Nbde Ii_test Packet II-m (2000-2008)(1)

American Student Dental AssociationNational Board Dental Examinations TEST PACKET ll-M Compiled, released items from approximately 2000-2008 American Student Dental Association 211 East Chicago Avenue • Suite 700 • Chicago, Illinois 60611 • 312-440-2795 E-Mail: [email protected] * Website: www.ASDAnet.org © 2009 American Dental Association. All rights reserved. TM PDF Editor These released examination materials are distributed by the American Student Dental Association with permission from the American Dental Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. You may not copy for any purpose this publication, or any part of it, in print, electronic or other format without prior express written permission from the American Dental Association. TM PDF Editor Important Notice and Disclaimer Concerning These Materials These materials are distributed by the American Student Dental Association (ASDA) with permission from the American Dental Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All of these released items are the copyrighted property of the American Dental Association. You may not copy for any purpose this publication, or any part of it, in print, electronic or other format without prior express written permission from the American Dental Association. This collection of examination materials includes questions compiled from examinations administered by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations from approximately 2000 to 2008. The Joint Commission periodically releases items no longer in use to familiarize candidates, educators and others with the general format and content of its examinations. A content outline of the current examination may be found in the Guide. The same information is available online at www.ada.org or on request from the Joint Commission office. The American Student Dental Association and the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations do not guarantee that the information in released National Board examinations is accurate, current or relevant. Released materials may no longer be consistent with the current content specifications, content emphasis or examination structure. Because ofthe dynamic nature of dental practice and the biomedical sciences, these materials may be outdated. The Joint Commission communicates and emphasizes the following cautions to examination candidates and others. All released items are the copyrighted property of the American Dental Association. These materials are intended for the personal, non-commercial use of the purchaser and may not be reproduced in any format, whether paper or electronic, without the express written permission of the ADA Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. WARNING: All test material, items or questions currently in use in the National Board examination programs are considered "unreleased" items. Examination regulations prohibit the sharing or use of unreleased items under any circumstances, including efforts to remember and reconstitute exam items. Individuals who breach the confidentiality of an examination may face serious consequences, including voiding of National Board scores and notification to state boards of dentistry. JOINT COMMISSION ON NATIONAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS AMERICAN DENTAL ASSOCIATION 211 EAST CHICAGOTM AVENUE, CHICAGO, ILLINOIS 60611 PDF Editor 3 © 2009. American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. .TABLE OF CONTENTS Part II Released Items Case A Questions Case B Questions Case A. Case B Answer Key 5 23 24 26 31 36 TM PDF Editor . C. B. laterally. Nasal LeFort I Frontal sinus Zygomatic arch Zygomaticomaxillary complex TM PDF Editor © 2009. decreases the absorption of many drugs. E. C. Subconjunctival hemorrhage is most commonly found in which of the following fractures? A. : „ Treponema species Bacteroides species. E. C. D. C. Each of the following is an electromagnetic radiation EXCEPT one. coronoid hyperplasia. B.(•<•?] iv-tt VJUI tl-ft A patient has pain over the left pre-auricular area. increases renal reabsorption of many drugs. increases the absorption of many drugs. C. C. D. decreases cytochrome P-450 metabolism of other drugs. gram-positive cocci and rods. non-mineralized pellicle. . Dilated pupils with increased light reflex Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex A decrease in which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density? A. A 2-day-old developing plaque consists primarily of A. Mucositis Xerostomia Osteoradionecrosis Granuloma The penetrating quality of x-ray beams is influenced by which of the following? A. some of which are fatal. C. C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. C. C. E. This is because erythromycin A. 6. Anteriorly and medially Posteriorly and medially Anteriorly and laterally Posteriorly and laterally Anteriorly. Milliamperage (mA) Kilovoltage peak (kVp) Object-film distance Source-film distance Exposure time 11. D. B. D. B. D. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. All rights reserved. D. B. Valium® Poor diet Acetaminophen Vitamin deficiency or excess Contraction ofthe lateral pterygoid muscle moves the articular disk in which of the following directions? A. E. Which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation? A. auriculotemporal syndrome. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. -r Erythromycin is responsible for numerous drug interactions. E. B. E. internal derangement with reduction. D. B. a structureless. E. B. filamentous organisms. American Dental Association. D. D. C. this patient can open approximately 45 mm and has a "pop-and-click" in the joint area. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. and interiorly 10. myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome. decreases distribution of many drugs. D. B. D. B. Kilovoltage Milliamperage Exposure time Focal-film distance Filament temperature Each of the following is known to contribute to orofacial clefting EXCEPT one. Radar X rays Alpha rays Gamma rays Visible light Which of the following is NOT a complication of radiation therapy? A. B. D. B. C. Intrusion of the mandibular anterior teeth Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve A. . B. D. airway and pulse. lymphocytosis. the dentist should do which o f t h e following first? A. therefore. E. leukocytosis. B. Establish rapport Inform Gather information Evaluate 20. On a new patient's initial appointment. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. All rights reserved. D. Asthma Epilepsy Chemotherapy Hypertension 14. The chin is augmented to enhance esthetics.12. C. dry mouth and gastrointestinal inactivity? 15. C. A 35-year-old woman has an acute dentoalveolar abscess. C. leukopenia. D. D. B. C. In examining the edentulous mouth of this patient. American Dental Association. Constructs splints Performs model surgery Determines the postoperative occlusion TM Identifies the type of skeletal deformity Aids in explaining the surgical procedure to the patient \ PDF Editor © 2009. An analgesic compound #3 contains how many mg of codeine? A. B. D. lymphopenia. airway and blood pressure. B. D. Periodontal tissue is removed from around a tooth to establish a biologic width. Which o f t h e following is indicated to correct a condition of atropine poisoning evidenced by rapid heart rate. the practitioner should immediately assess the patient's A. contraindicated in patients with glaucoma? A. E. the dentist would probably see which of the following? A. Soft tissue is repositioned in order to increase the area on which the denture may be supported. Acute pyogenic bacterial infections produce A. C. If a patient suddenly becomes unconscious during treatment. neutropenia. 13. C. color and pupils.5 15 30 60 18. The use of study casts in orthognathic surgery does each of the following EXCEPT one. An elderly patient has worn a maxillary complete denture against 6 mandibular anterior teeth for an extended period of time. 16. Which o f t h e following best describes a vestibuloplasty? A. D. B. E. C. Which o f t h e following drug groups increases intraocular pressure and is. B. Which of the following conditions will be the most likely to complicate the management of this patient? A. C. Catecholamines Belladonna alkaloids Anticholinesterases Organophosphates 17. C. Bone is added to the mandible to augment its height. Osseointegrated dental implants are placed to support prosthesis. 7. D. B. E. Nicotine Homatropine Epinephrine Pilocarpine Physostigmine 21. 19. pulse and blood pressure. D. B. B. Which of the following represents the major route of excretion of penicillin V? A. C. Secretion in the bile and into the feces Excretion in the urine as inactive metabolites Total metabolism by the liver and excretion in the feces Secretion not metabolized in the urine 31. A patient presents with facial lacerations that have irregular or devitalized wound edges. and fetal abnormalities are side effects associated with which of the following antiepileptic drugs? A. and protrude the mandible Extend the neck. Arthrography Arthroscopy Panoramic films Computerized tomography Magnetic resonance imaging 26. Gingival overgrowth. C. What space management treatment should be planned for a child age 4. The wound is undermined prior to closure. hirsutism. D. How should this patient be managed? A. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. extend the neck. clear the pharynx. B. E. and clear the pharynx Clear the pharynx. C. Which of the following should be performed first for a collapsed or unconscious victim of illness or accident? A. Each of the following characterizes an impending insulin shock EXCEPT one. In excising the wound elliptically. A tender swelling in the soft tissue of the submandibular triangle is most likely caused by A. 25. Open the airway Establish unresponsiveness Establish pulselessness Examine the victim for bleeding and fractures 29. 24. B. . Excision is perpendicular to the natural skin tension lines. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. D. Length to width ratio of the excision is at least 3 to 1. D. Excision is done as conservatively as possible. a practitioner takes into account each of the following EXCEPT one. no space maintainer necessary. C. D. an obstruction of Stensen's duct. B. lipoma. an infected thyroglossal duct cyst. clear the pharynx. 23. All rights reserved. lymphadenopathy. D. B. Protrude the tongue. Which of the following is the least helpful in determining the anatomical integrity of the temporomandibular joint? A. and protrude the mandible Extend the neck. C. protrude the mandible. D. missing both primary mandibular first molars with no primate space present? A. D. Lingual arch Distal shoe(s) Nance holding arch Band-and-loop space maintainer(s) Observation. extend the neck. D.22. E. B. American Dental Association. E. protrude the tongue. C. protrude the tongue. Which of the following systemic conditions lowers resistance. C. Phenobarbital GX Carbamazepine (Tegretol1 ^) Valproate (Depakene®) Phenytoin (Dilantin®) Ethosuximide (Zarontin®) 27. Weakness Convulsions Mental confusion Cold perspiration An unconscious patient is suspected of having an obstructed airway. C. cognitive deficits. and indicates early use of antibiotics for infections? A. D. B. C. and protrude the tongue 30. protrude the mandible. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. impairs healing. Vitamin C deficiency Diabetes mellitus Polycythemia vera Systemic lupus erythematosus TM PDF Editor ) 2009. B. coarsening of facial features. C. 28. D. lymph gland hypertrophy. B. B. a sharp axio-pulpal line angle. C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. a bur. 35. D. B. E. 33. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. C. B. Overtightening the matrix band Neglecting to wedge the matrix band Neglecting to contour the matrix band Using too large an initial increment of amalgam 36. C. Each o f t h e following measures can minimize fractures of the maxillary alveolar process EXCEPT one. it prevents formation of formaldehyde. B. E. B. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. a bone file 41. E. All of the above. it prevents damage to the optic nerve. D. D. B. A nonvital tooth Fever of unknown origin A history of bleeding disorder An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity Pale gingiva with a confirmed history of anemia 37. This might have been caused by which of the following? A. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of a Class II restoration is A. delayed amalgam expansion. American Dental Association. Astemizole (Hismanal®) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) Fexofenadine (Allegra®) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril®) Terfenadine (Seldane®) 40. C. it inhibits methanol metabolism. . E. a rongeur. B.32. Cycle time is short. D. It will not cause corrosion. There is no need for special ventilation. Instruments are dry at the end of the cycle. Potency Allergenicity Solubility in water Rate of biotransformation 38. A freshly condensed Class II amalgam restoration has a deficient margin at the proximogingival cavosurface angle. 39. C. E. D. All rights reserved. isthmus width too narrow. D. Luxate the teeth Retract the soft tissue flap Elevate the interdental papillae Provide protection to the soft tissue flap TM PDF Editor 8 i 2009. lack of interproximal contact. Ethyl alcohol is a good antidote for methanol poisoning because A. C. E. B. moisture contamination o f t h e amalgam during placement. C. Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines would be contraindicated in an individual taking cimetidine for heartburn EXCEPT one. Which of the following is a local contraindication for the surgical removal of an impacted tooth? A. It will not char fabrics. fingers. D. C. Alveoplasty following closed extraction is usually performed with A. Use of controlled force when using forceps and elevators Removal of buccal bone and/or sectioning of teeth A thorough presurgical analysis and planning alterations in the surgical approach Use of the maxillary pinch grasp to detect expansion of the alveolar bone Use of forceps with beaks that grasp the roots more firmly Which of the following properties increases when the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic drug is lengthened? A. 34. D. C. The periosteal elevator is used to do each of the following EXCEPT one. D. it competes successfully with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase. B. Which o f t h e following is NOT an advantage of chemical vapor sterilization? A. C. C. presents the potential for greatest morbidity? A. a resistant strain of bacteria. B. D. 47. D. . B. efficacy. With most oral drugs. Follows Precedes Unrelated Accompanies Initially follows. C. B. Which of the following flap designs allows the best surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth root with the least reflection of soft tissue? A. D. D. D. Which of the following is most clearly associated with the appearance of "moon fades"? A. C. C. C. Facial nerve Parotid gland Auriculotemporal nerve Superficial temporal vein Facial artery 51. if damaged. B. Streptomycin Tetracycline Chloramphenicol Chlortetracycline 44. C. There can be significant differences in the bioavailability of oral drugs. PDF Editor I 2009. Tinnitus Chills Xerostomia Dysphagia Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect associated most frequently with which of the following antibiotics? A. C. TM lack of drainage from the infected area. D. B. Which of the following is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct maxillary retrognathia? A. safety. Which of the following represents a constitutional symptom? A. 48. B. D. All rights reserved. B. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. E. there is a relatively slow onset of clinical activity and a prolonged duration of action. How does the growth of the cranial base generally relate in time to the growth of the jaws? A. B. C. Oral anxiolytic drugs are effective in relieving anxiety in the hours immediately preceding the dental appointment. D. 45. E. solubility. Hyperthyroidism Regular corticosteroid use Diabetes mellitus Pancreatic insufficiency Each of the following is a disadvantage of oral sedation EXCEPT one. duration. D. The fenestration technique for mandibular vestibuloplasty is based on the premise that the mucosal attachment will A. potency. not cross the skin graft. B. B. be maintained in its lowered position by the new denture. C-osteotomy Le Fort I osteotomy Inverted L-osteotomy Anterior maxillary osteotomy 50. The administrator has little control over the ultimate clinical actions ofthe drug(s). then accompanies 49. not cross a fibrous scar band. D. failure of pus to localize. which of the following anatomic structures. C. D. Envelope Semilunar Vertical release Rotation pedicle 52. not cross the mucosal graft. 43. The therapeutic index of a given drug indicates the relative A. Osteomyelitis of the mandible is most likely to develop because of A. In the preauricular approach to the TMJ. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations.42. B. American Dental Association. low resistance of the patient. E. 46. C. C. D. Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis after extraction of a mandibular first molar include each of the following EXCEPT one. C. C. B. resulting in disk displacement on one or both sides C. C. Which of the following statements about removal of her moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori is correct? A. The most common source of autologous bone is the iliac crest. 54. B. D. Which of the following statements about maxillofacial bone grafts is INCORRECT? A. until definitive orthodontic treatment has been started 57. B. The most optimal flap uses a midpalatal incision that courses from the palatal aspect of tooth #3 across to the palatal aspect of tooth #14. then shear the torus off with a bibeveled chisel. The tori should be removed by inserting a rongeurs vertically under a lingual flap and "snipping off' the tori. You are doing some preprosthetic surgery on a patient in preparation for a new denture. An example of isogeneic bone grafting is transplanting bone marrow in the treatment of such diseases as leukemia. Joint Commission on Nalional Dental Examinations. The tori should be removed by grooving the superior surface of the torus with a bur. B.53. The tori should be removed using a large pear-shaped acrylic bur. D. Xenografts are frequently used in mandibular reconstruction. 55. Allogeneic banked bone is often used as a carrier. D. Flushing out debris with normal saline solution Curetting the boney wall to promote bleeding Placing a sedative dressing in the socket to protect exposed bone Administering mild analgesic drugs as an adjunct to local treatment 56. The most optimal flap uses a midline incision which courses from the papilla between teeth #8 and 9 posteriorly to the junction of the hard and soft palates. All rights reserved. During the first visit. . Which of the following best defines the term "Temporomandibular Disorders"? A. Which of the following statements about the flap for the removal of a palatal torus is correct? A. A clinical condition related to dysfunction of the temporomandibular joint and disk A collective term for a heterogenous group of musculoskeletal disorders of varying etiologies. B. TM PDF Editor 10 © 2009 American Dental Association. 58. supplemented with an autogenous graft. D. The area is then smoothed with a bone file. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. The tori should be removed by grooving the superior surface then shearing the torus off with a mono-beveled chisel. one week after the first visit Only after the patient is sympton-free and has shown improvement during splint therapy Never. with a midline incision and anterior and posterior side arms extending bilaterally from the ends of the midline incision. D. that present with similar signs and symptoms A clinical condition caused by disharmony between the occlusal proprioceptors and masticatory muscles A group of clinical conditions that arise from excessive loads being placed on the TM joints by muscle spasms. B. C. The most optimal flap is shaped like a "double-Y". When is the most appropriate time to permanently modify/alter the occlusion of an acute TMD patient? A. The most optimal flap is a reflection of the entire hard palate mucoperiosteum back to a line between the 2 first molar teeth. while the patient has the acute symptoms Prior to initiating splint therapy. C. D. so the correct percentage of each is delivered at a constant flow rate. What is the definition of that graft? A. C. decreased. The graft uses bone from another human being. Apply pressure indicator paste to the internal surface of the mandibular denture and check for pressure spots. C. D. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. The patient points to a sore area on top of the mandibular ridge crest on the posterior right side but no sore spot is visually evident. Each of the following statements is correct regarding phenytoin EXCEPT one. 62. Which of the following is the first procedure the dentist should perform? A. Each of the following statements concerning the administration technique of inhalation sedation is correct. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. 64. Reduce all eccentric contacts on the right side of the maxillary and mandibular dentures. The patient should be seated in an upright (85-90 degree) position in the dental chair. The graft uses the patient's own bone. All rights reserved. D. varied but it is unpredictable. 125 mm 61. grossly reduce the internal surface of the denture. and you were advised that she was going to need a sinus lift procedure with placement of an autogenous bone graft. remains unchanged. The initial flow rate of oxygen should be at least 6 L/min via the nasal hood. C. Tell the patient this is normal for the first day of wearing new dentures and to return in one week for another post-op check. Shallow inspirations Pain-limiting movement Inactivity after surgery Preoperative respiratory infection Narcotic analgesic that depress the respiratory drive B. EXCEPT one. When a patient bites on a hard object on the left mandibular molar. D increased. D. B. B. If the patient is wearing contact lenses.59. Reduce the centric contacts on all posterior teeth on the right side of the mandibular denture. D. B. Cavity liners should have a minimal thickness of E. 1 mm. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. A complete denture patient returns for a 24-hour post-op appointment after insertion of new dentures. C. B. Your patient was referred to an oral and maxillofacial surgeon for an implant. American Dental Association. D. 60. 1. As the flow of nitrous oxide through a mixing dial style unit is increased. E. the flow rate of oxygen is reduced. The graft uses bovine bone. 63. taken from another site. The graft will use an artificial. B. A. 65. bone-like material. the interarticular pressure of the right temporomandibular joint is A. C.5 mm. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. Each of the following is a common cause of postsurgical atelectasis (decreased expansion of the alveoli) EXCEPT one. Is ineffective when administered orally Causes toxic effects related to the cerebellum and vestibular system Exerts antiseizure activity at doses which do not cause general CNS depression TM PDF Editor 11 © 2009. E. C. they should be removed prior to administration of the sedation. 15 mm. Using a large acrylic bur. . or bone from another animal species. Causes gingival hyperplasia Corrects certain cardiac dysrhythmias C. D. II. value. soft tissue and periodontium in the posterior maxilla Soft palate mucosa on the side of the injection 71. TM PDF Editor 12 © 2009. D. shape. color perception. color. gingival hyperplasia. A properly executed posterior superior alveolar nerve block will anesthetize each of the following structures EXCEPT one. E. Each of the following represents an advantage of oral sedation EXCEPT one. . III. B. Rifampin Keflex Erythromycin Tetracycline D. Stage Stage Stage Stage I. C. B. B. C. Need for specialized training and equipment High incidence and severity of adverse reactions Erratic and incomplete absorption of drugs from the Gl tract Short duration of action 67. Penicillin A. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. cardiovascular collapse. degree of translucency. IV In young patients. metamerism. B. Gluteal muscles Ventrogluteal Vastus lateralis Deltoid area 73. Bradycardia Renal failure Atrial tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation 72. C. C. D. B. C. stains are usually more prominent in which areas of the teeth? A. C. 68. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. 74. American Dental Association. C. Which of the following is the most serious result of digoxin intoxication? A. B. Maxillary sinus membrane in the molar region Second and third molar teeth and a portion of the first molar tooth Buccal alveolar bone. Adrenal insufficiency during major stress results in A. C. D. D. Which areas should be avoided for an IM injection before a child can walk? A. D. A patient that is having general anesthesia using an IV barbiturate rapidly passes through A. 69. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. All rights reserved. translucency. Which of the following antibiotics has been implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral The character and individuality of teeth are largely determined by contraceptive failure during antibiotic use? A. B. B. C. B. C. D. hypotension.66. The depth of light penetration into the tooth or restoration before it is reflected outward is the A. B. ketoacidosis. D. 70. surface texture. E. Incisal Occlusal Cervical Facial 75. D. When the dentist enters the operatory. I've got a lot to do. allow uniform and uninhibited setting expansion o f t h e investment. This molar has a necrotic pulp. Exception to its use in a given situation is acceptable if the patient is informed and consents. 79 A 4-year-old child has a history of frequent spontaneous pain in a primary mandibular second molar. who is new to the office. D. 78. provide easy divesting of the casting. C. opalescence. C. The use of a rubber dam is considered an essential component of endodontic armamentarium. I'm Doctor Wilson. is effective against both grand and petit mal. Cephalexin Erythromycin Tetracycline Clindamycin 83. what brings you here today? 81. B. provide additional water to the investment mix. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. B. has a longer duration of action.76. Which o f t h e following is an outstanding advantage of phenytoin over phenobarbital in the treatment of grand mal epilepsy? A. What are you angry about? Didn't my assistant get you seated? You seem uncomfortable. E. B. the second is true. C. has his arms folded. B. Both statements are false. The phenomenon whereby various light sources produce different perceptions of color is called A. Let's get going. D. C. B. D. D. Which of the following represents the treatment of choice? A. . 82. Both statements are true. B. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) "Bloodborne Pathogens Standard" deals with each of the following EXCEPT one. Pulpectomy Pulpotomy Extraction Pulp cap 84. did you have a bad dental experience? Hi. The outstanding advantage of phenytoin over phenobarbital in the treatment of epilepsy is that phenytoin A. B. incandescence. D. E. and is looking at the floor. fluorescence. C. metamerism. E. does not bring about dependence. Disposal of medical waste Exposure Control Plan Hepatitis B vaccination Instrument sterilization and storage Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) 80. All rights reserved. Which o f t h e following antibiotics is the substitute of choice for penicillin in the penicillin-sensitive patient? A. E. translucency. C. The dentist should initiate communication by saying which of the following? A. The main function o f t h e liner used in a casting ring is to A. help prevent shrinkage porosity. provide venting of the mold. 77. produces less sedation for a given degree of motor cortex depression. The first statement is true. A. The first statement is false. C. D. Needs to be given much less frequently Does not cause gastric distress Has a longer duration of action TM PDF Editor 13 I 2009. stands close to the wall. Exerts less sedation for a given degree of motor cortex depression Is effective in a greater percentage of cases C. American Dental Association. C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. D. D. B. the patient. the second is false. E. Shrinkage porosity in a gold casting is associated with A. often evidenced by rounded margins on the casting. 89. the same as suck-back porosity. The visibility of. 91. Which of the following is an acronym for a marketing strategy to use for reluctant patients? A. D. Back pressure porosity is A. D. D. indicates withdrawal of which ofthe following anticonvulsant drugs? A. B. C. vancomycin. E. as well as access to. excessive burnout time. occlusion. Pentobarbital (Nembutal®) Diazepam (Valium®) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril®) Chloral hydrate (Noctec®) Chlorzoxazone (Parafon Forte®) TM At the try-in appointment for a 3-unit posterior gold FPD. the use of no flux.85. methanol. C. formaldehyde 94. C. E. E. B. D. . Orthodontically extrude remaining tooth structure Extract remaining tooth structure Fabricate FPD over the remaining root Fabricate RPD over the remaining root 90. E. acetaldehyde. The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface. C. most likely when the wax pattern is positioned very close to the open end of the ring. urea. trimethoprim. and surface finish have been determined to b8 acceptable. the result of using an oxidizing flame. C. alloy oxidation. C. the use of excessive flux. Soldering index Copalite preparations Temporary cementation Mix zinc phosphate cement PDF Editor 14 ) 2009. B. sprue diameter. contour. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. acetone. The most potent antitubercular drug is A. D. D. B. D. Which of the following explains why a properly designed rest on the lingual surface of a canine is preferred to a properly designed rest on the incisal surface? A. the proximal contacts. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause convulsions when a physically dependent person is withdrawn? A. C. American Dental Association. Which ofthe following represents what step is accomplished next with this FPD? A. Which of the following represents the first necessary step to restore and maintain the tooth's esthetics? A. the same as occluded gas porosity. the lingual surface is better. D. B. A 20-year-old patient presents with an upper maxillary centra) incisor previously treated for endodontic fractures at the level of the alveolar crest. B. 86. All rights reserved. B. D. 88. C. sulfamethoxazole. Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage or acute stomatitis. fit. B. SUCCESS RECRUIT OPTIMEM EIEIO 92. The cingulum of the canine provides a natural surface for the recess. C. B. Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the lingual rest. 87. Phenytoin Ethosuximide Carbamazepine Phenobarbital Valproic acid 93. The main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol A. D. observed in a pediatric patient under treatment for absence seizures. B. C. isoniazid. overheating the parts to be joined. underheating the parts to be joined. D. C. C. volatilize the hydroquinone inhibitor. the collar. B. decreased activity of medullary centers. American Dental Association. E. B. 104. E. Alcoholic euphoria results from A. 97. E. attain development of color. D. 101 . . increased activity of thalamic areas. C. D. the finish line. prevent breakdown of the initiator. C. increased activity of limbic synapses. E. The casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium alloys is approximately A. using an incompatible solder. C. The portion of an artificial tooth that is found only in porcelain anterior teeth is A. B. Proposed modes of action for the oral antidiabetic agents include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which of the following will result when using a thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded casting investment? A. It possesses anticholinergic properties. C. D. prevent boiling of the monomer. E. B. 3. A. B. PDF Editor 15 ©2009.2%. preheating the soldering assembly.75% 2. None of the above. Which of the following statements concerning ethyl alcohol is true? A. It is metabolized primarily by the lungs. 103. All rights reserved. D. D. Difficulty in mixing Irritation of the pulp Low bond strength to dentin Moisture sensitivity during initial set 105. porosity of the finished acrylic. D. B. 1. It produces a true stimulation of the central nervous system. B. C. It is partially absorbed in the stomach. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. incomplete filling of the mold details. an open bite or open pin. B. removal of the inhibitory effect of the cortex. C. The most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic soldering technique is A. It protects individuals against exposure to cold by preventing heat loss. the pin. large amounts of excess that is difficult to trim. With respect to temperature. D. B. Blockade of glucagon release from pancreas Blockade of catecholamine release from adrenal medulla Stimulation of insulin release from pancreatic beta cells Action as direct receptor agonists for the insulin receptor Increase affinity of tissues for utilization of available plasma glucose 102.95. E. C. E.2%. the diatoric. the processing cycle of a denture is designed to A. B. D. Compressing the acrylic resin in a rubbery stage will probably result in A. D. 96. Produce a smoother casting Increase setting expansion Decrease setting expansion Increase thermal expansion Decrease required burn-out temperature 99. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. C. Which of the following is a disadvantage of glass ionomer cement? 98. B. increased activity of the cerebrum. Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which of the following amalgam types? A.25% 1. C. Admixed Spherical Lathe-cut High-copper Conventional 100. D. using phosphate as the soldering TM investment. B. at the mucogingival junction. Streptococcus mutans. glycerin. 1 -5 years 6-10 years 11-15 years 16-20 years 21-25 years A. damage the tooth surface. B. . B. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is concerned with regulated waste within the office. D. and Campylobacter recta Streptococcus gordonii. Both statements are false. water. Dental phobias are very hard to eliminate because they A. B. A trough A dehiscence A hemiseptum An interdental crater TM false. D. D. above the mucogingival junction. are self-reinforcing. proaccelerin to accelerin. Each o f t h e following osseous defects would be classified as infrabony EXCEPT one. D. Streptococcus gordonii and Bacteroides gracilis 112. the second is true. C. C. C. petrolatum. D. coronal to the periodontal pocket. 114. become habitual. C.1 0 6 . 111. Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low tensile strength? 109 Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is most likely to occur in which o f t h e following age groups? A. 113. B. burnish the calculus onto the tooth surface. D. E. C. Heat Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut Desiccation Invasion of bacteria 115. 107. the s e c o n d i s D. Microfilled resin Amalgam Hybrid resin Glass ionomer Both statements are true. B. B. fibrinogen to fibrin. C. Eubacterium sp. dull the tip of the instrument. 110. cause irreversible pulpal damage. American Dental Association. PDF Editor 16 ) 2009. PTC to Factor VIII. Porphyromonas gingivalis. B. Resilient Brittle Ductile Malleable 116. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. 117. C. prothrombin to thrombin. D. plaster of paris. One can accelerate the setting time of zinc oxideeugenol impression pastes by adding a small amount of A. C. Which of the following filling materials is least desirable for use as Preventive Resin Restoration? A. at the level of the cementoenamel junction. OSHA regulates the transportation of waste from the office. Allowing the ultrasonic-sealer tip to remain on the tooth surface too long will A. Which of the following oral bacteria have been implicated as periodontal pathogens? A. D. B. A. D. C. cannot be seen. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. B. Streptococcus mitior. are ego-syntonic. D. 108 Which of the following is the most important factor affecting pulpal response? A. E. The base of the incision in the gingivectomy technique is located A. and Gemella sp. B. The first statement is false. B. The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin is to interfere with the conversion of A. T h e first s t a t e m e n t i s l i u e . All rights reserved. Lactobacillus casei and Veillonella sp. PTA to PTC. E.. C. in the alveolar mucosa. C. not x rays. B. B. B. It is unlikely that the current dose will rise above his occupational limit. it is. most important for the dentist to consider which of the following? A. protein synthesis on bacterial but not mammalian ribosomes. E. The fluoride content of the drinking water The child's diet and caries activity The child's age and the fluoride content of the drinking water The child's weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water 126. B. C. The dose from the dental radiographs is too low to be measured accurately by the badge. 35-40% 45-50% 55-60% 65-70% 122. D. 124. nitric oxide. without waiting for the eruption of permanent first molars When all the primary teeth have exfoliated After the permanent first molars have fully erupted When the child is approximately 9 years of age 125. E. C. American Dental Association. D. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. 119. All rights reserved. C. B. C. might occur between erythromycin and which of the following antihistamine drugs? A. A 5-year-old child has a posterior unilateral crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift of the mandible. E. D.118. Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse cardiovascular events. cell wall synthesis. nucleic acid synthesis. 123. Terfenadine (Seldane®) Promethazine (Phenergan®) Hydroxyzine (Atarax®) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton®) TM PDF Editor 17 © 2009. 6 8 10 12 14 1 2 1 . population does not have dental insurance? A. D. A patient works at a nuclear power plant. E. C. pentobarbital. phenytoin. What percentage ofthe U. physostigmine. He is frequently exposed to a small amount of radiation. helium. D. How many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the most effective results? A. B. The drug of choice to treat overdosage with tricyclic antidepressants is A. although the dose he receives is below the occupational limits. His film badge must be used only to measure occupational doses. His badge records only gamma-radiation. The toxic impurity that can theoretically be found in nitrous oxide gas is A. C. D. C. methane. Immediately. D. B. ozone. D. protein synthesis on mammalian but not bacterial ribosomes. Which of the following best explains why this patient need not wear his employee film badge while he is having dental radiographs made? A. B. When should this crossbite be corrected? A. including death. atropine. B. C. Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with A.S. D. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child. cyclopropane 120. . C. an amphetamine. B. E. 0.127. The mechanism of action of the muscle relaxation induced by diazepam most clearly resembles that produced by A. then dusting the spill area with sulfur powder. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. E. decamethonium. rapid respiration Widely dilated. American Dental Association. E. Which is the EXCEPTION? A.10% 0. 129. D. C. A mercury spill in the laboratory or office is appropriately cleaned up by A. meprobamate. D. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. B. aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle trap. D. A. D. Which of the following cannot be used to calculate the dosage of a drug for a child? A. B. scrubbing the spill area with hot water and detergent. C.05% 0. Tachycardia Coronary artery dilation Peripheral arteriolar dilation A decrease in arterial blood pressure Increased motility o f t h e small bowel 137. Clark's rule Vital signs Body surface area Body weight (mg/kg) 133. D. succinylcholine. d-tubocurarine. sweeping up the mercury and disposing of it in a plastic bag. 132. schizophrenia. B. C. Sodium Calcium Chloride Potassium Phosphate 134. Comatose sleep Pin-point pupils Depressed respiration Deep. Which o f t h e following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of congestive heart failure? D. D. E. A prescription includes each o f t h e following parts EXCEPT one. B. which o f t h e following should the dental team do? A. C. In addition to the treatment of epilepsy. In communicating with children. B. B. B. B. C. All rights reserved. then spraying the area with BAL. E. B. phenytoin may be indicated for the treatment of A. Phenytoin Digitalis Quinidine Procainamide Nitroglycerin 1 3 0 . hypertension. C. E. E. D. C. arrhythmia. C. Allow the parent to answer questions asked by the child at chairside Allow both the parent and the dentist to communicate simultaneously with the child Transmit word substitutes for dental procedures and equipment during the appointment Attain voice control to build the groundwork for future instructions 135. non-responsive pupils 128. Which of the following symptoms is the most distinct characteristic of morphine poisoning? A. D. E. . D. removing the mercury. C. Inhalation of amyl nitrite can result in each of the following EXCEPT one. 1 3 1 .20% 0. D. Superscription Inscription Subscription Transcription Conscription 1 3 6 . What percent of the blood alcohol level is the most likely to produce a lethal effect in 50 per cent of the population? A. panic attacks.50% TM PDF Editor 18 © 2009. B. narcolepsy. The concentration of which of the following ions determines the binding affinity of agonists and antagonists to the opioid receptor? A. gallamine. C. C.30% 0. 143. B. C. Each of the following is a symptom of poisoning by an organophosphate insecticide EXCEPT one. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. B. The presence of Ag in metal-ceramic alloys contributes to which of the following? A. C. against the ring for support. Which of the following best describes adjunctive orthodontic treatment? A. D. E. E. All rights reserved. 145.138. Increases melting temperature Increases alloy strength Increases alloy corrosion resistance May cause green discoloration of the porcelain TM PDF Editor 19 © 2009. but the reason is correct. C. B. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. in the deepest part of the ring. B. Agents such as DEP inhibit only plasma cholinesterase. C. B. 144. hypoprothrombinemia. aplastic anemia. Orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliances Limited orthodontic treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics Orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation Early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion 139. C. D. B. D. prolongation of P-R interval of the ECG. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. C. D. D. In developing a canine-protected articulation where the anterior vertical overlap is determined to be less than 2 mm. granulocytopenia. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related. A. Diarrhea Hot. Digitalis should be given to patients with atrial fibrillation who require quinidine to avoid A. Agents may cause paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. E. D. D. opposite the direction of rotation of the casting arm. American Dental Association. B. Alkaloid physostigmine has the greatest number of side effects unrelated to ACHE inhibition. ventricular tachyarrhythmias. C. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT The statement is NOT correct. sino-atrial bradycardia. C. Which of the following statements is true concerning anticholinesterase? A. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. dry skin Excessive salivation Increased lacrimation Skeletal muscle fasciculation 141. thrombocytopenia. C. Organophosphates are readily absorbed through the skin. Amphetamines Phenothiazines Benzodiazepines Monoamine oxidase inhibitors Tricyclic (imipramine-like) antidepressants 140. D. The thinnest portion of the wax pattern should be placed A. hypokalemia. 146. B. E. Which of the following drug groups is currently the mainstay of treatment in depressive psychoneurotic disease? A. 142. Prolonged use of amyl nitrite may result in A. Reactivators such as 2-PAM reactivate ACHE which has undergone "aging". D. methemoglobinemia. in the same direction as the rotation of the casting arm. E. thromboembolism. the posterior cusp height should be kept shallow because the buccal cusps of the posterior teeth will have to assist in protrusive disclusion. . E. B. D. generally higher yield strength and hardness. 153. All rights reserved. C. Methyldopa (Aldomet®) Clonidine (Catapres®) Guanethidine (Ismelin®) Metoprolol (Lopressor®) Hydralazine (Apresoline®) 149. No radiographs Bite-wing radiographs only Panoramic radiograph only Panoramic and bite-wing radiographs Full-mouth survey including bite-wing radiographs 151. E. Diuresis CNS depression Enzyme induction Cutaneous vasoconstriction Increased gastric acid secretion 148. C. E. E. decreased specific gravity. generally lower yield strength. D. a higher melting point. D. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. Patients gradually develop tolerance because L-dopa induces liver enzyme activity. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. Benzylpenicillin Streptomycin Tetracycline Bacitracin Polymyxin c. a higher melting point. d-tubocurarine (Tubarine®). The "S" in DMFS signifies which of the following? A. Each of the following pharmacologic effects is produced by ethanol EXCEPT one. the base metal alloys exhibit A. E. Dietary intake of pyridoxine speeds L-dopa metabolism. increased specific gravity. B. There is no clinical evidence of caries or periodontal disease. D. D. Which of the following statements best describes why L dopa eventually becomes ineffective in the treatment of Parkinson's disease? A. American Dental Association. 154. B. .147. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. The United States Food and Drug Administration would recommend which of the following for this adult? A. PDF Editor 20 © 2009. B. The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by depressing the polysynaptic reflex arcs is brought about by all of the following drugs EXCEPT A. E. D. D. The cardiac glycosides will reduce the concentration of which ion in an active heart muscle cell? A. Sodium Calcium Chloride Potassium Magnesium C. E. L-dopa absorption slows with aging. generally higher yield strength and hardness. a higher melting point. decreased specific gravity. D. B. B. and generally higher yield strength and hardness. D. B. C. B. Neuroleptic analgesia Conscious sedation Dissociative anesthesia Psychotomimetic analgesia 150. Dopa decarboxylase activity increases with C. B. Having had a complete radiographic survey made 12 months ago. When high gold content alloys are compared to base metal alloys. Score Standard Surfaces Simplified Significant 152. The combination of a Schedule II narcotic with an antipsychotic drug produces which ofthe following? A. lorazepam (Ativan®). C. 155. age. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. E. Which ofthe following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretion? A. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. E. Which of the following antihypertensive agents acts directly on arterial smooth muscle to cause vasodilation? A. an asymptomatic adult patient presents for a recall appointment. Neuronal cell loss in the substantia nigra is progressive and continuous over the course TM o f t h e disease. B. C. D. meprobamate (Equanil®). increased specific gravity. B. C. diazepam (Valium®). and generally higher yield strength and hardness. 156. Poor denture retention Increased interocclusal distance Drooping of the corners of the mouth Creases and wrinkles around the lips Trauma to underlying supporting tissues 162. following prolonged excitation 163. C. D. resulting from increased airway resistance Respiratory failure. 158. B. Treatment with sulfonamides is less likely to be accompanied by crystalluria if A. para-aminosalicylic acid is administered concurrently. it indicates whether or not an antibiotic has good oral absorption. D. C. B. on standing the patient might experience a fall in blood pressure due to which of the following? A. probenecid is administered concurrently. B. D. Loss of a primary right molar in a 3-year-old child requires placement of a A. C D. D. When 50 mg. Overextended margins Excessive proximal contact Undercut areas on the preparation Casting too wide bucco-lingually Porosity within the inner surface of the crown 1 66. resulting from hypermotility of the gastrointestinal tract Asphyxia. C. of chlorpromazine (Thorazine®) is administered to a patient. Inactive form More active compound Less active compound More water-soluble compound Less ionized compound 160.157. it allows for routine testing of sensitivity to a range of antibiotics. D. C. B. a mixture of sulfonamides is used. Cardiac failure. the urine is acidified with ammonium chloride. Anticholinergic action Decrease in heart rate Alpha-adrenergic blockade Negative inotropic action Stimulation of autonomic ganglia 164. B. D. D. E. distal shoe. cortisone is administered concurrently. None of the above. All rights reserved. This is known as A. competence. the dentist attempts to control patient behavior. In pursuit of what the dentist believes is best for the patient. resulting from paralysis ofthe intercostals and the diaphragm Central nervous system depression. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in which of the following? A. Which of the following represents the cause of death in poisoning from an irreversible anticholinesterase. such as diisopropylfluorophosphate? A. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. B. D. B. resulting from excessive vagal stimulation Dehydration. autonomy. E. The disk sensitivity assay for antibiotic activity is used because A. removable acrylic appliance. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. the results are obtainable in a few minutes. Which ofthe following represents an amphetamine-like drug that is widely used in the treatment of hyperkinetic children? A. maleficence. it distinguishes between bacteriostatic and bactericidal drugs. E. D. American Dental Association. Metabolism of a drug will usually result in conversion to each of the following EXCEPT one. band and loop. E. E. C. paternalism. 161 . C. E. TM PDF Editor 21 © 2009. . Doxapram (Dopram®) Hydroxyzine (Atarax®) Theophylline (Theobid®) Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) 159. C. C. B. Which of the following is the most common reason for a cast crown not to seat on a patient's tooth? A. 165. B. C. B. During a soldering procedure. Tetracaine (Pontocaine®) Butacaine (Butyn®) Procaine (Novocaine®) Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) Benzocaine 173. Potentiation Protein bumping Negative synergism Competitive inhibition Enterohepatic circulation 176. B. allow the flasks and the acrylic to reach a stable temperature. Aleve®) 169. C. 170. Which ofthe following sedatives is most likely to cause a dry mouth? A. B. PDF Editor 22 ) 2009. A cast gold restoration might be indicated for the replacement of a faulty amalgam to obtain A. C. E. B. discoloration ofthe acrylic resin. placing the flasks into the processing tanks at curing temperature is delayed to A. C. D. D. E. E. C. C. E. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. C. Barbiturates taken in combination with very high doses of ethanol exhibit an interaction best described as which of the following? A. allow the monomer to permeate all polymer crystals. C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following agents is the least effective in producing topical anesthesia? A. Which of the following routes of administration exhibits the slowest rate of absorption? A. Aspirin Acetaminophen (Tylenol®) Ibuprofen (Motrin®. D. D. B. American Dental Association. Which ofthe following analgesics can be given either orally or by intramuscular injection? A. B. Following compression of acrylic into the denture flasks.S. flux serves to A. Buspirone (BuSpar®) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril®) Chloral hydrate (Noctec®) Phenobarbital (Luminal®) 175. B. Centrally acting analgesic Structurally similar to morphine Binds to the mu-opioid receptor Biotransformed into a more active metabolite Inhibits uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin TM 178. E. C. Bacteroides spp. assure complete flow of acrylic into the mold. Streptococcus mutans. Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol (Ultram®) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. C. remove any debris that may remain in the area to be soldered. establish an equalized and uniform pressure in the molds. E.167. B. B. excessive acrylic resin expansion. D. B. less removal of tooth structure. B. D. Oral Sublingual Subcutaneous Intramuscular 174. displace gases and dissolve corrosion products. ERYC E. D. All rights reserved. D. better margins. Which of the following erythromycins is both enteric coated and long acting? A. 168. Nystatin (Mycostatin®) is used in the treatment of infections caused by A. evaporation of the monomer. less trauma to the pulp. C. Candida albicans. Peptostreptococci spp. 171. C. D. Erythrocin llosone 177. provide an oxidizing environment in the area to be soldered. Advil®) Ketorolac (Toradol®) Naproxen (Naprosyn®. D. acrylic resin shrinkage. 172. hold the solder in place during heating. . D. exothermic heat buildup. B. B.E. more ideal contours. Excessive heating of the acrylic resin during processing should be avoided to prevent A. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. TM 183. B. Alveolar osteitis in the removal of bony impactions might occur (5-20%). 1 hour prior to procedure Clarithromycin (Biaxin®). E. Both statements are false. All rights reserved. D. A. 182. Which of the following risk factors is most likely to contribute to future attachment loss in this patient? A. Prior to undergoing scaling and root planing. 1 hour prior to procedure Cephalexin (Keflex®). D. D. There is a crater defect between tooth #2 and tooth #3. B. B. 3 gm. C. C. 1 hour prior to procedure Clindamycin (Cleocin®). Innominate line Lateral border of the orbit Pterygoid plate of the sphenoid Zygomatic process of the maxilla Posterior border of the maxillary sinus 181. American Dental Association. C. Amoxicillin (Amoxil®). the second is false. C. 1 8 5 . Horizontally impacted teeth are considered the most difficult mandibular impactions. the second is true. 180. C. B. A. B. B. E. There is a vertical defect on the mesial of tooth #2. The first statement is false. B. C. C. Prior to dental treatment using local anesthesia without sedation the patient should be instructed to take his usual dose of insulin and eat a normal diet. The first statement is true. D. 2 gm. Which of the following represents the best initial restorative treatment for tooth #4? A. 1 8 6 . the second is true. D. the second is false. Both statements are false. Each of the following statements is true concerning impacted teeth #17 and #32 EXCEPT one. . B. D. how should this patient be treated? A. D. 1 hour prior to procedure No antibiotic treatment is necessary. The first statement is false. The plaques on this patient's lower labial mucosa most likely represent which of the following? A. PDF Editor I 23 © 2009. the second is false. The position of tooth #26 will complicate the design of a maxillary prosthesis. The first statement is true. B. A. Both statements are true. C.Case A #'s 179-187 (see page 26) 179. The alveolar nerve is not likely to be injured during this extraction. E. Leukoplakia Nicotinic stomatitis Chronic lip chewing Psoriasis Smokeless tobacco hyperkeratosis 184. The first statement is true. Both statements are true. E. the patient should be instructed to reduce the usual dose of insulin and not eat. D. E. D. Both statements are false. Maxillary tuberosity reduction on the patient's left side would facilitate prosthesis fabrication. Place porcelain fused to metal crown Restore with conservative MO amalgam Treat mesial caries with composite resin Place mesial glass ionomer restoration to restore root caries lesion No treatment is necessary. Asymptomatic bony impactions are not recommended for extraction in patients over 35 years-of-age. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. 2 gm. the second is true. Probing depths greater than 3 mm Insulin administration Occlusion Nutrition Smoking 1 8 7 . The first statement is false. Both statements are true. 600 mg. If the patient is to have local anesthesia with sedation. Which o f t h e following represents the structure indicated by the arrows on the radiograph? A. Bonded composite resin Pin retained composite resin Prefabricated post and composite resin core Composite resin into canal continuous with core E. 192. remove facial caries on tooth #10 and restore with composite Restore caries on the facial surface of tooth #7. If you had seen the dentist regularly as you should have you wouldn't have had as many. #8. Following root canal therapy on tooth #10. C. D. Splint together with composite resin Remove failing margins and rough surfaces. Which of the following is the most appropriate restorative therapy for the patient's lower incisors? A. B. Which of the following is the most likely periodontal diagnosis for this patient? A. C. and place composite resin restorations on teeth #8 #10 Place all-ceramic crowns on teeth #7 and #9. 189. B. ." "Can you tell me why someone with a medical history as bad as yours has stayed away from the dentist for so long?" "You have had many dental problems in the past. All-ceramic crowns Porcelain fused to metal crowns Restore proximal surfaces as needed with composite resin Apply fluoride in determining why the patient has had infrequent dental care in the past? A. prior to crown preparation. Pulp chamber calcification Periodontal bone loss coronally Extent of coronal restoration Widened apical periodontal ligament space C. B. is most appropriate? A. and restore the mesial surface of tooth #8 with composite D. #9. Which of the following is the best. D. Which of the following approaches would be best 190. which of the following foundation options. C. Which ofthe following is the strongest radiographic evidence that tooth #10 requires endodontic treatment? A. and place crown on tooth #10 Place porcelain fused to metal crowns on teeth #7. Application of cold to teeth #12 and #13 Percussion testing on teeth #5 and #13 Electric pulp testing of teeth #12 and #13 Palpation in the buccal vestibule from teeth #12-#14 TM PDF Editor 1 24 2009. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for the radiolucency distal to the apical third of the root of tooth #13? A. most conservative restorative treatment for teeth #6 and #11? A. Which ofthe following is the best means to evaluate the pulpal vitality of tooth #13? A. C. B. 195. 196. C. Which of the following treatments will achieve the best esthetic results for teeth #7. D. C. American Dental Association. All rights reserved. Plaque-induced gingivitis Chronic periodontitis Aggressive periodontitis Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis 193. and place new composite restorations where indicated Place porcelain fused to metal crowns No treatment is indicated. you should go to the dentist more often or you will need expensive dental treatment. What could possibly have kept you away?" "Could you tell me more about your past dental experiences and present dental concerns?" B. "Why haven't you gone to the dentist more often? The more you avoid the dentist the worse your dental fear will become. D. B. polish composite resin restorations on teeth #8 and #9. replace MI composite resin restoration on tooth #8. #9 and #10? A. Metastatic carcinoma Lateral periodontal cyst Chronic periradicular periodontitis Extension of the maxillary sinus 194. D." "It is costly to have two daughters in college. and #10. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. C. B. D. B. Place all-ceramic crowns on all four teeth Place ceramic crown on tooth #7. E. B. 1 91 . D. D.Case B#'s 188-200 (see page 31) 188. C. 200. B. Mandibular removable partial denture Fixed partial denture teeth #20 to #22 and removable partial denture Fixed partial denture teeth #28 to #31 and removable partial denture Fixed partial denture teeth #18 to #22 and fixed partial denture #28 to #31 198. flap surgery. C. soft tissue grafting. . D. regenerative therapy. E.197. oral hygiene is good and there is a 1 mm reduction in probing depths. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. B. which ofthe following course of actions is most appropriate during initial periodontal therapy? A. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for the radiolucency apical to teeth #23-#26? A. another round of scaling and root planning. C. Mental fossa Coalesced periapical granulomas Periapical cemental dysplasia Central giant cell granuloma Traumatic bone cyst 199. All rights reserved. periodontal maintenance therapy only. D. E. C. D. Systemic tetracycline administration for 10 days Subgingival irrigation with 0. Which of the following options is the best to replace the missing mandibular teeth? A. B. Following initial therapy. B.12% chlorhexidine Consultation with physician concerning diabetes mellitus Tooth grinding for occlusal adjustment and equilibration ofthe dentition TM PDF Editor 25 12009. In addition to oral hygiene instructions and scaling and root planing. D. Periodontal treatment ofthe mandibular anterior teeth would include A. C. American Dental Association. © N3 O O CD > 3 CD 38 YRS EH MaleD Female 5' 10" 154 LBS 125/78 "I don't like the spaces in my upper teeth." 7) CD </) o CD 0) C D Q. Current Medications Social History CD O O CD Bartender o (A CD CO insulin (Hur Tiulm R ) a c Q. o o 3 en Medical History D 5' D (I Diabetes Patient had a hang-gliding accident 3 years ago with r esultant knee replacement. TM PDF Editor . He smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and uses chew ng tobacco.CASE A Age Sex Height Weight B/P Chief Complaint Dental History Sporadic visits for emergency extractions. Probe. Diffuse irregular white patches on lower labial mucosa.1 £2. o' 655 544 434 333 433 333 323 334 Probe 534 433 333 434 I 535 I 545 I 543 I 554 I 444 323 I 334 o CD m x o' Q CO Clinically visible carious lesion ^en Clinically missing tooth Probe 32 31 545 I 4 3 3 7 333 30 29 28 facial 434 I 545 I 545 \ 5451 554 I 434 TM 323T335 21 20 19 18 17 A • Probe 1: Probe 2: Furcation "Through and through" furcation initial probing depth probing depth 1 month after scaling and root planing 27 26 25 24 23 22 PDF Editor .CASE A ® o o CD ADULT CLINICAL EXAMINATION 5 Probe 555 444 434 > 3 CD 6 333 7 8 9 facial 10 1 1 12 13 14 15 16 Current Oral Hygiene Status Fair 333 323 223 333 O CD Cfl o o R o 3" O o 3 3 Supplemental Oral Examination Findings 1. TM PDF Editor . All rights reserved. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. . American Dental Association.Q LA fc < ULi CO < o TM en PDF Editor 29 i 2009. . All rights reserved. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. American Dental Association.Q t Q TM hI PDF Editor 30 ) 2009. They feel rough." Medical History Patient says he had a "mild stroke" 3 years ago.CASEB Age Sex Height Weight B/P Chief Complaint Dental History Patient has had infrequent dental care. arrythmias diabetes mellitus Type II hypertension Social History Patient is a building contractor with two daughters in college. 50 YRS KIMaleD Female 6'0" 210 LBS 130/80 "I'm not happy with my front teeth. Current Medications metformin (Glucophage*) metoprolol (Lopressor*) aspirin TM PDF Editor . CASE B © O ADULT CLINICAL EXAMINATION 1 Probe 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 667 16 5 P 3 CD > Current Oral Hygiene Status Fair 755 576 646 545 444 434 [555 I 545 I666 I 544 445 566 facial O CD fig O o o o O o 3 3 m' =1 Supplemental Oral Examination Findings ro 1 666 656 Probe. Probe 555 454 454 434 555 545 666 544 545 556 667 555 555 555 666 I 565 I 667 I 756 I 555 I 655 666 545 C D Clinically visible carious lesion Clinically missing too:h Probe 1 555 555 555 30 29 28 facial 656 I 566 I 567 I 755 I 655 I 755 27 26 25 24 23 TM 22 21 565 20 19 545 18 17 A • Probe 1: Probe 2: Furcation "Through and through' furcation initial probing depth probing depth 1 montn after scaling and root planing 32 31 PDF Editor . American Dental Association.J E38 -I • i m CO IU- < GO ^ W *i0frr y l |£ J J TM PDF Editor 33 © 2009. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved. .^^^k . TM PDF Editor 34 © 2009. . American Dental Association. All rights reserved. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. howevnr. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. for this item set. All rights reserved. it is not possible to convert a raw score numher correct to a standard score or associated pass/foil status 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 B D R C B B D A C D B B D C C D A B B B E C B C B E B E A A D E C E A C C E A D B A B C B D C D B B 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 E A C D C A C B A B B A C D B C A D B A C C C D E A D A C E E B B A B B E D B B C C E B D D A B D E 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 C D D E A A E D A B D D C D E D C A B A A B C D B B C D E D A E D C C A A B D C A A C B E C B A B C 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 B c A A D D c D C C E B C A C D C D C E A D B A D B D B D B C D E E C D A D B B A C B B A B C B C A TM PDF Editor 36 © 2009. American Dental Association. .PART 2 KEY The key below may be used to determine correct and incorrect answers.