PMI.BrainDump.

CAPMNumber: CA0-001 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 1.0 Exam A QUESTION 1 A scope management plan in which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared A. B. C. D. Initiation Colllect requirements Define Scope Verify Scope Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2 On what is project baseline development established? A. B. C. D. Approved product requirements Estimated project cost and schedule Actual project cost and schedule Revised Project cost and schedule Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following A. B. C. D. Work breakdown structure Organizational breakdown structure Resource breakdown structure Bill of materials Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 What is the definition of project plan execution? A. Integrating all planned activities B. Performing the activities included in the plan C. Developing and maintaining the plan D. Execution of deliverables Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5 what is a tool to improve team performance? A. B. C. D. Staffing plan External feedback Performance reports Co-location Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6 Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan? A. B. C. D. Product Cost benefit Stakeholder Research Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stackholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution? A. B. C. D. Earned value analysis Trend analysis Project records Peformance reviews Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deterioring? A. B. C. D. Control chart Earned Value Variance Trend Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current? A. B. C. D. Perform periodic project performance review Identify quality project standards Follow ISO 9000 quality standards Complete the quality control checklist Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10 Which of the following is an example of risk symptom? A. B. C. D. Failure to meet intermediate milestones Force of nature, such as a flood Risk threshold target Crashing front loading or fast tracking Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11 During what process is the quality policy determined? A. Initiating B. Executing C. Planning D. Controlling Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12 What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing? A. B. C. D. Responsibility assignment matrix Work breakdown structure Project network diagram Mandatory dependencies list Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13 Scope verification is PRIMARLY concerned with which of the following? A. B. C. D. Acceptance of the work deliverables Accuracy of the work deliverables Approval of the scope statement Accuracy of the work breakdown structure Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14 Which of the following is an example of contract administration? A. B. C. D. Negociating the ontract Authorizing contractor work Developing the statement of work Establishing evaluation criteria Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15 Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented? A. B. C. D. Customers Project sponsor Project management team Insurance claims department Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16 A work package has been scheduled to cost $1.000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1.200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. Was is the cost variance? A. B. C. D. -$700 -$200 +$200 +$500 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17 How is quality control performed? A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determing how to satisfy them. B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining corrective actions as needed C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance prosesses D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 18 As part of mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods? A. BAC B. EAC C. ETC D. WBS Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19 How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique? A. B. C. D. EV less AC AC less PV EV less PV EV less PV Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20 The project management processes in the PMBOK Guide should A. B. C. D. Always be applied uniformly Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor Be selected as appropriate by project team Be applied based on ISO guidelines Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 21 Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them? A. B. C. D. Project sponsor and project manager Project sponsor and functional manager Project manager and project team Project team and functional manager Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22 Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all prosses needed to meet its requirements A. B. C. D. Perform Quality Control Quality Policy Perform Quality Assurance Quality Planning Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23 Which process occurs within the monitoring and controlling Process Group? A. B. C. D. Cost Control Quality Planning Quantitative Risk Analysis Cost Budgeting Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24 The Define Scope Process is in which of the following process groups ? A. B. C. D. Initiating Planning Monitoring & controlling Executing Correct Answer: B Section: (none) B. B. Organizational process assets Resource availability Change control process Team Performance assessment Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26 What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check –Act-Cycle? A. B.Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25 Which activity is an input to select sellers process? A. C. D. Pareto Ishikawa Shewart – Deming Delphi Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 27 Which of the following methods is a project selection technique? A. Flowcharting Earned Value Cost-benefit analysis Pareto Analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . D. D. C. C. . C. B. D. C. recommended corrective actions. Requested changes.QUESTION 28 While implementing an approved change. a critical defect was introduced. resources plan. Expert Judgment Project Management Methodology Project Management Information Project Selection Methods Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30 Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process? A. forecasts. B. Correct Answer: A . B. Utilize the change control process Crash the schedule to fix the defect Leave the detect in and work around it. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 which tool is used to develop technical details within the project managemet plan? A. recommended corrective actions Forecast. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. C. Requested changes. cost baseline. Fast-track the remaining development. project constraints. forecast. bottom up estimating Recommended corrective actions. D. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation? A. D. D. D. C. Organizational structure Organizational Process Assets Organizational matrix Organizational Breakdown Structures Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 33 The product scope description is used to: A. Resource leveling Parametric measuring Pareto chart Earned Value Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32 An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is: A. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34 What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS? . C. Gain stakeholder ‘s support for the project Document the characteristics of the project Describe the project in great detail Formally authorize the project. D. B. B.Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31 Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure? A. C. B. B. B. C. D. C. D. D. D. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources Disqualification of sellers an non-productive management efforts Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope? A. Cost-Benefit Analysis Variance Analysis Reserve Analysis Stakeholder Analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36 Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization? A. Project Quality Plan Project Schedule Network Project Schedule Network Project Scope Management Plan Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . WBS CPI OBS BOM Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 37 Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation? A. C. B. C. B.A. B. D. Activity Sequencing Activity Resource Estimating Schedule Development Schedule Control Correct Answer: C . D. C. D. C. B. Schedule Control Activity Definition Schedule Development Activity Resources Estimating Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management process? A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure Activity List and Arrow Diagram Change Requests list and organizational Process assets Project Management Plan and Resource Availability Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 39 Activity resource requirement and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management Process? A. B.QUESTION 38 Which of the following are inputs to activity Definition? A. C. B. C.Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41 Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration? A. Analogous Estimating Expert Judgment Optimistic Estimates Reserve Analysis Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 43 Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical? A. D. D. SPI or any performance status to stakeholders? . C. B. Critical path Rolling wave PDM Parametric Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 42 Which activity duration estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes? A. B. D. Applying calendars Resource Leveling Resource Planning Resource Conflict Management Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44 Which of the following outputs from the schedule control process aids in the communication of SV. C. D. D. C.A. B. C. Cost Control Cost Budgeting Cost Estimating Cost Planning Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques? A. Expert Judgment Project Management Software Vendor Bid Analysis Reserve Analysis Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . D. B. B. Performance Measure Baseline Schedule Schedule Comparison Variance Analysis Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 Cost Baseline is an output of which of the following processes? A. Performance organizations Schedule baselines Performance measurements Change requests Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45 Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control Process? A. C. B. D. C. 000 Earned Value $40.QUESTION 48 The project budget is set at $150. 1.000. The project Duration is planned be one year. C.75 0. B. B. C. C. Positive Zero Negative Greater than one Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 51 Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI? .5 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 At the end of the project.80 0.000 What is the cost performance index A.000 Plan cost $45.00 0.89 1. B. EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. 0. D. D. What is CPI A.25 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 The PV is $1000. D. what will be the value of SV A. the following information is collected Actual cost $50. At the completion of week 16 of the project.33 2.13 1. D. A. B.000. Schedule Analysis Checklist Analysis Assumption Analysis Cost Benefit Anaysis Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . -$8.000 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 53 What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate A. AC $22. D. EV SPI PV ETC Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 52 Based on the following metrics EV $20. D. C.000 $2. B.A.000 and PV $ 28.000 $8. B. B. C.000 -$2. Cost right at the estimated value Cost under the estimated value Cost right at the actual value Cost over the estimated value Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 54 Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity? A. D. C.000 what is the project CV. C. C. A. B. D. D. B. Cause and effect diagram Control Charts Pareto Chart Histogram Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 57 Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle. C. D. Team performance assessment Roles and responsabilities Staffing management plan Enterprise environments factors . B. C. C. B. D. Cause and effect diagram Control Chart Flowchart Histogram Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56 Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance A. Ishikawa diagram Control Chart Run Chart Pareto Chart Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 58 Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan? A.QUESTION 55 Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is: A. B. C. B. D. Brainstorming Strategies for opportunities Decision Tree Analysis Risk Data Quality Assesmet Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 61 Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risk that may have a negative impact on project objectives? A. D. B. C. C.Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 59 Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis Process? A. Exploit Share Enhance Transfer Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 62 Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities? . Risk Register Risk data quality assessment Risk Categorization Risk Urgency Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 60 Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity? A. D. Contract plan Procurement plan Clousure process Procurement audits Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . time and materials Make-or-buy. D. Mitigate Transfer Exploit Avoid Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 63 A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement? A. margin analysis. B. B.A. C. fixed price Make-or-buy. D. Plan contracting Request Seller responses Select sellers Plan purchase and acquisition Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64 Projects contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories? A. Fixed-price cost reimbursable. fixed price Make-or-buy. margin analysis. B. C. lump-sum. C. C. D. B. cost-plus –incentive Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 65 Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique? A. D. overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects. C. B. and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the clients overall business objectives. prioritization. D. Project scope. Twenty-five percent sataff turnover is expected The technology to be used is cutting-edge Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment The product is needed in 250 days. Assigns projects resources to best meet project objectives D. Overall risk. B. cost. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 67 A project Management office (PMO) manages a number of aspects. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organizations business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly . To focus on the coordinated planning. schedule. Central coordinator of communication management across projects. B.QUESTION 66 Which of the following is a project constraint? A. and for the delivery of specific project objectives. including what? A. Changing project specifications continuosly Elaborate tracking of the project progress Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 69 What is a function of the project managemet office (PMO) ? A. and quality of the products of the work packages B. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 68 Which of the following correctly explains the term (Progressive elaboration) ? A. C. organization opportunity assessment C. D. Methodology Standards Constraints Interdependencies Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 71 Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. and launch of the satellite. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues. Project manager Portfolio manager Work breakdown manager Program manager Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 72 Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project? A. D. C. D. D. B. cost and quality of the work packages. B. schedule. integration. C. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope. construction. C. D.C. Resource B was assigned combined projects of design. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 70 A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level? A. Resource B s roles is that of a A. Repetitive Unique No outcome Permanent Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation . B. B. planning. D. D. C. portfolio and program management Standard for project. C. Scoping B. Process groups Phase gates Knowledge areas Project phases Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74 Which of the following is the definition of a project? A. Budgeting C. B. Closing .Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 73 Initiating. Guide to project management processes tools and techniques Methodology for managing projects. executing. B. D. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product service or result. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 75 The project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as A. portfolio and program management. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 76 Which of the following is a Process Group? A. C. Guide for project. Monitoring and controlling and closing are called: A. B. D. C. Functional Projectized Matrix Balanced Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 78 Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances? A. The influence of stakeholders increases. Quality Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 77 In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty? A. the cost of changes increases The influence of stakeholders decreases the cost of changes increases The influence of stakeholders increases the cost of changes decreases The influence of stakeholders decreases the cost of changes decreases Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: .D. C. B. D. . who controls the project budget? A. D. what are these phases known as? A. B. C. B. B. C. Functional manager Project manager Program manager Project management office Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 81 At which of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest? A. Complete project phase Project life The project life cycle Project Cycle Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 80 In an organization with a projectized organizational structure. C. Final phase of the project Start of the project End of the project Midpoint of the project Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Collectively.QUESTION 79 Projects can be divides into phases to provide better management control. D. D. Stakeholder management Monitoring and controlling Project governance Project management methodology Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 84 Company A is delivering a product in three parts. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 85 In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource availability? A. At the start of the project At the end of the project During execution Stakeholders have constant influence Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 83 Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuring its success? A.QUESTION 82 When do stakeholders have the greatest influence? A. C. Sequencing the delivery phases one after other Overlapping the delivery phases Delivering the products iteratively Delivering all of the products at the same time. B. D. C. B. Functional . D. D. Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in the delivering the full product when product requirements are subject to rapid change? A. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either one after other or at the same time. B. C. Functional Strong Matrix Balanced Matrix Projectized Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 88 What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships? A. D. Non –Overlapping Sequential. D.B. C. Iterative Iterative. Balanced D. Overlapping Sequential. Sponsor Portfolio Manager Program manager Project manager Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 87 In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project? A. C. D. C. B. Overlapping. Weak C. Non-Overlapping Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Overlapping. Iterative. Sequential. B. B. Strong Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 86 Which Stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way? A. Non-overlapping. B. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 90 A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure? A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan. D. B. D. Weak matrix Functional Balanced matrix Projectized Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 91 Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution? A. it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.QUESTION 89 Which is a true statement regarding project governance? A. C. Project stakeholders Project sponsor and project stakeholder Project manager and project team Project manager and project sponsor Correct Answer: C . B. C. B. C. D. D. Once a project has begun. Requested changes Approved preventive action Work performance information Implemented defect repair Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 92 Who selects the appropriate processes for a project? A. C. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it. D. Defining and documenting project sponsors needs to meet the project objectives Defining and documenting stakeholders needs to meet the project objectives Defining and documenting the project teams needs to meet the project objectives Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 95 Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas? A. B. D. Project manager is appointed Stakeholders approve the project Project charter is approved Project sponsor approves the project. C. D. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 94 How is the process of collecting requirement defined? A. B. Project risk management. C. C. Planning . Project scope management Project time management Project integration management Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 96 Which process group can be performed outside the projects scope of control? A.Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 93 A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs? A. B. C. C. Monitoring and control C. Closing D. C. D. D. Initiating Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 97 The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes? A. Develop Project Management Plan Identify Stakeholders Plan Communications Collect Requirements Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 99 Which of the following is defined by a projects life cycle and varies by application area? A. B. Product Product oriented processes Project management process groups Project management process groups Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Develop Project Management Plan Develop Schedule Identify Stakeholders Determine Budget Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 98 Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group? A. B. D. B.B. C. 5 8 9 12 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B.QUESTION 100 How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide? A. D. ensuring everyone understands the process etc are all QA activities. D. B. Like the machines . Closing Executing Monitoring Controlling Monitoring Controlling Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 Which process groups defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve? A. So when the coke bottle is out you do a sample test and it would either pass or fail the Q standards. people. Planning Executing Monitoring and control Closing Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Differences Between QA (Quality Assurance) & QC (Quality Control) Suppose you are manufacturing Coke. C. QC is doing the actual testing on finished product. QA would ensure that you have all the right processes in place to manufacture and test the quality of the coke. recording mechanism etc. So QC is to do with testing and verification after the deliverable is done and QA is before the deliverable is made. B. Like giving trainings to people. Auditing the process. B. C. Initiating Executing Planning Monitoring and Controlling Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . QUESTION 2 A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of the management process groups to formally complete the project? A. C. D.Exam B QUESTION 1 Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups? A. D. So when the coke bottle is out you do a sample test and it would either pass or fail the Q standards. people. B. B. QC is doing the actual testing on finished product.QUESTION 4 How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide? A. Plan Quality Perform Quality Assurance Perform Quality Control Identify Stakeholders Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Differences Between QA (Quality Assurance) & QC (Quality Control) Suppose you are manufacturing Coke. recording mechanism etc. 5 9 10 12 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5 The Monitoring and controlling process group contains which of the following processes? A. . Like the machines . C. D. QA would ensure that you have all the right processes in place to manufacture and test the quality of the coke. C. D. QUESTION 6 Which Process group establishes the total scope of a project? A.So QC is to do with testing and verification after the deliverable is done and QA is before the deliverable is made. C. . B. C. D. It includes all the project stakeholders—sponsors. D. Initiating Planning Monitoring and Controlling Executing Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed? A. Project Integration Management Project Time Management Project Procurement Management Project Human Resource Management Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Project Human Resource Management includes the processes required to make the most effective use of the people involved with the project. individual contributors. ensuring everyone understands the process etc are all QA activities. and others. Auditing the process. B. Project Team Project manager Project management office Customer or sponsor Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area? A. D. B. customers. C. Like giving trainings to people. C. Product scope description Project charter Preliminary project scope statement Communications management plan Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10 .QUESTION 9 Where are product requirements and characteristics documented? A. D. B. D. The key concept is that these are assets a project manager may use for the benefit of the project. risk data and earned value data.” Examples include: plans. But the scope management plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. C. and guidelines that could impact how the projects scope is managed? A. It is the other way round . C. procedures. from any or all of the organizations involved in the project that can be used to influence the project’s success. . how are they documented. C. procedures. schedules. Organizational Process Assets fall into two broad categories—Processes and Procedures. how are they verified. B. Organizational process assets Enterprise environmental factors Project management processes Project scope management plan Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The fourth edition PMBOK® defines Organizational Process Assets as “any or all process related assets.The Scope Baseline is part of the Scope Management Plan.What are the formal and informal policies. B. changed etc. D. B. Approved corrective actions Approved contract documentation Work Performance information Rejected change requests Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12 Which of the following consists of the detailed project projects scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary? A. and the Corporate Knowledge Base. historical information. updated. lessons learned. The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected. They work together with Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF’s) to bring those things outside the project team into focus. Scope Plan Product scope Scope management plan Scope baseline Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected. D. QUESTION 11 Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process? A. prioritised. B. changed etc. B. prioritised. D. prioritised.The Scope Baseline is part of the Scope Management Plan.The Scope Baseline is part of the Scope Management Plan. D. how are they verified. It is the other way round . But the scope management plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. C. But the scope management plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. Build vs buy Expert judgment Alternatives Identification Product analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14 The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document? A.how are they documented. C. updated. D. The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected. how are they verified. updated. changed etc. What type of project structure is hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type? Resource Breakdown structure (RBS) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Project Breakdown Structure (PBS) Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . C. how are they documented. updated. It is the other way round . B. Schedule management plan Project management plan Quality management plan Resource management plan Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Scope Management Plan only tells you how to manage the scope – how the requirements are collected. how are they verified. QUESTION 15 What type of project structure is hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type? A. But the scope management plan itself is never part of the Scope Baseline. prioritised. QUESTION 13 What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project? A.The Scope Baseline is part of the Scope Management Plan. how are they documented. It is the other way round . changed etc. D. The project management work breakdown structure. captures all the elements of a project in an organized fashion. C. Resource Calendar — making a list of diverse resources regarding their availability over a period of time to ascertain whether they can be assigned for particular projects. WBS. is utilized at the beginning of the project to define the scope. to ensure that they are strategically productive throughout the lifecycle of the project. and resource estimating are the major RBS tools. RBS Tools Activity List — creating a list of all the project-based activities and every conceivable information about them. such as the project team members. resource calendar. This includes the usual resources employed by the listed activities. There are organizational and geographical RBS. Activity lists. WBS. Resource Estimating — making estimates regarding the variety/volumes of resources that would be employed for each defined activity in the most cost-effective and productive manner. complex projects into smaller project pieces provides a better framework for organizing and managing the project. B. measurement and control of the project. WBS. responsibilities. Breaking down large. C. Resource Breakdown Structure or RBS is an integral part of any effective project management in geneal and resource management in particular. is a project management technique initially developed by the US Defense Establishment. Requested changes Project scope statement changes Variance analysis Approved change requests Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17 which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work? A. estimate costs and organize Gantt schedules. task assignment. WBS directory Activity list WBS Project schedule Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Work breakdown structure. which deconstructs a project with the intent to identify the deliverables required to complete the project. B. QUESTION 16 What cause replanning of the project scope? A. QUESTION 18 What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables? . Work breakdown structure.A Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is used to create an hierarchical list of the resources. Managing any project means organizing project resources and project components. D. WBS can facilitate resource allocation. A. QUESTION 20 What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria? A. estimate costs and organize Gantt schedules. measurement and control of the project. D. C. A clear boundary statement helps direct the things that are applicable to those areas within the project scope. Decompositions Benchmarking Inspection Checklist analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation . Breaking down large. D. C. Project boundaries are closely linked to project objectives. All other locations are out of scope (that is out of the defined boundaries). The project management work breakdown structure. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) Work Performance information Work Package Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Work breakdown structure . B. EXAMPLE An organization is going to sell office equipment within The United States. Project boundaries Project constraints Project assumptions Project objectives Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The boundaries of a project are measurable and auditable characteristics that define what belongs to the project and what doesn’t belong to it. D. they create a holistic perception of project work. task assignment. Work breakdown structure. B. responsibilities. C. The boundaries of this project will affect US operations only. is utilized at the beginning of the project to define the scope. B. and they define the content of the project in terms of expected results. QUESTION 19 What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions? A. It makes an agreement with a domestic US distributor. WBS can facilitate resource allocation. WBS. WBS. WBS. complex projects into smaller project pieces provides a better framework for organizing and managing the project. is a project management technique initially developed by the US Defense Establishment. captures all the elements of a project in an organized fashion. This agreement actually states a project for selling office equipment. which deconstructs a project with the intent to identify the deliverables required to complete the project. project management team leader. B. The Inputs. QUESTION 21 Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. The Input.Explanation/Reference: The term inspection refers to one of the most critical elements of the entire process that surrounds the execution and successful completion of a given project. The term inspection refers specifically to the act in which the project management team. Tools and Techniques and Output of the Define Scope process are: QUESTION 22 What is an output of Control Scope? A. Accepted deliverables Work performance measurements Requirements documentation Work performance information Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Control Scope process involves monitoring the status of project and managing scope changes. C. C. Tools and Techniques and Outputs of Control Scope process are: . Project document updates Project management plan Scope baseline Product analysis Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Define Scope process involves defining detailed description of the project and major deliverables. or other interested and significant parties take the effort to go review the entirety of the project in meticulous detail to determine whether or not the project meets certain predetermined requirements for completion. D. D. B. C. B. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24 A project manager needs the project team to make group decision. D. more manageable components Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units. D. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed.QUESTION 23 The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following? A. Subdivide the estimated cost of individual activities Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller. C. Expert judgment Majority SWOT analysis Brainstorming Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B. Which of the following is a method that can be used to reach a group decision? A. C. B. Define Scope and Define Activities Collect Requirements and Estimates Activity Resources Create WBS and Define Activities Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26 Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requieremets process? A. D. Group decision making techniques Project management information system Alternative identification Communication requirement analysis Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B.QUESTION 25 Decompositions is a tool and technique used in which of the following? A. C. D. and Outputs of Collect Requirements process are given below. .QUESTION 27 Which of the following is an input to collect Requirements? A. The Inputs. C. Tools and Techniques. Stakeholder register Requirements documentation Prototypes Organizational process assets Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Collect Requirements process involves documenting stakeholders needs to meet project objectives. B. D. QUESTION 28 The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following processes? A. B. C. D. Plan quality Collect Requirements Define Scope Perform Quality Control Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 Which is an input of the collect Requirements process? A. B. C. D. Requirement documentation Organizational process assets Requirements management plan Stakeholder register Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30 Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle? A. B. C. D. Requirements traceability matrix Scope management plan Project charter Work breakdown structure Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Requirements Traceability Matrix Defining the RTM The Requirements Traceability Matrix (RTM) is a tool to help ensure that the project’s scope, requirements, and deliverables remain “as is” when compared to the baseline. Thus, it “traces” the deliverables by establishing a thread for each requirement- from the project’s initiation to the final implementation. The diagram shows that the RTM can be used during all phases of a project to: · Track all requirements and whether or not they are being met by the current process and design · Assist in the creation of the RFP, Project Plan Tasks, Deliverable Documents, and Test Scripts · Help ensure that all system requirements have been met during the Verification process. The Matrix should be created at the very beginning of a project because it forms the basis of the project’s scope and incorporates the specific requirements and deliverables that will be produced. How do you create an RTM? In each of the steps shown above, each requirement must be unique and clearly defined. The requirement is then part of each critical component of the project. The references throughout the entire process must be consistent and unique. In order to insure that this occurs, the Matrix traces each requirement and creates a relationship between each of the processes Req#: Requirement Number; for each project requirement, begin to list them on the RTM in a numerical order and group them by function. Name: Enter the name and brief description of the requirement RFP #: Request For Proposal (RFP); specify the identification number of the requirement as listed in the RFP. DDD #: Deliverable Definition Document (Also referred to as the Deliverable Expectation Document- DED); use the RFP requirement number as a reference for the DDD that is created for the requirement. PPT #: List the MS Project Subtask and Task numbers that are associated with the requirement. TS #: Test scripts should be prepared for the actual testing process. Verification: Use this field to record completion of the signoff process QUESTION 31 Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique? A. B. C. D. Delphi technique Unanimity Observation Presentation Technique Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Delphi Method is an information gathering technique that was created in the 1950s by the RAND Corporation. The Delphi Method is based on surveys and makes use of the information of the participants, who are mainly experts. By using this method, you can get qualitative and quantitative results. The expert surveys are conducted over multiple rounds until a consensus is reached. After each round, feedback is provided, which encourages convergence of thought. A key point to note about the Delphi Technique is that while gathering thoughts, the participants do not know who the other participants are. Hence, participants are not influenced by others taking part in the process. Uses of the Delphi Method in Project Management As you might already suspect, the Delphi Method has many uses in project management. You can use the Delphi Method for any activity that requires the convergence of expert thought, such as in: Risk Management: For identifying risks and quantifying risks. Time Management: For estimating stories or work activities. QUESTION 32 Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique? A. B. C. D. Collect Requirements Plan communications Develop Project Team Report Performance Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 33 Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope? A. B. C. D. Product analisys Ishikawa diagram Inspection Requirements Traceability Matrix Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The term inspection refers to one of the most critical elements of the entire process that surrounds the execution and successful completion of a given project. The term inspection refers specifically to the act in which the project management team, project management team leader, or other interested and significant parties take the effort to go review the entirety of the project in meticulous detail to determine whether or not the project meets certain predetermined requirements for completion. QUESTION 34 Inspection is a tool and technique for wich of the following processes? A. Create WBS B. Define Scope Control scope D. Project and product Staffingand Budget Stakeholder and Customer Business and Technical Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 37 . or other interested and significant parties take the effort to go review the entirety of the project in meticulous detail to determine whether or not the project meets certain predetermined requirements for completion. An individual work package contains essential steps involved in completion of the work package along with a deadline by which each of the steps must be completed in order for project management to stay on track. team leader. Related term: control account.C. Verify Scope Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The term inspection refers to one of the most critical elements of the entire process that surrounds the execution and successful completion of a given project. A work package is usually the bottom tier of the project management process. Work Product Work Package Project deliverable Scope Baseline Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A work package is a portion of the work breakdown structure that allows project management to define the steps necessary for completion of the work package. B. B. Work packages allow for simultaneous work on many different components of a project at the same time by multiple teams. The term inspection refers specifically to the act in which the project management team. A work package may in itself be thought of as a deliverable. A work package can be thought of as a mini project. D. When all teams have finished their individual work packages. supervisor. the whole project comes together with seamless integration. Completion of a work package is most often overseen by a specific person whether it is a manager. C. D. Each team follows the steps defined in the work package and completes them by the specified deadline. or a designated team member. that when combined with other work package units. QUESTION 35 What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed? A. project management team leader. form the completed project. C. QUESTION 36 Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories A. Group creativity techniques Group decision making techniques Facilitated workshops Prototypes Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 38 Which of the followings events would result in a baseline update? A. D. B. D. C.Plurality is a type of which of the following? A. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 39 Which Schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have . Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay. C. B. B. So. QUESTION 40 Wich Schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources? A. both the approaches involve changes to Critical Path activities schedule. Critical Path method Variance analysis Schedule comprenssion Schedule Comparison bar chart . "Crashing" the schedule means to throw additional resources to the critical path without necessarily getting the highest level of efficiency. B. QUESTION 41 Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date late start date? A. For instance. Similarities are: 1) Both the approaches are aimed at reducing the schedule 2) Both the approaches require addition of resources to achieve the goal 3) Even though fast tracking doesn't mention the term Critical Path. D. let’s say one person was working on a ten-day activity on the critical path. it's obvious that the Critical Path tasks need to be done in parallel to reduce the schedule. you might add a second resource to this activity. B. The critical chain concept was coined by Eliyahu Goldratt. C. If you were really desperate to shorten this timeframe. If you were fast-tracking. It mixes deterministic and probabilistic approaches to schedule network analysis. you would start constructing the solution in areas where you felt the design was pretty solid without waiting for the entire design to be completed. Human resource planning Fast Tracking Critical Chain method Rolling Wave planning Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Critical Chain Project Management (CCPM): According to PMBOK Critical chain method is a schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources. C. D. D. Crashing Fast Tracking Leads and lags adjustment Parallel task development Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Fast tracking means that you look at activities that are normally done in sequence and assign them instead partially in parallel.been done sequentially A. C. Following few sections briefly describe the concepts Critical Chain depends on and are useful to understand the example that will follow shortly after that. • Early Finish (EF): Earliest possible point in time on which a task can finish. C. Many Tasks have some amount of buffer added to them referred as Slack Time or Float. Float time is amount of time a task can slip before it delays project schedule. • Free Float: Amount of time a single task can be delayed without delaying the early start of any successor task. Mathematically Float is defined as: Float = LS . CPM was developed by the DuPont Corporation in 1957. Critical tasks (activities) are tasks (activities) on the critical path. There are two common types of floats.Critical path determines the shortest time to complete the project and it is the longest duration path through a network of tasks. Early Start and finish dates are calculated by means of Forward Pass and Late Start and Late Finish dates are calculated by means of Backward Pass. To understand CPM further let's first understand nature of the task. • Late Finish (EF): Latest possible point in time on which a task can finish. Critical path has zero or negative Total Float. D. B. A project can have several critical paths QUESTION 42 What is the minimum a project schedule must include? A.Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Critical Path Method (CPM): The Critical Path Method (CPM) is a schedule network analysis technique. Variance analysis A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity A critical path diagram Critical chain analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 43 What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance? A.ES or LF . According to PMBOK every scheduled task can be defined by the following four parameters. • Early Start (ES): Earliest possible point in time on which a task can start. C. D. Cost aggregation Trend Analysis Forecasting Variance analysis Correct Answer: D Section: (none) . • Late Start (ES): Latest possible point in time on which a task can start. B. • Total Float: Amount of time a single task can be delayed without delaying project completion.EF. Cost baseline Cost forecasting Cost variance Cost budgeting Correct Answer: D .e. C. D. what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)? EV= $500 PV=$750 AC=$1000 BAC=$1200 A. Variance Analysis is applicable (computed) to the triple constrains in the project i. D.Explanation Explanation/Reference: Earned value is the Actual Amount of Work Accomplished whereas Variance Analysis is the Difference beween the Amount of Work Planned and the Work actually accomplished. D. 0. That is why you see variance Analysis as an output on all 3 KAs where as You see EV Analysis as an output only in the Cost Management QUESTION 44 Using the following data. B.67 1. B. C. C. Cost performance Index (CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than (CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1) QUESTION 45 Which enterprise enviromental factors are considered during cost estimating? A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases Marketplace conditions and company structure Commercial databases and company structure Existing human resources and market place conditions Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 Which process involves aggregating the estimated cost of the individual schedule activities or work packages? A. you have 3 Variance Analyses: For A) Scope B) Schedule C) Cost where as Earned Value is generally calculated for Cost.50 0.75 0.50 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Schedule performance Index (SPI) = EV/PV is an indicator whether the project is on time (SPI = 1) or behind the schedule(<1). B. Behind the schedule and over budget Behind the schedule and under budget Ahead of schedule and under budget Ahead of schedule and over budget Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Schedule performance Index (SPI) = EV/PV is an indicator whether the project is on time (SPI = 1) or behind the schedule(<1).1 for the project. EAC= BAC . C.50 0. Cost performance Index (CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than (CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1) QUESTION 48 The project manager calculated a schedule performance index 0.00 0.40 0.000 AC=$80.80 and a cost performance index 1. 1.80 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Schedule performance Index (SPI) = EV/PV is an indicator whether the project is on time (SPI = 1) or behind the schedule(<1). EAC= AC + [(BAC-EV)/(CUMULATIVE CPI* CUMULATIVE SPI)] B. C.000 A.000 EV=$40.Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC=$ 100. Cost performance Index (CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than (CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1) QUESTION 49 EAC (Estimate and complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus and ETC (Estimate to complete) the remaining work. B. EAC= 1-CPI .000 PV=$50. B. D. Which of the following is a valid formula for calculating EAC? A.AC C. D. What is the actual status of this project? A. Assumes poor cost performance QUESTION 50 Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance? A.BCWS What does Schedule Variance mean? The result of the Schedule Variance formula is a number.Used when original estimate is fundamentally flawed EAC = BAC / Cumulative CPI . C. So what does this number mean? A value of less than zero means the project is behind schedule.Used if no variances have occured and same rate of spending will continue EAC = AC + (BAC. D. but confused when to use each type. And Planned Value is also known as Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled (BCWS). EAC = BAC / CPI EAC = ETC + AC EAC = (BAC-EV) + AC EAC = [BAC-EV / spi * cpi] + AC Explanation EAC = AC + Bottom up ETC -.Used when variances are typical(regular).Used when variances are atypical /irregular EAC = AC + ( BAC-EV / Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) .EV) . And a value greater than zero means the project is ahead of schedule. . So you may see the formula written as: Schedule Variance = BCWP . EAC =EV + [1-(CUMULATIVE CPI* CUMULATIVE SPI)/BAC] Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: There are 4 types of EAC forecast calculation formulas available. (A value of zero means the project is exactly on schedule but this is very rare). B.D. EV/PV PV/EV EV-PV PV-EV Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Schedule Variance Formula Schedule Variance is calculated as follows: Schedule Variance = Earned Value – Planned Value Earned Value is also known as Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP). . costly and time consuming. C. Some examples of these variables include square footage in a contraction project. D. Most Pessimistic: The worst case scenario which everything goes wrong. This includes: Most Optimistic:Best case scenario in which nothing goes wrong and all conditions are optimal. and other similar variables. primarily. Analogous estimating Three-poit estimates Parametric estimating Bottom-up estimating Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Parametric Estimating: Refers. It uses estimations from previous activities to estimate future durations.similarity of the historical projects . to an estimation technique which utilizes the statistical relationship that exists between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables. The validity of duration estimates derived using this method depends on: . the number of lines or code that exist in a software application. EV-AC AC-EV AC+EV AC/EV Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cost Variance (CV) Is very important factor to measure project performance.historical information . Cost Variance can be calculated as using the following formula . Analogous Estimating It is also known as "Top Down" Estimation. Most Likely:The most likely duration and there may be some problem but a lot will go right. Bottom-Up Cost Estimation Is *An estimating the cost for each work package in the WBS. *The most accurate method but it is also the most challenging. Cost Variance (CV) indicates how much over or under budget the project is. B. D. B. QUESTION 2 Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance? A. One valuable aspect of parametric estimating is the higher levels of accuracy that can be built into it depending on how sophisticated the original data that was built into the estimate turns out to have been.expert judgement Three Point Estimation: is a technique used to estimate the time required for a project based on historical information. C.Exam C QUESTION 1 Which tool and technique uses a statical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate estimates? A. This information is them implemented for the purposes of calculating and demonstrating an estimate for the entity of activity parameters. Actual Cost (AC) OR Cost Variance (CV) = BCWP . Negative Variance % indicates % over Budget.ACWP The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of cost which will indicate how less or more cost has been to complete the work as of date. Positive Variance % indicates % under Budget.500 CP= $11. C. D. what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT? CO= $7. and a worst case scenario of $165? A. B. QUESTION 3 Given the following values. $4.Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) . C. $115 $138 $140 $165 .500 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: CE = (CO + 4CM + CP)/6 QUESTION 4 What is the expected activity cost for a projecct having a most likely cost of $140.000 CM= $10.750 $9. D.000 A. Positive Cost Variance Indicates the project is under budget Negative Cost Variance Indicates the project is over budget Cost Variance % Cost Variance % indicates how much over or under budget the project is in terms of percentage. B. a best case scenario of $115. Cost Variance % can be calculated as using the following formula CV % = Cost Variance (CV) / Earned Value (EV) OR CV % = CV / BCWP The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of percentage which will indicate how much less or more money has been used to complete the work as planned in terms of percentage.500 $10.000 $11. 0 indicates? A. D. D. C. B.Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: EC=(140+115+165)/3 QUESTION 5 What does a SPI value greather than 1. Funding limit reconciliation Scope baseline Activity cost estimates Cost baseline Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve? . Most work was completed than planned Less work was completed than planned Cost overrun for completed work has occurred Cost underrun for completed work has occurred Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Schedule performance Index (SPI) = EV/PV is an indicator whether the project is on time (SPI = 1) or behind the schedule(<1) QUESTION 6 Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from: A. C. B. what would be the cost performance index CPI A. and planned Value PV is $1500.5 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cost performance Index(CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than (CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1)the budget allotted at that stage. B. B. D. charts. Pareto Charts. 0. Under budge and ahead of schedule Over budget and behind schedule Over budget and ahead of schedule Under budget and behind schedule Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 In the earned Value EV is $1000. actual cost AC is $800. Perform Quality Control B.66 0.8 1. C.A. C. Quality planning .25 1. Histograms. D. Flowcharting. QUESTION 9 Control. Perform Quality Assurance C. Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of what process? A. D. C. It gets a definite beginning and end along with decision points clearly called out. B. inspection or review of a project's quality assurance system to improve quality performance of a project. Performance Reporting Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10 Which Tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies. The audits can take place at scheduled or random intervals. C. This can be done with the actions to take based on the result of each decision. B. processes and procedures? A. scope audits Scope reviews Quality Audits Contro Chart Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A quality Audit is an independent evaluation. QUESTION 11 What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate? A. The result of a quality audit (eg lesson learned) are important for the current project as well as for later projects or other parts of the organisation. D. . It also shows the elements between a process or system. D. Control chart Flowchart Run Chart Pareto Chart Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Flowchart shows the sequence of events and flow of inputs and outputs. B. C.QUESTION 12 Which tool and technique of quality planning involves caomparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance? A. Histogram Quality audits Benchmarking Performance measurements analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . D. C. Scope Management Time Management Communications Management Quality Management Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A Pareto diagram/chart helps focus attention on the most critical issues. B. It Addresses the evaluation of a group's business or project practices . .Identify best practics . C.In comparison to those of other groups. It is referred to as 80/20 rule that 80% of problems or defects are most often due to 20% of the causes. Quality Metrics Less rework Quality control measurements Benchmarking Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . QUESTION 14 What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements? A. D. B.Benchmarking is a tool used in Quality Planning. D. It prioritises potential "causes" of the problems.In order to meet them QUESTION 13 In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information? A. g. C. *what is the relationship between each variable and the quality specifications (with customer focused). B. C. .. but do not share the same requirements for quality (e. B. D. D. ensuring optimal quality or value.g. C. Scope Quality Specification Grade Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Grade is “a category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use (e. It Addresses the evaluation of a group's business or project practices ..QUESTION 15 What is the ame of the statiscal method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production? A. different hammers may need to withstand different amounts of force)”.In comparison to those of other groups. QUESTION 17 Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance? A. Failure modes and effects analysis Design of experiments Quality Checklist Risk analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Design of Experiment (DOE) is: a technique to systematically identify varying levels of independent variables. *What is the best value for each variable. Profitability and impact matrix Expert Judgment Benchmarking Risk Categorization Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Benchmarking is a tool used in Quality Planning. It determines: *which variable has the greatest effect. “hammer”). B. QUESTION 16 What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics? A. D. B. B. and activities Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Flowchart shows the sequence of events and flow of inputs and outputs. The result of a quality audit (eg lesson learned) are important for the current project as well as for later projects or other parts of the organisation. D. process drivers. It also shows the elements between a process or system.In order to meet them QUESTION 18 Regardless of style. C. QUESTION 20 Which tool technique uses the 80/20 principle? A. corrective actions. and the order of processing Activities. and preventive actions? A.Identify best practics . Quality checklists Quality Metrics Quality audits Process analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A quality Audit is an independent evaluation. decision points. defect repairs. B. QUESTION 19 Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change requests. It gets a definite beginning and end along with decision points clearly called out.. D. C. D. decision points. Pareto Chart Cause and effect diagrams Control Charts Flowcharting Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . what information is shown in a process flowchart? A. This can be done with the actions to take based on the result of each decision. and process drivers Activities. inspection or review of a project's quality assurance system to improve quality performance of a project The audits can take place at scheduled or random intervals. Actions. and the order of processing Actions. decision points. C. Rework Inspections Trainings Testings Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cost of Non-Conformance >>However. Data points within this range are generally though of as "In Control". there is a potential for costs associated with any resulting problems. B. >>Costs of non-conformance can include things such as payments made out on warranties. C.A Pareto diagram/chart helps focus attention on the most critical issues. D. These costs are referred to as the costs of non-conformance. It is referred to as 80/20 rule that 80% of problems or defects are most often due to 20% of the causes. QUESTION 22 What is included in a control chart? A. Baselines Planned Value Upper specification limit Expenditure Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Control Charts are graphs used to analyse and communicate the variability of a process (or project activity) over time. . The components include the process mean the Upper Control Limit (UCL) and the Lower Control Limit (LCL). It prioritises potential "causes" of the problems. if there is a choice made not to conduct quality activities. B. This is money spent because of failures. QUESTION 21 What is cost of nonconformance? A. and/or damage to reputation. D. re-work or scrap. C. For example. technical support calls. Cost of quality Measure of design Satatical control Systematic analysis Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: COST OF QUALITY: CoQ can be defined as the costs associated with not creating a quality product. quality improvement team. 08. C. 07. training. investigation of customer complaints. product refunds and recalls. the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1. 09. For example. Internal Failure Costs. lost customer goodwill. usability analysis. and audits. wasted resource time. regression testing. process reviews. bug fixes. inspection. These are associated with defects that have been found before giving the product or service to the customer. These are associated with finding quality problems. For example. the consecutive measurements are 11. QUESTION 24 In a control chart. CoQ needs to be consider while estimating costs and performing Life-Cycle Costing (LCC). Total Cost of Quality = External Failure + Internal Failure + Appraisal + Prevention Costs External Failure Costs. 08. For example. Prevention Cost. In project management. and 12. warranty costs. These are activities that are performed to prevent poor quality. and collecting requirements. and rework. Is under control B. 09. Appraisal Costs. 09. D. B. For the entire process. it is correct to say that the process: A. These are associated with problems found in the product or service after the customer has received it. 09.QUESTION 23 What tool and technique includes all cost incurred over the life of a product by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements? A. 13. testing. For this data set. Is out of control . and liability costs. Has decreasing trend Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: .C. Has increasing trend D. which is an output. B. B. Scatter diagrams use two variables. D. QUESTION 26 A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Scatter diagrams display the relationship between these two elements as points on a graph. To identify quality requirements of the project To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them To assess performance and recommend necessary changes To ensure quality standards are used Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28 What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process? . Fishbone diagram Control chart Run chart Scatter diagram Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: This is one of the Tools and Techniques of the Perform Quality Control. one called an independent variable. Appraisal Internal failure External failure Prevention Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 27 Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process? A. C. and one called a dependent variable. which is an input. B. C.QUESTION 25 In which tool and technique is possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables? A. The important thing to remember about scatter diagrams is that they plot the dependent and independent variables and the closer the points resemble a diagonal line. the closer these variables are related. C. Under which category does this cost fall? A. D. D. Clear role definition Negotiation Risk response planning Team member replacement Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31 Conflicts should be best addressed in which manner? A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness Ground rules for interaction Enhanced resource availability Functional managers become more involved Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team? A. D. D. cooperative approach As late as possible. using a indirect. C. C. using a indirect. collaborative approach Early. in private. B. in plublic. using a direct. Negotiation Roles and responsabilities Recognition and rewards Prizing and promoting Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30 When managing a project team. B. in public. collaborative approach Early. C. B. C.A. Early. in private. B. what helps to reduce amount of conflict? A. D. D. confrontational approach Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation . using a direct. Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32 What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships? A. B. rganizational chart Organizational theory Organizational Structure Organizational Behavior Correct Answer: B Section: (none) . and organizational units behave? A. the staffing management plan is updated. teams. and is generally the responsibility of the project manager. QUESTION 34 What provides information regarding the ways people. Role dependencies chart Reporting flow diagram Project organization chart Project team structure diagram Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Organization Chart : A project organization chart is a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships. input is given to organizational performance appraisals. and coordinating changes to enhance project performance. manages conflict. and appraises team member performance. B. As a result of managing the project team. dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. change requests are submitted. providing feedback. issues are resolved. QUESTION 33 Whitin a matrix organization. Management of the project team is complicated when team members are accountable to both a functional manager and the project manager within a matrix organization (Section 2. Effective management of this dual reporting relationship is often a critical success factor for the project. D. D. D. Functional manager Project Manager Functional manager supported by the project manager Project management office Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Manage Project Team Manage Project Team involves tracking team member performance. resolving issues. The project management team observes team behavior.3. resolves issues. B. C. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor? A. C. and lessons learned are added to the organization's database.3). C. teams and work units perform the way they do." Organizational theory improves the probability that planning will be effective and helps shorten the amount of time it takes to produce the Develop Human Resource Plan outputs. I'll talk more motivation techniques (which are a type of organizational theory). Forming Storming Norming Performing Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . "Developing the project Team. D.Explanation Explanation/Reference: Refers to all the theories that attempt to explain what makes people. B. QUESTION 35 In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the project an their formal roles and responsibilities? A. C. C. Collaboration Issue log Leadership Motivation Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: CONFLICT RESOLUTION TECHNIQUES . B. D.QUESTION 36 Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict? A. a conflict will be treated as a problem for which project manager has to find a solution.Withdrawing or Avoiding: Here. B. This technique reinforces mutual trust and commitment. QUESTION 37 Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference? A. and focuses on commonalities. Here. tries to avoid areas of disagreements. decision is taken in favor of one’s viewpoint at the expense of others. and then arrives at a solution. Withdrawing/ Avoiding Forcing Collaborating Smoothing/acommodating Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Problem Solving or Confronting: Here. the project manager is involved in the conflict. C. Compromising: It is a mid-way approach. The project manager will conduct an in-depth root cause analysis of the reason for the occurrence of the conflict. and allows the persons involved in conflict to find their own solution. Smoothing is a way to avoid tough discussions. Here. It is a win-lose approach. everybody loses and gain something. It is a lose-lose approach. D. It can demoralize the team member and may cause to increase the conflicts. No action is taken by the project manager. Forcing: Here. Collaborating: This is an example of win-win approach. the project manager simply chooses to avoid the conflict. All parties get some sort of satisfaction. the project manager will work with all parties to find a resolution that involves multiple viewpoints and negotiate for the best solution. Smoothing or Accommodating: Here. encourage open discussions to allow parties to express their areas of disagreement. D. decision is taken in favor of one’s viewpoint at the expense of others. tries to avoid areas of disagreements. This technique reinforces mutual trust and commitment. Here. a conflict will be treated as a problem for which project manager has to find a solution. QUESTION 38 In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues smoothly and effectively? A. and then arrives at a solution. Smoothing is a way to avoid tough discussions. The project manager will conduct an in-depth root cause analysis of the reason for the occurrence of the conflict. It is a win-lose approach. Compromising: It is a mid-way approach.Withdrawing or Avoiding: Here. C. Problem Solving or Confronting: Here. everybody loses and gain something. encourage open discussions to allow parties to express their areas of disagreement. It can demoralize the team member and may cause to increase the conflicts. and focuses on commonalities. the project manager simply chooses to avoid the conflict. No action is taken by the project manager. Here. and allows the persons involved in conflict to find their own solution. All parties get some sort of satisfaction. Smoothing or Accommodating: Here. It is a lose-lose approach. B. Norming Forming Storming Performing Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Forcing: Here. the project manager will work with all parties to find a resolution that involves multiple viewpoints and negotiate for the best solution. the project manager is involved in the conflict. Collaborating: This is an example of win-win approach. B. D. C. Estimate Activity Resources Acquire Project Team Develop Schedule Develop Project Team Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together.QUESTION 39 The resource calendars document is an output of which process? A. Norming Forming Storming Performing Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation . and adjust the work habits and behavior? A. D. C. develop trust. B. The project team is in which of the following stages of team development? A. B. Storming Forming Norming Performing Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . D.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41 Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decissions. C. D. D. C. Team training Co-location Team location Organizatin training Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: co-location represents an organizational technique in which the location of team members is determined in a strategic way to maximize productivity QUESTION 43 Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following conflict management techniques? A. B.QUESTION 42 Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team is called which of the following? A. Smoothing Compromising Avoiding Forcing Correct Answer: A . C. B. storage. D. B. Project integration management Project communications management Project Information Management System (PIMS) Project scope Management Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45 Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner A. C. distribution. C. retrieval. B.Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44 Which knowledge area is concerned with the process required to ensure timely and appropriate generation. Contract management Performance reporting Project status reports Information Distribution Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . collection. and ultimate disposition of project information? A. D. retieval. requested changes. analysed and displayed in various report formats. C. Risk response planning Risk monitoring and controlling Performance reporting Manage stakeholders Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Performance Reporting is: The process of gathering and communicating information regarding the current status of a project as well as projections for progress over time. collection. storage. C. distribution. recommended corrective actions.QUESTION 46 Forecasts. D. and ultimate disposition of project information? A. An organizational chart Glossary of common terminology Organizational Process assets Enterprise enviromental factors Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 48 Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation. B. and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process? A. QUESTION 47 Which of the folowing is contained within the communications management plan A. D. Project Integration Management . B. Durng performance reporting: Information regarding the work being accomplished resources being used is collected. Project Risk Management B. B. B. Expert Judgement Project Management methodology Stakeholder analysis Status review meetings Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . C. D. D.C. and updates to organizational process assets are all outputs of which project management process? A. Project Communications Management D. Project Quality Management Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 Approved change requests. Risk response planning Manage stakeholders Scope definition Performance reporting Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 What is a technique used in the performance reporting process? A. approved corrective actions. C. and functional role. Issue log Change register Stakeholder register Interpersonal skills . requirements. Requirements. D. and functional department Interest. C. Requirements. and influence Interest. D. expectations.Exam D QUESTION 1 What is the number of stakeholders. and influence Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 Which of the following is a tool or technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations Process? A. influence. expectations. D. if the project 28 potential communication channels? A. B. D. 7 8 14 16 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Number of communication channels with “n” members = n*(n-1)/2 QUESTION 2 What information does the stakeholder register contain? A. C. C. B. B. B. C. Communication model Identification information Communication Method Identification Plan Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and realtes it to the purpose of the project? A. B. written English. • Message: What is sent: the output of encoding • Medium: The method used for sending the message (face-to-face. D. language differences) • Decode: The translation of the message by the receiver from the medium into their thoughts. eg. . spoken French or a drawn diagram. D. C. telephone. B.Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5 When using the Delphi technique for gathering information. culture. Time series method Casual method Econometric method Judgment method Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6 Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model? A. C. what forecasting method is being used? A. Push Decode Pull Duration Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The elements in this model are: • Encode: To translate thoughts or ideas into a form of language that can be understood by the receiver. email) • Noise: Something that interferes with the sending or understanding of the message (distance. B. This does not require agreement or concurrence. QUESTION 7 Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information? A. D. Once this loop has been closed both people have a common understanding of the idea. C. B. but if there is to be a disagreement. Which tool or technique is used in this case? A. Effective communication requires both the sender and the receiver to be engaged. Project management plan Report performance Communications requirements analysis Communication methods Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product according specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past months. it helps if everyone has the same basic understanding of the issue or idea in dispute. Expert judgment Quality assurance Quality control Variance analysis Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation . D.A single communication is complete once the feedback-message has been decoded by the sender and checked for accuracy against the original idea. C. B. Who is primrily responsible for the project being a risk? A. D.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor. C. C. 21 28 36 42 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Number of communication channels with “n” members = n*(n-1)/2 QUESTION 10 ABC project is a risk for failling to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder issues. D. C. Push Communication Push communication is communication that is delivered by the sender to the . How many communication channels are there? A. Team member morale is low. Interactive communication should be used when an immediate response is required and when the communication is sensitive or likely to be misinterpreted. which communication method works most effectively? A. Push Interactive Parallel Pull Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Interactive Communication Interactive communication is the most efficient method of communication to ensure a common understanding as it is real time. B. B. D. Team members who have low morale Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11 When communicating with large audiences. Pull communication should be used when the communication is informational only. C. schedule. either source-based or effect-based. If the recipients don’t read it. D. Risks will be scored based on their probability or likelihood of occurring and the impact on project objectives should they occur. A qualitative risk analysis will also include the appropriate categorization of the risks. or quality). it does not necessarily mean it was received and understood.quantifies the possible outcomes for the project and assesses the probability of achieving specific project . The impact scale is organizationally defined (for example. Qualitative risk analysis Quantitative risk analysis Risk management planning Risk response planning Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Qualitative Risk Analysis A qualitative risk analysis prioritizes the identified project risks using a pre-defined rating scale. While the communication can be confirmed that it was sent. A quantitative analysis: . C. a one to five scale. Pull Communication Pull communication is a communication method that provides access to the information however the receiver must proactively retrieve the information. . Quantitative Risk Analysis A quantitative risk analysis is a further analysis of the highest priority risks during a which a numerical or quantitative rating is assigned in order to develop a probabilistic analysis of the project. B. with five being the highest impact on project objectives . it will not affect the project.recipients.3 equating to a 30% probability of the risk event occurring).such as budget. Push communication should be used when the recipients need the information but it does not require an immediate response and the communication is non-urgent or sensitive in nature. QUESTION 12 What are assigned risk ratings based upon? A. Root cause analysis Assessed probability and impact Expert judgment Risk identification Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13 Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact? A. B. D. Probability/likelihood is commonly ranked on a zero to one scale (for example. and to which the project is most sensitive. At project initiation During work performance analysis Throughout the life of the project At project milestones Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . and a prioritized lists of project risks (usually from performing a qualitative risk analysis) QUESTION 14 Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may required near term action? A. a well-developed project model. B. In practice such an analysis is only done for those variables which have a high impact on cost. D. Probability and impact matrix Contingency analysis report Risk urgency assessment Rolling wave plan Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15 Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis? A.objectives . D. C. you will need high-quality data. It is the simplest form of risk analysis. C. Uncertainty and risk are reflected by defining a likely range of variation for each component of the original base case estimate. B. time or economic return. D. QUESTION 16 When does risk monitoring and control occur? A. B.provides a quantitative approach to making decisions when there is uncertainty . C.creates realistic and achievable cost. sensitivity analysis Probability and impact matrix Risk data quality assessment Risk categorization Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Sensitivity Analysis Sensitivity analysis seeks to place a value on the effect of change of a single variable within a project by analyzing that effect on the project plan. schedule or scope targets In order to conduct a quantitative risk analysis. D. B. D. Risk monitoring and controlling Risk response planning Qualitative risk analysis Quantitative risk analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 18 Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis prosess requires that different levels of the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what? A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on the project objectives Distinguish between a project risk and a project issues so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place. Increase the probability and impact of positive events Removal of project risk Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20 Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party? A. C. B. Risk breakdown Structure (RBS) Risk probability and impact Qualitative risk analysis Risk response planning Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19 What is one of the objectives of project risk management? A. B. C. C. D.QUESTION 17 A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process? A. B. Mitigate Transfer Share Avoid . D. C. B. Expert judgment Risk Registry Risk response planning Interviewing Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Interviewing. Probability distributions. pessimistic (high). because it can provide information on reliability and credibility of the analysis. The information needed depends upon the type of probability distributions that will be used. Continuous probability distributions represent the uncertainty in values.Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 21 Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what? A. B. and the mean and standard deviation for others. D. C. For instance. and most likely scenarios for some commonly used distributions. Interviewing techniques are used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives. information would be gathered on the optimistic (low). Transference Avoidance Exploring Mitigation Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22 What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risk on project objectives? A. C. D. Expert judgment. QUESTION 23 What defines a portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired? A. such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree. Procurement management plan Evaluation Criteria Work Break Structure (WBS) Contract Statement of Work (SOW) . validate data and techniques. Documenting the rationale of the risk ranges is an important component of the risk interview. Discrete distributions can be used to represent uncertain events. B. such as durations of schedule activities and costs of project components. C. Subject matter experts internal or external to the organizations such as engineering or statistical experts. D. D. Plan purchases and acquisitions. request seller responses. C. request seller responses. Purchase requisition Purchase order Verbal Agreegment Request for quote Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25 Which of the following list contain processs A. C. plan contracting. B. acquire project team. D. Performance:Specifies measurable capabilities the end product must achieve in terms of operational characteristics. select sellers Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26 Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements Process? A.Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Contract Statement of Work (SOW) Design: Details what is required in terms of physical characteristics. D. select sellers. Plan purchases and acquisitions. C. Risk assesment analysis Make or buy analysis Contract value analysis Cost impact analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) . Functional: Defines what the deliverable is required to do but not necessarily how to do it. acquire project team. This allows the prospective sellers to offer different possible solutions for archiving the same end-use function. request seller responses. select sellers Plan purchases and acquisitions. B. B. schedule control Plan purchases and acquisitions. select sellers. contract approval. QUESTION 24 Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract? A. B. quality.Explanation Explanation/Reference: Make-or-Buy Analysis: Is a technique used to determine whether it would be more cost effective to produce a prudct or service inhouse or from an outside vendor. Can significantly impact project time. Process by which the procurement is being satisfied Process by which the procurement can be modified Process by which the procurement can be obtained Process by which the procurement can be disposed Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . D. D. QUESTION 29 A contract change control system defines which of the following? A. Bidder conferences allow sellers to query the buyer on the details of the product to help ensure that the proposal the seller creates is adequate and appropriate for the proposed agreement.sum Cost-plus-fixed-fee Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28 What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses? A. Procurement documents Expert judgment Bidder conferences Contract Types Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Bidder conference (also called a contractor or vendor conference) A meeting with prospective sellers to ensure all sellers have a clear understanding of the product or service to be procured. B. scope. B. D. C. C. etc. Cost-reimbursable Time and material Fixed Price or lump . C. QUESTION 27 A purchase order for a specific item to be delivered by specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract? A. cost. C. Cost -plus-fixed-fee Cost-plus-incentive-fee Firm-fixed-price Fixed-price-incentive-fee Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Contract Types in Procurement Procurement can generally be categorized between Fixed Price and Cost Reimbursable. Used by non profit organization Cost Plus Fees (CPF) or Cost plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) – Cost plus 10% as fees Cost Plus Fixed fee (CPFF) – Cost plus 10000$ in fees Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) – Cost plus variable fee. D. B. B. Fixed Price Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee (FPIF) – 10000$ is paid plus for every month the work finished earlier than schedule 1000$ will be paid Fixed Price plus Award fee (FPAF) – 10000$ plus every month performance exceeds planned value 1000$ is awarded with the max award of 10000$ Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment – 10000$/ year plus a price will increase based on Consumer Price Index. Executive management Project members Project manager Contract administrator Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32 . The seller gets percentage of saving if actual cost is less than target cost based on Seller/Buyer ratio. Original estimate is done (target cost) and target fee is determined. QUESTION 31 Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement? A. Purchase Order – generally used for commodities Time and Material – 100$ /hr plus cost Cost Reimbursable Cost Contract – Seller receives no profit.QUESTION 30 In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable cost for performing the contract work and receives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives as set forth in the contract? A. C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) – Cost plus fee plus award based on performance. D. C. Purchase Order – generally used for commodities Time and Material – 100$ /hr plus cost Cost Reimbursable Cost Contract – Seller receives no profit. Original estimate is done (target cost) and target fee is determined. B.In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional cost above the price ceiling becomes the responsability of performing organization? A. The seller gets percentage of saving if actual cost is less than target cost based on Seller/Buyer ratio. Company A will pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved. Fixed Price Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee (FPIF) – 10000$ is paid plus for every month the work finished earlier than schedule 1000$ will be paid Fixed Price plus Award fee (FPAF) – 10000$ plus every month performance exceeds planned value 1000$ is awarded with the max award of 10000$ Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment – 10000$/ year plus a price will increase based on Consumer Price Index. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) – Cost plus fee plus award based on performance. For which type of contract have they subscribed? . B. QUESTION 33 The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the: A. C. Used by non profit organization Cost Plus Fees (CPF) or Cost plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) – Cost plus 10% as fees Cost Plus Fixed fee (CPFF) – Cost plus 10000$ in fees Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) – Cost plus variable fee. Contract Type Sponsors Project Manager Stakeholders Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34 Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. D. D. Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP) Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF) Cost-Reimbursable Contractors Time and Material Contracts (T&M) Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Contract Types in Procurement Procurement can generally be categorized between Fixed Price and Cost Reimbursable. The seller gets percentage of saving if actual cost is less than target cost based on Seller/Buyer ratio. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) – Cost plus fee plus award based on performance. D. Fixed Price Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee (FPIF) – 10000$ is paid plus for every month the work finished earlier than schedule 1000$ will be paid Fixed Price plus Award fee (FPAF) – 10000$ plus every month performance exceeds planned value 1000$ is awarded with the max award of 10000$ Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment – 10000$/ year plus a price will increase based on Consumer Price Index. Plan procurements . B. D. C. QUESTION 35 Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement Management Process? A. Used by non profit organization Cost Plus Fees (CPF) or Cost plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) – Cost plus 10% as fees Cost Plus Fixed fee (CPFF) – Cost plus 10000$ in fees Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) – Cost plus variable fee.A. Purchase Order – generally used for commodities Time and Material – 100$ /hr plus cost Cost Reimbursable Cost Contract – Seller receives no profit. Plan Procurements Conduct Procurements Administer Procurements Close Procurements Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36 Which procurement management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement requirements and that the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract? A. C. Original estimate is done (target cost) and target fee is determined. Fixed-Price_Incentive_fee contracts (FPIF) Firm-fixed-price-Contracts (FFP) Fixed-Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA) Time and Material Contract (T&M) Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Contract Types in Procurement Procurement can generally be categorized between Fixed Price and Cost Reimbursable. B. Administer Procurements D. B. Fixed Price Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee (FPIF) – 10000$ is paid plus for every month the work finished earlier than schedule 1000$ will be paid Fixed Price plus Award fee (FPAF) – 10000$ plus every month performance exceeds planned value 1000$ is awarded with the max award of 10000$ Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment – 10000$/ year plus a price will increase based on Consumer Price Index. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF) Fixed Price with Economics Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA) Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee Contracts (CPFF) Time and Material Contracts (T&M) Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Contract Types in Procurement Procurement can generally be categorized between Fixed Price and Cost Reimbursable. Purchase Order – generally used for commodities Time and Material – 100$ /hr plus cost Cost Reimbursable Cost Contract – Seller receives no profit. QUESTION 38 The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the following processes? A. Develop Project Charter B. Used by non profit organization Cost Plus Fees (CPF) or Cost plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) – Cost plus 10% as fees Cost Plus Fixed fee (CPFF) – Cost plus 10000$ in fees Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) – Cost plus variable fee. Conduct Procurements Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 37 Which contract is tipically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period of years? A.B. Original estimate is done (target cost) and target fee is determined. Develop Project Management Plan C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) – Cost plus fee plus award based on performance. C. Perform Quality Assurance C. The seller gets percentage of saving if actual cost is less than target cost based on Seller/Buyer ratio. D. Direct and Manage Project Execution . C.D. Direct and Manage Project Execution Close Project or Phase Perform Integrated Change Control Monitor and Control Project Work Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 Which of the following provides a standardized. C. C. and efficient way to centrally manage approved changes and baselines within a project? A. Project management information system Configuration management System Change control board Project management plan Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41 The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project? A. effective. Procurement management plan Project management plan Project Scope document Project charter Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . D. B. B. D. Monitor and control Project Work Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 39 Final product transition is an output of which process? A. B. D. The business case should also reference the driver behind the project. *All change requests should go through it. such as: market demand. The business case is generally completed by the sponsor of the project. *Decisions are often accepted and considered final. such as: net present value (NPV). legal requirement. C. and/or return on investment (ROI). technological advance. customer request. that analyze and review the change requests that have been forwarded by the project management team and accordingly take decision whether the change request needs to be accepted or rejected.QUESTION 42 Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board? A. the product scope description. *Consists of stakeholder’s. *Role clearly defined. organizational need. or social need. Monitor and Control Project Work . B. C. the SOW may be received from the customer as part of a bid document. QUESTION 44 Reviewing. The SOW details the business need for the project. Describes how changes are documented Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Change control board can be referred to as a board or committee or group of stakeholder’s. the strategic plan. Describes how changes are managed? Approves or rejects change requests Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change. tracking. and the characteristics of the product the project will create. *Approve or reject changes. Business Case The business case will confirm the business need and drivers for the project and will most likely include information on a cost benefit analysis. Project charter Contract Business case Project statement of work Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Project Statement of Work The project statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project and is provided by the project initiator or customer for external projects or the sponsor or requesting organization for internal projects. internal rate of return (IRR). D. D. If the project is being done for an external customer. and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the project management plan are part of which process? A. so as to justify the funding of the project. B. QUESTION 43 Which document is a narrative description of products or serices to be delivered by the project? A. Project charter Project management plan Project statement of work Project scope statement Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A Project Charter is a formal document that authorizes the start of a project. establishes a project time line. from initiation through planning. its key deliverables .B. C. Perform Integrated Change Control Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45 Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders needs and expectations? A. B. D. covering all project phases. D. A Project management plan is the planning document. Sponsor B. It names and appoints a project manager. QUESTION 46 The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following processes? A. execution and closure. Direct and Manage Project Execution C. assigns a summary budget. and documents key assumptions and constraints. capturing the entire project end-to-end. B. Perform integrated Change Control Monitor and control Project work Develop Project Management Plan Direct and Management Project Execution Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 Who authorizes a project? A.the mission of the project are documented as much as possible. Project Manager . The project boundary. Monitor and Control Risk D. C. B. D. D. Functional requirement Status report Customer Need Defect repair Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . C.C. C. B. D. Perform Integrated Change Control Direct and Manage Project Execution Monitor and Control Risks Monitor and Control Project Work Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 A business case is an input to which of the following processes? A. Project Team D. C. B. Collect Requirements Define Scope Develop Project Charter Develop Project Mangement Plan Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved? A. Buyer Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 48 Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process? A. B. C. B. D. C. Customer acceptance Statement of work Product report User Manual Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating? A. C. Parametric estimating Monte Carlo Analysis Top-down estimating Bottom-up estimating . Close Project or Phase Develop project charter. plan communications. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project clousure? A. B. B. Develop Human Resource Plan. D. Develop project charter. Create WBS.Exam E QUESTION 1 What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved? A. Functional requirement Status report Customer need Defect repair Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2 The project integration Management Knowledge area includes which of the following set of processes? A. Estimate Cost Identify Stakeholders. C. direct and manage project Execution Perform integrated Change Control Define Project Scope. D. develop Project Management Plan. D. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Estimating techniques can be applied to resources, effort, duration, and costs. The following are different methods of estimating you can use, depending on the situation. QUESTION 5 Which process involves identifying and documentating the logical relationships among activities? A. B. C. D. Schedule development Activity sequencing Create WBS Applying leads and lags Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Activity Sequencing process involves the identification and documentation of the logical relationships among schedule activities. Schedule activities can be logically sequenced with appropriate precedence relationships, leads and lags to enable a realistic, achievable project schedule. Sequencing may be performed using project management software and/or manual techniques. QUESTION 6 What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level? A. B. C. D. Finish-to –start planning Rolling wave planning Short term planning Dependency determination Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Rolling wave planning is a project management technique that involves progressive elaboration to add detail to the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) on an ongoing basis. At the beginning of the project, near term deliverables are decomposed into individual components (work packages) and defined at the greatest level of detail. Deliverables and schedule activities that will take place several reporting periods in the future are more broadly defined QUESTION 7 When would resource levelling be applied to a schedule model? A. B. C. D. Before constraints have been identified Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method After it has analyzed by the critical path method After critical activities have been removed from the critical path Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 Which is the duration of the project? Task Start A B C D E F G END A. 63 B. 65 Duration 0 6 4 7 10 8 9 11 0 Predecessor(s) NONE START START A A B D C and E F and G C. 66 D. 70 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities? A. B. C. D. Decomposition Project management software Applying leads and lags Expert judgement Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Leads and Lags: Leads and Lags are types of float. Let's take an example to understand this. In project management, there are four types of dependencies: Finish to Start (FS) - Later task does not start until the previous task is finished Finish to Finish (FF) - Later task does not finish until the previous task is finished Start to Start (SS) - Later task does not start until the previous task starts Start to Finish (SF) - Latter task does not finish before previous task starts Take the scenario of building two identical walls of the same house using the same material. Let's say, building the first wall is task A and building the second one is task B. The engineer wants to delay task B for two days. This is due to the fact that the material used for both A and B are a new type, so the engineer wants to learn from A and then apply if there is anything to B. Therefore, the two tasks A and B have a SS relationship. The time between the start dates of the two tasks can be defined as a lag (2 days in this case). If the relationship between task A and B was Finish to Start (FS), then the 'lead' can be illustrated as: Task B started prior to Task A with a 'lead'. Conclusion For a project manager, the concepts of float, lead, and lag make a lot of meaning and sense. These aspects of tasks are important in order to calculate project timeline variations and eventually the project completion time. QUESTION 10 What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a future project? A. B. C. D. Bottom-up estimating Analogous estimating Parametric estimating Three-point estimates Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Estimating techniques can be applied to resources, effort, duration, and costs. The following are different methods of estimating you can use, depending on the situation. QUESTION 11 Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and projects critical path schedule activities with activity date information? A. C. B. 0 3 5 10 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . C. D. B. Schedule Table Schedule network diagram Bar chart Milestone chart Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12 Which is the total float for the activity G? A. D. D. C. End to end Finish-to-end Satrt-to-end Start-to-start Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: FINISH -TO.TO .FINISH .START START-TO-START FINISH . B.QUESTION 13 Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method? A. . C. C. 90 days 100 days 110 days 660 days Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ed= (Mop + 4Mest + Mpes)/6 QUESTION 15 Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration? A.START -TO. B. D. B. The following are different methods of estimating you can use. Three-point-estimating Organizational process assets Analogous estimating Reserve analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Estimating techniques can be applied to resources. depending on the situation. if the most likely estimates for an activity to completes is 100 days. effort. what is the expected duration in which the activity will be completed? A. and costs. duration. the optimistic estimates is 60 days and the pessimistic estimates is 200 days.FINISH QUESTION 14 In three point estimating technique. D. C. Alternative analysis Bottom-up-estimating Resources breakdown structure Enterprise environmental factors Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B. C. D. B.QUESTION 16 What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparasion with other cost estimate techniques? A. D. Uses contingency reserves Less costly and time consuming Can be applied to segments of work More accurate Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17 Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources Process? A. For example. activity name Activity ID. constraints Activity name. C. what do activity attributes include? A. Finish-to-start Applying leads and lags Activity-on-node Dependency determination Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: When the work of Task 2 can start only after all the work of Task 1 is finished. assumptions Activity ID WBS ID. dependencies. Task 1 is the predecessor of Task 2. the tasks have a Finish-to-Start (FS) dependency. and Task 2 is the successor of Task 1. D. assumptions. you can start to print a manual only after it has been written. B. D. QUESTION 19 During the initial stages of the project. B. Activity name. activity description Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation . C. which of the following is a logical relationship for the activities? A. WBS ID.QUESTION 18 In the precedence diagramming method. Estimate Activity Durations Define Activities Develop Schedule Sequence Activities Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation . “What if Dad is eating the cookies as fast as you can make them?” asks her daughter. B. D. This technique is used to estimate impacts to the project schedule if potential scenarios occur. Rolling wave planning Dependency determination Schedule network template Applying leads and lags Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Rolling wave planning is the process of planning for a project in waves as the project becomes clearer and unfolds. She and her family are doing a What-If Scenario Analysis for this cookie baking project. B. the What-If Scenario Analysis is a tool and technique of the Develop Schedule process and the Control Schedule process. QUESTION 21 Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule? A. C. What-if scenario analysis? Benchmarking Variance analysis SWOT analysis Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: What-if scenario analysis Thinking through potential outcomes. It is useful to have more than one person’s perspective and ideas for this analysis. For example. “What if you burn the first batch?” asks her husband. They estimate that will extend the schedule an hour. so it’ll extend the schedule half an hour. QUESTION 22 Rolling wave planning is used as tool and technique in which of the following processes? A. both described in the fourth edition PMBOK®. B. D. C. D.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20 Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities Process? A. This technique simply repeatedly asks “what if” a certain event should happen. In summary. C. It is important in such projects to at least highlight in the initial plan the key milestones for the project. What-If Scenario Analysis simply estimates the effect that potential events may have. Katy has two hours to bake three dozen cookies. They estimate that he’ll become full at a certain point. It is important in such projects to at least highlight in the initial plan the key milestones for the project. 22 23 24 25 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24 Draw the precendence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. B. What is the total float on path BEG? . Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships. C. D. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.Explanation/Reference: Rolling wave planning is the process of planning for a project in waves as the project becomes clearer and unfolds. What is the critical path duration for the given schedule network? A. QUESTION 23 Draw the precendence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Earned Value (EV) or BCWP is the total cost of the work completed/performed as of a reproting date. C.PV QUESTION 26 What is the status of the project if the cost Performance index is 1. This is calculated as: EV or BCWP = Baselined Cost * % Complete Actual Schedule Variance SV = EV .2 $5 $44 $66 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Earned Value (EV) This is also referred to as Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP). B.25 and the schedule Performance Index is 0.75? A. 0 1 2 3 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25 If the schedule Variance (SV) = $55. D. C. B. C. and the Planned Value (PV) = $11. D. B. $0. What is the earned Value (EV)? A.A. Under budget and behind schedule Over budget and ahead of schedule Under budget and ahead of schedule Over budget and behind schedule Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: CPI = EV / AC . D. B. Organizational process assets Scope management plan Communication management plan Expert judgment . C.QUESTION 27 Which of the following will be required to perform simulation for schedule risk analysis? A. Activity list and activity attributes Schedule network diagram and duration estimates Schedule data and activity resource requirement Milestone list and resource breakdown structure Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28 The risk register contains which of the following? A. D. D. D. B. B. Identified risks and potential responses Identified risk and updates to scope baseline Risk management plan Risk related contract decisions Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 Which of the following is an input to identify risk? A. C. C. Monitor and control Risk Qualitative Risk Analysis Quantitative Risk Analysis Plan Risk Responses Correct Answer: A Section: (none) . The risks are identified in broad terms and posted. Expected monetary value analysis Sensitivity analysis Modeling and simulation Expert judgment Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Sensitivity Analysis Sensitivity analysis seeks to place a value on the effect of change of a single variable within a project by analyzing that effect on the project plan. and then the risks’ characteristics are detailed. D. D. C. B. C. It is the simplest form of risk analysis. In practice such an analysis is only done for those variables which have a high impact on cost. C. Identify Risk Monitor and control Risk Plan Risk Management Plan Risk Responses Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Brainstorming the Project Brainstorming is likely the most common approach to risk identification. QUESTION 31 Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique? A. It’s usually completed together as a project team to identify the risks within the project.Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30 Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project? A. time or economic return. QUESTION 32 Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes? A. D. The identified risks are categorized and will pass through qualitative and quantitative risk analysis later. B. B. Uncertainty and risk are reflected by defining a likely range of variation for each component of the original base case estimate. and to which the project is most sensitive. the technique of reserve analysis is a particular analytical technique that is used for the purposes of making a complete and thorough determination of the entirety of the specific and exact features and or in many cases relationships of all of the individual project related components that currently exist as part of the previously determined project management plan. QUESTION 33 What is risk Tolerance? A. C. the budget. C. Probability distribution Decision tree diagram Sensitivity analysis Modeling and simulation Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Decision trees are predictive models. any and all estimated costs. B. The purpose of the execution and implementation of a reserve analysis is the establishment of an estimated reserve that can be used for the purposes of establishing a schedule duration. as well as the complete funds assigned or allocated to the project. Probability distribution Decision tree diagram Sensitivity analysis Modeling and simulation Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation . used to graphically organize information about possible options. D. B. D. Ability to manage risks Willingness to accept varying degrees of risk Ability to mitigate risks Willingness to develop a risk management plan Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34 Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in: A. consequences and end value. C. Specifically speaking. QUESTION 35 Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in: A. D.Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reserve analysis: refers to a specific technique that is often implemented by the project management team and/or the project management team leader or leaders for the purposes of helping to better maintain and manage the projects that they may have under their guise at that respective time. B. C. B. reverse fishbone diagram The fishbone diagram identifies many possible causes for an effect or problem. QUESTION 36 An Ishiwaka of fishbone diagram is used for which of the following? A. Ignore low-priority risks Monitor periodically with other low-priority risks Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risks Increase the contingency reserve Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: .Explanation/Reference: Decision trees are predictive models. time–delay fishbone. Especially when a team’s thinking tends to fall into ruts. D. B. When to Use a Fishbone Diagram When identifying possible causes for a problem. Quantitative risk analysis Qualitative risk analysis Perform quality assurance Perform quality control Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 38 What should a project manager do with low-priority risks? A. CEDAC (cause–and–effect diagram with the addition of cards). Identifying causes of risks Identifying frequency of occurrence of risks Developing a resource plan Developing schedule Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Fishbone Diagram: Also Called: Cause–and–Effect Diagram. D. desired–result fishbone. used to graphically organize information about possible options. C. process fishbone. It can be used to structure a brainstorming session. consequences and end value. B. QUESTION 37 Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as tool and technique? A. Ishikawa Diagram Variations: cause enumeration diagram. C. It immediately sorts ideas into useful categories. D. Risk categorization SWOT analysis Risk register categorization Risk Probability and impact assessment Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Analyzing SWOT SWOT means strengths. Opportunities are things. new versions. D. SWOT analysis is the process of examining the project from each of the characteristic’s point of view. C. and external changes to our technology portfolio. B. After the meeting. a technology project may identify SWOT as Strengths The technology to be installed in the project has been installed by other large companies in our industry. For example. Threats The time to complete the training and simulation may overlap with product updates. D. For one of the risks. . weaknesses. B.QUESTION 39 Which of the following is a technique for identify Risks? A. Mitigate Accept Avoid Transfer Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41 The project team reviews identified risks and the risks response strategy. or events that allow an organization to differentiate itself from competitors and improve its standing in the marketplace . This is an example of which type of risk response strategy? A. the team realizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk. the decision is to allow the risk to occur. C. Weaknesses We have never installed this technology before. QUESTION 40 The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new risk has been identified. opportunities. Opportunities The new technology will allow us to reduce our cycle time for time-to-market on new products. and threats. conditions. C. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure When the project objectives have been met After resources have been released . B. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44 When is a project finished? A. C. C. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects. executing and controlling. B. B. C. D. D. B. D. staffing.This new risk is which of the following types of risk? A. Qualitative risk analysis Quantitative risk analysis Risk response planning Risk identification Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 43 What is the Project Porfolio Management? A. This new risk is which of the following types of risk? Primary Residual Tertiary Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 42 What is the first step in preparing the risk register? A. Management of all projects undertaken by a company. such as planning. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills. organizing. D. C. time. Time management Cost management Scope management Human resources management Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 What characteristic do project and operational work share in common? A. time. C. B. time.Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45 Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management knowledge area? A. cost Scope. Scope. Performed by systems Constrained by limited resources Repetitiveness Uniqueness Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 What are the components of the “Triple constraint”? A. cost Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B. cost Scope. D. D. management. D. C. requirements Resources. B. C. C. C.QUESTION 48 Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge? A. B. Recognized by every project manager Constantly evolving The sum of all knowledge related to project management A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 What do composite organizations involve? A. D. D. B. Functional and project managers Functional managers only Project managers only Technical manager and project managers Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles? A. B. D. Staffing level is highest at the start The stakeholders influence is highest at the start The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start The cost of changes is highest at the start Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . C. Increases Decreases Stays the same Has no bearing Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: .QUESTION 51 What Happens to a stakeholder´s project influence over time? A. D. B. Monotoring & Controlling Executing Planning Initiating . Develop project management plan Develop project charter Develop preliminary projects scope statement Scope planning Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project budgets? A. B. Project calendar Communication management plan Requested changes Communication requirement plan Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 Which process document the business needs of aproject and the new product. C.Exam F QUESTION 1 To which process is work performance information an input? A. B. D. Contract administration Direction and management of project execution Create WBS Qualitative risk analysis Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2 Which of the following is an output of the information Distribution Process? A. D. D. C. B. C. service or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements? A. D. B. C. B. Qualitative risks Identify risk Plan risk Management Quantitative risk analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6 Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process? A. C. B. D. D. B. Develop preliminary project scope satatement Close project or Phase Develop project charter Create WBS Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is know as what? A. C.Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5 What process determines which risks might affect the project? A. Project management information system Work performance information Work breakdown structure variance analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work? . C. D. A. B. D. B. C. B. Work performance information Project management information system (PMIS) Activity duration estimates Schedule network analysis Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process? A. D. D. C. C. When the project is initiated As an output of the scope verification process When the project is closing In the contract clousure process Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11 During what process would you obtain stakeholders formal acceptnce of the completed project scope? A. C. Performance Report WBS Requested changes Project scope statement Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10 When are deliverables accepted or not accepted? A. Quality Control Scope verification Scope control Close Project Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation . D. B. Templates.Low Authority and Low Interest.Keep happy. D. Risk register Risk Break Down Structure (RBS) Risk management plan Risk category Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14 Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition? A. D. Fully Engage Q4 – Low Authority and High Interest. issues . Generally speaking. there are people with various degrees of interest in projects who have similar authority in an organization. do not bore Q3 -. Communications to these constituents needs to be respectful of their time. C. Alternatives identifiction Scope decomposition Expert judgement Product analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13 What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risk arranged by risk category? A.High Authority and High Interest. forms and standads Change requests Stakeholder analysis Project Assumptions Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Stakeholder Analysis is done to prepare for the communication plan.Do not bore with excessive communications Q2 -. D. Inform. C. This is an optimal output from the Discovery team. Engage -.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12 The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique? A. B. Monitor -. Satisfy -. B.Often very helpful with detail of project.High Authority and Low Interest. The project may need services or support from individuals with: Q1 -. C. B. D. B. Can be any number Zero or positive Zero or negative Depends on the calendar Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16 Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table? A. D. B.END -B-D Begin A-B-C-D-E-END Begin A-B-D-E. C. Network reserve analysis Critical chain method Lead and lag adjustment Critical path method Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Begin A-C-D-E. QUESTION 15 what is the total float of the critical path? A. B. C. D.END -A-C-D Begin A-C-D-E-END-B-C Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17 Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account? A. C.All types need to be “properly” motivated to participate. C. D.historical information . D. The validity of duration estimates derived using this method depends on: . The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased The critical path will have ositive total float Contingency reserves are released for redeployment the project manager Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity duration Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19 Which estimating technique uses the actual cost of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the cost of the current project? A. and a PV of 80 work days. B.similarity of the historical projects . There is a cost under run There is a cost overrun May not meet deadline The project is 20 days behind schedule Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Which of the following can result from fast tracking? A.expert judgement QUESTION 20 Your project has an EV of 100 work-days. C. D. C. B. What exactly is Analogous Estimation? It is also known as "Top Down" Estimation. Analogous Parametric Bottom-up Top-down Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Analogous One of the estimation common used in project management is the "Analogous Estimation". B. It uses estimations from previous activities to estimate future durations. What should be your concern? A. an AC of 120 work days.QUESTION 18 Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. QUESTION 21 Which ilustrate the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members? A. * Informed: Those who are kept up-to-date on progress. Work Breakdown structure Network diagrams Staffing management plan Responsibility matrix Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM). D. * Accountable (also Approver or final Approving authority): The one ultimately accountable for the correct and thorough completion of the deliverable or task. C. an Accountable must sign off (Approve) on work that Responsible provides. and with whom there is two-way communication. RACI is an acronym derived from the four key responsibilities most typically used: * Responsible: Those who do the work to achieve the task. In other words. D. and with whom there is just one-way communication. although others can be delegated to assist in the work required. often only on completion of the task or deliverable. B. C. Qualitative Risk analysis . Risk identification B. There is typically one role with a participation type of Responsible. QUESTION 22 When can pre-assigmnet of the project team members occur? A. There must be only one Accountable specified for each task or deliverable * Consulted: Those whose opinions are sought. B. also known as RACI matrix or Linear Responsibility Chart (LRC). describes the participation by various roles in completing tasks or deliverables for a project or business process. It is especially useful in clarifying roles and responsibilities in cross-functional/departmental projects and processes. and the one to whom Responsible is accountable. Whe the project uses capital expenditures When the required staff can be acquired from outsides sources When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23 Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to asses the priority of identified risks? A. B. B.. D.C. C. Resource plan Project management plan Cost control plan Expected monetary value plan Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26 A contract cannot contain . Quantitative risk analysis Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24 In which process might you use risk reassesment as a tool and technique? A. D. Qualitative risk analysis Risk monitoring and control Monitoring and control project work Risk response planning Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25 A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan? A. Illegal activities Deadline for the completion of the work Penalities and fines for disclousure of intellectual rights All of the above Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: ... D. A. C. C. Risk management planning D. B. B. QUESTION 29 _________________ Provides detail about how the project scope may be changed A. Quality audits C. Project audits . C. This is an example of which selection tool? A. Weigthing System Screening system Seller rating system Expert judgement Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Screening System – Establish minimum performance requirement for one or more criteria. you reject one vendor because it does not have the manufacturing capability. D. C. D. D. Root cause analysis B. C.QUESTION 27 Which one of the following comes first in the project plan? A. Scope statement Quality plan WBS Development plan Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28 You are the project manager ofa project. During the process of selecting the seller. B. Control Scope system Verify Scope Scope Charter Scope management plan Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30 Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of aproble and take steps to prevent further occurences? A. B. and which would need to be addressed and or compensated for if there is the goal to alter the outcome. Project manager Sponsor Team lead Management Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 33 What is corrective action? A. An action to correct something in the project C. or unique underlying factors. C.D. ROMs are -50% to +50% accurate. B. and can in fact be the cause of a number of defects or risks. D. that may exist which is ultimately leading to this unfavorable result. B. or defect that may exist in and around the project or any specific or particular component of that project and attempt to determine through careful review the actual root causes.One single root cause can actually have a significant impact. ROMs are used very early in the project when there is limited information from which to develop an accurate estimate. C. Rough order of magnitude Budget estimate WBS estimate Definitive estimate Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Rough Order of Magnitude (ROM) Estimate A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is the least accurate estimate. D. QUESTION 32 Who has the responsability for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders? A. An action that brings future projects events into alignment with the project plan B. An action to prevent something in the project . Risk audits Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Root Cause Analysis The technique of root cause analysis refers to the act of analyzing a series of variances. or potentially even larger. QUESTION 31 Which of the following Provides the least accurate in estimating? A. risks. for help resolving the issues. Functional Balanced Matrix Projectized Strong Matrix Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B. are considered to be ____________ A. D. Project archives Index Sow Project History Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36 You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package.D. Two project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you. real or certain True. C. C. B. True. What type of organizational structure you are working in? A. C. D. You inmmediately set-up a meeting that includes the functional manager. Corrective action is not related to project Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34 Assumptions are factors that. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. B. real or uncertain Real Verbal Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 A complete set of indexed project records is called_____________ A. for planning purposes. D. D. D. C. you constantly hear rumours about a certain. You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding Confront the person inmediately Ignore the rumours Ass the romours along Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 38 Who is responsible for issuing the project charter? A. Integral External Outside Assigned Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 . What you should do? A. the seller is ____________to the projecct team. C. B.QUESTION 37 You have been with the organization. D. A. B. The project manager The project sponsor The team lead The nianagement Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 39 In the PMBOK. C. CAPM failing to live up to the CAPMCode. B. Budget At Completion (BAC) is generally plotted over time. Weekly etc. B. B. $-00. D.00 None of the above Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The BAC is the budget at completion (Total budget cost) which is $200. explained in next section. D. ) BAC is used to compute the Estimate At Completion ( EAC ). The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is the BAC? A. Project scope statement Project manager plan Project scheduling plan Project charter Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B.000 andd is expected to last 2 years.00 $50. C. Say like periods of reporting ( Monthly.00 Budget At Completion (BAC) Budget At Completion (BAC) is the total budget allocated to the project.00 $200. D. BAC is also used to compute the TCPI and TSPI BAC is calculated using the following formula BAC = Baselined Effort-hours * Hourly Rate QUESTION 42 A risk register is a part of: A. The project has a budget of $200. C. C.Project quality Management includes: A. Customer satisfaction Prevention over inspection Continuous improvement All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41 You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. payback periods. scorecard modelling. C. Project scope Project manager plan Project Scheduling plan Project charter Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44 Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams? A. B.QUESTION 43 A risk register is a part of: A. and internal rate of return are examples of ________________ A. Network diagrams provide a graphical view of activities and how they are related to one another. Integral parts of the SOW . C. Enterprise benefits measurements methods when selecting a project B. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) Gant Chart diagram (GCD) Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM) Arrow diagramming Method (ADM) Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Network Diagrams One of the more important topics to understand when planning project activities is creating network diagrams. Plan procurements Conduct Procurements Administer procurements Close procurements Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 Cost benefit analysis. C. B. B. D. D. D. QUESTION 45 Create procurement document is done in _____________________ A. Project charter Final deliverable Schedule QA activities are done Correct Answer: B . Project team Project manager QA manager Validation engineer Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 The end of the project comes after which of the following ? A. C. C. D. D. B. B.C. Project selection methods Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 Most changes requests are a result of ___________ A. who is ultimately responsible for the project quality? A. Value added change (Enhancements) Schedule constraints Regulatory constraints Improvement to the project scope Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Most change requests (CRs) are a result of Value added change (Ennhancements) QUESTION 48 Based on the PMBOK. D. C. Ways to ensure stakeholders commitment D. B. The product description defines the contracted work.Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 The product description of aproject can help to create procurement details. C. Which one of the following best describes product description? A. based on the requirements of the project customer The product description defines the contracted work The product description defines the requirements for the contract work All of the above Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B. D. C. Project Task Work packages sow None Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 Administrative closure should occur ___________ A. During the initiation stage C. This is an example of ____________ A. C. This method is safer for the project team. D. B. Alternative selection Assestment Alternative identification Product analysis Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2 What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure? A. your project team members have discovered aanother way to complete a portion of the project scope. At the end of each phase of the project At the end of the whole project At the end of 50% of the project At the end of the 100% of the project Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 In which phase project manager is assigned to a project? A. D. After approval of budget . D. During the planning stage B. C.Exam G QUESTION 1 During the planning phase of your project. B. B. but may cost more for the customer. After the project is proven feasible Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5 Who gives project acceptance? A. B. B. What are the two options ? A. D. Direct and indirect Tactical and Strategic Management and Project Only Tactical Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 .D. C. B. Collect requirements Define scope Integrated Change Control Monitor and Control Project Work Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 Make-or-buy decisions measure the cost of both options. D. Sponsor Customer Project manager Team Lead Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6 A requirement document is an input of ____________ process? A. C. D. C. Used to break down the project into manageable places Set and does not change throughout the project Needed as part of the project charter Needed as part of the project Scope statement Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation . B. B. C.Which of the following are the inputs od Define Scope? A. RACI Matrix SOW Staffing management plan CPI Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10 _____________Is the international organization that controls the standards for quality A. D. D. Requirements documents created in collect requirements process Project files from previous projects Project charter All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 Which document is best suited for tracking the assigment of all resources to sepecific tasks in a project A. C. D. D. B. C. B. C. ISO CAPM PMI ISCN Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11 The Work Break Down Structure is _________________ A. You are assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her your decisions. The begining of the project Just before the end of the project QA phase Execution Phase Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15 From who do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project clousure? .Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12 Is a project with a SPI of 1. A schedule performance Index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is aahead of schedule. B.8 units None Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The SPI= EV/PV. D. C. D. B.8. C. what you tell ? A. C. D. Projectized Strong Matrix Weak Matrix Functional Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14 At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail? A. B. Which type of organizational structure are you working? A. QUESTION 13 You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. The project is runnig ahead of the schedule The project is running behind of the schedule Resources assigned to the project cost 1. D. D. C. C.A. The customer The qualify director Project management office Project manager Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16 Which statement is true about Bottom-Up estimating? A. D. B. Information management Mantain scope statement Maintain charter Maintain closing document Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation . D. B. Project scope Management plan Schedule Management plan Cost management plan Project charter Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: All are part of Project Plan except Project charter QUESTION 18 Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the execution and control phase? A. B. B. C. C. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project Using the project characteristics (or parameters) in amathematical model to predict costs Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17 Which is no part of the project plan? A. B. D. Control chart. D. D. Parametric estimating Funding limit reconciliation Reserves analysis None of the above Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20 You are the project manager and now in the middle of creating RFP (Request for Proposal) RFTP (Request for proposal) is done in ______________________ A. C. C. Plan procurement Conduct procurement Administer Procurements Close procurements Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 21 Which of the following statements is true about Strategic Planning? A. C. Pareto chart. and statical sampling are examples of ____________________ A. B. Strategic Planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goals Strategic Planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizations goals Stratgic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22 The Ishikawa diagram. B.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19 Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate? A. Quality assurance . B. Acceptance Share Mitigate Transfer Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Acceptance is when NO change to the project is made for a risk. B. B. Qulity rules D. D. C. D. D. 35 5 15 75 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . CMM Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23 Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves? A. A contiengency can be set aside to offset the impact of the risk QUESTION 24 Which of the following does not provided by scope statement? A. Quality control C. C. B. Project justification Project product Project manager authority Project objective Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25 What is acommunication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5 to 10? A. C. B. What type of estimation method are you using? A.Delta= n*(n-1)/2 . D. B. Initiation Process Project closer Process Estimation Process Closing Process Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 27 You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. Project Manager B. Has ended before its started objective Still cunning but missing resources Will be closed due to lack of resources None of the above Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28 When you are developing the estimates for the project. you choose to add the individuals estimates for the activities that comprise each phase. This means that your project ________________ A. D. D. No of communications channels n*(n-1)/2 QUESTION 26 Collect requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase ans uses the outputs of the ________________ A. C. B. C. Parametric estimating Bottom-up estimating Top-Down estimating Analogous estimating Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan? A. C. Team Leader .n1(n1-1)/2 where n= Individuals and n1= New individuals. Project Team Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30 Who has responsibility for Plan Quality? A. D.C. C. B. C. Project sponsor Project team Project manager Senior management Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . B. B. D. D. C. Project manager QA manager Project Planner Team Lead Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31 Assumptions in the project plan should be______________ A. Written down Understandable Not Understandable No need to write Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32 Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project? A. Sponsor D. project management plan Contract documentation Deliverables WBS Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 Which of the following is conflict resolution techniques? A. D. B.QUESTION 33 Which of the following statement is true about project charter? A. Compromise Smoothing Formal Coercive Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The rest are forms of leadership power exept Smoothing QUESTION 36 ___________________ Is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the most current information and revisting future activities when they near their starting dates A. B. C. C. Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholders Announces who is the project enginner Tells the newspapers and media when the project will end Announces who is the project sponsor Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Project Charter: Formally authorizes the project. B. Rolling wave planning Progresive elaboration Milestone detail planning Expert judgemnet . D. C. D. C. and gives high-level definition of the project and its deliverables QUESTION 34 Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process? A. B. assign the project manager. D. Updating Risk register Determining risk roles and responsabilities Identifying risk categories Developing a risk management plan Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Updating Risk register first happens in Identify Risk Phase. which of the following is not your responsability? . Closes all activities pertaning to a specific project Collect user acceptances of the project product or service Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services All of the above Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 You are the project manager of a project. C. B. and Developing a risk management plan are part of Plan Risk Management QUESTION 38 PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ___________ relationship A. Identifying risk categories. Buyer or seller Vendor or Seller Purchasing Sellino Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 39 Administrative closure is the process that _____________ A. Determining risk roles and responsabilities.Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 37 Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management? A. C. D. B. C. D. D. B. B. This comes under Social Need QUESTION 43 Which one of the following is not an output of contract clousure? A. B. D. Social need Physical need Safety and security Security Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: As anew to project he is most likely looking for acceptance and friendship. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs. C. you hire a new employee and assigns him to your project team. D. D. Close contracts Lessons learned documentation deliverable acceptance Scope statement Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation . D. what needs level he most likely is at? A. C. C. B. B.A. C. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the bussiness strategy The project sponsor leads the initiatives The project manager is an expert in managing resources Team members like project manager Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 42 You are a project manager of aproject and as part of the team acquisition process. Quality in the organization Acquiring HR Resources for the project team Overall responsability for risk on the project All of the above Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Senior manager is responsible for Quality in the organization QUESTION 41 Project sucess can be achieved only if: A. C. D. B. D. International Organization for Standardization International Standardized Organization Standardized Organization Indiana Standardized Organization Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 The project Baseline is _________________ A. D. C.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44 The intent of the risk management process group is to _____________ A. Compromise B. B. Foimal . C. B. Original plans plus the approved changes Important in the project initiation plans Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization Original plans and the approved major changes Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 Which of the following is NOT a form a leadership power? A. Smoothing C. Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project Announce project risks Not consider risks affecting the company Announce project deliverables Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The risk management process groupserves as the road map used to reduce its impact on the project QUESTION 45 ISO satands for ____________________ A. Procurement Management Planning Management Scope Management Control Management Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 You are the project manager of a project. save the old version No need to save the old version Scrap the old version Old version is not required Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: All version you need to keep in version control System QUESTION 50 Which of the following subsidiary plan conatains the quality objectives for the project? A. C. C. C. B. B. D. B. D. or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work A. Coercive Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 48 _____________________ Is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products. If there are approved changes to the original Scope. services. D.D. Quality baseline Quality management plan Process improvement plan QA checklist Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . what you do with the old original scope? A. D. B. D. QUESTION 4 How many communication channels will be required in aproject in which 5 individuals are participating? . a service. is a tool used to define and group a project's discrete work packages in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope of the project. A WBS also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimating and control along with providing guidance for schedule development and control. Formal Accepatance WBS template SOW acceptance Rework Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the ______________________ A. data.Exam H QUESTION 1 Function of the ________________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders A. or any combination. SOW WBS Project charter Project Scope Satatement Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A work breakdown structure (WBS) in project management and systems engineering. B. C. Sponsor Project manager Team Lead Management Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2 Which of the following is an output of verify scope? A. Additionally the WBS is a dynamic tool and can be revised and updated as needed by the project manager. C. D. C. B. A work breakdown structure element may be a product. B. very high is only 1.2) may mean that the plan was too conservative. > 1 means that the cost of completing the work is less than planned (good or sometimes bad). The project is falling behind The project is using fewer resources than anticipated The project is consumed more resources than anticipated The project is running ahead of schedule Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: If your cost performance index is above 1. C. D.0. Having a CPI that is very high (in some cases. Management or the customer may be upset with the planners as an overly conservative baseline ties up available funds for other purposes. Psk Breakdown structure WBS Organizational Breakdown structure Resource Breakdown structure Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6 If a project with CPI of 0. as the CPI is being measured against a poor baseline.A. and thus a very high number may in fact not be good. it indicates that you have cost that are less the estimated CPI = EV/AC (Earned Value/Actual Cost) CPI greater than 1 is good (under budget): < 1 means that the cost of completing the work is higher than planned (bad). B. = 1 means that the cost of completing the work is right on plan (good). and the baseline is also used for manpower planning QUESTION 7 Which monitoring or controling activities would not result in preventive action being applied? . 10 12 4 5 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: n*(n-1)/2 QUESTION 5 Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking cost of resources? A. C.8 what you tell? A. B. C. D. D. Achievement It motivates based on the need to achieve or succeed. Strategic Planning sow WBS Project Plan Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members that exceed expectations. C. Affiliation Affiliation is mainly relationship based and people wants to develop with others. Control Scope Manage project Team Quality control Manage Scope Statement Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Scope schedule and Control costs can all result in corrective action. In the latest information era. 2. D. According to Achievement Theory. people/employees are motivated mainly by three things. but Not preventive action. Expectany Theory is: Employees who believe their efforts will lead to effective performance and who expectg to be rewarded for their accomplishments remian productive as rewards meet their expectation. . C. Power This is drived based on influencing others and pride on it. B. A project team member that is motivated by chance to earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory A. Hierarchy of needs Expectancy theory Achievement theory All of the above Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The team member is working hard because he expects to be rewarded so it is Expectancy Theory.A. Achievement Theory: It is one of the motivation theories used for the developing project team. B. B. 3. QUESTION 8 _______________ Is the road map for the execution of the project A. 1. D. D. people/employees need to be motivated beyond food & money as modern era overcome the starvation. C. C. D. B. QUESTION 12 Which documents formally authorizes a project? A. B. Has become part of the business processes has been accepted by the sponsor and the client Will be closed due to lack of resources None of the above . Output of project scope initiation is: Project Charter PM assigned Constraints and Assumptions. B. D. The WBS Project scope The project charter Project closing documnet Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13 Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project _______________ A. Project management plan Contract documentation Deliverables All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11 The main purpose of project initiation is to ________________ A. C.QUESTION 10 Which of the following are input of close project process? A. B. C. C. Assign the project manager to the project Formally describes the project Produce the project charter Formally authorize the project Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Output of project initiation is Formally authorize the project. D. D. and the receiver needs to ensure that the senser received the acknowledgement. D. The sender-receiver model The sender-receiver model is the simplest communication model and underpins most others. Before any useful outcome can be achieved from the communication. the receiver has to accurately understand the sender’s idea! This means the message has to be effective in the receiver’s space. Project manager Sender Project coordinator Sponsor Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receip and message is understood. The sender has an idea or concept he/she wants the receiver to appreciate. B. C. C. B.Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 14 Main purpose of project initiation is ______________ A. if the message does not engage the receiver. the sender is wasting his/ her time . Assign project manager Formally describes project Do WBS Formally authorize the project Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15 Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood A. D. Purchase order Fixed Price Time and material Cost plus incentive fee Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: What is Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)? Pays all cost an agreed upon fee plus a bonus for beating the performance objective stated in the contract. Once this loop has been closed both people have a common understanding of the idea. D. eg. written English. spoken French or a drawn diagram. QUESTION 17 With 5 participant how many channels are required? A. telephone. language differences) • Decode: The translation of the message by the receiver from the medium into their thoughts. Effective communication requires both the sender and the receiver to be engaged. it helps if everyone has the same basic understanding of the issue or idea in dispute. culture. 10 . B.The elements in this model are: • Encode: To translate thoughts or ideas into a form of language that can be understood by the receiver. C. The sender needs to check that the ‘message’ has been received and validate the feedback QUESTION 16 _________________ Is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined A. but if there is to be a disagreement. This does not require agreement or concurrence. A single communication is complete once the feedback-message has been decoded by the sender and checked for accuracy against the original idea. • Message: What is sent: the output of encoding • Medium: The method used for sending the message (face-to-face. email) • Noise: Something that interferes with the sending or understanding of the message (distance. 20 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Communication Channels = (n)(n-1)/2. Project is running ahead of the schedule Project is running behind of the schedule Resources assigned to the project cost 1. B. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimate required resources and duration B. D. B. 8 D. Verbal Cosnsistent Personal Formal Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19 You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you tell when you are done? A.80 what you tell?? A. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep the WBS balanced C. 5 C. C. D.B. n= Numero de participantes.8 units None Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation . C. QUESTION 18 Acceptance of the product should be ___________ A. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one DAY D. keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one WEEK Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20 If a project with a SPI of 0. It is part of the Earned Value Management Techniques. C. B. D.Explanation/Reference: SPI stands for Schedule Performance Index. control scope . for Schedule performance index (SPI). B. It is a very powerful measure of the amount of work actually completed on a project. The project is consumed fewer resources than anticipated The project is using fewer resources than anticipated The project is falling behind The project is running ahead of schedule Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22 What are the inputs for initiation process? A. Verify scope Collect Requirements Control Scope All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: There are following processes which are part of Project scope management: Collect Requirements. Product description and Startegic Plan Selection Criteria Historical Information All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23 Which of the following are parts of project scope management? A. D.2 what you tell? A. To calculate SPI for any project. D. get the Planned Value and the Earned Value. QUESTION 21 If aproject with a CPI of 1. verify scope. C. create WBS. and less than 1 is bad ( behind schedule). B. The formula for SPI is SPI = EV / PV As a rule of thumb. Define scope. C. EV/PV greater than 1 is good (ahead of schedule). Accelerated depreciation Sum of year depreciation . Risk management . *This is often standardised to a 5 year life and equates to 20% depreciation per annum Double-declining balance . Executive communication B. B. $600 $1200 $3000 Zero Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item. what is the amount that can be written off each year?? A. where . Each year after that the deduction is 40% less than the previous year.). divided by number of time periods. At the end of the 5 years the expected worth of the equipment is $2000.QUESTION 24 Project scope is________________ A. C. The total of one to five is fifteen (The sum-of-the-years’-digits are: 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1.Lets say the life of an object is five years. C. D. minus the salvage price of the item. The second year’s numerator is the next highest digit – in this case – 4/15 – and so on. B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature and function Part of the project charter Part of sow Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature and function or The features and functions that are to be included in aproduct or service QUESTION 25 You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600 Depreciation is technique used to compute the estimated value of any object after few years.twice the amount of straight line. Using straight-line depreciation.Disposal value = the likely sale price at the end of the assets useful life.In the first year there is a higher deduction in the value . or 15. The numerator of the fraction for the first year is the highest digit – in this case 5/15. Straight line depreciation: The same amount is deprecated (reduced) from the cost each year The calculation of ‘straight line’ depreciation is very simple: ($purchase price – $disposal value)/years. D.Years = the expected life of the asset (actual or set by legislation*) . QUESTION 26 Which of the following plans is not done during the writting of a project plan?? A. Begining Closing Controlling Executing Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28 Which of the following is not part of project scope management? A. Verify scope Collect requirements Create WBS None of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 You are the project manager for the software Project. B. . C. C. This is an example of which of the following? A. D. Quality Management D. D. Scope statement Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Executive communication may be a part of your communication process but not in project plan QUESTION 27 Stakeholders influence is greatest at the __________ of the project A. D. B. This project must be completed within one year. Schedule Assumption Constraint Planning Process Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A project must be completed by a deadline is dealing with time constraints. C.C. B. CPF CPFF CPIF All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The Advantages on Cost Reimbursable Contract are: Simpler contract statement of work usually requires less work to work the scope that fixed price Generally lower cost than fixed price because the seller does not have add as much for risk. B. C. D. D. and controlling closing the project QUESTION 31 Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams ? A. C. B. monitoring. Everyone in the communication plan . D.QUESTION 30 The project management plan: A. Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated Steps needed to complete a project task Prepared at the begining and fixed throughout the execution of the project Includes project charter Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The project management plan provides the overall plan for executing. C. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also referred to as Activity-on-Node (AON) diagramming method QUESTION 32 What are commons types of cost-reimbursable contracts? A. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) Gantt Chart Diagram (GCD) Dependency diagrams methods (DDM) Arrow diagramming method (ADM) Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Arrow diagramming method(ADM) is also referred to as Activity-on-Arrow (AOA) diagramming method. B. QUESTION 33 Information should be communicated to ________________ A. C. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation . C. The project charter B. B. Team lead Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34 You are a project manager of a project.B. Your project just went into integration mode. D. Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the project Confront the other project manager inmediately Mail to the PM headquarters Ignore IT Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36 Which document formally authorizes the project? A. B. D. D. C. Everyone on the team C. Sponsor D. Rather this CAPM is constructing a WBS that does not include all tasks necessary to get the project done. This means that your project _______________ A. What you should do? A. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client Will be closed due to lack of resources Resources are being assigned other areas of the bussiness None of the above Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all of the costs involved with an upcoming project. B. Bad practice Unprofessional practice Bad for the buyer and seller All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 38 In PMBOK the buyer is ______________ to the project team A. Internal External Outside Assigned Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Internal to the project team QUESTION 39 Define scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 37 You are the project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is _____________ A. B. D. B. D. C. more manageable components to _______________________ A. D. Improve the accurancy of cost time and resource estimates Define a baseline for performance measurement and control Facilitate clear responsibility assigments All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 Your company create software products. and introducing a new product. C. To determine the characteristics and features of the new product line. you will have to perform ___________ . C. D. Control Schedule B. Progressive Elaboration means that over time we elaborate the work packages in greater detail. Which Process have you left out?? A. Create WBS Verify Scope Value analysis Control Scope Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Create WBS is the process that follows collect Requirement and Define Scope QUESTION 42 Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project? A. Collect requirements Develop the project charter Develop the project statement of work Develop project closing document Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 43 You are the project manager of a project. Progressive elaboration Stakeholders review Plan project life cycle Fast backing Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The process of determining the characteristics and featuresof the product of the project is called Progressive elaboration.A. You have just completed the collect Requirement and Define Scope. B. C. more elaborated detail for the work packages as they now appear on the horizon QUESTION 41 You are the project manager of a project. Create WBS C. Progressive elaboration is carried out via steps in detailed fashion. Sequence activities . D. B. C. activity resources estimating and Estimate Activity Durations processes. You have just complete the Define Activities. What should you do next? A. Progressive Elaboration refers to the fact that as the weeks and months pass we have planned to provide that missing. B. D. C. QUESTION 44 Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs? A. C. What should you do next? A. Create WBS Control scope Value analysis Verify scope Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Earn Value Analysis Scope Baseline Risk Register Human resources plan Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Earn Value Analysis is used during the execution of the project to determine resource consumption versus planned QUESTION 45 Which of the following is NOT input of identify Risks? A.D. D. C. B. Project Charter Stakeholder Register Risk Management plan Activity Cost Estimates Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 As a project manager of a project. B. D. B. D. C. Operations Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The PMBOK places Sequence activities between Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources. You have just completed the Collect Requirement and define scope. Monitor implementation of approved changes Validate deliverables Staff. C. Historical information WBS Bussiness Plan RBS Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 48 Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process? A. D.6 what you tell? A. B. Of the following which is the best source of information for your project? A. The contract must have ____________ A. The project is consumming fewer resources than anticipated Is bad project The project is falling behind The project is running ahead of schedule . D. train. and manage the project team Manage risks and implemant risk responses Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer. B. B. C. C. B. D. Offer and consideration Start date and acceptance of start date Signatures and stamp of a notary public Signatures of all stakeholders Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 If a project with a CPI of 1.QUESTION 47 If you are the project manager for a project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. D. C. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . D. B. a milestone may also signify an important decision or the derivation of a critical piece of information.Exam I QUESTION 1 Which is a most risky phase of a project? A. Project charter and PM assigned Constraints Assumptions All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 Which process group is for detailed resource assigments and responsabilities? . In this sense. But milestones are rather to be put before the end of a phase so that corrective actions in case of problems can still be met and the deliverable can be completed in time. C. B. C. D. At the project conclusion At key milestones When risk event occur When sponsor want Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Milestone is an event that receives special attention. QUESTION 3 What are the outputs of initiation process? A. B. In addition to signaling the completion of a key deliverable. Planning Closing Execution Control Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2 A lesson learned session should be held at what point in a project? A. which outlines or affects the future of a project. D. It is often falsely put at the end of a stage to mark the completion of a work package or phase. a milestone not only signifies distance traveled (key stages in a project) but also indicates direction of travel since key decisions made at milestones may alter the route through the project plan. C. Client says budgets should no cost more than $12 millions. QUESTION 6 You are the project manager for a project. C. Budget constraint are anothe element of the classic Triple constraint (Cost. Internationalization Budget constraints Management constraints Quality constraints Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: This is an example of Budget constraints. C. Scope). Budget limit the project teams ability to obtain resources and might potentially limit the scope of the project. The budgets must not exceed $12 millions. and reporting relationships to individuals groups. because the budget does not support it. schedule. B. This is an example of which of the following? A. documenting. QUESTION 5 You are the project manager for a project. the final budget must be in U. Because of the global concerns. B.This is an example of assumptions because estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (Wooden Coated) QUESTION 7 When you are developing the estimates for project. responsabilities. Project is a global project. C.A. identifying. D. Some peoples are working from US and some are from India. Human resources management plan Project charter Aplan Project management plan Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Develop Human Resource Plan: Planning. This is an example of which of the following? A. D. B. dollars. You have done project cost and time estimates. you choose in amathematical model to predict estimate. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. D. and assigning project roles.S. told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (Wooden Coated). Risk Assumption Constraints Budget Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: A and C are incorrect because the scenario did NOT describes a risk or constraint. What type of estimation method are you using? . For example Component X cannot be part of this project. though widely used. B. as in price per square foot. B. We see this method commonly used in construction. 45 10 30 20 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) . Although this estimate is based on expert judgment. or in software development. C.A. Bottom-up Bottom-up estimating is done when individual project tasks or work packages are cost estimated. Parametric estimating also requires that an up-to-date and populous historical database exists that includes details and costs on many previous projects. The logic behind this estimate is that if this project is twice as big as the previous project. specifications. C. in fact. Parametric estimating is still not significantly detailed but is an excellent tool when quick budget or planning numbers are available. This is the most sophisticated estimating method of the three methods and is the only one that should be considered legally binding. Transfer Acceptances Mitigation Contingency Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: It means transfer the risk to a third party QUESTION 9 How many communication channels exits in a team of 10 members? A. QUESTION 8 Purchasing insurance is an example of _________________ A. D. it is likely to cost twice as much. To complete a bottom-up project estimate. C. and then the sums of all tasks are averaged to get a project total. is simply a best-guess. you need to have a fully developed and detailed scope of work. D. This method. it is also inaccurate unless projects are. the same Parametric Parametric estimating is a method that uses statistical relationships between historical data and as many other variables as possible. as in cost per line of code written. The scope of work will include detailed drawings. This is one of the most common estimating tools because it uses the actual costs of a previous project as the basis for cost estimating the new project. Parametric estimating Bottom-up estimating Top-down estimating Analogous estimating Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Analogous Analogous estimating is also referred to as top-down estimating. B. vendor quotes and any other details necessary to complete an accurate estimate. D. C. (You don’t have enough information yet to complete all the information presented here. B. .Explanation Explanation/Reference: (N)(N-1)/2 QUESTION 10 The primary output of the project closing process _______________________ A. and start-to-finish)? A. To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing Lesson learned To get customer and sponsor approval Milestone list Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11 Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (Finish-to-start. PDM diagrams are also referred to as activityon-node (AON) diagrams because the nodes contain the activity duration information. C. start-to-start. B. ➤ Start-to-start—The start of the successor activity depends on the start of the predecessor activity. To represent that activity B is dependent on activity A. representing activities.) In fact. nodes generally contain several pieces of information. connected by arrows that represent dependencies. D. simply draw an arrow from A to B. activity A must be complete before activity B starts). ➤ Finish-to-finish—The completion of the successor activity depends on the completion of the predecessor activity. finish-to-finsih. You’ll fill in the duration information during activity duration estimating. D. including: ➤Early start—The earliest date the activity can start ➤ Duration—The duration of the activity ➤ Early finish—The earliest date the activity can finish ➤ Late start—The latest date the activity can start ➤ Late finish—The latest date the activity can finish ➤ Slack—Difference between the early start and the late start dates You can represent four types of dependencies with a PDM diagram: ➤ Finish-to-start (the most common dependency type)—The successor activity’s start depends on the completions of the successor activity. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM) Gant Chart Diagram (GCD) Dependencie Diagram Method (DDM) Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM) Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Precedence Diagramming Method The PDM shows nodes. (in other words. e. The purpose of dummy activities is simply to allow you to depict dependencies. The arrows show how some activities are dependent on other activities.. For example. Terminal elements and summary elements comprise the work breakdown structure of the project.➤ Start-to-finish—The completion of the successor activity depends on the start of the predecessor activity The PDM diagram in Figure shows eight activities. Gantt chart GCD is a type of bar chart. To show this dual dependency. developed by Henry Gantt. activity B cannot start until activities A and C are complete. For this reason. The arrow has a dotted line. which means the activity has no duration and is called a dummy activity. except that all dependencies are finish-to-start. the ADM diagram is also called the activity-onarrow (AOA) diagram. Figure shows an example of an ADM diagram. precedence network) relationships between activities . Also. labeled A–H. that illustrates a project schedule. Some Gantt charts also show the dependency (i. you draw an arrow from A to B and another arrow from C to B. but there is another type of activity in ADM diagrams. Gantt charts illustrate the start and finish dates of the terminal elements and summary elements of a project. durations are generally depicted on the arrows. Arrow Diagramming Method The arrow diagramming method (ADM) is similar to the PDM. Look at the dependency between node 3 and node 2. Dependencies are noted in a similar fashion to the PDM diagram. QUESTION 14 The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called ________________ A. Final deliverables are defined in the closing phase. Monitoring and controlling . D. B. The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13 In which phase you define the final deliverable? A. Control Schedule C. Project time management B. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified feature an function B. Closing Execution Planning Initiation Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Project will close after the final deliverable. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assign resources to the tasks D.QUESTION 12 Which of the following best describes project scope? A. The description of the project deliverables C. C. All of the above Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15 Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contrator team in a fourth country. B. D. This process is know as ___________________ A. Extranet-based electronic document repository Manual filing system War loom Verbal Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16 Conformance to specifications document is one description of ____________________ A. C. B. C.D. Verify Scope Quality Assurance Quality control Quality Measurement Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Quality Scope Integration Procurement Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Quality on a project means that you are conforming to a standard that is set before you start the project QUESTION 17 Customer formally accepts the deliverable of each project phase. D. D. B. C. What tool would optimize communication? A. paybacks periods. QUESTION 19 You are the project manager of a project and the project is aminth into the executing phase. Which leadership style you follow for best outcome? A. Coaching is best for this example. C. D. Supporting Delegating Coaching Directing Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Situational leadership style is coaching. There are some cliques forming among the team members. B. D.QUESTION 18 ________________ Is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined. A. and internal rate of return are examples of: A. The leadership styles includes: Directing: Telling others what to do Facilitating: Coordinating the input of others Coaching: Instructing others Supporting: Providing assistance along the way Autocratic: Making decisions without input Laissez Faire: Has a hands-off policy and the team is entirely self-led regarding the decision making process Consultative: Inviting ideas from others Consensus: Problem solving in group with decision making based on group agreement QUESTION 20 Cost benefit analysis. C. D. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined. score card modelling. C. B. Enterprise benefits measurements methods when selecting a project Integarl parts of the SOW Ways to ensure stakeholders commitment Project selection methods Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation . B. Cost plus incentive fee Fixed price Time and material None Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is NOT well defined. Explanation/Reference: Projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or bussines need. WBS Template . D. C. D. D. PBS B. 45 12 10 5 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: N0 Communication Channel = N*(N-1)/2. N= Numero de individuos QUESTION 23 Market conditions are part of ___________________ A. QUESTION 21 When the version control numbers should change? A. C. Any change occurs Major changes are made Any change related to scope only Only if minor changes are made Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22 For 10 individuals how many communication channels exists? A. C. B. B. Enterprise environmental factors Project management concerns Organizational process assets Cost factor Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Market conditions will influence all factors of procurement QUESTION 24 Which of the following is an output of Define Scope? A. Project scope statement C. B. D. as well as the methods of acceptance and scope control.D. B. B. D. A project scope statement includes: · · · · · · · · · · · · · · Project and product objectives Product or service requirements and characteristics Product acceptance criteria Project boundaries Project requirements and deliverables Project constraints Project assumptions Initial project organization Initial defined risks Schedule milestones Initial WBS Order of magnitude cost estimate Project configuration management requirements Approval requirements QUESTION 25 The buyer and seller are bound by the ______________ A. Contract Responsabilities WBS Identification Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26 Which is not the tool and techniques used in Contract Administration: A. Constraints Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The project scope statement is the definition of the project—what needs to be accomplished. C. The Develop Preliminary Project Scope Statement process addresses and documents the characteristics and boundaries of the project and its associated products and services. C. Contract change control System Contract negotiation Payment System Performance rating Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation . A. Cost management plan Cost baseline Cost estimate Chart of accounts Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28 A _________________ Is a series of actions bringing about a result. B. B. Parametric Modelling . Analogous estimating B. C. B. C. D. C. Develop Project Management Plan process Control Cost Process Determine Budgets Process Estimate Cost Process Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Ther is no separate process in the Project cost estimation Knowledge area to develop a cost management plan. Life-cycle costing C. Project plan Process Schedule Flowchart Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 A project Cost Mangement plan is created as a part of: A. D. It is developed in Develop Project Management Plan process QUESTION 30 _____________________ Involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model A. D.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 27 Which describes how cost variances will be managed? A. it is likely to cost twice as much. vendor quotes and any other details necessary to complete an accurate estimate. in fact. Bottom Up estimating Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Parametric Modelling. specifications. C. is simply a best-guess. B. you need to have a fully developed and detailed scope of work. C. Bottom-up Bottom-up estimating is done when individual project tasks or work packages are cost estimated. We see this method commonly used in construction. Although this estimate is based on expert judgment. Generally Accurate Generally less accurate Bottom-Up estimating None Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation . To complete a bottom-up project estimate.D. D. Develop Schedule Estimate Activity Durations Estimate Activity resources Sequence Activities Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32 Analogous Estimate Cost is ____________________ A. This is the most sophisticated estimating method of the three methods and is the only one that should be considered legally binding. and then the sums of all tasks are averaged to get a project total. as in price per square foot. D. Parametric estimating is still not significantly detailed but is an excellent tool when quick budget or planning numbers are available. This is one of the most common estimating tools because it uses the actual costs of a previous project as the basis for cost estimating the new project. This method. QUESTION 31 Adjusting Leads and Lags is atechnique for: A. as in cost per line of code written. or in software development. though widely used. The scope of work will include detailed drawings. B. it is also inaccurate unless projects are. the same Parametric Parametric estimating is a method that uses statistical relationships between historical data and as many other variables as possible. The logic behind this estimate is that if this project is twice as big as the previous project. Parametric estimating also requires that an up-to-date and populous historical database exists that includes details and costs on many previous projects. Using a mathematical model example (Price per square foot) Analogous Analogous estimating is also referred to as top-down estimating. B.5 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: mean= (20+30+40)/3 QUESTION 34 what is the mean of PMBOK A. 30. Project Manager Book Project manager Body of Knowledge Project Manager Book of knowledge None of above Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process? A. D. Estimate costs . the low. B. Analogous Estimate Cost Uses Expert Judgement.0 22.0 27. QUESTION 33 With triangular distribution. respectively.Explanation/Reference: Analogous Estimate Cost is Generally less accurate. D. A. C. Resource planning B. The mean is _________________ A. C.5 25. likely and high values are 20. It is useful in early phases of the project. Formal acceptance WBS template SOW Acceptance Rework Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36 What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities. It is used when refernce projects are similar. D. C. 30 and 40. B. Planning. In project management. QUESTION 37 Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report? A. identifying. . documenting. B. this tool is used in Quality Management & Risk Management processes. C. D. and reporting realtionships to individuals groups. and assigning projects roles. Determine Budget D. Gantt Chart Milestone Chart Fishbone Diagram Network diagram Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Fishbone diagrams otherwise called as Ishikawa diagrams (or cause-and-effect diagrams) are diagrams that show the causes of a certain event. Control Costs Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Resource planning. responsabilities.C. Likely events Complex activities Complex schedules Uncertain occurrences. Flexible Include the Project manager Appropriate authority All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: CCB should have all the mentionated characteristics Change Control Board Change control board can be referred to as a board or committee or group of stakeholder’s.QUESTION 38 A change control Board should be ___________? A. D. C. Role clearly defined. Approve or reject changes. D. C. Consists of stakeholder’s. B. QUESTION 39 Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of _______________ which will adversely affect project objectives. B. Contract negotiation Weighting system Payment system Screening system Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . A. D. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source selection? A. B. C. All change requests should go through it. Decisions are often accepted and considered final. that analyze and review the change requests that have been forwarded by the project management team and accordingly take decision whether the change request needs to be accepted or rejected. except for the cases where price is the only determining factor. as they allow you to rank order the proposals to determine the sequence of negotiations. Weighting systems are useful when you have multiple vendors to choose from. There is an example of a weighted scoring system in Chapter 3. or the vendor simply failed to respond to all the requirements laid out in the contract or in the SOW. then multiply this by the weight of each criteria factor to come up with total scores for each vendor. At a minimum. If they don’t.The Source Selection process uses several tools and techniques to select the final vendor. Independent Estimates Your procurement department might conduct an independent estimate of the costs of the proposal and use this to compare to the vendor prices. B. was not detailed enough to allow the vendor to come up with an accurate cost. they’re eliminated from the selection process. or the terms of the contract. responsibilities. Weighting systems and screening systems are often used in combination to come up with a selection. and the overall approach to the project. These systems are commonly used to evaluate vendor proposals. D. Negotiation skills are put into practice here as the details of the contract are ironed out between the parties. D. Contract Negotiation In contract negotiation. Screening Systems Screening systems use predetermined performance criteria to screen out vendors. C. both parties come to an agreement regarding the contract terms. B. Perhaps your project requires board-certified engineers. C. One of the screening criteria would be that vendors propose project team members who are board-certified engineers. one of two things is happening: The SOW. If there are large differences between the independent estimate and the proposed vendor cost. This is usually a complicated process. Statistically dependent Variance distributed Statistically independent Deterministic . Weighting Systems Weighting systems assign numerical weights to evaluation criteria. regulations or laws that apply. Project Scope Project Verification Project Control Product Scope Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 42 A major assumption of all network schedulling methods is that the activity duration must be ________________ A. QUESTION 41 Which of the following is ensuring that aall features and functions are included in a product or service A. Let’s examine each of the tools and techniques of this process. contract language should include price. B.Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 43 Which of the following is not part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget? A. B. Functional Weak matrix Projectized Dedicated Project team Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45 Which of the following is not part of the Earned Value calculations? A. Management Contingency Reserve Management Overheads Project management Planing Activity Cost Contingency Reserve Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The diference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project competion is Mnagement Contingency Reserve Management Contingency Reserve is NOT part of aproject Baseline. B. D. C. QUESTION 44 In an optimal organization structure. the project manager is: A. D. C. D. Unknown Unknowns Project Budgets Knowns Unknowns Amount of work completed Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 What is the purpose of the WBS? . C. B. Initiation Project plan execution Overall Change Control Report Performance Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Project scope Management includes: initiation. D. C. QUESTION 48 At which stage. define Scope. C. stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project? A. Collect requirements. verify scope and control scope. C. B.A. D. A milestone A hammock A dummy activity A and C Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation . Initial stage Closing Stage Execution stage None of the above Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 An activity that consumes no time or resource and show only that a dependency exists between two activities is called: A. D. B. C. D. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizationals units To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework To show the organizational structure of a program All of the above Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 A project scope Management includes: A. B. C. D.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 A change request can occur due to: A. B. An external event such as a change in govermment regulation An error omission in defining the scope of the product An error omission in defining the scope of the project All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . Eg : To estimate the time required to complete the project of upgrading XYZ application’s database version to a higher version. so we plan for it. size and other factors. This estimate will give a ball-park idea about the estimation and will have bigger variance. This is done irrespective of the complexity. is one form of expert judgment and it also known as Top-down Estimating. Estimate Activity Durations Estimate Activity Resources Sequence Activities Define Activities Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reserve Analysis is one of the techniques used to determine a project budget. a project is analyzed from a cost overruns point of view and buffers are placed in appropriate place. it is the technique of adding some extra time to complete activities and extra funds to the budget. is to compare similar past projects and estimate the duration. usually during the early stages of the project. C. Anallogous estimating Life-cycle costing Parametric modelling Bottom up estimating Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Analogous Estimating. D. These buffers are called Contingency and Management Reserves. It is also referred to as a “contingency reserve” or “buffer. This estimation technique will be applied to determine the duration when the detailed information about the project is not available. C. A basis for future decisions about the project B. QUESTION 3 The scope management provides: A. This technique is used to determine the duration of the project.Exam J QUESTION 1 Another term for top down estimating is: A. During Reserve Analysis. Applicable to both time and cost. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes . QUESTION 2 A Reserve Analysis is a technique for: A. B. the PM will refer & compare the previously completed project’s similar activities with the current activities and determine the duration. This technique will look the scope/ requirement as a whole single unit to estimate. D. A baseline to accomplish verification measures C. B. After finalizing the high level scope/requirement.” The concept is quite simple—we know to expect the unexpected. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie D. which does not represent any activity. The precedence relation between activities is represented by circles connecting to one or more arrows.D. Sometimes a "dummy task" is added. C. D. to represent a dependency between tasks. Start-To-Finish Finish-to-Start Start-to-Start Finish-to-Finish Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: An arrow diagramming method (ADM) is a network diagramming technique in which activities are represented by arrows. All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 A project plan is: A. It is used for scheduling activities in a project plan. A formal approved document used guide both project execution and project control B. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5 Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM) A. The length of the arrow represents the duration of the relevant activity. . B. Product Analysis Expert Judgement Alternative Identification All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation . Between the two nodes lies an arrow that represents the activity. ADM network drawing technique the start and end of each node or event is connected to an arrow. C. As early in the project as feasible Preferably before much project planning has been done At least prior to the start of project plan execution All of the above Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Dfine Scope Process? A. All activities that lead into a node must be completed before the activity lies following this node can start. it only show finish-to-start relationship. C. It has zero duration and consumes nil resources. D. The event represented by the circular node consumes neither time nor resources. The start of the arrow comes out of a node while the tip of the arrow goes into a node. B. B.The ADM is also known as the activity-on-arrow (AOA) method. definable achievement in the project. D. QUESTION 6 When should a project mnager be assigned to a project? A. A node is a specific. .000 CV% = CV/EV CV% = -40.000 and is expect to las for 1 year. C. the work is on schedule. Cost Variance (CV) indicates how much over or under budget the project is. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case? A. with the work and budget spread evenly across all months.Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 Your project has a budget of $240.000 CV= EV . Positive Cost Variance Indicates the project is under budget Negative Cost Variance Indicates the project is over budget Cost Variance % Cost Variance % indicates how much over or under budget the project is in terms of percentage.ACWP The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of cost which will indicate how less or more cost has been to complete the work as of date.33333%*240.000/80.000-120. Cost Variance can be calculated as using the following formula Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) .000 = -40. D. -50% 50% 40% 20% Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Solution: Execute Percentage > 12 ---------.5 CV% = -50% Cost Variance (CV) is very important factor to measure project performance.X X= 0.AC CV= 80. B.000 AC= Actual Cost = 120.000 EV= 80.Actual Cost (AC) OR Cost Variance (CV) = BCWP .333333% EV Earned Value= Execute Percentage% * Budget of the project EV=0.100% 04 ---------. but you have spent $120.000 = -0. The project is now in the fourth month.000 of the project budget. A and B Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Project Life cycle : Cost and staffing Levels . Positive Variance % indicates % under Budget. QUESTION 9 Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions? A.Cost Variance % can be calculated as using the following formula CV % = Cost Variance (CV) / Earned Value (EV) OR CV % = CV / BCWP The formula mentioned above gives the variance in terms of percentage which will indicate how much less or more money has been used to complete the work as planned in terms of percentage. Cost and staffing are low at the start higher towards the end and drop rapidly as the project nears completion B. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project D. Negative Variance % indicates % over Budget. The probability of succesfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project C. D. D. D. C. Sequence Activities Develop Schedule Define Activities Estimate Activity Durations Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Dependencies that are directly related to the nature of the work being performed. B. C. Stakeholder requirements Project performance Control schedule Project Control Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12 Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process: A. This is also referred as Mandatory Dependencies . C.QUESTION 10 A project manager is at the project Kick-off meeting. B. Hierarchal Authoritarian Charismatic Associative Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The leadership styles includes: Directing: Telling others what to do Facilitating: Coordinating the input of others Coaching: Instructing others Supporting: Providing assistance along the way Autocratic: Making decisions without input Laissez Faire: Has a hands-off policy and the team is entirely self-led regarding the decision making process Consultative: Inviting ideas from others Consensus: Problem solving in group with decision making based on group agreement QUESTION 11 Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. . This is known as hard dependency or hard logic. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style: A. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. B. A. C. Install and configure Patches and finally install the Required Software are examples of mandatory dependencies. and the knowledge. Projectized organization Balanced Matrix Organization Strong Matrix Weak Matrix organization Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . skills and experience of each. B. Install Operating System. Purchase the Server. QUESTION 14 In which type of organization a project manager is in complete control of the project? A. B.This dependencies will be used duing the Project Planning specifically on Activity Sequencing in Time Management. This is normally a document that describes the number of resources for each schedule activity. QUESTION 13 Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is usefull in the Develop Human resources Plan Process A. D. or as skills set per time period. It is helpful to include assumptions and other detail in support of such estimates for each activity. The work effort may be described as total hours. An example for the latter might be three bricklayers for a period of two weeks. D. Risk Manahgement activities Activity Resources Requirements Budget Control Activities Quality Assurance Activities Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Activity resource requirements. The nature of the work itself dictates the order in which the activities should be performed. C. B.QUESTION 15 In which type of organization a project manager is in complete control of the project? A. C. D. Balanced matrix Organization Projectized organization Strong Matrix Weak Matrix organization Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . C. An analysis of the critical path B. A forwards pass . In this context. D. B. you must do: A.QUESTION 16 A trend Analysis is best described as: A. it is a project management quality control tool QUESTION 17 To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks. This is achieved by tracking variances in cost and schedule performance. Calculating Earned Value Calculating Earned variance Examining project performance over time Analyzing performance of similar projects over time Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: In project management trend analysis is a mathematical technique that uses historical results to predict future outcome. C. Subtract the duration from the late finish date of the last activitiy and add one to get the late start date. 4 6. Based on the relationship between current activity and preceeding/succeeding activity the PM will calculate the early start date and early finish date of the activity. B. what is the PERT weighted average? A. in which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared? . D. This method is called as Forward Pass QUESTION 18 Which is NOT included in Performance Improvements: A. C. A backwards pass D. Pessimistic 9 days. C. A and B Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Backward Pass A calculation method used to determine late start and late finish dates for activities in Critical Path Method.3 6 6. D. Forward Pass is a calculation method used in Critical Path Method(CPM) to identify the early start date and early finish date for the activities. and most likely 6 days. This calculation method is called as Backward Pass and this is quite opposite to Forward Pass. B.1 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Simple Average Duration Estimate = (O + M + P)/3 PERT Duration Estimate = (O + 4M + P)/6 QUESTION 20 A scope management plan. Improvements in individual skills Improvements in amount of overtime worked Improvements in team behaviours Improvements in team capabilities Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 19 Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days. The PM will do this calculation from the starting point of the activity list. The Project Scope Management Plan documents how the project scope will be defined. contract administration Planning. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service A narrative description of work to be performed under contract The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions A and B Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Project Scope "The work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product. managed.A. It also includes all work required to complete the project. Inputs. The Project Scope Management plan is included in as one of the sections in the overall Project Management plan. budget control. The documents are used to control what is in and out of the scope of the project by the use of a Change Management system. Schedule development. C. D. B. Define Activities Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23 A resource Leveling is a technique for: . status reports. Initiation Collect Requirements Define Scope Verify Scope Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Scope management plan is one of the major Scope communication documents. or result" QUESTION 22 The planning process are: A. It can be very detailed and formal or loosely framed and informal depending on the communication needs of the project. B. Resource planning. Resource planning. control. C. Risk control Define Scope. C. Control schedule. team development. QUESTION 21 Project scope Is: A. Estimate Costs. Risk control Define Scope. or result with the specified features and functions" Product Scope "The features and functions that characterize a product. Items deemed out of scope go directly through the change control process and are not automatically added to the project work items. controlled. service. D. service. Quality assurance. D. verified and communicated to the project team and stakeholders/customers. B. Helps the project manager avoid delays caused by bad allocations. B. Assign a different resource. C. but if you insist in using the automatic feature of MSP. Remove tasks. dependencies. Billing Customers Managing an organization Providing a building Contructing a Building Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: . and constraints. Estimate Activity Durations Develop schedule Estimate Activity resources Sequence Activities Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Resource leveling Helps in utilising resources consistently throughout the project. QUESTION 24 A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is A. however. D. save a copy first. C. B. which is not supported by some project management systems i. D. task types. Add tasks (instead of using the MSP's split task functionality. MSP can automatically level resources based on resource calendar. I have yet to find a project manager that has felt comfortable with the way MSP does it. Ensures resources are not over allocated. Helps the project manager identify and take advantage of unused times by analysing task dependencies. I level resources manually via the Resource Usage view. Identification Solicitation Quantification Response Development Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25 An example of project is: A. D. Change task dependencies. C. Clarity). B.A.e. If you find resource conflicts (over or under allocations) you could: Delay certain tasks.