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NURSING PRACTICE I – FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING PRACTICE SITUATION 1: Nursing is a profession.The nurse should have a background on the theories and foundation of nursing as it influenced what is nursing today. 1. Nursing is the protection, promotion and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response and advocacy in the care of the individuals, families, communities and the population. This is the most accepted definition of nursing as defined by the: a. PNA b. ANA c. Nightingale d. Hernderson 2. Advancement in Nursing leads to the development of the Expanded Career Roles. Which of the following is NOT an expanded career role for nurses? a. Nurse practitioner b. Clinical nurse specialist c. Nurse researcher d. Nurse anesthesiologist 3. The Board of Nurses regulated the Nursing profession in the Philippines and is responsible for the maintenance o the quality of nursing in the country. Powers and duties o the board of nursing are the following EXCEPT: a. issue, suspend, revoke certificates of registration b. issue subpoena duces tecum, ad testificandum c. open and close colleges of nursing d. supervise and regulate the practice of nursing 4. A nursing student or a beginning staff nurse who has not yet experienced enough real situations to make judgments about them is in what stage of Nursing Expertise? a. Novice b. Newbie c. Advanced beginner d. Competent 12. You attended a pulse oximeter to the client. You know that the purpose is to: a. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low and if he needs blood transfusion b. Check the level of client’s tissue perfusion c. Measure the efficacy of the client’s anti=hypertensive medications d. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops 13. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, the client is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be: a. Inconsistent b. Low systolic and high diastolic c. Higher than what the reading should be d. Lower than what the reading should be 14. Through the client’s health history, you gather that the patient smokes and drinks coffee. When taking the blood pressure of a client who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should the nurse wait before taking the client’s blood pressure for accurate reading? a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 5 minutes 15. While the client has pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that sunlight is shining on the area where the oximeter is. Your action will be to: a. Set and turn on the alarm of the oximeter b. Do nothing since there is no identified problem c. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bed sheet d. Change the location of the sensor every four hours 16. The nurse finds it necessary to recheck the blood pressure reading. In case of such reassessment, the nurse should wait for a period of: a. 15 seconds b. 1 to 2 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes 17. If the arm is said to be elevated when taking the blood pressure, it will create a: a. False high reading b. False low reading c. True false reading d. Indeterminate 18. You are to assess the temperature of the client the next morning and found out that he ate ice cream. How many minutes should you wait before assessing the client’s oral temperature? a. 10 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes 19. When auscultating the client’s blood pressure, the nurse hears the following: from 150 mmHg to 130 mmHg: silence, then, a thumping sound continuing down to 100 mmHg: muffled sound continuing down to 80 mmHg, and then silence. What is the client’s blood pressure? a. 130/80 b. 150/100 c. 100/80 d. 150/100 20. In a client with a previous blood pressure of 130/80 4 hours ago, how long will it take to release the blood pressure cuff to obtain an accurate reading? a. 10-20 seconds b. 30-45 seconds c. 1-1.5 seconds d. 3-3.5 seconds Situation 4: Oral care is an important part of hygienic practices and promoting client comfort. 21. An elderly client, 84 years old, is unconscious. Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive dryness and presence of sores. Which of the following is BEST to use for oral care? a. lemon glycerine b. hydrogen peroxide c. mineral oil d. normal saline solution 22. When performing oral care to an unconscious client, which of the following is a special consideration to prevent aspiration of fluids into the lungs? a. put the client on a side lying position with head of bed lowered b. keep the client dry by placing towel under the chin c. wash hands and observe appropriate infection control d. clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful and an orderly progression 23. The advantages of oral care for a client include all of the following EXCEPT: a. decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth b. reduces need to use commercial mouthwash which irritate the buccal mocosa c. improves client's appearance and self-confidence d. improves appetite and taste of food 24. A possible problem while providing oral care to unconscious clients is the risk of fluid aspiration to lungs. This can be avoided by: a. cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs soaked with mouthwash to avoid rinsing the buccal cavity b. swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips, tongue and gums with dry cotton swabs c. use fingers wrapped with wet cotton washcloth to rub inside the cheeks, tongue, lips and gums d. suctioning as needed while cleaning the buccal cavity 25. Your client has difficulty of breathing and is mouth breathing most of the time. This causes dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral hygiene is recommended fro the client and in addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by using: a. salt solution b. water c. petroleum jelly d. mentholated ointment Situation 5 – Ensuring safety before, during and after a diagnostic procedure is an important responsibility of the nurse. 26. To help Fernan better tolerate the bronchosopy, you should instruct him to practice which of the following prior to the procedure? a. clenching his fist every 2 minutes b. breathing in and out through the nose with his mouth open c. tensing the shoulder muscles while lying on his back d. holding his breath periodically for 30 seconds 27. Following a bronchoscopy, which of the following complains to Fernan should be noted as a possible complication? a. nausea and vomiting b. shortness of breath and laryngeal stridor c. blood tinged sputum and coughing d. sore throat and hoarseness 28. Immediately after bronchoscopy, you instructed Fernan to: a. exercise the neck muscles b. breathe deeply c. refrain from coughing and talking d. clear his throat 29. Thoracentesis may be performed for cytologic study of pleural fluid. As a nurse, your most important function during the procedure is to: a. keep the sterile equipment from contamination b. assist the physician c. open and close the three-way stopcock d. observe the patient's vital signs 30. Right after thoracentesis, which of the following is most appropriate intervention? a. instruct the patient not to cough or deep breathe for 2 hours b. observe for symptoms of tightness of chest or bleeding c. place an ice pack to the puncture site d. remove the dressing to check for bleeding Situation 6: Knowledge of the acid-base disturbance and the functions of the electrolytes is necessary to determine appropriate intervention and nursing actions. 31. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 644 mg/dl. The nurse interprets that this client is at most risk for the development of which type of acid-base imbalance? a. respiratory acidosis b. metabolic acidosis c. respiratory alkalosis d. metabolic alkalosis 32. In a client in the health care clinic, arterial blood gas analysis gives the following results: pH 7.45, pCO2 32 mmHg, PO2 94 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. The nurse interprets that the client has which acid base disturbance? a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis 33. A client has an order for ABG analysis on radial artery specimens. The nurse ensures that which of the following has been performed or tested before the ABG specimens are drawn? a. Guthrie test b. Allen's test c. Romberg's test d. Weber's test 34. A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client and notes that he pH is 7.31, PCO2 is 50 mmHg, and the bicarbonate is 27 mEq/L. The nurse concludes that which acid base disturbance is present in this client? a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis 35. Allen's test checks the patency of the: a. Ulnar artery b. radial artery c. carotid artery d. brachial artery 37. After IVP a renal stone was confirmed, a left nephrectomy was done. Her post operative order includes daily urine specimen to be sent to the laboratory. Eileen has a foley catheter attached to a urinary drainage system. How will you collect the urine specimen? a. remove urine from drainage tube with sterile needle and syringe and empty urine from the syringe into the specimen container b. empty a sample urine from the collecting bag into the specimen container c. disconnect the drainage tube from the indwelling catheter and allow urine to flow from catheter into the specimen container d. disconnect the drainage from the collecting bag and allow the urine to flow from the catheter into the specimen container 38. Where would the nurse tape Eileen's indwelling catheter in order to reduce urethral irritation? a. to the patient's inner thigh b. the patient's lower thigh c. to the patient's buttocks d. to the patient's lower abdomen 39. Which of the following menu is appropriate for one with low sodium diet? a. instant noodles, fresh fruits and ice tea b. ham and cheese sandwich, fresh fruits and vegetables c. white chicken sandwich, vegetable salad and tea d. canned soup, potato salad, and diet soda 40. How will you prevent ascending infection to Eileen who has an indwelling catheter? a. see to it that the drainage tubing touches the level of the urine b. change the catheter every eight hours c. see to it that the drainage tubing does not touch the level of the urine d. clean catheter may be used since urethral meatus is not a sterile area Situation 7: Hormones are secreted by the various glands in the body. Basic knowledge of the endocrine system is necessary. 41. Somatotropine or the Growth hormone releasing hormone is secreted by the: a. hypothalamus b. anterior pituitary gland c. posterior pituitary gland d. thyroid gland 42. All of the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland except: a. somatotropin/growth hormone b. follicle stimulationg hormone c. thyroid stimulating hormone d. gonadotropin hormone realeasing hormone 43. All of the following hormones are hormones secreted by the Posterior pituitary gland except: a. vasopressin b. oxytocin c. anti-diuretic hormone d. growth hormone 44. Calcitonin, a hormone necessary for calcium regulation is secreted in the: a. thyroid gland b. hypothalamus c. parathyroid gland d. anterior pituitary gland 45. While parathormone, a hormone that negates the effect of calcitonin is secreted by the: a. thyroid gland b. hypothalamus c. parathyroid d. anterior pituitary gland Situation 8: The staff nurse supervisor requests all the staff nurses to "brainstorm" and learn ways to instruct diabetic clients on self-administration of insulin. She wants to ensure that there are nurses available daily to do health education classes. 46. The plan of the nurse supervisor is an example of a. in service education process b. efficient management of human resources c. increasing human resources d. primary prevention 47. When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the clients care to one nurse aide who is an unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra: a. makes the assignment to teach the staff member b. is assigning the responsibility to the aide but not the accountability for those tasks c. does not have to supervise or evaluate the aide d. must know how to perform task delegated 48. Connie, the new nurse appears tired and sluggish and lacks the enthusiasm she had six weeks ago when she started the job. The nurse supervisor should a. empathize with the nurse and listen to her b. tell her to take the day off c. discuss how she is adjusting to her new job d. ask about her family 49. Process of normal negotiations of working conditions between a group of registered nurses and employer is a. grievance b. arbitration c. collective bargaining d. strike 50. You are attending a certification on cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and required by the hospital employing you. This is a. professional course towards credits b. in service education c. advance training d. continuing education Situation 9: As a nurse, you are aware that proper documentation in the patient chart is your responsibility. 51. Which of the following is not a legally binding document but nevertheless very important in the care of all patients in any health care setting? a. bill of rights as provided in the Philippine Constitution b. Scope of nursing practice as defined by RA 9173 c. Board of nursing resolution adopting the Code of Ethics d. Patient's Bill of Rights 52. A nurse gives a wrong medication to the client. Another nurse employed by the same hospital as a risk manager will expect to receive which of the following communication? a. incident report b. oral report c. nursing kardex d. complain report 53. Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of an informed consent can lead to which of the following charges? a. fraud b. assault and battery c. harassment d. breach of confidentiality 54. Which of the following is the essence of informed consent? a. it should have a durable power of attorney b. it should have coverage from an insurance company c. it should respect the client's freedom from coercion d. it should disclose previous diagnosis, prognosis and alternative treatments available for the client 55. Delegation is the process of assigning tasks that can be performed by a subordinate. The RN should always be accountable and should not lose his accountability. Which of the following is a role included in delegation? a. the RN must supervise all delegated tasks b. After the task has been delegated, it is no longer a responsibility of the RN c. The RN is responsible and accountable for the delegated task in adjunct with the delegate d. follow up with a delegated task necessary only if the assistive personnel is not trustworthy Situation 10: When creating your lesson plan for cerebrovascular disease or STROKE. It is important to include the risk factors of stroke. 56. The most important risk factor is: a. cigarette smoking b. hypertension c. binge drinking d. heredity 57. Part of your lesson plan is to talk about etiology or cause of stroke. The types of stroke based on cause are the following EXCEPT: a. embolic stroke b. hemorrhagic stroke c. diabetic stroke d. thrombotic stroke 58. Hemorrhagic stroke occurs suddenly usually when the person is active. All are causes of hemorrhage EXCEPT: a. phlebitis b. trauma c. damage to blood vessel d. aneurysm 59. The nurse emphasizes that intravenous drug abuse carries a high risk of stroke. Which drug is closely linked to this? a. amphetamines there is a continuous bubbling in the water seal . absent P waves c. hypercapnea and respiratory acidosis c. Demerol 60. The chest tube is function properly if: a. The nurse knows that the removal of fluid should be slow. iron 90g/100ml d. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5. "high RBC count increases blood pressure" Situation 11: Recognition of normal values is vital in assessment of clients with various disorders. inverted T wave c. A nurse is reviewing he laboratory test results for a client with a diagnosis of severe dehydration. 32% 62. reduced or absent breath sound at the base of the lungs. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result of this laboratory value? a. U waves b. hypoxemia. crackles. Dorothy underwent diagnostic test and the result of the blood examination are back. Rapid removal of fluid in thoracentesis might cause: a. white blood cells (WBC) 9000/mm c.000/mm3 c. the client again exhibited respiratory distress. iron 75 mg/100 ml 65. "more red blood cell increases hemoglobin content" d. "more red blood cells thicken blood and make clots more possible" b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 39 mm/hr d. pleurisy or pleuritis c. prominent U wave d. 61. cocaine c. A participant in the STROKE class asks what is a risk factor of stroke. 3 days after thoracentesis. 60% b. cardiovascular collapse d. Elevated T waves d. The nurse knows that the primary function of the chest tube is to: a. ST depression b. restore negative intrathoracic pressure c.6 mEq/L. The nurse would expect the hematocrit level for this client to be which of the following? a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/hr b. as a method of air administration via ventilator 69. 45% d. Which of the following laboratory test result indicate presence of an infectious process? a. there is no bubbling in the drainage bottle c. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result of this laboratory value? a. The nurse will know the pleural effusion has reoccurred when she noticed a sharp stabbing pain during inspiration. pneumothorax b. tall peaked T waves 63. 66. "increased RBC count is linked to high cholesterol" c. tracheal deviation towards the affected side. noisy respiration. there is an oscillation b. restore positive intrathoracic pressure b. Thoracentesis is performed to the client with effusion. stridor and wheezing d. neutrophils 67% Situation 12: Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. neutrophils 60% b. to visualize the intrathoracic content d. dyspnea. hypertension 68. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 3. Elevated ST segment 64. Which of the following is a finding that the nurse will be able to assess in a client with pleural effusion? a. 47% c. Your best response is: a. On reviewing the result the nurse notices which of the following as abnormal finding? a. tachypnea and shortness of breath b.2 mEq/L. The physician ordered a closed tube thoracotomy for the client. shabu d. white blood cells (WBC) 18. increased fremitus and loud breath sounds 67.b. so is the need to have an accurate and ethical decision making 76. practice abdominal breathing d. vehicle for communication 92. Medicare c. POMR has been widely used in many teaching hospitals. In a client with pleural effusion. research d. As the ethical situation arises. hospital as a center to prevent and control infection b. workplace d. the nurse is instructing appropriate breathing technique. Hospital Maintenance Organization Situation 14: Nursing ethics is an important part of the nursing profession. This is classified as what type of recording? a. delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice b. plan of care for patient c. legal documentation d. community c. the day before discharge b. research b. program for smokers c. nursing practice is expanding in the light of modern developments that takes place d. nursing problem and nursing diagnosis 94. inhale slowly and hold the breath for 3 to 5 seconds after each inhalation SITUATION 13: Health care delivery system affects the health status of every Filipino. 71. hospitals b. breathe normally b. 24 hours after discharge 72. she should accurately document client's response and her corresponding action. What exemplified the preventive and promotive programs in the hospital? a. prescription of the doctor to the patient's illness b. and spiritual being b. legal documentation b. One of its unique features is SOAPIE charting.d. education c. The medical records that are organized into separate section from doctors or nurses has more disadvantages than advantages. the health status of the patient is constantly changing and the nurse must be cognizant and responsive to these changes 74. The purpose of having a nurse's code of ethics is: a. When should rehabilitation commence? a. social. The P in SOAPIE charting should include: a. Which of the following is included in the teaching? a. when the patient desires c. Hospital Wellness Center 73. the suction control bottle has a continuous bubbling 70. Which makes nursing dynamic? a. Philippine Health Insurance Act d. nursing audit c. Health care reports have different purposes. hold the breath after each inspiration for 1 full minute c. program for alcoholics and drug addicts d. knowledge of this system is expected to ensure quality of life. This form of Health Insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees for a fixed periodic payment: a. all of the above 75. Identify nursing action recommended for specific health care situations 91. As a nurse. health Maintenance Organization b. every patient is a unique physical. patient's perception of one's illness d. vehicle for communication 93. Prevention is an important responsibility of the nurse in: a. POMR . emotional. the patient participate in the overall nursing care plan c. upon admission d. This is very important for which of the following purposes? a. When a nurse commits medication error. The availability of patients record to all health team members demonstrates which of the following purposes? a. empyema 97. A . B 24. B 47. Medicine preparation is correct c. A 67. B 21. A 20. B 17. B 31. D 83. enhances effective communication among the health care team members SITUATION 17: June is a 24 year old client with symptoms of dyspnea. B 57. D 32. B 60. The physician will perform thoracentesis. B 82. C 14. A 39. Demerol 75mg d. A 11. D 85. A 35. D 81. D 25. A 38. A 79. C 6. A 62. C 16. C 46. D 74. D 86. A 53. A 80. C 7.B 18. 96. B 29. C 50. C 58. A 42. C 93. Which of the following psychological preparation is not relevant for him? a. D 44. Thoracentesis is useful in treating all of the following pulmonary disorders except: a. A 89. C 91. Consent is signed by the client b. SOMR 95. consent is signed by relative and physician 99. C 65. B 84. A 59. C 72. C 12. you know that the position for June before thoracentesis is: a. D 73. D 87. A 99. C 41. B 69.C 19.C 10. knee-chest c. A 36. B 51. C 26. Modified POMR d. C 49. C 55.A 9. low fowlers d. Phenobarbital 50mg ANSWER KEY: 1. sidelying position on the affected side 100. B 34. A 61. A 70. Before thoracentesis. tuberculosis c. D 3. B 94. C 96. allow June to express his feelings and concerns d. B 15. hydrothorax d. B 97. D 95. C 56. D 75. orthopneic b. position of the client is correct d. SOAPIE c. D 8. D 22. A 45. B 54. procaine 2% b. B 28. A 5. valium 250 mg c. A 76. hemothorax b. telling him that the gauge of the needle and anesthesia to be used b. telling him to keep still during the procedure to facilitate the insertion of the needle in the correct place c. C 4. D 71. A 90. B 66. A 98. C 77. A 64. A 100. D 43. Increases efficiency b. D 78. D 92. A 23. Which of the following anesthetic drug is used for thoracentesis? a. B 27. D 30. reinforces the use of the nursing process c. absent breath sounds on the right lung and chest x-ray revealed pleural effusion. B 33. the legal consideration you must check is: a. the caregiver can easily locate proper section for making charting entries d. A 88. B 2. Which of the following is the advantage of SOMR or traditional recording? a. physician’s explanation on the purpose of the procedure and how it will be done 98. D 52. D 63. D 13. C 40. As a nurse. B 48.b. C 37. C 68. “you can try to have exercise to increase the size of your breast” d. Respect her right to reject dietary information if she chooses . 6. The following month. 3. 3 c. She consults you for guidance in relation with her menstrual cycle and her desire to get pregnant. Fetal movement are felt by Mariah b. 1. Her uterine is positive for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin. Midpoint between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process c. She wants to know the length of her menstrual period. 1. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo c. She worries about her small breasts thinking that she probably will not be able to breastfeed her baby. Progesterone c. A 1 degree Fahrenheit rise in basal body temperature 2. Midpoint between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus d. Which hormone brings about this change in her BBT? a. 1. Fear related to the effects of pregnancy d. which of the following fetal development would probably be achieved? a. Braxton hicks contraction are observed 7. You advised her to observe and record the signs of Ovulation. 4 d. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is the priority? a. She claims that she does not want to gain too much weight during her pregnancy. Uterine deciduas d. this should be reflected in the client b. Potential self esteem disturbance related to physiologic changes in pregnancy b. Ovarian follicles Situation 2: Mariah came back and she is now pregnant. 30 d. 2. At 5 months gestation. Pituitary gland b. Consistently counsel toward optimum nutritional intake c. Mittelscmerz a. Incorporate her food preferences that are adequately nutritious in her meal plan b. 4 3. It is best to have coitus on the evening following a drop in BBT to become pregnant c. Her previous menstruation is October 22 to 26. Temperature should be taken immediately after waking and before getting out of bed d. Symphysis pubis b. Mariah suspects she is pregnant. Umbilicus 8. what level of the abdomen can the fundic height be palpated? a. Cervical mucus becomes copious and clear 3.NURSING PRACTICE II – Community Health Nursing and Care of the Mother and Child Situation 1: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who has been married for 6 months. which of the following signs will she likely not down? 1. Her LMB is November 21. 2. “the size of your breast will not affect your lactation” b. 4 b. 28 c. 1. Viable if delivered within this period d. One pound increase in weigh 4. follicle stimulating hormone 5. “you can switch to bottle feeding” c. If coitus has occurred. Which of the following number of days will be her correct response? a. 31 2. Which of the following instructions in incorrect? a. She reports an increase in BBT on December 16. 3. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase 4. Which of the following interventions will likely ensure compliance of Mariah? a. Knowledge deficit regarding nutritional requirements of pregnancies related to lack of information sources 10. Estrogen b. Which structure produces HCG? a. You instruct Mariah to keep record of her basal temperature every day. Vernix caseosa covers the entire body c. “Manual expression of milk is possible” 9. Which of the following responses of the nurse is correct? a. She tells the nurse that she does not take milk regularly. 29 b. Ineffective individual coping related to physiologic changes in pregnancy c. The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah. gonadotropine d. Now at 5 month gestation. 2. 10 years 19. The scrotum 13. Kevin. 17 years old. Upon assessment the nurse noticed that both of them are still nude and the male client’s penis is still indie the female client’s vagina and the make client said that “I can’t pull it”. 10th day c. unlike male condoms. She should insert the condom before any penile penetration c. Which is the day on which she is most likely to conceive? a.d. She should coat the condom with spermicide before use d. Most Filipinos are against legalizing abortion. Female condoms. Breast development is termed as: a. The vas deferens c. Adrenarche b. The hormone the condom releases might cause mild weigh gain b. On examination. Susan tells you she is worried because she develops breasts later than most of her friends. She has patent fallopian tubes. 11. 2 new patients arrived and they are covered with large towels and the nurse noticed that there are many cameramen and news people outside of the OPD. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal wall 14. Day 20 15. 8th day b. She should assess whether her cervical mucus is thin. Dana chooses to use COC as her family planning method. It is due to learning patterns of the female client where she views her as bad or sinful. Situation 4: Overpopulation is one problem in the Philippines that causes economic drain. One month b. Mamarche c. She is RH negative. c. Which of the following is true with regards to female condoms? a. Migraine headache 18. are reusable 20. tells you she wants to use fertility awareness method of contraception. so fertilized ova can be implanted on them b. Susan’s husband tells you that he is considering vasectomy after the birth of their new child. Twelve months c. Supposed that Dana. She should assess whether her breasts feel sensitive to cool air 17. Your best answer is: a. Vaginismus was your first impression. The penis was too large that’s why the vagina triggered its defense to attempt to close it. d. ad 20 of her menstrual cycle. Dana asks about subcutaneous implants and she asks how long the implants will be effective. Day 15 d. A stuffy or runny nose b. While talking with Susan. The male client inserted the penis too deeply that it stimulates vaginal closure. Dana asks about female condoms. What makes her a good candidate for GIFT? a. She told you she had coitus on days 5. a necessary stipulation to rule out RH incompatibility . How will she determine her fertile days? a. The testes b. Susan has been found of having a cystocele. She is inquiring about pregnancy. clear and watery c. Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34 days. Dana has asked about GIFT procedure. copious. Five years d. You know that the psychological cause of vaginismus is related to: a. A sebaceous cyst arising from the vulvar fold b. What is the danger sign of COC you would ask her to report? a. Inform her of the adverse effects of inadequate nutrition to her fetus Situation 3: Susan is a patient in the clinic where you work. Prolapsed of the uterus into the vagina d. As a nurse. b. 16. 15. Menarche 12. She will notice that she feels hot as if she has an elevated temperature b. 10. Slight weight gain d. A cystocele is a. The vagina does not want to be penetrated. The epididymis d. She should monitor her emotions for sudden anger or crying d. Protrusion of intestines into the vagina c. Vasectomy involves the incision of which organ? a. mastery of contraception is needed to contribute to the society and economic growth. Thelarche d. Arthritis like symptoms c. Which would be the best answer? a. Which of the following instructions would you give her regarding this procedure? a. breathing c. Diuretic use c. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year d. breathing. asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary c. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes b. Have increased sensory perception c. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this particular population group. breathing. Pain d. Fever c. so the sperm can be injected through the cervix into it d. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix b. This condition interferes with fertility because a. She has normal uterus. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months 23. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary incontinence because of a. Dina. Decreased breath sounds with crackles b. The husband’s sperm is administered intravenously weekly Situation 6: You are assigned to take care of a group of patients across the lifespan. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked c. Pain in the elder persons require careful assessment because they a. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly? a. Circulation. Decreased bladder capacity d. Airway. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm b. Pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased FSH levels 24. because the fallopian tubes are blocked d. A woman has no children c. airway. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen c. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. 21. The woman has no uterus b. 17 years old. Their peers . Are expected to experience chronic pain d. Airway. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to go 22. renal and gastrointestinal function c. Disability (neurologic). The ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen d. Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma patient: a. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months after the procedure b. Lilia’s cousin on the other hand. 26. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present c. Mobilize drugs more rapidly 28. so all sperms will be motile Situation 5: Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS and INFERTILE COUPLES. Sperm can no longer reach the ova. Her husband is taking sildenafil. Have increased hepatic. Increased glomerular filtration b. Another client named Lilia is diagnosed as having endometriosis. disability (neurologic) d. Lilia is scheduled to have a hysterosalphingogram. Change in mental status 30. Preschoolers are able to see things from which of the following perspectives? a. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal pregnancy d. Are more sensitive to drugs b. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena? a. Administration of analgesics to the older persons requires careful patient assessment because older people a. Have a decreased pain threshold 27. breathing b. She may feel some cramping when the dye is inserted 25. Infertility is said to exist when: a. circulation 31. airway. Experience reduced sensory perception b.c. Dilated urethra 29. Have increased sensory perception d. knowing nurse Lorena’s specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor entails. Many women experience mild bleeding as an after effect d. “The pill prevents the uterus from making such endometrial lining that is why periods may often be scant or skipped occasionally. Call if contractions occur d. Which of the following should the nurse check first? a. Paradoxical irritability. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-coated diaper is a topical medication were to be prescribed and it were to go on the stomachs or buttocks. In conflict management. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth c. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during their hospital stay after birth will notice which of the following symptoms as a primary manifestation of Hirschsprung’s disease? a. the win-win approach occurs when a. It sounds like your friend has not been taking the pills properly. Their own and their caregivers c.” c. Assess for prolapsed of the umbilical cord c. Weakness of the leg muscles. A fine rash over the trunk b. The most appropriate response would be: a. Check the maternal heart rate d. four factors place the family members at risk for abuse. Their own and their mother’s d. Avoid intercourse for three days c. and respiratory distress c. “Missed period can be very dangerous and may lead to the formation of precancerous cells. loss of sensation in the legs. Avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper c. Transference and counter-transference . Relax because these symptoms will pass and the child will be fine c. Put the diaper on as usual d. the caregiver. diminished or absent gag reflex. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges b. The presence of family crisis b. According to the social intersectional perspective of child abuse and neglect. A client says she heard from a friend that you stop having periods once you are on the “pill”. Chronic poverty 34. The conflict is settled out of court so the legal system and the parties win 33. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid 40.” d. Difficulty sleeping. Which of these instructions to the client may indicate a need for further teaching? a. the child and a. she should stop taking the pills and get a pregnancy test as soon as possible. has bloody diarrhea. and is complaining of abdominal pain. Only their own 32. A woman has been rushed to the hospital with ruptured membrane. Check for the presence of infection b. Difficulty swallowing. the nurse would teach the caregivers to a.” b. A parent calls you and frantically reports that her child has gotten into her famous ferrous sulfate pills and ingested a number of these pills. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you most likely find when assessing an infant with Arnold-Chiari malformation? a. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been diagnosed as having a partial placenta previa. Administer syrup of ipecac d.” 37. These risk factors are the family itself. Call emergency medical services (EMS) and get the child to the emergency room b. Genetics c. “The pill should cause a normal menstrual period every month. There are two conflicts and the parties agree to each one b. Apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the diaper 41.b. The national emphasis on sex d. diarrhea and vomiting 35. Type of illness of the client b. Her child is now vomiting. and restlessness b. High-grade fever 38. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the success of relationships used in delivering nursing care? a. “If your friend has missed her period. Each party gives in on 50% of the disagreements making up the conflict c. and an arching of the back d. You will tell the mother to a. Both parties involved are committed resolving the conflict d. Avoid covering the area of the topical medication with the diaper b. hyper-vigilant. The skin turns yellow and then brown over the first 48 hours of life d. Call the poison control center 36. Stay on left side as much as possible when lying down 39. She is stable and has minimal spotting and is being sent home. The nurse will likely work with this adolescent in which of the following areas? a. Difficulty sleeping. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more for days or the child found to have 3-4+ proteinuria plus edema c. continuous (process). organize.c. Focus. substantiate d. Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a return demonstration just before discharge b. Circulating nurse in surgery b. Paradoxical irritability. By following the prescribed treatment regimen. substantiate c. diarrhea. Which difference does NOT necessarily belong? a. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3 days. solution Situation 7: The infant and child mortality rate in the low to middle income countries is ten times higher than industrialized countries. and a moon face d. Delegation b. According to De Rosa and Kochura’s (2006) article entitled “Implement Culturally Competent Health Care in your Workplace.” cultures have different patterns of verbal and nonverbal communication. Pediatric nurse practitioner 45. Eye contact c. The painful phenomenon known as back labor occurs in a client whose fetus in what position? a. the nurse would a. . understand. Effective communication d. Lacerations can provoke allergic responses due to gonadotropic hormone release b. clarify. and arching of the back d. Obstetrical nurse d. The nurse is working with an adolescent who complains of being lonely and having a lack of fulfillment in her life. A woman is less able to keep the laceration clean because of her fatigue c. The use of interpersonal decision making. utilize. flank pain. Competence 49. and vomiting 44. Personal behavior b. Lack of fulfillment d. understand. Healing is limited during pregnancy so these will not heal until after birth d. Supervision c. opportunity. diminished or absent gag reflex and respiratory distress c. changing complete blood count (CBC) with differential b. Identity 48. cough. This adolescent shies away from intimate relationships at times yet at other times she appears promiscuous. organize. and application of knowledge expected in the role of a licensed health care professional in the context of public health welfare and safety is an example of a. Difficulty swallowing. Isolation b. clarify. Which finding would most lead you to the conclusion that a relapse is happening? a. Which of the following roles BEST exemplifies the expanded role of the nurse? a. Focus. urgency on voiding. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from automobile accident. and cloudy urine 47. Focus. continuous. burning frequency. Responsibility d. Left occipito-posterior position 50. Elevated temperature.6 degrees (100 degrees F). Personality of the participants 42. FOCUS methodology stands for a. Increased bleeding can occur from uterine pressure on leg veins 43. Loneliness c. Why are lacerations of lower extremities potentially more serious among pregnant women than other? a. Conversational style 46. understand and solution b. A temperature of 37. the child experiences a remission. Breech position d. opportunity. You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with acute glomerulonephritis. In working with the caregivers of a client with an acute or chronic illness. extreme thirst. increase in urine output. psychomotor skills. Brow position b. Focus. Subject matter d. the WHO and UNICEF launched the protocol Integrated Management of childhood Illnesses to reduce the morbidity and mortality against childhood illnesses. sore throat. hypervigilant. In response to this. Right occipito-anterior position c. You are now checking to make sure the child does not have a relapse. Medication nurse c. Feeling hot to touch d. Increasing hematocrit count c. When the nurse pinched the abdomen. Advising the elimination of vectors by keeping water containers covered b. 61. Moderate dehydration b. In correcting misconceptions and myths about certain diseases and the management. Steadily increasing hematocrit count d. Immunization is a form of health promotion that aims at preventing the common childhood illnesses. Feeding more 55. Rectal temperature of 38 or higher c. Some dehydration c. Give vitamin A supplement d. If a child with diarrhea registers two signs in the yellow row in the IMCI chart. his eyes are sunken. Axillary temperature of 37. All of the above e. Which of the following is the most important treatment of patients with Dengue H-fever? a. Forced fluids b. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet b. Providing warmth through light weight covers c. How will you classify Celeste’s illness? a.5C or higher b. Severe dehydration d. There is no blood in the stool. Avoid unnecessary movement of patient d. The community health nurses primary concern in the immediate control of hemorrhage among patients with dengue is a. he is irritable. Severe dehydration d.51. Cough of 30 days d. Marked anorexia. Dysentery d. Give aspirin for fever b. Community health nurses should be alert in observing a Dengue suspect. No dehydration 53. groups and community the nature of the disease and its causation d. Observing closely the patient for vital signs leading to shock d. Persistent headache 58. A child who is 7 weeks has had diarrhea for 14 days but has no sign of dehydration classified as a. Fever as used in IMCI includes a. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as truly positive signs indicative of Dengue H-fever? a. the nurse offers fluid to Celeste and he drinks eagerly. we can classify the patient as a. No dehydration 52. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1cm square c. Persistent diarrhea b. The child with no dehydration needs home treatment. Some dehydration c. Severe persistent diarrhea 54. Conducting strong health education drives/campaign directed towards proper garbage disposal c. An important role of the community health nurse in the prevention and control of Dengue H-fever includes a. Explaining to the individuals. 56. Replacement of body fluids c. The following is NOT an indicator for hospitalization of H-fever suspects? a. A and C only Situation 8: Prevention of Dengue is an important nursing responsibility and controlling it’s spread is a priority once outbreak has been observed. it goes back slowly. the health worker should first . Sever dysentery c. Celeste has had diarrhea for 8 days. Which of the following is not included in the rules for home treatment in this case? a. Moderate dehydration b. abdominal pain and vomiting b. Keeping the patient at rest 59. Fall in the platelet count 60. Practicing residual spraying with insecticides 57. families. When to return c. Prolonged bleeding time b. Ice cap over the abdomen in case of melena Situation 9: Health education and Health promotion is an important part of nursing responsibility in the community. Measles. Those under post case treatment c. OPV. These vaccines are given 3 doses at one month intervals a. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of care for cancer cases? a. In the prevention and control of cancer.a. Do not continue DPT vaccination anymore b. 90% 64. Hep B. 80% b. 80% b. TT. This is nursing parlance is nothing less than the a. Those scheduled for surgery d. Conduct community assemblies b. 66. 85% c. Identify the myths and misconceptions prevailing in the community b. One with chest indrawing and the other has diarrhea. Those under supportive care c. The following conditions apply. DPT Situation 10: With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative to treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. Nursing research d. The following questions apply: 71. DPT. After TT3 vaccination. Nursing diagnosis b. which of the following activities is the most important function of the community health nurse? a. In Community Health Nursing. Nursing protocol c. Give DT instead of DPT d. Bronchopneumonia b. Treatment at early stage d. If ever convulsions occur after administering DPT. Those scheduled for surgery 70. 95% 63. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with symptoms of cancer c. How many percent of measures are prevented by immunization at 9 months of age? a. Early detection 67. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of care for cancer cases? a. the best tool any nurse should be prepared to apply is a scientific approach. control and treatment modalities d. Explain how and why these myths came about d. DPT. TT b. Diagnosis and treatment c. Those under early case detection b. This approach ensures quality of care given at the community setting. Give pertussis of the EPT and remove DT 65. a mother is said to be protected to tetanus by around a. Those under early treatment b. Those under early detection d. Nursing process Situation 11: Two children were brought to you. OPV. Those undergoing treatment 69. what should the nurse best suggest to the mother? a. Which among the following is the primary focus of prevention of Cancer? a. how would you classify the 1st child? a. Using Integrated Management and Childhood Illness (IMCI) approach. Advise mother to comeback after 1 week c. OPV c. Identify the source of these myths and misconceptions c. Teach woman about proper/correct nutrition 68. No pneumonia: cough or cold c. despite the availability and use of many equipment and devices to facilitate the job of the community health nurse. DPT d. Severe pneumonia . 90% c. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters in our process of detection. 99% d. BCG. Elimination of conditions causing cancer b. 99% d. Select the appropriate IEC strategies to correct them 62. Dysentery c. no chest in-drawing. Nina has no general danger signs. She has 45 breaths per minute. the 2nd child has diarrhea for 5 days. Signs of dehydration 82. They are more active than usual so they throw off comes 78. She is irritable. Pneumonia 72. and positive tourniquet test c. Abdominal bleeding and pain 79. Which of the following is NOT indicated in the care for home management at this case? a. he has: a. Nina’s treatment should include the following EXCEPT: a. and her eyes are sunken. They do not have as many fat stored as other infants d.9 C. give 100-300 ml clean water as well during this period c. No pneumonia b. A child with diarrhea is observed for the following EXCEPT: a. and her temperature registered at 37 degrees C. Prevent low blood sugar 80. Ask what are the child’s problem b. Their skin is more susceptible to conduction of cold b. Give aspirin d.d. For infants under 6 months old who are not breastfed. Why are small for gestational age newborns at risk for difficulty maintaining body temperature? a. Reassess the child and classify him for rehydration b. Severe dehydration d. There is no blood in the stool. The child with no dehydration needs home treatment. Presence of blood in the stool d. A child at a general danger sign b. Give ORS if there is skin petechiae. How long the child has diarrhea b. Some dehydration b. Very severe febrile disease c. Skin petechiae c. Nina. Oxytocin is administered to Rita to augment labor. Give drugs every 4 hours . has no convulsion and not abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Boronchopneumonia 76. Check the patient’s level of consciousness c. persistent. Check for the four main symptoms d. In assessing the patient’s condition using the IMCI approach strategy. Give in the health center the recommended amount of ORS for 4 hours d. Use plan C if there is bleeding from the nose or gums b. he has no vomiting. 30 breaths per minute or more d. While on treatment.5 kg and it is her initial visit. Carol is 15 months old and weighs 5. if you were the nurse in charge of Carol. A high choking voice d. Pneumonia d. Her mother says she developed cough 3 days ago. Her temperature is 38. 40 breaths per minute or more b. no stridor. A swollen tender tongue c. Her mother says that Carol is not eating well and unable to breastfeed. The nurse offered fluids and the child drinks eagerly. Using IMCI parameters. Severe pneumonia d. Headache and vomiting b. Severe pneumonia c. vomiting. Which of the following treatment should NOT be considered if the child has severe dengue hemorrhagic fever? a. Do not give any other foods to the child for home treatment 75. They are preterm so are born relatively small in size c. The 1st child who is 13 months has fast breathing. How would you classify Nina’s illness? a. What are the first symptoms of water intoxication to observe for during this procedure? a. 60 breaths per minute 73. how will you classify her illness? a. Using the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness or IMCI strategy. Nina 18 months old weighed 18 kg. the first thing that a nurse should do is to: a. 50 breaths per minute c. Check for the general danger signs 81. How would you classify Nina’s manifestation? a. No dehydration 74. Severe malnutrition 77. Syringe and needles b. may I get the bread myself because you have not washed your hands” b. he talks of playing outside until midnight. Inform when to return to the health center 83. Continue feeding the child c. receiver. The amount of body surface that is unburned b. and is always tired. and non-hemorrhagic with and without clotting b. A female client asks the nurse about the use of a cervical cap. Jordan. Percentages of total body surface area (TSBA) c. has no lunch money. Being a community health nurse. It must be removed within 24 hours 87. Fidelity and nonmaleficence c. tone of voice and gestures d. The extent of burns in children are normally assessed and expressed in terms of a. The victim of poverty 90. A victim of child neglect d. Justice and beneficence b. channel. It may affect Pap smear results b. Message. Consider this situation: Vendors selling bread with their bare hands. retrovirus d. This ethical principle that the patient referred to a. How deep the deepest burns are d. 16 years old. you have the responsibility of participating in protecting the health of people. it is better to use a pick up forceps /bread tong” d. An orphan c. 91.b. “Miss. Body fluids c. your hands are dirty. sender. When patients cannot make decisions for themselves. They receive money with these hands. dirty. Which method of transmission is common to contract AIDS? a. Nonmaleficence c. It does not need to be fitted by the physician c. has been diagnosed to have AIDS. Give the child more fluids d. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old. listener and reply c. parasites . It does not require the use of spermicide d. 86. Ms. and feedback 88. Which statement is correct regarding the use of the cervical cap? a. Autonomy 84. fungus b. Wash your hands first before getting the bread” Situation 12: The following questions refer to common clinical encounters experienced by an entry level nurse. bacteria c. Facial expression. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence quotient (IQ) b. Verbal. “miss. Sexual contact d. poor-fitting clothes is always hungry. What should you do? a. Three types: pre-renal. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the following: a. Transfusion 92. Beneficence b. When the nurse asks the boy his tiredness. The major components of the communication process are a. Respect for person d. The nurse will suspect that this child is: a. Two types: acute and subacute Situation 13: Mike. Fidelity and justice 85. He worked as an entertainer in a cruise ship. Which of the following indicates the type(s) of acute renal failure? a. All of these c. You do not see them washing their hands. RN. Beneficence and nonmaleficence d. “Miss. Four types: hemorrhagic with and without clotting. The severity of the burns on a 1 to 5 burn scale 89. written. intrarenal and post-renal d. the nurse advocate relies on the ethical principle of a. believes that a patient should be treated as individual. Speaker. One type: acute c. and non-verbal b. Boil used syringe and needles b. B 13. D 10. Membranous laryngitis 97. B 47. Comfort measures ANSWER KEY: 1. B 53. Reverse isolation d. Sulfur c. A 3. B 17. B 5. She was reported by her sister to have measles but she is at home because of fever. D 49. Immunization d. Inflammation of the conjunctive c. your antiseptic solution is in some form of which one below? a. As a nurse. Avoid accidental wound Situation 14: Michelle is a 6 year old pre-schooler. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure to an infected person. you teach mother and family members the prevention of complication of measles. B 39. Which procedure should be of outmost importance? a. D 4. Filterable virus of measles is transmitted by a. B 38. Washing isolation d. Inflammation of the nasopharynx d. A 51. Salt 98. B 20. A 7. Ulcerative stomatitis 99. A 41. As a public health nurse.93. C 22. Water b. C . Food ingestion d. A 27. A 24. C 29. D 48. Alkaline d. Injection of gamma globulin c. Alcohol wash b. ears. Prevent infection c. D 16. A 11. A 34. D 50. C 37. Temperature fails to drop b. Rubeola is an Arab term meaning Red. D 32. Nursing responsibility for rehabilitation of patient includes the provision of a. D 30. A 44. B 40. To clean the mouth. D 25. A 26. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect health workers dealing with the AIDS patients. C 12. Inflammatory conjunctiva d. D 45. D 2. B 52. Which of the following should be closely watched? a. D 54. A 9. To render comfort measure is one of the priorities which includes care of the skin. B 35. Label personal belonging d. D 14. B 6. eyes. Bronchial pneumonia c. your physical examination must determine complication especially: a. A 21. D 31. mouth and nose. Universal precaution c. upper respiratory problem and white spots in her mouth. Otitis media b. Gloving technique 94. Droplet c. Water supply b. Which among these must be done as priority? a. D 15. 96. You are assigned in a private room of Mike. Proper nutrition 95. C 23. Sexual contact 100. C 33. D 43. Daily exercise b. Use gloves when handling specimens c. What primary health teaching would you give to Mike? a. Terminal disinfection b. C 42. The rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior to eruption behind the ears. D 18. C 46. Source of infection of measles is secretion of nose and throat of infected person. D 36. D 8. C 19. A 28. C 66.55. C 59. C 86. . C 80. he was absent because of fever. B 95. B 89. c 65. A 87. C 99. He helps his mother gather molasses after school. anorexia. A 79. D 71. A 74. One day. B 94. A 62. D 98. B 77. B 97. D 56. C 90. D NURSING PRACTICE III – CARE OF THE CLIENT WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS Situation I: Leo lives in the squatter area. He goes to nearby school. B 60. B 100. malaise. C 76. A 83. B 70. C 72. D 75. B 61. C 57. D 88. C 93. A 68. C 85. A 81. d 64. A 73. C 84. B 82. C 58. B 96. C 78. C 91. A 67. and abdominal discomfort. a 63. A 69. C 92. Which of these measures is a priority? a. 6. Sample b. Result b. The information that an investigator collects from the subjects or participants in a research study is usually called a. What is the average incubation period of Hepatitis A? a. 30 days b. 14 days Situation 2: As a nurse researcher. Treatment d. Eliminate fecal contamination from foods b.1. Hypothesis d. Which mode of transmission has the infection agent taken? a. cleaning lighting and air duct surfaces in the ceiling and cleaning everything downward to the floor 3. Sexual contact 2. Instrument c. Airborne d. Paraphrase Situation 3: Mrs Pichay is admitted to your ward. Concept 10. Fecal oral b. Thorough had washing before and after eating and toileting c. Investigation of contact b.” 11. Setting b. Quotation c. Quarantine of the sick individual d. Droplet c. Removing all detachable objects in the room. Administration of immunoglobulin to families b. urine and blood c. The device or techniques an investigator employs to collect data is called a. Health promotion and education to families and opportunities about the disease. Data c. Which of the following is referred to when another person’s idea is inappropriately credited as one’s own? a. 50 days d. Leo was diagnosed to have hepatitis A. The recipients of experimental treatment is an experimental design or the individuals to be observed in a non-experimental design are called a. Which of the following nursing responsibilities is essential in Mrs. Upon assessment. Mass administration of Immunoglobulin 5. Which of the following is concurrent disinfection in the case of Leo? a. The use of another person’s ideas or workings without giving appropriate credit results from inaccurate or incomplete attribution of materials to its sources. Pichay who will undergo thracentesis? . Output d. Which of the following must be emphasized during mother’s class to Leo’s mother? a. Mass vaccination of uninfected individuals c. Variable d. Concept 7. 60 days c. Sanitary disposal of feces. The MD ordered “prepare for thoracentesis this pm to remove excess air from the pleural cavity. Hypothesis b. Use of attenuated vaccines d. you must have a very good understanding of the common terms of concept used in research. Which of the following usually refers to the independent variables in doing research? a. Sample 9. Subjects c. Assumption d. Boiling of food especially meat 4. Disaster control should be undertaken when there are 3 or more hepatitis A cases. Cause c. Effect 8. Plagiarism b. its cause and transmission d. Pichay who is for thoracentesis is assigned by the nurse to which of the following positions? a. Dorsal recumbent position d. Support and reassure client during the procedure b. Chest x-ray was ordered after thoracentesis. Restrain patient’s body movement 17. Just as the nurse was entering the room. To rule out any possible perforation c. Usually. 25. Which of the following would be contraindicated? a. how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided? a. Modified trendelenburg c. Insert a padded tongue depressor between his jaws d. The simplest pain relieving technique is a. The removal of the stones in the gallbladder c. The removal of the gallbladder b. the patient who was sitting on his chair begins to have a seizure. complained of severe pain at the wound site. was brought to the hospital for diagnostic workup after he had experienced seizure in his office. Mr. Obtain his oral temperature b. Apply pressure over the puncture site as soon as the needle is withdrawn 14. During thoracentesis. Say he is thirsty and hungry 20. To rule out pneumothorax b. Low fowler’s b. 16. Santos is placed on seizure precaution. Instruct the patient to keep his head still and steady c. Shampoo hair thoroughly to remove oil and dirt b. To decongest d. Most comfortable walking and moving about b. noon time. Turn on the unaffected side c. Santos is scheduled for CT Scan for the next day. Trendelenburg position b. Mr. Side lying d. Orthopneic position 13. Which of the following is the correct preparation as instructed by the nurse? a. you will explain a. Maintain strict aseptic technique c. Choledocholithotomy is a. Determine if client has allergic reaction to local anesthesia d. When your client asks what is the reason for another chest x-ray. The removal of the stones in the common bile duct d. Encourage him to be out of bed 19. No special preparation is needed. Supine position c. Damian. Place flat in bed b. during and after seizure. the nurse knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what position? a. Place patient in a quiet and cool room b. To prevent leakage of fluid in the thoracic cavity. Mr. Ricardo J. The removal of the stones in the kidney 22. Which of the following must the nurse do first? a. Sleeps for a period of time d. Lift the patient and put him on the bed c. Shave scalp and securely attach electrodes to it 18. Encourage to perform his own personal hygiene c. Supine Situation 5: Mrs. an immediate post-op cholecystectomy and choledocholithotomy patient. 21. Ensure that informed consent has been signed c. Ascertain if chest x-rays and other tests have been prescribed and completed 12. Santos. Ease the patient to the floor b. how will you position the client after thoracentesis? a.a. Mrs. Give a cleansing enema and give fluids until 8AM d. Advise patient to sit perfectly still during needle insertion until it has been withdrawn from the chest d. Before. On bed rest 15. Becomes restless and agitated c. Distraction . which of the following nursing intervention will be most crucial? a. Turn on the affected side d. Allow him to wear his own clothing d. To rule out any foreign body Situation 4: A computer analyst. ? a. Older patients seldom tend to report pain than the younger ones b. Proper positioning and draping of clients 30. they are tolerant. Physiological responses d. Pain is a sign of weakness c. Which will be your priority nursing action? a. Pain accompanies acute illness c. Taking aspirin c. Instruct client to go to sleep and relax b. Inadequate anesthesia is said to be one the common cause of pain both in intra and post op patients. Pentoxidone 5mg IV every 8 hours was prescribed for post-abdominal pain. Which of the following statement on pain is TRUE: a. What nursing intervention would you take? a.b. Explain he proper use of PCA to alleviate anxiety c. Skill of surgical team and lesser manipulation b. Real pain . Record the description of pain b. Avoid overdosing to prevent dependence/tolerance d. which of the following condition is a more reliable indicator? a. Medicate client as prescribed b. Appropriate preparation for the scheduled procedure c. Older patients do not believe in analgesics. Encourage deep breathing and turning d. Check abdominal dressing for possible swelling b. Your assessment reveals bowel sound on all quadrants and the dressing is dry and intact. Pain as you know is very subjective. Pain produces the same reaction such as groaning and moaning 24. Change to a more comfortable position Situation 6: You are assigned at a surgical ward and clients have been complaining of post pain at varying degrees. Patient’s reaction to pain varies d. more importantly RR 28. The client complained of abdominal distention and pain. it is known as the ‘placebo effect. Subarachnoid block and intravenous c. your initial response is: a. Intravenous and inhalation Situation 7: Nurse’s attitudes toward the pain influence the way they perceive and interact with clients in pain. If general anesthesia is desired. Verbally acknowledge the pain c. Facial expression and gestures c. d. Nurses should understand that when a client responds favorable to a placebo. Nursing assessment and management of pain should address the following beliefs EXCEPT: a. Encourage client to do imagery c. Patient’s description of the pain sensation 25. Conscience b. Use of modern technology in closing the wound d. 31. Advise the client to close the lips and avoid deep breathing and talking c. Call surgeon stat 27.’ Placebos do not indicate whether or not a client has a. Refer the complaint to the doctor d. it will involve loss of consciousness. A one-day post-operative abdominal surgery client has been complaining of severe throbbing abdominal pain described as 9 in a 1-10 pain rating. When a client complains of pain. Pain rating scale of 1 to 10 b. 26. Turn to sides frequently and avoid too much talking 29. Positioning 23. Monitor VS. In pain assessment. Offer hot and clear soup d. Inhalation and regional d.R. Deep breathing exercise d. Epidural and spinal b. Which of the following are the 2 general types of GA? a. Culture and pain are not associated b. Surgical pain might be minimized by which nursing action in the O. Complaining of pain will lead to being labeled a “bad” patient 32. Your nursing intervention that can alleviate pain is? a. Nurses should be aware that older adults are at risk of underrated pain. Apply a moisturizing lotion to dry feet but not between the toes d. Withdraw the intermediate acting insulin first before withdrawing the short acting insulin first 37. The nurse should monitor which of the following test to evaluate the overall therapeutic compliance of a diabetic patient? a. Ketone levels d. Segovia. Physical dependence occurs in anyone who takes opioid over a period of time. 36. Upon the assessment of Hba1c of Mrs. In this case. Draw insulin from the vial of clear insulin first b. Administer Tylenol as ordered d. Avoid using mild soap on the feet c. Forgetfulness b. Prevent and recognize hypoglycemia 41. Always have a podiatrist to cut your toe nails. Identify the absence and presence of pain d. Intravenous infusion of normal saline . Janevi is preparing a mixed dose of insulin. Never cut them yourself 42. Drug tolerance 33. Which of the following nursing intervention are you going to carry out first? a. Avoid infection b. Isolate opioid dependent to a restful resort d. Ask the client to point to the painful area by just one finger 34. a 30 year-old dentist with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus. Glycosylated hemoglobin b. the nurse has been informed of a 9% Hba1c result. Endotracheal intubation b. gelatin and chicken bouillon 38. Urine glucose levels 40. Janevi administers regular insulin at 7 am and the nurse should instruct Jane to avoid exercising at around a. Disease d. vomiting. 100 units of NPH insulin c. Draw insulin from the vial of the intermediate acting insulin first c. Offer fruit juice. You are the nurse in the pain clinic where you have client who has difficulty specifying the location of pain. How can you assist such clients? a. Include in recreational outdoor activities c. Prevent and recognize hyperglycemia d. Janevi complains of nausea. Another patient was brought to the emergency room in an unresponsive state and a diagnosis of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar non-ketotic syndrome is made. The pain is vague b. she will teach the patient to: a. Test the client’s blood glucose level c. Withhold the client’s next insulin injection b. What symptom more distressing than pain should the nurse monitor when giving opioids especially among elderly clients who are in pain? a. Instruct slow tapering of the drug dosage and alleviate physical withdrawal symptoms Situation 8: The nurse is performing health education activities for Janevi Segovia. Start another drug and slowly lessen the opioid dosage b. Allergic reaction like pruritus 35. Take adequate food and nutrition c.c. What do you tell a mother of a ‘dependent’ when asked for advice? a. Between 8 am to 9 am d. Drowsiness d. Janevi was brought at the emergency room after four months because she fainted in her clinic. Fill both syringes with the prescribed insulin dosage then shake the bottle vigorously d. Constipation c. In the afternoon after taking lunch 39. By charting it hurts all over c. diaphoresis and headache. The nurse immediately prepared to initiate which of the following anticipated physician’s order? a. 9 – 11 am b. The nurse is satisfied with her performance when she a. Soak feet in hot water b. After 8 hours c. The nurse is teaching a plan of care for Jane with regards to proper foot care. Which of the following should be included in the plan? a. Fasting blood glucose c. Acute confusion 50. Functional decline d. Assess level of consciousness b. there are safety protocols that should be followed. Continue as usual and have the FBS analysis performed and specimen be taken Situation 9: Elderly clients usually produce unusual signs when it comes to different diseases. Decreased alveolar surfaced area c. Decreased urine output c. gown. The OR nurse should be well versed with all these to safeguard the safety and quality of patient delivery outcome. The aging process is a complicated process and the nurse should understand that it is an inevitable fact and she must be prepared to care for the growing elderly population. Fever c. Cardiac ischemia in an older patient usually produces: a. Diuretic use d. Merle. Pain d. The nurse teaches Jane to know the difference between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. Blurred vision d. Jane demonstrates understanding of the teaching by stating that glucose will be taken if which of the following symptoms develops? a. Jane has been schedule to have a FBS taken in the morning. Suction the stomach content using NGT prior to specimen collection c. manicure. Chest pain radiating to the left arm d. 51. According to availability of anesthesiologist . Very high creatinine kinase level c. Dilated urethra b. The most dependable sign of infection in the older patient is: a. ST-T wave changes b. Hyperventilation 47. Advise to physician to reschedule to diagnostic examination next day d. and dentures 52. Elevated blood glucose level and low plasma bicarbonate level 44. Fruit breath odor 45. Change in mental status b. The nurse tells Jane not to eat or drink after midnight. Decreased bladder capacity 48. and she said “yes. Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate 43. Prior to taking the blood specimen. Which finding would the nurse expect to note as confirming this diagnosis? a. This may indicate: a. Shakiness c. The older patient is at higher risk for incontinence because of a. When are there procedures best scheduled? a. 46. Last case b. the nurse noticed that Jane is holding a bottle of distilled water. is complaining of dizziness when she stands up. Hypoxia may occur in the older patients because of which of the following physiologic changes associated with aging? a. In between cases c. Check for jewelry.” Which of the following is the best nursing action? a. Increased glomerular filtration rate c. Which of the following should be given highest priority when receiving patient in the OR? a. Polyuria b. Decreased anterior-posterior chest diameter d. Jane eventually developed DKA and is being treated in the emergency room.d. Assess vital signs d. Increased respiration and an increase in pH d. Administer syrup of ipecac to remove the distilled water from the stomach b. age 86. A visual problem c. The nurse asked Jane if she drank any. Ineffective airway clearance b. Decreased breath sounds with crackles Situation 10: in the OR. Comatose state b. Surgeries like I and D (incision and drainage) and debridement are relatively short procedures but considered ‘dirty cases’. Dementia b. Verify patient identification and informed consent c. Drug toxicity 49. If a nurse will sterilize a heat and moisture labile instrument. That the items had undergone sterilization process but not necessarily sterile c.d. you will anticipate increased risk for a. According to the surgeon’s preference 53. The surgeon and anesthesiologist are in tandem c. Which one is not included? a. Autoclaving c. Post-operative respiratory infection Situation 11: Sterilization is the process of removing ALL living microorganism. As a peiroperative nurse. 10. Check patient’s ID d. Steam sterilization b. Autoclave of steam under pressure is the most common method of sterilization in the hospital. OR nurses should be aware that maintaining the client’s safety is the overall goal of nursing care during the intraopertive phase. Gray d. it is according the AORN recommendation to use which of the following method of sterilization? a. Sterilization by boiling 57. Chemical sterilization c. Account for the number of sponges. 61. Delayed wound healing d. Sterilization d.000 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes c. Another nursing check that should not be missed before the induction of general anesthesia is a. Assess the readiness of the client prior to surgery b. To be free of ALL living microorganism is sterility.000 degrees Celsius for 1 hour b. The items are disinfected d. Check baseline vital signs 55. 37 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes d. The items are sterile b. Perioperative anxiety and stress b. supplies used during the surgical procedure d. 121 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes 58. The nurse knows that the temperature and time is set to the optimum level to destroy not only the microorganism. Strap made of strong non-abrasive materials are fastened securely around the joints of knees and ankles and around the 2 hands around an arm board d. Chemical indicators communicate that a. Put side rails up and ask the client not to get out of bed b. Ethylene oxide gas b. a chemical indicator strip should be placed above the package. That the items had undergone disinfection process but not necessarily disinfected 60. There are 3 general types of sterilization used in the hospital. Black b. preferable Muslin sheet. Send the client to OR with the family c. but also the spores. Which of the following is the ideal setting of the autoclave machine? a. Client is monitored throughout the surgery by the assistant anesthesiologist 54. It is important that before a nurse prepares the material to be sterilized. Evaluate the type of anesthesia appropriate for the surgical client 62. how can you best meet the safety need of the client after administering preoperative narcotic? a. you make certain that throughout the procedure a. Ensure that the airway is adequate c. Delayed coagulation time c. Check for presence of dentures c. The surgeon greets his client before induction of anesthesia b. Blue c. What is the color of the stripe produced after autoclaving? a. needles. Flash sterilizer d. Some lifetime habits and hobbies affect post-operative respiratory function. 56. Obtain consent form . Allow client to get up to go to the comfort room d. If you client smokes 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past 10 years. As the circulating nurse. 5. Alcohol immersion Situation 22: Nurses hold a variety of roles when providing care to a perioperative patient. Which of the following role would be the responsibility of the scrub nurse? a. Check for presence of underwear b. Purple 59. If you are the nurse in charge for scheduling surgical cases. intern on duty 69. Who are your anesthesiologist. Localized heat and redness b. who is diabetic. and healthcare providers. If hair at the operative site is not shaved. Malou found out that she has an order of Demerol 100mg I. internist and assistant? d. Communicate with the client to verify if insulin was incorporated d. which of the following will the nurse expect? a. Incorporate insulin as ordered 70. who weighs 110 lbs. Arguments between nurses and payments regarding treatments d. Biomedical division b. Upon checking the chart. surgeon d. Equipments needed for surgery need not be sterilized if this is an emergency necessitating life saving measures b. The perioperative nurse observe for what signs of impending infection? a. One of the last patients will need surgical amputation but there are no sterile surgical equipments. Clipped d. hearing aid. Wash hands d. 57. Pathology department 67. What should the circulating nurse do? a. Who is your anesthesiologist? . prior to surgery. Who is your assistant and anesthesiologist. Request the client to expose the incision wound Situation 13: The pre-operative nurse collaborates with the client significant others. In this case. etc… b. she found out that there is no insulin incorporated as ordered. Separation of the incision d. In such cases. Observed untoward signs and symptoms and interventions including contaminant intervening factors Situation 14: Team effort is the best demonstrated in the OR. Drape b. 66. Chaplaincy services c. is in severe pain 3 hours after cholecystectomy. Tess should verify the order with a. Baseline physical. It is the responsibility of the pre-op nurse to do skin prep for patient undergoing surgery. Communicate with the ward nurse to verify if insulin was incorporated or not c.63. anesthesiologist c. Forwarding the trauma client to the nearest hospital that has available sterile equipments is appropriate c. To control environmental hazards in the OR. Tess. Rosie. discovered that Malou. the nurse collaborates with the following departments EXCEPT: a. and what is your preferred time and type of surgery? c. Blood clots and scar tissue are visible 65. the PACU nurse. prn for pain. An air crash occurred near the hospital leading to a surge of trauma patient. Double check the doctor’s order and call the attending MD b. It is also the nurse’s function to determine when infection is developing in the surgical incision. is for debridement for incision of wound. Which of the following nursing interventions is done when examining the incision would and changing the dressing? a. Who is your internist? b. Pulled c. what should be done to make suturing easy and lessen chance of incision infection? a. When the circulating nurse checked the present IV fluid.M. artificial limbs. nurse supervisor b. The documentation of all nursing activities performed is legally and professionally vital. Serosanguinous exudates and skin blanching c. Which of the following should NOT be included in the patient’s chart? a. emotional. Get patient’s consent c. and psychosocial data c. Observe the dressing and type and odor of drainage if any b. what important information do you need to ask the surgeon? a. 71. The nurse will need to sterilize the item before using it to the client using the regular sterilization setting at 121 degree Celsius in 15 minutes d. flash sterilizer will be used at 132 degrees Celsius in 3 minutes 68. Presence of prosthetoid devices such as dentures. Infection control committee d. Shampooed 64. A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal bleeding. scrub nurse 74. 0. U waves b. In the OR< the nursing tandem for every surgery is: a. scrub nurse. Isotonic solution c. Any iv solution available to KVO b. While team effort is needed in the OR for efficient and quality patient care delivery. Which of the following IV solution would the nurse expect the intern to prescribe? a. Elevates ST segment 80. 0. Scrub and circulating nurses 73. Surgeon. Irrigation of the external ear canal d. anesthesiologist. Surgeon. Electricity b. orderly b. Scrub nurse and nurse anesthetist d. Normal saline solution c. Thrombophlebitis 79. Nurse anesthetist. Orderly/clerk b. circulating nurse. assistant surgeon. Absent P waves c. nurse assistant. The nurse notes that the client’s IV site is cool. A nurse reviews the client’s electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.45% sodium chloride d. and instrument technician c.45% sodium chloride b. and swollen and the solution is not infusing. assistants. Surgeon. The client is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. anesthesiologist. Urethral catheterization 82. 0. The nurse concludes that which of the following complications has been experienced by the client? a. assistant surgeon. The nurse anticipates which of the following intravenous solutions will most likely be prescribed to increase intravascular volume. anesthesiologist. To prevent temporary excess of insulin or transient hyperinsulin reaction.2 mEq/L. we should limit the number of people in the room for infection control. Closed reduction of a fracture b.33% sodium chloride d. Circulating nurse d. Which of the following is not true with regards to the informed consent? . what solution you prepare in anticipation of the doctor’s order? a. anesthesiologist c. Anesthesiologist 75. Leg work d.9% sodium chloride 78. scrub nurse. Infiltration d. An informed consent is required for a. One patient had a runaway IV of 50% dextrose. Hypertonic solution d. 10% dextrose in water c. Phlebitis c. scrub nurse. Elevated T waves d. The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess if the condition of assigned clients. Surgeon. Who usually act as an important part of the OR personnel by getting the wheelchair or stretcher. replace immediate blood loss and increase blood pressure? a. radiologist. Insertion of intravenous catheter c. Nurse supervisor c. pathologist d. Hypotonic solution 81. 76. Lactated ringer’s solution 77. The breakdown in teamwork is often times a failure in a. Which of the following would the nurse note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value? a. Inadequate supply c.72. pale. The physician orders the nurse to prepare an isotonic solution. Instrument technician and circulating nurse b. 5% dextrose in 0. intern. 5% dextrose in water b. Communication Situation 15: Basic knowledge on Intravenous solutions in necessary for care of clients with problems with fluid and electrolytes. Who comprises this team? a. Infection b. and pushing them towards the operating room? a. it is essential that you a. thermometer. what are your foremost considerations for selecting chemical agent for disinfection? a. Vital signs including BP c. you are aware of the correct processing methods for preparing instruments and other devices for patient use to prevent infection. The client taking diuretics b. Wrap the instrument with sterile water c. mask. 91. What OR attires are worn in the restricted area? a. Reporting a medication error 84. A client with congestive heart failure c. OR shoes. mask. Dry the instrument thoroughly d. Material compatibility and efficiency b. Scrub suit. Ethylene oxide gas aeration for 20 hours d. Odor and availability c. Mask. ET tube. Autoclaving at 121 degree Celsius in 15 minutes b. High level disinfectants immersion in 1 hour d. gloves. The client with an ileostomy d. 2% glutaraldehyde immersion for 10 hours Situation 17: The OR is divided into three zones to control traffic flow and contamination. Head cap. Rinse with tap water followed by alcohol b. What should you do? a.a. A client receiving frequent wound irrigation Situation 16: As a perioperative nurse. As an OR nurse. It should describe the client’s diagnosis d. the nurse determined that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume? a. It should contain a thorough and detailed explanation of the procedure to be done c. Filling an incidence report d. It should describe different treatment alternatives b. the nurse determines that which client is at risk for deficient fluid volume? a. Cap. scrub suit. Accurate documentation and reporting b. Cost and duration of disinfection process d. Low level disinfectants immersion in 24 hours b. The strength is 500/ml. It should give an explanation of the client’s prognosis 83. 86. On review of the client’s medical records. Intermediate level disinfectants immersion in 12 hours c. A client with colostomy b. High level disinfectant immersion in 10 hours 90. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning 85. cytoscope are all BEST sterilized using which of the following? a. which of the following is used? a. Nursing intervention for a patient on low dose IV insulin therapy includes the following EXCEPT: a. . A client with decreased kidney function d. OR shoes c. You know that the hallmark of nursing accountability is the a. Test the potency of the high level disinfectant d. You have a critical heat labile instrument to sterilize and are considering to use high level disinfectant. Double the amount of high level disinfectant c. Prolong the exposure time according to manufacture’s direction 89. Cover the soaking vessel to contain the vapor b. Rinse with sterile water 88. endoscope. The doctor ordered to incorporate 1000 “u” insulin to the remaining on going IV. Elevation of serum ketones to monitor ketosis b. The client with renal failure c. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. Admitting your mistakes c. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the client’s medical records. Estimates serum potassium d. Duration of disinfection and efficiency 87. head cap b. Bronchoscope. shoes 92. Flash sterilizer at 132 degree Celsius in 3 minutes c. scrub suit d. Elevation of blood glucose levels 93. Before you use a disinfected instrument. OR shoes. To achieve sterilization using disinfectants. For 3 weeks. The handling of the materials as well as its transport c. C 21. Sharps are sterilized using autoclave and not cidex d. A 61. The material is clean b. B 18. B 38. When you say sterile. B 74. A 53. B 9. C 54. C 14. Sterility is event related. 2 organizations endorsed that sterility are affected by factors other than the time itself. A 40. B 52.D 46. C 71. it means: a. B 4.C 49. rinsing it before using is not necessary ANSWER KEY: 1. D 55.B 30. Kept at room temperature b. 96. Kept in the refrigerator c. The PNA and the PRC b. B 67.B 47. D 31. A 11. C 20. Insulins using insulin syringe are given using how many degrees of needle insertion? a.B 45.C 42. D 73. B 15. C 64. sterile items are considered sterile as long as they are covered with sterile muslin cover and stored in a dust proof covers c. D 28. AORN and JCAHO c. In using liquid sterilizer versus autoclave machine.A 39. 90 d. C 69. A 27. MMDA and DILG 98. 0. C 62. D 56. If liquid sterilizer is used. 15 Situation 18: “Maintenance” of sterility is an important function a nurse should perform in any OR setting. A 17. D 68. D 23. D 58.5 ml d. D 13.D 34.C 51. The material as well as the equipments are sterilized and had undergone a rigorous sterilization process c. A . it is necessary to soak supplies in the liquid sterilizer for a longer period of time c. Items are not considered sterile after a period of 30 days of being not used b.D 12. These are: a. D 44. Storage d. D 29. B 3.D 50. A 16. B 7. not time related d.D 48. Store in freezer 95. For 9 months. 5 ml 94. A 19. B 10. Multiple vial-dose-insulin when in use should be a. Kept in narcotic cabinet d. Which of the following is true with regards to sterility? a.C 32. D 35. The material used for packaging b. A 65. A 37. A 6. These are the following except: a. Sterility is time related. 10 ml b. A 63. B 8. 2 ml c.How much should you incorporate into the IV solution? a. B 60.C 24. All of this factors affect the sterility of the OR equipments. The chemical or process used in sterilizing the material 99. C 5. items double covered with muslin are considered sterile as long as they have undergone the sterilization process 97. B 72. They are both capable of sterilizing the equipments. ORNAP and MCNAP d. A 59.D 36. There is a black stripe on the paper indicator d. however. C 41. C 22. A 2. Autoclave is better in sterilizing OR supplies versus liquid sterilizer b. which of the following is true? a. D 25. A 70. B 26. A 66.C 43. B 33. 45 b. 180 c. The material has no microorganism nor spores present that might cause an infection 100. D 57. B 94. C 81. A 95. B 98. C 79. A 80. D 99. the operative phase and closing phase.D 90. B 85. D 91. A 93. B 83. A 96. D 100. D 77. A 84. C 97. A 86. D 89. Counting is performed thrice: during the pre-incision phase. A 82. B 92. 1. Who . B NURSING PRACTICE IV – CARE OF THE CLIENT WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS – PART B Situation 1: After an abdominal surgery. the circulating and scrub nurses have critical responsibility about sponges and instrument count. A 78. D 76.75. A 87. D 88. The layer of the abdomen is divided into 5.1.counts the sponges. Arrange the following from the first layer going to the deepest layer.2. How should you collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity? a. Muscle 3. Insert catheter gently applying suction. Insert suction catheter four inches into the tube. Clamp tubing for 60 minutes and insert a sterile needle into the tubing above the clamp to aspirate urine b. After respiratory treatment. Anesthesiologist b.1 b.3 c. 1. Disconnect the tubing from the urinary catheter and let urine flow into a sterile container d. 5. the nurse should a. 10.3. which of the following instruction is best? a. When is the first sponge instrument count reported? a.2. For gastric decompression c. CT Scan and incidence report Situation 2: An entry level nurse should be able to apply theoretical knowledge in the performance of the basic nursing skills.4. counts should be documented. Before the fascia is sutured 4. Drain urine from the drainage bag into the sterile container c. The scrub nurse only b. needle and instruments? a. Fascia 2. OR nurse supervisor d. Surgeon c. The best time for collecting the sputum specimen for culture is a. Before peritoneum is closed c. Subcutaneous/fat 5. Withdraw using twisting motion b.4. Like any nursing interventions. 5. Incidence report c. Which of the following are 2 interventions of the surgical team when an instrument was confirmed missing? a.4. Save sputum for two days in covered container d. The circulating nurse only c. When suctioning the endotracheal tube. XRAY and incidence report d.1. MRI.3. Upon waking up in the morning c. Hyperoxygenate client. Skin a. Suction 30 seconds using twisting motion as catheter is withdrawn. MRI and incidence report b. 6. The purpose of NGT IMMEDIATELY after an operation is: a. Circulating nurse 5. Insert catheter using back and forth motion d. For feeding or gavage b. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter and she is suspected of having urinary infection. Explain procedure to patient. The surgeon and the assistant surgeon d. Before retiring at night b. Upon waking up. 5. cough deeply and expectorate into container b. 5.2 d. Cough after pursed lip breathing c.2. Before meals 9. The scrub nurse and the circulating nurse 2. Wipe the self sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and insert a sterile needle into the self sealing port 7. Before closing the skin d.3 3.1. To whom does the scrub nurse report any discrepancy of counts so that immediate and appropriate action is instituted? a. To obtain specimen for sputum culture and sensitivity. Insert catheter until resistance is met then withdraw slightly. Peritoneum 4.4. Anytime of the day d. Before closing the subcutaneous layer b. expectorate into a container 8. or the cleansing of stomach content d. For the rapid return of peristalsis . CT Scan. applying suction c. For lavage. kidney. When asked what are the organs to be examined during cystoscopy. You are assigned to receive him.” d.” d. “Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure of the urinary tract. Santos asked you to explain why there is no incision of any kind. “cystoscopy is done by x-ray visualization of the urinary tract. trigone. Santos. Immediately after surgery. Warm moist soak c.Situation 3: Mr. and urethral opening d. Infiltration to subcutaneous tissue c. Urethra. Withing 24-48 hours post cystoscopy. You are the nurse in charge of Mr. Bed rest b. 11. refer to urologist for possible irrigation 19. Urethral opening. Bladder wall. What will be your most appropriate action? a. Activities of daily living started Situation 5: Melamine contamination in milk has brought worldwide crisis both in the milk production sector as well as the health and economy. Phlebitis b. Amber c. What is your assessment finding? a. Chest pain and vital signs b. Distended bladder c. Leg cramps are NOT uncommon post-cystoscopy. Remove his catheter then allow him to void on his own b. Santos. color. The purpose of the continuous bladder irrigation is to: a. ureteral opening c. You noticed a change in flow rae. “Cystoscopy is direct visualization and examination by urologist. Knowing that proper documentation of assessment findings and interventions are important responsibilities of the nurse during first post operative day. Assess color and rate of outflow if there is a change. which of the following is the LEAST relevant to document in the case of Mang Felix? a. Air embolism 20. Ensure accurate monitoring of intake and output 18. Signs of infection d. Pyrogenic rection d. In the OR. 16. Trendelenburg 13. You noted that he has a 3 way indwelling urinary catheter for continuous fast drip bladder irritation which is connected to a straight drainage. is to undergo cystoscopy due to multiple problems liles scantly urination. hematuria and dysuria. Semi-fowler d. Urethra. Mr. Light yellow b. Intravenous infusion rate c. Hot sitz bath Situation 4: Mang Felix. you will enumerate as follows: a. You have an indwelling catheter. Being aware of the current events is one quality that a nurse should . pallor and coldness around the insertion site. 50.” c. After cystoscopy. Early ambulation d. “Cystoscopy is done by using lasers on the urinary tract. Tell him to “go ahead and void. Allow continuous monitoring of the fluid output status b. You decided to check on Mang Felix’s IV fluid infusion. Provide continuous flushing of clots and debris from the bladder c.” b. Mang Felix informs you that he feels some discomfort on the hypogastric area and he has to void. it is normal to observe one of the following: a. Santos who is undergoing cystoscopy in: a. and consistency of bladder irrigation drainage d. Bright red d. Amount.” 14. Pinkish to red 17. Allow for proper exchange of electrolytes and fluid d. Pink-tinged urine b. bladder. you will position Mr. what would you expect his urine to be? a. ureteral opening bladder 12. uterine wall. Irrigate his catheter c. Supine b. a 79 year old man who is brought to the surgical unit form PACU after a transurethral resection. Lithotomy c. What do you tell him? a. Nursing intervention includes: a. Prolonged hematuria 15. urethra b. bladder wall. BFAD 24. Neutropenia causing infection. of course you will get your hair back. Chronic. DOH b. urolithiasis b. Survival rate is 98% if this is detected early and treated promptly. Create an illusion of a high protein content on their product 22.possess to prove that nursing is a dynamic profession that will adapt depending on the patient’s needs. Adriamycin. The child asks: “Will I get my hair back once again?” The nurse best response is by saying: a. back ache. Gold standard in the diagnosis of leukemia is by which of the following? a. Splenomegaly. oliguria or hematuria d. 21. Whereas acute non-lymphoid leukemia has a survival rate of a. anemia causing impaired oxygenation and thrombocytopenia leading to bleeding tendencies c. irritability and large output of diluted urine 25. Which of the following is NOT a sign of melamine poisoning? a. pre-renal b. anemia causing impaired oxygenation. 95% 28. Make milks tasty and creamy d. Milk and food manufacturers add melamine in order to: a. hepatomegaly. Acute. intrarenal d. Anuria. It has a bacteriostatic property leading to increase food and milk life as a way of preserving the foods b. pre-renal Situation 6: Leukemia is the most common type of childhood cancer. Infants are the most vulnerable to melamine poisoning. One common side effect. Irritability. Chronic. hard plastics and jewelry box covers due to its fire retardant properties. “This side effect is usually permanent. let’s hope it’ll grow. China c. 40% c. fever c. High blood pressure. 31. MMDA c.” d. 25% b. Which government agency is responsible for testing the melamine content of foods and food products? a. Central nervous system infiltration. especially of adriamycin is alopecia. 95% 27. Blood biopsy 30. Gives a glazy and more edible look on foods c.” Situation 7: Breast cancer is the 2nd most common type of cancer after lung cancer and 99% of which. All of the following are factors that said to contribute to the development of breast cancer except: . Korea 23. 25% b. 26. The three main consequence of leukemia that causes the most danger is: a. post-renal c. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia is the cause of almost 1/3 of all cancer that occurs in children under age 15. What kind of renal failure does melanin poising cause? a. Bone marrow biopsy c. occurs in woman. Carmen is a 53 year old patient in the high risk group for breast cancer was recently diagnosed with Breast Cancer. “We are not sure. usually darker and of different texture. 75% d. fractures d. 40% c. “Your hair will regrow in 3 to 6 months but of different color. Most of the milks contaminated by Melamine came from which country? a. “Don’t be silly. Blood culture and sensitivity b. Fever. 75% d. but I will get the doctor to discuss it for you. Vincristine. India b. Invasion by the leukemia cells to the bone causing severe bone pain 29. NBI d.” b. The survival rate for Acute Lymphoid Leukemia is approximately a. and thrombocytopenia leading to bleeding tendencies b. Philippines d. Actue.” c. Melamine is a synthetic resin used for whiteboards. Prednisone and L asparaginase are given to the client for long term therapy. 7 to 8 days after conclusion of the menstrual period c. changes from previous BSE 38. Cover the areas with thick clothing materials b. Refer him to the physician c. and childbirth after age 30. If you are to instruct a post-menopausal woman about BSE. Carmen. On the first day of her menstruation d. Prolonged exposure to estrogen such as an early menarche or late menopause. Prolonged intake of tamoxifen (Nolvadex) 32. Reassure him that these feelings are normal d. the purpose of placing a small folded towel under the client’s left shoulder is to a. an annual hormone receptor assay c. when would you tell her to do BSE? a. Genetics c. With emphasis on multidisciplinary management. Axillary lymphnodes c. On the last day of her menstruation 39. Breast feeding d. The 26th days of the menstrual cycle b. Reduces the fear and anxiety that accompanies the diagnosis and treatment of cancer b. Help him plan his activities . The same day each month 35. Right after the menstrual period c. Apply a heating pad to the site c. you have important responsibilities as nurse. Thickening of the tissue b. Change in size and contour 40. Based on DOH and World Health Organization (WHO) guidelines. Balance the breast tissue more evenly on the chest wall d. Wash skin with water after the therapy d. a monthly breast self examination (BSE) and an annual health worker breast examination (HWBE) b. Has about the same 10-year survival rate as the modified radical mastectomy c. Tense the pectoral muscle c. an annual mammogram d. Facilitate lateral positioning of the breast Situation 8: Radiation therapy is another modality of cancer management. Protective factors for the development of breast cancer includes which of the following except: a. On the same day of each month b. During breast self-examination. a physician conduct a breast clinical examination every 2 years 37. nulliparity. cancerous lungs c. the purpose of standing in front of the mirror is to observe the breast for a. When preparing to examine the left breast in a reclining position. The MOST appropriate reply by the nurse would be: a. When questioned by the patient about these options. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most helpful for Albert? a. areas of thickness or fullness d. Provides a shorter treatment period with a fewer long term complications d. who is asking the nurse the most appropriate time of the month to do her self-examination of the breast. A patient diagnosed with breast cancer has been offered the treatment choices of breast conservation surgery with radiation or a modified radical mastectomy. Exercise b. the purpose of performing the breast self examination (BSE) regularly is to discover a. the mainstay for early protection method for breast cancer that is recommended for developing countries is a. Bring the breast closer to the examiner’s right hand b. During her menstruation d. Increasing age d. Alcohol intake 33. Prophylactic tamoxifen c. Lumps in the breast tissue d.a. 41. b. Albert is receiving external radiation therapy and he complains of fatigue and malaise. Tell him that sometimes these feelings can be psychogenic b. the nurse informs the patient that the lumpectomy with radiation a. Preserves the normal appearance and sensitivity of the breast 34. fibrocystic masses b. Carmen being treated with radiation therapy. Avoid applying creams and powders to the area 36. What should be included in the plan of care to minimize skin damage from the radiation therapy? a. Placed on isolation for 6 hours d. easy fatigability. What intervention should you include in your care plan? a. Irrigate with normal saline for 1 to 15 minutes b. Albert is a. Irrigate with water for 15 minutes or longer d. the nurse knows that the priority is to: a. dizziness. Cover the eyes with a sterile gauze 53. GI bleeding regularly b. Place Albert on strict isolation precautions c. return the hemodynamic stability via fluid resuscitation 51. When a client accidentally splashes chemicals to his eyes. epistaxis b. Full thickness burn d. Severe sore throat. which of the following is a priority? a. Deep partial thickness burn c. Administer antipyretics if his temperature exceeds 38C Situation 9: Burns are caused by transfer of heat source to the body. Superficial partial thickness burn b.42. Deep full thickness burn 47. Which of the following can be a fatal complication of upper airway burns? a. Transport a physician immediately c. Wound healing b. While in the emergent phase. Weakness. Given an complete bath c. Intramuscularly b. Impaired tissue integrity d. What nursing diagnosis should be of highest priority? a. Deep full thickness burn 49. A burn characterized by pale white appearance. radiation or chemical. you should observe the following symptoms: a. It can be thermal. Orally d. prevent deformities and contractures d. Reconstructive surgery c. peripheral. Petechiae. cardiovascular. Albert is admitted with a radiation induced thrombocytopenia. Headache. Stress ulcers b. The MOST effective method of delivering pain medication during the emergent phase is a. control pain c. Intravenously 52. Deep partial thickness burn c. Which of the following BEST describes superficial partial thickness burn or first degree burn? a. electrical. Ineffective tissue perfusion. pallor c. Subcutaneously c. hepatomegaly 44. Inspect his skin for petechiae. During the acute phase of the burn injury. Free from radiation 43. bruising. Emotional support d. Epidermis and dermis are both damaged d. Fluid resuscitation 50. Considered radioactive for 24 hours b. As a nurse. Knowledge deficit regarding thrombocytopenia precautions b. Superficial partial thickness burn b. Activity intolerance c. Hemorrhage . ecchymosis. renal 45. Full thickness burn d. charred or with fat exposed and painlessness is a. Dermis is partially damaged c. Immediately following the radiation teletherapy. gastrointestinal. Structures beneath the skin are damaged b. cerebral. Epidermis is damaged 48. Provide rest in between activities d. blurred vision d. 46. the initial priority care following the chemical burn is to a. prevent infection b. bacteremia. A burn that is said to be “WEEPING” is classified as a. When preparing to teach Fermin how to irrigate colostomy. it is your priority to do which of the following first? a. Hypervolemia c. Fermin can lie on the side comfortable. When Fermin would have normal bowel movement b. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom door cloth hook during fluid insertion c. regain of consciousness and rapid return of hemodynamic stability d. Try to remove the burning clothes d. The abdominal incision is closed and contamination is no longer a danger d. D5LR SITUATION 10: Enterostomal Therapy is now considered a specialty in nursing. Give him sips of water c. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia c. When observing a return demonstration of a colostomy irrigation. During the first 24 hours after the thermal injury. the amount of fluid will be given is: a. A 165 lbs trauma client was rushed to the emergency room with full thickness burns on the whole face.600 ml c. 10. Cover client with a warm blanket b. 5. 9. Discontinues the insertion of fluid after 500 ml of fluid has been instilled d. Prior to breakfast and morning care d. about the 3rd post-operative day c. Splash the client with 1 bucket of cool water 55. He also has superficial partial thickness burn at the posterior trunk and at the half upper portion of the left leg. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia b. Calculate the extent of his burns d. The IV fluid of choice for burn as well as dehydration is: a. The stools starts to become formed around the 7th post-operative day 62. You plan to teach Fermin how to irrigate the colostomy when a. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to inserting into the stoma b. and at the anterior part of chest sparing the abdominal area. 0. Slap the flames with his hands c.450 ml d. For hyperkalemia 60. You recognize that this most likely indicates that the client is developing a. A client who sustained deep partial thickness and full thickness burns of the face. you know that more teaching is required if Fermin a. Clients with burn also develops hyperglycemia c. When a client will rush towards you and he has burning clothes on. Insulin is needed for additional energy and glucose burning after the stressful incident to hasten wound healing. Laryngeal spasms and swelling 54. After Fermin accepts alteration in body image 63.c. 61. whole anterior chest and both upper extremities two days ago begins to exhibit extreme restlessness. Renal failure 58. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia 57.400 ml b.45% Na CL b. Shock d. Assess Sergio’s breathing 56. Clamps off the flow of fluid when feeling uncomfortable . He is in the emergent phase of burn. Once the flames are extinguished. 6. Log roll on the grass/ground b. At least 2 hours before visiting hours c. Using the parkland’s formula. Cerebral hypoxia b.750 ml 59. you know that during the first 8 hours of burn. you should assess Sergio for a. NSS c. Clients with burn also develops metabolic acidosis b. The doctor incorporated insulin on the client’s fluid during the emergent phase. you should plan to do the procedure: a. it is most important to a. The perineal wound heals and Fermin can sit comfortable on the commode b. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia d. right and left arm. Metabolic acidosis d. Sterile water d. You are participating in the OSTOMY CARE CLASS. The nurse knows that insulin is given because a. while avoiding foods that cause gas. it is important for nurses to gather as much information to be able to address their needs for nursing care. Majority need extensive rehabilitation b. 71. Updated information on client’s status d.” c.64. Palpitation c.” 65. You would know after teaching Fermin that dietary instruction for him is effective when he states. Provision of comfortable space b. Lack of privacy d. Thrombocytosis 74.” d. Everything that I ate before the operation.” Situation 11: Based on studies of nurses working in special units like the intensive care unit and coronary care unit. When mucus is passed from the stoma between the irrigation. Spiritual counseling Situation 12: Johnny sough consultation to the hospital because of irritability. Inadequate nursing staff 67. Emotional support c. The expulsion of flatus while the irrigating fluid is running out. His diagnosis was hyperthyroidism. Colace (Docusate) b. Thyroid storm b. Families of critically ill patients desire which of the following needs to be met first by the nurse? a. Fine tremors of the hands d. Death b.” d. Are physically unstable d. Critically ill patients frequently complain about which of the following when hospitalized? a. Transplant patient d. Educational level d. “I will contact my physician and report: a. Hyperalertness 72. Tapazole 73. Hyperthermia d. Medication c. The nurse knows that Tapazole has which of the following side effects that will warrant immediate withholding of the medication? a. Sore throat c. “it is important that I eat: a. Mediastinal shift . Most have chronic illness 70. Adolescent c. Previous knowledge of illness 69. 66. She has to take drugs to treat her hyperthyroidism.” b. Who of the following is at greatest risk of developing sensory problem? a. You asked questions as soon as she regained consciousness from thyroidectomy primarily to assess the evidence of a. Which of the following statements does not apply to critically ill patients? a.” b. If I have any difficulty inserting the irrigating tube into the stoma. Cytomel (llothyronine) c. Female patient b. Soft food that is easily digested and absorbed by the large intestines. Unresponsive patient 68. You are aware that teaching about colostomy care is understood when Fermin states. Hospital food b. All have been hospitalized previously c. jittery and he has been experiencing these signs and symptoms for several months. Which of the following will you NOT expect that the doctor will prescribe? a. Anorexia b. Which of the following factors may inhibit learning in critically ill patients? a. Bland food so that my intestines do not become irritated. The following are expected symptoms except a. Gender b. If I noticed a loss of sensation to touch in the stoma tissue.” c. Lack of blankets c. Food low in fiber so that there are fewer stools. increase the vascularity and size of the thyroid gland d. Amount of oxygen consumption under stressed condition over a measured period of time d. Apply neck collar to prevent hemorrhage d. Ration of respiration to pulse rate over a measured period of time 78. Hypokalemia b. Follow it with milk of magnesia Situation 13: Pharmacological treatment was not effective for Johnny’s hyperthyroidism and now. you know that intact skin acts as an effective barrier to most microorganisms. Disinfected 85. Sterile c. While critical items should be a. Critical b. 81. Nystagmus c. Decontamination c. Basal metabolic rate is assessed on Johnny to determine his metabolic rate. he is scheduled for thyroidectomy. Her physician ordered lugol’s solution in order to a. Instruments in the surgical suite for surgery are classified as either CRITICAL. If an instrument is classified as semi critical. Non critical d. Semi critical c. increase the size of the thyroid gland only 79. items that come in contact with the intact skin or mucus membranes should be a. Slip you hand under the nape of the neck b. Disinfection d. it is classified as: a. In assessing the BMR using the standard procedure. Hypocalcemia tetany 75. Restraining his upper and lower extremities c. Administer it with milk and drink it d. Sterilized d. decrease the size of the thyroid gland only c. Damage to the laryngeal nerve d. Semi critical c. Check for hypotension c. decrease the vascularity and size of the thyroid gland b. SEMI-CRITICAL and NON-CRITICAL. the precautionary measure should include: a. Dilute with juice and administer with a straw c. Clean . Which of the following is a side effect of Lugol’s solution? a. Observe the dressing if it is soaked with blood 76. Administer with glass only b. Enlargement of the thyroid gland d. Sterilization b. you will a. Excessive salivation 80. Obstructing his vision b. Decontaminated c. Amount of oxygen consumption under resting condition over a measured period of time c. As a nurse. Obstructing his nostrils with a clamp 77.c. Obstructing his hearing d. Non-critical d. Should you check for hemorrhage. Cleaning 84. In administering Lugol’s solution. Ultra critical 83. Ultra critical 82. Critical b. Disinfected b. Instruments that do not touch the paitnet or have contact only to intact skin is classified as: a. Therefore. The BMR is based on the measurement that: a. If the instrument is introduced directly into the blood stream or into any normally sterile cavity or area of the body. you need to tell Johnny that: a. Rate of respiration under different condition of activities and rest b. an acceptable method of making the instrument ready for surgery is through a. Clean b. and spasm. major equipments and inventories d. After surgery. Respiratory failure d. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate after a total thyroidectomy? a. Two ampoules of sodium bicarbonate 88. Raise the knee gatch to 30 degrees c. Keep your patient in a high-fowler’s position d. The process of allocating resources for future use c. such as salaries or rents being paid per month 93. These are related to long term planning and includes major replacement of expenses of the plant. 91. What would you anticipate to administer? a. You should include a. An airway and rebreathing tube b. Which of the following best defines budget? a. Which of the following best defines Capital Budget? a. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. As Johnny’s nurse. Magnesium sulfate b. Tetany 90. They tend to be time . tingling and muscle twitching. you should instruct Johnny to a. These are usually the raw materials and labor salaries that depend on the production or sales b. Alcoholized 86. Includes the monthly and daily expenses and expected revenue and expenses c. These are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business c. number of staff to be hired and necessary number of workers to meet the general patient needs b. Calcium gluconate c. These are related long term planning and includes major replacement or expenses of the plant. If there is an accidental injury to the parathyroid gland during a thyroidectomy. major equipment and inventories b. number of staff to be hired. Estimate cost and expense d. You are caring for Johnny who is scheduled to undergo total thyroidectomy because of diagnosis of thyroid cancer. These are related to long term planning and include major replacement or expansion of the plant. The correct allocation and distribution of resources is vital in the harmonious operation of the financial balance of the agency. Budget to estimate the cost of direct labor. major equipments and inventories d. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. Cardiac arrest b. Cough and deep breath every 2 hours d. Potassium chloride Situation 14: Budgeting is an important part of a nurse managerial activity. Dyspnea c. Continuous process in seeing that the goals and objectives of the agency is met 92. Plan for the allocation of resources for future use b. Apply gentle pressure against the incision when swallowing c. and necessary number of workers to meet the general patient’s needs b. They tend to be timerelated. Which of the following accurately describes Variable cost in budgeting? a. Johnny develops peripheral numbness. which of the following might Leda develop post-operatively? a. These are expenses that change in proportion to the activity of a business c. Support the patient’s head and neck with pillows and sandbags 89. such as rent d. Which of the following best describes Operational Budget? a. Budgeting estimates the cost of direct labor. Potassium iodides d. A crush chart with bed board d. such as salaries or rents being paid per month 94. This is the summation of the Variable Cost and the fixed cost 95. Prior to total thyroidectomy. A tracheostomy set and oxygen c. you plan to set up an emergency equipment at the bedside following thyroidectiomy. Which of the following accurately describes Fixed Cost in budgeting? a. Support head with the hands when changing position 87. Perform range and motion exercise on the head and neck b. Includes the monthly and daily expenses and expected revenue and expenses c. These tend to be timerelated. These are expenses that are not dependent on the level of production or sales. These tend to be time related.d. Place pillows under your patient’s shoulders b. These are expenses that are not dependent of the level of production or sales. B 94. There is an absence of breathing for a period of time. APNEA is defined as: a. B 81. Widening pulse pressure. You know that apnea is seen in client with Cheyne Stokes respiration. B 10. A 39. A 82. A 29. C 6. B 70. Cheyne stokes d. The patient is dead. D 43. cheyne stokes respiration. A 8. D 3. the breathing stops c. A 55. Kussmaul’s c. bradycardia c. D 25. D 54. What do you call the triad of sign and symptoms seen in a client with increasing ICP? a. C 45. A 79. B 49.B 38. B 88. D 21. D 19. Inability to breath in a supine position so the patient sits up in bed to breathe b. a. A 76. C 53. Hypotension. A 73. B 35. A 86. D 56. B 48. C 83. D 36. Hypertension. D 32. Eupnea 97. D 87. C 95. B 26. C 57. D 66. A 40. D 62. B 28. B 23. tachycardia b. A 15. She was brought to the ER by a policewoman. A 59. D 33. B 11. D 61. D 77. Milieu b. D 60. D 51. A period of hypercapnea and hypoxia due to the cessation of respiratory effort in spite of normal respiratory functioning ANSWER KEY: 1. C 67. Virchow’s triad b. C 85. In a client with a Cheyne stokes respiration. D 42. A 63. Cushing’s triad d. 96. B 78. C 27. B 30. B 13. You know that this rhythm of respiration is defined as a. D 52. Ineffective breathing pattern c. D 31. D 22. A 44. B 64. Behavior d. B 100. B 20. D 90. usually 15 seconds or more d. C NURSING PRACTICE V – CARE OF THE CLIENT WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS – PART B Situation 1: Understanding different models of care is a necessary part of the nurse patient relationship. B 99. D 89. A 50. B 91. B 18. Biot’s b. B 9. Impaired gas exchange d. Group . Narrowing of pulse pressure. Charcot’s triad 98. D 2.related such as rent d. C 97. A 65. Emergency measures were started. which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis? a. B 4. D 17. Activity intolerance 100. Ineffective airway clearance b. Andrea’s respiration is described as waxing and waning. B 71. C 47. D 34. A 58. Which of the following is true with the Triad seed in the head injuries? a. irregular respiration. irregular respiration. Situation 15: Andrea is admitted to the ER following an assault where she was hit in the face and head. This is the summation of variable cost and the fixed cost. D 68. B 74. A 72. B 96. C 98. A 46. bradycardia 99. kussmaul’s respiration. A 37. C 84. Psychotherapy c. C 93. The Chinese triad c. D 80. 1. B 16. D 24. The focus of this therapy is to have a positive environmental manipulation. physical and social to effect a positive change. B 5. B 12. C 75. tachycardia d. D 7. D 14. B 69. A 92. C 41. Family 7. Psychoanalysis c. Explore the client’s past experiences that causes the illness d. An 18 year old client is admitted with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. “how does this treatment work?” The nurse responds by telling the client that: a. A client with mild depression who exhibits and demonstrates normal cognition 9. Group d. Provide a supportive environment and a therapeutic community d.” b. The client is introduced to short periods of exposure to the phobic object while in a relaxed state. Play b. ECT b. Which intervention would be typical of a nurse using cognitive behavioral approach to a client experiencing low self-esteem? a. “I get down on myself when I make mistakes. The nurse understands that the purpose of this approach is to a. Help the client identify and examine dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs b. the maximum number of members to include is a. “This type of treatment helps you examine how your past life has contributed to your problems. Use of unconditional positive regard b. Hypnotherapy d. A catatonic. Teach the client relaxation exercise to diminish stress b.2. The client said to the nurse. The nurse understands that this form of behavior modification can be best described as: a. Which of the following clients will the nurse select for this group? a. Operant conditioning 4. Classical conditioning c. A nurse is caring to a client with phobia who is being treated for the condition. A cognitive behavioral approach is used as part of her treatment plan. A cognitive approach of changing the behavior c. “This type of treatment will help you relax and develop new coping skills. Provide the client with mastery experience to boost self-esteem c. A client with major depression is considering cognitive therapy.” 5. “This type of treatment helps you confront your fears by exposing you to the feared object abruptly. The nurse understands that this form of therapy works on what principle? a. 16 12.” d. Emphasize social interaction with client who withdraw c. The client asks the nurse about Milieu therapy. “This type of treatment helps you examine how your thoughts and feelings contribute to your difficulties. A client stated. the nurse should a. Aversion therapy .” Using cognitive theory approach. A form of behavior modification therapy b. The nurse responds knowing that the primary focus of milieu therapy can be best described by which of the following? a. Group therapy c. Analysis of free association d. An undifferentiated schizophrenic client with moderate cognitive impairment d. The nurse is preparing to provide reminiscence therapy for a group of clients. Which of the following therapies has been strongly advocated for the treatment of post traumatic stress disorders? a. Examination of negative though patters 10. The nurse knows that in group therapy. Negative reinforcement b. immobile client with moderate cognitive impairment c. 8 c. 4 b. Examine intra-psychic conflicts and past events in life 8. Systemic desensitization b. Aversion therapy c. Self control therapy d. 10 d. A living learning or working environment d. A client who experiences profound depression with moderate cognitive impairment b. The nurse is providing information to a client with the use of disulfiram (antabuse) for the treatment of alcohol abuse.” c. Psychoanalysis 11. Help client modify the belief that anything less than perfect is horrible 6. The most advantageous therapy for a preschool age child with a history of physical and sexual abuse would be a. A behavioral approach to changing behavior 3. A relevant nursing diagnosis for clients with auditory hallucination is: a. 39 year old farmer. The most common defense mechanism used by a paranoid client is a. Behavior therapy 19. Suppression c. Systematic desensitization c. Call a priest b. “I do not hear the voice you say you hear. Being politically active in relation to mental health issues d. The most common defense mechanism used by phobic client is: a. Hypnotherapy b.” d.c. A biological or medical approach in treating psychiatric patient is: a. Providing mental health consultation to health care providers b. The fear and anxiety related to phobia is said to be abruptly decreased when the patient is exposed to what is feared through: a. Hypotherapy 20. had been confined in the National Center for Mental Health for three years with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Ineffective individual coping Situation 3: Mang Jose. “Whose voices are those?” b. Sensory perceptual alteration b. Projection 22. Altered thought process c. Operant conditioning d. The therapy most effective for clients with phobia is a. Refer one matter to the police Situation 2: Rose seeks psychiatric consultation because of intense fear of flying in an airplane which has greatly affected her chances of success in her job. Ignore tension producing situation c. Denial d. Displacement b. Group therapy c. When the nurse identifies a client who has attempted to commit suicide. Change her reaction towards anxiety d. Rationalization d. Change her lifestyle b. The goal of the therapy in phobia is a. Impaired verbal communication . 16. Rationalization c. Displacement 17. “Are you sure you hear these voices?” 23. Providing mental health education to members of the community 15. Behavior therapy d. Which of these nursing actions belong to the secondary level of preventive intervention? a. Self esteem disturbance b. Somatic therapy c. Refer the client to the psychiatrist d. Gestalt therapy 13. the appropriate nursing diagnosis is a. Impaired social interaction d. “I doubt what the voices are telling you. Psychotherapy 14. Providing emergency psychiatric services c. Guided imagery b. Cognitive therapy d.” c. When Mang Jose says to you: “The voices are telling me bad things again!” The best response is: a. the nurse should: a. unmarried. Million therapy b. Eliminate fear producing situations 18. 21. Flooding d. Impaired adjustment d. Counsel the client c. Based on the presence of symptom. Suppression b. Activity intolerance c. Transfer of emotions associated with a particular person. An initial appropriate nursing diagnosis is a. X-ray c. Doctor . 26. Impaired adjustment d. Social worker b. ECT produces massive brain damage which destroys the specific area containing memories related to the events surrounding the development of psychotic condition b. ECT is seen as a life-threatening experience and depressed patients mobilize at bodily defenses to deal with this attack 32. When this cannot be obtained. Ignore his remark b. Consistency c. Studies on biological depression support electroconvulsive therapy as a mode of treatment. To be more effective. ECT relieves depression psychologically by increasing the norepinephrine level d. During mealtime. Be warm and enthusiastic b. The nurse should a. Offer him food in his own container c. Uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or ritual repeatedly b. confusion. Anxiety moderate 27. Use simple. Impaired social interaction b. Apathy c. Electrocardiogram 33. Fear b. Respect his refusal to eat 25. 31. Patience d. disorientation and short term memory loss 34. Consciously unacceptable instinctual drives are diverted into personally and socially acceptable channels c. hemorrhage within the brain b. Obsessive compulsive disorder is BEST described by a. Persons with OCD usually manifest a. The preparation of a patient for ECT ideally is MOST similar to preparation for a patient a. feeling or impulse 28. The treatment serves as a symbolic punishment for the client who feels guilty and worthless c. Ineffective individual coping c. Something unacceptable already done is symbolically acted out in reverse d. the nurse who cares for persons with obsessive compulsive disorder must possess one of the following qualities a. Anxiety Situation 5: The patient who is depressed will undergo electroconvulsive therapy. clear language Situation 4: Gringo seeks psychiatric counseling for his ritualistic behavior of counting his money as many as 10 times before leaving home. The rationale is a. object or situation to another less threatening person. object or situation 29. Unacceptable feelings or behavior are kept out of awareness by developing the opposite behavior or emotion b. General anesthesia d. The defense mechanism used by persons with obsessive compulsive disorder is undoing and it is best described in one of the following statements a. Which of the following is a possible side effect which you will discuss with the patient? a. Compassion b. Informed consent is necessary for the treatment for involuntary clients. encephalitis c. Persistent thoughts c. Show him how irrational his thinking is d. permission bay be taken from the a. Recurring unwanted and disturbing thought alternating with a behavior d. Jose refused to eat telling that the food was poisoned. Do not argue regarding his hallucination and delusion d. Pathological persistence of unwilled thought. Refrain from touching Jose c. Suspiciousness d. When communicating with Jose. the nurse considers the following except a.24. Electroencophalogram b. Friendliness 30. robot-like body stiffness d. Cholinergic crisis b. Convincing her to use the toilet after the nurse has used it first b. you have to be cautious about administration of medication. Menopausal crisis c. this can cause a. Next of kin or guardian d. 50 y/o. Gain insight that her behavior is due to feeling of anxiety d. Codeine d. The drug of choice for her condition is a. Assess the gag reflex b. Allowing her to flush and clear the toilet seat until she can manage her anxiety d. Myasthenia crisis Situation 7: Rosanna. Ineffective individual coping d. Administration of oxygen inhalation 38. if she is under medicated. this would lead to a. Using dramatic techniques to portray interpersonal conflicts d. The goal for treatment for Rosanna must be directed toward helping her to a. Assessment data upon admission helps the nurse to identify this appropriate nursing diagnosis a. Ethel Agustin. Emotional crisis d. your assessment would include the following except a. Impaired adjustment c. Menopausal crisis d. As her nurse. Prostigmine b. Next of kin or guardian d. Accept the environment unconditionally 45. Express her anxiety c. In an effort to combat complications which might occur relatives should he taught a. Biologic treatment for mental disorder . the nurse should do this action before giving the client fluids. Checking cardiac rate b. food or medication a. unmarried patient believes that the toilet for the female patient is contaminated with AIDS virus and refuses to use it unless she flushes it three times and wipes the seat same number of times with antiseptic solution. Morphine c. After ECT. 20 y/o. Check O2 stat with a pulse oximeter Situation 6: Mts. Emotional crisis b.c. Explaining to her that AIDS cannot be transmitted by using the toilet c. Adjust to a strange environment b. 41. Psychotherapy which is prescribed for Rosanna is described as a. If you are not extra careful and by chance you give over medication. Looking at Mrs. Establishing an environment adapted to an individual patient needs b. Explaining to her how AIDS is transmitted 44. Develop trusting relationship with others c. Sustained interaction between the therapist and client to help her develop more functional behavior c. Difficulty of hearing c. An effective nursing intervention to help Rosanna is a. The fear of using “contaminated” toilet seat can be attributed to Rosanna’s inability to a. Myasthenia crisis 40. Weakness of the levator palpebrae d. Chief nurse 35. Prednisone 39. Weakness of the ocular muscle 37. teacher. Taking blood pressure reading c. Assess the sensorium c. Ineffective denial b. Walk freely about the past experience b. Control unacceptable impulses or feeling 42. Nystagmus b. Develop the sense of trust in other person d. Cholinergic crisis c. is affected with myasthenia gravis 36. Impaired social interaction 43. Techniques of oxygen inhalation d. Agustin. c. Provide a structured daily program of activities and encourage the client to participate 53. Offer the client a menu of daily activities and ask the client to participate in all of them d. The nurse confirms that Dennis is manifesting auditory hallucination. married man. insomnia. especially during the early stages of hospitalization. Dennis was seen tilting his head as if he was listening to someone. which of the following plan is best? a. Imbalanced nutrition d. 52. Zoloft c. To create a safe environment for the client. The appropriate nursing diagnosis she identifies: a. Bipolar disorder . Self-esteem disturbance c. “I do not think you heard those voices. “I do not hear the voices you say you hear. What should the nurse do? a. Search the client’s belongings and room carefully for items that could be used to attempt suicide b. Remind all staff members to check on the client frequently. Rationalization d. Projection c. Plan nothing until the client asks to participate in the milieu c. poor concentration. Project cheerfulness in interacting with the patient Situation 9: Clients with bipolar disorder receives a very high nursing attention due to the increasing rate of suicide related to the illness. A paranoid individual who cannot accept the guilt demonstrate one of the following defense mechanism a. fatigue. and difficulty making decisions. He has become suspicious and distrustful 2 months before admission. Deficient knowledge 54. Defensive coping 50. The client is taking a tricyclic anti-depressant. low self-esteem. Talk to the client constantly to reinforce reality b. d. a. Involve him in competitive activities c. an electrical engineer was admitted with the diagnosis of paranoid disorders. “Are you really sure you heard those voices?” c. Upon admission. he kept on saying. One morning. Request for an order of antipsychotic medicine 48. Nardil d. An appropriate nursing intervention would be a. Cyclothymic disorder b. Respect the client’s privacy by not searching any belongings. Involve him in group activities c. Paxil b. “these voices are telling me my wife is going to kill me. Pamelor 55. Use non-judgmental and consistent approach d. Provide an activity that is quiet and solitary to avoid increased fatigue such as working on a puzzle and reading a book b. A client with a diagnosis of major depression. Displacement 47. In planning activities for the depressed client.” b. “Whose voices are those?” 49. Major depression c. feelings of hopelessness. Denial b. Tell him to socialize with other patient to divert his attention b.” d.” 46. “my wife has been planning to kill me. Most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with suspicious behavior is one of the following: a. Ineffective individual coping d. poor appetite.” A therapeutic communication of the nurse is which one of the following? a. which of the following is an example of TCA? a. A client visits the physician’s office to seek treatment for depression. Sensory perceptual alteration b. Self-care deficit c. 51. the nurse most importantly devises a plan of care that deals specifically with the clients: a. Express trust that the client won’t cause self-harm while in the facility.Situation 8: Dennis 40 y/o. Disturbed though process b. The nurse is assigned to care for a recently admitted client who has attempted suicide. Address him by name to ask if he is hearing voices again d. recurrent with psychotic features is admitted to the mental health unit. When he says. Chess d. Dysthymic disorder 56. Art materials and equipment Situation 10: Annie has a morbid fear of heights. Ask another nurse to escort the client out of the group session 59. Mild anxiety d. Anti-anxiety medications should be used with extreme caution because long term use can lead to a. Remain with the client when fear level is high Situation 11: You are fortunate to be chosen as part of the research team in the hospital. Risk for addiction 65. The nurse is planning activities for a client who has bipolar disorder who has an aggressive social behavior. A review of the . It is essential in desensitization for the patient to a. Parkinsonian-like syndrome b. Ask the client to leave the group session b. The behavior is disrupting the group interaction. The nurse would initially: a. what should the nurse provide this client with first? a. Speak in a calm soothing voice d. Help with reestablishing a normal sleep pattern c. Assess one’s self for the need of an anxiolytic drug d. Constant incessant talking that includes sexual topics and teasing the self 58. Basketball 57. The symptom presented by the client that requires the nurse’s immediate intervention is the client’s a. mania. Physical signs of anxiety became more pronounced. Work through unresolved unconscious conflict 63. The physician orders lithium carbonate (lithonate) for a client who’s in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for this client? a. Encourage participation in recreation or sports activities b. Experiences that build self-esteem d. Ping pong b. To provide corrective emotional experiences through a one-to-one intensive relationship c. During the last 2 weeks. Panic c. Grandiose delusion of being a royal descendant of King Arthur c. To help the clients relax and progressively work up a list of anxiety provoking situations through imagery b. Have rapport with the therapist b. 61. During lithium therapy.2 kg). Hepatic failure d. Use deep breathing or another relaxation technique c. A professional artist is admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of bipolar disorder. Linen delivery c. She asks the nurse what desensitization therapy is. Tell the client that she will not be allowed to attend any more group sessions c. Help with reestablishing a normal sleep pattern c. the client has created 154 paintings. Non-stop physical activity and poor nutritional intake d. In this level of anxiety. and sleep disturbance b. cognitive capacity diminishes. Focus becomes limited and client experiences tunnel vision. Tell the client that she needs to allow other client in a group time to talk d. The nursing management of anxiety related with post-traumatic stress disorder includes all of the following except: a. The accurate information of the nurse of the goal of desensitization is: a. The nurse assesses a client with admitted diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder. Reassure client’s safety while touching client c. The opportunity to explore family dynamics b. Moderate anxiety 64. To help clients cope with their problems by learning behaviors that are more functional and be better equipped to face reality and make decisions 62. Outlandish behavior and inappropriate dress b. restlessness. Severe anxiety b. a. Based on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. A nurse is conducting a group therapy session and during the session. Hypertensive crisis c. A client with mania consistently talks and dominates the group.d. Anxiety. the nurse should watch for which adverse reactions? a. and lost 18 lbs (8. Experiences that build self-esteem d. To help clients in a group therapy setting to take on specific roles and reenact in front of an audience situations in which interpersonal conflict is involved d. slept only 2 to 3 hours every 2 days. Art materials and equipment 60. Hypothesis b. on the average the separate observation are from the mean. Caucasians 72. 87 d. 80. To validate results of new nursing modalities c. Median d. what is the mode? a. table of random numbers or a sampling that ensures that each element of the population has an equal and independent chance of being chosen is called a. For financial gains d. Hispanics b. 200. Tables and graphs 69. which of the following should be done? a. In the value: 80.2 b. 100. Mode b. Which of the following communicate the results of the research to the readers they facilitate the description of the data. Research problem d. 88. a nurse can do research for varied reason except: a. 72. Statistics c. Frequency Situation 12: Survey and Statistics are important part of research that is necessary to explain the characteristics of the population. what is the mean? a. a. According to the WHO statistics on the Homeless population around the world. which of the following groups of people in the world disproportionately represents the homeless population? a. Range 73. a. Each nurse participants was asked to identify a problem. 10.5 c. 90. lottery. 10. Mode b.following IMPORTANT nursing concepts was made. Draw Lots. Standard deviation d. Methodology b. 80. After the identification of the research problem. Variance c. A professional.4 c. Review of related literature c. In the value 80. 85. Systematic . Frequency b. Cluster b. In quantitative data. 85. 90. 71. 71. 10 and 25 d. 80. 90 d. Acknowledgement d. African Asians d. Median d. 90 74. 22. 66. Mean c.5 76. Simple c. It provides us with a numerical estimate of how far. 82. Formulate hypothesis 68. 25. 65. Professional advancement through research participation b. 88. Standard deviation c. 100. 82. Stratified d. 92.5 75. what is the median a.25 b. 88. Asians c. 90. In the value: 87. To improve nursing care 67. Range 70. This expresses the variability of the data in reference to the mean. which of the following is described as the distance in the scoring unites of the variable from the highest to the lower? a. 80 b. 82 c. All but one of the following is not a measure of Central Tendencies a. it is important that an informed consent of the study is obtained. Demographic 82. The investigator went into a clinic where he personally knows several diabetic clients having problem with insulin pump. Experimental c. non-experimental d. How will you best state your problem? a. Which of the following is not true about a Pure Experimental research? a. 81. Consent to incomplete disclosure b. Descriptive b. The researcher implemented a medication regimen using a new type of combination drugs to manic patients while another group of manic patient receives the routine drugs. You learned the . Phenomenological d. An investigator wants to determine some of the problems that are experienced by diabetic clients when using an insulin pump. The researcher however handpicked the experimental group for they are the clients with multiple episodes of bipolar disorder.” What type of research is this? a. Assurance of anonymity and confidentiality 85. to be updated on the latest trends and issues affected the profession and the best practices arrived at by the profession. The researcher utilized which research design? a. Teaching Situation 14: You are actively practicing nurse who has just finished your graduate studies. risks and discomforts c.77. Pure experimental c. Explanation of procedure d. If the researcher implemented a new structured counseling program with a randomized group of subject and a routine counseling program with another randomized group of subject. Quasi experimental 84. Considering that the hypothesis was “Clients with chronic illness have lesser support system than clients with acute illness. There is a careful selection of subjects in the experimental group 80. The type of sampling done by the investigator is called a. In the hypothesis “The utilization of technology in teaching improves the retention and attention of the nursing students. Selection of subjects in the control group is randomized d. A descriptive study to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness in terms of demographic data and knowledge about interventions b. What type of variable is pain a. the research is utilizing which design? a. Independent d. Improvement in the retention and attention c. Purposive c. Quasi-experimental b. The effects of the types of support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness c. The following are essential information about the consent that you should disclose to the prospective subjects except a. Quasi-experimental b. Experimental c. Depend b. You are interested to study the effects of meditation and relaxation on the pain experienced by cancer patients. There is an experimental group c. Probability b. Nursing students d. Snowball d. There is a control group b. Utilization of technology b. In any research study where individual persons are involved. you are expected to participate in initiating or participating in the conduct of research studies to improve nursing practice. Incidental 78. Comparative d. A comparative analysis of the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness d. You. Longitudinal Situation 13: As a nurse. A study to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness and those with acute illness 83. Methodological 79. Correlational c. You would like to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness to those with acute illness. Description of benefits. Correlational.” Which is the dependent variable? a. You would like to compare the support system of patient with chronic illness to those with acute illness. On the third exam. “I signed the papers of the research study because the doctor was so insistent and I want him to continue taking care for me. a study measuring nutrition and weight loss/gain in clients with cancer c. Gen is conducting a research study on how Mark. understanding the human expertise)? a. A paradigm b. Nurse Edna conducted teaching to community A and assessed if community A will have a better status than community B. Naturalistic inquiry c. Comparative b. A design suited for this is a. The research design she used is a. Longitudinal 93. Survey d. The design best suited for his study is a. You will use a. Ana wants to know if the length of time she will study for the board examination is proportional to her board rating. A supposition or system of ideas that is proposed to explain a given phenomenon best defines: a. Case study c. Comparative b.value of research and would like to utilize the knowledge and skills gained in the application of research to the nursing service. You want to determine if what will be the effect of high cholesterol food to Anton in the next 10 years. Quantitative research 87. An 85 year old client in a nursing home tells a nurse. Correlational c. Correlational c. Anton was always eating high fat diet. during and after procedure 89. A study examining the bereavement process in spouse of clients with terminal cancer b. Methodological c. Qualitative 92. Which of the following studies is based on quantitative research? a. A study measuring the effects of sleep deprivation on wound healing d. Right to privacy and confidentiality c.” Which client’s right is being violated? a. a study measuring differences in blood pressure before. Right to full disclosure d.g. Community A was selected randomly as well as community B. 91. she studied for 6 months again for a total of 1 year and gained 74%. A conceptual framework Situation 15: Mastery of research design determination is essential in passing the NLE. Comparative b. she studied for 6 months and gained 69%. Ana researched on the development of a new way to measure intelligence by creating a 100 item questionnaire that will assess the cognitive skills of an individual. This is an example of a. A concept c. a study examining oxygen levels after endotracheal suctioning d. Which type of research inquiry investigates the issues of human complexity (e. During the June 2008 board examination. during and after bone marrow aspiration 88. Experimental d. Logical position b. an AIDS client lives his life. she studied for 6 months again for a total of 1and ½ years and gained 82%. Historical b. a study examining client’s reaction to stress after open heart surgery b. A theory d. Right not to be harmed 90. Phenomenological d. Right of self determination b. On the next board exam. Experimental d. Case study 95. Historical d. 86. The following questions apply to research. A study exploring the factors influencing weight control behavior c. Historical b. Qualitative 94. Ethnographic . Which of the following studies is based on the qualitative research? a. Positivism d. A study examining client’s feelings before. Correlational c. He collected 100 random individuals and determined who their favorite comedian actor is. D . D 10.5 ANSWER KEY: 1. Marco is to perform a study about how nurses perform surgical asepsis during World War II. D 38. This study is best suited for which research design? a. Ethnographic 97. Correlational 5. B 37. Phenomenological b. C 33. C 18. C 43. 20% said Vic Sotto. treatment sign and symptoms as well as medication and all other in depth information about tuberculosis. A 36. B 30. Historical b. Which of the following is the best research design suited for this study? 1. A 50. A 24. C 51. B 13. D 21. D 53. B 15.4 b. A design best for this study is a. tradition and the societal structure of these people. Exploratory 3. C 12. A 4. Historical b. Case study c. D 31. C 29. it is called the Shin Jea Tribe.6 d. A 41. Ethnographic 99. 3. D 34. D 42. A 8. C 45. D 20. Comparative 6. Case study c. C 28. C 23. 1. A 2. while some answered Joey de Leon. causative agent and factors. 2. D 6. C 16. A 49. A 54. A 26. C 44. D 40. C 35. Ethnographic 100. B 14. C 32. A 5. Anjoe researched on TB. Non-experimental d. Historical b.5 c. B 11. Explanatory 4. C 3. Jane visited a tribe located somewhere in china. Tonyo conducts sampling at Barangay 412. 1. B 47. Descriptive 2. 50% said Dolphy. D 22.96. C 48. A 39. It’s transmission. She studied the way of life. B 25. Case study c. D 19. B 46. Experimental a. Phenomenological d. Tonyo conducted what type of research study? a. D 9. D 17. Phenomenological d. Jane will best use which research design? a. Survey 98. B 27. Michael V. Case study c. Allan K. A 52. Phenomenological d. A 7. Diana is to conduct a study about the relationship of the number of family members in the household and the electricity bill. D 65. B 71. A 84. B 78. B 100. B 86. C 92 A 93. A 85. B 57. D 56. C 91. B 79. B 75. A . A 89. D 77. C 88. B 68. D 62.55. A 81. B 74. D 80. D 69. C 59. C 96. A 97. B 95. C 58. D 99. E 83. D 98. A 76. A 82. C 94. B 64. A 63. B 72. B 61. B 87. B 60. B 66. A 90. D 70. A 73. C 67.