PEBC Evaluating Package 201209117340341 20 9 [email protected] 1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the: a. pyrimidine ring. b. purine ring. c. pyrazine ring. d. pteridine ring. e. pyridine ring. 2 Enkephalins are peptides that: a. have narcotic antagonist activity. b. exert actions resembling those of opiates. c. are found only in the central nervous system. d. cause blood vessel wall relaxation. e. transmit pain impulses. 3 -Carotene is the precursor of: a. retinol. b. thiamine. c. calciferol. d. riboflavin. e. retinoic acid. 4 True statements regarding transcription include which of the following? a. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA polymerase. b. The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is DNA polymerase. c. During transcription, the genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of tRNA is translated into a protein structure. d. The process of transcription includes the splicing of exons. e. Following initiation, the next stage of transcription is termination. 5 Diphtheria is caused by: a. Plasmodium. b. Vibrio. c. Shigella. d. Neisseria. e. Corynebacterium. 6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver: a. haemorrhoidal vein b. mesenteric vein portal vein. portal vein. inferior vena cava. c. haemorrhoidal vein d. mesenteric vein e. gastric vein hepatic artery. hepatic vein. 7 Lactose intolerance is classified as a(n): a. allergy. b. enzyme deficiency. c. mineral deficiency. d. transporter abnormality. e. vitamin deficiency. 8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of: a. acetylcholine in the motor cortex. b. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons. c. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways. d. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway. e. serotonin in the brain stem. 9 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately: a. 5 L. b. 10 L. c. 15 L. d. 20 L. II Haemophilusinfluenzae. III Mycoplasma pneumoniae. II found primarily in interneurons. I only b. II and III 11 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is: I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. II and III 12 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation. I. EXCEPT: . 10 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include: I Escherichia coli.e. I. a. 25 L. I and II only d. II and III only e. III synthesized from glycine. I and II only d. II and III only e. III only c. III only c. I only b. a. DNA polymerase c. cornea. c. c. d. iris. 13 Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from viral RNA? a. blind spot. pupil. . d. prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement. c. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid. e. d. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development. Endonuclease e. Reverse transcriptase b. caused by dietary iron deficiency. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. e. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12. b. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis. b. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12. b. RNA polymerase d. 15 The optic disk is also called the: a.a. Aminoacyl-tRNAsynthetase 14 Pernicious anemia is: a. 10% b. what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8. Osteoarthritis d. II The mobile phase is polar. Alzheimer s disease b. I only b. a. II and III only e. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus c. I and II only d. 30% . III The compound to be separated is very polar. I. Parkinson s disease e. II and III 18 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4? a. macula lutea. III only c.4.e. 16 Which of the following is characterized as an autoimmune disorder? a. Paget s disease PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCES 17 Correct statements regarding reversed-phase high-performance liquid chromatography include which of the following? I The stationary phase is hydrophobic. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature. c. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution. II the radius of vessel. decreases the force of myocardial contraction. a. b. selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds. LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to: I the length of the vessel. c. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials. III the intraluminal pressure. d. III only . does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction. 50% d. 20 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it: a. e.c. d. e. prolongs the QT interval on the ECG. 100% 19 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct. 90% e. I only b. EXCEPT: a. b. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation. 21 In cardiovascular physiology. delays the atrioventricular (AV) conduction time. 23 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of: a. e. glycine conjugates. calcium ion channel. d. 24 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the: a. c. potassium ion channel. is acidic but not protein bound. b. has a large volume of distribution. is protein bound. d. e. I and II only d. has a small volume of distribution. sulfate conjugates. I. nicotinic ion channel. .c. b. e. b. II and III only e. glutamate conjugates. if the drug: a. chloride ion channel. glucuronide conjugates. II and III 22 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma. sodium ion channel. c. is basic. c. d. glutathione conjugates. d. II myoglobin. b. II and III only e. 26 Carbon monoxide binds to: I hemoglobin. exists as a quaternary ammonium anion. enhances the bronchodilatory effects of theopyhlline. III cytochrome oxidase. I and II only d. c. d. requires nebulization for inhaled therapy. is a competitive muscarinic antagonist. aniline and pyrrolidine rings. a. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings. e. II and III 27 True statements regarding ipratropium bromide include all of the following. b.25 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain: a. is poorly absorbed through airway epithelium. I. I only b. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings. aniline and piperazine rings. e. aniline and piperidine rings. . c. EXCEPT that ipratropium bromide: a. III only c. c. tautomeric activities.P Diazepam 5 mg/ml Ethanol 10% Propylene glycol 40% Benzyl alcohol 1. I. electron-donating effects. They are present in these structures specifically because of their: a.S. I only b. I and II only d. III only c. d. II and III 29 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. enzymatic activities. II and III only e. which of the following ingredients function as cosolvents? I Ethanol II Propylene glycol III Benzyl alcohol a. sizes and shapes.5% Water for Injection qs 100% In the formulation given above. .28 Diazepam Injection U. b. when Vmax is much smaller than Km. affected by the extent of absorption only. e. Hydroxyl 2 c. 31 With respect to bioequivalence. when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration. 30 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order: a. c. the parameter Cmax is: a. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption. affected by the rate of absorption only. when Vmax is much larger than Km.e. when Km approaches Vmax. the only significant parameter. c. 32 Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol? a. electron-withdrawing effects. b. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km. d. d. Hydroxyl 1 b. Hydroxyl 3 . affected by both rate and extent of absorption. b. e. positional (structural) isomers. 34 Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3. e. 9. EXCEPT: a. c. The mean half-life is: a. 35 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following.d. b. 5. c. rotamers. to improve the appearance of the tablet. 6. d.4 h.0 h. bioisosteres. 6. Hydroxyl 4 e.8 h. to mask the taste of the drug. d. 5 and 4 h (hours). enantiomers. e. to mask the odor of the drug. b. 5.0 h.0 h. b. . 4. c. Hydroxyls 1 and 2 33 The above structures are related to one another as: a. homologs. 5. Efflorescence c. to protect the drug from stomach acid. II and III only e. I. to increase the drug s release rate. Hygroscopicity d. . II and III 37 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture? a. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet. c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution. III only c. 36 Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis? I Oil/water partition coefficient II Binding to plasma protein III pKa of the drug a. b. I only b.d. I and II only d. Deliquescence b. e. Condensation 38 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation? a. Polymorphism e. the drug is extensively metabolized. I only b. e. II the physical appearance of the preparations. e. d. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins. II and III 40 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that: a. b. 39 Factors that determine bioequivalence of two brands of a drug include: I the taste of the preparations. II and III only e. I. . entero-hepatic recycling is significant.d. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis. III only c. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst. III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations. 41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. I and II only d. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression. a. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal failure c. b. dry skin. E 42 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) include: a. . Amiloride 44 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms. c. EXCEPT: a. Acetazolamide e. D e. displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin. inhibition of liposomal enzymes. C d. 43 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na+-H+ exchange system of the renal tubule? a. delirium and restlessness. enhanced platelet aggregation. A b.a. induction of microsomal enzymes. b. c. d. Hydrochlorothiazide c. B c. e. inhibition of microsomal enzymes. flushed appearance. Furosemide b. Spironolactone d. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending 46 Acarbosesmooths and lowers: a. I and II only . 45 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms? a. e. III only c. b. diarrhea. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase d. mydriasis. II hyperparathyroid disease. III an inadequate intake of vitamin D. Combining with acetylcholine b. d. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor e. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. c. postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase c.d. 47 Hypercalcemia may result from: I an excessive intake of calcium. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates. e. I only b. a. b. 16 c. Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product d. 8 b.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h. 8 b. 24 d.44 mL/s (1. Use of Fc fragments avoids raising an immune response against the FAB part. T cells are stimulated and will initiate a host rejection process. is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen of lithium carbonate 600 mg q8h. 16 . e. II and III only e. The molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74. QUESTIONS 49 TO 50 INCLUSIVE REFER TO THE FOLLOWING: KJ. 32 e. c. The total body clearance of lithium is 0. 49 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. Use of chimeric monoclonal antibodies is associated with increased immunogenicity. 48 50 The number of milli-equivalents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is: a. a 23 year old female. II and III 48 Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of monoclonal antibody drug therapies? a.d. I. Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy. b. a solubilizer. an emulsifier. . a chelator. I only b. butyrophenone. II and III only e. e.c. biguanide. d. c. a. 53 The carbonic anhydrase inhibitor dorzolamide is structurally classified as a: a. 32 e. sodium metabisulphite is included as: a. 48 51 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by: I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant. b. I. 24 d. I and II only d. II and III 52 In some parenteral formulations. an antioxidant. III the total receptor concentration. III only c. II the free drug concentration. a cosolvent. The most frequent source of virus introduction is the growth media.c. d. Viruses can be generated by an infected production cell line. e. fosinopril. . d. b. Viruses can be introduced by nutrients. e. Specific proteins e. c. 54 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding virus vectors used in the production of biotechnology drugs? a. Specific antibodies d. DNA b. lisinopril. Post-translational modification of protein 56 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is: a. sulfonamide. thiazolidinedione. There is a trend toward using better-defined growth media in which serum levels are significantly reduced. e. sulfonylurea. b. RNA c. 55 The western blot is an analytical technique used to detect which of the following? a. d. enalapril. quinapril. c. Viruses can be inactivated by physical or chemical treatment of the product. ramipril. electrospray ionization (ESI). the solution is: a. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI). 58 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called: a. phenylephrine HCl 0. e. b. PHARMACY PRACTICE . electron impact (EI) ionization. c. d. hypertonic.25%. reduced renal clearance.32.15. d. boric acid 0.57 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to: a.5).12% and boric acid 1. 59 An ophthalmic solution contains zinc sulfate 0. hyperosmotic. fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization.1% (NaC1 equivalents: zinc sulfate 0. hypotonic. post-antimicrobial effect. higher peak-trough differences. chemical ionization (CI). c. b. isoosmotic. e. c. phenylephrine HCl 0. d. enhanced tissue accumulation. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body. Relative to lacrimal fluid. isotonic. b. e. Detailed monographs for all prescription pharmaceuticals available in Canada c. Canadian consensus guidelines on drug therapies used to treat hypertension e. Reduction of medication errors b. Tolerance does not occur with oral isosorbidedinitrate. c. Tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication. d. Approved indications for all prescription and nonprescription pharmaceuticals in Canada d. ac. b. . Reduction of inventory pilferage c.60 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of performing medication reconciliation activities in a hospital setting? a. Bioequivalence data comparing interchangeable pharmaceutical products 62 Which of the following statements is true regarding nitrate tolerance? a. Tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on metoprolol. Assessment of patient adherence to therapy e. 63 In dispensing. the Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is: a. Reduction of preventable adverse effects d. Tolerance does not occur with topical nitroglycerin ointment. Clinical recommendations for dental prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis b. Tolerance does not occur with transdermal nitroglycerin. e. Enhanced accuracy of patient allergy information 61 The Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialties (CPS) is a useful resource for locating which of the following? a. d. the concentration of AOT in the solution is: a. e. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). c. b. b. sterile water.7% w/w. c. the English meaning for the Latin phrase ex aqua is: a. 64 In dispensing. e.0% w/w. b. c.8% w/w. e. 65 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. d. c. . Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). out of water. distilled water. with or in water. 25. ic. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard). e. aa. d. pc.b. 16. 66 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be: a. cc. extracellular fluids. 23. exact amount. 20. soluble in water.0% w/w.25 g/mL).5% w/w. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1. 12. d. e. salbutamol. Compendium of Self-Care Products. b. c. c. d. Therapeutic Choices. In the selection of drug therapy for the initial management of this patient. Pulmonary fibrosis is a rare but serious adverse effect. the pharmacist would find all of the following resources useful. It requires ongoing monitoring of renal function. It does not depend on the presence of insulin for its action. e. acetazolamide. .67 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with: a. EXCEPT: a. skeletal muscle weakness. e. EXCEPT: a. b. published clinical guidelines. epinephrine. d. 68 The hospital pharmacist is asked for advice from a physician after a newly admitted patient is diagnosed with ischemic stroke. 69 Which of the following statements is true regarding pioglitazone therapy? a. c. primary journal articles. aminophylline. Multiple daily dosing is required due to its short half-life. Harrison s Principles of Internal Medicine. diphenhydramine. 70 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects. b. d. It has shown benefits in reducing glycosylated hemoglobin levels. Avoid concurrent intake of grapefruit juice. 73 A pharmacist is making a presentation on medication adherence and compliance to a group of clients. Take with plenty of fluids. lowered resistance to infection. c. Which of the following would be the most appropriate indicator of the effectiveness of the presentation for these clients? a. d. c. sumatriptan may be used for the second headache. d. If no relief is achieved in two hours. 71 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient. sumatriptan may be repeated. peptic ulceration. sodium retention. Avoid concurrent intake of dairy products. Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions. Increase in fill quantity for each prescription refill b. e. If relief is not achieved. e. The maximum dosage in any 24-hour period is six tablets. Take on an empty stomach. c. Reduced number of prescriptions filled per month . Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following? a. d. b. ergotamine may be used.b. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours. no other medication can be used for 24 hours. e. 72 Which of the following is appropriate auxiliary labelling for allopurinol? a. b. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later. hypoglycemia. 25 % drops Mitte : 15 mL Sig: gtt. d. .d. 75 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy: Losec® 20 mg S: Take 1 tab BID M: 2 weeks Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription? a. Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets). b. d. Increase in number of nonprescription medications used d. e. i o. instil one drop into the right eye twice daily. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily. Reduced number of prescription refill dates per month e. Prescription refill dates closer to expected fill intervals 74 RxTimolol 0. BID On the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read: a. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets). b. Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets).c. c. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. c. Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets). instil one drop into the left eye twice daily. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily. . you must base your choice on the patient-specific information presented in the case. Authorized prescribers include chiropractors. promote implementation of pharmacy practice standards across Canada. c. QUESTIONS 78 TO 79 INCLUSIVE REFER TO THE FOLLOWING: SM is a 34 year old female who.e. Shortly thereafter she complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears. e. It is regulated under the Benzodiazepines and Other Targeted Substances Act. began prophylactic treatment for travellers' diarrhea. Sale for self-medication use must involve a pharmacist. It requires a written order from an authorized prescriber. accredit the pharmacy programs at Canadian universities. The next section includes several EXAMPLES OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT. black stools and a black tongue. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets) 76 A role of The National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities is to: a. It is an example of a legally exempted codeine product. e. while vacationing in Mexico. b. d. b. d. SM s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides. When choosing your response to questions in the case scenario format. c. 77 Which of the following statements is true regarding Tylenol Elixir With Codeine® (each 5 ml contains acetaminophen 160 mg and codeine 8 mg)? a. audit the financial performance of provincial pharmacy licensing bodies. provide mechanisms for the public to file complaints about pharmacy care providers. in which there are two or more questions in sequence. that are directly related to the patient information provided in the (bolded) stem shown at the top of the case. establish a unified lobby voice for pharmacists from all types of practice settings. I and II only d. flushed and flaccid. Bismuth subsalicylate b. Loperamide 79 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of travellers' diarrhea include: I Bacteroidesfragilis. Cotrimoxazole c. III Shigella sp. Respirations were deep and rapid. II Escherichia coli.80 mol/L (80 mg/100 mL) and a urinary pH of 6. I only b.78 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints? a. Amoxicillin e. Laboratory investigation indicated serum salicylate level of 5. The child was semi-comatose. II and III only e. Doxycycline d. 80 The syndrome of deep and rapid respirations would initially lead to: . a. Her pupils were fixed and dilated. II and III QUESTIONS 80 TO 82 INCLUSIVE REFER TO THE FOLLOWING: A 3 year old child was admitted to the hospital following ingestion of an overdose of acetylsalicylic acid and a nonprescripton sleep-inducing compound containing an antihistamine and scopolamine. III only c. I. increased chloride elimination in urine. b. 82 One form of therapy to hasten the excretion of salicylate involves the administration of: a. 81 As a result of other mechanisms the child would likely progress to: a. 12. if a product supplying 200 mg/5 mL is supplied for this order.a. 15.5 mL b. hypoglycemia. probenecid. hyperglycemia.0 mL c. a. calculate the total volume needed for the total course of treatment. metabolic alkalosis. d.0 mL . respiratory acidosis.3 kg. 83 The recommended pediatric dosage for azithromycin therapy is 12 mg/kg once daily on Days 1 through 5. d. e. respiratory alkalosis. e. aluminum hydroxide. 25. systemic acidosis. marked reduction in body temperature. d. c. renal excretion of acid. renal failure. e. For a child weighing 8. c. ammonium chloride. sodium bicarbonate. vasopressin (ADH). b. c. b. 120 mL . 50. 20 mL b. d. 100 mL e. magnesium sulfate. Ciprofloxacin b.Ramipril e. to a liquid morphine sulfate dosage form because the patient has difficulty in swallowing tablets.Raloxifene 85 A vertical laminar flow hood (LFH) is preferred to a horizontal LFH when preparing a parenteral formulation of: a. 15 mg twice daily. aminophylline. what volume should be dispensed for a 20 day supply to provide the same pain relief as the tablet regimen? a. 60 mL c. c.d. 37. doxorubicin. b. 86 A physician wants to switch a terminally-ill patient from slow release morphine sulfate tablets. If a morphine sulfate solution containing 5 mg per mL is prescribed q4h.5 mL e. Allopurinol c. e. penicillin. nitroglycerin.0 mL 84 Which of the following medications requires monitoring for the adverse effect of hyperlipidemia? a. 80 mL d. Isotretinoin d. we avoid. without deception. b.055 . we respect the rights of others to make choices. 88 The mother of a 6 year old child presents to the pharmacist with a written prescriptionfor amoxicillin that was ordered by the physician 3 days earlier.0. b. most drug levels are to be reported in the units of micromoles/litre (µmol/L). d.55 µmol/L. e. d.11 µmol/L. She states that her child was diagnosed with otitis. 180 . we do good to patients. The therapeutic concentration range for theophylline (molecular weight 180) is 10-20 µg/mL. c. 0. antibiotic therapy will likely be ineffective for the child. Explain that . e. we act with fairness. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacist response? a. we act with honesty. Fill the prescription as written. e. 27 . remove or prevent harm. .110 µmol/L. SOCIAL AND ADMINISTRATIVE PHARMACY SCIENCES 89 The ethical principle of veracity requires that: a. c. Indicate a need to contact the prescriber before filling the prescription at this time. The SI equivalent would be: a. Refuse to fill the prescription as the antibiotic order is no longer current. 55 . as at this late date.220 µmol/L. d. c.360 µmol/L.87 In the International System of Units (SI). BEHAVIOURAL. Fill the prescription for a quantity that is the ordered amount less three days supply. b. 110 . drug C. Currently the hospital stocks drug E. which has been available for several years. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A.25 BID 7 E .00 BID 7 D $2. Data for the medications is as follows: Drug Cost/Day Dosing Frequency Treatment Duration (days) A $2. have recently become available. and drug D). drug B. associated workload.25 once daily 14 C $5.90 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary. and acquisition cost. all with equal efficacy. the hospital must consider a drug s efficacy.50 QID 14 B $2. $2. Small p-values suggest that the null hypothesis is likely to be true. articulate young man.25 QID 7 The most appropriate choice for the hospital is: a. P-value is the probability of wrongly rejecting the null hypothesis if it is in fact true. b. but JN does not want to undergo the treatment. Drug A. c. If the physician goes ahead and gives the experimental therapy what ethical principle will have been violated the most? a. Drug B. A type I error frequently occurs due to sample sizes being too small. Veracity e. Nonmaleficence c. Confidentiality b. His parents are insisting that the physician treat him with the latest experimental therapy. A type II error is considered to be more serious than a type I error. a 17 year old male with a highly resistant form of testicular cancer. e. 92 JN. Drug E. the more convincing is the rejection of the null hypothesis. He is an intelligent. 91 Which of the following statements is true regarding hypothesis testing? a. b. Drug C. The larger the p-value. c. is in hospital for treatment. d. Drug D. Autonomy . d. Justice d. e. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is: a. e. 20.93 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year? a.5% of the study sample. only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years. 25%. 15%. d. 2000. 10%. the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is: a. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. Statement of equity 94 In an adequately powered. a specific serious side effect (i. b.e. In the patients who receive a placebo. 50%. 200. 150. 15. b.45% experience the same side effect. . c. randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years. the desired clinical outcome (i. 40%. c. Balance sheet b. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug. Income statement e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0. only 0. 95 In an adequately powered.e. Statement of changes in financial position d. Statement of investments c. d. e. Based on these results. the data shows no difference between 2 treatment regimens and a difference actually does exist. Health Canada s Health Environment and Consumer Safety directorate. e. e. b. the Canada Health Act. the control drug is not a "gold standard" treatment. Canadian Agency for Drugs and Technologies in Health e. c. without deception. act with fairness. avoid. d. allowing people access to pharmacy care. .05. the exclusion criteria are too rigid. individual provinces and territories. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities. c. the data shows a difference between 2 treatment regimens but a difference does not actually exist. placing the benefit of the patient above all else. b. act with honesty. 98 The standard of universal access to health care in Canada is mandated by: a. affordability. d. d. do good to patients. p level is > 0. respect the rights of patients to make choices. b. remove or prevent harm from people. EXCEPT: a. 99 The Canada Health Act (1984) embodies all of the following principles.96 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that pharmacists: a. 97 Type II statistical error in a study comparing 2 drug treatment regimens occurs when: a. c. portability. (e) 51. comprehensiveness. 100 All of the following responsibilities can be appropriately delegated to a non-pharmacist manager of a community pharmacy. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 26. (d) 52.b. e. d. Answers to Sample Questions 1. (c) 76. accessibility. EXCEPT: a. (a) 77. doing direct order purchasing on current accounts. c. contracting for a new computer system for the dispensary. supervision of staff time-sheets e. (a) 28. (c) . d. universality. c. (c) 53. b. supervision of staff scheduling. being the designated manager for narcotics. (b) 27. (a) 29. (a) 55. (b) 6. (a) 9. (c) 79. (a) 34.78. (b) 31. (a) 4. (d) 33. (b) 82. (c) 59. (d) 7. (b) 57. (d) 56. (e) 30. (b) 81. (c) 80. (e) 54. (b) 32. (c) 83. (c) 58. (b) 84. (d) 8. (c) . (d) 5. (b) 11. (a) 40. (a) 86. (e) 37. (d) 60. (a) 89. (a) 65. (a) 38. (e) 61. (c) 36. (a) 14. (b) 90. (d) 35. (d) 39. (c) 87. (e) 12. (b) 63. (b) . (b) 62. (d) 16. (b) 85. (c) 13. (b) 64. (b) 15.10. (a) 88. (b) 95. (e) 91. (c) 92. (d) 44. (e) 18. (e) 93. (d) 19. (e) 21. (c) 22. (d) 20. (c) . (a) 45. (e) 17. (d) 46. (c) 42. (d) 68. (a) 47. (c) 70. (d) 67. (e) 69.41. (b) 71. (c) 66. (d) 43. (e) 94. (c) 96. (b) 49. (a) 73. (b) 23. (a) 24.(e) . (a) 97. (a) 48. (e) 98. (b) 74. (a) 25.72. (c) 99. (d) 100. (b) 75. (e) 50.