Module 12 New

Module 12.Helicopter Aerodynamics, Structures & Systems 12.01, Theory of Flight - Rotary Wing Aerodynamics. Question Number. Option A. angle Option B. angle Option C. angle Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. 1. The angle of attack of a blade is the. between the chord line and plane of rotation. between the spin axis and relative air flow. between the chord line and relative airflow. angle between the chord line and relative airflow. Question Number. 2. Lift generated by a blade is proportional to the. Option A. relative airflow and the pitch. Option B. relative airflow and the angle of attack. Option C. blade speed and angle of attack. Correct Answer is. relative airflow and the angle of attack. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 3. With the helicopter in forward flight, parasitic drag will cause the helicopter to. Option A. pitch nose down with a decrease in forward airspeed. Option B. pitch nose down with an increase in forward airspeed. Option C. pitch nose up with an increase in forward in airspeed. Correct Answer is. pitch nose down with an increase in forward airspeed. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 4. When a blade moves about the flapping hinge. Option A. the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA) changes. Option B. the pitch angle of the blade always reduces. Option C. the drag forces on the blade change. Correct Answer is. the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA) changes. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 5. To maintain the position of the helicopter with a decrease in air density, the pilot must increase. Option A. main rotor RPM. Option B. cyclic pitch. Option C. collective pitch. Correct Answer is. collective pitch. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 6. The forces which govern the coning angle are. Option A. lift and centrifugal force. Option B. thrust and centrifugal force. Option C. lift and thrust. Correct Answer is. lift and centrifugal force. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 7. As a helicopter accelerates in level forward flight above approximately 15 knots, it will be necessary to. Option A. reduce power because of the additional lift due to translational flight. Option B. increase power because rotor RPM is increasing. Option C. reduce power because rotor profile drag is reduced. Correct Answer is. reduce power because of the additional lift due to translational flight. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 8. Option A. inertia. Phase lag is due to the blades. Option B. weight. Option C. rotational velocity. Correct Answer is. rotational velocity. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 9. The airflow over the main rotor will be in the reverse direction. Option A. in the vortex ring. Option B. under 'ground cushion' effect. Option C. at high forward speed. Correct Answer is. in the vortex ring. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 10. Maximum forward speed on a helicopter is achieved when. Option A. the engine is at maximum power. Option B. cyclic control is no longer able to overcome 'flap-back'. Option C. the main rotor RPM is at maximum. Correct Answer is. cyclic control is no longer able to overcome 'flap-back'. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 11. Assuming the phase lag of a rotor blade is 90 degree and thecontrol advance angle is 15 degrees, then the pitch operating arm must be at the highest point of the swash plate. Option A. 75 degree ahead of the highest flapping position. Option B. 90 degree ahead of the highest flapping position. Option C. 105 degree ahead of the highest flapping position. Correct Answer is. 75 degree ahead of the highest flapping position. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 12. A helicopter is hovering and the pilot applies right pedal. Assuming the main rotor rotates anti clockwise viewed from above, the helicopter will. Option A. descend, unless the pilot applies more collective pitch. Option B. descend, unless the pilot inches the throttle open. Option C. ascend, unless the pilot decreases rotor RPM. Correct Answer is. ascend, unless the pilot decreases rotor RPM. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 13. A helicopter has a main rotor which rotatesanti-clockwise viewed from above, and is fitted with an anti-torque tail rotor. It will tend to drift sideways to. Option A. port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the right side of the aircraft. Option B. starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted. Option C. port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the left side of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 14. The tail rotor. Option A. is not subject to dissymmetry of lift. Option B. produces a force opposing torque reaction. Option C. produces a force in the same direction as torque reaction. Correct Answer is. produces a force opposing torque reaction. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 15. With the tail rotor pedals in neutral, the tail rotor blade pitch will be. Option A. neutral. Option B. negative. Option C. positive. Correct Answer is. positive. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 16. Option A. roll. Option B. torque. Option C. drift. Correct Answer is. drift. The main rotor drive shaft is tilted laterally on some helicopters to correct tail rotor. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 17. Certain helicopters tend to tilt laterally when landing. This problem can be overcome by placing the tail rotor thrust. Option A. above the line of the main rotor hub. Option B. in line with the main rotor hub. Option C. below the line of the main rotor hub. Correct Answer is. in line with the main rotor hub. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 18. Ground cushion effect is produced by. Option A. increase in density above the fuselage. Option B. increased pressure under the main rotor disc. Option C. recirculating air giving additional lift. Correct Answer is. increased pressure under the main rotor disc. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 19. A helicopter hovering near a tall building will. Option A. be unaffected by it. Option B. drift away from it. Option C. drift towards it. Correct Answer is. drift towards it. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 20. A helicopter hovering 2 metres above the ground subject to a strong cross wind, will. Option A. increase lift due to ground cushion effect. Option B. lose lift due to recirculation. Option C. lose lift due to the removal of the ground cushion effect. Correct Answer is. lose lift due to recirculation. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 21. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will. Option A. not be affected. Option B. rise. Option C. lower. Correct Answer is. rise. Explanation. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases. Question Number. 22. During an autorotative descent, rotor RPM will be. Option A. higher than in powered flight. Option B. substantially the same as in powered flight. Option C. lower than in powered flight. Correct Answer is. higher than in powered flight. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 23. Autorotative force is the. Option A. force required to turn in a hover. Option B. force the pilot must apply to the collective lever to obtain a controlled descent. Option C. component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of rotation in opposition to drag. Correct Answer is. component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of rotation in opposition to drag. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 24. Autorotation. Option A. results in a loss of power. Option B. leaves the aircraft with no directional control. Option C. is the production of lift from freely rotating rotor blades. Correct Answer is. is the production of lift from freely rotating rotor blades. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 25. If the main rotor of a helicopter rotates in an anti-clockwise direction when viewed from above, and a hovering left turn is required, the following movements of the controls are selected. Explanation. Climbs with forward speed require less power than vertical climbs. down-wash below the blade. Option B. Option C. and increase throttle. and increase throttle.Option A. Option B. Option C. Lift is generated by. . translational lift. vertical lift is reduced. forward momentum. 26. achieved by tilting the rotor disc in the direction of flight. Option C. Question Number. Option A. forward thrust is decreased. when the helicopter changes from one steady flight condition to another. Option A. Rudder pedal to the left. Correct Answer is. 28. Explanation. achieved by raising or lowering the collective lever. 27. Option A. NIL. NIL. When the cyclic stick is eased forward in the hover position. Rudder pedal to the left. because of. Option B. vertical lift is reduced. Correct Answer is. Translational flight is. Question Number. Explanation. and decrease throttle. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. altitude is increased. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Rudder pedal to the left. translational lift. low pressure above the blade. achieved by tilting the rotor disc in the direction of flight. Option C. Question Number. increased inertia. NIL. Option B. 29. Rudder pedal to the right. Explanation. and increase throttle. Correct Answer is. When moving from the hover to forward flight it is necessary to. the tendency to oscillate until the neutral is achieved. Option B. retreating blade stall and the forward speed of the advancing blade. Explanation. Option B. increase the engine power. Option C. flap up to reduce lift. maintain constant engine power. Question Number. high pressure above the blade. . the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance. Option C. the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance. retreating blade stall and the forward speed of the advancing blade. the stability of the helicopter when hovering. 30. Option C. Option B. 32. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. 31. Question Number. 33. NIL. NIL. decrease the engine power. flap up to reduce lift. Explanation. the shape of the fuselage. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. increase the engine power. Correct Answer is. engine power. NIL. low pressure above the blade. Static stability of a helicopter is.Option C. Question Number. NIL. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. Forward velocity causes the advancing blade to. flap down to increase lift. give increased lift due to blade flapping. Correct Answer is. Question Number. The maximum forward speed of a helicopter is limited by. Explanation. Option C. Triangular pitch change lever. NIL. dragging forces. 35. flapping forces. Option B. Offset hinges. Option A. NIL. Question Number. Option A. Option C. 37. 36. As the angle of attack of a rotor blade increases. remains constant. dragging and the flapping forces. Option B. flapping hinges. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. offset hinges. Option C. Correct Answer is. Offset hinges. 34. What principle does the delta 3 hinge use?. Explanation. gyroscopic forces. With an increase in its angle of attack. increases. Correct Answer is. Option B. . Explanation. it affects the. decreases. 38. NIL. Option A. the drag acting on a rotor blade. Flapping actuators. NIL. Explanation. During forward flight the advancing blade will. dragging and the flapping forces. increases. Option A. gyroscopic forces. The bell stability augmentation system is based on. Question Number. Option B. Option C. 42. lag. . the centrifugal force. directional stability about the normal axis. Option B. Option A. flap down. NIL. flap up. Correct Answer is. increase the collective pitch. Correct Answer is. within small limits to. when hovering with a decrease in air density. directional stability about the longitudinal axis. Explanation. Question Number. The rotor blades are prevented from 'folding up' during flight by. Question Number. 40. Option B. the pilot must.Option A. Option C. increase rotor RPM. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. the centrifugal force. Option A. NIL. Option B. The RPM of the rotor blades is constant. Correct Answer is. Option B. reduce torque loading. increase the cyclic pitch. the weight. Explanation. Option C. To maintain the position of the helicopter. 39. NIL. increase the collective pitch. prevent blades folding up during flight. prevent blades folding up during flight. prevent blades over-speeding. the lift force. flap up. Question Number. An helicopter fin helps to give. Option A. Explanation. Option A. 41. Option A. weight to blade area. relieve some of the load on the tail rotor during forward flight. Option B. maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible. Question Number. Option A. all up Option C. Correct Answer is. longitudinal stability about the normal axis. blade Option B. to reduce rotor head loads during translational flight. Upwards. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. NIL. NIL. Option C. Solidity of the rotor is the ratio of the. 45.Option C. Question Number. provide lift during forward flight. The purpose of an off-set vertical stabilizer is to. The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to. Option C. 46. 43. maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible. blade area to disc area. all up Correct Answer is. Question Number. to stabilize the aircraft in the hover. 44. NIL. Explanation. relieve some of the load on the tail rotor during forward flight. Explanation. Parallel to the rotor chord line. Which direction is the air flowing through the main rotor during autorotation?. Explanation. NIL. NIL. provide stability during vertical flight. Question Number. Correct Answer is. during forward flight. Upwards. during forward flight. Option A. Option A. Downwards. area to disc area. Option B. weight to disc area. directional stability about the normal axis. . 50. Correct Answer is. lag. NIL. the rudder pedals. 48.Question Number. the lift vector will. 51. Correct Answer is. move aft. the advancing blade would be expected to. lift and drag increases Option C. In forward flight. During autorotation. NIL. Option C. increase pitch. flap up. lift and drag increases. need to be backed off due to the loss of torque. move forward. Explanation. Explanation. . flap up. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Option A. remain vertical. Option B. need to be advanced to counteract the increased torque. Option A. would Option C. 47. Question Number. Option B. Option C. would need to be backed off due to the loss of torque. have no effect on directional control. would Correct Answer is. Question Number. If the blade angle of attack increases. When a blade is flapping up. When the helicopter moves from the hover to translational flight. 49. move forward. drag increases only Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. lift increases only Option B. would Option B. Question Number. NIL. Option C. flying into a headwind. moves forward. Option A. Explanation.Option A. moving a large mass of air downwards quickly. When the rotor blade increases its angle of attack. 54. Helicopter rotor blades produce lift by. does not move. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. pitch will decrease. Question Number. hovering with high weight. Option B. creating a lower pressure above the blade than below. NIL. flying high speed in straight and level flight. creating a lower pressure above the blade than below. hovering with high weight. pitch will decrease. higher than in powered flight. Option C. NIL. Option B. Question Number. During an autorotative decent. the centre of pressure. Explanation. Option C. lift and drag both increase. NIL. pitch will increase. 53. Option A. moves rearwards. Rotor tip vortices are strongest when. Option A. Option B. rotor RPM will be. higher than in powered flight. 55. Question Number. Correct Answer is. moving a small mass of air downwards slowly. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. approximately the same as in powered flight. lower than in powered flight. Question Number. Option A. 52. NIL. . Explanation. both in and against the direction of normal rotation. 56. NIL. boundary layer. the diameter of the rotor disc. normal rotor RPM in gusty conditions. Autorotative force attempts to pull the rotor blade. Explanation. Option B. in the direction of normal rotation. high rotor RPM at engine start up. Question Number. Option C. 59. The ground effect is effective up to a height equalling. Explanation. the length of the fuselage. against the direction of normal rotation. NIL. NIL. boundary layer. Option A. Correct Answer is. 58. Correct Answer is. Explanation. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving. low rotor RPM at engine shut down. Option B. in the direction of normal rotation. none of the above are correct. Option B. Explanation. Option A. twice the diameter of the rotor disc. is known as. 57.Correct Answer is. Option A. in relation to the rest of the airflow. Rotor blade sailing is a problem at. does not move. NIL. the diameter of the rotor disc. Correct Answer is. low rotor RPM at engine shut down. NIL. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Option A. camber layer. Question Number. . Option C. Question Number. will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant. Explanation. lift increases and drag decreases. Fineness ratio. lift decreases. 61. will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed. Option A. Changes in aircraft weight. lift decreases. lift decreases and drag increases. Question Number. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change. Option C. Correct Answer is.Question Number. 63. Explanation. Option B. lift increases. Question Number. NIL. NIL. Option C. lift and drag increase. Question Number. Option B. Aspect ratio. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. what takes place?. When an aerofoil stalls. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Pressure decreases. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases. 60. lift decreases and drag increases. NIL. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior. Option A. lift increases. Option B. Pressure increases. Pressure increases. 62. Pressure increases. Option A. only change if the MTWA were changed. Ground effect will be most apparent when. increase. Explanation. always up through the rotor disc. increase with an increase in helicopter weight. The stalling speed of an helicopter blade. increase with an increase in helicopter weight. 65. is increased when the helicopter is heavier.Question Number. always down through the rotor disc. NIL. be unaffected. Option B. Question Number. decrease. may be either up or down. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. 68. NIL. The blade stalling speed will. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 64. When entering into a stable autorotative state. Airflow through the main rotor disc in autorotation is. taxiing on the ground. taxiing in the hover. Option C. Question Number. Option A. NIL. Option B. NIL. Question Number. hovering close to the ground. Option B. hovering close to the ground. the main rotor RPM will initially. Correct Answer is. always up through the rotor disc. does not change. 66. Option B. Option A. decrease. Option A. Correct Answer is. be unaffected by helicopter weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 67. Option A. Option A. Option B. . Question Number. is greatest for the advancing blade. Explanation. to move in all 3 axis where and when required. Explanation. to return to original attitude after displacement. Lift and weight. ability Correct Answer is. is greatest for the retreating blade. Option A. Option B. Option A.Option C. Correct Answer is. laterally stable. What forces are acting on the helicopter during descent?. Explanation. Question Number. directionally stable. Option A. Weight only. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. is increased when the helicopter is heavier. NIL. Lift only. Option B. ability to return to original attitude after displacement. Option B. to hover at a fixed point above the ground. is equal at all blades due to compensation. 71. Lift and weight. Stability of a helicopter is its. Correct Answer is. Explanation. directionally stable. NIL. 70. Option C. NIL. 72. . Option A. Option C. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. ability Option B. Helicopters in forward flight are usually. is increased when the helicopter is lighter. 69. NIL. Question Number. is greatest for the advancing blade. longitudinally stable. In forward flight the relative air velocity at each blade. ability Option C. Explanation. The ground cushion effect is apparent. Option A. If the angle of attack is increased on a main rotor blade. is no change in drag. . there Option B. reduce the blade weight. in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground. NIL. 75. A helicopter main rotor blade is twisted from root to tip to. 74. Explanation. there Option C. NIL. equalise lift along the blade. give the blade additional strength. Option B. is a reduction in drag. Explanation. equalise lift along the blade. NIL. Question Number.Question Number. equalise lift along the blade. 73. Option A. Option C. Question Number. in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground. A helicopter main rotor blade may be tapered from root to tip to. NIL. 77. is an increase in drag. Option A. Question Number. Option A. equalise lift along the blade. Option C. Option B. Translational drift is. on the ground only. Explanation. there Correct Answer is. Option C. 76. Question Number. Correct Answer is. reduce induced drag. Correct Answer is. Option B. there is an increase in drag. in the hover only. permit the blade to straighten under aerodynamic load. Correct Answer is. 000 ft. Question Number. When the rotor blade is flapping up. 78. Explanation. Question Number. it has a stable centre of pressure. Correct Answer is. is greater than the pitch angle. NIL. 79. the angle of attack. Option A. Option B.000 ft. the tendency for the aircraft to pitch nose up. Option B.000 ft. 36. Option B. Correct Answer is. The choice of aerofoil section for a rotor blade is such that. is greater than the angle of attack. Option C. the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally. Explanation. is less than the angle of attack. NIL. is less than the angle of attack. the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally. Option B. the tendency for the aircraft to turn to port. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. The tropopause exists at about. is less than the pitch angle. the C of P moves rapidly in response to pitch changes.Option A. Option A. Option C. When the rotor blade is flapping down. Option A. Option C. remains the same as the pitch angle. Explanation. 30. NIL. NIL. the C of P moves very slowly. the pitch angle. Explanation. Option C. it has a stable centre of pressure. remains the same. is less than the pitch angle. Option A. 81. 18. Question Number. Option B. Option C. Question Number. . 80. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. both lift and horizontal thrust. Option C. angle of attack is 0 degrees. a component of which is horizontal so thrust is obtained. angle of attack is about +3 degrees. Explanation. 82. as the pitch angle. Correct Answer is. Option B. angle Correct Answer is. at which the lift forces resultant is said to act. as the angle between reference plane and the axis of rotation of the disc. but an unbalanced component in the direction of flight moves the aircraft forward. NIL. Option B. Option A. Option A. The rotor blades operate at the best Lift/Drag ratio when their. Explanation. 83. 84.000 ft. NIL. same Option B. 85. NIL. with changes in angle of attack. a component of which is horizontal so thrust is obtained. if the section is symmetrical. same Option C. A rotor blade's angle of attack is the. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. between the relative airflow and the blade chord line. Option C. at which the lift forces resultant is said to act. The main rotor assembly of a helicopter provides. lift. lift. Option A. . angle between the relative airflow and the blade chord line. lift. NIL.Correct Answer is. pitch angles closely approach the stall angle. 36. Question Number. NIL. which moves most. Question Number. angle of attack is about +3 degrees. Option B. Option C. Explanation. at which the highest pressure is said to act. The centre of pressure of an aerofoil is that point on the cord line. Correct Answer is. The aerofoil shape of a main rotor blade is symmetrical in order to make the blade have. NIL. Option C. Option A. Question Number. disc diameter to the chord. Option B. Question Number. Aspect ratio is the ratio of the. Option A. providing stability. Explanation. Option C. a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of attack. blade chord to the disc area. Disc loading is defined as the. Which part of the rotor disc produces the most lift during forward flight?. Question Number. NIL. The front portion. Option A. The front portion. NIL. Option B. The rear portion. NIL. the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of gravity coincide. Correct Answer is. Option C. the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of gravity coincide. Explanation. 88. . Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Option B. 89. providing stability Explanation. a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of attack. An advantage of the symmetrical section blades used on helicopters is that.Question Number. blade span to the chord. Correct Answer is. The mid-span portion. Option B. the movement of the centre of pressure with changes of the angle of attack is greater than that of a fixed wing. Option A. 87. the centre of pressure moves forward with changes in angle of attack. blade span to the chord. Question Number. 86. the best possible autorotative characteristics. Correct Answer is. 90. the highest possible lift co-efficient when hovering. has increased airflow so yaw can be controlled by the rudder. Option A. Option B. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Explanation. a reduction in RPM. Over pitch causes.Option A. 93. Correct Answer is. ratio of gross weight to disc area. blades to cone up. Option A. the initial drop in RPM. the total fall in RPM. Option A. the total fall in RPM. Option B. Question Number. gives control in pitch and yaw. NIL. 94. ratio of gross weight to disc area. Option C. ratio of blade area to disc area. 92. Explanation. an increase in RPM. NIL. Question Number. the RPM at which underswing occurs. . No appreciable change. Option C. NIL. 91. Option B. Explanation. With Auto RPM control 'Static Droop' is. A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anticlockwise viewed from above. Option C. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right. Option C. Correct Answer is. ratio of gross weight to total blade area. blades to cone up. Question Number. Option A. What happens if a loss of anti-torque device at cruise speed in flight?. Option B. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right. A shrouded tail rotor. Correct Answer is. Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to left. Correct Answer is. Question Number. reduces need for cyclic feathering. move in the same direction as the disc tilt. move in a direction opposite to the disc tilt. Option B. 95. angled hinges. Option B. NIL. Question Number. which way does the aircraft tend to drift?. In a helicopter with its main rotor turning anti-clockwise. If the rotor disc is tilted then the helicopter will. Correct Answer is. ball joints. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . swash plate & spider assembly. angled hinges. rotating block. Explanation. irrespective of which side the tail rotor is mounted on. The delta three system of stabilisation consists of. right angled hinges. Explanation. Question Number. NIL.Option C. reduces need for cyclic feathering. Option A. swash plate & spider assembly. 3. Option A. 12. Option C. Rotor disc attitude is altered by. irrespective of which side the tail rotor is mounted on. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. Option B. Port if tail rotor is mounted on the right. Explanation. Option A. Starboard. ball & screw system. Option A. Flight Control Systems. Starboard.02. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. 2. 1. NIL. Port if tail rotor is mounted on the left. Question Number. Explanation. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is. Option A. increase in coning angle. NIL. Option B. both increase in rotor thrust and increase in coning angle. Option C. NIL. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. Ball bearings are used in fibre pulleys. 5. Option B. Question Number. move in a direction perpendicular to the disc tilt. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. Too much pitch on the collective lever will cause. the vertical plane. Question Number. The flapping hinge allows the rotor blade to move in. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. 7. 6. Option B. increase in coning angle. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a ball bearing. the vertical plane. Option C. Option A. . Question Number. a roller bearing. the secondary stops will just be in contact. Correct Answer is. Option B. 4. Option C. NIL. Option A. The clearance is on the secondary stops. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted. Correct Answer is. Question Number. move in the same direction as the disc tilt. increase in rotor thrust. at right angles to the relative airflow. Correct Answer is.Option C. Option C. the horizontal plane. Explanation. a plain bearing. Correct Answer is. the secondary stops have been over-ridden. a ball bearing. Option C. both parts of swashplate. 8. A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. Option B. Correct Answer is. 11. A flying control static friction check. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-45. Explanation. 9. feathering. Option A. . cable misalignment. flapping. Explanation.Question Number. NIL. 10. dragging. Question Number. Explanation. will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls. Correct Answer is. can only be carried out during flight. Correct Answer is. Option A. The main rotor scissor link connects. Option A. Option C. Option C. The ability of the blade to move up and down is. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. Option B. the rotating part of the swash plate to the shaft. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of. Option A. pulley misalignment. Question Number. Explanation. pulley misalignment. Correct Answer is. NIL. the rotating part of the swash plate to the shaft. Option C. excessive cable tension. Option B. Option B. to swashplate for collective input. flapping. Option C. Option C. Option C. Option B. Over-pitch of the collective lever will alter the pitch on all blades equally. Option A. opposite to the direction of flight. an increase in lift with an increase in engine RPM. Option A. accelerates in the direction in which the blades are tilted. NIL. increases the angle on the advancing blade and reduces it on the retreating one. Correct Answer is. Explanation. to counteract torque.Question Number. NIL. Option A. 12. 16. the helicopter. . increases the angle on the retreating blade and reduces it on the advancing one. 15. The primary purpose of the tail rotor is. Question Number. accelerates in the opposite direction to which the blades are tilted. NIL. Option B. to give lateral stability. accelerates perpendicular to direction in which the blades are tilted. NIL. a decrease in lift with a decrease in engine RPM. Question Number. to counteract torque. a decrease in lift with a decrease in engine RPM. equally. Explanation. The collective control adjust the pitch angle of the rotor blades. Option B. at 90 degrees to the direction of flight. If you change the plane of rotation of the rotor blades. Explanation. Correct Answer is. the rotor disc will be tilted down. equally. In straight and level forward flight. Correct Answer is. Option B. to give directional control. Option C. a decrease in lift with an increase in engine RPM. 13. Option A. This will cause. accelerates in the direction in which the blades are tilted. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 14. Explanation. to counteract torque. Question Number. Explanation. Always 'in' during flight. 17. Option B. NIL. Always 'out' during flight. NIL. The reason for fitting a tail rotor on a helicopter is. 20. Always 'out' during flight. Correct Answer is.Option C. 19. To control the speed of a blade as it flaps during flight. NIL. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. What is the purpose of flapping restrainers?. To restrict blade flapping at low rotor RPM. Correct Answer is. lateral axis. normal axis. Option B. Explanation. NIL. in the direction of flight. in the direction of flight. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. to prevent sideways drift. normal axis. To restrict the blade from flapping during flight. longitudinal axis. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Option B. Option C. Explanation. to ensure thrust is in the same direction as the couple produced by the engine torque. To restrict blade flapping at low rotor RPM. Question Number. Correct Answer is. What position are the droop stops during flight?. to counteract torque. NIL. Option A. Option B. Option C. 18. Directional control is about the. In' during forward flight only. . Option C. In straight and level flight. Question Number. Question Number. the forward air speed is controlled by the. Correct Answer is. Question Number. prevent control surface runaway. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C.Question Number. cyclic pitch lever has to be raised. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A delta 3 hinge is fitted to some tail rotors to. Option B. collective pitch lever has to be lowered. prevent control surface runaway. the cyclic stick and the collective lever. damp the system oscillation. NIL. Option B. NIL. . protect the servo motor. collective pitch lever has to be raised. 25. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle. Option B. the rotor blades and the tip path plane. the. Option A. To lift the helicopter vertically into the hover. Explanation. the normal axis and the rotor blades. Question Number. cyclic stick and the throttle. 22. Option A. NIL. 21. Explanation. Option C. Option B. Option A. the cyclic stick and the collective lever. collective pitch lever has to be raised. The coning angle of the rotor blades is the angle between. collective lever and the throttle. Option A. the horizontal and the rotor blades. Correct Answer is. 24. Option C. 23. the rotor blades and the tip path plane. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to. Explanation. Option C. NIL.Option A. . Option B. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by. an increase in speed of the tail rotor. NIL. feathering hinges and delta hinges. 29. drag hinges and flapping hinges. Question Number. universal joint. Explanation. decrease in torque at the tail rotor. NIL. Option C. 28. Correct Answer is. feathering hinges. continued pitch input. flapping hinges. vary the blade angle of attack as the rotor flaps to equality. allow the tail rotor to turn at its optimum speed. Correct Answer is. an increase in pitch at the tail rotor. an increase in pitch at the tail rotor. a suspicious cigarette end. delta hinges and drag hinges. A fully articulated rotor head would incorporate. Option A. Option A. flapping hinges. 26. Option B. Option C. Option C. vary the blade angle of attack as the rotor flaps to equality. Option C. C of G movement. continued pitch input. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. the attachment at the drag dampers. universal joint. a non-constant velocity. Option B. Hookes joint is. Correct Answer is. left by the captain. a non-constant velocity. 27. enable the tail rotor to be folded for hangar stowage. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Option B. pitch of aircraft in cruise. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Raising the collective pitch lever would increase the torque to the rotor head requiring. Option A. operation of the trim controls is required. Question Number. control blade lead and lag movement. NIL. increase the push on the cyclic stick. Explanation. drag hinges and flapping hinges.218. To over come this the pilot has to. NIL. Question Number. Option A. In an auto trim system. 32. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. for the trim system to operate. When moving the helicopter from the hover to forward flight a phenomena known as flap back occurs. counteract tail rotor drift. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. increase the push on the cyclic stick. control blade lead and lag movement. reduce the movement about the feathering hinges. feathering hinges. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Option C. reduce the induced drag from the rotor head. Option B. Correct Answer is. autopilot must be engaged. autopilot need not be engaged. Pallett Page 213 . minimize the rolling couple. Option B. Explanation. 33. Explanation. Drag dampers. Question Number. minimize the rolling couple. Option C. autopilot need not be engaged. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. allow for flare out during auto-rotation. Option A. Option B.Correct Answer is. Tail rotors are positioned in the same horizontal plane as the main rotor head to. ease back on the cyclic stick. 30. NIL. ease down on the collective lever. 31. Explanation. an altitude of 1000 ft with an air speed of 100 knots. Option C. the difference maximum increase pitch and maximum blade flap up. Option A. Question Number. 34. Question Number. Flapping hinges. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Option C. the difference between maximum pitch and minimum blade flap. Flapping of blades is with respect to. Flapping hinges. 37. prevent control surface runaway. Question Number. NIL.Question Number. Option B. NIL. Option A. The Delta Three stability system is based on which principle?. Phase lag is. 36. Option A. Option A. Autorotation is best achieved from. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. an altitude of 250 ft with an air speed of 35 knots. Explanation. NIL. Gyroscopic. 35. provide autopilot feedback. Option C. an altitude of 1000 ft with an air speed of 100 knots. Question Number. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to. Drag hinges. prevent control surface runaway. 38. Explanation. Correct Answer is. the difference between pilot input and maximum blade flap. . the difference maximum increase pitch and maximum blade flap up. Option B. an altitude of 300 ft and hovering. dampen oscillations. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Question Number. collective lever. relative airflow and angle of attack. the vertical plane. Option B. the vertical plane. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. in the direction of flight. 40. The rotor head is driven by the engine through. the ancillary gearbox. the drive shaft and the swash plate. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. 90 degrees to the direction of flight. collective lever. 41. Option C. NIL. the pitch is decreased on all blades. The rotor tip path is tilted. NIL. the pitch is increased on all blades. the horizontal plane.Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. When raising the collective lever. the angle of attack is decreased on the retreating blade. 42. Option C. Option B. Option A. the reduction gearbox and the drive shaft. 39. throttle box. Option B. the swash plate and the pitch change assembly. Correct Answer is. the reduction gearbox. . Option C. Explanation. Explanation. in the direction of flight. Explanation. in the opposite direction of flight. Option A. cyclic stick. The throttle hand grip is located on the. the pitch is increased on all blades. Question Number. to the left of the aircrafts longitudinal axis. the axis of rotation is not perpendicular to the plane of rotation. NIL. Option A. tilt the swash plate forward. Option A. the blade which flaps up will accelerate. Option B. . 46. Movement of the collective pitch lever will. Option C. counteract rotor torque and provide a rapid turn facility. alter the pitch of the advancing blades more than the retreating blades. alter the pitch on all the blades equally. permit directional control. Option A. forward of the aircrafts lateral axis. NIL. NIL. In a helicopter with a main rotor rotating anti-clockwise (when viewed from above). Explanation. the reduction gearbox and the drive shaft. 45. Option A. 44. Explanation. the blade which flaps up will accelerate. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. counteract engine torque and provide normal directional control. Option C. moves into rearward translational flight. Option B. NIL. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. maximum pitch is applied. Explanation. A helicopter tail rotor is fitted to.Correct Answer is. to the right of the aircrafts longitudinal axis. Explanation. counteract engine torque and provide normal directional control. The Coriolis effect on a helicopter means. the blade that flaps down will speed up. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 43. to the right of the aircrafts longitudinal axis. NIL. alter the pitch on all the blades equally. Correct Answer is. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. Option C.Question Number. NIL. Explanation. prevent overloading of the power control units. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system. flapping. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces. but not recommended. 47. automatic and instantaneous. Option B. Explanation. The purpose of control cable regulators is to. Option B. NIL. Option C. 48. Option B. Option B. NIL. Question Number. 49. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to. The ability of the blade to move up and down is. 50. possible. flapping. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces. a requirement of the manual reversion is that it must be Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. Question Number. Correct Answer is. increasing the sensitivity of the control system. Question Number. Explanation. operated by the standby hydraulic system. automatic and instantaneous. Correct Answer is. compensate for high temperature only. dragging. compensate for low temperature only. Option A. Option A. . Option A. Option C. NIL. Explanation. feathering. Option C. 90 ° after in the direction that the cyclic stick is moved by. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by. Correct Answer is. This is to. Explanation. Option A. mechanical stops in the control system. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 53. in the same direction as the cyclic stick is moved.Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. the vertical movement of the helicopter. Explanation. 90 ° in advance of the direction the cyclic stick is moved by. Option A. A tail rotor control is rigged so that it can move from positive pitch through neutral to negative pitch. 51. 52. to provide pressure to operate the control. Question Number. The tip path plane is tilted. Option B. Option C. Option C. in the same direction as the cyclic stick is moved. Option C. 55. Option A. The collective lever controls. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. . 54. Explanation. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit. NIL. Question Number. Option A. enable full control in powered flight. Option B. Question Number. travel of the jack ram. Option A. enable full control in autorotation. enable full control in autorotation. to revert the system to manual operation. enable full control in the hover. NIL. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit. Question Number. travel of the jack body. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook page 12-38. NIL. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is. mechanical stops in the control system. Option C. too much stability and over sensitive controls.Option B. the feel required is normally supplied by. the vertical movement of the helicopter. Explanation. Question Number. provide feedback to the pilot. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. In a power assisted flight control system. Option C. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces. 57. Option B. 59. Option C. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the forward rotor only is tilted. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces. instability and over sensitive controls. This would cause. During translational flight. . instability and over sensitive controls. Question Number. are operated by the autopilot only. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Powered flying control actuators. Option A. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. the rear rotor only is tilted. Correct Answer is. too much stability and less sensitive controls. Option B. a tandem rotor helicopter is controlled by. Q' feel. Option A. controls the helicopter movement about the vertical axis. stretching springs. both the forward rotor and the rear rotors independently. Option C. the horizontal movement of the helicopter. both the forward rotor and the rear rotors independently. The main rotor head hydraulic damper beam has been over tensioned. air loads on the control surfaces. Correct Answer is. NIL. 56. 58. air loads on the control surfaces. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. nulling of the servo valve. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. because at low level air density is high. They counter-rotate on a common shaft. They counter-rotate on separate shafts. Option A. Both rotate in the same direction on a common shaft. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. reposition force trim. Question Number. Option B. disengage force trim. the jack ram being attached to structure. They counter-rotate on a common shaft. Question Number. Option B. Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock. . Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Powered flight control systems are used on large helicopters. 60. Under heavy stick loads. Option A.1 and 8. 62.Explanation. NIL. air loads on the blades.2. NIL. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. Option C. Option B. 63. Option C. Correct Answer is. Irreversibility of a fully powered control system is provided by. Option A. reposition force trim. because the pilot has too many tasks to perform. Option B. AL/3-7 8. 61. Explanation.1 Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. the button on the cyclic stick would be used to. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. How do the rotors turn on a co-axial rotor system?. Question Number. engage force trim. NIL. nulling of the servo valve. Power 'operated' controls use a Q feel system. reduce. 66. Over-swing. Question Number. Option C. When lifting the collective lever during an autorotative descent the rotor RPM will. NIL. Option B. changing the same amount in the same direction. Option C. Under-swing. remaining the same. Explanation. 68. Explanation. increase. The rotor speed will be unaffected. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. Moving the cyclic stick forward results in." Option A.Question Number. Option B. Option C. Centrifugal latches. "In autorotation. The rotor will initially speed up. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. What is the difference between transient and static droop?. Option A. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. changing the same amount in different directions. Option B. Option B. 65. Moving the collective lever results in the pitch on the rotor blades. 64. Question Number. NIL. remain the same. Question Number. The rotor will initially speed up. Under-swing. reduce. The rotor will slow down. NIL. changing the same amount in the same direction. what is the initial effect on the rotor when the cyclic control lever is pulled back?. 67. Option A.Option A. increased. cyclic feathering. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. In forward flight. Option C. they are easier to maintain. Explanation. NIL. pitch on the retreating blade is. Explanation. pitch angle of all blades decreasing. Option C. Explanation. 69. Rotor heads incorporate elastomeric bearings because. During the transition from the hover to forward flight. increased. Option B. Option B. less power. Option B. advancing blade flapping up. Dissymmetry of lift in a helicopter main rotor is counteracted by. 71. decreased. advancing blade flapping up. retreating blade flapping up. more power. the same. Correct Answer is. permitting the rotor blade to flap. more power. 72. no change in power. Explanation. Option C. . Option B. NIL. 70. the helicopter requires. Question Number. Option A. Option A. Question Number. NIL. they reduce oscillatory loads. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Option A. they are easier to maintain. they reduce rotational loads. NIL. Question Number. NIL. How does a semi-rigid rotor overcome dissymmetry of lift?. Option C. both positive and negative torque. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. the pitot and static systems.Option C. 73. The tail rotor is subject to. positive torque. stainless steel. NIL. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. positive torque. Explanation. brass. 74. NIL. The mixing unit connects. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. the cyclic and collective controls. Correct Answer is. Question Number. A teetering head. Option C. negative torque. Option A. Option A. Drag hinges. the cyclic and collective controls. permitting the rotor blade to flap. Explanation. Question Number. NIL. 75. Option B. A teetering head. Flapping hinges. . Option B. Option B. Pulleys in a flight control system are made from. Correct Answer is. Explanation. biasing the stick to port. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. the engine fuel and air. Correct Answer is. Option A. 76. allows autopilot commands to move the aircraft quickly in pitch and roll. disengages the autopilot and allows the pilot to manually control the aircraft. NIL. 79. Manual trim with the autopilot disengaged is normally achieved by. NIL. Correct Answer is. allows original datum. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal helicopter is used primarily to. Moving the cyclic stick and pressing the force trim button. Question Number. allows autopilot commands to move the aircraft slowly in pitch and roll. 78. Option C.Question Number. Explanation. decrease cable tension in cold weather. Option A. NIL. allows Option B. Option B. Option A. autopilot holds manual pilot commands to quickly manoeuvre the aircraft and on release returns the aircraft to the allows manual pilot commands to quickly manoeuvre the aircraft and on release returns the aircraft to the. the autopilot to command rapid change in pitch and roll. Question Number. . manual pilot commands to quickly manoeuvre the aircraft and on release of the button. Correct Answer is. dedicated trim switches on the autopilot control panel Option C. allows new datum. Moving the 'coolie hat' with the autopilot engaged. 80. NIL. Option C. Option B. retain a set tension. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. allows autopilot commands to move the aircraft slowly in pitch and roll. Question Number. Option C. retain a set tension. 77. Explanation. Explanation. moving the 'coolie hat' Correct Answer is. pressing the trim release button and moving the cyclic stick. pressing the trim release button and moving the cyclic stick. Option A. increase cable tension in cold weather. Explanation. Question Number. autopilot disengages. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. Option B.. Option A. Explanation. Option B. A dual helipilot develops a single channel runaway. Option C. both indicators at full scale deflection. Question Number.Question Number. Where an auxiliary servo unit is used to apply autopilot commands to the controls. NIL. Option A. Option A. one indicator central the other on full scale deflection. Option A. both indicators at full scale deflection at opposite ends. autopilot integrator and returns aircraft to original heading when motion stops. must have at least the roll channel engaged. requires all channels to be engaged at the same time. Option B. LVDT. . Explanation. autopilot stores original heading on the heading integrator and returns aircraft to original heading when motion stops. Option C. 83. The twin actuator position indicator will display. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. NIL. 81. NIL. mechanical feedback through linkages. Option B. both indicators at full scale deflection at opposite ends. NIL. Correct Answer is. control synchros. requires all channels to be engaged at the same time. in the same direction. When in the hover the pilot applies a force on the pedals and the. Correct Answer is. The engagement of an helipilot. LVDT. Correct Answer is. 82. feedback is provided by. autopilot stores original heading on the heading. can be engaged with just either the roll or the pitch channel. 84. . tail rotor collective pitch. 89. Option C. prevent the pilot from attaining maximum forward speed. Correct Answer is. NIL. 86. Option B. Explanation. If the c of g of a helicopter is aft of its permitted range it will. flap only. 87. NIL. flap and feather. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. collective pitch. Question Number. Question Number. tail rotor collective pitch. Option C. NIL. Option B. 88. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has. 85. pilots control only. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. prevent the pilot from attaining maximum rearward speed. The attitude of a helicopter about the normal axis is controlled by the variation of. Explanation. A series actuator will cause movement of the. flap. Explanation. flap and feather. NIL.Question Number. Option C. prevent the pilot from attaining maximum forward speed. feather and drag. Each individual blade of a semi-rigid rotor system is able to independently. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. control run only. pilots control and the control run. have no noticeable effect. control run only. tail rotor cyclic pitch. Option A. NIL. 90. . Explanation. 1. Question Number. all blades make the same tip path. NIL. that the tail rotor keeps the aircraft on the correct track during forward flight. Option B. Option C. 12.03. all actuators are at neutral. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. Option A. 2. NIL. NIL. Question Number. Question Number. RPM increases. that all the main rotor blades travel in the same tip path plane. 10% authority. Correct Answer is. Option B. Tracking on a helicopter means. full authority. Correct Answer is. Option C. RPM decreases. Option A. 10% authority. Blade Tracking and Vibration Analysis. 50% authority. that the blades are subjected to leading edge hecks with a straight edge. all blades make the same tip path Explanation. Correct Answer is. RPM decreases. travel of the jack body.Option A. Range of movements of power operated helicopter controls are limited by. A tracking check is to ensure that. RPM stays the same. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Option C. If a pilot is slow to put down collective after engine failure. the coning angle is correct. 3. Explanation. that all the main rotor blades travel in the same tip path plane. Option A. the cyclic stick would be fully forward. inspect loose fixtures and fittings. using the flag method. a Bifilar Pendulum Absorber vibration assembly. 5. NIL. the collective pitch lever would be fully down. Option C. mechanical stops in the control system. Question Number. What is the process called on a semi-rigid rotor head where the blade C of G is put into the correct position?. Explanation. the collective pitch lever would be fully down. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Vibration in a rotor head is reduced by. Correct Answer is. design of engine and gearbox supports.Option B. 6. When carrying out blade tracking. NIL. Explanation. a scissor link. Flapping. Correct Answer is. a swash plate. NIL. The primary control method is. Option B. 4. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Aligning. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. travel of the jack ram. a Bifilar Pendulum Absorber vibration assembly. 7. Option C. the collective pitch lever would be mid-way between the down stop and the up stop. Option B. NIL. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. . Question Number. Option A. Aligning. Tracking. mechanical stops in the control system. Option A. NIL. NIL. Option A. Option A. . Loose load/vibration absorber. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. 8. Explanation. lateral and vertical vibration. Option B. What causes lateral vibration?. 9. Main rotor head. vertical vibration. Question Number. 1/rev Option C.04. A soft hydraulic damper causes. 1/rev Option B. Tail drive shaft misalignment. 1/rev lateral vibration. 10. Option A. Option C. 1/rev Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. design of engine and gearbox supports. play in the feathering control links. inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft. in the drive system. lateral vibration. play in the control rods and cables.Option C. Correct Answer is. With vibrations from a tail rotor and aggravated by movements of the rotor peddles the fault is. Question Number. Option C. Transmissions. NIL. 12. Question Number. Main rotor head. Option B. Correct Answer is. in the drive system. Correct Answer is. Question Number. a reduction gearbox. Option A. a reduction gearbox. Question Number. 3. Option A. Option C.Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. The clutch on a piston helicopter is positioned. Option C. between the main rotor gearbox and the rotor head. Option A. an epicyclic gearbox. Correct Answer is. to drive the driven part of the swash plate and hold the fixed part. NIL. Explanation. transmit drive from the gearbox to the driven part of the swash plate. between the free power turbine and the main rotor gearbox. NIL. 4. transmit drive from the gearbox to the driven part of the swash plate. 1. 2. Option B. Explanation. Option C. The purpose of the scissor links on a swash plate are. NIL. Question Number. between the main rotor gearbox and the rotor head. between the engine and the engine reduction gearbox. Option B. Option B. Explanation. NIL. Option B. a bevel gearbox. hold both parts of the swash plate together. Correct Answer is. between the engine reduction gearbox and the main rotor gearbox. between the engine and the free power turbine. between the main rotor gearbox and the rotor head. The intermediate gearbox is. . Option C. between the engine reduction gearbox and the main rotor gearbox. Option A. A rotor brake is located. non-adjustable specific jets. Option B. pumped oil via replaceable. To check for correct meshing on a helical gear you would use. Option C. Explanation. Option B. transponders. Explanation. Explanation. pumped oil via replaceable. Question Number. NIL. shim must stay with gear box. On a gear box quill drive with a master shim. Prussian blue. Correct Answer is. Question Number. adjustable specific jets. splash. NIL. non-adjustable specific jets. thickness + location of shim is given on gearbox. transformers. Option A.Question Number. feeler gauges. Prussian blue. Option C. Option C. Explanation. Option B. transducers. 6. Correct Answer is. transducers. Option A. a dial test indicator. 7. . NIL.05a. Question Number. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Airframe Structures. Option B. Option A. 8. 12. 5. pumped oil via non replaceable. Option A. size. shim must stay with gear box. Correct Answer is. The HUMS receives signals from. The oil system used in helicopter gear boxes is. shim is replaced with quill drive. Option B. None is required. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 343. 1. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. elongating or stretch. Option C. Special paint. Option C. Explanation. Tension is the stress of. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are. Option C. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. 2. Question Number.8. . Fire-proof grommets. wetting and gripping. 5. Question Number. Fire-proof grommets. Explanation. Option A. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'. Question Number. Option A.Question Number. How is damage to the nose cone of an helicopter prevented during a lightning strike?. Earthing Strap. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is. Option A. 1/50 ohms. Option A. Soft rubber. Option C. Correct Answer is. spreading and setting. 50 milliohms.005 ohms. 0. Option A. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?. Explanation. Option B. NIL. A module 7 questions. wetting and Setting. 3. Bonding Strip. 50 milliohms. Correct Answer is. wetting and Setting. Bonding Strip. 4. Option B. help bonding of the topcoat. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C.2. Option C. Explanation. acid etch. 7. Explanation. Option A. acid etch. smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure. Option A.1. Tension is the stress of elongation or stretch. Question Number. CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra. A Fuselage Station is a. longitudinal point on the helicopter fuselage. 9. twisting. lateral point on helicopter fuse. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure. Question Number. we use. Fuselage Stations are longitudinal measurements on the fuselage. Option C. slight shrinkage due to age. larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure. . The purpose of a primer is to. Option C. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding. provide flexible surface for the top coat. 8. Option A. provide shiny surface for the topcoat. Option C. longitudinal point on the helicopter fuselage. 6. Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Option A. help bonding of the topcoat. crush or compression. Option B. solvent etch. Explanation. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have. lateral point on helicopter wing. Explanation. alkaline etch. Correct Answer is. elongating or stretch.Option B. Correct Answer is. maximum loadings. are made from fire retardant Perspex. Option B. Option C. special paint. 13. Option A. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25. Question Number. Explanation. Composite materials are bonded by. Correct Answer is. pallet size is fixed. 11. Explanation. Usually.857.4. Explanation. Option B. Option C. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. class E. Option C. maximum loadings. class A. Option B. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is. Question Number. Option A. maximum dimensions. Correct Answer is. must have blinds pulled down. class B. NIL. Option A. Acrylic has a thermal expansion approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy. A cargo bay must have signs stating. special paint. Option B. must be blanked off. Option C. Option A. Zone D Cargo compartment windows. must be blanked off. class A. Question Number. but the weight is critical. 12. aluminium wire. no hazardous cargo. 10.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number.4. . copper wire. 20 24. What force is an I-Beam subjected to?. 15. compression loads are taken by.Question Number. 17. Question Number. Option A. 20 24. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para. Option A. CAIP AL/7-2 para 2. Option B. stringers. 0. Option C. 14. . 18. Option B. 50 56. stringers. Option A. Option C. 22 AWG. Correct Answer is. Option A. upper fuselage. frames. Bending.5 in wide. Most large transport helicopter skins are. Option B. ATA Zone 100 is. 70 75. Explanation. Explanation. 0. lower fuselage.25 in wide and 22 AWG. lower fuselage.6 (last sentence). Explanation.3.1 (a). ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor). Option C. In semi-monocoque construction. Option B.5 in wide. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 16. 3. Option B. 0. Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8. Tension. the rotor. bulkheads. Question Number. Explanation. bubbling of the glass due to overheat. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once.4. special conductive grease. Option C. Option A. although different parts of it are subject to tension (upper boom) and shear (the web). A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by. Question Number. water lines and buttock lines. water lines and buttock lines. Bending.5. PLI washers can be used more than once. Option C. Correct Answer is. bonding strips. Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4. Option C.5. PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. Option A. conductive paint. vertical lines and lateral lines. 22. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Option B. providing they are used in critical bolted joints. Option A. Correct Answer is. conductive paint. Explanation. Question Number. An I beam is subject to Bending. frame stations. Question Number.Option C. Option C. in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?. windscreen peeling away from the airframe. Windscreen delamination is. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 6. Option B. Option B. longitudinal. 19. 20. Precise points are located on an helicopter by a system of. Option A. Shear. . frame stations. separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer. Correct Answer is. Which of the following statements is correct. Correct Answer is. 21. Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3. frame stations. vertical and lateral lines. Stringer. 50 °F to 70 °F.1. Explanation. Which of the following is an example of a failsafe structure?. Explanation.1 says 40 °C. 30 °C to 50 °C. Answer chosen due to a stringer's duplicity.1. 125 °F. Correct Answer is. Bulkheads. Option C. Spar. Option B. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?. 40 °F. CAIPs AL/7. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?.Correct Answer is. Option B. 24. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer. CAIPs AL/7-4 Para 6. 26. Option C. . 23. CAIPs AL/7-10 Para 6.2 para 3. Explanation. Option A. Longeron. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?. Question Number. Stringer. Option B. Option C.3. Option A. 50 °C to 70 °C. 25. Option A. which is 104 °F. Stringers. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Stringers. CAIPs AL/7-10 Para 5. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 50 °F to 70 °F.1. 104 °F. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Frames. 104 °F. Explanation. 27. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of. Option C. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. 800. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?. 29.Question Number. Question Number. Damage tolerant design. Correct Answer is. 28. Explanation. 31. Option A. 600. Longerons. Option A. . A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28. Option C. CAIPs BL/7-2 Question Number. 400. which component carries the majority of the loads?. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Explanation. is applied only to secondary structure. Stringers. Skin. allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure. Option B. Option B. Cadmium plating. Correct Answer is. Skin. Zinc plating. Checkout most modern aircraft Maintenance Manuals for zonal locations. 30. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?. Question Number. 800. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance. Option B. In a monocoque structure. Option B. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance. Option C. Cadmium plating. Nickel plating. By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle. Option C. Option A. Explanation. CAIPs BL/7-3. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Magnesium alloys. Magnesium alloys.3. By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle. Option B.Option A. 33.5 i. Longitudinal alignment method. Question Number. Option B. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 3. aluminium. 35. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Lateral alignment method. The back legs are secured as they have the upward load during a sudden stop. Ferrous alloys. Option A. Option B. slip away under the action of forces. Question Number. what method of measurement is normally used?. Explanation. Steel tape and spring balance. 32. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft. Aluminium alloys. Option B. By both front and back legs. Steel tape and spring balance. A material commonly used for bulkhead sealing is. PTFE. Correct Answer is.9. Option C. Question Number. CAIPs AL/7-12 3. pulling forces. soft rubber. Option C. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?. By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle. soft rubber. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. . 34. Correct Answer is. Shear stress is described as. 37. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. Special grease on the hinges. CAIPs BL/6-20 11. should only be used once. slip away under the action of forces. Diverter strips. Explanation. Option A.Option C. Correct Answer is.1 a (i).5 in. Diverter strips. CAIPs RL/2-5 3. Correct Answer is.5 in. Option C. Option B. Explanation. and remove the shank with a metal punch. 36. Special paint. cross sectional area. Paint remover substances. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. chisel off the rivet head. Option C. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Explanation. Option B. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?. chisel off the rivet head.4. The keyword is 'slip'. copper stranded 0. Explanation. compressing forces.2.1. single strand copper wire 0. but it is a terrible definition of shear stress. . Correct Answer is. chisel off the rivet head. 39. Question Number. Question Number.3. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. cross sectional area. Option A. are not damaging to any aircraft parts. Option B. Option C. Option C. Option A. To remove a rivet. Option B. Option A.5 in. single strand copper wire 0. are damaging to some aircraft parts. The ground cable must be. and remove the shank with a metal punch. single strand 18 AWG. drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank. are damaging to some aircraft parts. 38. cross sectional area. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together.7.10. expansion of the acrylic due to heat. Explanation. Option B.Correct Answer is. Zero. and remove the shank with a metal punch. expansion of the metal due to heat. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3. metal for earthing purposes. Option C.1 says 'slightly smaller'. 40. Pallett Page 24. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. galvanic corrosion of the metal. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. to seal the cabin. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. 41. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. 42. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. 43. Option A.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet'. Explanation. allowance should be made for. Option A. Option B. We chose the former. what would the gauge read?. Full scale deflection. Option B. . because it is current. Question Number.2 B. to prevent corrosion. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. chisel off the rivet head. to provide external streamlining. Option C. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together. Option A. Option C. Battery trays are. Question Number. expansion of the acrylic due to heat. Zero. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Correct Answer is. Centre scale. absorbent to soak up electrolyte. Question Number. AL/7-4 para 4. but CAIPs BL/6-29 para 10. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?. Correct Answer is. http://www. Option B. Tension. 47. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?. Option B.hi-shear. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. Shear. NIL. Kerosene. Option A.htm Question Number.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156. Question Number. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt. bending. 46. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused. Kerosene. Option A. Explanation. is known as. Option B. shear. Explanation. Strain is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause a permanentdeformation.tpub. http://www. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. strain. Strain is 'best' of the answers. 44.3. Explanation. lubricate the shank and threads.7 and. CAIP AL/7-2 para. AL/7-4 2. Explanation. lubricate the collar. Bending. 3. A 'web' always takes shear loads. . Option A. MEK. 45. Acetone. it is necessary to. Option C. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. strain. Option C.com/fasteners Question Number. Option B. Option A. Shear. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. Option C. to seal the cabin. Option C. also acts as a. jury strut. Option A.C20 . Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is.Question Number. bonded. Option B. Option A. Chapter 51 is General Practices. Explanation. AL/7-10 3.1. Option C. 49. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. 48. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair. utilizes the safe-life design concept. bonded. insulated from the fuselage. Correct Answer is. 51. Option B. Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe textbook page 1-3.1. Explanation. offers good damage resistance. Correct Answer is. 50. to enable inclusion of heater film. not bonded. Question Number. Semi-monocoque construction. to improve on brittle behaviour. Option C. Explanation. according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC. 52. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-56. as well as acting as a skin strengthener. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is. Option C. Question Number. according to SB instructions. Option B. offers good damage resistance. Option A. to increase static strength. A bonded waffle doubler. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. Correct Answer is. to improve on brittle behaviour. is used only for the fuselage. Option A. Most radio aerials are. Question Number. Secondary bonding is usually provided with. 53.Option B. 18 AWG. vertical stabilizer and tail rotor gearbox. tail rotor. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together. Middle of repair. landing gear. shear tie. Material under repair. Option C. rotor blades. CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig. Option A. Option B. Option C. Why is a joggle joint used?. vertical stabilizer and tail rotor gearbox. Added strength. 56. Option C. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. single strand 0. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. The term 'empennage' incorporates. 54.3. tear stopper. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. tail rotor. 55. tear stopper. So countersunk rivets do not need to be used. Question Number. stranded copper 0. . Edges of repair metal. Option C. rotor head and main gearbox. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?. Open to interpretation.25 inch.25 inch. brakes and tyres. Smooth contour of surface.4). Option B. Material under repair. Option A. wheels. Smooth contour of surface. 18 AWG. Option C. Correct Answer is.1 (a) (ii). Explanation. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 57. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for. Option A. high strength, high toughness. Option B. low strength, high toughness. Option C. high strength, high ductility. Correct Answer is. high strength, high ductility. Explanation. NIL. http://www.user.lasercom.net/normajean/normajean/newpage1.htm Question Number. 58. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are. Option A. 15 °C to 25 °C and humidity below 75%. Option B. 20 °C to 30 °C and humidity below 70%. Option C. 15 °C to 25 °C and humidity above 60%. Correct Answer is. 15 °C to 25 °C and humidity below 75%. Explanation. BL/6-20 5. Question Number. 59. The helicopter's normal axis is. Option A. through the centre of lift, perpendicular to air flow. Option B. through the centre of gravity, between the main and tail rotor. Option C. through the centre of gravity, perpendicular to longitudinal and lateral axis. Correct Answer is. through the centre of gravity, perpendicular to longitudinal and lateral axis. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 60. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a. Option A. wing line. Option B. vertical line. Option C. horizontal line. Correct Answer is. vertical line Explanation. AL/7.2 Page 6.2 Fig 15. Question Number. 61. What are the types of true bonded joints?. Option A. Mechanical and cemented. Option B. Cemented and specific. Option C. Mechanical and specific. Correct Answer is. Mechanical and specific. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 62. The various parts of the helicopter airframe are maintained at the same potential by. Option A. bonding. Option B. earthing. Option C. static wicks. Correct Answer is. bonding. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 63. Why is a joggle joint used?. Option A. To provide a flush fit. Option B. To add strength. Option C. To provide a smooth contour to surface. Correct Answer is. To provide a flush fit. Explanation. Arguably c also, but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'. Question Number. 64. On passenger helicopter of two or more zones. Option A. there should be at least one exit per zone. Option B. the seat backs fold forward at emergency exits. Option C. the emergency exits are to be clearly signed. Correct Answer is. there should be at least one exit per zone. Explanation. JAR 25.783. Question Number. 65. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than. Option A. 18 SWG for a single wire. Option B. 22 SWG * 0.5. Option C. 22 SWG * 0.25. Correct Answer is. 18 SWG for a single wire. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 (ii). Question Number. 66. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of fastener would you use?. Option A. Blind rivet. Option B. Hi lock bolt. Option C. Pop rivet. Correct Answer is. Blind rivet. Explanation. Pop rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved. Question Number. 67. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an helicopter?. Option A. Flying Hours. Option B. Pressure Cycles. Option C. Landings. Correct Answer is. Flying Hours. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 68. Class D cargo bay windows require. Option A. the blind down for flight. Option B. fire proof coatings. Option C. double acrylic panels. Correct Answer is. fire proof coatings. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 69. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from. Option A. Fibreglass and resin. Option B. monolithic Nomex. Option C. Kevlar. Correct Answer is. Fibreglass and resin. Explanation. AWN 80 Para.2.3 and 4.1.1. Question Number. 70. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids. Option A. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. Option B. they can be ignored, they provide extra protection. Option C. they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 71. The main forces on an helicopter structure are. Option A. tension, compression, twisting and shear. Option B. tension, compression, torsion and strain. Option C. tension, compression, torsion and shear. Correct Answer is. tension, compression, torsion and shear. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 72. The life of the helicopter structure is counted by. Option A. flying hours. Option B. pressurization cycle. Option C. landings. Correct Answer is. flying hours. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 73. What are buttock lines?. Option A. Horizontal measurement lines. Option B. Measurements from the centre line. Option C. Vertical measurement lines. Correct Answer is. Measurements from the centre line. Explanation. CAIPs AL/7.2 Page 17 Para 6.2. Question Number. 74. Helicopter fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes, partially by. Option A. non-conductive paint. Option B. bonding. Option C. conductive paint. Correct Answer is. conductive paint. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 75. Directional axis of a helicopter. Option A. passes through the c of g of the helicopter. Option B. passes through the centre of lift at right angles to relative air flow (RAF). Option C. half way between the main and tail rotor. Correct Answer is. passes through the c of g of the helicopter. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 76. A member taking a compression load is called a. Option A. beam. Option B. cable. Option C. strut. Correct Answer is. strut. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 77. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called. Option A. spars. Option B. longerons. Option C. frames. Correct Answer is. longerons. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 78. Option A. struts. Option B. stringers. Skin panels may be strengthened by. Option C. cleats. Correct Answer is. stringers. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 79. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?. Option A. Two booms separated by a web. Option B. One boom mounted under a web. Option C. Two webs separated by a boom Correct Answer is. Two booms separated by a web. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 80. A partition within the helicopter's structure is called a. Option A. cleat. Option B. bulkhead. Option C. frame. Correct Answer is. bulkhead. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 81. A crack stopper is fitted. Option A. before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation. Option B. before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation. Option C. after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation. Correct Answer is. before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 82. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an helicopter?. Option A. Remove all optional equipment. Option B. Install critical stress panels or plates. Option C. Determine the fuel tanks are empty. Correct Answer is. Install critical stress panels or plates. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. Option C. catches. Synthetic resins are made from nylon. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings. NIL. Option B. NIL. Option B. NIL. Tensile. Option A. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?. Explanation. When inspecting stowage doors. Monocoque. NIL. Option B. Truss type. light micro-switches. usually in. Option C. acrylics. 86. Explanation. Option B.Question Number. Tensile. Semi-monocoque. Option C. special attention should be given to the. 85. 84. Question Number. trim. Bending. Semi-monocoque. Option A. Question Number. 87. 83. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. acrylics. Option A. . Stringers are used in which of the following types of helicopter fuselage construction?. Correct Answer is. Torsion. Explanation. Option A. vinyl and. cellulose. catches. asphalt. Option C. Frame. Question Number. Explanation. tracks. Option B. NIL. Windshields are heated to. Explanation. Question Number. NIL. Option A. Explanation. one inch increments. maintain strength and toughness only. Which of the following is primary structure?. Option C. Option A. stanchions. ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness. 90. red. Option B. If a colour is used to identify primary structure. red. 89. Option B. prevent misting and icing only. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Option B. it will be. Option C. rails. Question Number. Skin. Skin. Option A. demist. 88. Option C. Correct Answer is. Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to. 91.Option A. yellow. Stringer. stanchions. green. one foot increments. half inch increments. Option C. Correct Answer is. one inch increments. . NIL. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option B. 93. is easier to manufacture. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A.Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it. Explanation. demist. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. NIL. not locked. not fully opened. Option C. takes all the loads in the skin. 95. 92. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails. Option B. by alternate actuators. The internal doors of an aircraft. never carry pressure loads. never carry pressure loads. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. manually by winding. Option B. NIL. Option C. locked. carry pressure loads. Option C. It may be operated. ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness. Explanation. manually by winding. Question Number. NIL. 94. Option A. be electrical ground power. shares the loads. only carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise altitude. shares the loads. not locked. Option B. . Question Number. 97. wheel shields and minor component brackets etc. feet. failsafe. wheel shields and minor component brackets etc. all the loads are carried by the. Correct Answer is. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. Explanation. Option B. inches. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. double safe. These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings. Which parts of the helicopter are classified secondary structures?. safe life. Option A.Question Number. Option C. inches. Option A. Structure with built-in redundancy is called. Option B. Option B. Option C. skin. 98. failsafe. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life. . NIL. Question Number. 99. Explanation. longerons. Option C. Question Number. 96. Correct Answer is. frames. NIL. OR These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. skin. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. In a fully monocoque fuselage. These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings. Option A. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the helicopter in. feet and inches. Explanation. NIL. AL/7-2 2. NIL. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. is the load per unit area acting on a material. Option A. Option C. Option A. Option B. Methylated spirits. Correct Answer is. Option C. 103. the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing. Explanation. NIL. protective paper and adhesive remaining on the panel may be removed by use of soap and water and. increase. 102. increase. Option B. Correct Answer is. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame. is the deformation of a material caused by applied load. MEK. is the property of a material to resist fracture. 100. NIL. Explanation. decrease. provision must be made for the relative movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of. Explanation. not change.Question Number. After installation of an acrylic window panel. Methylated spirits. the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame. 101.2. Option A. Option C. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen. . Cellulose thinners. its ability to withstand impact will. the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the. Option B. Option B. is the load per unit area acting on a material. Explanation. the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Stress. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. 106. Question Number. 105. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either Primary or Secondary. 107. Intercostals are. Correct Answer is. Upgrade it to primary. Explanation.T.3. NIL. Question Number. AL/7-4 2. Option A. C. Safe-life. Option B. compression ribs in cantilever wings.what action should you adopt?. Upgrade it to primary. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary. Question Number. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. Grade it as secondary. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles. Option B. Explanation.Question Number. Safe-life. Option A. Condition monitored. Option C. Paraffin. Paraffin. Acetone. Option A. NIL. Option C. Perspex is resistant to. Option B. 104. vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane. 108. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.C. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Safe-life is. Fail-safe. flying hours or years. regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?. Explanation. Explanation. tension and shear stresses. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as. Option A. Option B. failsafe joints. AL/7-10 5. Explanation. Question Number. you are aware of vinyl bubbling. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C.1. from the outside. torsional and compression stresses. Explanation. 110. NIL. Only replace the window if the bubbling affects vision. Option B. from either side. No action is required with this defect. Option C. Bending stresses are a combination of. tension and compression stresses.6. Option A. tension and compression stresses. 109. Option B. Only replace the window if the bubbling affects vision. Question Number. the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.Option A. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. On an inspection. NIL. failsafe joints. Explanation. 111. 112. from the inside. Option B. Question Number. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. A plug type window is fitted. the sharing of loads between adjacent members. Option B. Option A. secondary joints. . the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. Explanation. Option C. crack limiting joints. NIL. What action is required?. Replace the defective window. Option B.Correct Answer is. Question Number. 113. manufacturer. Notice 89. Correct Answer is. operator. 115. Option B. Class 'E' compartment. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. . Notice 89. Option B. Drain valves are normally closed by. Option A. from the inside. Class 'E' compartment. Notice 65. Jeppesen. JAR 25. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the. Explanation. NIL. spring pressure.6. maintenance engineer. Option B. 116. Question Number. manufacturer. Class 'C' compartment. These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747. Option A. 114. Explanation. Explanation. 9-3. Correct Answer is. Class 'B' compartment. Question Number. Correct Answer is.857 & Transport Category Aircraft Systems. Option C. Explanation. Option C. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a. Option C. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is. rubber strips. cabin air pressure. Option A. AL/7-2 3. Notice 79. Question Number. cabin air pressure. AWN 89. Explanation. stainless steel. an excessive fuel load on take-off. 119. Correct Answer is. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to. . in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels. Option C. Between rear spar and trailing edge. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Tip of vertical stabiliser. NIL. Option B. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing. Option A. See zonal locations in any Maintenance Manual. Explanation. Explanation. If an helicopter has alkaline batteries. 121. Question Number. Explanation. too much kinetic energy on landing. 117. 118. Option B. plastic. Between front and rear spar. Tip of vertical stabiliser. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. too much kinetic energy on landing. Where is Zone 323?. Option B. Option C. Symmetry checks should be carried out. Correct Answer is. Option A. 120. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels. Question Number. stainless steel. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has. Option B. Option C. aluminium alloy.Question Number. the battery compartment drain pipes will be. Explanation. Option B. Option B. A structural member intended to resist compression is a. is known as a. Correct Answer is. Option A. An helicopter structure. 123. Option C. electrically connected primary conductors. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat. Explanation. provide a flexible surface for top-coat. Option C. a sprayed coat of conductive paint. 122. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member. Correct Answer is. 124. page 6-8. Option A. strut. Option B. web. Explanation. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. safe-life design. a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint. Option A. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. 125. fail-safe design. NIL. Question Number. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft. electricity is discharged through. electrically connected primary conductors. Option B. NIL. tie. Question Number. Option A. help bonding for top-coat. strut. fail-safe design. having multiple load paths. Question Number.Option A. . Option C. help bonding for top-coat. if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member. monocoque design. sagging. Explanation. Correct Answer is. sagging. Option C. Correct Answer is. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. toxic gases. Explanation. failsafe. Correct Answer is. NIL. NIL.Option C. humidity. Question Number. 126. Option C. safe-life. When an item is cocooned. Question Number. 127. Z' section. humidity. NIL. if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location. Option B. shedding. I' section. Explanation. If a redundant structure fails it becomes. failsafe. temperature. U' section. Correct Answer is. Option C. 'Z' section. Option A. Option C. Helicopter frames are constructed of. Question Number. Option B. 129. . 128. Option A. Option B. NIL. fatigued. Option B. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates. Option A. Question Number. hogging. the visual indicator will indicate. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Explanation. 1 in 400. a failsafe structure. 1 in 600. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13. Option B. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the tail boom indicates. shedding. Correct Answer is. NIL. water line. hogging. Explanation. water line. fuselage station. 1 in 200. butt line.Question Number. A redundant structure is. 130. Option C. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is. 133. Option C. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. 1 in 600. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is. Correct Answer is. sagging. a safe-life structure. NIL. Correct Answer is. 132. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Question Number. on-condition structure. . Option C. Explanation. Option A. a failsafe structure. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. NIL. Option A. sagging. 131. Option A. tertiary. Question Number. stringers. Explanation. Compression. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?. Compression. Which loads do longerons resist?. 136. Stress. Explanation. Torsion. Shear. secondary. 137. Option B. 135. Bending. Compression. Option A. Option A. tensile and torsion. NIL. Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the. Stress. Option C. Tension. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as. NIL. Compression. longerons. bulkheads. compression. 138. Shear. 134. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by. compression and tensile. Explanation. longerons. NIL. frames. Option A. Option C.Question Number. Strain. compression and tensile. Correct Answer is. Option A. Tension. stringers. Explanation. Bending. . Torsion. Correct Answer is. Tension. Option C. Torsion. Correct Answer is. Torsional only. stringers. Question Number. NIL. Option B. longerons. Torsion. Bending. Option B. JAR 25. Option A. The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured. Option C. Explanation. NIL. 141. bending. 140. nose. NIL. Explanation. An example of primary stress is. Lateral stations have station zero at the. tension. Question Number. Option A.Option C. . ANO 25. Question Number. The datum from which vertical locations refer. Option B. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in. shear. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. CS 25. Option B. Correct Answer is. primary. left wing tip. Option C. JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25. Option A. centre line. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. 139. A line below which redux bonding can not be used. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. centre line. CS 25. NIL. 142. Option C. The datum from which vertical locations refer. What is the water line?. Option B. tension. Option C. primary. 1. Option B. 12. A Lord mount is. test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity. Option A.562 (b) para 5. skin panels. rib. an attachment for the undercarriage. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. Option B. Option A. 3. Option B.05b. Option B. bulkheads. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC). Correct Answer is. longitudinal stability about the normal axis. stringers. spar. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are. to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg. Question Number. Option A. directional stability about the normal axis. 143. an engine mount. JAr25. Option C. stringers. rib. directional stability about the longitudinal axis. It is put through a series of crash tests. NIL. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-22. skin panels. Question Number. Airframe Structures.Question Number. Question Number. Option C. spar. and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC). Explanation. Option A. spar. skin panels. directional stability about the normal axis. rib. Explanation. spar. 2. to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat. The fin helps to give. . to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat. longerons. rib.This is to. skin panels. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. The purpose of the pylon supporting the tail rotor is to. What are the vertical surfaces at the ends of some horizontal stabilisers for?. Option A. Correct Answer is. overcome the tendency for the helicopter to roll. Explanation. Option C. Option B. you would need to carry out a Tyndale-Biscoe check. Explanation. 6. is a shrouded rotor. Correct Answer is. 5. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. overcome the tendency for the helicopter to drift. is a shrouded rotor. Option B. overcome the tendency for the helicopter to roll. 4. you would need to carry out a shaft alignment check. Option B. Option A. NIL. NIL. you would need to carry out a shaft alignment check.Option C. 7. Correct Answer is. . To unload the tail rotor whilst hovering. Explanation. has four blades. To prevent excessive pitch down of the fuselage during forward flight. To act as a vertical stabilizer during forward flight. Option A. You would need to carry out a tracking check. is a variable speed rotor. Option A. Option C. an attachment for the rotor blade. NIL. Option C. To act as a vertical stabilizer during forward flight. Correct Answer is. Option B. assist the tail rotor in forward flight. After fitting an engine. an engine mount. Question Number. NIL. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Explanation. A Fenestron tail rotor. Correct Answer is. The purpose of a B. Question Number. give a visual indication if a blade spar cracks. Universal. control the airflow out of the cabin. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?. 8.1. 0. indicator is to. 1 lbs per minute per person. Option C. give a flight deck warning should the battery electrolyte become low. Option C. Where each main rotor blade can flap. Option C. 1. 9. 0. Air Conditioning (ATA 21) . Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Full articulated.M. Option B. Semi-rigid.5 lbs per minute per person.I. drag and feather independently of other blades. Option A. Option B. .5 lbs per minute per person. ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded.Question Number. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes. 12. Option A. give a visual indication if a blade spar cracks. Question Number. 10 lbs per minute per person. Full articulated. Explanation. Question Number. BCAR Section D. the rotor system is termed. NIL. 2. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Air Supply. NIL.06. Option A. give an audible warning when the winch cable is at its extremity. Option B. Option A. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. 10 cubic feet/minute. Option B. Pneumatic pump. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.2. Correct Answer is. 4.5. Option A. Correct Answer is. hottest from an engine compressor bleed. Explanation. Option B. the gas turbine exhaust. Option B. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?. the engine exhaust heat. Vapour cycle. hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box. Question Number. Option C. 5. Explanation. Air supplied for conditioning is. 3. the same for both the above sources. Explanation.06. AL/3-24 2. OR hottest from an engine compressor bleed. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?. the warm air supply is provided by. 10 cubic feet/minute. Explanation.831. 1.3/2. Air Conditioning (ATA 21) .Air Conditioning. . Question Number. Option A. Whatever the captain sets. 12. the compressor of the gas turbine engine. Correct Answer is. Option C. JAR 25. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system. Option A. 10 lbs/minute. NIL. the compressor of the gas turbine engine. NIL. Option C. Option B. hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box. Option B. 3. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-34.2. delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground. Vapour cycle. . Option B. how is the heater reset? Option A. Option C. Explanation. BCAR Section D6 Question Number. downstream of turbine. 5. downstream of heat exchanger. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16-30 or CAIPs AL/3-24 4.Option C. 2.3 fig 3. the sub-cooler. Correct Answer is. Option C. After it cools the pilot resets. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option B. On ground only by engineer. On ground only by engineer. In typical vapour cycle system. Option A. Correct Answer is. 120 feet per second. downstream of turbine. Option C. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed. Question Number. After cooling below 300 °C it auto resets. 40 feet per second. is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. 20 feet per second. Explanation. after an overheat. 4. Air cycle machine. 120 feet per second. Correct Answer is. A water separator is located. cools the vapour further to prevent slugging. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe pg 14-30 under Safety Features. Option C. upstream of the turbine. 9. CAIPs AL/3-24 Para 2. decrease the temperature of air. Option B. increase the temperature of air. Explanation. Option C. Heat is added by varying the amount of compressor outlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger. 7. NIL. 8.htm Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Air conditioning systems. Correct Answer is. heat is added to air by. decrease the temperature of air. NIL. is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. drives compressor to increase temperature. In an air conditioning system. Explanation. Best answer we can get to a bad question. Option A. http://www. Option A.com/content/aviation/14020/css/14020_106. Question Number. increase and decrease the temperature of air. Correct Answer is. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM. drives compressor to pressurise aircraft. will have increased pressure and temperature. Option B. Option C. 6. restricting compressor outlet. restricting duct outlets. will have decreased pressure and temperature. Option C. Question Number.tpub. Correct Answer is. Explanation. . Option B.2. Explanation. restricting compressor inlet. drives compressor to increase temperature. The compressor is to INCREASE the temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be extracted. no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor.Correct Answer is. Option C. An air cycle machine turbine. Option A. Question Number. drives compressor to decrease temperature. Option B. restricting compressor outlet. Option A. will have increased pressure and temperature. NIL. At the inlet of the turbine. Option A. Question Number.Question Number. 13. TCV and mixer valve. Question Number. At the inlet of the blower. At the outlet of the blower. TCV. CAIPs shows it at the outlet of the turbine (not one of the answers). Explanation. 10. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?. Correct Answer is. the air goes through the. Option A. Explanation. Option B. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?. At the outlet of the compressor. 11. AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect of the Spill Valve). Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. AL/3-24 Figure 3. Option C. Option C. At the outlet of the blower. At the inlet of the compressor. Option A. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?. Correct Answer is. 12. Explanation. At low altitudes. At the inlet of the turbine. Question Number. flow control valve. At high altitudes. Option B. In an air conditioning system. Option C. It is not affected by altitude. At the inlet to the cabin. Correct Answer is. Option A. before distribution. TCV. Option C. . Option B. B757 has an additional water trap at the inlet of the turbine. It is not affected by altitude. 40% of recirculated air. Option B. Option A. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system. Option A. 17. controlling the water vapour in the supply. 15. varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger. . 50% of recirculated air. 16. AL/3-24 4. Explanation. Option C. AL/3-24 4. 50% of fresh air. Correct Answer is. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to.Question Number. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by. Question Number. reducing pressure. Question Number. reduce the air supply temperature. Option A. 14. Question Number. Option C. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. In a cabin air recirculation system. provide an emergency ram air supply. Option C. 60% of fresh air. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3. increase the air supply temperature.2. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system. Option B.2. NIL. recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. 18. 40% of fresh air. Option A. 60% of fresh air.2. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. 60% of recirculated air. reduce the air supply temperature. driving the units compressor. Question Number. Explanation. air supply heated by the pressurising process. Correct Answer is. Option B. 40% of recirculated air. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. When a combustion heater overheats. Correct Answer is. Option B. . A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 4. it is automatically shut down and cannot be restarted during flight. a little more than ambient air temperature.Option B. it is automatically shut down and cannot be restarted during flight. the pilot receives an audible warning. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside the muffler. only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor. combustion heater. this is an. air supply to the cabin. Option B. Question Number. Option A. 20. directing compressed air into a heat exchanger. it is automatically shut down and can be restarted after a short period. Correct Answer is. lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating. thermal heater. Option C. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-24 4. 22. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. 21. Correct Answer is. NIL. a little more than ambient air temperature. Option A. Option A. NIL. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. driving the units compressor. Option B.2. air supply heated by the pressurising process. despite compression heating. Option C. Question Number. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. 19. exhaust heater. same as ambient temperature. Question Number. Option C. Option B. NIL. Question Number. requires a fan to supply air to the cabin. uses ram air only to supply air to the cabin. temperature and pressure adjusted. NIL. 20 percent. Exhaust heat exchangers.3. Option C. Option C.Correct Answer is. Option A. 26. Option A. 30 percent. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. 30 percent. Explanation. 25. the heat exchanger cooling air is. NIL. 60 percent. Explanation. ram air from ambient conditions. Option B. moisture removed. temperature and pressure adjusted. Option A. NIL. AL/3-24 3. 23. 24. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. Conditioned air is. exhaust heater. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of. uses ram air only to supply air to the cabin. ram air from ambient conditions. Explanation. uses engine compressor air for use in the cabin. Option B. . Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. bled from cabin air supply duct. Correct Answer is. Question Number. oxygen added. In a turbo fan cold air system. air bled directly from engine or through blower. Option B. Correct Answer is. 20ºC to 24ºC. ram air at the wing leading edge. Question Number. Question Number. not be greater than 40%. Explanation. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine. be between 30% and 70%. 18ºC to 24ºC. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is. not be less than 60%. Explanation.Question Number. Question Number. passes across an expansion turbine. 31. gas turbine compressor bleed air. Option A. then directly to the heat exchanger. Explanation. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at. gas turbine intake ram air. 28. Option A. Option A. gas turbine compressor bleed air. Option B. 29. NIL. Option C. NIL. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine. Option C.A. Option A. NIL. . Option B. be between 30% and 70%. Option B. 27. Option B. Correct Answer is. 30. 18ºC to 24ºC.U. Option C. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from. Option C. Correct Answer is. NIL. by surface heat exchange in the C. Explanation. Question Number. The humidity within a passenger cabin should. Correct Answer is. Option A. 12ºC to 18ºC. then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first. passed across an expansion turbine. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. NIL. by compression of ambient air across a turbine Option C. changing a liquid into a vapour. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C. reducing the pressure of a vapour. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger. Option B. Correct Answer is. 25 ft/min. Option A. changing a liquid into a vapour. Option B. Option A. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling.A. Option B. Option B. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system. Option C. Question Number. BCAR Section D. Question Number. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C. 25 ft/min.U. changing a vapour into a liquid. Explanation. flush the system with a solvent. AL/3-24 para 13.2. . Explanation. Option C. turbine. Explanation. 200 ft/min. Option C. inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger. preheat the system to 100 °F. apply suction to remove air and moisture. 35. 32.Option B. Correct Answer is. 33. system heat is removed from the charge air by.U. Option A. Question Number. 300 ft/min. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 770 Fig 16-34. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than. Correct Answer is. apply suction to remove air and moisture. the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the.3. fan Option C. 34.A. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option B. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are. 39. Question Number. vapour converts to a liquid. NIL. 38. rectangles. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Question Number. dots. fan. Option B. triangles. NIL. temperature and humidity. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by. vapour converts to a liquid. ambient ram air. engine bleed air or blower air. the liquid sublimates. temperature and humidity. Question Number. liquid converts to a vapour. 37. dots. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. NIL. NIL. air bled from the main cabin supply duct. Correct Answer is. temperature. When dissipating heat in a vapour cycle system. thermal inertia and heat load. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by. humidity. ambient ram air. Option C. Explanation. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Option A. temperature only. . Option B. 36. Option A. restricting compressor outlet. We think this is referring to the temperature rise in the ACM compressor.1. Explanation. . In an air conditioning system. 41. Explanation. A cabin humidifier is operated. VSI. restricting duct outlets.Question Number. smaller inlet area to outlet area). heat is added to the air by. on the ground. Option C. ASI. NIL. Machmeter. NIL. Explanation. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?. at high altitudes. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number.e. NIL. decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air. Option B. at high altitudes. 42. 40. Option B. at low altitudes. restricting compressor outlet. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air. which is done via a centrifugal compressor (i. Option C. Option C. Option B. increase the pressure but decrease the temperature. Correct Answer is. Instruments/Avionic Systems . 1. VSI. 12. Correct Answer is. restricting compressor inlet. Option A. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will. Option B.07. Correct Answer is. Question Number. not affect the charge air pressure.Instrument Systems (ATA 31). Option A. pitot air pressure. Option C. Explanation. Option A. static pressure only. NIL. pitot air pressure and total air temperature. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system. Mach Module. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Altitude Module. Mach information is derived from. Question Number. Option A. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC). Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from. Option B. pitot and static air pressure. indicated airspeed and altitude. Indicated Airspeed Module. Option A. Explanation. Altitude Module. 3. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC). indicated airspeed and altitude. 4. pitot and static air pressure. static air pressure. . Option C. NIL. In a Central Air Data Computer. Option C. pitot pressure only. altitude is produced from.Question Number. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. indicated air speed and total air temperature. 2. static air pressure. Option C. pitot and static pressures. 5. Option A. Eismin p323-324. Explanation. Option A. Total Air Temperature. 8. Aircraft in the air with both engines running. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 223. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is.000 ft. Explanation. 1000 ft radio alt. Option B. Question Number. True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach information and. 6. 7. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure. Option C. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on. Option C. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on. 2. 2. . Option A. Correct Answer is.Question Number. 10. Option C. 2500 ft radio alt. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?. NIL.500 ft. Pitot Air Pressure. 9. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions. allett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391. when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?. 2500 ft radio alt. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Static Air Pressure. 10000 ft radio alt. Option C. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system. 10. 500 ft. Option A. Explanation.500 ft. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at. Option B. Total Air Temperature. Aircraft on the ground with one engine running. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. vertical speed indicator. Option C. cos of latitude. Radio marker information is displayed on. Option A. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of. QDR. ADI. Explanation. tan of latitude. Where is the spin-up/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?. Correct Answer is. cos of latitude. sin of latitude. Option C. Correct Answer is. NIL. . Outer gimbal. 14. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 103.jp/~jahfa/kokuningen/Q. Rotating vane. Option C.ne. Option A. Correct Answer is. ADI. QFU. Option B. Option B. http://www2. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C.tky. Altimeter. EICAS. The runway heading is. Option C.3web. Option B. 12. 13. QDM. Altimeter. HIS. Option A. Option B.html Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 358. Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes. Air speed indicator. 11. Option B. Explanation. Inner gimbal. QFU. Question Number. Question Number. zero and positive. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from. Explanation. Option A. In Airways flying.25. Explanation. Option B. 1013. Correct Answer is. zero and minus. carry out a check swing after fitment. Option A.Correct Answer is. Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and Avionics Page 90. . 1013. ambient and minus. Correct Answer is.25. ambient and minus. Option C. align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error is induced. Option A. Option B. Inner gimbal.25 mb or QNE. NIL. Vibration monitoring signals are sent. Question Number. This is from. 15. direct to the gauge. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. QNH. A & P Technician Airframe Textbook Chap 3 page 592. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 17. 18. Correct Answer is. via a signal conditioner to the gauge. Option C. 16. 1013. QFE. what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?. Question Number. Option A. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would. via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge. Question Number. Option C. via a signal conditioner to the gauge. Option B. Option B. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. Explanation. Option C. in the combustion chamber. dampen sudden pressure changes. 22.500 ft. 19.This is to. alt. reaches 2. Option A. goes out of view. The restriction is to damp out surges in pressure. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient. alt. by compressed bleed air. Option C. Error warning in view. electrically. Correct Answer is. Option B. Rad. Question Number. . electrically. Pitot tubes are heated. alt. flag in view. Option B. Question Number. When a rad. what happens to the display?. Rad. Correct Answer is. goes out of view. Option A. Option B. dampen sudden pressure changes. Question Number. Correct Answer is. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. prevent FOD ingestion. Option B. 21. Explanation. Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195. Explanation. aft of combustion chamber. aft of the combustion chamber. Option A. The hot junction is the sensor. Explanation. CAIPs AL/10-1 Para 3. Option A.2. The hot junction of thermocouple is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. aft of combustion chamber. in the instrument. Option C. by kinetic heating. Option C. Rad. 20. alt. allow for calibration. 25.com/library. Question Number. . Yellow. When performing maintenance operations on an helicopter equipped with RVSM system. Explanation.com/library. a full test of the system should be carried out. Pallett Page 290.htm Question Number. magenta. yellow. 27. blue. Option A. a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so. Correct Answer is.eur-rvsm. blue. Explanation. Explanation. 23. For a helicopter certificated after 1997 and with RVSM. +/-500 feet for the system overall. Option B. Option B. http://www2. below ambient pressure. Option A. green. Option B. below ambient pressure. 24. Explanation. Red. Download TGL No. The HSI provides information on. Option C. above zero pressure. a full test of the system should be carried out. +/-200 feet plus +/-50 feet for instrument error.eur-rvsm. Option C. above ambient pressure. http://www2. Download TGL No. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient. Option C.Question Number. This is. the maximum tolerance for the system would be. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?.htm Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. 26. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. green.6 at. and a quick release disconnect connection is disturbed. blue. Red. +/-200 feet plus +/-50 feet for instrument error. Option A. the allowances for the system should be halved. Correct Answer is. cyan. Option C. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems.6 at. Red. +/-300 feet plus +/-50 feet for instrument errors. Option B. Question Number. 0 degrees. Option B. Option B. Option A. map. radar. ILS. Question Number. 5 degrees. VOR. Option C. Attitude is on the EADI Question Number. South error . AL/10-5 page 6 table 1 (-2)-(-2)/2 = 0. Explanation. 29. plan.2 degrees. map. attitude. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with. ILS. Explanation. Explanation. CAIPs AL/10-5 9 note. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure. Option C. 0 degrees. 30. plan. ILS. radar.Avionics Fundamentals Page 106-110. The pitot head is fitted on the helicopter. Option C. map. Option B. the maximum allowable error is. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. 1 degrees. aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised. Option A. micrometer. Option A. Option B. 5 degrees. 28. 31. radar. Explanation. plan. Correct Answer is. aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns. VOR. Jeppesen . Correct Answer is. VOR. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure. ILS. Option B. an inclinometer. When aligning an helicopter for a compass swing. +2 degrees. 3 degrees. -2 degrees. Correct Answer is. VOR. spirit level. . The coefficient C is. Option A. attitude.Option A. The sensing element of the flux valve. Tied down. Option B. Option B. drift. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for. dependant on longitude. Explanation. Question Number. an inclinometer. 35. Option C. in the air only. . Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. A radio altimeter system can be self tested. Displacement. AL/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom. Explanation. drift. both on the ground only and in the air. both on the ground only and in the air. Question Number. Option A. NIL. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page 129. Explanation. NIL. compensated by applying a constant torque. Correct Answer is. maximum at the pole. Option C. Tied down. Option C. Option C. Space. erection. Explanation. 32. 33. Question Number. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 192. The apparent wander for directional gyros is. compensated by applying a constant torque. Option B. 34. on the ground only. toppling. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. both are adjusted on each heading. Option B. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 104. 38. Explanation. when 90 degrees apart. at 360 degrees.7. gyro friction and unbalance. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. gyro friction and unbalance. Angle between flinders bars determines their correcting influence. 39. 36. Transmitter is unserviceable. Random drift of a gyro is caused by. 37. Option A. Explanation. Option C. at 270 degrees. Option B. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system. on any heading. Correct Answer is. when parallel to each other. This is normal. With engine static and engine blanks fitted. Explanation. Gauge requires re-calibration. Option A. aircraft turning with an error in roll. 40. Correct Answer is. . Option B.Question Number. Coefficient A is adjusted. Option C. on any heading. Option A. Question Number. when 45 degrees apart. Option C. Option C. Option A. error in roll when aircraft is turning. AL/10-5 9. Correct Answer is. EPR gauge reads just above 1.2. Question Number. when 90 degrees apart. NIL. Correct Answer is. Gauge requires re-calibration. Option B. Explanation. Option C. slave adjusted. Warning. Option A. NIL.uk/probes. 43. 44. Explanation. Upper.Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Al/10-5 9. HIS. Option B. master and slave adjusted. On the CWP. ADI. Correct Answer is. 41.htm Question Number. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?. Question Number. Which instrument shows Decision Height?. each having a corrected compass card. So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass. ECAM. Option B. Cautionary info. what does amber indicate?. Question Number. http://www.7. Option A. 20 inches. 42. Explanation. NIL. 24 inches. Both. Option C. 24 inches. Lower. Correct Answer is. Explanation. ADI. Cautionary info. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Upper. Option B.b737. AL/10-5 9. Explanation. correction card for master only. Option A. Option B. master adjusted. Correct Answer is. master adjusted.2 Note. Option C. each having a corrected compass card. . slave adjusted. Present status.2. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?.org. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 185. Question Number. 45. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?. Option A. INS. Option B. Pitot static probes. Option C. EICAS. Correct Answer is. INS. Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 128. Question Number. 46. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake. Option A. stops outer gimbal. Option B. restricts outer gimbal. Option C. restricts inner gimbal. Correct Answer is. restricts inner gimbal. Explanation. Used for gimbal lock prevention. Energised off. Question Number. 47. On an EADI the command bars show the. Option A. required flight path compared to planned flight path. Option B. required flight path compared with horizon. Option C. required flight path compared with aircraft position. Correct Answer is. required flight path compared with aircraft position. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 212/213. Question Number. 48. The airdata computer inputs to. Option A. altimeter, FMC, secondary radar. Option B. mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI. Option C. cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter. Correct Answer is. altimeter, FMC, secondary radar. Explanation. FMC for nav. Secondary Radar is ATC transponder encoder. Question Number. 49. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?. Option A. 2.5 °. Option B. 10 °. Option C. 6 °. Correct Answer is. 10 °. Explanation. (Note: VOR is 5 ° per dot. ILS is 2 1/2 ° per dot). http://www.allstar.fiu.edu/aero/FltDirS.htm Question Number. 50. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?. Option A. As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer. Option B. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft. Option C. As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb). Correct Answer is. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 51. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?. Option A. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips. Option B. Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft. Option C. A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 182. Question Number. 52. An RMI has inputs from VOR and. Option A. a remote compass input. Option B. no other sources. Option C. an azimuth gyro. Correct Answer is. an azimuth gyro. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 194. Question Number. 53. In a modern HSI, the displays are. Option A. course and direction. Option B. course and attitude. Option C. direction and attitude. Correct Answer is. course and direction. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 303. Question Number. 54. At what height does the rising runway appear?. Option A. 200 ft. Option B. 300 ft. Option C. 500 ft. Correct Answer is. 200 ft. Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 199. Question Number. 55. An H on the EHSI indicates. Option A. DME hold. Option B. ILS approach. Option C. VOR hold. Correct Answer is. DME hold. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 358. Question Number. 56. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs. Option A. slower. Option B. faster. Option C. same speed. Correct Answer is. faster. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 57. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from. Option A. compressor inlet. Option B. reservoir. Option C. compressor outlet. Correct Answer is. reservoir. Explanation. NIL. http://www.gage-technique.demon.co.uk/instruments/readout-pneumatic.html Question Number. 58. What is apparent drift due to?. Option A. Errors when aircraft banking. Option B. Earths rotation. Option C. Gyro pivot friction. Correct Answer is. Earths rotation. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 102. Question Number. 59. An aircraft airspeed indicator has Option A. pitot to the capsule. Option B. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule. Option C. static to the capsule and pitot to the out side of the capsule. Correct Answer is. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 60. Above 2500 ft. the radio. altitude. Option A. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view. Option B. continues to indicate but with a warning flag. Option C. pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored. Correct Answer is. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view. Explanation. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance Page 189. Question Number. 61. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings. Option A. a leak check is not required. Option B. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer. Option C. a leak check is always required. Correct Answer is. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 62. The flux detector element. Option A. changes heading with the heading of the aircraft. Option B. changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed. Option C. gives heading with respect to magnetic north. Correct Answer is. gives heading with respect to magnetic north. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 63. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will. Option A. oscillate. Option B. go hard over. Option C. be sluggish. Correct Answer is. oscillate. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 64. The needle of a resolver is connected to. Option A. two coils and a permanent magnet. Option B. two coils only. Option C. two coils and an electromagnet. Correct Answer is. two coils only. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 65. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude. Option A. this is due to insufficient de-aeration. Option B. this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying. Option C. this has no influence on compass readings. Correct Answer is. this is due to insufficient de-aeration. Explanation. NIL. http://www.silva.se/files/compass.html#BUBBLES Question Number. 66. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Whichof the following is correct?. Option A. The swing can be performed at a later date. Option B. A compass swing must be performed. Option C. No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old. Correct Answer is. A compass swing must be performed. Explanation. AL/10-5 10. Question Number. 67. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer. Option A. 180 degrees. Option B. 181 degrees. Option C. 179 degrees. Correct Answer is. 179 degrees. Explanation. AL/10-5 Table 1 columns 7 and 8. Question Number. 68. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?. Option A. No effect. Option B. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession. Option C. Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession. Correct Answer is. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33. Question Number. 69. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by. Option A. increasing the rotor speed. Option B. decreasing the mass of the rotor. Option C. decreasing the rotor speed. Correct Answer is. increasing the rotor speed. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the athwartships axis. Question Number. Random drift of a gyro is caused by. increases with a higher rotor speed. Option C. Option A. Explanation.Question Number. the rate of precession. 72. During the normal straight and level flight. is unaffected by changes in rotor speed. increases with a lower rotor speed. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro. Option A. David Harris Page 33. Correct Answer is. increased reaction of the air from a bisected port. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Explanation. Question Number. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. aircraft turning with an error in roll. David Harris Page 49. mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal rings. Correct Answer is. 71. Option A. increases with a lower rotor speed. Option B. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro. Option A. 73. Option C. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of. the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by a. David Harris Page 33 (Real Drift). Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis. Option B. rotation of the earth. decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Option B. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis. David Harris Page 51 (see page 48 for 'athwartship). Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. . 70. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope. Option C. bearing friction. Explanation. AL/10-2 9. the normal erection switch contact will burn out. Option B.Question Number. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected. . the effect of the earth's rotation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option A. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn. during turns. David Harris Page 51. when the fast erection button is pressed. give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn. overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur. 76. 74.3. Option C. give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn. the effect of the earth's rotation. Option C. AL/3-23 12. excessive hunting will take place. Explanation. during turns. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to.2.2 a). Correct Answer is. unbalance of the gimbals. 77. Option B. Option C. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. 75. for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'. Option A. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 51 bottom. Option C. Correct Answer is. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after switching on because. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. excessive hunting will take place. Option A.3. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn. Question Number. Question Number. David Harris Page 46/7. Explanation. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. 81. 78. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. it would under read. Explanation. Correct Answer is. rotor speed decreases. In a Turn and Slip indicator. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal. Option A. The Turn and Slip indicator employs. Question Number. 80. the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be. Option B. rotor speed decreases. spring tension was increased. Question Number. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis. a vertical gyro. 79. it would over read. Option A. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal. 82. a rate gyro. Question Number. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. NIL. David Harris Page 54. Option B. Explanation. a rate gyro. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. it would under read. a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal. Option A. the amount the gimbal ring moves would be increased if the. an azimuth gyro. Option A.Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. By a switch on the inner gimbal. Option C. . angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has. it would have no effect. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal. Question Number. 4. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. change in voltage applied to operate. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option B. By a switch on the outer gimbal. David Harris Page 77/78. Explanation. 84. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B.200 rpm. 15 cosine latitude. . 15 sine latitude. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock. Option A. David Harris Page 53. David Harris Page 37/8. 15 sine longitude. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/-85º?. Option B. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock. 4. the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to. By a flux take-off device. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.400 rpm. change in inductance to operate. Option B. To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly.200 rpm. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. In a directional gyro. Correct Answer is.500 rpm.Option B. Option C. Option A. Explanation. By a flux take-off device. 2. Option A. change in resistance to operate. 85. change in resistance to operate. 15 sine latitude. 86. Question Number. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately. Question Number. To prevent outer gimbal rotating. Question Number. Option C. 83. 22. Option A. moment of inertia of the rotor. Precession of a gyro depends on. Option A. slower. Gyro rigidity is proportional to. Option B. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor. Explanation. Option C. the same speed. Question Number. mass. 89. Explanation. 90. David Harris Page 33. Question Number. Option C. moment of inertia of the rotor only. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Option A. slower. David Harris Page 53. Explanation. David Harris Page 41. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor.Explanation. mass. Option C. mass and speed. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. speed and radius of mass from spin axis. angular velocity of the rotor. Option B. and radius of mass from spin axis. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. . Option A. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on. both answers (a) and (b). generally rotate. angular velocity of the rotor only. speed and radius of mass from spin axis. Air driven gyros. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 50/51. faster. Option A. David Harris Page 33. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. mass. both answers (a) and (b). 87. Question Number. 88. compared to electric gyros. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. 100 ft/minute rate of climb. 1.S. 1. .000 ft/minute rate of climb. pitot pressure. Correct Answer is.000 rpm. A V.000 rpm. David Harris Page 24. static pressure.200 rpm. David Harris Page 33. to allow the gyro rotor to stop. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 4. Option B. Option A. is connected to. speed and radius of mass from spin axis. Question Number. Option A. 93. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. three minutes should elapse. 1. 92.I. mass.I. vacuum. directly proportional to applied force. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Option C. 15. Question Number. Correct Answer is. directly proportional to applied force. Explanation.000 rpm. Option C. Explanation.S. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. 95. Question Number. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates. David Harris Page 46. 94. Option C. David Harris Page 22/23. static pressure. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that. 22. 91. 15. Option B.Question Number. Option B.000 ft/minute rate of climb. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. before moving the instrument. proportional to the square of the applied force. With a V.000 ft/minute rate of descent. Explanation. inversely proportional to the applied force. Option A. Option A. the pressure in a V. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Inverting the gyro. leads the case pressure. horizontal to left. Option A.I. horizontal to left. . Explanation. 99. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws. Question Number. Option B.I. Option B. Running gyro at high speed. NIL. capsule. AL/10. minimize errors caused by leaks in the system. In level flight. lags the case pressure. Option C. will indicate. Option A.2 8. 97. Option A. Explanation. NIL. leads the case pressure. The Port and Starboard static vents on an helicopter are inter-connected to. 96. a V.S. Question Number. Running gyro at low speed. Option B. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.S. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?.1 c). 98. Question Number. seven minutes should elapse. Option C. Running gyro at low speed. Correct Answer is. Explanation. reduce compressibility error. fifteen minutes should elapse. vertically up. David Harris Page 22. is the same as case pressure.Option B. Explanation. fifteen minutes should elapse. On descent. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. vertically down. Option C. Question Number.Explanation. An artificial horizon has. A small constant leak in the case of V.7 PSI. plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force. Explanation. 101. 102. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. zero. the precession of the rotor will continue until. Option A. Correct Answer is. 100 millibar. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.S. Question Number. . 1 inch Hg. 100. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally. Option C. Correct Answer is. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would. cause the instrument to indicate. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 22. Option B. Option B. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to. David Harris Page 47. as long as the force is applied. Option C. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C.I. Question Number.7 PSI. Question Number. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force. 103. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a rate of descent. zero. 14. Option B. David Harris Page 33. NIL. Explanation. David Harris Page 22. the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally. 14. the inner gimbal pivoted vertically. Option A. during level flight. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally. a rate of climb. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally.Question Number. David Harris Page 53. the spin axis is lateral. Question Number. Correct Answer is. inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure. Option A. Correct Answer is. 108. the spin axis is lateral. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically. Correct Answer is. capsule is evacuated and sealed. Question Number.I. 105. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. the spin axis is longitudinal. Option C. 106. Option C. capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke. Option A. Option A. Option B. barometric pressure. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically. Question Number. In the directional gyro. Option B. The millibar is a unit of. 104. David Harris Page 42. capsule is evacuated and sealed.S. Option C. . Option B. the Option A. Explanation. are expressed in. pressure altitude. In the Turn and Slip indicator. Option C. the spin axis is vertical. The units on the calibrated scale of a V. In an altimeter. Explanation. Option A. miles per hour (mph). the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally. Option B. David Harris Page 6. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 107. barometric pressure. atmospheric temperature. Question Number. Option B. more instantaneous. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 131. self draining non-return valve. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is. Explanation. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. hundreds of feet per minute.Option B. Explanation. (Light aircraft only . Correct Answer is. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. hundreds of feet per minute. knots (kts). a venturi. Option C. a venturi. more accurate. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a. Option A. self draining non-return valve. NIL. Question Number. A rate two turn is. Option A. Option B. 112. a tapping from the induction manifold. Question Number. 110. Option C. 360 degrees per minute. 360 degrees per minute. Option B. Question Number. less accurate. NACA duct. Option A. a pitot head. 90 degrees per minute. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. 111. David Harris Page 54. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 180 degrees per minute. . float valve. Explanation.large aircraft are 1000s ft/min). 109. Correct Answer is. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from. Explanation. David Harris Page 40. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule. descending. application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the. Explanation. 115.Correct Answer is. it is necessary to. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule. calibrate the instrument concerned. blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a. David Harris Page 55. Option C. altimeter reading to decrease. David Harris Page 22/23. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is. climbing. David Harris Page 8. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. 113. Question Number. . vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. altimeter reading to decrease. AL/10-1 15. more accurate. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s). Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. altimeter reading to decrease. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. in level flight. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Option B. Question Number. U-spring acting on the capsule. Option A. 116. altimeter reading to increase. Option A. Option B. 114. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.5. Explanation. balance weight. NIL. descending. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s). Option C. Question Number. vertical speed indicator to indicate climb. Option B. and 100 deg. only when a leak is suspected. AL/10-1 15. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Question Number. NIL. Respectively. and 32 deg. Respectively. rate 3 turn. 117. 100 deg. Question Number. David Harris Page 54. a continual precession in roll. and 100 deg. Correct Answer is. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is. a roll error and gyro topple. only when an instrument is changed. 180 deg. 120. Option A. Explanation. Respectively. Explanation. 118. Option C.5. Explanation. rate 1 turn. Option B. . 212 deg. a continual precession in roll. 119. Option C. rate 1 turn. Option B. Explanation. Option C.Question Number. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed. NIL. Respectively. Option A. a pitch error and gyro topple. rate 2 turn. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a. and 100 deg. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. 212 deg. Option B. Question Number. A pitot or static leak check is carried out. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed. Option B. Option C. 15 °C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. the angle between True North and the desired track. Correct Answer is. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 87. Option C. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured. 123. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. NIL.69 °C. 121. Explanation. 14. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is. in degrees from True North. 122. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to. Option B. by a control synchro. 124. Option A. NIL. Option C. NIL. A temperature of 59 °F is equivalent to. Explanation. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Question Number. Option A. Option A. Aircraft heading (HDG) is. limit the outer gimbal movement. Explanation. Option B. 15 °C. Option B. the angle between True North and the actual track. reduce gimbal nutation. Question Number. 125. prevent gimbal lock. Correct Answer is. 32 °C. in degrees from the aircraft's heading.Question Number. Question Number. Option C. prevent gimbal lock. Question Number. Option A. in degrees from True North. in degrees from the desired track. by a differential synchro. . eddy current. by a torque synchro. eddy current or air dash pot. Option B.mil/ops/DOT/school/L23CockpitFam/magneticcompass. pitot head position. pitot head position. Correct Answer is. Explanation.cfm Question Number. Correct Answer is. instrument location in the instrument panel. Option B. Question Number. Explanation.af. different variation. 129. 127. Correct Answer is.Option C. David Harris Page 17. Correct Answer is. 126. Agonic lines link places of. Option B. use the formula (deg C * 9/5) + 32. NIL. Position error is caused by. Option C. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20.cap. . zero variation. NIL. 128. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either. Option C. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin. eddy current or variable spring. mechanical imperfections in an instrument. variable spring or moving iron. Option A. https://ntc. Option A. zero variation. Option C. Question Number. NOTHING. Correct Answer is. viscous. equal variation. NIL. eddy current or air dash pot. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. viscous. viscous. Explanation. add 273 degrees. Explanation. by a control synchro. Question Number. add 273 degrees. Option C. by a differential synchro. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Electrical driven gyros are. there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. Option C. no scale deflection. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. rotated faster than air driven gyros. by a control synchro. Option A. David Harris Page 41. . Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Explanation. Correct Answer is. mid scale deflection. full scale deflection. Option C. Option A. rotated slower than air driven gyros. Option A. a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will cause the. inner ring to move. With the gyro at normal running speed. Option B. full scale deflection. 132. 130. by a torque synchro. rotated faster than air driven gyros. outer ring to move. Explanation. Correct Answer is. If the bulb circuit is broken.resistance increases with temperature. Explanation. rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros. This will give. 131. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit. NIL. 133. outer and inner ring to move. Question Number. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20. Option C. and that drives it toward fsd. the resistance will be infinite. Think of it this way . by a control synchro. Question Number. Correct Answer is.Question Number. outer ring to move. Option B. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set. Explanation. removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes. When an helicopter is descending. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable. is alternating current at 50 c/s. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. Question Number. indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I. is direct current. Explanation. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE). Question Number. Option A. Option B. David Harris Page 9. Option A. NIL. Option C. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set. Option A. Option C.A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. removing the static connector from its static vent. 136. Option C. indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option B. Correct Answer is. above sea level. Option B. Option B. standards. Correct Answer is. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract. Option C. will cause the aneroid capsule to expand. Option A. is direct current. the pressure in the altimeter case. 135. David Harris Page 5. Question Number. will not affect the aneroid capsule. The supply of Desynn indicating system. Explanation. Correct Answer is. is alternating current at 400 c/s. Correct Answer is. 137.Question Number. NIL. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the atmosphere by. 134. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable. .S. Explanation. Option B. Corrects for capsule elasticity. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the. David Harris Page 36. Explanation. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option B. Option A. Both vertical and horizontal. Compensates for change in density. by the Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. by the Correct Answer is. Option A. pitot system. Question Number. absolute pressure. Explanation. vacuum system. Option C. Correct Answer is. 140. Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring. 142. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?. 138. . static system. Option B. 141.Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Vertical. NIL. Horizontal. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?. 139. Question Number. Corrects for capsule elasticity. Option A. inner gimbal. absolute pressure. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Horizontal. David Harris Page 8. by the static system. Explanation. Option C. Option C. The capsule in an altimeter responds to. David Harris Page 5. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. An altimeter is operated. by the Option B. Question Number. gauge pressure. Question Number. differential pressure. 143. .Option B. as the density decreases with altitude. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. over a conventional one is. instrument case. remains the same. Correct Answer is. instrument case. directional gyro. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one. increases. increases. 144. Option B. 146. Option B. David Harris Page 27. For a particular I. directional gyro. Question Number.A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Question Number. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of. Explanation. it does not require warming up. Option A. 145. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 272. Option A. mach number and temperature. Explanation. mach number and temperature. Option B. Explanation. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S. Option C. decreases. rotor. vertical gyro.A. it does not require pitot/static pressure. airspeed and temperature.S. the T. Question Number. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. rate gyro. airspeed and altitude. Question Number. David Harris Page 5. David Harris Page 24. Option B. Option C.S.I. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?. Option C. is sodium-bicarbonate. is silica-gel. Explanation. 148. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182 Figure 7. Correct Answer is. Decrease the rotor speed. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source. NIL. Explanation. In a Bourdon tube. oval cross section. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source. NIL. Bourdon Tubes have. Option C. Option A. 147. Option A. decrease the rate of precession. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. is silica-gel. Increase the rotor speed. decrease the rate of precession. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments. 150. Question Number. one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere. Option B. Question Number. Option A.Explanation. toroidal cross section. 149. Option C. Option A. circular cross section. Increase the rotor speed. Question Number. Explanation. oval cross section. Option C. both ends sealed. Question Number. Option B.1. . decrease the rate of precession. No effect. is anti-freeze oil. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182. Option A. Explanation. Option C. 154. is known as. Option B. Question Number. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the. Pressure may be expressed in.htm Question Number. castor-oil. from the aircraft ATC system. Boyle's Law. Option B. Explanation. Charle's Law. Option B. an earth gyro. NIL. Correct Answer is. Brahm's press principle. 153.com/pressure/datasheets/PDH. anti-freeze oil. Option A. 152. 155. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation. Correct Answer is. a rate gyro. weight or mass. a tied gyro. Explanation. Brahm's press principle. Question Number. kerosene. from the aircraft DME system. The distance readout on an HSI is. Question Number. Option A. a rate gyro. and its gimbal restrained either electrically or by a spring. from the aircraft DME system Correct Answer is.Question Number. . dialled in by the pilot.bcmsensor. NIL. David Harris Page 52. Option C. Option C. castor-oil. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. http://www. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. 151. Explanation. Option C. NIL. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is. To reduce 'backlash'. Option C. force per unit area. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type. Correct Answer is. Option C. has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. To act a controlling force. To reduce 'backlash'. 5 °.Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. 5 °. Explanation. 158. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. To return the pointer to zero. NIL. Option C. 157. Option B. Explanation. has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's. Question Number. NIL. 2 miles. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. 156. force per unit volume. vertical gyros. Question Number. 159. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. attitude rate gyros. . Option A. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type. vertical gyros. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures. Option B. force per unit area. 1 1/4 °. Option B. Option A. directional gyros. One dot VOR deviation represents. NIL. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182. Question Number.s. 1. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure. Correct Answer is.i. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to. an ILS station. NIL.014. Option C. Option A.Explanation. a VOR station.s. NIL.3 p. Option C. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.7 p. Option A.i. An absolute pressure gauge measures. 163.i. 160. Option B.014. Correct Answer is. 985. NIL. Correct Answer is. 1. Option B. Question Number.i. Explanation. such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge. Correct Answer is. . Explanation. Explanation. In terms of absolute pressure.s. NIL.000 p. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure. indicates 1. an ADF station. Option A. absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure. pressures extremely accurately. Option B.s. Question Number.000 p. this represents. A pressure gauge. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum. Option C. Option A. Option B.7 p.i.s. Explanation. 1. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to. the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure. Option C. 161. atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure. Question Number. 162. a VOR station. Correct Answer is. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale. NIL. QFE is set and it should read airfield height. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir. Question Number. Explanation. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir. David Harris Page 9 Question Number. 164. Option C. Option A. the altimeter will read. Option C. aircraft ADF system. the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection. Option C. 167.Question Number. With an helicopter on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter. 165. Option B. The HSI compass card is positioned by the. 166. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option A. remove platform and fill cylinder. screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale. the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale. compass system. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. the airfield height. To fill a Dead Weight Tester. Explanation. heading select knob. Option A. zero. Option B. Option B. off scale. compass system. the airfield height. Explanation. Option B. Option C. S. Correct Answer is. The applied pressure to an A. Option B. square of the speed.f. Option A. NIL. Option C. are pitot and static pressure.I.I. The supply to an A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. is static pressure only. is pitot pressure only. Question Number. carriers. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations. are pitot and static pressure. 169. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is.Question Number.S. Option C. the difference in amplitude of the two r. decelerating. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. 172. less than the ground speed. Option A. climbing. Question Number. accelerating. cube root of the speed. David Harris Page 13. 171. The capsule for an A. Option A. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. square root of the speed. 170. Option A.I. varies with the. David Harris Page 13. Question Number. . will be expanding when the aircraft is. Option B. If an helicopter is flying straight and level in still air. Explanation. square of the speed. Option B. greater than the ground speed.S. Option B. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to. 168. Explanation. accelerating. airspeed will be. Explanation. David Harris Page 15. Option C. the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations. you are checking for leaks in the. 174. Option C. instrument case. equal to the ground speed. Correct Answer is. The moving element of a ratiometer has. Option A. bi-metal corrector is employed. Question Number. encounters a head wind of 50 knots. 173. Explanation. To provide a linear scale on an A..4 and para below. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter. Correct Answer is. Option C. 350 knots. 450 knots. If an helicopter flying in still air at 400 knots. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 10 to 1 gearing is used. Explanation. Correct Answer is. pressure chamber. capsule stack. two coils. two coils. Question Number. 176. ranging bar and screws are fitted. Correct Answer is. Option A. 175. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 186 Fig 7. 350 knots. instrument case. its ground speed is. NIL. equal to the ground speed.Option C. Option B.18 and text below. Explanation. Question Number. NIL. one coil. Explanation. 400 knots. three coils. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 44 fig 2. . Option C. a. Option B.S. Option A.I. Option B. Option A. Option C. ranging bar and screws are fitted. Option B. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type. 177. Option A. Option B. Assuming aircraft is on the ground. the actual path with respect to required path. the altimeter should read. After passing over thestation. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Option A. Option B. 180. 120 ° and FROM. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. 300 ° and FROM. Explanation. The command bars in a flight director system indicate. Option B. the indications will be. 300 ° and TO. Option C. the required path with respect to actual path. the required path with respect to actual path. Correct Answer is. 120 ° and FROM. precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt. The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window. An helicopter flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120 ° and 'TO'. positive altitude.2 5 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. NIL. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type. below zero feet (negative altitude). Option A. 178. Correct Answer is. true horizon. Correct Answer is. Option C. below zero feet (negative altitude). Question Number.Explanation. on the same course. 179. . Question Number. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1 0 1 3. zero feet. NIL. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. 183. Correct Answer is. Option C. 182. he magnetic bearing. Option C. David Harris Page 49 (acceleration error). Option A. using fluid. different variation. the relative bearing. Option C. displacement of erection control device. zero variation.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. locking. the relative bearing. Isogonal lines link places of. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 81. Option B. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. 184. tying it to the case. NIL. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by. using fluid. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. 181. Option B. A compass is made aperiodic by. Question Number. the complimentary bearing. NIL. equal variation. Option B. Option A. bottom lightness of inner gimbals. . Option A. equal variation. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. displacement of erection control device. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option C. 278 knots. Question Number. Question Number. Erection Error is caused by. Option A. both a) & b). 186. Option C.Question Number. 188. a capillary. 189. If True Airspeed is 470 knots. Option B. Option B. Question Number. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots. In an Artificial Horizon. 304 knots. Correct Answer is. Option A. 293 knots. 187. 185. 296 knots. NIL. Option B. Option B. displacement of erection control device. Option A. David Harris Page 14. Explanation. both a) & b). True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level. Option A. longitudinal axis. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of. what is the Calibrated Airspeed?. Question Number. Correct Answer is. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. Correct Answer is. what is the Equivalent Air speed?. bottom lightness of inner gimbals. Option A. an orifice Option C. NIL. 304 knots. Option C. 278 knots. . Explanation. 662 knots. Correct Answer is. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's. 550 knots. Explanation. Explanation. 192. David Harris Page 64/65. residual deviation. Option C. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system. Option A. Option A. mercury switch on outer ring. Option B. residual deviation. set it up the same as the one removed. an adjustment nut on inner ring. Question Number. you would. both lateral and longitudinal axis Option C. the ADI. 190. carry out a new compass swing. magnetic heading. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. an adjustment nut on inner ring. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 45. set it to zero datum. the course deviation bar. series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor. the course deviation bar. Explanation. longitudinal axis. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. the radio magnetic indicator. Option A. Option B. After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by. NIL. the resultant correction is known as. 191. . 193. lateral axis. Question Number. Option B. correct heading.Option B. The manual VOR input is for. Question Number. plan. NIL. Option B. VOR. http://www. +2 degrees. +/-50ft for instrument error. plan.6 at http://www2. Correct Answer is. radar. carry out a new compass swing. . In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees.Correct Answer is.br/Boeing727/Manual/warnings. -2 degrees. Option B. approach to or deviation from selected altitude. VOR. -2 degrees. radar. This is not he same as a previous question. Option C. map. map. Option C.com.htm Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. 194. +/-500ft system tolerance. attitude. VOR. attitude. Option B. 195. AL/10-5 Table 1. Question Number. VOR. plan. Explanation. ILS. ILS. 196. NIL.domingoaereo. +/-300ft system.htm Question Number. Option A. +/-200ft system.ig. altitude information. South error +2 degrees.hpg. Download TGL No.com/library. Option C. Option B.eur-rvsm. maximum tolerance for the system is. Correct Answer is. +/-300ft system. Explanation. Option A. ILS. approach to or deviation from selected altitude. The coefficient C is. Explanation. Explanation. map. selection of altitude. Option A. Helicopters certified before 1997 with RVSM. +/-50ft for instrument error. 197. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of. Correct Answer is. Option A. An HSI provides what information?. 0 degrees. Option C. +/-50ft for instrument error. ILS. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Option C. vertical at the poles. Question Number. A. NIL.C. .Avionic Systems. The earth's magnetic field is. Explanation. Option B. horizontal across the earth. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. rectified D. It is required. Explanation.C. vertical at the poles. Option B. A flux detector output is a. Option B. blockage in the pitot tube. Option A. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems . voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage. Option A. voltage. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage. Explanation. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage. 12. Question Number. The fluid is not aerated properly. to compensate for expansion of the fluid. horizontal at the magnetic equator. 198. misalignment of pitot head.C. Option A. NIL.C. Correct Answer is. A. Instruments/Avionic Systems . 199. A. Correct Answer is. compression of air in the tube at high speed. 201. It is due to high altitude. Option C. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by. Explanation. It is due to high altitude. horizontal at the magnetic equator. 200.07.2. compression of air in the tube at high speed. Option C. vertical across the earth.David Harris P17 ASI Errors. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 189. There is an air bubble in the compass. 5 MHz is what frequency?. to actuate on.850.1 MHz is what frequency?. Emergency frequency is. JAR OPS 1. Explanation. 2.5 Hz. Question Number. Option C. 1. Correct Answer is. Option A. prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft. 121. to actuate off. Option A. . Option B. 123. 4. However.5 Hz. ILS. Explanation. 112. Option C. Light aircraft. Question Number.no direct reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found. 121.820 or 1. 125. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?.5 Hz Explanation. VHF. 118-137 MHz is VHF frequency. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Autopilot servo brake is energised. Light aircraft.5 Hz. Question Number. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option C.Question Number. VHF. Option B. VOR. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 142. Heavy passenger aircraft. Aerial work aircraft. Correct Answer is. Option C. 3. to actuate off. 5. Option B. at the same time as the clutch. Option A. 121. Option B. Less than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS. Explanation. ILS. white. 9. 8. Not cellulose. Correct Answer is. green. amber. Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-36. . Cellulose only.2. 6. Option C. CAIPs RL/2-2 8. Three. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14. Option A. Option B. Not cellulose. VOR. On a fibreglass aerial. Four. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna. Explanation. How many axis does the helicopter autopilot control?. ILS marker beacon lights are. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-2 8. VOR.Option A. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. 112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Option C.1. Option A. blue. Three. what paint should be used?. white. Question Number. do not use cellulose paint. blue. Two. Option B. Option B.1. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 81. do not use cellulose paint. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. 7. Correct Answer is. Explanation. use any paint. Correct Answer is. Polyurethane.2. VHF. use cellulose paint. 2000 ft. Correct Answer is. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to.Option C. The aviation distress frequency is. JAR OPS 1. Option B. a VOR frequency. green. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 69 shows this as a localiser frequency. Option A. Option B. 13.1 MHz is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. 121. Option A. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 312.820 or 1. 121. Explanation. Pallett Page 142. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24. a HF frequency. 122.5 kHZ. Option A. Option A. blue. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. . 11. Correct Answer is. white. Option C. Question Number. amber. 12. 111. energised at the same time as the clutch. Explanation. 10.850 c. 121. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25. an ILS frequency.5 MHz. energised off. 100 ft. Option B.5 MHz. an ILS frequency. blue. Aircraft Electrical Systems. energised on. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe.5 MHz. 2500 ft. Explanation. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 2500 ft. Option C. Explanation. energised off. amber. Option A. 112. Correct Answer is. 20 ° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Option C. Low Frequency. Correct Answer is. 10 ° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Option B. Option A. High Frequency. 14. Loran C is a type of LF Navigation. Explanation. Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?. Option A. Option C. Option C. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Elevation mask' is 15 degrees. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Very High Frequency. Loran C. Loran C. a VOR frequency. Decca navigation is low frequency. Question Number. DME. Also Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell Page 101. Question Number. Explanation. a VOR frequency. Option A. 15 ° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Explanation. . an ADF frequency. VOR. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?. an ILS frequency. 17. 16. Option C. A GPS satellite will come into view. Eismin Page 323 . Explanation. Option B. Question Number.Explanation. View Comment/Reference (if available). Option B.324. 15.1 MHz is. Low Frequency Correct Answer is. Option B. 15 ° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. above 10. 1. Option A. Option C. Explanation.0 to 100 feet. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to. Explanation. 18. 21. Option A. Option C. 3. Option B. Option A. Track mode of an RA is operational. 19. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?. . from 0 to 2. Option C. Wavelength of band radar is. to allow the pilot to override. Option C. Option A. Option B. aerial work and transport category aircraft. Question Number. 2. 5 cm. Option B. The radio altimeter is operational from 0 . The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is.500 feet. private aircraft. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160. 2. Explanation.000 feet. Question Number. transport category aircraft only. to limit the range of control movement. from 0 to 2. to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway. transport category aircraft only. Correct Answer is. to allow the pilot to override. 20.Question Number. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Pg 289. from 1. Correct Answer is. Option A.2500 ft Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 223.500 feet. Question Number. Explanation. 22. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. CAT 2 RVR limit is. the front end. oth ends. 26. lightning strikes. 1090 MHz. Option A. the back end. Explanation. HF aerials have weak points designed at. Correct Answer is. skin to air particle collisions. Precipitation static is caused by. 3 cm. Explanation. Option A. 1200 ft. Option B. Option B. 1030 MHz. Introduction to Avionics Dale Cundy Page 82. Question Number. the back end. Option B. Option C. 25. Correct Answer is. Option A.000 ft. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?. Option C. 10. 24. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics .Eismin page 211. Question Number. 1090 MHz. Correct Answer is. CAIPs RL/2-2 para 2. Option C. 1000 MHz. Explanation.2. .4.Option B. 1200 ft. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 3 cm. skin to air particle collisions. Option A. Option C. HF radiation. 10 m. Question Number. Option B. 1000 ft. Avionic Fundamentals page 211. 23. Option C. what is the pulse frequency?. Explanation. 1200 ft = 400m Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page 199. Question Number. On selection of thrust reverse. 29. Correct Answer is. Option B. CAT 2 ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Option A. 30. Correct Answer is. On landing. Option C. Explanation. LORAN C. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. When is 'autothrottle' disengaged?. Loran C is a type of Omega Navigation. Question Number. Number of pulses per signal. Option C. 200 meters. Option B. 1200 ft = 400m Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page 199. VOR. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second. Option B. . Option A. Option B.Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. In regard to the helicopter transponder. CAT 2 RVR limit is. Option C. After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency. ILS. On selection of thrust reverse. 400 meters. Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second. CAT 2 ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Option A. LORAN C. Correct Answer is. 400 meters. 27. 28. A 'hyperbolic' system is. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second. 800 meters. Question Number. Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page. CAT 2 ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. One active and one standby.Question Number. Option A. 34. Glideslope. One active and one standby. take off. 33. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Two. 31. One current Correct Answer is. Differentiation of laser gyro. Explanation. Two. Double integration of accelerometers. view Comment/Reference (if available). 35. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187. Option A. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 191. Question Number. Integration of accelerometers. Option B. 32. Option C. Correct Answer is. Two. Glideslope controls autopilot in. cruise. VOR. Both active. Option C. take off. . Glideslope. Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00 page 201. Correct Answer is. approach. Option B. Question Number. How does an IRS calculate velocity?. Option C. Option B. Localizer. Option B. How many programs can a FMC store?. Integration of accelerometers. In an autopilot. Option A. what controls pitch mode?. Question Number. Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 399 on. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Reference found in an older version of A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 700 (Not in latest edition). An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters. Indicates true airspeed. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint. ILS. What is B-RNAV?. Question Number. Quote 'If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers. roll. Option B. VOR. Option A. Explanation. high voltage levels. Option C. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint. low current levels. ADF. pitch. Option C. Ability to store 6 waypoints. Option B. pitch. Question Number. Correct Answer is. ADF. ILS. Option A. DME. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187. . See Module 11 Forum. yaw. Option B. An AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based). What is the wavelength of C band radar?. Option B. Question Number. 37. Option A. ILS. 36. 38.Option A. Correct Answer is. all voltage levels. RA. VOR. ILS. Explanation. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at. the static discharge occurs at lower current and more frequently'. Question Number. Option C. 39. low current levels. 7 cm. Option B. Option C. 3 cm. Correct Answer is. Question Number. automatically. NIL. 43. 4th Edition Page 183/4. Pallett. Option A. Correct Answer is. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse. Option A. Question Number. NIL. 7 cm. Option B. not available in cruise. Most aircraft systems use about 5. Question Number.6cm. Automatic Flight Control. 40. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?. by a switch. Ref Boeing and Jeppesen A&PTechnician Airframe Textbook Page 12-27. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse. C Band is 4 . 75 MHz. Explanation. Land based. Explanation. RMI. Option A. 17 meters. What is primary radar?. TCAS is selected. 75 MHz. by a switch. .8 cm. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 42. glideslope. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Option C. 100 MHz. Radar that gives height and position. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Option B. 50 MHz. by pilot on selector panel. The manual VOR input is for. 41.Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. by pilot on selector panel. . interactive console. user. Question Number. course deviation bar. Page 219 fig 14-2. processing unit. Question Number.mil/lkn/jssmogps. space. Question Number. aligned to the magnetic north.Avionics Fundamentals. Correct Answer is. control. Explanation. have rotational parts. Amber. Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99. Option A. Explanation. White. aligned to the aircraft structure. Option A. user. Option C. Option B. course deviation bar. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99. Option A. Jeppesen . Option C. control. aligned to the aircraft structure. have movable parts. A GPS system is formed from. Option C. aligned to the true north. display unit. Option C. 45. http://www.htm Question Number.robins. processing unit. 47. do not have rotational parts. satellites. NIL. Laser gyros are. Option B.af. Correct Answer is. Option B. do not have rotational parts. 44.Option C. Option B. space. Amber. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. B737 MM Chapter 34-31-02. receiver. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Blue. 46. Laser gyros. weather radar. HF. 51.Question Number. Correct Answer is. followed by localiser. Correct Answer is. 48. Question Number. Option C. changes with radio altitude. Explanation. Option C. What frequency are VOR and ILS?. Question Number. localiser first. . changes with barometric altitude. Option A. Option A. 49. localiser first. followed by glideslope. Option B. HF communications. glideslope first. The rate of GLIDE SLOPE warning in GPWS. Explanation. 52. Option A. NIL. Avionic Fundamentals page 263. Option C. A radio coupled approach is. marker beacons. UHF. Question Number. Question Number. changes with radio altitude. Option A. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426. VHF. Correct Answer is. Explanation. does not change. ILS and VOR operate in which range. Correct Answer is. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 184-185. Option B. Option B. in any order. Explanation. VHF. followed by glideslope. 50. Option C. Option B. HF communications. by calendar date monthly. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69. a localizer. a glide slope and the marker beacons. VHF. Question Number. Option A. the glideslope provides. Option C. Question Number. Option B. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'. The components of an ILS are. Correct Answer is. 53. NIL. . Option A. Explanation. in the air by the pilot. distance checks. amber warning. Option C. vertical steering. Explanation. Explanation. on the ground by the pilot. FMC has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan. Option B. flaps. Option A. VHF. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-1. Option A. lateral steering. 55.Option A. throttle' Option C. in the air by the pilot. HF. Correct Answer is. In ILS. 54. Option B. a localizer and a glide slope. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. red caption and aural 'pull up. Option B. Correct Answer is. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'. Option B. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give. a localizer. Explanation. a localizer and the marker beacons. UHF. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected. Option C. 56. undercarriage. a glide slope and the marker beacons. Option C. Question Number. VOR. aircraft type. 60. Option A. 59. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. 57. vertical steering. location. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 73. magnetic orientation. Option C. fly left. NIL. FMC via CDU. Question Number. location. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69. Option B.Correct Answer is. Explanation. . ADF. Explanation. Option B. ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all. fly right. glideslope. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses. 58. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B.e left. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for. the deviation indicator will show. Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. Correct Answer is. FMC via CDU. Option C. Option C. Option A. glideslope. The purpose being to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i. the flag. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates. Question Number. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?. Option A. Option A. Dataplate on the FMC. BITE. fly right. down. 150 Hz right of runway centerline. Option B. Explanation. 150 Hz left of runway centerline. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 116. It does use barometric vertical speed however. Option A. 62. inner gimbal. the aircraft must fly. 90 Hz left of runway centreline. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach. Option C.Explanation. . Option B. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Option A. 90 Hz right of runway centreline. Air speed indicator. NIL. Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 70. 90 Hz below the glide path. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Radio altimeter. all gimbals. NIL. outer gimbal. 61. 150 Hz above the glide path. Correct Answer is. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS? Option A. 90 Hz left of runway centreline. Option B. 150 Hz right of runway centerline. GPWS has only connection to the RA. nowhere . Option C. Explanation. Option A. Option C. up. 64. Of the three. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Pressure altimeter.this is normal on an ILS approach. INS has mercury switches on. Correct Answer is. down. Option C. all gimbals. 63. Radio altimeter. From ADF only. Correct Answer is. From VOR only. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?. NIL. . By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal. By using an alternate frequency. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?.1759 KHz. Option C. Correct Answer is. HF. Option A.Question Number. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.00 . In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?. VHF and UHF. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13. Correct Answer is. From VOR and ADF systems. 67.95 MHz. 68. From VOR and ADF systems. How does an helicopter distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?. 65. VHF. 190 . 66. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106.1759 KHz. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 197. Question Number.1150 KHz. 1025 . Explanation. 190 .tpub. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B.htm Question Number.117. Option B. VHF and UHF. http://www. Option B.com/content/aviation/14014/css/14014_166. By modulation of an audio tone. Option A. 69. Option B. Question Number. 108. Option C. Option C. To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display. http://www.com/town/pipexdsl/r/arar93/mds975/Content/aerials2.html Question Number.com/radar. Option B. Correct Answer is. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather radar?. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN. It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies. Explanation. 71. Option C. 70. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance. Option B. Option A.dial. Option B. . Option B. To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band. Correct Answer is. Rudder/ailerons. Explanation. Question Number. 72. Autothrottle. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224. Explanation. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.artietheairplane. How does it operate? Option A.Option A. It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS. NIL. Option C. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. Correct Answer is. To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground.pipex. NIL. Option C. http://dspace. Flaps/undercarriage. Option C. Explanation.htm Question Number. Flaps/undercarriage. NIL. To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length. Option A. Explanation. 75. NIL. Option C. Question Number. Option C. ring laser gyros. an azimuth gyro system. a mass suspended in free air. Option A. suspended between two springs in a tube. Option B. a remotely mounted mass on the airframe. Option A. Option A. in c. Correct Answer is. three strap down accelerometers. 73. every 28 days. daily. Option B. . Explanation. and is not remote). Correct Answer is. communications between the aircraft and base. reporting defects on the aircraft automatically. 74. Option B. it is the system which is strapdown. azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved). Option B. Correct Answer is. as part of the passenger telephone system. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass. Explanation. suspended between two springs in a tube. Option C. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 256. after a B or C check has been completed. communications between the aircraft and base. In an IRS system you would expect to find. In a modern helicopter the ACARS system is used primarily for. Explanation. Assuming they mean a strapdown system. Question Number. Option C. not the accelerometers. Correct Answer is. The FMS navigation database is updated. 76.Question Number. Option A. (Note: the mass is suspended in fluid. Question Number. ring laser gyros. every 28 days. (Note: in b. NIL. What are the main areas of the autopilot?.136 MHz. two tone chime.112 MHz. 108 . Option C.1457. Correct Answer is. hi tone chime. Option B. Error. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Explanation. 79. 78. follow up. Option A. UHF. 81. Option C. correction. Option A. demand. first officer. Explanation. Explanation.136 MHz.118 MHz. Option B. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 295. 77. HF. Channel 3 on a CVR records. resolved. B737. 80. command. Error. 108 . Correct Answer is. correction. 108 . Question Number. VHF frequency is. Option A. JAR 25. NIL. flightdeck. Error. correction. Question Number. hi tone chime. follow up. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a. Correct Answer is. command. correction . Correct Answer is. demand. follow up. Option B. Option A. captain.Question Number. Option B. Option C. DME works on the frequency of. Option C. 108 . Question Number. horn. Explanation. . Error. flightdeck. Option C. NIL. Pull-up' command?. Mode 6. Explanation. Option A. to a VOR. 84. Option C. Option C. Mode 3. Question Number. Option B. UHF. 85. Explanation. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop. VHF. on a compass. Mode 2.Option C. A radial is referenced. Question Number. both loop and sense aerial. loop aerial. sense aerial.19. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. from a beacon. NIL. 83. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 310 and 278. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. on the ground. Mode 2. Option B. Automatically by due date. Option A. from a beacon Correct Answer is. both loop and sense aerial. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9. Manually in the air. Manually in the air. 82. NIL. Manually. ADF works by using. Option A. How is the next database on the FMC activated?. Explanation. . Question Number. Explanation. 90. Option A. Option B. Question Number. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. on outer gimbal ring. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches. . displaced gyro. NIL. 87. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. 86. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Rate integrated gyro. on inner gimbal ring. Option C. displacement gyro. Question Number. Option C. on both gimbal rings. Question Number. Option A. Mode C. rate gyro. Option B. Mode S. 89. Correct Answer is. Mode S. What manoeuvre does TCAS 2 advise the pilot to make?. Option A. Option A. uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits. Option B. Option B. rate gyro.Question Number. Option C. on inner gimbal ring. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be. Explanation. 88. uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. Explanation. Mode A. Eismin Page 373. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance). The IRS laser gyro is a. Option C. Correct Answer is. GPS. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Fail Operable. NIL. Correct Answer is. red squares and amber circles. Decca navigation uses. 91. does not have gimbal. White diamonds. LF. Option A. 93. . VHF. Fail resistant. does not have gimbal and rotating parts. 92. Fail Operable. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection). Option B. White diamonds. Traffic Alert. Question Number. Option C. Option C. White circles. Option B. HF. either Resolution Advisory or Traffic Alert. Option B. Resolution Advisory. White squares. The laser ring gyro. 3 autopilot computers are considered. Explanation. Question Number. Resolution Advisory. Option C. red diamonds and amber squares. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection). Option B. has a stabilized platform. Fail Passive. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. 94. Option C. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. red squares and amber circles.Option A. Option C. red diamonds and amber circles. Eismin Page 373. Option A. does not have gimbal and rotating parts. LF. a series of slots and wave guides. 97. Option B. Option C. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of. Option B. because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode. a series of slots and wave guides. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 342. parabolic antenna. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 406. the failed FMS has a blank screen. Option A. If oneFMS fails during flight. 100 MHz. the C D I offset bar. the ILS system. 95. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to. a Doppler antenna. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. http://webhome. Option C. Option B. 75 MHz. Option C. A flat plate antenna is a.com/~jproc/hyperbolic/decca. NIL. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 311. Option B. it has no effect. Option A. the failed FMS has a blank screen. There are two FMS installed on the helicopter. 75 MHz. 50 MHz. 96. the C D I offset bar.idirect. Option C. Option A. NIL. Question Number. 98. now it is active. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. the RMI. the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby.html Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Interrogation.com/gps/basics. GPWS. 99. Option C. Altitude. Explanation. Explanation. altitude alert. Question Number. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 319. 100. . 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites. 4 satellites.Question Number. http://www. Altitude and interrogation. To obtain an accurate GPS fix. Option A. 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite. Option B. Option A. Option C. alt. A Mode C transponder gives the following info. 4 satellites are required to provide height information as well as position. Option A. Option C. Avionics Fundamentals Page 211. 4 satellites. NIL. Question Number. The GPS satellite system consists of. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. 102. Option B. system?. 6 satellites.tycoelectronics. Correct Answer is. 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites. 101. Option A. GPWS. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 318 and 319. Altitude. 3 satellites. TCAS. the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of. Correct Answer is. Option B.asp Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Option B. Option B. Question Number. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe. 103. Option C. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS. constant force. Option A. David Harris Page 90. Correct Answer is. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed. Option A.Question Number. 105. At decision height. under CAA Rules. At decision height. Before decision height. NIL. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. NIL. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has. David Harris Page 82. After decision height. insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS. Question Number. Option A. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe. Explanation. Option A. Option B. non-linear force. Correct Answer is. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a. Explanation. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft. Option B. When will the decision height aural warning sound?. Correct Answer is. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe. Option A. set the altitude to be fed into the INS. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft. 107. Option C. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS. Explanation. Before the helicopter is moved from the loading pier. Question Number. Option B. Option C. . the pilot must. for the database of aircraft landing altitudes. 106. 104. 110. Option B. gyro wander. Correct Answer is. two successive integrations. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. directly proportional to angular turning rate. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. 109. Question Number. linear force. 10 power -6 g. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. A laser gyro output is. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by. Option B. David Harris Page 33. Option A. Correct Answer is. In an IN system. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to. 10 power -3 g. linear force. Correct Answer is. NIL. a differential followed by an integration. directly proportional to angular turning rate. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. 111. a single integration. NIL. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform. . Option B. Explanation. 108. 10 power -6 g. Option C. Option C. David Harris Page 85. Explanation. inversely proportional to angular turning rate. 10 power -2 g. Coriolis effect is the result of. Explanation.Option C. two successive integrations. platform misalignment. Explanation. Question Number. David Harris Page 81. Question Number. directly proportional to frequency addition. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. force balance system. provide attitude reference. parallel to each other. Option C. Option A. Option C. linear spring. David Harris Page. Question Number. Option A. 116. torquing the gyros. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. 113. stop the gyros from toppling. Option B. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted. the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a. Question Number. force balance system. Option A. Explanation. Option C. David Harris Page 76. Option B. . prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers. re-aligning the stable platform. Option C. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 77. NIL. the purpose of the stable platform is to. Correct Answer is.Question Number. 120 degrees apart. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers. Correct Answer is. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs. orthogonally. 115. orthogonally. Explanation. In an IN system. 114. pendulous suspension. Coriolis effect is corrected for by. In an IN system. Question Number. 112. Question Number. Option A. Option C. rate integrating gyro. Option A. 15 degres per hour. 15 degres per hour. Explanation. Option C. azimuth gimbal. Option B. four gimbals. David Harris Page 77/78. rotates with respect to the aircraft. pitch gimbal. a pitch gimbal. 119. Correct Answer is. four gimbals. In a gimbal system. the stable platform is the. . Option B. Question Number. azimuth gimbal. Correct Answer is. Explanation. three gimbals. Explanation. David Harris Page 77. rate gyro. Correct Answer is. Option A. rate integrating gyro. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use. Correct Answer is. roll gimbal. oscillates with respect to the local vertical. the platform When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum. displacement gyro. the platform Option B. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.Option A. Option C. David Harris Page 37. Option C. 117. 120. Option B. 5 degres per hour. Question Number. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. the platform Option C. Earth rate is approximately. 118. Option A. 84 degres per hour. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. remains fixed with respect to the local vertical. NIL. Option A. 121. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. angle in degrees that helicopter track is left or right of desired track. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. 124. 84. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical. David Harris Page 86. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. air data computer. Explanation. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of. perpendicular distance from the desired track. NIL. Question Number. actual track across the earth's surface. David Harris Page 89. when an error is detected. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 122. . Correct Answer is. Option B. 8.U. An IN system requires data from the.4 seconds. Doppler system.4 minutes. 84. Question Number. TK (cross track) is the. Question Number.Correct Answer is. When in manual mode. Explanation. Correct Answer is. satellites. Option A. air data computer. Correct Answer is. two minutes before the next waypoint.4 minutes. Option C. Question Number. alert lamp of the IN system will flash. David Harris Page 86. David Harris Page 88. Option B. Option A. Option A. 123.D. two minutes before the next waypoint.4 minutes. thirty seconds before a track change is required. 84. the C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. perpendicular distance from the desired track. Explanation. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros. . Question Number.N. 3 axis accelerometer. Option C. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros. before the helicopter moves?. an aircraft flies. Correct Answer is. vertical speed indicators. Option A. 3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll). Correct Answer is. 125.S. Waypoints. 120º apart. A basic I. 127. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Using I. 129. Option B. great circle arc. Option A. attitude indicators. Option C. Explanation. Option C. course directed by ground station. parallel to each other. Question Number. Option B. David Harris Page 78. Question Number. Option A. Option A. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted. 90º to each other. rhumb line. Question Number. attitude indicators. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is.Question Number. altimeters. 90º to each other. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. What must be entered in to the I. David Harris Page 85. The output of an INS can be fed to. David Harris Page 81.N. 126. 128. Option B.S. great circle arc.N. Explanation.S. platform has. Option C. Option B. Explanation. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track. David Harris Page 85. Correct Answer is. Option B. both when airborne and on the ground. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from. to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays. Correct Answer is. switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage. when attitude information is lost. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.A. when navigation information is lost. Correct Answer is. standby power when airborne. Question Number. David Harris Page 88. Option C. the Battery Unit provides. Option A. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. For the INS. Explanation.T. Explanation. standby power only when on the ground. the earth's rotational rate (15 °/hour) times the cosine of the latitude. Explanation. Option C. E. Correct Answer is. 132. when navigation information is lost. Option C. 131. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. Correct Answer is. both when airborne and on the ground. Option A. David Harris Page 85. Option A. Question Number. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made. Option B. the earth's rotational rate (15 °/hour) times the sine of the latitude. Question Number. . Option A. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays. Option B. the earth's rotational rate (15 °/hour) times the sine of the longitude. 133. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. distance perpendicular from the selected track. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.Option B. NIL. Option C. the earth's rotational rate (15 °/hour) times the sine of the latitude. Present position. 130. to maintain the alignment phase. Question Number. Present position. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate. an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. . Option C. the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis. Correct Answer is. Option C. the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. NIL. Option A. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error. an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading. David Harris Page 85. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by. a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by. Option B. NIL. 137. Explanation. Option A. INS wind speed is calculated from. Correct Answer is. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System). the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the vectorial addition of TAS and GS. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. the vectorial addition of TAS and GS. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate. 134. Option C. Option C. 136. 135. Option B. Option A. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Explanation.Explanation. NIL. the vectorial addition of IAS and GS. flight director computer. takes Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Explanation.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered. Option C. Option B. Option A. Option C. Question Number. 1 and No. is the difference between the desired course and the actual course. 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment. Option B. that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power down. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together. 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment. 140. 139. takes Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. VHF nav system. Question Number. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the. NIL. Option C. 142. 141. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the. the No. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that. Option B. 138. the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together. NIL. takes Option C. . Correct Answer is. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU. Explanation. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 47. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading. Explanation. VHF comm system. 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together. Question Number.Question Number. VHF nav system. Option A. Explanation. Option A. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode. NIL. Option A. An IRS alignment. 150 Hz. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. 150 Hz. Correct Answer is. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180 °. Question Number. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line. 90 Hz. Above the glideslope. top of L/H column. comes direct from the compass system. Option A. Explanation. straight ahead. Option B. Pallett. turn left. Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. . Option A. as seen from the localiser transmitter. Correct Answer is. page 181. 90 Hz. 146. Option A. is. Option A. Question Number. 90 KHZ. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the. NIL. Option B. 90 Hz. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading. 145. Option C. Option B.6 and Aircraft Radio Systems. VHF nav set. 150 Hz. VHF nav set. the ILS glideslope signal modulation is. VLF nav system. Fig. DME system. Option C. when the helicopter heading is 150 ° is. 143. It says 'as seen from the localiser transmitter'. 144.6. Question Number. NIL.Option C. Powell. Correct Answer is. 90 KHz. Option B. Page 72. Correct Answer is. 148. Explanation. Correct Answer is. at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway. 149. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both. Pallett. Correct Answer is. Automatic Flight Control. Option B. Option A. Option C. Powell. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway. the horizontal plane. 150 Hz modulation sector. turn right. . Explanation. equi-signal sector. The glideslope transmitter is located. equi-signal sector. Question Number. the vertical plane. Option B. 90 Hz modulation sector. Option A. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. turn right.Option C. Option A. When an helicopter is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the. 5. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway. Question Number. NIL. Option C. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of. at the approach end of the runway. Option A. The glideslope and localiser frequencies. the horizontal plane. Explanation. Option C.5. NIL. Option B. 150. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both. Option B. page 72. 147. have to be selected separately. are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary. distance to touch down. Fig. Question Number. page 181 (bottom of the page) and Aircraft Radio Systems. Correct Answer is. Option B. VHF band. the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation. Jeppesen. UHF band. the vertical plane. Option C. the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of.Explanation. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing. Question Number. Explanation. the vertical plane. The localiser equipment operates in the. 152. Explanation. Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids. 154. Aircraft Radio Systems. 153. Option A. Correct Answer is. UHF band. UHF band. Question Number. Option B.B. HF band. Question Number. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. 151. Explanation. Option C. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations. page 71 and Avionics Fundamentals. Question Number. Option A. page 206. Option B.Underdown and David Cockburn Page 72. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. VHF band. Option C. Powell. Aircraft Radio Systems. HF band. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations. Explanation. Option B. Option A. VHF band. Option A. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. . Correct Answer is. Option C. R. the horizontal plane. Correct Answer is. distance to touchdown. The glideslope equipment operates in the. 180 per quadrant. 127.Question Number. 720 ° in 360 °. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. 360 °. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Question Number.9 MHz. i. Skydrol hydraulic fluids. Powell Pages 58 All frequencies between 112.3 MHz. NIL. variable signals will be.3 MHz. Option B.2 MHz. NIL. Correct Answer is. not bonded. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. 156. Option B. Aircraft Radio Systems.00 and 117.00 and 111. When an helicopter is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and . 114. NIL. Option A. bonded. Option C.95 MHz (High Power VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108. bonded. Question Number. Most radio aerial masts are. Aerial masts may be damaged by. 157. Explanation. 159. Correct Answer is. Option C. water. infinite.e. killfrost anti-icing fluid. 114. Option C. Skydrol hydraulic fluids. 155. 103. 158.95 MHz (Terminal VORs). insulated from the fuselage. infinite. NIL. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot. 1300 Hz. 270 ° out of phase. 162. 180 ° out of phase. visually. The middle marker modulation is keyed with. both visually and aurally. alternate dots and dashes. http://www. NIL. Aircraft is due South of the station Question Number.Option A. Option B. alternate dots and dashes. aurally. dots. 163. Explanation. 400 Hz. Option B. 180 ° out of phase. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. 400 Hz. 7 miles.htm Question Number. Explanation. 3500 ft. in phase. Option A. . The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is. 3000 Hz. The modulation of the outer marker is. Question Number.com/marker_beacon_receiver. 3 miles. Option C. Option B. dashes. 161. 3500 ft. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. 160.avionicswest. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Option C. VOR and glidepath. . Option C. Explanation. An over station sensor (OSS) detects. Option A. Option C. 166. both visually and aurally. Question Number. Option A. altitude hold and ILS. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. VRU and compass. Explanation. they both have the same sensitivity. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311. reference phase signal. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 306 and 307.Correct Answer is. variable phase signal. Option B. Option C. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. Incompatible Flight Director modes are. 164. Explanation. variable and reference phase signals. altitude hold and ILS. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. Correct Answer is. Option B. variable and reference phase signals. 167. 165. VOR. Correct Answer is. NIL. ILS. Option B. Explanation. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter. Question Number. Option A. ILS. The VOR system comprises. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. Discriminator on control panel. the UHF band. Question Number. the TO/FROM indicator would show. the UHF band. 170. Option B. to. Option C. Option A. 171. NIL. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 308. Explanation. supply altitude readout. mute the DME operation during transmit phase. 172. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. 168. If an helicopter is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station. Correct Answer is. NIL. mute coms transmission during transponder operation. Trigger pulse from ground station. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver. Frequency discriminator in receiver. Option A. During ATC transponder operation. Explanation. from. frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ. no indication. mute the DME operation during transmit phase. Frequency discriminator in receiver. Option B. Explanation. side lobe suppression acts to. Explanation. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?. The glideslope transmitter operates on.Question Number. . Correct Answer is. Option A. 169. Option C. from. Option B. Option A. the VHF band. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. 174. by. Option A. Glideslope and localizer. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation. 1090 MHz. 1090 MHz. 4133 MHz.Option A. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. 173. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation. both systems can be operated simultaneously. Option C. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold . the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon. 175. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Localizer and DME. Option A. 176. Correct Answer is. NIL. NIL. Which two frequencies are paired?. Question Number. #1 HF system can transmit but not receive. Question Number. 2210 MHz. NIL. Glideslope and localizer. Correct Answer is. None of above. Option C. DME and Glideslope. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon. Option B. Explanation. L band DME transmits on a frequency of. Option C. when its load is purely. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. NIL. Option B. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive. to stop the motor overheating. inductive. 7 ft. Option C. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. Question Number. capacitive. 70 ft.Option A. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. Explanation. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency. 179. resistive. to give control surface feel. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. 177. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Option A. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. . 700 ft. Correct Answer is. NIL. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. Option A. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?. 178. Option B. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive. Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 200. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Option B. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is. NIL. Option A. Option C. 700 ft. Option A. Question Number. 180. resistive. Explanation. Blue. no rotating parts. Explanation. Most aerials are. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. 181. 184. Explanation. aircraft structure. White. Question Number. Option B. 183. Option B. Explanation. aircraft structure. Amber. Explanation. bonded. Correct Answer is. Laser gyros have. Laser gyros are aligned to. made from non-conductive material. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?. NIL. NIL. Explanation. NIL. A laser gyro has moving parts (dither motor vibrates) but not rotating parts. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force. not bonded. Option C. Option B. Option C. . Option A. Question Number. 182. Option C. true north. no rotating parts. magnetic north. Option C. Question Number. Amber. Option B. Correct Answer is. moving parts.Correct Answer is. rotating parts. NIL. bonded. fail operational. Triplex autopilot is. Option C. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight. 187. The airspeed indicator. 189. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. DME. Option B. Option A. Question Number. VOR. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?. Option A. ADF. a satellite communication system. ILS. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250. Option A.Question Number. ILS. fail soft. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 282. 185. 186. Question Number. Correct Answer is. VOR. Option A. Option C. Question Number. ACARS is. ILS. Correct Answer is. The altimeter. NIL. The ATC control panel. . Option B. 188. ADC. DME. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight. fail passive. fail operational. DME. ADF. Option C. The ATC control panel. Explanation. Option B. ADC. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?. Correct Answer is. 1. Option B. Explanation. Option A. FMCS does not normally utilise ADF. a navigation system. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises. HF. Option A. Option A. 2. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Excessive descent rate. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?. excessive terrain closure rate. Option C. 2. Roll. Option B. Excessive descent rate. Yaw. 191. Option B. VHF. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Pitch. NIL. Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft. Excessive descent rate. Explanation. What is secondary radar?. 193. Correct Answer is. A backup radar on an airfield. HF. unsafe terrain clearance. NIL. unsafe terrain clearance. Option B. NIL. 3 (one is used for redundancy). Signal returned from a transponder. 190. Excessive terrain closure rate. Option C. Correct Answer is. altitude loss after take-off. Question Number. . NIL. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. VLF. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Option C.Option B. Signal returned from a transponder. Pitch. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use. Explanation. 192. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. Option B. Option B. Explanation. cells begin to gas freely. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Resistor placed across terminals. Option C. Correct Answer is.Explanation. current. 12. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period. SG reaches 1. Question Number. Option B. When a current transformer is disconnected. Question Number. 3. EEL/1-1 4.8 and Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 23. Option A. Explanation. 2. CAIPs EEL/1-5 Para 4.08.4. Option C. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Question Number. 194. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant. 4. Terminals shorted. Autopilot. 3. 2. . Option A. power. how many axis are used? 3. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Electrical Power (ATA 24). voltage. Option C.180. Left open circuit.1. what should be done?. Option A. NIL. 1. current. when on approach to landing. Option A. can be used as a radio suppressor. NIL. 5. Correct Answer is. either series or parallel depending on the design. Option B. parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption. RAT. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. Explanation. Question Number. . series. Option A. Volts. limits current flow to a load. Question Number. Option B. Option C. Explanation. PMG. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Current. Option C. 6. A fuse-type current limiter. Explanation. Galley loads are wired in. Question Number. Power.Correct Answer is. Question Number. opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded. Option A. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 61. Option C. 7. Correct Answer is. Terminals shorted. Option C. Correct Answer is. What does the differential sensing coil sense?. PMG is main supply for GCU. Current. parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption. All loads on an aircraft are wired in parallel. Option A. opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded. Battery. Option B. Where does the GCU gets its power?. 4. battery is back up power for GCU. PMG. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by. Option B. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. thereby changing the question???). Eismin. Option C. In a multi-generator system. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits. However. Eismin Page 99. Question Number. equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators. automatic load shedding. busbar voltage increases. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Option B. In unparalleled AC generation systems. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 49. 10. the. . 8. over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits. Correct Answer is. current consumption from the bar decreases.Explanation. the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the others. Explanation. another type of current limiter holds the current but does and open the circuit see Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 202. When a load is shed from a busbar. Correct Answer is. Option B. is unimportant. must be BCA. Correct Answer is. Explanation. See Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 112. Question Number. Question Number. Page 241. Option C. Option A. the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by. 11. is unimportant. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. Option C. Phase relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system (although one answer says it will be paralleled. over-current and under-current protection circuits. Option A. Option A. or. current consumption from the bar decreases. busbar voltage decreases. 9. Load shedding reduces current consumption. CD. the interlock circuit is controlled by pins. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators. Option A. rotating field diode failure. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated. Option B. EF. Correct Answer is. Option C. carry out a capacity test. Correct Answer is. Option B. . Explanation. Explanation. AB.Option C. Option B. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. Weak spring tension of the brushes can cause excessive sparking. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators. Generators are always controlled by adjusting the field strength. after a fixed time delay. take the temperature of the electrolyte. Correct Answer is. Option C. 13. On an AC external power plug. weak spring tension. EF. CAIPs EEL/1-1. Correct Answer is. weak spring tension. allow to stabilise for one hour. 14. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft. take the temperature of the electrolyte. Question Number. Option C. 12. Option B. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by. Explanation. Question Number. brushes positioned on MNA. Question Number. Option A. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72. Changing the speed would also change the frequency and thus the phase relationship. 15. Option C. before the over voltage limit is exceeded. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. A diode connected across a coil will. Explanation. detects current difference between source and load. Option A. Option C. 18. Explanation. & B737 Manual. 19. suppress arching when relay is opening and closing. Correct Answer is. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching. NIL. under frequency will NOT trip the relay. Question Number. Option B. Option C. is detected using all phases.Explanation. Explanation. Over-frequency and under-frequency. http://homepages. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. Option B.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody. Over-frequency and under-frequency. . Which fault does not always trip the GCR?. prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way. Over-frequency and over-volts. Under-frequency and under-volts. Open phase sensing on a current transformer. 17. detects current difference between source and load. uses the volts coil to trip the GCR. is detected using any phase. Option B. Question Number. Option C. is detected on generator neutral circuit. Option A. so c is the 'least incorrect'.html Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. is detected on generator neutral circuit. Option C. detects voltage difference between source and load. A and b are both wrong because under and over voltage will both trip the relay. Option B. Option A. Differential protection in a generating system. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121.net/~paul. Correct Answer is. 16. On some aircraft. Explanation. Question Number. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching.which. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 119. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4. the voltage regulator. generator must be stationary. battery is disconnected from bus. generator must be stationary. Explanation. Voltage is controlled by. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Option A. The voltage is controlled by the voltage regulator. battery is disconnected from bus. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. To flash a generator field the. the constant speed drive.Question Number. Option C. Option A. generator rotates but is not on line. the voltage regulator. Option A. A and B. the swashplate. 21. Option B. at any time. 23. E and F. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72. 24. Option C. Explanation. generator voltage falls to zero. E and F. If the battery is switched off in flight. Option C. Correct Answer is. The ground interlock pins are numbered. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. 22. C and N. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery. generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage. captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus. . the. 20. Question Number. Explanation. 26. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Before operating generators in parallel. not enough charging current. Option C. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 120. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Bicarbonate of soda. only in the battery workshop. Option C. Boric acid. CAIP EEL/1-3 para 4. 7-32. Explanation. low electrolyte temperature. Explanation. excessive charging current. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates.Option B. their voltages should be matched to prevent. large circulating currents developing. During a normal engine shutdown. Boric acid. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Page 7-31. overcurrent. Option A. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?. Option A. Option B. Option C. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. only in the battery workshop. . Option B. excessive charging current. Question Number. Boric acid. Option A. Question Number. undervoltage. undervoltage. generator tripping is initiated by. Distilled water. Option C. 25. Correct Answer is. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines. Option B. 27. 28. underfrequency. when fully charged. Option A. voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits. Option B. Question Number. in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced. Option C. Explanation. Option C. 30. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. Correct Answer is. ambient pressure to cabin pressure. Question Number. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 48. Option C. generator current to busbar current. generator voltage to busbar voltage. differential current protection. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for. 32. Option A. Explanation. overload protection. Option B. Option A. in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar. Correct Answer is. Option A. All loads are connected in parallel with each other. must be out of phase prior to paralleling. negative sequence protection. In an AC generation system. the frequency and phase rotation. generator current to busbar current. is of no consequence after paralleling.Explanation. in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced. 29. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. 31. in series so when loads are shed current is reduced. Option A. Question Number. . Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 52. Correct Answer is. differential current protection. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output. Explanation. isolate the battery from the main busbar. Correct Answer is. Option C. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators.Question Number. uses a voltage coil in series with generator output. 35.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody. Option B. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by. Explanation. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field. 34. Option A. NIL. Option B. shut down the APU. disconnect all power to the main busbar. Diodes are placed across a contactor to. NIL. Option C. 33.net/~paul. . Correct Answer is. to prevent CSD shock loading. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Option A. speed up operation by reducing back EMF. speed up operation by reducing back EMF. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will. Question Number. isolate the battery from the main busbar. to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs. Explanation. The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar. it is important to maintain generator outputs at the same voltage. Correct Answer is. allowing it to be charged from the generator(s). ensure smooth contactor operation. 36. Explanation. http://homepages. Question Number. Option A.html Question Number. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output. Option C. Eismin page 199-200.which. 37. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators. uses a current coil in parallel with generator output. Option C. Question Number. prevent contact bounce. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Option B. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators. Option B. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with. Question Number. Option B. underfrequency and overcurrent. Explanation. Correct Answer is. an IDG. Option B. PMG is main supply for GCU. differential protection and undervoltage. Explanation. Option C. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of. Correct Answer is. battery is back up power for GCU. Question Number. by the battery bus or rectified generator output. Correct Answer is. Trip signals for a GCR are.Option A. Option A. 39. . an hydraulically actuated swash plate. Option A. page 7-50. initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. Option A. 38. Option A. 41. Option C. by the generator output only. low oil quantity / low oil temperature. an hydraulically actuated swash plate. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. high oil temperature / low oil pressure. Option C. 40. high oil temperature / low oil pressure. Power to a GCU is supplied. NIL. Correct Answer is. Nomex. NIL. Explanation. Teflon. Explanation. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook . Option C. initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output. High oil temperature / low oil quantity. a CSD. overfrequency and undervoltage. differential protection and undervoltage. Eismin. Also AC43 Para. page 203. Option C. Explanation.Option C. high coercivity. it will trip the GCR. Option C. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on. 100 °C below the specified. Correct Answer is. Option A. the specified temperature. Explanation. low retentivity. Option A. it will Correct Answer is. Inverse time delay -c could also be considered correct. This is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition Page 69. low retentivity. high retentivity. Teflon. amplitude of voltage. Option B. Question Number. A permanent magnet should have. A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature. NIL. it will Option C. closing of fuel and hydraulic valves. trip the GCR.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont tradename for PTFE). low coercivity. PVC. 42. Option A. . low coercivity. amplitude of voltage. Explanation. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because. Question Number. or 100 °C (approx) above the heatshrink temperature. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. it will Option B. 100 °C above the specified. damage the drive shaft. Option B. the specified temperature.11. Option C. 44. 45. Option B. Question Number. A heat gun should be operated at. cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. Option A. 43. Explanation. time delay circuit. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. increase. Option C. Correct Answer is. where would you adjust it?. Option C. 47. The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery. Question Number.Correct Answer is. In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel. Option B. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode. by CSU. Question Number. By means of a remote trimmer. high retentivity. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Adjusted with a remote trimmer. Option C. 46. Explanation. density decreases. B737 switches to trickle charge. 49. decrease. remain the same. Option A. see Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Figure 1. By means of a remote trimmer. However. 48. decrease. by angle of swash plate. with temperature. Option B. low coercivity. Option B. Correct Answer is. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery. Explanation. The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted. Option A. by IDG. by angle of swash plate. Option A. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?.32 for charger disconnect system. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. . On the GCU. but mass remains constant. Explanation. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode. the SG will. A permanent magnet should have a low coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high retentivity (so it is difficult to demagnetise). On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting. Since volume increases. Question Number. no cause for concern. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery.2A.3 A. 0. the battery is faulty. . 53. Explanation. The BPCU controls all electrical buses and controls load shedding. Option A. Option C. Option B. 51. a BPCU. the electrolyte level is lower than normal. Option C. Option B. the electrolyte level stays the same. Option C. 3 A. Option B. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal. there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines. Explanation.Explanation. the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator. Correct Answer is.2 A. B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares status information with the GCU's. Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by. no cause for concern. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120 VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. a BPCU. Question Number. Option A.2 A. Find current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A. Option A. a GCU. an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current. Option C. 1. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 50. Option A. Correct Answer is. 52. Question Number. Control of an HPG is via a swashplate. Correct Answer is. Next find current in Primary = 4 * 3/10 = 12/10 = 1. What is the current drawn from the source?.' Question Number. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged. an IRS. 1. Option B. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 7-32. Explanation. This is normal. Question Number. 54. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ. Option A. is permitted. Option B. is not allowed. Option C. is only allowed in the shop. Correct Answer is. is not allowed. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 Para 6.4. Question Number. 55. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading. Option A. It needs topping up. Option B. It is defective. Option C. It must be replaced. Correct Answer is. It must be replaced. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 56. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the battery be expected to power essential equipment?. Option A. 30 minutes. Option B. 60 minutes. Option C. Forever. Correct Answer is. 30 minutes. Explanation. AWN 81 para 3.1.2 - now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4. Question Number. 57. An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for. Option A. ground handling bus. Option B. a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket. Option C. the interlock circuit. Correct Answer is. the interlock circuit. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 290. Question Number. 58. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is. Option A. to monitor total current load. Option B. to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised. Option C. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck. Correct Answer is. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 51 and 52. Question Number. 59. To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery. Option A. subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell. Option B. subject the battery to load and check the voltage. Option C. measure the discharge time. Correct Answer is. measure the discharge time. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6 and 4.7. Question Number. 60. Circulating currents are associated with. Option A. DC generators in parallel. Option B. AC generators in parallel. Option C. AC and DC generators in parallel. Correct Answer is. AC generators in parallel. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 61. Generator brush bedding. Option A. should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done. Option B. should not be done on the aircraft. Option C. can be done on the aircraft. Correct Answer is. should not be done on the aircraft. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-4 4.3.6 (Does not say that it cannot be done on the aircraft - but would be difficult). Question Number. 62. What is the amperage at point '' to the nearest amp?. Option A. 100 Amps. Option B. 101 Amps. Option C. 102 Amps. Correct Answer is. 101 Amps. Explanation. 100 volts accross far right load, therefore 100 volts also accross 100ohm load (parallel circuit theory) I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load. (Ohms Law) Total current at '' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps. (Kirkchoff's Law). Question Number. 63. Pitot tubes are heated by. Option A. AC or DC. Option B. DC. Option C. AC. Correct Answer is. AC or DC. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett 3rd edition Page 32. Question Number. 64. Paralleling is used for. Option A. AC electrical generators only. Option B. AC and DC electrical generators. Option C. DC electrical generators only. Correct Answer is. AC and DC electrical generators. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 65. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA. Option A. Chapter 24 Section 21. Option B. Chapter 24 Section 31. Option C. Chapter 31 Section 21. Correct Answer is. Chapter 24 Section 31. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 66. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is. Option A. in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length. Option B. in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length. Option C. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact. Correct Answer is. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1. Question Number. 67. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is. Option A. 71 degrees F. Option B. 144 degrees C. Option C. 144 degrees F. Correct Answer is. 144 degrees F. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 68. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by. Option A. constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage. Option B. constant current. Option C. constant voltage. Correct Answer is. constant voltage. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 69. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is. Option A. pulse width modulating. Option B. stationary. Option C. fluctuating. Correct Answer is. stationary. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.1.1. Question Number. 70. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by. Option A. zeners and transistors. Option B. diodes and transformers. Option C. transformers and transistors. Correct Answer is. zeners and transistors. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3.3.1. Question Number. 71. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by. Option A. current coil. Option B. voltage coil. Option C. voltage and current coil. Correct Answer is. voltage and current coil. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 16, 17, 18. Question Number. 72. Increasing the real load primarily. Option A. decreases frequency. Option B. decreases output voltage. Option C. increases output voltage and increases frequency. Correct Answer is. decreases frequency. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 73. Inductive reactive load causes. Option A. increase in torque only. Option B. increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated. Option C. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated. Correct Answer is. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 74. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of. Option A. reactive power from the generator that does work. Option B. apparent power from the generator that does work. Option C. real power from the generator that does work. Correct Answer is. real power from the generator that does work. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 75. Differential protection in an AC system protects against. Option A. a reverse current flowing from the battery. Option B. line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults. Option C. short circuits. Correct Answer is. short circuits. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Pallett Page 121. Question Number. 76. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is. Option A. activation of the time delay circuit. Option B. energise the bus tie relay. Option C. deactivation of the field regulatory TRs. Correct Answer is. activation of the time delay circuit. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 77. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will. Option A. increases and amperage output increases. Option B. decrease and amperage output increases. Option C. remain constant and amperage output increases. Correct Answer is. remain constant and amperage output increases. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Option B. 79.Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in. Option B. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Correct Answer is. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft. Correct Answer is. Compressor. Joules. 80. How is RAT driven?. Question Number. 78. Ampere hours. Question Number. Pallett Page 70. Option C. Airstream. Airstream. How is an aircraft battery rated?. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?. Option C. either parallel or series and switched between as an option. series. 81. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Question Number. Option C. Ground or earth. Fan. Ram Air Turbine. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Positive to external power relay. Positive to external power relay. . Watts. 82. they are connected in. Option A. Aircrfat Electrical Systems Pallett Page 21. Positive to battery relay. either parallel or series and switched between as an option. Pallett Page 23/26/27. parallel. reduced torque and increased speed. Ampere hours. Option A. voltage regulating coil in series. The short prongs are for DC only. Question Number. Option B. 84. Option B. Pallett pg 72. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. Option B. Option A. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection. To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay. Explanation. 86. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF). To speed up the operation. 83. voltage regulating coil in parallel. circulating currents. increased torque and reduced speed. increased torque and speed. Correct Answer is. caused by heating effect of the coil.Option B. The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off. circulating currents. caused by resistance of the coil. Question Number. Option B. Option A. . Explanation. Option A. Option C. Option C. Option A. Pallett Page 11. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection. Option C. To help plug location/fit. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. Option C. Correct Answer is. Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit. increased torque and speed. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?. Option C. Correct Answer is. Eddy currents are. Question Number. current regulation coil in series. Question Number. Correct Answer is. current regulation coil in series. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 85. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Aircraft Electrical System. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a. Option A. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system. Option B. EEL/1-2 Page 5. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is. Option A. in series with the field windings. Option B. Explanation. positive. . 88. Correct Answer is. across the generator output. the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude. NIL. in parallel with the field windings. supply essential services. Option C. 87. Option B. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars. in parallel with the field windings.google. Option A. neutral. trips at a set level. negative. Question Number. http://www. Option C. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars.Explanation. Explanation. 89. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 11. the tripping circuit. The small pins in the power connector plug are. 90. trips after a time delay. Option C. Option A. positive. In an AC distribution system. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 81. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 70. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. provide a means of monitoring the load. Option B. Question Number. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 119/120.com/search?q=define:Eddy+Currents Question Number. voltage stabilisation. .Question Number. KW. Option A. An old Module 4 question. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. more voltage to the busbar. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 121. 91. Option A. Explanation. Load shedding allows. Option C. phase sequence monitoring. Option B. However. Zener diodes are for. Correct Answer is. 94. Correct Answer is. KVA & KW. differential protection. Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant). Question Number. Option C. Explanation. 95. Explanation. AC generator output indications are measured in. less current to the busbar. Option A. Explanation. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?. 93. voltage regulation. differential protection. KVA & KW. Option B. a DC generator is rated in KW only. Question Number. rectification. from which KW can be calculated). more current to the busbar. Option A. An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power factor. Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage regulation. KW & KVAR. 92. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for. voltage regulation. load monitoring. Correct Answer is. Option B. less current to the busbar. Option B. Option B. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter. In what units are static inverters rated?. Slightly variable DC. Generator line contactor. (Never heard of a 'generator power pilot relay'). Correct Answer is. . Question Number. Generator power pilot relay. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Fig. Correct Answer is. The GCR is the only one which is (sometimes) within' the GCU. By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only. how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar? Option A. kVA. kVA. Pulse width modulated DC. Question Number. Not sure of the point of this question. Explanation. Generator control relay. The answer here depends upon which output they are referring. Option A. Option C. Explanation. 96. one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load). Option C. Option C. 98. kW. Variable AC. 5.Option A. VA or KVA. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?. Option C. 97. Correct Answer is. A voltage regulator has two outputs.2. kVAR. Pulse width modulated DC. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system. just like an AC generator. Generator control relay. Explanation. By power fed from static inverter only. Option A. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?. On engine shutdown. Real load by control of generator fields. Option A. when is the charger switched off automatically?. Option C. Option A. in series with the field to prevent oscillations. Correct Answer is. 100. to control output current. reactive load by adjustment of generator fields. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a stability winding is used. Option C. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 120. Explanation. Under-volt. When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting. NIL. 102. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment of generator fields. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 48 and 49. . Real load by control of the constant speed drives. When the alternators are fully loaded. Explanation. Option A. EEL/1-2 3. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system. Option C. to prevent voltage overshoot. Option B. what prevents GCR being tripped?.Question Number. Under-frequency. Option B. Question Number. 99.5 (d).4. Real load by control of the constant speed drives. Under-frequency. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Under-current. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting. to prevent voltage overshoot. Question Number. Option B. Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives. 101. Question Number. Option C. Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. reactive load by adjustment of generator fields. In a generator system. Explanation. in series with the generator volts coil. Question Number. in parallel with the generator volts coil. CBA must equal CBA. bus bar current rises. he trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is. 106. CBA must equal CBA. ELCU. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and. Option A. in series with the generator field. Option B.Question Number. in series with the generator volts coil. Question Number. Option A. CBA must equal ABC. by cycling the generator switch. Option B. on the ground only. 107. Explanation. on the ground only. Option A. When a field relay trips the generator off-line. Option C. NIL. bus bar voltage rises. . 104. after the fault has been cleared. Option B. phase rotation does not matter. Option C. Explanation. NIL. What controls output from the generator?. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. BPCU. Option C. 103. bus bar current decreases. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically. Explanation. EEL/1-2 Fig 1. Question Number. it can be reset. Correct Answer is. bus bar current decreases. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. 105. Question Number. GCU. 110. voltage is below battery voltage. Correct Answer is. it can be fitted any way round. Explanation. has full descriptions of all 3 units. Option C. voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting. the generator. breaker and control relay are both tripped. Option A. B757 Maintenance Training Manual.Option C. charge. 111. voltage is above battery voltage. . NIL. voltage is too high. Option A. control relay is tripped only. Option C. breaker is tripped only. it can only be fitted one way round. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. charge. Option B. During normal engine shut-down. 108. NIL. Option B. Option B. Explanation. breaker is tripped only. NIL. Eismin. Question Number. When replacing a current transformer. Option B. voltage is below battery voltage. Correct Answer is. GCU. The generator warning light will come on when. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Option A. electrolyte temperature. Explanation. electrolyte level. Option C. Question Number. it can only be fitted one way round. 109. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Connect the generator to the busbar. Explanation. Question Number. Bring the generator on-line. Explanation. increase as the engine speed increases. The economy coil on a relay. 113. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is. NIL. sodium bicarbonate. . 114. Control output voltage. Option C. 112. NIL. Option B. reduces current required to hold closed. Option A. What is the function of the generator control relay?. Question Number. decrease as the engine speed increases. Option C. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook p 7-30 refers. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Explanation. decrease as the engine speed increases. Bring the generator on-line. Correct Answer is. reduces current required to hold closed. borax powder.Question Number. reduces current required to close. remain constant. Option A. Option A. makes it cheaper to make. Option A. sodium bicarbonate. citric acid. 115. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Decreases due to the back EMF as engine speed increases. Option B. Option C. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation. what should be taken into account?. decreases resistance.4. when battery is on load. Option C. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system. Battery charge. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option C. By voltmeter in the cockpit. Option B. Electrolyte temperature. NIL. Electrolyte temperature. when battery is on load.Question Number. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation. Question Number. 116.3. Ambient temperature. Explanation. . restores magnetism. modifies generator field excitation current. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?. 118. EEL/1-1 4. increases resistance. Option C. generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus. Explanation. Flashing a generator field. modifies generator field excitation voltage. Option A. In a split bus power distribution system. Option B. Option A. By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal. Correct Answer is. Pallett Page 23. Option A. Option B. NIL. By voltmeter in the cockpit. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 120. Explanation. Option B. restores magnetism. power is split between 115 V AC and 28 V DC. Option A. 117. By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load. Question Number. 119. on the bench. modifies generator drive speed. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. 121. Correct Answer is. 123. NIL. Option A. Question Number. Option B. . Explanation. EEL/1-2 3. modifies generator field excitation current. EEL/1-2 Figure 3. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has. Option B. prevent contact pitting and burning. 124. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a resister in parallel with the points. in series with the generator output. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed.1. in series with the current coil. Option A. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option C. in parallel with the generator output. Correct Answer is. only off the aircraft.Option C. during flight. Explanation.2. close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to. Correct Answer is. only off the aircraft. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. a resister in parallel with the points. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil. Option C. Option A. Pallett Page 49. Question Number. a resistor in series with the points. in parallel with the generator output. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out. Question Number. Option B. a volts coil in parallel with the points. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed. 122. when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60 °F. Option C. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of olyte temperature. Option A. Evaporation. CAIPS EEL/1-1 4.4. Option B. Option C. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60 °F. Explanation. A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is above 20 °C. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water Correct Answer is. Option A.3 Page 3 Para 3. Over charging current. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following resultant action in the voltage regulator:-. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Over charging current. Question Number.1. CAIPs EEL/1. which procedure should be followed?. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are followed by a water rinse. . The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field. Option C. Question Number. but CAIPs specifies 60 °F as standard . Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are followed by a water rinse.4. 127. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?.3. The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile. Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?.4 (American Text such as Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-27 specify 80 °F as the standard. Option B. 125.take your pick).1. 128. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment. Explanation. 126. Correct Answer is. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation.Question Number. Undercharging current. Question Number. The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation. . the acid is in the plates. Option B. 132.6.1. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source?. Question Number. EEL/1-2 3. The total plate area of the battery. most of the acid is in the solution. 129. Option B. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution. most of the acid is in the solution. 130. 131. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Thomas Eismin 5th Edition page 200. Option A. constant current and varying voltage. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The state-of-charge of the battery. Option C. each other when the generators are paralleled. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will. Option C. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery. Option A. constant current and constant voltage. Explanation. Option B. The state-of-charge of the battery.1. Explanation. Correct Answer is. have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled be connected to. Option A. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes. Question Number. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.2. Option C. Correct Answer is. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because. Option A. Option C. Option B. Question Number. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing. constant voltage and varying current. On a C. Correct Answer is. excessive gassing. Question Number. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in. normal battery service life. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 52. Option C.11. Option B. the current in the No. Option B. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive and. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. normal operation. increased explosion and/or fire hazard. If the current drawn from No.2 (h). 135. constant voltage and varying current. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. reducing the output of No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn from No. Correct Answer is. . Option C.2 generator.2 (h). reducing the output of No. Explanation. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of. 134. contamination of both types of batteries. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. reducing the output of No. Option B. Option A.S. excessive gassing. Option A. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. Option A. Question Number.2 generator. contamination of both types of batteries. excessive plate sulphation.2 generator. CAIPs EEL/2-1 Page 1 Para 2. Option C. 133.5. increasing the output of No. Explanation. 136. in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil. it can only be reset when all loads are switched off.2 generator. driven generator.1.Correct Answer is.2 generator. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see also CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. in a discharged condition. Question Number. for when it is disconnected from the generator.4. NIL. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is. Option C. resetting can only be carried out on the ground. generator speed. for low speed. Explanation. Option C. fluid level because the fluid evaporates through vents. voltage regulator. for low oil pressure. In a constant frequency AC system. NIL. generator drive torque. for low oil pressure. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates. generator drive torque. Option A. Option B. Question Number. 139. Correct Answer is. 137. Option C. under load condition. 140. being charged. Option B. Pallett Page 48-49. Explanation. Option C. Option B. Option A. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Correct Answer is. EEL/1-3 3. real load sharing is achieved by regulating the. resetting can only be carried out on the ground. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. 138. . it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified.Option B. Explanation.2. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates. Correct Answer is. fluid level was not periodically replenished. Explanation. Correct Answer is. in a discharged condition. DC to AC. Question Number.5. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. 143. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle. Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook page 7-32 and 7-33. The purpose of 'field flashing' is to. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. test the insulation resistance of a field winding with a 1000 V supply. No adverse results since water may be added anytime. Correct Answer is. By the level of the electrolyte. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. By measuring discharge.6. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Option C. The cell temperature will run too low for proper output. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. 141. Option C.3. Option B. Option B. measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle. The purpose of an inverter is to convert. AC to DC. Correct Answer is. a) could also be correct. change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding. Option A. DC to AC. 144. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte. . Question Number. Option C. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?. By measuring discharge. Option A. Question Number. change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding. 142. NIL. Pallett Page 4. Aircraft Electrical Systems. AC to a higher frequency AC.Explanation. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?. 8 (a). Option B. toward the end of the charging cycle. NIL. the cells emit gas only. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil. Question Number. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Explanation. becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises. In nickel-cadmium batteries. Option A. Option B. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery. In a constant frequency AC system. . reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the. causes a decrease in internal resistance.5.5. Option B. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Correct Answer is.5. 148. Option C. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil. is connected in series with the carbon pile. Correct Answer is. if they are defective. toward the end of the charging cycle. Question Number. voltage regulator.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. voltage regulator. Question Number. 147. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48. 145. causes a decrease in internal resistance. Explanation. Option A. Option A. generator speed. generator drive torque. Explanation. when the electrolyte level is low. Option A. causes an increase in internal resistance. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator. Option A. Option B. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause. increases cell voltage. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. overheating of inductive devices. 149. Option C. a rise in cell temperature. 146. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate. 152. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. Option A. The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains. second. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Option C. 150. Option C.1. neutralizing may be carried out. NIL. Option C. Question Number. minute. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. Option B. overheating of inductive devices. Option C. Correct Answer is. 153. Correct Answer is. Option B.Option B. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate. second. NIL. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. The three voltages of a three phase generator are. Question Number. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid. Question Number. by washing with distilled water. 120 degrees apart. sulphuric acid. Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency.4. hydrochloric acid. by applying a coating of petroleum jelly. Correct Answer is. Option A. nitric acid. overvoltage of capacitive devices. sulphuric acid. 180 degrees apart. Option B. 90 degrees apart. Option B. overspeeding of AC motors. Explanation. 151. revolution. Explanation. NIL. To restore the level of electrolyte which hasbeen lost due to normal gassing during battery charging. Option B. Option C. NIL.4 amps. Option B. distilled water must be added. 7 amps. has 6 cells. Option A. A 12 volt lead-acid battery. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. The active component of an A. CAIPS EEL/1-1 4. line volts equals 1. has 24 cells. Explanation. In a delta connected generator. line volts equals phase volts. line volts equals phase volts. 4. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. sulphuric acid must be added. distilled water must be added. Correct Answer is.1.C. has 12 cells. Option C. has 6 cells. 156.73 phase volts.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. 3. electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. 155. 157. Ammeterreading will be. 154. Option A. 120 degrees apart. 5 amps. Explanation. 3. Option A. Option C. 5 triangle in this case. 5 amps.73 line volts.6. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. phase volts equals 1. Option B. Option B. and voltage remain constant for specified period.Explanation. number of conductors in the armature. Option A. 159. cells begin to gas freely. Correct Answer is. . Correct Answer is. NIL. speed at which the armature rotates. decrease and the amperage output will increase.G. Correct Answer is. Option C. 160. Option B. 161. S. strength of the magnetic field. Question Number. one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same. Correct Answer is. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity). Option C. Option A. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery. reaches 1. S.G. Explanation. Option C. decrease and the amperage output will increase. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. NIL. Option A. otherwise b is the answer. Explanation. strength of the magnetic field. the voltage will. Explanation. only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ. 158. Question Number. remain constant and the amperage output will increase. and voltage remain constant for specified period. Explanation. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. Option B.G. Question Number. S. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the. Option C. Assuming no voltage regulator is considered.180. Option A.7. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease. Question Number. NIL. the electrolyte temperature must be noted.Question Number. Windscreen heating. the electrolyte temperature must be noted. field current. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Any heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild. Question Number. to stabilize. Option B. . 37. the connectors may be painted. 164. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery. Question Number.2 (vi). the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour.G. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0. field current. Explanation. Option A. Hydraulic pump. armature current. Question Number. Option A. a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S. Option A. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections. 163. 166. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. engine speed. Correct Answer is. Windscreen heating. Standby compass. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the.G. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200 V AC?. Explanation. Before taking S.5 Kw. Correct Answer is. NIL.8 has a maximum continuous power output of. Option B. Option C. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections. Option C. Question Number. 165. Option C. Option C. Option B. NIL. 162. Explanation. copper connectors are used. Question Number. Option B. 6 amps for 10 hours. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge. NIL. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator. PF = TP/AP 0. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. 24 V with 25 ampere hour capacity. Option A. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will deliver. Explanation. Option A. 60 amps for 10 hours. 24 kW. 60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand. Explanation. the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator. Correct Answer is. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. 30 kW. Option B. NIL. 169. 167. 24 V with 25 ampere hour capacity. 12 V with 25 ampere hour capacity. Option A. Question Number. Option A. . 168. 6 amps for 10 hours. 12 V with 50 ampere hour capacity. NIL. 170. Option B. remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the electrolyte. Correct Answer is. remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge. Option C. Option C. Two 12 V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce.8 = TP/30 TP = 24. Explanation.Option B. 24 Kw. NIL. Option A.m. increase. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. 50 c. AC at Correct Answer is. NIL.f.p. with twice the capacity of each battery. Correct Answer is. 171.f.C. an A. Two similar 12 V batteries connected in parallel will produce.m. Option C. Option B.C. for battery charging. 172.C. inverter would be required. an A. Question Number. Option C.Option B. a D. if the load increases the generator output voltage will. Question Number.m.C. Option A. 24 V e. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator. Correct Answer is. power on the bus bar you require 28 V D. For battery charging. transformer and rectifier would be required. an A. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases. Explanation. Explanation. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases. When using A. the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current. .C. Option C. with twice the capacity of each battery. 24 V e. AC at Option C.f. Option B. with the same capacity as each battery. Option A.s. DC. decrease. Question Number.C. decrease. transformer and rectifier would be required.s. Option A. transformer and rectifier would be required. 12 V e. the electrical supply connected to the battery must be. 400 c.p. NIL. remain constant. Question Number. 174. Explanation. DC. Option B. Option B. 173. Option B. Option A. Question Number. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming. Option C. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability. the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed. a hydrometer must be used. Explanation. slip rings via commutator. . Option B. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. 178. it is an indication of. Explanation. Explanation. 176. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. thermal runaway. connections on the stator. connections on the stator. thermal runaway. 175. Explanation. NIL. Option B. NIL. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. If a nicad battery overheats. NIL. 177. Option A. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.m. tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies. Option C. The output from an AC generator is taken from. Correct Answer is. slip rings. Correct Answer is. Option B. the generator is not connected to the bus bar. 12 V e. Question Number. NIL. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. with twice the capacity of each battery. the generator voltage regulator setting is too low. the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips.f. Option A. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by. Correct Answer is. Option B. in the fully discharged condition. Correct Answer is. litmus paper that turns black. Acid turns litmus paper red. 179.5 V battery voltage higher than generator. Option A.5.Question Number. by checking the voltage of each cell under load. indicating paper that turns red. Explanation. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service. Correct Answer is. Question Number. increasing generator voltage. Option B. by checking the specific gravity of each cell. increasing battery voltage. indicating paper that turns red. NIL. Explanation. 181. Option A. CAIPs EEL/1-3 8. Option A. 183. 180. Question Number. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is. Question Number. Explanation. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge. EEL/1-3 4. indicating paper that turns blue. in the fully charged condition. To restore electrolyte after spillage. in a totally dry condition. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by. Option B. increasing generator voltage. a differential voltage of 0.6. Option A. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge. 182. Explanation. Option C. Option C. it should be stored. Question Number. Option B. Option C. in the fully discharged condition. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL. 187. Battery SG is measured using a. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Option A. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s. 185. . The purpose of an inverter is to convert. 184. Question Number.g. Explanation. alteration of contact spring tension. Explanation. hygrometer. NIL. hypsometer. adjustment of voltage coil resistance. Question Number. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL. add acid only. DC to AC. the pilot will receive C149the following indications. Option A. Correct Answer is. An audio bell and red PFWL. NIL. and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics . Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL. AC to a higher frequency AC.Eismin Page 199. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 66. Option B. Pallett Page 12. Option C. as that in the battery. add distilled water only. Option B. Option B. Question Number.g. alteration of the field resistance. AC to DC. as that in the battery.Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 186. Explanation. alteration of contact spring tension. Option A. Option C. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. DC to AC. When a DC generator fails. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electrical Systems. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. the fact that as a battery discharges. positive earth.energysys. the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's. Option C. Correct Answer is. hydrometer. positive. Polarization in a cell is. Explanation.Option C. 90%. Option A. the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate. Option B. OR the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate. http://www. Question Number. Option C. 80%. 190. 80%. the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's. Correct Answer is. discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state. negative. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 43. 191.com/defense/documents/aft_manual. Option C. Battery capacity is checked by. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. negative. 189. 50%. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of. Option B. . hydrometer. discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged. Explanation. the fact that as a battery discharges. measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn. NIL. Option A. the establishing of a potential across the cell. Option A. Question Number. the last lead to connect is the. Option B. NIL.pdf Question Number. Explanation. 188. When connecting aircraft batteries. Question Number. NIL. any phase and earth or between any two phases. alter the field current. field strength and the speed of the generator. Option C. 192. OR discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 194. phases A and B only. discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged. Option A. Question Number. alter the driving speed. whilst maintaining constant frequency. real load only. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 21. reactive load only. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator. Correct Answer is. The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the. alter the field current. 193. the phase and earth only. In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for. . Option A. Correct Answer is. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 46. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Option B. real and reactive load. Question Number. number of conductors and the field strength. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor. Option B. it is necessary to. Option C. any phase and earth or between any two phases. 195. Option A. Option C. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.Correct Answer is. NIL. Correct Answer is. alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between. Explanation. Question Number. real and reactive load. NIL. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. 36 V 40Ah. Option C. instruments and navigation systems. 12 V 120Ah. Option C. 196. Correct Answer is. deicing loads. Explanation. Three 12 V.Explanation. Three 12 V. 36 V 120Ah. 197. either an AC or DC motor. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. Question Number. 12 V 40Ah. deicing loads. Option A. NIL. Question Number. 36 V 120Ah. Option B. a DC motor. 36 V 40Ah. 198. Option B. Explanation. NIL. NIL. Option C. Option A. A frequency wild supply would be suitable for. Question Number. An inverter can be an AC generator driven by. NIL. Question Number. 40Ah accumulators in series would give. Explanation. . 12 V 120Ah. Option A. an AC motor. Option C. Option B. 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 199. 3-phase torque motors. a DC motor. 12 V 120Ah. When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries. 20 V. power factor. The RPM of a 6 pole. add acid to water. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 3. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 35. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19.What will be the nominal battery output?. Volt Amps. Option B. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the. power factor.Question Number. Option A. 24 V. Kilovolts. Watts. Option A. 8000. 204. Question Number. Question Number. . 1. NIL. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. efficiency. Correct Answer is.2 volt cells. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. 400/3 * 60. 202. Volt Amps. the method of mixing is unimportant. Question Number. 203. Explanation. 201. Explanation. 6000. Option B. 8000. Question Number. 400 Hz alternator is. 200. power rating. add acid to water. Explanation. Apparent power is measured in. 4000. add water to acid. Option B. Option C. 2.0 ohms. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.Option C. Correct Answer is. 22 V. Option B.52 ohms. NIL. Option B. Explanation. is unimportant. When operating two AC generators unparalleled. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant. Correct Answer is. It says 'UNparalleled'. it supplies essential services. When the GPU is connected to the aircraft. Correct Answer is. it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator. NIL. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is. NIL. speed. Option A. 208. Correct Answer is. Question Number. current. must be synchronized. Explanation. voltage. current. 205. Question Number. Option C. the phase of each. . Explanation. Explanation.52 ohms. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Option C. it is paralleled with the aircraft generator. Correct Answer is. 207. 0. it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator. Option C. Option A. Option A. Option C.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. 0. is unimportant. 206. 22 V. must be in opposition to one another. Question Number.52 ohms. Option A. 5. Option A. frequency. voltage and phase relationship. The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0. Question Number. C S D U (constant speed drive unit). 212. 210. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number.2 C C V = 10 * 2 = 20. Explanation. Question Number. frequency. Correct Answer is. Internal R=V/I = 5. Speed of an alternator may be controlled by. Correct Answer is. provides initial excitation. NIL. O C V = 2. Option B. NIL.M. Option B. only rotates during starting. only rotates after starting. Option B.2/10 = 0. frequency. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. The maximum load permitted is 32KW. varying the field current. Option C.1 * 12 = 25. . Internal voltage drop = 5. Option C. 211. The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW. Option C. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which. provides initial excitation. 209.2 V. RPM and phase relationship. The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA. keeping engine rpm constant. Option A. A P. NIL. voltage and phase relationship. C S D U (constant speed drive unit). RPM and speed.52. Question Number.8 lagging. Correct Answer is. Option A. frequency. NIL. Option A. The maximum load permitted is 32KW. Option B.Explanation. Question Number. 215. 213. resistive circuits. Explanation. not affected by change of temperature of machine. Option A. compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings. Question Number. NIL. output shaft torque. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles. NIL. The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to. normally higher when the machine is hot. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system. Correct Answer is. Option C. 216.Question Number. . Option A. Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence. capacitive circuits. Frequency wild' alternators supply. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48. Question Number. 214. Option B. normally higher when the machine is hot. Explanation. before full output is available from the voltage regulator?. The real load of an alternator is directly related to. output voltage. Option B. output shaft torque. Option C. Option A. Insulation resistance of electrical machines is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. inductive circuits. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles. normally lower when the machine is hot. Question Number. resistive circuits. A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on ine. NIL. output shaft rpm. Option C. Explanation. Option B. 217. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures. Option B. Option C.Option B. Pallett Page 45 and diagram. . The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option A. Option A. the lamp is extinguished. Question Number. NIL. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and phase relationship is. Option A. the lamp is maximum brightness. Question Number. Correct Answer is. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator. Option C. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency. the lamp is extinguished. Explanation. Explanation. can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel. NIL. Correct Answer is. 218. the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished. 220. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. 221. Question Number. Option B. not the same. disconnection of the other alternators. keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures. NIL. not the same. Question Number. the outputs are constant. the same. 219. ground power disconnection. They will besynchronised when. Option C. cannot be checked. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator. Explanation. NIL. inversely proportional to the length of cable. Option B. Option A. not affected by length of cable. Option C. all normal services required by flight and ground crew. crash engagement. crash engagement. NIL. Hi oil temperature and low oil press. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. NIL. An external ground power supply can be used for. 223.epanorama. Low oil temperature and low oil press. The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is. Hi oil temperature and low oil press. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. The APU generator can normally be. Option C. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?. used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails. NIL. Correct Answer is. 224. all normal services required by flight and ground crew. proportional to the length of cable. not affected by length of cable. 225. Explanation. Option A. Low oil press and CSD speed. NIL. Explanation.net/documents/wiring/cable_impedance. Question Number. only the emergency busbar services. 222. used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. only the ground handling busbar services.html . Explanation. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Option A. connected in parallel with the aircraft's main generators.Option C. connected in parallel with the ground power supply. Option B. Question Number. http://www. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. A ni-cad battery is stored in the. fully discharged condition.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Option A. 227. fully charged condition. Galley loads are supplied from the. Correct Answer is. . main bus bar. 226. Option B. Option A. single phase to direct current. main bus bar. ground service bus. 230. fluorescent lights. Option B. Option C. Option C. fully discharged condition. instruments. Transformer rectifier unit (TRUs) change. dry condition. Explanation. CAAIPS Leaflet 6-4 Page 13. deicing loads. direct current to AC. Option C. 228. three phase AC to direct current. Explanation. A frequency wild AC generator is used for. battery bus bar. Option B. NIL. NIL. Explanation. single phase to direct current. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?. deicing loads. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 229. Option C. Prevent spikes. . Option B. 2. Option C. Option A. replace the battery. Class B. Class D. 12.09a. Option B. Question Number. It is known as a 'flywheel diode'. Question Number. 231. 1. Class D.857. Explanation. To prevent current going the wrong way. Question Number. All inflatable emergency equipment are inflated with CO2. Cell is defective. Option B. Replace the defective cell. Class C. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. CO2.Option A. JAR 25. Question Number. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water. Correct Answer is. What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?. oxygen. Prevent bounce. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under. Correct Answer is. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25). Prevent spikes. NIL. Option A. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. 3. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be. helium. Option C. CO2. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body. 24. CO2. JAR 25. CAIPs EEL/1-73. Explanation.3 on. Testing of the cartridges is the same procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges. Option B. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is. Question Number. BCARs.Option A. Option C. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of. Explanation. 7. 4 inches. air.6. one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. 15. CAIPs AL/3-12. Option C. 15.815. Nitrogen. Question Number. . 3 inches. CO2. Option A. 5 inches. 4 b All inflatable safety equipment use CO2. Explanation. AWN 99.3 (now in CAP747). Option C. Option A. ANO. Option B. any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground. 3 inches. dependant upon aircraft type. Option B. 6. 5. AWN 64 Para 4. 4. Option A. Explanation. all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body. Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?. When testing emergency slide bottles. Correct Answer is. Explanation. With white spirit. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?. 9. With warm water with low alkalinity soap. Explanation. In accordance with the AMM. Option C. AWN 99. JAR 25. Option B. How often are life jackets inspected?. Option A. Cabin Correct Answer is. NIL. In accordance with the manufacturers specification. 11. Explanation. In accordance with the manufacturers specification. Option A. Option B. 8. How do you clean seat belts?. With warm water with low alkalinity soap. Cabin Option C. safety on-board card.854 says a) or b). Question Number. Question Number. connected to a pump to pump the smoke out. CAP 747. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. 10. Cabin operations manual. light in the cockpit.1 and CAIPs AL/3-12 4. Every 12 months. Toilets must have a smoke detection. NIL.1. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. . Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. light in the cockpit. aural and visual warning in the main cabin. Option C.Correct Answer is. Option A. JARs. With MEK. Leaflet 5-2 4. Correct Answer is. operations manual. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Option C. Question Number. 1 megaphone is required. Airworthiness Notice 79. Explanation. 3 megaphones are required. 12g. 15. CO2. NIL. 2 megaphones are required. Option A. Correct Answer is. 9g. The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using. After a successful ditching. JAR 25. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7. 14. Option C. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts. Option C.561 and 25. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of. Explanation. Question Number. NIL.810. Correct Answer is. Schedule 4 of the ANO. Option B.Question Number. JAR Ops 1. the liferafts deployment will. 2 megaphones are required. Option B. Explanation. be briefed by the cabin crew. 13. 15g.1421. have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket. Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which document?. Question Number. Explanation. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:. Question Number. 12. Option A. Option B. 9g. Correct Answer is. Option C. . Option B. Correct Answer is. 16. Option A. Schedule 4 of the ANO. Option B. CO2. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25). Option C.1. AWN 99 para 5. not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour. A galley trolley will be designed to. Explanation. 2. Explanation. Option C. 3. Question Number. Explanation. polypropylene. Option B. 26 inches. nitrogen.09b. AL/3-12 2. Question Number. nylon. Correct Answer is.Option B. Cargo nets are manufactured from. not exceed the floor loading limits. Option A. Option B. hessian. not exceed the floor loading limits. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?. Option A. 28 inches. 12. 1. does not matter as the trolleys move.6. compressed air. Option C. nylon. Explanation. Cargo nets are made from nylon or polyester (not polypropylene). AWN 64 Para 4. Correct Answer is. Option C. 26 inches. 24 inches. . Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances. Question Number. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques.Question Number. Option C. NIL. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating. has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting. Option C. the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads. Option B. Question Number. Option A. minimum equipment. controlled equipment. the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances. the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads. Correct Answer is.11. 8. Question Number. Correct Answer is.1. maximum weight. 5. 4. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above. . Explanation. flight number. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques. Option A. flight number. Question Number. Option A.2. Option B. Explanation. 4. Correct Answer is. 7. uncontrolled equipment. PTV type entertainment equipment. Option C. Option B. landing and turbulence. Option C. Must be stowed for take-off. Explanation. AWN 99 4. 6. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called. Option A. Must be stowed for take-off. AWN 99 5. landing and turbulence. Correct Answer is. Option B. PTV = Personal Television. When loading a cargo aircraft. Explanation. position. uncontrolled equipment. is not the part of maintenance schedule. position. location. side cart guides and fore and aft latches.2. 45 °C. AWN 64 Para. NIL. Correct Answer is. NIL.2. 45 °C.Option A. Option B. a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated. Option A. CAP 455 AWN No. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP). Question Number. Option C. the button is pulled out. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option B. . 55 °C. 10. Option C. Option B. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP). Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). 9. rope. With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation. Option A. Option C. Option B.99 5. Option A. Explanation. 12. 11. A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as. a controlled item. Option B. 65 °C. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. To reset the light. Correct Answer is. you can only fit seats facing forward. On large aeroplanes. Correct Answer is. netting. you can fit seats facing forward or rearward. Explanation. an uncontrolled item. containerised cargo is held down by.2. the button is pushed again. side cart guides and fore and aft latches. Option C. the button is pushed again. Explanation. Question Number.. Fire Protection (ATA 26). A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd EditionPage 166". 600 psi. the light extinguishes. Correct Answer is. 2. 3 inches. Option C. 1500 psi. Question Number. 3 inches. bleed air and generator goes off.10. AWN99 Para 4. 7 inches. the generator goes off line. Option A. The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is. Question Number. 13. Option B. goes off. Option A. hydraulics. Correct Answer is. 1250 psi. Explanation. the light remains on. . neither. Option B. the generator goes off line.2 Dimension C. CAP 747 GR No. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-7. a controlled item.1. as it is removable. the generator goes off line. the light remains on. Option C. Option A. the aural warning. Correct Answer is. the light goes off. Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15 °C to. goes off. Correct Answer is. 3. Explanation. 600 psi. Option C. On pulling the fire handle. Question Number. 5 inches. goes off.Option C. Option B. stays on. class A compensation. 1. B757 AMM. Option A. 12. Explanation. there is a short to earth. Option A. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder. 5. Question Number. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-9 Para 4. the system is the same but the extinguishant is different. if. the system will not work. Option C. Correct Answer is. there is a break. Explanation.1. 4. the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material. No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out. Option B. Option A. Option B. the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning. JAR 25 1203 f2. Explanation.4 in para d. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. .Option B. the system will work but not test satisfactory. Option C. When inspecting lavatory installations. Question Number. there is a break. a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning. Jeppesen a+p Technician Airframe Textbook page 11-6 b describes a systron-donner system. Correct Answer is. Option B. the system and the extinguishing system are the same. Option A. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when. it checks the integrity of the contacts. 6.This is the same system the CAA call a sensor/responder system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para 2. 7. class B compensation.2.857. it checks the integrity of the contacts. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25. Option B. Option C.2. Explanation. In a capacitive fire detection system. the system will work but not test satisfactory. class D compensation. the system and the extinguishing system are the same. there is a break. the system will work but not test satisfactory. the system is different but the extinguishant is the same. Question Number. Correct Answer is. class B compensation. Option C. Jeppesen Page 9-22. JAR 25-854 a. 11. b. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 163. Option A. Option C. A fire detection loop must be capable of. in the disposal container. Transport Category Aircraft Systems. . Explanation. AWN 83 5. helium gas. using master warning visual and aural signals. nitrogen gas. 10. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder. Lavatories must have. Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged. using master warning visual signals only. Option B. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. helium gas. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged. The temperature sensitive strip changes color from white to black at the indicated temp. Explanation. Question Number. oxygen gas. using master warning visual and aural signals. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. Option A. detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is no longer present. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat. B737 MM 26-24-00 pg1.Correct Answer is. to protect against freezing at altitude. Correct Answer is.4. Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat. 8. water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged. Question Number. 9. Option C. to protect against continuous flushing. Option A. . Explanation. AC or DC. continuity check. continuity check. Option B. calibration check. AWN 57 Para. Option C. 12. Red light. Question Number. Option C. 14. Option B. function check.3. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. B747-400 AMM. Question Number. Option A. only when equipment items fail random tests. Option A.2. What external warning is there for an APU fire?. only when equipment items fail random tests. every two years. Correct Answer is. AL/3-26 2. Explanation. Question Number. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by.Explanation. Option B. every five years. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Question Number. NIL. DC. Both aural and a red light. 13. Option B. DC. Both aural and a red light. 15. NIL. Option C. AC. Option C. Correct Answer is. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a.8. Aural. Question Number. 20. when a sample fails. But a safety ohmmeter does not check voltage. Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage. Option A. A continuity check. Volts drop. 19. Option B. Integrity comparator. 16. when a sample fails.htm Question Number.org. Dirty contacts. cuts off field current. 17. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?. Explanation. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers. Bottles are fired. Option A. Explanation. every 2 years. http://www.2. Option C. Option B. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. When the fire handle is operated it. in a Systron Donner fire detection system?. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. Continuity. operates fire extinguisher only. . In a gas firewire system. Option B. Option A.b737. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done. A continuity check. 18. Question Number.uk/fireprotection. Explanation.4 (d). cuts off field current.with a safety ohmmeter. every 5 years. Option C. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power. EEL/1-7 2. what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?. Question Number. Option B. Dirty contacts. What is the contamination monitor for. Trick question. A continuity check is carried out . cuts off fuel and hydraulics. . AWN 80. Option B. lamp detecting 2% smoke.857.Option B. 23. 28 VDC potential above ground. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke. Option B. C. Option A. The outside casing of a firewire has. NIL. Question Number. Pressure. Question Number. same potential as ground. Toilet fire detection issues can be found in. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 16-8 Lindberg System. Option A. AWN 83 . Pressure. 22. Option A. Explanation. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke. Option B. Correct Answer is. Smoke detectors consist of a. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class. Question Number. Option C. 24. Option C. AWN 83. Option B. 21. Correct Answer is. Question Number. AWN 83. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. JAR 25.now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 20. D. photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke. 115 VDC potential above ground. Option C. Explanation. CAAIPs. D. same potential as ground. Option C. Option A. Capacitance increase. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. & fuel is cut off. Correct Answer is. Explanation. AWN 60. a.2. Question Number. Option A. 4 Fire Extinguishers. JAR OPS 1. what would be the indication?. hydraulics & fuel stays on. The firewire. Option C. hydraulics. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. hydraulics. Generator. . Option A. Explanation. JAR 25. Audible warning in the cabin. Option B. 4 Fire Extinguishers. In a toilet smoke condition. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?.790. Warning light is an indication of fire. The firewire. B737 MM.17. 27. 3 BCF. red warning light goes off. & fuel is cut off. When the fire-handle switch is pulled. Option C. Generator.300 people?. Light in the cabin. Generator goes offline. The firewire. The outside of the firewire to earth. Option B. Light goes off only when fire is extinguished. red warning light stays on. red warning light stays on. Correct Answer is. Option A. Pallets Aircraft Electrical System Third Edition page 163 fig 10. 28. sensor & controller. Option B. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. Generator. 26.854. 4 Methyl Bromide. 25. Option C. Question Number.Explanation. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. red warning light stays on. Annually. CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?.1.3 and 7. 31. The weight of an extinguisher is stamped. Option A. Weighed. one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty. Explanation. AL/3-10 6. Option A. 32. Weighed. on bracket. para 6. Option C. Portable fire extinguishers are operated by. Check the pressure. Option B. Question Number. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle. 33. Correct Answer is.3. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?. Explanation. Bi-annually. Option C. Explanation. 30. 7.3. Option A. 29.Question Number. on head fitting. . Annually. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-10. on head fitting. on base of body. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option C. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle. 6. Check the tell-tale wire. turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?. Every 5 years. 8. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 . Option B. Option C. Option A. 35. 2. Correct Answer is. JAR 25. Explanation. Option B. Option A. 7. 12. Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for flight. Fuel Systems (ATA 28). Question Number.500 passengers?. AL/3-10 3. 5. 34. Explanation. 1. Question Number. Question Number.Option C. its last position. baggage holds only. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in. 5. the closed position. . Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Option A.11. JAR 25. Correct Answer is. all fires in fuselage. the open position. all fires in fuselage. Option A. Option C. engines only. the closed position.851. 6. Option B. Correct Answer is. 6.3. low pressure systems. Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on.851. CO2 fire extinguishers are used on. by internal cooling. 6. system capacitance. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. Option C.8. air or vapour systems. decreases. Question Number. increases. by air. Explanation.Option B. by the fuel. Explanation. Option C. 28 V DC bus. 4. Correct Answer is. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the. Option A. As fuel level increases. 115 V AC. Option B. air spaces interconnected. CAIPs AL/3-17 5. NIL. increases. air spaces interconnected. Option C. 3. Option A. Correct Answer is. 737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. separate venting for each tank. Correct Answer is. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-17. Option C. 28 V DC bus. by the fuel. Option B. air or vapour systems. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. no airspace. Question Number.3. A320 FCOM 28. no change. high pressure systems. Option A. battery. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Question Number.30 pg1. 5. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated. Option B. Option B. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-18. Correct Answer is. When refuelling. Microbial growth is.1. Option A. 9. Explanation. . The dielectric constant of kerosene is more than that of air. Correct Answer is. Option C. 7. brown black slime. the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full. 10. B757 MM Chapter 28-41-00. contact adhesive. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by. it is applied wet and flushed out. Question Number. Option A. Explanation.3 says press studs or cords. When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment. it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank.Explanation. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. Option B. Question Number. Option B. brown black slime. Option C. Option A. Option C. Question Number. it is applied dry and left. Question Number. AL/3-15 4. green sludge. press type rivets. bolts. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. 8. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-38. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. press type rivets. red dots. it is added to the fuel and burnt. it is added to the fuel and burnt. Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 7-3. tank outlet. Explanation. NIL. Option C. Option B. In biologically contaminated fuel. Option C. the top of the tank. Question Number. In a fuel system with interconnected vents. Option A. tanks completely full. Correct Answer is. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.3. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with. Correct Answer is. Option B. corrosion takes place. Option B. Question Number. below the fungal colonies. an expansion space is not required. Option A. shut off fuel before structural damage.14. the bottom 2 inches of the tank. tank shut-off valve point. Option A. provide overflow facility to dump fuel. Explanation. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight. stop engine from using tank during transfer. a fuel flow test should be carried out at.1. After a tank bag has been replaced. 15. Option C. Explanation. engine inlet. AL/3-15 para 8. below the fungal colonies.Question Number.957. tanks completely empty.e. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. 12. 11. . Question Number. 14. Option B. JAR 25. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. 13. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel. Correct Answer is. Option A. AL/10-3 11. Option B. shut off fuel before structural damage. engine inlet. Explanation. provision must be made to. Question Number. 4 says 'up to 50 psi'. Question Number. any tank to any engine. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from. 15 PSI. 40 PSI. left tank to right tank. any tank to any engine. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. 16. soft reversion. Option B. Explanation. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system.969. 20 PSI. Correct Answer is. JAR 25.969. mechanical reversion. Fuel tanks interconnected must have. soft reversion. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. Option C. vents to allow overfueling. Explanation. the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity. Option C. tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet. hard reversion. Option A. 19. AL/3-17 5. 18. JAR 25. Pressure refuelling is carried out at. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. Option A. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. Option B. B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. 17. 40 PSI. tank to tank. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number.Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 353. Option B. Explanation. 20. Correct Answer is. An anti-corona device. be empty. A nozzle. . Option C. Question Number. 24. An anti-corona device. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?. Correct Answer is. Option C. 22. Decreases. Explanation. Increases. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Depends on altitude. Decreases. AL/3-15 9. 21. require ram air cooling. Integral fuel booster pumps. NIL. Option A. Option A.Question Number. lets the fuel do cooling. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vaporisation?. Correct Answer is. Explanation. require no cooling. Option C. Option A. A corona device. the fuel tanks should. be full. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. Option B. 23. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. lets the fuel do cooling. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is. Option A.3. NIL. Option B. the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible. Explanation. to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently. Question Number. to ensure that all available fuel can be used. the booster pump fails. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. By a gravity feed pump. Option A. Question Number. To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank. Option B. Option B. In a light fixed wing aircraft. the engine driven pump fails. 26. the booster pump fails. Option A. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. NIL. the tank does not pressurise. 28. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option A. 25. Correct Answer is.17. the tank should be filled as full as possible. Option C. . filter popped or pump fail. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 6. the filler cap should be left open. By suction from the engine driven fuel pump. Option B. How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?. By a fuel boost pump. By a fuel boost pump. ice blockage. Option C. Correct Answer is. pump failure. the fuel warning light indicates. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. ice blockage. both the engine driven and booster pump fail. 27. Option B.Option A. A fuel tank suction valve will open when. filter popped or pump fail. Explanation. NIL. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up. cabin air is bled around the tank. 31. Integral. NIL. Correct Answer is. 30. Option B. Question Number. Integral. ram air is circulated around the tank. Option A. Option A. Option A. the tank should be filled as full as possible. NIL. Option C. 29. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated. Correct Answer is. amber and cross line. Question Number. fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed. amber and in line. cabin air is bled around the tank. Rigid. this could be caused by.Correct Answer is. which of the following is most prone to leaks?. Explanation. Flexible. Correct Answer is. Option A. green and in line. . a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. NIL. 32. Question Number. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction. Explanation. Option B. Option B. Option C. Option C. fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated. amber and cross line. Option C. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump. the magnetic indicator would show. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit. fuel leaking past the inlet screens. A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on. close the cross bleed valve. Correct Answer is.4. NIL. close the HP fuel lock. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a. Explanation. . Option C. pull the fire handle. 33. stain. pull the fire handle. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 34. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. fuel jettison system. fuel tank vent pipes. Question Number. Option A. After first pulling teh firebottle CBs. 35. run. run. two 28 V DC motors. Question Number. Option B. fuel tank vent pipes. Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with. seep. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. 36. Option C. AL/3-15 page 8 para 5. Option C. two 28 V DC motors. two three-phase AC motors. Option C. Option B. Option B. the APU fuel feed. NIL. Option A.Explanation.1. two single phase AC motors. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. 38. 40. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. . Water. NIL. Option C. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. Question Number. and all three answers arguably correct. based upon the fact that the fuel system can feed any engine from any tank. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. Methylated Spirit.12. Correct Answer is. a separate system for each engine. automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time. Correct Answer is. are cheaper to manufacture. NIL. the same system for each engine. more durable and easier to maintain. A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to. are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel. Question Number. prevent the centre from being defuelled. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. Correct Answer is. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with. Option C." 12. Option C. Option B. we have interpreted it as 'every engine is fed from the same system'. the same system for each engine. However.Question Number. Option B. Hydraulic Power (ATA 29). Question Number. 39. 37. "This question can be interpreted an many ways. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they. Water. Option C. Option B. Option B. Kerosene. On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using. a parallel system. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. Correct Answer is. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. 1. Green. White. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. Correct Answer is. maintain a high pressure to all systems. is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions. Option C. Green. What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?. Option A. Option A. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by. Option A. Option C. Option B. A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system. Option C. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-31 Also known as priority valves CAIPs AL/3-21 5. Question Number. 4. the use of a pressure/heat exchanger. Explanation. Option B. 2. Option B. 3. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-44. Option C.3. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7. Yellow. dampen pressure inputs. CAIPs AL/3-21 5. Question Number. .2. A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will. Correct Answer is. Explanation. allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply. Correct Answer is. compressing the fluid in a reservoir.Question Number. is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture. Option C. 9. Option A. 8. Question Number. 5. Increase in temperature is an indication of internal leaks. Question Number. Option B. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Increase acidity. Energised Closed for fail-safe. Option B. What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8. Correct Answer is. Option C. The depressurising valve (sometimes called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed. Hi acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?. to fail-safe open. In the case drain. Increase acidity. Increase in fluid temperature. Option C. Fluid loss.Question Number. In the case drain. Increase in fluid temperature. Question Number. . Option A. Correct Answer is. Energised Open. Explanation. Option B. Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?. Correct Answer is. Increase alkalinity. 6. Question Number. Increase in fluid pressure. Increase viscosity. 7. In the pressure line. Explanation. In the suction line. Option A. Energised Closed for fail-safe. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?. Option B. Explanation. Option C. butyl rubber. Option A. Explanation. 12. acidity. Explanation. A normal hydraulic system will. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number.1. Correct Answer is. Vent Reservoir to atmosphere. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems. Option C. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in. 11. . Option B. Option A. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7. Option A. synthetic rubber.3.Option A. Explanation. natural rubber. Option C. 13. 10. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of. ethylene propylene or Teflon. show pressure and source of hydraulics. acidity. Correct Answer is. store fluid under pressure. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 3. Option C. Option B. store fluid under pressure. Option B. By pressurising. butyl rubber. Option C. Option B. Overheating causes acidity. Correct Answer is. alkalinity. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-16. illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready. Pass over a tray. show fluid temperature and quantity. viscosity. are only ever used in an emergency. provide additional fluid if leaks occur. ethylene propylene or Teflon. Question Number. By pressurising. Question Number. IDG. 300 PSI.Correct Answer is. but they are not 'normal'. flush with same hydraulic oil. Explanation. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?. Explanation. Option C. angle of swashplate. 1800 PSI. Option B. NIL. 3000 PSI. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Pressure relief valve. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option A. 16. flush with methylated spirit. NIL. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by. Correct Answer is. ACOV. 14. 15. When flushing hydraulic systems.2. Hydraulic systems normally operate at. Correct Answer is. show pressure and source of hydraulics. Some systems show temperature. Option B. Option A. 3000 PSI. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Pages 7-5 & 7-7. Option B. restriction valve. Question Number. 17. . Correct Answer is. flush with same hydraulic oil. Explanation. Option C. angle of swashplate. Explanation. Return line back to pump. flush with any hydraulic oil. CAIPs AL/3-21 12. ACOV. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 18. When replenishing a hydraulic system. Option A. use any hydraulic fluid. Option B. use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer. Option C. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. Correct Answer is. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. Question Number. 19. When replacing a flexible pipe. Option A. do a bonding check. Option B. tighten only hand tight. Option C. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting. Correct Answer is. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting. Explanation. AL/3-13 6.5. Question Number. 20. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?. Option A. Vent to atmosphere. Option B. Pass through a restriction. Option C. Pass over a tray. Correct Answer is. Pass over a tray. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 21. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is. Option A. energised to the run position. Option B. used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure. Option C. de-energised to start the pump. Correct Answer is. de-energised to start the pump. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 22. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with. Option A. regulators. Option B. gears. Option C. servo pressure. Correct Answer is. regulators. Explanation. Constant delivery is constant flow rate. Question Number. 23. A variable angled pump starts at. Option A. half way position. Option B. minimum stroke. Option C. maximum stroke. Correct Answer is. maximum stroke. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23. Question Number. 24. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents. Option A. pump cavitation. Option B. reverse flow. Option C. overpressure. Correct Answer is. reverse flow. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 25. A duplex seal consist of. Option A. a square section rubber ring within a steel washer. Option B. a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring. Option C. a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. Correct Answer is. a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. Option A. When Option B. When Option C. When 26. When is an hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?. selected on. there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available. selected off. Correct Answer is. When selected off. Explanation. AL/3-21 4.2. Question Number. 27. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts. Option A. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Valve Block. Option B. Swash Plate & Valve Block. Option C. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block. Correct Answer is. Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block. Explanation. AL/3-21 Figure 2. Question Number. 28. An hydraulic closed system is one where. Option A. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. Option B. there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required. Option C. most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit. Correct Answer is. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. Explanation. AL/3-21 12.1-12.3. Question Number. 29. What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?. Option A. Variable swashplate pump. Option B. Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter. Option C. Hydraulic oil accumulator. Correct Answer is. Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter. Explanation. Jeppeson A & P Technician Airframe P8-15. Question Number. 30. If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be. Option A. rapid depressurisation of system. Option B. pump cavitation. Option C. rapid fluctuations of instruments. Correct Answer is. rapid fluctuations of instruments. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 31. A marker number on a pipe indicates. Option A. the thickness of the wall on the pipe. Option B. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run. Option C. the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe. Correct Answer is. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 32. "One reason for fitting an accumulator in an hydraulic system is to." Option A. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. Option B. absorb pressure surges. Option C. relieve excess pressure. Correct Answer is. absorb pressure surges. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 33. A thermal relief valve is fitted to an hydraulic system to. Option A. prevent a leak back of pressure. Option B. prevent excess temperature. Option C. relieve excess pressure. Correct Answer is. relieve excess pressure. Explanation. Thermal relief valves relieve the pressure build-up due to excessive temperature. Question Number. 34. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is. Option A. accumulator. Option B. engine driven pump. Option C. selector. Correct Answer is. accumulator. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 35. A shuttle valve is used for. Option A. preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack. Option B. maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails. Option C. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. Correct Answer is. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. Explanation. AL/3-21 6.4. Question Number. 36. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to. Option A. restrict the rate of pressure build up. Option B. control the rate of system operation. Option C. limit the maximum pressure. Correct Answer is. control the rate of system operation. Explanation. AL/3-21 6.2. Question Number. 37. The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of. Option A. landing gear and doors. Option B. safety switches. Option C. brake anti-skid units. Correct Answer is. landing gear and doors. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 38. The purpose of a non-return valve is to. Option A. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. Option B. restrict the movement of components. Option C. isolate one component from another. Correct Answer is. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. Explanation. AL/3-21 Page 10. Question Number. 39. The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to. Option A. facilitate bleeding of the system. Option B. allow a full flow from the valve. Option C. prevent incorrect installation. Correct Answer is. prevent incorrect installation. Explanation. AL/3-21 Page 10. Question Number. 40. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air pressure of 1000 PSI. When the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the air pressure is. Option A. 4000 PSI. Option B. 3000 PSI. Option C. 1000 PSI. Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 41. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by. Option A. low accumulator pressure. Option B. moisture in the fluid. Option C. relief valve set too high. Correct Answer is. low accumulator pressure. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 42. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the. Option A. two NRVS fitted. Option B. relief valve. Option C. piston ram displacement. Correct Answer is. two NRVS fitted. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 Page 6. Question Number. 43. During a leak test of an hydraulic system, system pressure. Option A. is not important. Option B. must be minimum working. Option C. must be at maximum. Correct Answer is. must be at maximum. NIL. Explanation. NIL. Pressure relay valves are fitted. the fluid pressure must be released. AL/3-21 13. before a pressure sequence valve. the operation of a NRV. 45. Option C. 46. Question Number. all air must be bled from the system. the pilot. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. a striker pin. Correct Answer is. 47. require an automatic cut-out valve in the system. a striker pin. the fluid pressure must be released. are self idling. Option B. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system. Option A. Correct Answer is. the reservoir must be checked for correct level. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. . Question Number. before a pressure relief valve. Explanation. NIL.Explanation. Option B. NIL. before a pressure gauge. Option B. 44. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator. before a pressure gauge. Option A. Option C. Option B.3. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps.2. Mechanical sequence valves are operated by. Question Number. 52. Question Number. Correct Answer is. In aircraft hydraulic systems. Question Number. only the specified fluid. Explanation. Option B. accumulator and relay valve. to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator. provide a reserve of stored energy. Explanation. it is permissible to use. . limit pump wear. 48. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 15 Page 7. Option A. any hydraulic fluid available. NIL. Option B. 51. prevent the hydraulic lock forming. accumulator and shuttle valve. Explanation. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an. prevent the hydraulic lock forming. Option C. any fluid of the same specific gravity. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. Option A. An automatic cut-out valve will. relieve excessive pressure to return. NIL. Option A. only the specified fluid. 49. raise fluid boiling point. Option A. NIL. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. maintain a constant fluid level. Option A. Correct Answer is. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. Option B. Explanation. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. Option B. Question Number. A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system. Option C. 50.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to. Correct Answer is. Option A. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. Option A. Option A. Question Number. senses fluid temperature change.3. senses fluid pressure. Question Number. Option C. 55. Natural Rubber. Explanation. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?. Option C. 56. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-14. Explanation. Butyl Rubber. Question Number. the same type of fluid as used in the system. provides cooling for the fluid. Question Number. A thermal relief valve. Option A. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. Correct Answer is. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure. landing gear and auto-brake systems. Synthetic Rubber. Option B. . AL/3-21 3. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with. Option C. NIL. any clean hydraulic fluid. Option B. nose wheel steering. Option C. Explanation. NIL. methylated spirits. A RAT hydraulic pump is for. 54. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. senses fluid pressure. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. Butyl Rubber. the same type of fluid as used in the system. Correct Answer is.Option C. 53. . a pressure relief valve is used. double acting. area * pressure. Correct Answer is. Option C. area * volume. Explanation. Option A. Jeppeson A & P technician Airframe P8-23. 59. Explanation. a pressure regulating valve is used. NIL. Option A. 57. Option B. 60. 58. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Explanation. NIL. Option B.1. Option C. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to. pressure * stroke. Question Number. a pressure reducing valve is used. single acting. a stack pipe higher than the normal level. double acting. low pressure. a pressure reducing valve is used. the bottom of the reservoir. Question Number. Correct Answer is. area * pressure. Option B. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from. Correct Answer is. A tandem PFCU. the bottom of the reservoir. To enable an hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures. AL3-21 8. Question Number.Question Number. a tap into a convenient return line. Question Number. Option C. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally. 61. expands in length and diameter. Explanation. Screwdriver torque test. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Retard rotation [of the detector] with slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver. 62. Option C. Option C. pressures above 3000 PSI. a variable volume pump. has the actuator rams co-axial. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. By a motor load test. . Option A. Explanation. Option C. contracts in length and diameter. 63.Option A. is a flexible hose under pressure. 1. has the rams parallel. Question Number.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6. Screwdriver torque test. Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30). Question Number. Correct Answer is. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation. Motor test and go / no-go gap measurement. Option B. NIL. 12. Correct Answer is. has the actuator rams co-axial. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?. Question Number. Option A. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Option A. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with. NIL. a fixed volume pump.13. a fixed volume pump. Option B. A&P Mechanics General Handbook page 115. has two control surfaces under its control. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Explanation. Option B. thermal expansion for a tighter fit. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 13-6 (last paragraph). Option C. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is. independent on each side with different power sources. increases strength to resist cabin pressure. . independent on each side but with the same power source. remove all paint. CAIPs AL/11-3 5. Aircraft Electrical Systems. one system for both sides but with the same power source. 2. Question Number. 3.2. Option C. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. Option B. Option A. Option C. Option B. less of a fire hazard. Option A. Correct Answer is. impact resistance enhancement. Option C. 5. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 7 °F at 100 PSI. Pallett. Page 178. Option B. Question Number. 4. Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must. 70 °C at 100 PSI.Question Number. Option A. Question Number. more efficient. the windshield wiper system is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number.2. On large transport aircraft. impact resistance enhancement. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. 70 °F at 10 PSI. Windshield heating provides. Option A. Explanation. Option B. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. independent on each side with different power sources. 6. 70 °C at 100 PSI. CAIPs AL/11-1 4. when in the air. Ice formation on wings is due to. Option C.2. Explanation. AL/11-6 3. Option B. air from the cabin. Option C. Explanation. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion. goes out after a set period of time. Explanation. when selected by the crew. an electrical heating element. AL/11-6 2. Explanation.2.1. Correct Answer is. goes out after one more cycle. goes out immediately. 8. Correct Answer is. ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing. Option A. Option A.1. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by. 10. the warning lamp on the flight deck. Question Number. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced.2. air from the cabin. Option B. Option C. Option C. Option A. goes out after a set period of time. Option C. CAIPs AL/11-6 3. . when selected by the crew. it is switched on. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector. Question Number. Option A. paint the surface. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing. suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing. Option B. sealed window. Question Number. all the time. remove all paint. Correct Answer is. 9. 7.Option B.4. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen. 13. Option C.htm Question Number. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. prevent electrical static build up. Option C. Pneumatic rain removal systems. Option B. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 62/63 (Note: a transformer cannot 'supply'. steps up output for severe weather conditions. Windshield rain repellent is applied. Question Number. CAIPs AL/11-1 3. Option A. Option C. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen. In which case the answer is b). CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 1. supplies DC power for heating. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to. Explanation. 14. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 13-18. prevent electrical static build up. Correct Answer is. Option A. use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers. .uk/iceandrain. Option C. Option B. A&P Airframe Textbook Page 13-17. http://www. are not permitted on large transport aircraft. provide more efficient deicer cycles. In a cockpit window heater system. 12. Explanation. Jeppesen. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. supplies AC Power for heating. Explanation.b737. when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured. Option A. the autotransformer. provide smoother airflow over leading edge.4 (unless they mean 'bonded' as in cemented. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. Option B. before rain and spread on window surface by wipers.Explanation. 11.org. steps up output for severe weather conditions. Question Number. Option B. are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing. they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability. NIL. step up voltage. NIL. the shaft end. hoar Frost. 15. Option C. Option C. step down voltage. they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability. centre point of the blade. glaze Ice. Option A. A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by. tough and sticks closely to the surface is called. Windscreen autotransformers. Question Number. glaze Ice.Question Number. Option A.2. 16. Option B. 19. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. rime Ice. NIL. and which is dense. Correct Answer is. Explanation. AL/11-4 4. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. the shaft end. 17. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option B. they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe. step up voltage. When testing pitot head heaters.2. blade attachment end. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option C. 18. Option C. Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at. they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. engine compressors. direct to the windscreen. Option B. Option C. via a rectifier. an open circuit. Option C. ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. page173. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. frequency wild generator. Explanation. Pallett. Option B. Option B.10-29. direct to the windscreen. NIL. a short circuit. Aircraft Electrical Systems. a short circuit. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. fig. Option B. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection being made. Option A. Option C. 20. frequency wild generator. Explanation. engine compressors. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from. DC generator. Windscreen heating is supplied from. 22. Question Number. Correct Answer is. . OR increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Option A. Explanation. via a transformer. 21. The most probable cause would be. NIL. air conditioning ducting. frequency wild generator. Option A. increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Option C. normal. a combustion heater. page 174. Pallett. Question Number. internal leakage. air in the system. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. air in the system. Option C. Option A. place soft cloth between blade and window. . What is run-back ice?. The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system. Option B. Question Number. 24. Question Number. 12. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Landing Gear (ATA 32). Rime ice. AC20-147.14. 25. When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground. stainless steel. Option A. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5. Option B. 23. Explanation. Glaze ice.1. Option C. Glaze ice. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. 1. make sure to. nylon. use water as lubricant when operating. use slow wiper only. Glime ice. Monel. Explanation. use water as lubricant when operating. Option B. NIL.2. external leakage. Option A. nylon. Spongy brakes are usually a result of.Question Number. Option A. Option B. Question Number. 5. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. www.1. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Explanation. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will. at 15 to 20 P. Option C. Badly corroded brakes should be replaced. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-47 CAIPs AL/3-18 15. Correct Answer is.S.html Question Number. Tubeless tyres are stored. Option B. Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the. vertically.mil/cgi-bin/atdl/fm/1-509/ch10. wear brake pads too quickly. and should be replaced. CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-31. 3.adtl. wheel hub. Option B. produce a loss of fluid. 4. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32. A brake debooster valve is provided for. Option C. Option B. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the brakes quickly. Explanation. brake drum. Option A. wheel flange. NIL. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the brakes quickly.I.Explanation. increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly. wear brake pads too quickly. decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes. vertically. Correct Answer is. Option A. wheel flange. . horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top. be serviceable. Correct Answer is. Option C. 2. Option A. and provide better grip. Question Number. and should be replaced.army. 75-14. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?. The leg is serviceable . 5% by pressure. A restrictor valve. Option C. Option B. 8. 7. and JAR 25. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. 6. . Option B. The leg is serviceable . Question Number. 5% by volume. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon heat generated in operation of the system. heat generated in operation of the system. Leaking air/oil seals. AWN 70. Overall diameter. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Section Width. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is.the separator has bottomed. 9. heat generated in operation of the system. Explanation. A tyre specification 32 * 10. the type of seal material. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. Option C. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon. Separator plate stuck open.75 refer to?. 5% by volume. CAIPs AL/3-6.the separator has bottomed.733. Correct Answer is. Section Width. Explanation. 10. Explanation. 15% by volume. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. speed up the flow in one direction.1. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Bead diameter. type of fluid most readily available. Option B. Option B. Option B. Question Number.Question Number. fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?. When servicing an oleo. Option C. Option A. What does the 10. Correct Answer is. Explanation. vertical at working pressure. Explanation. tracking. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. Option C. separate the oil from the air. Correct Answer is. symmetry. Explanation. CAIPS AL3-18 para 15-1 and 15-3. absorb the landing shock. restrict the compression of the air. When checking for alignment of a MLG. twist. symmetry. splay. Option A. camber. Explanation. restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage. NIL. Option C. Option B. ensure the separator does not bottom. symmetry. camber. . The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Option B. damp the rebound. Question Number. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. 12. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. tracking. Option C. symmetry. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-13. Question Number. damp the rebound. check. horizontal no more than 4 high. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. Question Number. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to. Option B. 13. Correct Answer is. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-6 Page 7&8. 14. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-5. Correct Answer is.Option C. tracking. Made up wheels should be stored. Option A. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. 11. tracking. 15.45 R 14. breather points. for over temperature protection. Option B. a lock ring. Option B.Question Number.albeit the overpressure as a result of temperature rise. . Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are. Option C. Option A. Outer diameter. bolts. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. a lock ring. Correct Answer is. the flange is secured by. Inner diameter. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Option B.1.1. Option A. In detachable flange type wheels. AL/3-19 3. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 2. 16. Explanation. military reference.4. What does the number 32 mean?. breather points. These markings are found on a tyre 32 * 10. Option C. for overpressure protection. Correct Answer is. 17. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Question Number.2 Fuse plugs protect the tyre from explosion due to overpressure. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-18 4. a retainer plate. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 18. Option C.6. Explanation. for overpressure protection. Option C. the light part of the tyre. Explanation. Question Number. Outer diameter. width.1.7. to deflate the tyre before removal. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 3. 20. Question Number. Dunlop Aircraft Tyres General Servicing Instructions Para 3. Option C. When fitting a tyre.pdf Question Number. 23. Correct Answer is. Option B. www. Composite brake units. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. to provide strength. Option C. caused by a leaky seal. Option B. Option B. have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures. Option C. Correct Answer is. to provide a wear indication. breather points. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172. the light part of the tyre. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is.1. the light part of the tyre. normal. the red dot should be positioned. Option A.3. adjacent to the charging valve.6.dunlopaircrafttyres. Question Number. to provide strength. to indicate the position for tyre levers.7. 22. caused by a leaky seal. Option B. on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve.Question Number. this is. Option A. Option C. Question Number.2. Option A. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging. opposite the charging valve. AL/3-6 3. adjacent to the charging valve.10. military reference. 21. due to excessive charging pressure. Option A. Option B. . A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means. 19.3 iii. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Option A. a leaky selector valve. 150 °C. Option C. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. 25. A restrictor valve can be used. a stuck relief valve. AL/3-18 2. Explanation. tubed tyres. Option C. tubed and tubeless tyres. Correct Answer is. Option C. 27. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures Correct Answer is. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?. it tends to creep back up. Option B.4. 200 °C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-20 'Carbon Brakes'. Option A. 250 °C.2. NIL. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. When an undercarriage is lowered. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. 26. Question Number. Vents holes are found on. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-6 4. Correct Answer is. 24. a leaky selector valve. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-42 says both tubed and tubeless. Explanation. tubeless tyres. to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction. 200 °C. Option A. to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension. Question Number. So does Dunlop General Servicing Instructions. The fault could be. Explanation. the emergency system. Question Number. Option C.Option C. tubed and tubeless tyres. . Option B. Tyre moving around the wheel. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction. NIL. Correct Answer is. To reduce vibration and shimmy. Explanation. an anti-skid device. Option A. Option C. 31. Correct Answer is. Option B. What is tyre creep related to?. Explanation. part of the shimmy damper. increased flaring. Correct Answer is. Tyre moving around the wheel. Horizontal movement of the tyre. Boeing 757 Carbon Brake wheel. 30. Explanation. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction. 29. To reduce vibration and shimmy.Yellow Plug Temperature 390 °F. The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is. for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension. Description and Operation 32-42-82 Part AHA1648 . To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection. an anti-skid device. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Aquaplaning' can be reduced by. lowering slats. Question Number. 28. Option A. Leaflet 5-7 Para 9. . Question Number.Explanation. NIL. Question Number. Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?. Option B. Option B. Vertical movement of the tyre. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection. Option B. 34. tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking. These are. Correct Answer is. Some helicopters are fitted with floats. manufactured with one float inside another float. Option B. Option C. any oil can be used. 32. Explanation. between the apex strip and the casing piles. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Neither. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. NIL. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted. partitioned so that any one compartment that leaks will not cause instability. Option C. The material of the leg. brakes seizure. monocoque structure. if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures. Explanation. over inflation of tyres during servicing. Option A. Option C. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-8 para 3. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. air pressure too high. The types of seals the leg uses. 33. Question Number. partitioned so that any one compartment that leaks will not cause instability. 36. .3 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 9-6. air pressure too high. tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking. The types of seals the leg uses. Explanation. A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents. Option A. loss of pressure/leakage. Option B.1. Question Number. oil level too high. Option A. so that if the outer leaks it will not cause instability. Option B. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?. If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection. NIL. 35.Question Number. Question Number. Option C. the likely cause is. eliminate the need to check air pressure. Option B. Question Number. 38. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the base of the tie bar. under-inflation. the control column. Question Number. NIL. 37. between the bead and the casing piles. Option A. 40. Helicopter is different to a fixed wing due to pilot workload issues. the top of the tie bar. 39. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. Option A. CAAIP Leaflet 5-7 fig 1. Nose wheel steering in a modern helicopter is by. rudder pedals. Correct Answer is. NIL. over-inflation. under-inflation. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will. melt at a specified elevated temperature. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. Option C. Explanation. melt at a specified elevated temperature. Explanation. Explanation. Option B.Option B. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. a separate pilot operated control. Option B. facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly. the top of the tie bar. Option C. Option C. 1 mm from the rib base. excessive toe-in. rudder pedals. . Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of. Option B. Option A. Top of wheels closer to fuselage. Brake deboosters. Explanation. 44. non-return valve. up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. http://www. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. horizontally. up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points. Option A. horizontally. NIL. up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads. Explanation.com/reference/terms. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. A modulator is fitted in conjunction with. anti-skid units. brake control valves. AL/3-21 6. 42. increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. Option C. what is positive camber?. Front of wheels closer to fuselage. On a main landing gear. Question Number. NIL. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. NIL. Option A. Option B. Question Number. 43. Option C. 41. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 15. Tubed tyres are stored. horizontally. anti-skid units.2. Question Number.6.php#C .2. Option A. Option B. Explanation. up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top. Explanation.Explanation.2.1 and 15. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. horizontally. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. Option A.desertrides. Option C. assist the operation of the anti-skid unit. Option A.Question Number. Question Number. . Attached to a spring assembly. Option B. Option A. NIL. Option C. carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem. 45. Option B. Option C. Bolted on. excessive wear. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Option A. 47. Correct Answer is. Attached to a spring assembly. vertically. the torque links will. Correct Answer is. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used. Explanation. horizontally. NIL. 49. Question Number. allow the wheel to shimmy. Explanation. AL/3-18 15. Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored. overpressure. vertically. Explanation. Correct Answer is. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.1. Explanation. Option B. Option B. in the manufactures boxes. Option A. NIL. Option C. 48. heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch. under pressure. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation. Question Number. 46. Welded on. How is skid gear attached to a helicopter?. Tyre creep could be caused by. under pressure. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem. keep the wheel in track. Question Number. Explanation. NIL. Explanation. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. 51. keep the wheel in track. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. Question Number. port light red. balance indicator. tail light white. Option A.15. opposite side to the valve assembly. Option B. Option A. light spot. Correct Answer is. Option C. maker's serial number. A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate. Starboard light green. 52. heavy spot.which of the following is true?. the red spot on the tyre should be in line with. Correct Answer is. the valve assembly. With helicopter lights . Explanation. assist the wheel to castor. Explanation. the valve assembly. 1. Dunlop component maintenance manual Ch. heavy spot. Option A. 12.Option C. brake wear is checked by. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option B. using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate. 50. Lights (ATA 33). NIL. measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released. Option C. 32-42-98. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. . On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters. Option B. When fitting a tyre to a hub. Question Number. tail light White. Option C. tail light white. Option C. at the rear of the helicopter 70 degrees either side of dead astern. the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired. Option A. rare gases and mercury vapour. of at least 3 candelas.html Question Number. of at least 3 lumens. Option C. Correct Answer is. A white steady light is required. Option A. of at least 3 candelas. iodine coatings and rare gases. Option C. Question Number.net/~pthrush/lighting/flour. 5. 25%. then. http://www. Option B. 15%. Explanation. Correct Answer is.mis. Can fly without passengers in accordance with the MEL. A fluorescent tube contains. of at least 3 candelas. at the rear of the helicopter 110 degrees either side of dead astern. rare gases and mercury vapour. rare gases and mercury vapour. Starboard light green. Starboard light red. port light green. Option A. at the rear of the helicopter 70 degrees either side of dead astern. Option A. No reference found. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. CAP 393 Rules of the Air Rule 11 (2) (a) (3). the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only.users. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base. 25%. 20%. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base. Question Number. Correct Answer is. at the rear of the helicopter 110 degrees either side of dead astern. Starboard light red. phosphor coatings. port light red. Option B. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative. Option C. orange coatings. Option B. port light green. Correct Answer is. 4. tail light Red. Option B. Explanation. 2. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 145. 3. phosphor coatings. Question Number. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?. Correct Answer is. .Option B. Correct Answer is. and EEL/1-10 301 a). Option B. Question Number. 11 °. 9. 110 °. 11 °. Explanation. Explanation. 125 °. Correct Answer is.Explanation. 8. What is the arc of a landing light is?. ground services bus. Option A. Option A. Option C. Left and right navigation lights must be visible through which angle?.11. Explanation.1387. Option A. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. 7. 180 °. 110 °. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146. 15 °. Option B. Question Number. and JAR 25. 140 °. .1387. battery bus and ground services bus. 20 °. Option C. Option B. 11 °. battery bus and ground services bus. 6. Explanation. 110 °. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146. Option C. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1. and JAR 25. Question Number. Question Number. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the. Correct Answer is. Option C. AWN 56 2. 140 °. Correct Answer is. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is. battery bus. Eismin 5th edition page 256. Option A. Question Number. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured. Option B. red. Option A. 10%.Question Number. B747) use 28 VDC ground bus. Option C. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Option C. 20% obscured. 12. NIL. Question Number. red. Option C. Escape route lighting must not have more than. Explanation. 15% obscured. Option A. Option A. Option A. white. Dome lights will illuminate. BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar) although other aircraft (A340. Option B. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. 13. Correct Answer is. AC handling bus. 11. . Option A. All lights will illuminate. 14. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?. 20% obscured. 10% obscured. AC handling bus. Explanation. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?. Option B. the battery bus. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. NIL. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. green. 10. Option B. Correct Answer is. 25%. DC handling bus. . Armed. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with. Question Number. OFF. Option A.812 (l) (1). Correct Answer is. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during flight?. 10%. Explanation. Option A.Option C. 28 V AC. None. Correct Answer is. 15%. Question Number. Option A.1. 17. Option B. 16. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Armed. JAR 25. Option C. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2. Question Number. ON. 115 V AC. 25%. Option C. Option C. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel.11. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 15. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel. 28 V DC. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115). 25%. 115 V AC. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is. Option B. Option A. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-23. Explanation. 18. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?. 22. 11 (2) (d). Option C. 21. avionics bay lights. 2 minutes. how is it reset?. . Option A. 5 minutes. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of. Option A. engine scanning lights. 25%. 20 candelas. That time period is at least. Explanation. Option B.5. Correct Answer is. baggage compartment lights. refuelling lights. Question Number. refuelling lights. Option A. EEL/1-10 5. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head. EEL/1-10 3. Select full 'RETRACT'. 2 minutes. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 1 minute. 100 candelas. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para. a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or burning. EEL/1-10 3.1. Option C. Option B.812. Select full 'RETRACT'.3. Option C. 50 candelas. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates. refuelling lights. baggage compartment lights. It cannot. Option B. Option A. logo lights.5. JAR 25. Explanation. 20.Correct Answer is. Explanation. The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground. Service lights include. 19. Option B. Explanation. avionics bay lights. baggage compartment lights. Explanation. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced. avionics bay lights. 20 candelas. Question Number. Question Number. engine scanning lights. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on. Option C. Explanation.Question Number. Option A. Option B. 24.com/cgi/kds?$=main/special/real777.flightsim. Explanation. Correct Answer is. EEL/1-10 4.1 c). 25. Question Number. and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed. must show through an inclusive angle of. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Pallett . Page 153. Option C. parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight. the resistor is in. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para 2 a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-10 3. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted.8. series with the light and the transistor is conducting. Question Number. 23. Self-illuminating signs. Option A. NIL. Option A. 110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum. series with the light and the transistor is not conducting. Option C.Aircraft Electrical Systems. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas. 26. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. series with the light and the transistor is conducting. Explanation. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight. When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM'. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. require a period of daylight. 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum.htm . The transistor is conducting all the time the light is switched on. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted. in addition. Option B. Option A. or intense artificial light to operate. http://www. Correct Answer is. because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units. Explanation. Xenon.Question Number. Halon. Option B. amber. Question Number. CAIPs EEL/1-10 4. Explanation. together . Question Number. at 70 inch intervals. at 40 inch intervals. NIL. Option C. Question Number.they are wired in parallel. the caution light is coloured. Explanation. Option A. 28. Question Number. Option B. amber. Correct Answer is. Option C. Fire warning. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed. Option B.4.they are wired in series. Freon. red.they are wired in series. Option A.Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option B. 30. Explanation. Option A. . Option C. together . What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?. Option A. Hydraulic pump failure. NIL. Option B. 31. Correct Answer is. 29. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced. which has the highest priority?. green. Correct Answer is.1. First Officer's only in emergency mode. On a CWS. Xenon. Option A. Pallett . Fire warning. Option C. individually . 27. In the CWS system. Page 153. Duct overheat. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. However. at 40 inch intervals. Question Number. self illuminating lights. Tritium Gas is used in a.Option C. landing Light. Option B. Option C. Option A. Option B. Option A. He was told (by the CAA assessor) that the answer is b. strobe light. Explanation.1. 35. Option B. . Individual circuits Option C. 34. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Xenon Gas and blue-white. ferry flight to main base for rectification.1. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit. Xenon Gas and blue-white. 33. The helicopter has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system. queried it with the CAA. EEL/1-10 4. EEL/1-10 3. continue with reduced passenger load. Option B. 32. self illuminating lights. Option C.3. Dual circuit. Single circuit. Helium gas and white. Option C. at 60 inch intervals. Question Number. Option A. Neon gas and blue.8. continue with reduced passenger load. Correct Answer is. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is what?. no reference has been found. A user who got this question.2. Question Number. ground the aircraft. Option A. Explanation.7. 000ft and descending. NIL. Question Number. it dumps. Option A. Single circuit. Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36). In a pneumatic system. Although smaller systems may have a vane type. Correct Answer is. when landing gear doors are not closed. Question Number. centrifugal type. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-54. Correct Answer is. 36. 2. the system between compressor and regulator valve. 12. 3. when landing gear is up. Explanation. rotor vane type. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Option A. 1. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-56. Question Number. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system.Correct Answer is. The pneumatic system pump is a. Option B. Option C. Explanation. the whole system. Correct Answer is. essential equipment.000ft and descending. just the moisture trap. below 10. the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to. Explanation. below 10. piston type. CAIPs AL/3-22. Option B. Explanation. . Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate. Option C.16. just the moisture trap. piston type. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250. Option A. non-essential equipment. Option B. Option A. Option B. reciprocating pump. High pressure pneumatic pump is a. all the system. Question Number. between the compressor and the PRV. 6. the system would. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 4. CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. non-essential equipment. butterfly pump. High pressure pneumatic source is a. On a high pressure pneumatic system. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1. reciprocating pump. Although they protect the flow to the essential systems they do so by being situated in the non-essential lines. 5. Option B. butterfly pump. spur gear. Option A. if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of time. and closing off if the pressure drops. Question Number. lose all pressure. CAIPs AL/3-23 4. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain. reciprocating pump. Option C. . just the moisture trap. CAIPs AL/3-22. Correct Answer is. centrifugal Compressor. Maintainer valves work in same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence the reference). Correct Answer is. all equipment. between the compressor and the PRV. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Option B.1. Explanation. lose pressure from the compressor side only.Option C. reciprocating pump. 7. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. lose pressure from the compressor side only. NIL. 10. It must be filtered. NIL.html Question Number. http://www. Two compressors driven by separate engines use. Correct Answer is. Option A. Spur gear type. Rotary vane type. Option B.com/news/maint/182905-1. Question Number.Option C. interrogation of aircraft's transponder. Explanation. Option A. Interconnected to share loads. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. Explanation. What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. Option A. PRVs. 9. 12. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Option C. AL/3-22 figure 1. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?. Question Number. 1. It must be temperature controlled. Positive displacement type. Correct Answer is. Explanation. .17. Primary Radar is. It must be filtered. It must be pressure controlled. Option B.avweb. Option C. Option B. Explanation. lose pneumatic pressure partially. Positive displacement type. Option A. 8. charges at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains constant. NIL. in-phase with other generators and CBA only. 4. Option C. reflected signal from aircraft's own radar. must be in-phase prior to paralleling. Question Number. may charge at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low. Question Number. phase A must be. A battery in situ on an aircraft. 90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC. Option A. may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low. Explanation. Question Number. NIL. Option B. When an autopilot is Fail Passive. may charge at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system. the autoland can continue. Option C. the phase of the second generator to be brought on line. . Explanation. Option C. in-phase with other generators and ABC. Option B. 3. Option A. reflected signal from aircraft's own radar. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. Question Number. Option A. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators. is unimportant. for ground use only. the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot. Correct Answer is. is important if the first generator fails. in-phase with other generators and CBA only. 2. 5.Option B. must be in-phase prior to paralleling. 206 V. Correct Answer is.06 ohm and the 0. Option A. 200 V. Correct Answer is.12 V (across the 0. 6.06/100 x200 V = 0. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft. . current limiters. Explanation. 212 V. 200 V. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown.04 ohm are the field windings. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control p211 Question Number. prevent excessive current to the load circuit. but only by 0. Option A.The generator output is split between the 0. So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer to 200 V than the other two answers. output voltage at the load is 200 V. 0. What is the voltage across the shunt winding?. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load. prevent excessive current to the field circuit.06 ohm). On a direct current circuit. Option B. Question Number. 7. Option C. The 10 ohm shunt. Option B.Option C. It is on the EHSI and EADI. . NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. slant range to beacon. EHSI & EADI. 1 Month. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. EHSI. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 3 Months. Question Number. On a flight management system. EHSI & EADI. On a modern aircraft flight instrumentdisplay system.Option C. the paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming generators voltage is. above bus voltage. 9. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. Option B. the same as bus voltage. Option C. EADI. Option A. slant range to beacon. Option C. Radio deviation is shown on. The deviation indicator is duplicated. 1 Month. Explanation. above bus voltage. ground range to beacon. 10. Explanation. Option A. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. Option A. distance measuring equipment gives. On an aircraft's navigation displays. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. below bus voltage. height and range to beacon. the database is updated every. prevent excessive current to the load circuit. Explanation. Option B. 8. allow excessive current to the load circuit. On a direct current twin generator system. 2 Months. Option A. 11. Explanation. NIL. . the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height. Explanation. the decision height is selected. Question Number. the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height. Option A. 12. Option C. the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height. NIL. The decision height light will illuminate when. Correct Answer is. Option B.