force? The Numbered Air Forces Interdiction and close air support are components of what U. and destruction of enemy forces. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain flexible and efficient combat operations. designate which command and control entities? Service Component Commander. Army are the only forces who sizes are set by law? False Which one of the following is NOT a type of MAGTF: FSSG Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF? MEU 41 . Strategic attack Which of the following are the largest warfighting organizations of the U. Air Force operations gives air and space platforms a unique vantage point over the territory of potential adversaries? Altitude ___________________ allows air and space forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously.S. while ___________________ is the ability to employ air and space power effectively at all levels of warfare. and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility Command’s __________. Agility Which U. affect.S. Agile combat support Which U. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is one of the most constant and important trends found throughout military history.S. Air Force aircraft detects. Functional Component Commander ___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemy’s center of gravity or other vital targets.S. Strategic airlift concept The U.Which U. and geolocates signals throughout the electromagnetic spectrum? RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint The U. respectively. C-17 Globemaster III. True The acronyms COMARFFOR and JFACC. Marine Corps and the U.S.S. identifies.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations? Air refueling The C-5.S.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations? Air refueling Introduction to the United States Marine Corp: Select True or False: The U. Concentration Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link frequencies are operations achieved by this U. Information operations The ___________________’s primary mission is to provide theater ground and air commanders with ground surveillance to support attack operations and targeting that contributes to the delay. disruption.S. and: NOT A naval security support element US Coast Guard: Can the USCG be considered a redundant. Strategic agility. and during subsequent operations ashore: CH-53 E Super Stallion Which event marked the beginning of large-scale U.” True The Navy-Marine Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for ___________________.S. True Which aircraft is the U.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a MAGTF? Requires pre-existing infrastructure to execute missions Select True or False: The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a forcible entry capability and therefore can offload equipment and supplies in a hostile environment. non-complementary resource supporting the National Military Strategy? No Which one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered to the combatant commander? Forcible entry from the sea Which one(s) of the following is/are unique to the USCG? All of the answers are correct Select True or False: Article 14. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based on the principle of “Maneuver Warfare. overseas presence. a ground combat element. and logistics forces is a(n): MAGTF Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is defined as “rapid employment of the MAGTF by air or surface means to objectives in the littorals and beyond”? Ship-to-object maneuver The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equipment and supplies during the ship-to-shore movement of an amphibious assault.S.S. an aviation combat element. ground. expeditionary force. USC 1 states that the USCG is a branch of military service at all times. decisive force Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS): All of the answers are correct Which of the following is/are not considered part of the “operating forces” of the U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet Nam? The landing of the 9th MEB at Da Nang. power projection. Marine Corps available to the combatant commanders? The Supporting Forces Which one(s) of the following is/are capabilities of a MEU (SOC)? All of the answers are correct The primary mission of the MAGTF aviation combat element is the support of: NOT Non-combatant operations (NEO) MARFORLANT is not the Marine Service Component Commander for which one of the following? CENTCOM A MAGTF is always composed of a command element. Select True or False: U. overseas deployment List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the National Military Strategy. Coast Guard’s primary short-range helicopter for SAR and surveillance? HH-65A Dolphin 42 . False Which one(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade? All of the answers are correct An integrated organization of air. Coast Guard can trace its roots back to: Select all Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory? MH-68 Shark Which of the following is not true regarding current and future U. Select True or False: With regards to domestic coastal sea control. which service “. Coast Guard at all times US Coast Guard Law Enforcement Detachments (LEDETs) perform the following mission(s): All of the answers are correct. jurisdiction”? The U.S.The present day U.. Coast Guard inventory are the only ones specifically listed in the Joint Strategic Capability Plan? NOT Marine Protector class patrol boats Today.S. the Coast Guard Area Commander reports directly to the respective Navy Fleet Commander.S. the USCG falls under what department during peacetime operations? Department of Homeland Security Which patrol boat class has the capability of a stern-launched rigid hull inflatable allowing for more rapid and safe deployment of boarding crews? NOT SWIFT Special Operations Forces: The development of joint special operations tactics is a responsibility of ____________________. and allied forces to conduct military operations? Pollution strike teams Which of the following deploys to provide force protection at OUTCONUS seaports of debarkation? PSUs Which small boats in the U. All USCG cutters are readily identifiable by which one of the following hull colors: None of the answers are correct. USCG cutter hull color is dependent upon each ship’s mission Which agency is the lead federal agency for marine pollution and incident response? USCG Which of the variants of the HU-25 Guardian aircraft is configured for oil pollution detection? B Which units integrate into a military staff in the event of a massive pollution incident which may impact the ability of U..S. 43 .S. This is the only USCG cutter class armed with the close-in weapon system (CIWS). Hamilton class Which of the following is not true regarding employment of the USCG by DoD and the State Department for peacetime engagement? The USCG does not have robust anti-piracy capabilities.shall enforce or assist all applicable federal laws on and under the high seas and waters subject to the U. True In accordance with 14 USC 2.S. Coast Guard operations? The non-DOD budget nature of the USCG allows for greater funding and flexibility than the other military services. S.the Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC) A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. All of the answers are correct Special operations in hostile. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense? All of the answers are correct Which of following is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security? 44 . Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) is subordinate to the geographic combatant waging the global war on terrorism. denied. and Special Boat Teams Homeland Security/Homeland Defense: Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation to secure the U. NOT through the Joint Special Operations Task Force Commander Which of the following statements is true? NOT One of the missions of the Marine Special Operations Command (MARSOC) would be to conduct Civil Affairs missions The combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPECWARCOM) include ____________________. assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an internal insurgency A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________. commanders in Which of the following statements is/are true? Army Civil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world by the U. the 6th Special Operations Squadron U. a geographic combatant commander exercises control over Special Operations Forces assigned to the combatant command ____________________. Army Special Operations Command.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those officer and enlisted are attached to Special Operations Forces units. This battalion is most likely under the command of ____________________. SEAL delivery vehicle teams. that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries Which of the following statements is NOT true? U.S. SEAL teams. homeland from terrorist attacks. AC-130 aircraft Direct Action missions ____________________. True Which of following is a primary mission for U. a geographic combatant commander Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by ____________________. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all of the following EXCEPT ____________________. or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance is a part of which Special Operations core task? Special Reconnaissance Which of the following statements is NOT true? U. All of the answers are correct Which of the following statements is/are true? All of the answers are correct A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.S. Which of the following statements is/are true? All of the answers are correct Generally.S. personnel that The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a foreign nation in organizing and training its military and paramilitary forces to combat internal subversion is ____________________.S. All of the answers are correct The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into a comprehensive and cohesive national effort involving appropriate Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called __________? the National Strategy for Maritime Security What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement activities in the United States? Posse Comitatus Act of 1878 The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achieved by ___________________. blending public and private maritime security measures Which of these is NOT a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security? All of the answers are correct. In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond? Local police and fire departments. What is the number one strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security? Prevent and disrupt terrorist attacks. Select True or False: Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance for the exercise of authority by combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and prescribes joint doctrine for operations and training. True Which of following is NOT a primary mission of U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense? Force Protection What command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil authorities mission? Northern Command (NORTHCOM) The ______________ provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Security activities. NOT National Security Strategy Select True or False: Stability missions, often seen as a secondary task are also referred to as “NEO”. FALSE What key document established NORTHCOM, the new combatant command assigned to defend the United States? NOTJoint Publication 3-26OR HOMELAND SECURITY Select True or False: A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector TRUE Irregular Warfare: Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________. measures taken to preempt terrorism In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to remember that ___________________. promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some conditions that foster terrorism Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the following? The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area. By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ . a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which of the following? All of the answers are correct. Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following? All of the answers are correct. Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s): All of the answers are correct. Which of the following Weapons of Mass Destruction would be considered to be (a) chemical weapon(s)? Sarin 45 History shows that the best way to defeat terrorism is to ___________________. isolate and localize terrorist activities and then use intensive, sustained actions to destroy the terrorist group The collapse of the Soviet Union impacted terrorism by ___________________. destroying or neutralizing many terrorist groups Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the effects of terrorism on naval operations? Terrorism focus is to alter our habits, possibly reducing operational efficiency or increasing personnel stresses. The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects? All of the answers are correct. Of the following which is/are true of terrorist organizations? They often use critical infrastructure vulnerabilities to serve their own purposes Small units may need to alter their operations to counter the WMD threat by ___________________. All of the answers are correct The “4D Strategy” to combat terrorism is framed by which of the following sets of terms? NOT Defeat, Deny, Damage and Destroy. Military guerillas tend to prefer which of the following? NOT Attacks on unarmed civilians to limit their own possible casualties Block 5 Political Structure: Select True or False: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign policy arena because experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course of action to pursue. True Select True or False: The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the peacefulness of a democracy’s foreign policy toward other democracies. False The fact that the world’s leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooperate with each other to maintain world peace. Not true under all circumstances. Select True or False: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new president is sworn into office. False Select True or False: In a uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war are remote compared to a multi-polar international system. True In a multi-polar international system _____________. the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than in a bi-polar international system Select True or False: One reason for the continued existence of NATO after the decline of its major security threat is that its member states believe there is an economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation. True Select True or False: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example of a change in domestic structure. True During the Cold War, the world was a(n) _____________ international system. bi-polar Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ___________ international system. 46 multi-polar During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________ and their behavior was to a large part defined by ______________. aligned with either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were aligned with Select True or False: The theory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between democracies will solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gowa who points out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted by conflict. TRUE According to the systems theory of international politics, a political system may be defined ______________. All of the answers are correct. Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior: Select True or False: Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of political culture focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons. False Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward democracy or authoritarianism. False Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a political leader. True The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________. is shaped by the totality of all life’s influences on multiple generations Select True or False: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of personality types. True Select True or False: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved personality over one with a gregarious personality. True Select True or False: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that can illuminate the unconscious assumptions of its members can be useful. True Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon’s position is that an examination of institutional causal factors to explain a political action should be undertaken before an examination of political culture causal factors. True Select True or False: By understanding a collectivity’s political culture, it is possible to determine the personality of a person belonging to that collectivity. False Select True or False: Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of why states and individuals interact the way they do in international affairs. True Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________. None of the answers are correct According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that may contribute to the creation of a political culture that could have a significant impact on political action. whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state Political culture __________________. NOT ALL If two collectivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent variable applied, Elkins and Simeon state that ___________. NOTthe focus should first be on the possibility that structural variables between the two can explain the different behaviors NOTthe second test focuses on whether any institutional variables can explain an observed difference between collectivities 47 NOTMontenegroOR KOSOVO After the fall of Communism the most significant nationalist conflict on European soil. TRUE Select True or False: Nationalist conflicts are happening only during violent regime transitions. in order to secure political and economic interests. the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis powers was to _________________________________. Ensure National Unity between all social strata of the society What would be the most democratic solution in preventing future ethno national conflicts? NOTAssimilation At this time. False Nationalism could provoke conflict during the process of democratization because ______________________________. in multi ethnic societies partition of states ______________. NOTMiddle class ORPoorest strata of the society The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian non-democratic regime is to ______________. All of the answers are correct. Nationalism Select True or False: According to Snider. 48 . took place in the former ______________. NOT is shaped only by influences dating back to when that state’s current type of government came into existence Democracy and Nationalism: Select True or False: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings.Elkins and Simeon believe that political culture should be used to explain political behavior _______________. False In the beginning of the democratization process. All of the answers are correct The political system which aims to protect a nation's distinct culture. the transition toward democracy is always awakening nationalist desires. the most violent ethnic conflict in East Europe is taking place in ______________. NOT ALL Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different dependent variables is difficult because: ALL Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward democracy or authoritarianism. True Select True or False: Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic violence. NOTIt was the desire of the majority of population OR ALL In the early stages of democratization. expresses the doctrine of _________________. except ________________________. NOTShould be granted if demanded by national elites The main reason for nationalistic violence is ______________. FALSE The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________. Ethno nationalism After World War II. NOTSoviet Union In Japan. a one-party democracy with a slightly authoritarian bias was acceptable to the Western countries because ______________. ______________ are most likely to inflame nationalism in the society. nationalism is the right tool in the hands of the ______________. NOT ALL OR Social injustice During the early stages of democratization. The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the below. history and traditions. since the end of WW II. the most benign form of nationalism is ______________. all efforts in the future should be focused on? Greater social.National elites As in ______________. the twenty first century may be the century of “collectivism”. Transnational corporations will continue to grow as sources of order within the international community Select True or False: As the role of the State increases in societies. on an ideological level. democratic values will also increase in its strength and importance. Civic Nationalism The Future of Democracy and Democratization: ________________ gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy. Low debt. sees transnational corporations becoming a greater source of order within the international community George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy. 49 . Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are all of the following. except that ______________. False Francis Fukuyama believes that _____________________________. Samuel Huntington The Optimistic Scenario of democracy’s future _______________. providing __________________________. the rights of minorities are often unprotected. Islam To ensure the process of democratization and to strengthen democracy on the national level. except ____________________. Since fran. The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a prosperous and secure future Which of the following is not true? Because liberal democracies operate under the theory of “majority rule”. in the post Cold War world is __________________. The Pessimistic Scenario of democracy’s future ________________. FALSE According to ______________ “The liberal democracy will triumph in the future”. believes that democratization in the East will lead to the integration of the Eastern economies with those of West the Select True or False: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy's future. None of the answers are correct. economic and political empowerment of the poor The Optimistic Scenario of the future democracies includes all of the following. during the early stages of democratization some ethnic conflicts could promote international conflict Argentina According to Snider. A Balanced Perspective The major contender to the liberal democracy. how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule? Over eighty. S. the United States has committed several billion dollars to assist which country on its war on drugs? Columbia In the aftermath of September 11. it is ______________ to world commerce. ROMAN CATHOLIC While the Panama Canal is no longer considered by U.S. Good Neighbor Policy ______________ did not establish colonial territories in North America.S. 32 million Colombia alone produces ______________ of the world’s cocaine supply. commanders as a major route for warships. Australia Latin America is ______________. 75% ______________ was not a catalyst.S The U.S. May come to pass in this century WESTERN HEMISPERE OVERVIEW The U. AMAZON The U. undid much of the good relations built up as a result of the Good Neighbor Policy in Latin America during ______________.Benito Mussolini’s prediction about the future Fascist Century ______________. and 18th centuries and is the predominant religion of the mainland countries of Latin America. NOTGadsden Purchase of 1853 When did the U. did NOT gain territories from Mexico as a result of the ______________. 17th.S. the United States has focused on countering __________________ throughout the world. begin construction on the Panama Canal in order to link the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans? NOT LATE 1800’S The population in Canada is now approximately ______________. NOT WESTERN HEM The ______________ religion was a legacy of Spanish and Portuguese colonization in the 16 th. the Cold War Which of the following statements is NOT true? European settlers began arriving in North America after the discovery by Columbus in 1612 The ______________ instituted by President Franklin Roosevelt is credited with most of the nations in Latin America giving unified support to the allies during World War II. found in Latin America. the area known as Latin America encompasses the ______________. vital The ______________. 2001. in conquering and colonizing Latin America during the 15th and 16th centuries The Monroe Doctrine Which of the following Latin American cities is smaller than New York City? None of the answers are correct Which of the following is NOT a conflict in which Mexico was involved? NOT ALL ARE CORRECT For national security purposes. or driving force. one and one half times the size of the U. Terrorism 50 . including Latin America. is the largest river basin in the world. is a major trade partner of Latin American countries TRUE Latin America and the United States: In the new millennium. United States.S. the most important goal for the United States in Latin America was support for democracy. free transportation for the poor Political polarization in Latin America took place in _________. friendly toward the United States What historical event led to greater political polarization in Latin America? The Cuban Revolution led by Fidel Castro The "Washington Consensus" called for all of the below. the Great Depression Select True or False: Latin America was more prosperous in the 1990s than in the 1980s. contain Communism across the globe. policy toward Latin America was focused on _____________________________. False In 1994. U. foreign policy goal was to___________________________________. 1959 The Balance of Power in the Southern Cone of Latin America: 51 .The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) joined the economies of the _________________________________. supporting democracy During the Cold War. and Soviet expansionism in particular Select True or False: During the Cold War. False Which institution in Latin America played a primary role in the 19th Century in filling the vacuum of power created by independence? The military Most of the military regimes in Latin America were ______________.During the Cold War.S. Welcomed Which corollary to the Monroe Doctrine claimed that the United States had the right and moral duty to exercise international police power in the Americas? Roosevelt corollary How did Latin America respond to the Monroe Doctrine? Latin Americans resented the Monroe Doctrine The United States gained nearly half of the territory of what country in Latin America from 1845 to 1853? Mexico After the Cold War. president? Franklin Roosevelt Latin Americans __________________________ the Good Neighbor Policy. Canada and Mexico The Good Neighbor Policy is associated with which U. contain Communism Politics in Latin America: Which of the following countries in Latin America did not become democratic after 1978? Cuba During the first half of the 20th Century a period of growing authoritarianism in Latin America was the result of _______________________. the U. except for __________________.S. the United States intervened militarily in Central America and the Caribbean primarily to ____________________. NOT COLUMBIA In 1984. except _____________________. Argentina considered a war against ____________. Argentina has been a major rival of ______________. True Select True or False: In the late 1970s. Chile In 2004. All of the answers are correct Select True or False: Brazil. in order to expand economic ties. Argentina and Brazil The Democratic Peace Theory states that ______________. and _____________________. Brazil. Paraguay. Columbia 52 . Chile and Bolivia The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina. which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America. MERCOSUR members signed an accord with ___________________. what dispute between Argentina and Chile was resolved through papal mediation? Beagle Channel islands What is the name of the theory that suggests that democracies do not wage war against other democracies? Democratic Peace Latin American Militaries: Which of the following statements is true? The military is widely respected in Chile. Chile Geopolitics is __________________________. and Paraguay all became democratic countries. False In 1978. the study of the relationship between geography and power politics The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are _________________. Argentina. South America has been ________________________________ since at least the mid-1990s. there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the Southern Cone.Select True or False: The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level its ever been. The EU Select True or False: Today. According to most observers. False Today. Brazil. False The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military expenditures is ________________________. Uruguay. the Common Market of the South. also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American countries. is the only country in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations. a Zone of Peace What region of the world has been considered a “Zone of Peace”? South America Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures? All of the answers are correct Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures per year? Brazil The United States: _______________________________________. Venezuela and Peru The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between _____________________. NOT Democracies wage wars only against oppressive regimes Since its independence. Chile. in When did the first waves of Jewish settlers begin emigrating from Europe to the Middle East as part of the Zionist movement? The 1880’s India’s collapsing economy has made it less of an important future trading partner of the United States. COLUMBIA GREATER MIDDLE EAST Which was the first religious group to adopt monotheism. Latin America is most interested in buying ______________ from the United States and Europe. Which of the following statements is true? In a parliamentary democracy. the belief in one god? NOT CHRISTIANS Which of the following statements is true? The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran resulted in the deposing of the Shah. assisting that government in its campaign against the insurgents. budget. permanent In terms of the sale of weapons. the Which of the following is NOT considered a chokepoint for the sea lines of communication in South West Asia ? NOT Strait of Hormuz Which of the following statements is true? NOT The United States has had a long standing policy of only supporting nations with democratic governments Southwest Asia.Some view ____________________ as a model for other Latin American militaries. NOT after U. The region around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known as ______________. FALSE Which of the following statements is true? 53 . the political party (or coalition of parties) with the greatest representation in parliament (legislature) chooses the nation’s leader. Latin American countries are capable of projecting and sustaining power for an extended period of time? NOT ARGENTINA The two South American countries that have specialized in peacekeeping operations are ______________. high technology jet fighters The United States is especially involved in ______________. if any. in part. Argentina and Uruguay Which of the following statements is true? Argentina is able to participate in many United Nations’ peacekeeping missions due to its large military Which of the following statements is true? Brazil has expanded its participation in peacekeeping missions. an ally of the United States. Costa Rica The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ______________________. NOT MACENDONIA The Iran-Iraq war ended ______________. as a way to justify its seeking a seat on the UN Security Council.S. military intervention Which of the following statements is true? Turkey is considered the most “Westernized” state in its region Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire? Mostly Christian Which of the following statements is true? NOT France played no part in the Middle East in the years after World War I. Defense Which of the following. Six Day War in 1967 Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israeli Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4. Treaty of Sevres Which goal did Britain not have for the partition of the Middle East following World War I? To promote settlements of the British citizens in the Middle East on its mandated territories Arab-Israeli Conflict: Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine. Gaza. the United States 54 . was ________________. all of the answers are correct Napoleon's occupation of Egypt is significant for which of the following reasons? All of the answers are correct The Sykes-Picot Agreement provides that _____________________.A campaign of civil disobedience and non-violent protest led to India gaining its independence from the British Historical Framework: What event caused the Allied European Powers (primarily Britain and France) to divide the Middle East and take territory away from the Ottoman Empire? The Ottoman Empire's support for Germany during World War I The victory of the European combined forces against the Turkish invading army in the battle at Vienna in 1683 _______________________. rejected the partition plan The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights. False Select True or False: Following the 1973 war against Israel. Oslo. All of the answers are correct In the Balfour Declaration. False During the June 1967 Six Day War. its support for a Jewish national home in Palestine The collapse of which empire resulted in today's configuration of the Middle East map? The Ottoman Empire How did modern Turkey emerge from the Ottoman Empire? The Turkish forces seized control over most of what is today Turkey by defeating the occupying allied armies The kingdom of Iraq was created in ___________. Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights and Suez Canal. and the West Bank The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in ___________________. 1920 What part of the Ottoman Empire became autonomous following the Russo-Turkish war in 1829? Serbia Following the ________________________ . True The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14. 1948. Britain declared _______________________. Gaza. Israel ___________________________ occupied the Golan Heights. and the West Bank following the __________________________. 1995. in 1992 The Arab League and Palestinian institutions __________________. the Ottoman Empire was abolished and British mandated territories were formalized. NOT ALL 55 . the United States supported Saudi Arabia by ____________________________. led Operation SOUTHERN WATCH was to ______________. Israeli withdrew from the Sinai The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank. the U. False In the 1950s. the Sherif of Mecca Hussein The main objective for U. the Azerbaijan crisis _______________________________. escorting Kuwait's oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 1988 The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________________________. France and Israel In 1933. Iran. following the Six Day War. All of the answers are correct What does Operation Earnest Will stand for? The U. Great Britain In August of 1945. it was controlled by the ______________. and Pakistan served as _______________________________________. NOT ALL OR the United States actively supported the Saudi King in the struggle against his main rival. the seizure of the Suez Canal by Britain. Israeli Prime Minister Sharon announced that ______________. Standard Oil of California received a concession for oil exploration in Saudi Arabia. All of the answers are correct Select True or False: The U. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________. NOT there will be no negotiations with the PLO until acts of terrorism against civilians stop United States Security Strategy and Policy: The leading power in the Middle East after the World War II was __________________.-led coalition enjoyed considerable support in the Middle East for the liberation of Iraq from the oppressive regime of Saddam Hussein. All of the answers are correct In 1956. Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict What is the Bush administration's attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is constructing on the West Bank? It acquiesced to construction of the wall Before Jerusalem became united under Jewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967. after a coup d’Etat backed by Britain and the United States. as ______________. to become an International Zone On November 22.Following the Camp David Accords _________________________. policy goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf region was to _____________________________________________. 1967. All of the answers are correct In 1947. the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states with Jerusalem ______________________.S.S. A defense alliance against the Soviet Union May 1945. Jordan. in 1947-1948. the Saudi’s gave the United States permission to start building ____________________________.S. Turkey. and the Gaza Strip. An Air base During the 1990’s. NOT Palestinians In 2003. the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________________________. The importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground in the emerging contest the Soviet Union with In 1953. All of the answers are correct The Baghdad pact created by Britain. Iraq. U.S.S. _________________________________________. was a result of the ________________________________. FIVE Muslims believe that God (known as Allah in Arabic) first revealed his last message to humanity through the Prophet Muhammad in the year ______________. especially at noon on Friday. after Egyptian president Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal. TRUE Islamic law is called ______________ law. ______________. NOT Sunni and Sharia Select True or False: The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precisely. Dubai In October of 1956. President Eisenhower refused to support that decision and proposed economic sanctions against Egypt What happened on board the USS Quincy in the Great Bitter Lake in February. 1945? President Roosevelt met with the Saudi King to politically affirm the emerging U. ONCE Members of the Islamic faith ______________. TRUE A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community of Muslims into the ______________ branches of Islam. such as Abraham and Moses. Muslims are expected to pray ______________ time(s) per day. or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina. became the United States Navy’s busiest port of call in the world outside the continental United States. 354 Select True or False: Islam recognizes the prophets of Judaism. is a journey every Muslim seeks to make at least ______________ in a lifetime. women are the spiritual equals of men. FALSE One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the Carthaginians who arrived in the region from ______________. Select True or False: All Arabs are Muslim and all Muslims are Arabian. FALSE Islam is the predominant religion in ______________. ALL ARE CORRECT ISLAM AND THE GREATER MIDDLE EAST The hajj. NOT GREATER MIDDLE EAST Islam is a ______________ faith. few Eurasian nations participated in the American-led coalition forces that ended the Iraqi occupation of Kuwait. monotheistic (one god) Select True or False: In Islam. FALSE The calendar year for Muslims consists of ______________ days. the Azerbaijan crisis ______________. Adolf Hitler was put on trial for war crimes by the victorious Allied Powers During the 1991 Gulf War. ALL ARE CORRECT If they are able. NOT U. NORTH AFRICA 56 .S.-Saudi partnership May 1945.During the 1990’s ______________. Sharia EURASIA Which of the following statements is NOT true? Following the end of World War II.D.S. NOT 510 A. Brussels (Belgium) and Strasbourg (France) High on the agenda of the European Union (EU) goals are ______________. ALL ARE CORRECT 57 . share interests in ______________. German EUROPEAN UNION ______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability. the Central Powers included which nations? Germany. NOT expand the European Union (EU) judiciary OR ALL ANSWERS The European Union (EU) and the U. TRUE Which of the following statements is true? The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire. Which of the following statements is true? NOT The Soviet Union joined an alliance with Great Britain and France against Germany within weeks of the invasion of Poland in 1939. Russia’s natural resources have given it the ability to woe its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer relationships with the West. to sue for Yugoslavia ______________. and the Ottoman Empire Which of the following statements is true? NOT The majority of the population of each of the countries formed from the breakup of Yugoslavia belong to the same Yugoslavian ethnic group The Peace of Westphalia is significant because it ______________. ALL ARE CORRECT The origins of the European Union (EU) can be traced to ______________. an economic agreement among six nations The Reform Treaty (undertaken in June 2007) provides the framework to ______________. NOT INTERPOL Today’s European Union (EU) is a supranational organization consisting of ______________ countries 27 The capitals of the European Union (EU) are located in ______________. NOT became a member of the European Union in 2003 The European Union ______________.Which of the following countries is not a member of NATO? SWITZERLAND Many experts consider ______________ as the foundation of western civilization NOT the Roman Empire of the 1st century BC OR THE CARTHANIAN When did the creation of a single German state occur? NOT After the First World War Which of the following statement is true? NOT Russian victories over German and Austro-Hungarian forces during World War I forced those two countries peace and strengthened the Russian Tsar’s position as ruler of his country.S. is the largest economy in the world The Eastern Roman Empire. Byzantine Empire During most of the First World War. Austria-Hungary. centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the ______________. has been credited with the establishment of the modern nation-state system Which of the following statements is true? Russia became a major European power during the reign of Peter the Great in the latter part of the 17 th century. national interests. as demonstrated by Moses’ flight from Egypt JUDAISM Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to explain the natural world. FALSE 58 . NOT SPIRITUALITY OR Animism ______________ is one of many African faiths calling for the worshipping of more than one god. including: ALL ARE CORRECT ______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability. ______________ was perceived as a protector of the much-persecuted Christians. tropical economies Which is NOT a true statement regarding Zimbabwe (in the South African Region)? NOT The elected government of Robert Mugabe has devolved into dictatorship which oppresses political opponents. national interest in West Africa is focused on: NIGERIAN OIL Conflict arises along various fault lines which run through African societies.The harmonization of European border policy occurred as a result of the signing of the Treaty of ______________ in 1997. Which is the best description regarding the East Africa Region? Rwanda has just emerged from a time of widespread ethnic violence Most of today’s African nations became independent ______________.S. EUROCORPS AFRICA The U. making it the primary source of worldwide jihad. Animism Select True or False: Early Christianity is rooted in the central part of Africa FALSE ______________ is a form of individual or collective struggle to refocus or empower Muslim communities. These fault lines include the following. competition between the European Union (EU) and the U. NOT Vienna The European Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with independent nations. including a common currency. because: It has rich natural resources. Which is a true statement regarding languages spoken in Africa? 1000 LANGUAGES An estimated ______________ of Africans suffer from malnutrition NOT THREE QUARTER The Central African Region is important to U. including oil.S. RELIGIONS IN AFRICA ______________ has its roots in Africa.S. economic strength and geopolitical ambitions The Treaty of ______________ laid the foundation for further forms of cooperation in foreign and defense policy among European nations. EXCEPT: Desert vs. Amsterdam In the near future. FALSE In Africa. Jihad Select True or False: Shi’a Islam is banned on the continent of Africa by the African Union (AU). will likely center on ______________. copper and potential for hydroelectric power. during the 1950’s and 1960’s Which is NOT true regarding Northern Africa? Islamic fundamentalism is concentrated in this region of Africa. RELIGION Select True or False: A strong correlation exists between a type of religion and the quality of governance within an African country. ALL ARE CORRECT ______________ is an ideal source for funding insurgencies in Africa and contribute greatly to instability on the continent. FALSE The majority of Africans follow ______________ Islam Sunni During the Second Congo War (1998-2003). TRUE Islam arrived in Africa during the ______________ centuries 7TH AND 8TH Select True or False: Where religion revival can be found in Africa. ALL ARE CORRECT ______________ waste disposal is a challenge facing Africa’s environment. ALL ARE CORRECT The width of Asia Pacific spans ______________ time zones 16 Which of the following nations is not a Communist nation? BERMA 59 . ALL ARE CORRECT Africa’s economic development must keep pace with its ______________ or its economy will stagnate and decline POPULATION GROWTH AFRICAN SECURITY ______________ can be used to promote increased capacity among African nations for peacekeeping and stability operations. most interactions among faiths are rife with conflict. FALSE Which continent has links to some of the world’s earliest religions? AFRICA Select True or False: Classical ancient African religions include beliefs that state there are many gods. religion ______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways that were unimaginable only a few years ago. Multiparty democracy Most of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________. 60 In many Asian countries. FIVE In modern times.______________ can be defined as a faith system of supernatural belief that is not testable with empirical methods. but one god rules over them all. the majority of the population ______________. ______________ in Africa is increasingly becoming an instrument of social mobilization. 1960’S ASIA PACIFIC OVERVIEW Asia Pacific contains nearly ______________ percent of the world’s population. it is estimated that over _____ million people were killed. ALL ARE CORRECT Risks to Africa’s internal security could be reduced through ______________. the availability of regular and adequate employment ______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa. CHINESE The most strategically important waterway in the Asia Pacific region is the ______________. All of the answers are correct How did Chinese Communist forces gain strength during World War II? The Japanese invasion of China gave them a chance to rebuild Select True or False: According to the Sino-Soviet Security Treaty the USSR had an obligation to Beijing to provide military aid if PRC was attacked by Japan. NOT MALAYSIA The combined oceans of Asia Pacific cover nearly ______________ of the earth’s surface. and military power is rising During the Korean War (1950-1953) the U. the PRC became part of the Soviet Bloc. ONE HALF The population of Asian cities is growing at a rate of ______________ the overall population. the ROC armies retreated to ____________________. False In what year did the PRC explode its first hydrogen bomb? 1967 What was the major goal of the CCP in organizing people into work units? 60 . 40 PERCENT Which of the following nations is not considered a possessor of nuclear weapons? JAPAN ______________ (or one of its variants) is the most common language of Asia Pacific. TWICE Which of the following modern nations was not a part of French Indochina? NOT VIETNAM NOT LOAS The combined population of India and China account for ______________ percent of the world’s people. the sudden intervention of thousands of Chinese forces In 1949 and in early 1950s.S. Seventh Fleet in the Taiwan Strait.The largest Muslim population in the world can be found in ______________. Strait of Malacca ______________ is the official language of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).S. President Truman helped to stop __________________________. the PRC established a close relationship with __________________. the island of Taiwan Select True or False: Following the Sino-Soviet Treaty of 1950. PRC was in possession of ____________________. intercontinental ballistic missiles Why is China increasingly important today? China's economic. and UN forces had to retreat from the northern part of the Korean peninsula as a result of ____________________________. True By placing the U. Stalinist USSR How was the PRC created? Armies led by Mao Zedong defeated the Republican Chinese government under Chiang Kai-Shek After being defeated by the Chinese People's Liberation Army (PLA) in 1949. English The Early Years of the People’s Republic of China: Since 1981. political. the hallmark of Chinese policies was ____________________. False The "three bitter years" were recalled by the Chinese government after the failure of ______________ policy.S. in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure.S. China pursued policies of “self-reliance” because ____________________. FALSE The main purpose of the Cultural Revolution was to ______________. the U. still maintained a non-official relationship with the ROC. China continued to regard the U. it had no other choice The Great Leap Forward ____________________. Beijing continued to strongly object to the fact the U. turned into outright hostility In the 1960’s the military strategy of the PLA of China mainly relied on below mentioned factors.All of the answers are correct China: Alone and Joining the World: President Nixon went to China because ____________________ he thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in Vietnam In the 1950 and 60s. the expending the role of international trade and investment in China's development The Tiananmen demonstrations ____________________. reassert Mao’s power and his supreme authority in the country China’s rise provokes controversy today because ______________. resulted in three years of famine and the deaths of millions of people China's break from the USSR meant that ____________________. All of the answers are correct Deng Xiaoping's reforms ____________________. legitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment and trade Deng Xiaoping's reforms stressed ____________________. All of the answers are correct Mao launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960s ____________________. Demanded the British leave India The dominant religions in the South Asian Region include all of the below except: Christianity What was the name of the explorer who led the first Europeans to India in the late 15th century? Vasco Da Gama 61 . All of the answers are correct At the end of the 1950's and in the beginning of 1960s. to promote self-reliance In the 1960's. policy of “containing” China included ____________________. it’s not yet clear as China’s national wealth and power grows. All of the answers are correct Select True or False: By the end of the1960's. how it will act on the world stage South Asia Before Independence: The Indian national Congress Party and the Muslim League ____________________. the Great Leap Forward In the 1960’s the Chinese-Soviet relationship ______________.S. except ______________. China’s technological superiority Select True or False: After Washington broke diplomatic relations with Taiwan. as its main adversary. 1972) between Pakistan and India ____________________. The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present. All of the answers are correct The Mohajirs were ____________________. ________________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country populated mostly by Muslims and one country populated mostly by non-Muslims. post-independent India.S. All of the answers are correct. 1946. between Pakistan and India. Hindus and Sikhs. Climate. ended as a result of ____________________. Traditional support for the Taliban by some Pakistani fundamentalist groups The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ____________________ issues. there have been no major clashes between Muslims. Bangladesh. False Since Muslims made up only twenty five percent of the population of South Asia. and natural environment The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949. Shia and Sunni Muslims 62 . The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent state of their own? Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority. 1972) between Pakistan and India ____________________. agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India. and their mission is to ____________________. Afghanistan and all of the below. India. Called for partition after British leave Independence and the Partition of the Indian Subcontinent: The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July. except ________________________.Before 1947.” were provoked by ____________________. All of the answers are correct Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ____________________. Portuguese Why was 1857 a landmark year in South Asian history? Indian Sepoys participated in the first armed mutiny against the British authority. their leaders ____________________. False The riots in Calcutta on August 16. NOT The UK government dispatched troops into the region Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________. False The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July. Burma The first Europeans to arrive in India were the ____________________. the British colonial empire in South Asia consisted of the present states: Pakistan. Hindus. The Muslim League Domestic opposition in Pakistan to the U. and Sikhs in British India ______________. Select True or False: India and Pakistan. Select True or False: In Pakistani society the moderates as well as the religious hardliners have traditionally supported organizations such as the Taliban and an Al-Qaeda. including the military assets. 1949). Observe In order to stop the violence among Muslims. Muslims minorities would be denied full rights.-led war against terrorism is due to ____________________. beauty. also known as “Direct Action day. Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British India into two nations The First Kashmir War (January 1948-January 1. Had convergent interests on many issues Select True or False: During the presidency of Bill Clinton in the 1990’s. False Select True or False: After the Cold War and the fall of Communism in the Soviet Union.S. All of the answers are correct Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ____________________. False During the Cold War India had a policy of ____________________. the United States was trying to prevent India from achieving self-sufficiency and attempted to make it dependant on U.S. and Pakistan improved greatly. the Musharraf government severed all ties with the Taliban and joined the U. Kashmir _________________. Shias and Sunnis Kashmir ____________________.S. The intervention by the United States and the restrained attitude of the leaders of both countries helped to this conflict resolve Under the British partition plan. military and economic cooperation between Russia and India continued to develop.S. after Islamabad conducted five nuclear tests of its own ____________________. the partition of the Indian subcontinent in 1947 was justified on the grounds of ____________________. aid to Pakistan in 2001? Following the 9/11 terrorist attack. True During the Cold War the United States and India ____________________. the Kashmir region has been the cause of four India-Pakistan wars. an all-out India-Pakistan war was averted because ____________________.South Asia and the Outside World: The cultural behavior associated with ____________________ is a major cause of current religious intolerance and terrorism in South Asia. False After the withdrawal of British colonial rule. the relationship between the U.led anti-terrorism campaign as a front-line state Select True or False: In January 2004. Pakistan became a member of NATO. Kashmiri independence In 2002. markets. Jammu Kashmir The “Third Option” stands for ____________________. Non-alignment India-Pakistan Military Competition: Select True or False: Since 1947. would be free to accede to either India or Pakistan 63 . All of the answers are correct The part of Kashmir region controlled by India is known as ______________________. All of the answers are correct In May 2001. Jihad What events contributed to India's decision to turn to Russia for aid in 1971? All of the answers are correct What prompted Washington to remove or waive all proliferation and democracy related restrictions on U. False Select True or False: During the Cold War. Byzantine 64 . was deeply implanted and remains even today part of the cultures of the______________________ peoples. a new single European currency. the rise of ____________________ threatened most European nations. the Roman traditions. the process of unification in the form of one nation-state was complete for several European nations except for the_______________. “The Hundred Year War” (1337-1453) was a long struggle between ____________________. All of the answers are correct The idea of imperial authority as absolute and divinely instituted originated from ____________________.” was introduced to all of EU member countries. Western Europe was going through a time commonly known as ______________. Islam The so-called “Smiling Buddha” represents ____________________. True In the 1920s and 1930s. Balkan and Russian Some believe that ____________________ is emerging as one of the America’s major competitors. England and France During the Early Middle Ages. The dominant religion of the disputed area of Kashmir is ____________________. over the centuries. Marshall Plan for Europe was to ____________________. Southern France and Spain but almost completely disappeared in the_________________ parts of the former empire. Europe The purpose of the U.Select True or False: The United Nations has maintained an observatory presence in the disputed area since December 1971. North-Western The Triple Entente was a coalition of Britain. the “EURO. False Which of the following statements is true? Pakistan claims that Kashmir should have become part of Pakistan in 1947 due to the region’s demographics. cultural and linguistic influences continue to thrive in Italy.S. Ottoman and Austria-Hungarian empires After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire. Russian. The first nuclear explosive test detonated by India in 1974 European Civilization: Select True or False: In 8th Century A. All of the answers are correct By 1871. France and Russia against Germany and ____________________. Serbs The Protestant movements took place in Europe as a result of a popular dissatisfaction with the ____________________.D. as a result of the First World War. Dark Ages The imperial authority as absolute and divine. the Greco-Roman-Christian civilization on the territories of the former Roman Empire was replaced by the Arab-Muslim civilization. False Due to collapse of the ____________________. All of the answers are correct Select True or False: In 2002. German. in the 8th and 9th centuries. Catholic Church In the history of Western Europe. False Select True or False: The confrontation between Germany and the USSR created an alliance between the Communist dictatorship and the Western democracies.the face of Europe radically changed. In order to divert enemy forces. NOT joint operations planning. joint support planning and joint intelligence planning The Role of Intelligence: Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary? All the answers are correct 65 .Select True or False: Throughout the Middle Ages. creating and maintaining military capabilities Security Cooperation Planning deals with ______________. is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerable expansion or alteration to an OPLAN another.S. Defense Joint strategic planning ____________________. convert it into Which situations are not appropriate subjects for contingency planning? None of the answers are correct A(n) ___________________ provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of execution planning after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action. a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinating execution of an operation Which of the following is correct? A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a supported commander for A concept plan (CONPLAN) ____________________. All the answers are correct Which of the following statements is NOT true? Crisis Action Planning only takes place when a situation develops that will require U. Which is most likely the supported commander for this operation? The Colonel commanding the MEU. largely urbanized and heavily industrialized continent on earth is ____________________. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and a list of targets he needs to be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase.S. two Carrier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air strikes as required by the MEU. An Operation Order (OPORD) is ____________________. operations Who is responsible for the development and production of joint operation plans? The Combatant Commanders At the national strategic level. NOT assisting foreign counties in providing for their own national security The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________. the Muslim world served as a protective barrier between Western Europe and Byzantine Empire. False The most populated. military forces A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the objective of securing a inland airbase. an Alert Order is generally issued after the President or Secretary of approves a military course of action. force planning is associated with ______________. the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n) ____________________ to implement the approved military course of action Execute Order Contingency planning focuses on ___________________. military combat as a response. potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U. Alert Order Which of the following is correct? In the Crisis Action Planning process. Europe Introduction to Planning: When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military action related to a crisis. False The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________. and space that encompass the operations area and the dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area nonphysical Which step of the IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order to help the JFC attain battlespace knowledge? Determine adversary potential COAs.S. has the primary responsibility for planning. and to determine an adversary’s capabilities to operate in each? NOT INTELLIGENCE CYCLE Who. True Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) focus? Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue Select True or False: An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light of U.OR Determine Adversary Courses of Action. and information environments as well as other dimensions of the battlespace. air. What process is used to analyze the air. the geographic dimensions of land. Gathering information of potential intelligence value from sources such as newspapers. FALSE Navy Planning Process: Which statement best states what a good Course of Action provides to the operation? All the answers are correct The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s) of command? All the answers are correct The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and assumptions about ____________________ and ____________________. assessing and estimating the adversary Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary? All the answers are correct Select True or False: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively prior to an operation to support the commander’s planning effort. support the commander’s planning and decision making by identifying. weather. land.What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)? The focus The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________. sea. electromagnetic. the battlespace environment. space. on the Commander’s staff. sea. coordinating and conducting the overall Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) analysis and production effort? The N-2/J-2 (Intelligence) Select True or False: The geographic and non-geographic dimensions of the battlespace are both contained within the Commander’s designated operating area. TRUE Determining the intention of allies and potential coalition partners is a focus of intellegence at what level of war? Strategic level In which step of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process are overlays depicting the geography of the area of responsibility produced? NOT Define the Battlespace Environment. they may be compacted or expanded as time permits. television broadcasts and the internet is a part of which intelligence discipline? Open-source Intelligence Select True or False: Although the four steps in the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process remain the same across the spectrum of conflict. the adversary 66 . doctrine. S. unless otherwise directed by competent authorities. Combatant Commanders and the Navy have issued directives that state that the armed forces of the United States will. Select True or False: The Geneva Conventions of 1949. tactical judgment. if followed. which govern many aspects of military operations. which of the following is/are true? All are correct Scope: Select True or False: The Department of Defense. Coastal nations may use force in some circumstances to remove ships which are demonstrating nonbehavior innocent A party transiting an international strait must do which of the following? ALL ARE CORRECT Regarding the collision of a U. but will do so as a matter of U.Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process? A logical decision process that helps focus the commander and staff Select True or False: Once a wargame has begun. False Given that it has been determined that the al-Qaida and Taliban members captured in Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful combatants. False The wargaming process relies heavily on ____________________. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs under the Geneva Conventions. territorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles and may be temporarily closed (with the exception of international straits) by a coastal nation for security purposes. FALSE Law of the Sea and Airspace: Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas. a solid joint doctrinal foundation. which _______________. which of the following statements is true? The U. compares the most dangerous adversary COA with the riskiest friendly COA What is prepared in anticipation of operations and normally serves as the basis of a future order? NOT NONE Tasks listed in the mission received from higher headquarters are what type of tasks? Specified tasks Select True or False: Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are a type of implied task. Innocent passage is a right of all ships to transit through territorial seas and _______________________.S. will lead the staff to a decision. True Select True or False: The Navy Planning Process is a rigid step-by-step process that. the staff ____________________. a commander may change an existing Course of Action. Exempt from normal rules. comply with the principles and spirit of the Law Of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations that do not involve armed conflict. domestic policy. are similar to the Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC). True Historic bays are __________. EP-3 and a Chinese fighter on 01 April 2001. 67 .S. All the answers are correct References regarding the law of the sea include which of the following? All the answers are correct Why does the “law of the sea and airspace” matter? All the answers are correct National waters are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include which of the following? All the answers are correct Select True or False: According to UNCLOS. in that they apply to all nations. and operational experience During wargaming. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a minimum concerning the conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed conflict. may not be targeted. but may be retained in prisoner of war camps to provide medical POWs military services to Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an acceptable tactic. while the terms of the Geneva Convention bind only the signatory nation The Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________. are not considered prisoners of war.S. the signatory nation is no longer bound by the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC). ____________________. FALSE 68 . it is automatically exempted from its Law of Armed Conflict obligations. ____________________. if captured ____________________. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes. incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated concrete and direct advantage to be gained from the attack Military medical officers. False Select True or False: It is possible for a person (such as a reservist) to be classified simultaneously as both a civilian and a combatant. while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse. there is no need for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC.S. the LOAC is applicable to both nations. a generally accepted body of international law U.S. False Select True or False: Only members of a nation’s regular military can be classified as combatants under LOAC. False. policy concerning the applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict is consistent with at least the minimum standards of international law. TRUE If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nation ____________________. TRUE Which statement is true? The United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) to all of its military operations Select True or False: When a member of the United Nations Security Council is engaged in a military action pursuant to a United Nations Security Council resolution. military undergoes a review to ensure its legality under LOAC. its status must be continually verified to ensure it does not return to civilian object status Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict ____________________. and those nations engage in activities that are contrary to the terms of the Geneva Convention. FALSE Select True or False: Current U. a minimum standard Select True or False: The United States’ policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when conducting military operations so that it may more easily punish its enemies after the cessation of hostilities.false Select True or False: U. Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemy’s forces during an armed engagement. but are to be afforded POW status if captured Select True or False: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U. FALSE Principles: In attacking a legitimate military objective.S. False Select True or False: If a nation that is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions is involved in armed conflict with non-signatory nations. ALL 69 . FALSE Well developed and succinct Rules of Engagement (ROE) should clarify what degree of force may be used based on ____________________.S. TRUE Which statement is NOT true? Department of Defense policy requires the reporting of actions against U.S. forces will continue combat engagement as only the nation’s civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement. NOT the mission and threat level The political component of Rules of Engagement seeks to _________. True Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. U.S. ALL ARE CORRECT Select True or False: A nation has a duty under LOAC to remove civilians and civilian objects from the vicinity of military objectives. allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission Select True or False: Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect U. political.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules of Engagement (ROE) other than approving the ROE as presented to them by the military establishment.Violations of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. nationals and their property. False The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________. forces that violate LOAC General Principles: Judge advocates are ____________________. military and legal Select True or False: Domestic and international public support of a military action is a factor to be considered when developing Rules of Engagement (ROE). forces ____________________. NOT FALSE Legitimate military objectives may include ____________________. used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) assist U. True Judge advocates are ____________________. shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC Select True or False: Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nation’s political goals. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict. False Select True or False: U. False Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U. forces will continue combat engagement as only the nation’s civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement. law and punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice. All of the answers are correct Select True or False: Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners and tactical level operators enough leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned missions. True Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order to ____________________. used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) assist The three major components of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________.S.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are applicable during peacetime.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________ issued by ____________________. directives. allies for the development of combined or multinational ROE.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is organized ____________________to facilitate quick reference during crisis or deliberate planning.S. permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat Select True or False: The U. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________. False Select True or False: The U. If his or her actions demonstrates the threat of the imminent use of force. True Select True or False: The U. by authorization level The U. False A civilian may exhibit hostile intent sufficient to meet the necessity requirement for the use of force in self-defense. national security policy include maintaining a stable international environment consistent with U. False Select True or False: The U.S. forces operating in areas outside of U. forces during military operations ____________________.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require proportionality in the use of force in self-defense as to do so would restrict a commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are only applicable to U.S.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordination tool with U.S. False Select True or False: The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U. False Select True or False: The goals of U. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they ____________________.S.S.U. the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial jurisdiction of the U. NOT are divided into three portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in self-defense. True U.S. In its guidance concerning self-defense measures.S.S. competent military authority SROE: Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U. True The U. they are governed by ____________________.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include the destruction of a hostile force under actions permitted in self-defense. forces during military attacks against the United States. True When U.S.S. national interests.S. and 3) a classified portion discussing the use of force within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States Self Defense: Select True or False: A commander’s inherent authority and obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all appropriate actions in self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the commander’s own unit. provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively without repetitively requesting take certain actions permission to Select True or False: The guidance concerning the inherent right of self-defense provided by the U. occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.S.S. The classified portion of the U. forces supporting law enforcement agencies conducting special event security within the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U. forces are operating in Puerto Rico.S. 70 . and the Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if responding to a military attack U. territorial jurisdiction. if the suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign country. 2) a classified portion discussing the use of force for mission accomplishment.S.S. the U. The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________. forces to defend themselves before they are attacked.S.S. should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to withdraw or cease threatening actions if time and circumstances permit Select True or False: As a form of self-defense. False Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________. True Force used to preclude or impeded the mission and/or duties of U. The U. the use of riot control agents is always authorized.S. False Who may authorize U. forces to protect U. personnel and vital U. ship or ground unit is demonstrating hostile intent. forces and foreign nations is known as ______________.S. guidance on various indicators that might be considered Mission Accomplishment: In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission ____________________.S. TRUE The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________. if any and should be reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to successfully accomplish the mission constantly 71 . augment the U.S.S.S.all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE).S. True. Staff Judge Advocate Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.S. forces in one’s vicinity from a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent. military and legal objectives Select True or False: The classified portion of the U. protection to non-U. could be assigned to perform. forces can be considered ____________________. the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered In any type of planning. NOT ALLIED SELF DEFENCE Force used in self-defense must be ____________________. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE.S. NOT UNDER ALL CONDITIONS The practice of extending U. NOT JUSTIFIED AND REASONABLE Select True or False: Impeding U.S. True Select True or False: Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat requirement for self-defense. forces from the recovery of U. is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile can be prevented or terminated intent Individual self-defense allows one to use force to defend oneself and U.S. Political. but an individual’s right to defend oneself may be constrained by direction from the appropriate commander. the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal assistant to staff director for operations in developing and integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning. nationals and property from attack? All of the answers are correct Select True or False: The concept of hostile intent permits U. All of the answers are correct ____________________. hostile act Self-defense includes the authority to pursue the enemy force ____________________. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) provides ___________ to assist commanders in determining if an approaching aircraft. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U. government property can be considered a hostile act.is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile can be prevented or terminated intent When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense.S. the commander ____________________. FALSE As part of the military command and control structure.S.S. True Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U. constantly review them and modify as necessary Select True or False: Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and Rules of Engagement may define certain permissible targets. True Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive ____________________. False Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support of another agency (for example the U. military forces always operate under Rules for the Use of Force developed specifically for that operation. requests for supplemental measures Commanders who have been delegated the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are required to ____________________. forces overseas when they are protecting vital government assets. True Select True or False: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) would include disaster relief response.S. Naval Ships while in foreign ports. Naval Ships in international waters True Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that involved armed conflict.S. forces unless specifically withheld. could be assigned to perform. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are available for use by all commanders of U. NOT Theater Commander Clear guidance on what forces are declared hostile should be included in the developed mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) The initial guidance in developing Rules of Engagement (ROE) for a particular mission ____________________.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agency’s Rules for the Use of Force (RUF). 72 . the United States has divided its global responsibilities into geographic regions each commanded by a ________________. False Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactics Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ____________________.S.S. True Select True or False: U.S.S. True Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States may operate under Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed specifically for the mission they are assigned. True Select True or False: U. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) RUF: Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States.S. FALSE Select True or False: The classified portion of the U. is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require extensive coordination Select True or False: The supplemental measures found in the classified portion of the U. is the classified portion of the U. U.S.The Operation Order (OPORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned mission should/may include all of the following except ___________. Space support The four military space mission areas are _______________________. True Select True or False: Space force application operations consist of attacks against terrestrial-based targets carried out by military weapons systems operating in or through space. and orbital control is __________________. communications. military to implement Information Superiority is effective use of space assets. 73 . and other support structures that Include command and control. and Reconnaissance: Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations. people. maintain. if required TRUE Offensive and defensive space operations employed by friendly forces are categorized within the military space mission area of ______________. Force Application. Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment. Space Control. True Select True or False: Support operations consist of spacelift. space force application assets are operating in space False Select True or False: Space support operations consist of operations that launch. Space Support. True Select True or False: Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for friendly forces while. and include the broad aspect of protection of U. tactical. and recover space forces. replenish. and commercial communications systems used to transmit DOD data Serve DOD information needs Select True or False: Currently. satellite operations. when directed. True The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and warning of ballistic missile launch and nuclear detonation is: _________________________.S. Communications. sustain.S. and U.S. replenishment of spares. deploy. oceanographic. and space environmental factors that might affect operations in other battlespace dimensions is _______________. denying it to an adversary. increasing due to enabling capabilities they provide to deployed military forces Intelligence. Environmental Monitoring Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations. allied space systems and negation of enemy adversary space systems. NOT Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment The military space mission area concerned with launch. deorbit. True Space capabilities__________________________: All the answers are correct Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers. Environmental monitoring The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force Enhancement mission area: __________________________. augment.FALSE Military Space Mission Areas: Select True or False: A fundamental requirement for the U. intelligence. including the command and control network configuration for space operations. Surveillance. and Force Enhancement The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on meteorological. and deorbiting and recovering space vehicles. Space Control The importance of space operations is ______________. All the answers are correct Select True or False: Surveillance from space infers that a single satellite or “system” must be continuously collecting. False Select True or False: The Defense Support Program (DSP) constellation of geosynchronous early-warning satellites is a quintessential Cold War system which was originally conceived to provide warning of strategic-missile launches against the United States and its allies. True ISR support: All the answers are correct In Operation Iraqi Freedom. FALSE ISR is the collection of data and information within an area of interest on a continuing or event driven basis. True The SBIRS ground architecture______________________. True Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning _____________________. Select True or False: Geosynchronous or geostationary satellites are not capable of performing reconnaissance from space. True Select True or False: Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures that provide limited numbers of low or medium orbital systems are well suited to the reconnaissance mission. Surveillance. True Select True or False: DSP detected Iraqi Scud missile launches during Desert Storm. and battle damage. Voice and data warning information is immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to support tactical decision making to counter the threat. missile launches. ALL ARE CORRECT Select True or False: ISR systems enhance planning capabilities by providing updated information regarding terrain and adversary force dispositions. space-based ISR: Was a central factor in assuring rapid military success. All the answers are correct 74 . Collection that is event driven or occurs on a one-time basis is called ______________. the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage Intelligence. NOT Interdicting Force enhancement . and Reconnaissance sensor is Select True or False: Satellite systems may be affected by a variety of atmospheric disturbances which affect the ability of imaging systems to detect adversary activity.ISR mission ALL ARE CORRECT The ______________ orbit allows continuous surveillance of specific regions of the world geosynchronous Types of data and information collected from space include ______________. True Select True or False: Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. All the answers are correct Select True or False: Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the diverse threats of the post-communist era. TRUE Integrated tactical warning and Attack Assessment: Select True or False: Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) will combine scanning with staring sensors to provide continuous tracks of tactical missiles. False The most significant advantage of a space-based __________________________. and special operations forces NOT RAW A deployable ground communication station that rapidly disseminates missile warning within theater is the ______________ system Joint Tactical Ground Station A substantial limitation of the DSP satellites that was partially corrected with the deployment of the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) ground control element was ______________. ALL ARE CORRECT Sharing information on missile launches on a near real time basis with allies and coalition partners is the objective of ______________.Select True or False: The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational in 2001. ALL ARE CORRECT Missile launch information is provided on a near real time basis. space Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA). the definition of "Tactical Warning" is defined as _______________________. a specific threat event that is occurring Select True or False: U.and ground-based systems provide detection and communicate warning of an adversary’s use of ballistic missiles or nuclear detonations (NUDET) to ______________. tactical users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in Iraqi Freedom than they did in the earlier Persian Gulf War. True Theater missile warning data is: Gathered by ground stations. space. the definition of "Attack Assessment" is defined as _______________________. As a result. typically gathering data in _____ spectral bands. Shared Early Warning In addition to sensor satellites. exchanges missile detection and warning information with its allies and coalition partners. Meteorological and Oceanographic Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features can be used by the commander to _________________. sea.S. including assets. avoid submarine or maritime mine threats concentrate forces in an area where an adversary is most likely to be operating Weather satellites have a limited multi-spectral capability. then processed and disseminated over communications networks. All the answers are correct Select True or False: Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of communications. True Satellite. This information can take the form of Both data and voice warning Environmental Monitoring: Weather affects ________________________. land. detecting the launch plumes of long-range ballistic missiles Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning ______________. True 75 . the evaluation of information to determine the nature and objective of an attack Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA). other space assets provide communication links carrying ______________ to warn the affected air. All the answers are correct ____________ support from space is needed for weather forecasts and operational planning. fully replacing the old DSP ground architecture the following year. airborne. as well as EHF systems. such as vegetation and land use TRUE A unique form of weather.and Ka. True Select True or False: Protected satellite communications permits the use of smaller antennas that increase its mobility. other physical phenomena such as ice fields and snow A disadvantage of space-based environmental sensing is the ______________. if heavy enough. reduction in image quality due to distance Select True or False: Space systems provide forecasts. and other mobile terminals. False Observation of the space environment ______________. All the answers are correct Significant advantages of satellite _________________________. True 76 . commonly disrupts or degrades communications SPACE Communications: Heavy solar activity ___________________________. alerts. All the answers are correct Select True or False: Observation of the space environment is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space. and water vapor profiles NOT INFRARED Select True or False: Imagery capabilities can provide joint force planners with current information on surface conditions. the greater the effect). enabling wider use of submarine.______________ weather.Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as _______ are critical for undersea warfare operations. True Select True or False: Some meteorological parameters needed by forecasters for operational support cannot currently be accurately determined from satellites. are particularly affected by rain (the higher the frequency. global coverage. True Select True or False: Space systems are the military commander’s primary and sometimes sole source of environmental data. ground moisture. can cause a complete outage. can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time. causing communications outages in extreme cases Select True or False: SATCOM in the Ku.S. clouds at various levels. military joint forces to determine the impact of environmental factors on both adversary and friendly space and weapons systems. TRUE ______________ are used to measure or infer sea surface winds (direction and speed). including heights of cloud bases and visibility restrictions. rainfall rates. and warnings of weather conditions from space. atmospheric temperatures. is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space and contributes directly to battle space awareness Thermal and visible images together provide the coverage and extent of ______________. True Select True or False: Weather data never affects the choice of weapons for a target or the platform that delivers them. security. Rain not only degrades the signal but. flexibility communication systems over terrestrial communication systems are Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with: All the answers are correct Select True or False: Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide significantly exceed the capacity of current MILSATCOM systems. True Wideband satellite communications support ________________. ice characteristics. This enables U.bands. EHF.Select True or False: It is impossible for a unit to lose their primary communication link with the military strategic and tactical relay system (MILSTAR) satellite network. intelligence. False Satellite Communications: Collectively provide an essential element of national and Department of Defense (DOD) communications worldwide. The effects are worse at ________ and will usually taper off by _______. forces to establish a _______________. Scintillation is a local effect that has daily and seasonal variations. SHF. commercial Select True or False: Satellite are often the only means of providing critical beyond line of sight communications. EHF). True Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and convey their intent to the operational commander global / tactical knowledge Since most communications satellites are in geosynchronous orbit. True NAVSTAR GPS provides the primary space-based source for U. FALSE Generally. POLAR Select True or False: Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming. SHF. Permit information transfer from the highest levels of government to the theater tactical level for all matters to include operations. local sunset / local midnight Benefits to Naval forces from GPS include: All the answers are correct Global Positioning System is the fundamental system that allows all U. signal interruption will affect the tremendous civil dependence upon Global Positioning System GPS navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. it is unlikely the Global Positioning System signal will be interdicted to interrupt the signal availability to adversary forces because ________________. personnel. The communication bands in which the military operates satellite communication systems are ______________. logistics. the ______________ the available bandwidth and the higher the data rate capacity lower / wider MILSTAR stands for: military strategic and tactical relay system satellite network Position. are susceptible to jamming and interference. and allied: All the answers are correct Although the presence of the highly accurate navigational information from the Global Positioning System constellation is exploitable by adversary forces. Velocity and Navigation: Select True or False: The use of nulling antennas/ filters.g. Timing. the region of the world which receives least coverage is the ______________ region.. Near-global / strategic situational awareness Select True or False: All radio receivers. where all forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized operations are possible. Common grid 77 .S. UHF. and the correct placement of GPS receivers on various platforms all improve jamming resistance. the ______________ the frequency (e.S. and diplomacy. including satellite systems. True Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage enabling military leaders to maintain ______________ and convey their intent to the operational commander. where all forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized operations are possible. Currently. Scintillation occurs more often ______________. many satellites have been placed in orbit. the number and orbit location / will not Virtually all DOD ______________ are equipped with a global positioning system (GPS) receiver. and tactical missions by providing highly accurate: All of the answers are correct. 28 Satellite Communications: Significant advantages of satellite communication systems over terrestrial communication systems are ______________. operational. velocity. a single satellite failure ______________ cause significant degradation of the system. plays a key role in almost all military missions Because of ______________ of satellites in the global positioning system (GPS) constellation. there are approximately ______________ GPS satellites in orbit. velocity. Accurate position. Units relying on hand-held GPS receivers in areas of ______may have diminished GPS capabilities. and navigation systems support strategic. Benefits to naval forces from global positioning system GPS include: All answers The Air Force space squadrons controlling the orbit of global positioning system (GPS) satellites during combat operations during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM were able to improve the navigation accuracy to approximately ______________ meters on a planned basis. global coverage.2 Select True or False: The default navigation grid used by global positioning system (GPS) is the World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS-84). flexibility Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with ALL Select True or False: Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming FALSE ______________ satellite systems are more complex and survivable and possess features not found on other systems NOT CLASSIFIED Space-based position. 2. time. True The global positioning system (GPS) navigational solution depends on having a number of satellites in view from any position on Earth. Common grid Significant advantages offered by global positioning system (GPS) to operational forces are ______________. and tactical missions by providing highly accurate ALL Global positioning system (GPS) is extremely useful in air operations. and navigation systems support strategic. ALL ARE CORRECT Data and Information: 78 . time. velocity. in the mid-latitudes (40-60 degrees latitude (North or South)) Global positioning system (GPS) is the fundamental system that allows all U. accessibility. forces to establish a ______________. dense vegetation or steep terrain Global positioning system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. accuracy. security. Based upon this requirement. and time enhances ______________. and coverage Global positioning system (GPS) ______________. operational.Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. All answers Space-based position.S. Information New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to __________. organization. display. and components that collect. False Decisions should be based on ___________. acquisition. fielding. False Information systems consist of _____________________. entire infrastructure. Select all types of execution information that apply Navy IT ______________ is operationally focused while ______________ drives the strategic direction of Navy information networks. disseminate. store. joint.Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR) DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________. engineering. All of the answers are correct. status and disposition of our own forces _____________ is the lifeblood of any C² system. validate the image or revise it Select True or False: Secondhand information normally elicits the same natural intuitive evaluation of reliability. Details will always come later. Information systems The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C² architecture for the following reason. Situational awareness among subordinate commanders All are true statements about information EXCEPT ___________. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) ______________ provides information system planning. Information Select True or False: Naval. Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR) 79 .Select True or False: The concept of operations and commander's intent should convey only a general idea or mental image of the operation and the desired outcome. based on planned information requirements and dissemination criteria. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) ______________ delivers the naval component of the Global Information Grid. True The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C² architecture for the following reason Situational awareness among subordinate commanders Information is also used as a means for coordinating actions in the execution of the plan after the decision has been made. SIPRnet The global battlespace consists of ______________. and support for Department of Defense (DOD). information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer Information is used to help create an understanding of the situation as the basis for making a decision. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) . ______________ provides information system planning. the more you rely on _________________. transmit. and act on information The higher you are in the chain of command. This image-building information will contain _____________ . and support for Department of Defense (DOD). time-sensitive information to naval forces. acquisition. and national information sources should "push" relevant. process. engineering. personnel. fielding. Secretary of Defense (SecDef) The classified (“high”) side of the Defense Information Systems Network is called ______________. and enterprise services. Information In addition to mission responsibility.S. Defense Communications Agency (DCA) Navy/Marine Corps Intranet (NMCI) is the Navy’s NOT NONE DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________. information operations. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) ______________ is the functional program manager that is responsible for all Navy networks. information assurance programs. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) Select True or False: The naval networking environment presently contains numerous legacy networks. NOT Advanced Weapons Architecture Development OR The Battle Force Systems Concept ______________ is the Navy component of the Global Information Grid (GIG FORCEnet The White House Communications Agency is operated by the ______________. Fleet Forces Command’s N6 and Strategic Command’s component commander for network operations. Secretary of Defense (SecDef Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command’s (SPAWAR’s) origins date back to the Navy’s support of the ______________ program during the 1960’s. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) ______________ provides the program and policy support that underpin the Navy’s information networks Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of individual platforms and weapons was called ______________. with respect to personnel. 80 . Arctic research The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of individual platforms and weapons was called ______________. Space ______________ is the U. True Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command’s (SPAWAR’s) origins date back to the Navy’s support of the ______________ program during the 1960’s.The central operating authority for all Navy information networks is ______________. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) ______________ currently provides total information systems management for the Department of Defense (DOD). and space systems. COMMAND AND CONTROL: _________________ drive(s) the command and control process. Command includes the authority and responsibility for: health & welfare discipline morale Feedback is a vital element of control. it gives the commander a way to: Monitor events Adapt to changing circumstances Adjust the allocation of resources The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through ____________________. PMW-160 ______________ advocates for the Fleet in the development and fielding of information technology. a command and control system Select True or False: Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment. because it influences the way we _______. is a precious commodity for three reasons Decision Making: Select True or False: Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the operational commander. subordinate commanders and forces The focus of naval C². True While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction. the commander is the conscious brain of the military body and C² is ______________. the system of nerves that carry information to him from the senses (the information-gathering units and sensors) In the accomplishment of the mission (process) through C². situational awareness _______________ is a continuous. _________ . C2 After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace. the commander monitors/observes the execution of operations and gauges the results. and doctrine will make it more likely that subordinates will take the proper action in combat. cyclical process by which a commander makes decisions and exercises authority over subordinate commanders in accomplishing an assigned mission. in the C² environment. a commander will employ the resource groups in: Directing. True Select True or False: Effective training. it is the subconscious brain (______________________) that monitors and regulates most actions. education. Decide A key tenet of naval warfare is that commanders at every level must understand their seniors’ intent. all phases of the cycle are active at each echelon of command. Planning C² provides which of the following? ALL ARE CORRECT Time.True Select True or False: C² refers both to the process and to the system by which the commander decides what must be done and by how he sees that his decisions are carried out. It is important not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action phase observations. so they can ______________ in harmony with the broader. exploit rapid decision and execution cycles 81 . False Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle. as well as the driver of C² is ______________. Coordinating. This is control before the action but nonetheless is still control. observe / decide / act Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in _______________. True Select True or False: During the action phase. his next step is to ___________ on a course of action and develop a plan. more general efforts at higher levels. authority and direction Using a central nervous system analogy. The commander C² is the exercise of ______________ by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of a mission. and _________ . This is intended merely to gauge results. Orientation Our ______________. True 82 . the lower we can push the decision-making threshold. ______________. where a single shot can have global ramifications. locate and destroy anti-access challenges and intercept missiles.Select True or False: In a well-trained force. ______________. the swifter our decision and execution cycle will become. cognitive Forcenet: Select True or False: In a world of complex interrelationships. naval professionals must share databases with government agencies and nongovernmental organizations. U. Sea Basing Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking. and the unfolding circumstances of war all influence our ability to orient ourselves experience / expectations / culture Processing raw signals so they may be understood by the people who must use the resulting information. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by: Enhancing deterrence Controlling crises Sustaining warfighting superiority The Navy's success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to unprecedented tactical flexibility made possible by: Coordination over secure data links and voice circuits Precision-guided munitions made effective by these systems Advanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground ____________________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats. True ______________ is the key to the entire decision and execution cycle. Sea shield ____________________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions afloat. may require ______________. imbued with initiative. ALL ARE CORRECT The OODA focuses on the ______________ as the crucial element in the entire process of C² decision-maker Orientation is the result of a ______________ process that turns data gathered from the environment into knowledge and understanding.S. True By fully leveraging the power of information. Water vapor Select True or False: Baseband modulation uses a carrier signal. potentially touching every naval program. ratio of power received to receiver sensitivity Select True or False: Noise introduced by a receiver is called internal noise. rather it is a/an ______________ and integration initiative to serve as a change agent and an engine for innovation.FORCEnet is not an acquisition program. True Select True or False: Atmospheric noise is most significant at frequencies above 30 MHz. False There is a peak in atmospheric absorption at 180 GHz due to ______________. Isotropic Select True or False: The phenomenon of destructive interference results in the complete cancellation of both interfering waves. Knowledge ______________ relies on rich situational awareness to sense hostile capabilities and trigger rapid and precise attacks Sea Strike FORCEnet is what enables the Sea Power 21 pillars of ______________. False Which type of cable enables the longest transmission distances? Fiber optic An antenna that radiates its power equally in all directions is called a/an ______________ radiator. sea. national FORCEnet is a necessity because today’s engagements are measured in ______________ and cover ______________. seconds. enterprise alignment Naval forces will complement ______________ collection programs with widely dispersed sensing systems that contribute vital data to the planning and execution of trans-global operations. False Ground waves achieve ranges longer than line-of-sight by ______________. air and land operations Communications for the warfighter The link margin is the ______________. True FORCEnet’s goal is to arm our forces with superior ______________. hundreds of miles Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking. 83 . Sea Enterprise The SeaPower 21 concept is enabled by _________ and that. Sea Trial. naval power from the blue-water.hugging the surface of the earth. and cyberspace will be incorporated if. Innovative concepts and technologies that integrate sea. and connectivity. air. reach. land. war-at-sea focus to an emphasis of “From the Sea” and “Forward from the Sea. False Select True or False: SeaPower 21 represents a clear vision of the Navy’s part in future joint warfighting in an unpredictable strategic environment typified by regional and transnational threats. and when. Pulse angle DAMA schemes grant user access based upon ______________. the need arises. Joint operations. Sea Warrior. especially over water UTP cable has ______________ pairs of wires. 4 What are the two types of channels for transmitting electromagnetic waves? Free space and guided medium The term dBm refers to a power level ______________. FORCEnet. space. is enabled by ___________ . frequency. information technology Force Multiplication: Sensors Throughout Military History: 84 . in turn.S. NOT PATH LOSS A sinusoidal function has which three parameters? Amplitude. True Select True or False: A major premise of SeaPower 21 is that we will continue the evolution of U. Reservations ______________ is NOT a type of satellite orbit. the important parameter is ______________. True Identify the elements of FORCEnet. unit referenced to 1 milliwatt ______________ is NOT one of the types of digital baseband modulation.” strategy. High earth What type of device converts audio/visual information into an electrical signal? Modulator OR TRANSDUCER In link budget analysis. will come secondary to blue water capabilities and a shore based support infrastructure. and phase angle Which is NOT one of the types of digital passband modulation? Amplitude shift keying What type of device converts an electrical signal into electromagnetic waves for transmission through a channel? NOT TRANSDUCER Seapower 21: Sea Power 21 divides the Navy’s roles and missions into three fundamental concepts: Sea Basing – Projecting joint operational independence Sea Strike – Projecting precise and persistent offensive power Sea Shield – Projecting global defensive assurance Select True or False: SeaPower 21 sets the stage for minimal increases in naval precision. though important. ambient light Infrared-based detection. silicon impregnated quartz. the first ______________. World War II Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German submarine activity during World War I? Sonar During World War II. increases in technology related to which type of sensor system allowed its users to “own the night?” NOT RADAR SENSOR FUNDAMENTALS Gain refers to the increase of a transmitted signal’s power per unit area caused by ______________. or directions 85 . radar wasn’t very militarily useful until ____________________. the British developed ______________. the present time GPS made possible the rescue of Captain Scott O’Grady after he was shot down over Serbia because ______________. which played a pivotal role in the British victory at the Battle of Britain. the GPS receiver he carried allowed him to precisely pinpoint his location and relay the information to rescuers Night vision goggles work best and give the greatest tactical advantage when used ______________. gauge enemy forces before being detected themselves Infrared-based detection. tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon? AIM-9 Sidewinder missile Select True or False: The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment as its limited success has not justified its high cost. under extremely low levels of ambient light A GPS receiver determines its position by _______ triangulating lines of bearings to three or more different GPS satellites During the 1990’s. infrared sensitive material Sonar-type sensors were first developed ______________. a warm object against a relatively cool background Night vision goggles “see” in the dark by using ____________________. focusing a transmitted signal's power in a certain direction. during World War I Advanced sensor systems allow their users to ______________. All of the answers are correct Although first patented in 1904. the Cold War. tracking and guidance systems were developed during ______________ and used up until ______________. defend against attack seize the initiative The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ____________________. False Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to ____________________.Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target? Sonar Infrared systems are best used to detect ____________________. the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium the signal is traveling measured. accuracy Which statement is NOT true? The frequency of microwaves is between the frequencies of radio waves and visible light Understanding the Frequency Spectrum: The speed of sound through water changes with ____________________. A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having __________. False Select True or False: For a given frequency. has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range If system “A” has an antenna gain of 1 and system “B” has an antenna gain of 4. a transmitter in one location and the receiver in another Which is not typically considered a component of a sensor system? Warhead Which statement is true? Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in the parameter being Refraction refers to ______________. what wavelengths are coming off a target Which statement is NOT true? The rate at which a signal disperses depends. through Interference may be ___________. a larger sensor can receive more effectively than a smaller one False Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to wavelength.A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ___________. on the characteristics of the source antenna A multistatic sensor is a sensor ______________. that has multiple receivers and/or transmitters A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having ______________. which statement is not true? System B’s signal’s power per unit area is one fourth that of system A’s signal. 86 . False Select True or False: The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water. constructive and destructive Spectroscopy is used to determine __________. water temperature A hull-mounted sonar transmits a 3 KHz acoustic signal into fresh water at 20 degrees C. in part. True What is the most appropriate platform for an acoustic sensor operating at 20 Hz? Surface ship What is an alternative way of writing 7. What is the wavelength of the signal? .4 x 108 Hz? 740 MHz Gamma rays are a good example of ____________________. transmitter in one location and the receiver in another The ratio of the highest deviation of a value represented by the sensor to the actual value is used to determine a sensor’s ______________.5m Select True or False: The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at 20 degrees C would be the same for underwater and above water platforms. one can never have too much sensor provided information. many nations utilize commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to misidentification Select True or False: In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement sequence. How to increase a platform’s ability to cool and diffuse exhaust gases An enemy uses barrage jamming in order to attempt to ______________. stressful environment. overload our receivers and prevent our systems from providing range to the target diesel powered submarine can reduce its likelihood of detection by passive sonar by ___ OPERATING ON BATTERY Which of the following includes three methods employed by the AN/SPY-1 series of radars that enable them to be less susceptible to jamming 87 . cover pulse jamming ___________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being detected by an infrared sensor. None of the answers are correct Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming? Cover pulse jamming A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is __________. False Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except ____________. All the answers are correct Of the various optical sensors. True The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe ____________________.high frequency and low wavelength Select True or False: The terms standard industry. the easier the human decision making process is in a tense. more cost effective and safer by ________________. multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat ability more efficient. unmanned aerial vehicles Electronic Warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual threats to its platform because ____________. The more information that can be collected. those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in the future include ________________. standard international. that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a target's radar at unexpected times is used in __________. and standard military are synonymous when referring to frequency band designations. False Select True or False: While we can only see/hear a small fraction of the exploitable frequency spectrum. we can employ sensors to make use of the remainder of the spectrum TRUE What is the standard military band for a sensor operating at 3. None of the answers are correct Select True or False: The military fields and continues to use systems that may be generations behind the civilian state of the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize unreliable assets.5 x 108 Hz NOT F-BAND Select True or False: Aircraft can only accommodate sensors of one meter or less FALSE How does the speed of sound through water compare with the speed of sound through air? Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems: Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ________. information-dense wave packets. increase personnel safety Select True or False: Because of the rapid increase of computing power. radio frequency. False Navy officers that directly contribute to Navy program management are typically ___________________. Program Executive Offices Unmanned autonomous sensor carrying vehicles are being developed in order to ___________________. or light energy may be sensed using ______________ sensors MAGNETIC Increasing the sensitivity of a magnetic sensor by a factor of eight would result in ______________ the range of the sensor. low power Maintaining Technical Superiority: Select True or False: All officers that have been involved in Navy program management are barred from working for defense contractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of interest. it is important to ______________. False ______________ generate(s) a lit of Future Naval Capabilities (FNCs) that serve as a roadmap to direct research and development funding ONR Select True or False: Unmanned autonomous vehicles will eliminate one of the largest cost factors for equipment – manpower FALSE ______________ is the command responsible for the development of aircraft and air systems NAVAIR Because nearly every type of sensor system can be improved. False Select True or False: The Navy's development of new technologies is managed completely by Department of the Navy civilian personnel. DOUBLING sonar’s ______________ enables operators to make control inputs to the system NOT control programmer 88 . there is no longer the danger of what is commonly referred to as information overload. increase the chances of detection Magnetic sensors are useful for detecting ______________ objects MATALLIC Magnetic sensors are only effective at ranges of ______________ meters or less 500 Objects that can’t be detected using sound. NOT ALL MAGNETIC SENSORS Self-generated magnetic noise falls into the two broad categories of ______________ noise avionics and mechanical or AC and DC The Greek letter ______________ is used to symbolize magnetic field intensity GAMMA Magnetic sensors are capable of detecting ______________ objects FERROUS Some magnetic sensors use multiple magnetometers in order to ______________. All the answers are correct ___________________ control(s) large scope programs not falling within the scope of a Systems Command.phased array beam-forming. and every indication that such increases will continue at least for at least the next 10 years. RAM. True The assembler converts ____________________. mass storage What are the four subsystems that make up a computer system’s hardware? Microprocessor. False Select True or False: Access times for non-volatile memory tend to be slower than for volatile memory. seawater temperature The ______________ contains 80 percent of the ocean’s vertical DEEP ZONE Computer for the Warfighter: Select True or False: Embedded microprocessors are tailored to limited applications. True The compiler converts ____________________. Virtual memory ____________________ is the most complicated of the resource management functions. ACTIVE AND PASSIVE The ______________ contains water with the highest temperature and least density SURFACE Underwater sounds are classified as ______________. cache. input/output devices The group of logic devices that can perform mathematical operations on data in the microprocessor’s registers is called the ____________________. False Select True or False: The microprocessors in personal computers are called limited purpose microprocessors. high level code into assembly language code Select True or False: One of the keys to effective personal computer use is to isolate the user from high level programming language and hardware. memory. listed in order from fastest to slowest access are ____________________. assembly language code into binary data Select True or False: The volatile memory in a computer is used for the boot-up process.SONAR Acoustic energy is a form of ______________ energy mechanical The two major types of sonar are ______________. mass storage. arithmetic logic unit What controls the switching of states in the control unit? Clock ____________________ is the process by which excess RAM is temporarily stored in mass storage. UNDERWATER MICROPHONE bathythermograph measures ______________. False The types of memory/storage in a computer. register. natural or manmade hydrophone is a(n) ______________. Processor management Stealth Technology: 89 . but cannot provide information regarding movement. such as ______________. polarization of the cylinder A B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of ____________________. False Radar cross section is the relation of ______________. the RCS of a sphere changes dramatically. True Select True or False: At changing higher frequencies. which occurs when an electromagnetic wave encounters a physical object. avoiding large. but once detected a stealth platform can easily be tracked and targeted. a radar wave scattered from a target to the wave directed at the target Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ______________. flat surfaces and using radar absorbing material Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ____________________. large RCS and IR signature Select True or False: Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck. False Select True or False: Non-imaging sensor systems can establish the presence of a target. distinguish specific target electronic signatures from background data Select True or False: Stealth technology helps to prevent detection.To determine the RCS of a cylinder. passive array and low frequency radars The primary means of aircraft detection is ______________. is the dispersal of particle beams of radiation into a range of directions. the key consideration is ____________________. False A critical capability of sensor systems is to ____________________. False Select True or False: Interference is the result when electromagnetic waves at differing frequencies interact with each other. complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems Select True or False: Scattering. False Methods used to reduce RCS include ____________________. Radar RCS is measured in ______________. its RCS should be much larger. complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems The success of stealth technology is leading to an increased emphasis on the development of capabilities to detect stealth platforms. Square meters Which type of electronic sensor system is the least complex and expensive? NOT Synthetic Aperture radar RCS is measured in square meters 90 . False Select True or False: The goal of precision guided munitions is to steer the ordnance so that the reflected spot on the target is centered on the detector. 5m An example of long wavelength. True Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation. True The mechanism used to introduce the energy for an active emission is the _________ NOT TRANSMITTER or emitter Laser light has unique applications due to ______________. is ______________. Thermal imaging The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ____________________. IR.Electro-Optic: Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum? IR The amount of energy in an electromagnetic wave is ____________________. PIM coding 91 . proportional to the frequency Select True or False: Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target. False ____________________ is an example of long range application of passive emission detection. placing the designating force at risk of detection The accuracy of a typical laser designator is approximately ____________________. continuous and pulsed form A laser technique that allows PGMs to identify a particular laser designation from several in its field of view based upon a predetermined pulsing code. from which the attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target. AM radio waves The optical spectrum consists of ____________________. low frequency is ____________________. low beam divergence The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is ______________. narrow part of the spectrum between the IR and UV portions Select True or False: Laser designators can work with many kinds of munitions TRUE Laser light is available in both ______________. visible and UV Select True or False: Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good visual conditions. False Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which the signal reflected.S. USS Skipjack. True Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged in rectangular or circular arrays. determining a target’s relative velocity Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or away from a radar. pulse Doppler How long will it take a radar signal to travel to and from a target 90 KM from the radar? 0. amplifier. naval bases in the far east? Five-Power Naval Limitation Treaty Identify the key technological advancements of the 19 th century that were instrumental to the further development of submarines in the United States. mixer.Radar: Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit “up Doppler” while smaller targets have “down Doppler.6 milliseconds Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size. Advances in the internal combustion engine. NOT VELOCITY or target size The amplitude of a radar pulse relates to ______________. synthetic aperture Frequency-modulated continuous wave radar overcomes the normal inability of continuous wave radar to determine ______________.” False Blind speeds are a problem with ____________________. True Pulse radar is effective at ____________________. True Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the transmitted energy. False What is the maximum unambiguous range of a radar with a PRF of 5 KHz? 30 km A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ____________________. and discriminator ____________________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the target. range What class of submarine has been selected to be converted to guided missile submarines (SSGNs)? Ohio 92 . battery and electric motors and the invention of the torpedo What were some of the limitations of the first submarines? Select all that apply. size. USS Sturgeon Which treaty was responsible for limiting the construction of U. power and range Evolution of the submarine What was the benefit of the separate main ballast and trim tanks that were first introduced aboard the USSHolland? Improved control of the submarine The ______________ and ______________ were the first two Navy submarines to be equipped with diesel engines. Speed. launched in 1958. torpedo boats The so-called ABCD ships were significant in that they ______________. is able to track over 100 targets and direct over 20 missiles simultaneously Which of the following is not a part of today’s Navy’s surface combatant inventory? Raymond Spruance-class destroyers Surface to air missiles using beam-riding guidance ______________. were considered the beginning of the modern Navy 93 . nuclear powered submarine Which United States submarine successfully completed the first fully-submerged circumnavigation of the earth in 60 days and 21 hours? USS Triton What was the name of the first submarine used by the military? Turtle During World War II. was the first ______________ for the United States. the first strategic long-range nuclear-armed guided missile deployed by the Navy. what did the Navy envision as the two roles for submarines? Coast defense and fleet operations Evolution of US Navy Surface Combatants Aegis ______________. All answers The ______________-class submarine introduced the all electric drive to the United States submarine force. Tang What missions were the Virginia-class submarines designed for? NOT Surveillance and reconnaissance The modified Mk 27 was the first torpedo used by the United States Submarine Fleet capable of ______________. is more accurate and has a longer range The destroyer was initially designed to combat ______________.The USS Nautilus (SSN-571). What were those disadvantages? Select all that apply. attacking submerged submarines Which submarine successfully sank the USS Housatonic? Hunley Prior to World War I. require that the launching platform’s fire control radar keep its beam pointed at the target A rifled gun generally ______________ than a smooth-bore gun of similar size. how many aircraft carriers did the United States submarine fleet sink in the Pacific? 8 Regulus. had several major disadvantages that led to it being replaced. The Navy’s first nuclear-powered aircraft carrier was ______________. use an electric motor to turn the propeller shaft When constructed. muzzle loaded rifled guns Evolution of carrier aviation Which of the following statements is true? The Washington Naval Treaty led to the conversion of two under-construction battle cruisers to aircraft carriers. but faster and more heavily armored OR superior in all respects Radar was first installed on a Navy ship ______________. False The introduction of the angled flight deck in the 1950’s ______________. contains a radio transmitter-receiver to detect its distance from a target Steam turbines were first used in Navy battleships constructed ______________. through use of controllable pitch propellers Compared to European battleships. such as the one used by the Phalanx Close-In-Weapons System. such as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can go from full ahead to full back ______________. relatively light armed. USS Constitution was armed with ______________. the Navy’s battleships of the late 1890’s were ______________. represented a relatively inexpensive but potent threat to battleships Ships with gas turbine propulsion plants. ______________.A proximity fuse ______________. during the early 20th century before World War I The widespread employment of torpedo boats by the end of the 19th century ______________. has been replaced by the phased array radar in Aegis ships The Navy’s Vertical Launch System ______________. USS Enterprise 94 . led to many World War II-era carriers being retrofitted with angled flight decks Which of the following statements is true? The first takeoff and landing on a Navy warship were conducted by a civilian. The Navy’s current fighter aircraft is an ______________. in the years immediately prior to World War II A closed loop fire control system. is not part of a ship’s anti-submarine warfare capability Turboelectric drive propulsion plants ______________. F/A-18 Hornet Select True or False: Samuel Langley’s successful 1896 flight of an unmanned heavier than air vehicle prompted the Navy to appropriate funds to allow Langley to develop a manned version. Which of the following statements is true? The H-60 helicopter has replaced virtually all carrier and carrier battle group support ship rotary-wing aircraft. the German Luftwaffe Which of the following statements is true? Aircraft with folding wings were first introduced prior to World War II. the Saratoga. The first operational jet-powered military aircraft was fielded by ______________. STEAM The first catapults used by the Navy ______________. financed by a civilian aviation enthusiast Which of the following statements is NOT true? The angled flight deck was an American development adopted later by the British Royal Navy. during World War I Today’s aircraft carriers are equipped with ______________.and Lexington-classes The Navy’s first experience with operating in the air domain occurred ______________. used compressed air for power 95 .The first successful shipboard launch of an airplane from a Navy warship was ______________. The first Navy aircraft carriers designed for Fleet operations rather than independent operations were ______________.