Module 11B-New.doc

Module 11 B. Aeroplane Aerodynamics, Structures & Systems 11B.01.1. Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls.Question Number. 1. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure. Option A. moves forward. Option B. moves aft. Option C. is unaffected. Correct Answer is. moves aft. Explanation. Assuming that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as it speeds-up. This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory. Question Number. 2. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with. Option A. ailerons. Option B. rudder. Option C. elevators. Correct Answer is. ailerons. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe TextbookPage 1-12. Question Number. 3. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?. Option A. To the centre. Option B. To the right. Option C. To the left. Correct Answer is. To the left. Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43. Question Number. 4. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?. Option A. Down. Option B. Up. Option C. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation. Correct Answer is. Up. Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43. Question Number. 5. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?. Option A. To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts. Option B. To re-energise the boundary layer. Option C. To increase the lift. Correct Answer is. To re-energise the boundary layer. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32. Question Number. 6. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?. Option A. The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron. Option B. The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle. Option C. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron. Correct Answer is. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron. Explanation. Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves less, to reduce the induced drag which causes adverse aileron yaw. Question Number. 7. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load. Option A. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement. Option B. only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw. Option C. only when the rudder is moved. Correct Answer is. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement. Explanation. Rudder deflection or yaw. Question Number. 8. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit would be. Option A. moved up causing the left aileron to move up. Option B. moved up causing the left aileron to move down. Option C. moved down causing the left aileron to move down. Correct Answer is. moved up causing the left aileron to move down. Explanation. Down aileron required - which requires up trim. Question Number. 9. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to. Option A. speed up the airflow and increase lift. Option B. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer. Option C. provide housing for the slat. Correct Answer is. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer. Explanation. A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer. Question Number. 10. Large flap deployment. Option A. has no effect on spanwise flow. Option B. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface. Option C. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface. Correct Answer is. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface. Explanation. Flaps increase the pressure differential between top and bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices and spanwise flow. Question Number. 11. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?. Option A. Tip stalls first. Option B. Root stalls first. Option C. Both stall together. Correct Answer is. Tip stalls first. Explanation. The tip of a swept wing stalls first. Question Number. 12. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly. Option A. right wing low. Option B. nose up. Option C. left wing low. Correct Answer is. right wing low. Explanation. The leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise. Question Number. 13. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will. Option A. not be affected. Option B. lower. Option C. rise. Correct Answer is. rise. Explanation. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases. Question Number. 14. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?. Option A. Increase the angle of attack. Option B. Decrease the angle of attack. Option C. No effect on angle of attack. Correct Answer is. Decrease the angle of attack. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 15. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are. Option A. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root. Option B. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root. Option C. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root. Correct Answer is. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 16. With reference to differential aileron control. Option A. drag increases on the inner wing. Option B. drag decreases on the outer wing. Option C. drag increases on the outer wing. Correct Answer is. drag increases on the inner wing. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett 4th Edition Page 41. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-11. Question Number. 17. Dutch role is movement in. Option A. yaw and roll. Option B. yaw and pitch. Option C. pitch and roll. Correct Answer is. yaw and roll. Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291. Question Number. 18. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable. Option A. aircraft becomes too sensitive. Option B. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude. Option C. C of P moves back. Correct Answer is. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 19. Ailerons control the aircraft in the. Option A. longitudinal plane. Option B. directional plane. Option C. lateral plane. Correct Answer is. lateral plane. Explanation. Ailerons control the aircraft 'IN' the lateral axis, which is 'ABOUT' the longitudinal axis. Question Number. 20. An anti-balance tab is used. Option A. for trimming the aircraft. Option B. to give more feel to the controls. Option C. to relieve stick loads. Correct Answer is. to give more feel to the controls. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-29. Question Number. 21. Slats. Option A. act as an air brake. Option B. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer. Option C. increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing. Correct Answer is. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P technician airframe textbook page 1-32. Question Number. 22. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight. Option A. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA. Option B. nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA. Option C. nose should be raised, increasing AoA. Correct Answer is. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA. Explanation. The main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot can lower the nose, increase decent angle and get a better view of the runway. Question Number. 23. Flight spoilers. Option A. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed. Option B. can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing. Option C. can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn. Correct Answer is. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 24. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?. Option A. Up to move elevator up. Option B. Down to move elevator up. Option C. Up to move elevator down. Correct Answer is. Down to move elevator up. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 25. Wing tip vortices are strongest when. Option A. flying high speed straight and level flight. Option B. flying slowly at high angles of attack. Option C. flying into a headwind. Correct Answer is. flying slowly at high angles of attack. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 26. An example of a secondary flight control is a. Option A. elevator. Option B. flap. Option C. spoiler. Correct Answer is. spoiler. Explanation. Some would consider a Flap to be a secondary flight control. It is discounted in this question as it is technically a Lift Augmentation Device, rather than a 'control. Question Number. 27. A balance tab. Option A. assists the pilot to move the controls. Option B. is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft. Option C. effectively increases the area of the control surface. Correct Answer is. assists the pilot to move the controls. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 1-29. Question Number. 28. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?. Option A. Both wings have an equal increase in drag. Option B. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more. Option C. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more. Correct Answer is. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-26. Question Number. 29. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?. Option A. Split. Option B. Slot. Option C. Fowler. Correct Answer is. Fowler. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20. Question Number. 30. Option A. low. Option B. high or low. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is. Option C. high. Correct Answer is. high. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 31. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by. Option A. left and right spoilers extending. Option B. right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted. Option C. left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted. Correct Answer is. right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 32. A split flap increases lift by increasing. Option A. the surface area. Option B. the camber of the top surface. Option C. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion. Correct Answer is. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30. Question Number. 33. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will. Option A. sink. Option B. pitch nose down. Option C. pitch nose up. Correct Answer is. pitch nose down. Explanation. Due to the centre of pressure moving aft. Question Number. 34. Dutch roll is. Option A. a type of slow roll. Option C. increasing the stalling angle of the wing. 36. a leading edge flap which hinges forward. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 1-37 figure 1-64. Correct Answer is. up movement of the elevator trim tab. 37. Option A. Option C. a leading edge slat which extends forward. NIL. Option B. Option A. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing. Option C. Explanation.Option B. Option C. Explanation. NIL. increasing tailplane incidence. a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower. a combined yawing and rolling motion. A leading edge slat is a device for. A Krueger flap is. a leading edge flap which hinges forward. Correct Answer is. pitch up is caused by. decreasing wing drag. decreasing tailplane incidence. Option B. . primarily a pitching instability. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. decreasing tailplane incidence. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. a combined yawing and rolling motion. 35. increasing the stalling angle of the wing. Correct Answer is. Option C. none of the above are correct. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant. Explanation. Explanation. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior. Question Number. lift increases. Question Number. Option A.Question Number. 41. boundary layer. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. . NIL. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving. Explanation. Pressure increases. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases. lift decreases. is known as. what takes place?. camber layer. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. NIL. Pressure increases. boundary layer. 39. Aspect ratio. Option B. Pressure decreases. will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed. Option C. Option B. Fineness ratio. Changes in aircraft weight. Pressure increases. 38. in relation to the rest of the airflow. 40. Option A. Option B. lift decreases. Option C. lift increases. lift and drag increase. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack. Question Number. The aircraft stalling speed will. Option C. Question Number. Option C. extra lift is required. Option B. 42. NIL. Explanation. depends on the weight of the aircraft. Option A. lift and drag increase. extra lift is required. . cannot be varied. Explanation. increase with an increase in weight. extra lift is not required if thrust is increased. When an aircraft stalls. lift decreases and drag increases. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. extra lift is not required. lift decreases and drag increases. increase with an increase in weight. The angle of attack at which stall occurs. Correct Answer is. Option A. 44. In a bank and turn. Option B. it is always constant. Explanation. NIL. 45.Explanation. increase with an increase in weight. Option B. NIL. 43. Option B. Option A. can be varied by using flaps and slats. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. is increased when it is lighter. Explanation. increases. NIL. Option A. to trim the aircraft longitudinally. to alter the lift of an aerofoil. Option A. to alter the position of the centre of gravity. 47. remains the same. Option A. NIL.Correct Answer is. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment. Option B. Option C. Explanation. The stalling speed of an aircraft. 48. Question Number. a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators. 46. 49. Question Number. Option B. is increased when it is heavier. Explanation. A wing flap which has dropped or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. can be varied by using flaps and slats. The primary function of a flap is. Question Number. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons. the stalling angle of a wing. corrected Question Number. a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder. is increased when it is heavier. . to alter the lift of an aerofoil. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons. Option B. Option C. does not change. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30. decreases. Explanation. keep the pitch attitude constant. Question Number. Option B. to maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to. will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch. decreases. NIL. NIL. Option B. may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change. NIL. has no effect on its wing stalling angle. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?. Option A. NIL. . Option C. Explanation. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps. Downward displacement of an aileron. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall. Correct Answer is. increases the angle at which its wing stalls. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch. the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane. raise the nose. lower the nose. 50. Option C. Option C. Option A. 52. 51.Option C. Question Number. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch. Option B. Correct Answer is. it only affects the stalling speed on that wing. Option A. lower the nose. Explanation. 53. Question Number. 000 ft. an increase in gradient with wing speed. decrease in gradient with wing speed. NIL. Slat. 36. Option C. Question Number. no change in gradient with wing speed. the trim tab on the rudder would be positioned. Flap. Explanation. The tropopause exists at about. 18. 36. Option A. NIL. Option C. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option B. moving the rudder right. to the left.000 ft. Correct Answer is. decrease in gradient with wing speed. .Option A. Option C. If an aircraft is yawing left. Option B. 54. Flap and slat. Slat. Correct Answer is. moving the rudder right. Option A. to the left. to the right. Option C. Option B. 56. 55. Explanation. to the centre. moving the rudder left. Question Number. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is.000 ft. NIL. Explanation. 30. Question Number. Correct Answer is.000 ft. NIL. Correct Answer is. is dutch roll. is longitudinal stability. 58. Question Number. is dutch roll. Question Number. 57. move transition point rearwards. the leading edge. 60. advance the onset of flow separation. . increase stalling angle of the wing. Leading edge flaps. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Option A. NIL. Instability giving roll and yaw. move transition point forwards. Option A. Option B. Option C. is lateral stability. Question Number. Explanation. move transition point forwards. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. increase stalling angle of the wing. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. decrease stalling angle of the wing. Option B. either the leading or training edge. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. the trailing edge. 59. the leading edge. Option A. Vortex generators are fitted to.Question Number. do not change the stalling angle. Krueger flaps are on. vertical stabiliser. from intermediate to fully down. horizontal stabiliser. Option C. Airframe Structures . forms part of lower trailing edge. NIL. Option B. Question Number. central fuselage. A plain flap. Explanation. Correct Answer is. increase lateral stability. Zone 320 under the ATA system is. 63. Option A. NIL. increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag. does not increase the wing area on deployment. A split flap. 61.02a. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase. Option A. Option C. from intermediate to fully down. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase. Explanation. Option C. is used only on high speed aircraft. NIL. Question Number. not affect lateral stability. 62.Question Number. Option B. Option B. Option C. Question Number. is attached to the leading edge of the wing. decrease lateral stability. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Sweepback will. Correct Answer is. . does not increase the wing area on deployment. when deployed. Option A. Option B.General Concepts. 11B. Option A. 1. increase lateral stability. Option A. 50 milliohms. Question Number. Question Number. Bonding Strip. lateral point on aircraft wing. 50 milliohms. 2. Tension is the stress of elongation or stretch. Tension is the stress of. Option B. 3. Option A. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 343. crush or compression. twisting. Maintenance and Repair Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22.8. Option C.005ohms. elongating or stretch.Correct Answer is. Earthing Strap. Correct Answer is. elongating or stretch. vertical stabiliser. 4. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is. Correct Answer is. 0. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. Explanation. Explanation. 1/50 ohms. Bonding Strip. Option A. Bonding Strip. Option B. 5. . Explanation. A Fuselage Station is a. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Explanation.1 (a). Option A. 7.5 in wide. special paint. Correct Answer is. 8. Option C. lower fuselage. Correct Answer is.4. ATA Zone 100 is. Question Number. Option B. 3. lateral point on aircraft fuse. Option B. Correct Answer is.3. aluminium wire. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. Correct Answer is.Option B. Option B. Question Number. Fuselage Stations are longitudinal measurements on the fuselage. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be. Question Number. Wing. 0. Explanation. Option A. 6.4. Composite materials are bonded by. upper fuselage. Question Number.25 in wide and 22 AWG. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para. 0.5 in wide. Explanation. special paint. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage. ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor). lower fuselage. 9. 22 AWG. 0. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Option C. copper wire. . at force is an I-Beam subjected to?. bonding strips. conductive paint. Correct Answer is. Stringer. Explanation. Bending. special conductive grease. 10. frame stations. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by. frame stations. Question Number. Explanation. longitudinal. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Answer chosen due to a stringer's duplicity. Option A. Tension. Option B. frame stations. . conductive paint. Option B. Option C. Option C. Explanation.Option A. Explanation. water lines and buttock lines. 12. although different parts of it are subject to tension (upper boom) and shear (the web). Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?. water lines and buttock lines. An I beam is subject to Bending. Option C. Question Number. vertical lines and lateral lines. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 6.5. Bending. Option B. Spar. 11. CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3. Option B. vertical and lateral lines. Correct Answer is. Option A. Shear. Correct Answer is. Longeron. Option A. Stringer. 600. Explanation. 16. Question Number. Damage tolerant design. Control surfaces. 800. Pressure cabin. but it is a terrible definition of shear stress. 13. slip away under the action of forces. allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure. slip away under the action of forces.Question Number. Option A.7. Correct Answer is. Question Number. The keyword is 'slip'. compressing forces. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option C. 400. Option C. Option B. Option B. Pressure cabin. . In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of. Explanation. Option B. Wings. NIL. Option A. Option C. Shear stress is described as. Option A. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance. is applied only to secondary structure. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?. 800. Option C. pulling forces. 14. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance. CAIPs AL/7-2 2. Correct Answer is. 15. Explanation. Explanation. Checkout most modern aircraft Maintenance Manuals for zonal locations. Correct Answer is. 4. Explanation. Centre scale. Correct Answer is. Special grease on the hinges. CAIPs RL/2-5 3. Option B. Option C.3. The ground cable must be. 19. Question Number. Question Number. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.1 a (i). 18. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing. Explanation. Correct Answer is. copper stranded 0. single strand 18 AWG. cross sectional area. Where on the aircraft is FS245. Option A. CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 15. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?. Option B. Diverter strips. Correct Answer is. Option C. cross sectional area. Option A. Option B. single strand copper wire 0. 17. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing. Full scale deflection. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. . cross sectional area.5 in. RWS45?. Option C.5 in. Option B. single strand copper wire 0. 20. Option A. Option A.Question Number. Diverter strips.2.5 in. Special paint. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing. Question Number. what would the gauge read?. Zero. Explanation. bonded. 22. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 24. utilizes the safe-life design concept. 21. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3.10. Option A.2 B. Question Number. shear. Option A. Correct Answer is. . strain. Most radio aerials are. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-56. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. bonded. Option B. Option B. is known as. Secondary bonding is usually provided with. strain. Strain is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause a permanent deformation. Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe textbook page 1-3. offers good damage resistance. Strain is 'best' of the answers. 23. shear. Explanation. stranded copper 0. is used only for the fuselage. Zero. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Semi-monocoque construction. offers good damage resistance. Option C. Option C.25 inch. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused. not bonded. insulated from the fuselage. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a.2 Page 6. AL/7.1 (ii). NIL. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than. 28. 18 AWG. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. bonding. Option A. 18 AWG. Option B. static wicks. Option B.Option B. Option C.25 inch. Option A. Question Number.5. horizontal line. 26. 22 SWG x 0. Option C. 18 SWG for a single wire. Explanation. wing line. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3.3. 27. 25. vertical line. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.3.2 Fig 15. vertical line. earthing. 22 SWG x 0. Option C. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?. 18 SWG for a single wire. Option C. .25. bonding. Correct Answer is. Explanation. single strand 0. Explanation. Option B. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by. Question Number.1 (a) (ii). Option A. NIL. Option C. Horizontal measurement lines. Vertical measurement lines. Correct Answer is. torsion and strain. pressurization cycle. compression. pressurization cycle. compression. Option A. Option C. Option C. Explanation. Measurements from the centre line. Correct Answer is. NIL. flying hours. Flying Hours. twisting and shear. NIL. compression. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. tension. Option B. Option B. 31. The main forces on an aircraft structure are. tension. torsion and shear. The life of the structure is counted by.2 Page 17 Para 6. Pressure Cycles. torsion and shear. 30. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Landings. Option A.Option A. Measurements from the centre line. compression. Explanation. CAIPs AL/7. What are buttock lines?. tension. Flying Hours. 29. . Explanation. landings. tension.2. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. 35. Option B. conductive paint. non-conductive paint. Option B. bonding. strut. Option B. NIL.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. inboard from the wing upper surface. Option A. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Option B. 33. outboard from the fuselage centreline. strut. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes. A member taking a compression load is called a. Question Number. conductive paint. . beam. NIL. Wing stations are measured. Correct Answer is. 32. Correct Answer is. 34. NIL. partially by. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Monocoque. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?. Explanation. outboard from the wing root. cable. outboard from the fuselage centreline. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Semi-monocoque. Truss type. Semi-monocoque. Correct Answer is. Which of the following is primary structure?. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Tensile. it will be. Torsion. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. inches. Option C. NIL. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Skin. Stringer. 36. red. 38. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. Tensile. green. feet. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in. If a colour is used to identify primary structure. Bending. Frame. Option B. yellow. Explanation. Skin.Question Number. Option B. red. NIL. feet and inches. Option B. inches. . Option A. 39. Option A. 37. Option A. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?. Safe-life. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Option C. Option A. is the deformation of a material caused by applied load. Stress.2. Explanation. Option B. Option B. flying hours or years. Explanation. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life. Option C. is the property of a material to resist fracture. double safe. Structure with built-in redundancy is called. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. Option C. AL/7-2 2. Condition monitored. 41. failsafe. Option B. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles. regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?. Explanation.Question Number. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. wheel shields and minor component brackets etc. 43. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. . is the load per unit area acting on a material. failsafe. NIL. These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings. Option A. is the load per unit area acting on a material. NIL. safe life. Fail-safe. 42. Option A. 40. Question Number. the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Upgrade it to primary. tension and compression stresses. Option B. Option A. Explanation. NIL. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Question Number. torsional and compression stresses. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the sharing of loads between adjacent members.Correct Answer is. what action should you adopt?. Notice 65. tension and shear stresses. NIL. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is. . the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. Safe-life is. 46. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary. tension and compression stresses. Safe-life. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. 44. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Bending stresses are a combination of. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either Primary or Secondary. 47. Option C. Upgrade it to primary. Grade it as secondary. NIL. Correct Answer is. NIL. 45. manufacturer. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the. Explanation. Question Number. Where are wing stations measured from?. Option C. Notice 89. Notice 79. Option B. Tip of vertical stabiliser. Water Line (WL). Option C. Correct Answer is. but the fuselage centreline is 'technically' a buttock line of sorts. Butt Line (BL). AWN 89. See zonal locations in any Maintenance Manual. Explanation. Explanation. Where is Zone 323?. Butt Line (BL).Option B. Obscure question. Option B. Option C. Zone Line (ZL). These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747. operator. Correct Answer is. Option C. . Tip of vertical stabiliser. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Notice 89. Question Number. Correct Answer is. manufacturer. Option A. 48. Explanation. Between front and rear spar. maintenance engineer. Between rear spar and trailing edge. Question Number. 50. 49. Option A. . sagging. is known as a. having multiple load paths. sagging. Question Number. 54. Option C. electrically connected primary conductors. monocoque design. tie. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. 53. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. hogging. 51. NIL. An aircraft structure. Option A. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates.Question Number. fail-safe design. NIL. strut. a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint. shedding. electricity is discharged through. 52. Option C. strut. Explanation. A structural member intended to resist compression is a. Explanation. a sprayed coat of conductive paint. web. NIL. fail-safe design. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. safe-life design. Question Number. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft. Option B. electrically connected primary conductors. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. butt line. 58. Torsion. If a redundant structure fails it becomes. Compression. Option A. Option A. Tension. Stress. Correct Answer is. fuselage station. Compression. Option B. 57. Option B. NIL. Option C. fatigued. Compression. Option C. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. Option C. on-condition structure. Question Number. Strain. Option B. failsafe. Option A. water line. a failsafe structure. Correct Answer is. a failsafe structure. water line. a safe-life structure. 56. Torsion. Tension. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Torsion. Shear. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is. NIL. Stress. A redundant structure is. . safe-life.Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 55. Option B. failsafe. Question Number. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?. NIL. Option C. Compression. Option B. Explanation. An example of primary stress is. 60. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. 61. Explanation. Explanation.Correct Answer is. 62. Option A. secondary. The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured. primary. The datum from which vertical locations refer. Option C. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. tension. nose. Option C. shear. NIL. What is the water line?. . NIL. Question Number. Torsion. Correct Answer is. A line below which redux bonding can not be used. left wing tip. Option B. tertiary. tension. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as. Lateral stations have station zero at the. 59. Shear. bending. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Tension. primary. The datum from which vertical locations refer. Question Number. centre line. Option C. Fire-proof grommets. JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25. 11B. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. JAR 25. None is required. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?. Option A. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. CS 25. . to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat. Correct Answer is. centre line. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in.Option C. 63. and if so to. to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat. Option A.02b. Option B. ANO 25.General Concepts. Explanation. to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg. 64. Airframe Structures . 1. Option A.562 (b) para 5. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. Explanation. Fire-proof grommets. test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity. Option B. JAR 25. CS 25. and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC). It is put through a series of crash tests. This is to. Option C. Soft rubber. Question Number.2. wetting and Setting. Explanation. spreading and setting. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding. Explanation. provide flexible surface for the top coat. alkaline etch. The purpose of a primer is to. help bonding of the topcoat. Option C. Question Number. 2. acid etch. Correct Answer is. solvent etch. Option B. wetting and gripping. we use. A module 7 questions. CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Option B. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'. wetting and Setting. Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash. frames. Option C. stringers. Correct Answer is.1. stringers. 3. 4. 5. Option C. help bonding of the topcoat. Option A. compression loads are taken by. he two stages in a good adhesive bond are. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. provide shiny surface for the topcoat. In semi-monocoque construction. Option A. bulkheads. . acid etch. 2 para 3. Option B. Explanation. 2024. Longerons. in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?. CAIP AL/7-2 para 2. Option B. PLI washers can be used more than once.5. Question Number. Explanation. Stringers. CAIPs AL/7. 8.4. Question Number. Option A. PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication. CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4. Stringers. Question Number. Most large transport aircraft skins are. Option A.3. . Question Number. providing they are used in critical bolted joints. Option A. 5056. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?. Explanation. Option B. Which of the following statements is correct. Option C. 9. Frames. 7075.6 (last sentence). In a monocoque structure.Explanation. 7. 6. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Bulkheads. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. Option C. 2024. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8. Option A. Stringers. which component carries the majority of the loads?. Correct Answer is. CAIPs BL/7-3. Cadmium plating. Option B. Explanation. Paint remover substances. Zinc plating. Option C. Question Number. 10.Option C. Question Number. Ferrous alloys. Correct Answer is. 13. Explanation. A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28. Option B. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft. Option A. Option A. Option A. Cadmium plating. Option C. Skin. Steel tape and spring balance. Nickel plating. Magnesium alloys. . Correct Answer is. Explanation.5 i. CAIPs AL/7-12 3.3. Option B. CAIPs BL/7-2. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. Steel tape and spring balance. Option C. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?. 11. what method of measurement is normally used?. Longitudinal alignment method. Magnesium alloys. Aluminium alloys. 12. Lateral alignment method. Question Number. Skin. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?. metal for earthing purposes.7. To remove a rivet.1. Option B. Battery trays are. chisel off the rivet head. Correct Answer is. because it is current. CAIPs BL/6-20 11. Correct Answer is.1 says 'slightly smaller'. Option A. Pallett Page 24. Aircraft Electrical Systems. drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank. Explanation. are damaging to some aircraft parts. to prevent corrosion. Question Number. Explanation. to seal the cabin. to provide external streamlining. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. 14. Correct Answer is. and remove the. are not damaging to any aircraft parts.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet'. Option A. chisel off the rivet head. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3. should only be used once. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. Option B. 16. Option C. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Option B. to seal the cabin. absorbent to soak up electrolyte. Option C. and remove the shank with a metal punch. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. but CAIPs BL/6-29 para 10. chisel off the rivet head. 15. and remove the shank with a metal punch. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank.Option A. Option B. . drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. Option C. Question Number. chisel off the rivet head. Option C. Option A. We chose the former. are damaging to some aircraft parts. hi-shear. http://www. Explanation. Option C.4). simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. Edges of repair metal. jury strut. Option C. it is necessary to. according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC. lubricate the shank and threads.htm Question Number. Option B. Option A.Explanation. Correct Answer is. 3. 18. Option A.tpub. shear tie. . lubricate the collar. http://www. Option A. 20. according to SB instructions.7. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt. Option B. Explanation. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. Material under repair. Explanation. Option B. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. Chapter 51 is General Practices. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Middle of repair. tear stopper. Correct Answer is. as well as acting as a skin strengthener. CAIP AL/7-2 para. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair. A bonded waffle doubler. Option C. tear stopper. also acts as a. Option B. 17. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?. NIL. CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig.com/fasteners Question Number.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156. 19. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. high strength high ductility. . Option A. 21. Open to interpretation. 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%. Option B. Option C. Smooth contour of surface. Explanation. Option B. Cemented and specific. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are. Smooth contour of surface. BL/6-20 5. Added strength.net/normajean/normajean/newpage1. Option C. 23. http://www. Question Number.user. Option A. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. high strength high ductility. low strength high toughness. Question Number. Why is a joggle joint used?. 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%. Question Number. Explanation.lasercom. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. NIL. 24. Option B. Correct Answer is.htm Question Number. Option C. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. Option B. Explanation. Material under repair. 22. NIL. So countersunk rivets do not need to be used. Explanation. What are the types of true bonded joints?. high strength high toughness. Option A. Mechanical and specific. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for. Explanation. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. Option C. Explanation. 26. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. which type of fastener would you use?. Nil.Option C. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids. Question Number. Blind rivet. Option A. NIL. Question Number. they can be ignored. To add strength. 28. Option B. To provide a smooth contour to surface. Why is a joggle joint used?. 27. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Mechanical and specific. they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. To provide a flush fit. Skin panels may be strengthened by. Hi lock bolt. Option B. Arguably c also. Explanation. Blind rivet. . Option A. Pop rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved. they provide extra protection. Correct Answer is. Mechanical and cemented. Question Number. Option B. but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached. 25. Pop rivet. Option C. Option C. To provide a flush fit. Option B. to slow its rate of propagation. Correct Answer is. Option A. before a crack starts. 29. Install critical stress panels or plates. Option B. Option C. Explanation. NIL. to prevent its initiation. cleats. Explanation. Two booms separated by a web. Question Number. Option C. struts. after a crack starts. NIL. A crack stopper is fitted. Question Number.Option A. before a crack starts. Option B. to slow its rate of propagation. Remove all optional equipment. to slow its rate of propagation. Install critical stress panels or plates. before a crack starts. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?. NIL. Option C. Option C. 30. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . What is the normal form of construction of a spar?. Option A. stringers. Explanation. Two booms separated by a web. NIL. Determine the fuel tanks are empty. One boom mounted under a web. Two webs separated by a boom. 31. stringers. Option B. 34. Question Number. is easier to manufacture. Synthetic resins are made from nylon.Question Number. Option A. skin. Correct Answer is. . Option A. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. longerons. skin. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it. NIL. In a fully monocoque fuselage. 35. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Option C. acrylics. Option C. shares the loads. Option C. Intercostals are. Question Number. asphalt. compression ribs in cantilever wings. Option B. all the loads are carried by the. NIL. vinyl and. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. Option A. 32. vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane. cellulose. Correct Answer is. acrylics. 33. shares the loads. frames. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. takes all the loads in the skin. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL.Question Number. Option A. Symmetry checks should be carried out. 39. NIL. Option B. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. Option A. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as. too much kinetic energy on landing. crack limiting joints. plastic. secondary joints. Option A. 38. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels. stainless steel. Question Number. stainless steel. Option C. too much kinetic energy on landing. Option B. failsafe joints. NIL. Option C. failsafe joints. Option B. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels. Correct Answer is. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries. Question Number. . Explanation. aluminium alloy. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2. Correct Answer is. Explanation. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. Question Number. 37. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. the battery compartment drain pipes will be. Option C. Option B. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has. an excessive fuel load on take-off. 36. 40. Option B. toxic gases. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location. 1 in 600. Option C. . Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. 1 in 400. Explanation.Question Number. Option C. the visual indicator will indicate. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is. humidity. Option B. Option C. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to. 1 in 200. Option B. help bonding for top-coat. 41. When an item is cocooned. Option C. provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat. 43. NIL. 42. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. page 6-8. help bonding for top-coat. Question Number. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member. provide a flexible surface for top-coat. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. Explanation. temperature. 1 in 600. humidity. Option A. Question Number. Option A. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?. Which loads do longerons resist?.03.Aeroplanes . stringers. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13. compression. Fire-proof grommets. longerons. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are. Option B. bulkheads. Option C. Correct Answer is. compression and tensile. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. stringers. Correct Answer is. Bending. Option A. NIL. Option C. compression and tensile. Airframe Structures . Torsional only. 11B. Option C.1. 2. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by. NIL. tensile and torsion. Option A. Question Number. wetting and Setting. NIL. . Question Number. Soft rubber. Fire-proof grommets. Explanation. 1. Bending.Explanation.Fuselage (ATA 52/53/56). Explanation. Bending. Question Number. None is required. 45. Explanation. 44. Question Number. Option A. CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra. help bonding of the topcoat. Explanation. Explanation. 5. Option B. spreading and setting. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. compression loads are taken by. 3. Option B. Correct Answer is. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding.2. Explanation. Correct Answer is. acid etch. wetting and Setting. A module 7 questions. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. provide flexible surface for the top coat. . CAIP AL/7-2 para 2. frames. In semi-monocoque construction. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'. stringers. we use. acid etch. provide shiny surface for the topcoat.6 (last sentence). alkaline etch. Option C. Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash. Most large transport aircraft skins are. 6. stringers. Explanation. bulkheads. solvent etch.1.Option B. 4. Option C. wetting and gripping. help bonding of the topcoat. The purpose of a primer is to. 5. Option A. CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4. 9. . 8. Correct Answer is. PLI washers can be used more than once. Skin. 7075.4. providing they are used in critical bolted joints. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Stringers. 5056. PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication. Longerons. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8. Option C. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Skin. Explanation. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 2024. Frames. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. In a monocoque structure. which component carries the majority of the loads?. A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28. CAIPs AL/7. 2024. Which of the following statements is correct. Correct Answer is. Bulkheads.3. Stringers. Question Number. Correct Answer is.2 para 3. Stringers. in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?.Option A. Option B. 7. Ferrous alloys. what method of measurement is normally used?. Magnesium alloys.3. should only be used once. Aluminium alloys. Nickel plating. Magnesium alloys. Option B. Longitudinal alignment method. Question Number. 11. CAIPs BL/7-3. Correct Answer is. 12. Explanation. Cadmium plating. Lateral alignment method. Explanation. Steel tape and spring balance. 10. Option A. Option B. . Paint remover substances. are damaging to some aircraft parts. Option C. 13. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Option A. are damaging to some aircraft parts. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Zinc plating. CAIPs AL/7-12 3. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?. Option C. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?.Question Number. Steel tape and spring balance. should only be used once. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft. Cadmium plating. Correct Answer is. Question Number. CAIPs BL/7-2.5 i. Option C. Option B. .1 says 'slightly smaller'. Aircraft Electrical Systems. chisel off the rivet head. to seal the cabin. to provide external streamlining.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet'. chisel off the rivet head. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 3. Option B. 16. Correct Answer is. drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank.htm. Question Number. Option A. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. We chose the former. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Option C. to prevent corrosion. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Option B. chisel off the rivet head. Option A. and remove the shank with a metal punch. 14. Correct Answer is.Explanation. Explanation. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. Pallett Page 24. chisel off the rivet head. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Explanation. 15. Battery trays are.tpub. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. CAIP AL/7-2 para. metal for earthing purposes. but CAIPs BL/6-29 para 10. Question Number.7.7 and http://www. To remove a rivet. to seal the cabin. Option A. should only be used once. Option B. Option C.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. absorbent to soak up electrolyte. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3. because it is current. Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig. Chapter 51 is General Practices. Option C. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt. Material under repair. Option C. Question Number. Option B. lubricate the shank and threads. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together. . as well as acting as a skin strengthener. Explanation. according to SB instructions. Correct Answer is. Option B. it is necessary to. Material under repair. Option A. Open to interpretation. Correct Answer is. jury strut. NIL. 20. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?. Option C.4). Option C. Option B. Edges of repair metal. according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC. Option A. lubricate the collar. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:. Option A. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. also acts as a. 19. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. shear tie. Correct Answer is. http://www.hi-shear. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. Option B. 17. Explanation. tear stopper.Question Number. Middle of repair. Option A. tear stopper. Correct Answer is.com/fasteners Question Number. Explanation. A bonded waffle doubler. Question Number. Explanation. 18. Added strength. Correct Answer is. Why is a joggle joint used?. Option A. Mechanical and specific. Question Number. high strength high stiffness. Smooth contour of surface. Option B. Explanation. 22. Option B.Question Number. Explanation. Mechanical and cemented. 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%. Mechanical and cemented. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for. NIL. NIL. . Explanation. Option A. high strength high stiffness. 23. Question Number. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are. NIL. Option A. 21. 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Smooth contour of surface. Option B. Correct Answer is. high strength high toughness. Question Number. Mechanical and specific. BL/6-20 5. Explanation. 24. Option C. low strength high toughness. So countersunk rivets do not need to be used. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. Correct Answer is. Option C. What are the types of true bonded joints?. Option B. Arguably c also. 26. Option A. struts. Question Number. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached. Blind rivet. they can be ignored. Pop rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved. which type of fastener would you use?. but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'. they provide extra protection.Question Number. Hi lock bolt. Option C. Question Number. To provide a smooth contour to surface. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. . they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. Explanation. Pop rivet. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids. Why is a joggle joint used?. Option C. Skin panels may be strengthened by. Question Number. 28. Explanation. they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. 27. Explanation. Option C. To provide a flush fit. To add strength. 25. Option A. Option B. Option C. Option B. Option B. Blind rivet. Option B. stringers. Correct Answer is. To provide a flush fit. Option A. cleats. Question Number. before a crack starts. One boom mounted under a web. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Option B. to slow its rate of propagation. Install critical stress panels or plates. Option B. NIL. Install critical stress panels or plates. Explanation. after a crack starts. Option A. vinyl and. Option B. NIL. A crack stopper is fitted. Correct Answer is. to slow its rate of propagation. asphalt. Synthetic resins are made from nylon. Option A. Correct Answer is. Two booms separated by a web. 30. Explanation. Option C. before a crack starts. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?. . Option C.Correct Answer is. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?. Determine the fuel tanks are empty. Option A. 32. Two booms separated by a web. Correct Answer is. Option A. 31. Explanation. 29. Option C. Two webs separated by a boom. NIL. to slow its rate of propagation. Explanation. before a crack starts. to prevent its initiation. NIL. Remove all optional equipment. stringers. Question Number. cellulose. Option C. Correct Answer is. . acrylics. Question Number. 36. In a fully monocoque fuselage. Option B. vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane. skin. acrylics. Intercostals are. takes all the loads in the skin. Correct Answer is. Option C. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. skin. Explanation. NIL. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as. 33. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. shares the loads. Option A. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it. Question Number. is easier to manufacture. NIL. frames. Explanation. failsafe joints. 34. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. Question Number. all the loads are carried by the. 35. Explanation. NIL. Option A. Question Number. shares the loads. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. Option A. Option A. longerons. compression ribs in cantilever wings. Option B. Option C. NIL. aluminium alloy. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels. Symmetry checks should be carried out. too much kinetic energy on landing. the battery compartment drain pipes will be. Question Number. Explanation. secondary joints. 38. failsafe joints. crack limiting joints. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels. NIL. stainless steel. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. Correct Answer is. stainless steel. plastic. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing. Option A. Option B. 39. 37. Question Number. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. . An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has. 40.Option B. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Question Number. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. too much kinetic energy on landing. Option B. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries. Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. an excessive fuel load on take-off. Correct Answer is. 1 in 400. the visual indicator will indicate. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is. help bonding for top-coat. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Option C. 1 in 200. Question Number. Option C. . toxic gases. Explanation. Option B. Option A. temperature. 1 in 600. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. Correct Answer is. When an item is cocooned. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member. Explanation. Option B. if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member. NIL. humidity. page 6-8. Option B. help bonding for top-coat. 41. humidity. Correct Answer is. Option C. 42.Option A. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat. NIL. 43. 1 in 600. Option C. Option B. provide a flexible surface for top-coat. Question Number. if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location. Bending. longerons. Option C. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by. Option A. compression. Option A. bending. Explanation. Torsional only.03. Correct Answer is. compression and tensile. Option C. Option C. Option C. NIL. Option B. Airframe Structures . compression and tensile. bulkheads. (Sometimes called a 'shear' web). Option A. 45. main spar.Wings (ATA 57). 1. Correct Answer is. stringers. Question Number. shear. 44. tensile and torsion. NIL. Question Number. 11B. Correct Answer is. Which loads do longerons resist?. takes bending and shear. Option B. tension. . Explanation. Explanation. stringers. The spar as a whole. A spar web will take loads in. The bending is taken by the booms (as compression-top and tension bottom) and the web takes the shear.Question Number.Aeroplanes . Option B. Option A. 2. Correct Answer is. skin. shear. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by. main spar. Question Number. Option B. spar cap. Bending.2. Bending. Question Number. The position of the spars. span 8 ft. mean chord 64 ft. usual airliner wing. Question Number. Ribs. Option C. 4. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option B. what gives the wing its profile contour?. The main spar takes the wing bending and shear loads.Explanation. Option C. Question Number. span squared 64 ft. An aspect ratio of 8 could mean. Ribs. AL/7-2 para 4. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. usual airliner wing. 3. On a mono-spar wing. mean chord 8 ft. span 64 ft. 5. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and.2.. . leading edge flaps. CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 2. Option A. Correct Answer is. top wing of a biplane.. span 64 ft. Option C. slots. 6. Option B. A cantilever wing is a. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Milled stringers... Aspect Ratio = span/mean chord. swept-back wing. Option B. mean chord 8 ft. trailing edge flaps. chord 8 ft. Option A. assist the main spar with operational loads. spars. injection and prepack. leading edge flaps. Explanation. brush coat. Correct Answer is. B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811. Explanation. rear main spar. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. 9. aircraft structure. NIL. Option C. The only wholly correct answer. provide redundant design. 10. . Question Number. Explanation. The principle load bearing members of the wing are. aircraft structure. fillet. Fillet seal is the first coat.no linkages. 8. Slots are fixed features . Option B. assist the main spar with operational loads. or are produced when the slats open. Option C. interfay. The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to. Question Number. Option B.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called. brush coat. support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount. The main undercarriage is attached to the. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Option A. 7. the 3 coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed as fillet. front main spar. Option C. bending moment is greatest at the root. Explanation. Correct Answer is. What is a cantilever wing?. .Option B. support the bending loads on a fuselage.1. maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering. AL/7-2 para 4. Option B. Option A. Option C. Option C. NIL. Explanation. One purpose of a rib is to. 14. struts. Question Number. Option B. Option B. spars. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. One that has no external supporting struts. ribs. One that folds for access to limited space. form the main lateral member in an aerofoil. Option A. Option C. One that has no external supporting struts. Question Number. A spar is tapered from root to tip because. A spar web is. Correct Answer is. shear forces are greatest at the root. Option C. NIL. 13. 12. NIL. bending moment is greatest at the root. One that has external supporting struts. centre of lift occurs close to the root. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering. 11. Option B. Airframe Structures . elevators. elevators. elevators. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection. ailerons. Tension. rudder. Explanation.3. stabiliser. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?. Shear. Option B. slat track. .Aeroplanes . Explanation. wing upper skin. rudder. a rib/spar joint. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Shear.uk/flightcontrols. Option C. 1. Bending. stabiliser. Option B.org. A leading edge slat is attached to the. NIL. NIL. Option B. Question Number. ailerons. http://www. front spar. rudder. Option A.b737. stabiliser. slat track.Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. spoilers. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.03. 15.htm 11B. Explanation. an area between two spar caps. A 'web' always takes shear loads.Stabilisers (ATA 55). 2. Option C. The term 'empennage' incorporates. Option C. rib. rib. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. skin panels. spar. which is done by lowering the leading edge. Explanation. Correct Answer is. will increase tailplane download. Option A. Variable incidence tailplanes. spar. Question Number. may increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft C of G position. Correct Answer is. longerons. 5. 6. spar. NIL. skin panels. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing approach and slowly at all other times. which is done by lowering the trailing edge.Question Number. . Correct Answer is. will decrease tailplane download. Option C. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb. which is done by lowering the leading edge. NIL. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are. stringers. rib. Question Number. which is done by lowering the leading edge. decreased. Option A. Option B. spar. will increase tailplane download. stringers. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane. Option B. decreased. bulkheads. Explanation. Option A. 3. Option B. Option B. the incidence of the tailplane would be. decreased. skin panels. out and landing approach and slowly during cruise always move slowly. increased. NIL. Option C. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane. rib. 4. skin panels. Option A. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and landing approach and slowly during cruise. Jeppesen 1-24 fig 1-59. AMM 27-41-00 PAGE 5 para 1. Explanation.03. if the trim wheel is turned back or forward. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly. 7. the tailplane incidence changes. Question Number.4. Option A. solenoid operated clutches. Option B.Flight Control Surfaces (ATA 55/57). A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. Option A. Option B. trim speed is depend on the flap position. a gearbox. The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane is determined by. Explanation. NIL. 11B. if the control column is moved back or forward. Question Number. is meant to trim CG of control surfaces. Option A.Correct Answer is. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane. NIL. has same effect of the balance tab. automatically if the elevator moves. Question Number. solenoid operated clutches.Aeroplanes . 1. 8. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. 2.c. direction of rotation of the electric motor. Trim rate with flaps retracted is 1/3 the trim rate with flaps extended. Option B. . Airframe Structures . Explanation. Correct Answer is. B737-400. serves as a 'servo' system of balance. Question Number. if the trim wheel is turned back or forward. balance tab 1-23 -para 3. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. has same effect of the balance tab. The fin helps to give. Aerodynamic balance. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability. Question Number. servo tabs. Correct Answer is. elevators. Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-22. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability. Option A. tabs. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. directional stability about the normal axis. Roll spoilers. NIL. mass balancing. longitudinal stability about the normal axis. Option C. Option B. NIL. Elevators. mass balancing. Option A. a horn balance. ailerons. 3. roll spoilers. Elevators. rudder. ailerons. directional stability about the normal axis. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?. Flutter can be reduced by using. 4. . tabs. Option A. Question Number. NIL. directional stability about the longitudinal axis. Explanation. will reduce aerodynamic loading. Explanation. 5. Explanation. rudder. Option C. Question Number. Elevators. Option B. Option B. will reduce aerodynamic loading.Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. . An elevator provides control about the. are isolated at high speeds. Explanation. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure. are isolated at high speeds. NIL. Question Number. 7. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible. Option C. 6. resulting in an unstable overbalance. Question Number. Option C. Option C. tends to move the control surface C of G. are isolated at low speeds. Correct Answer is. forwards.Question Number. Option C. 8. ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load. lateral axis. Explanation. Explanation. lateral axis. NIL. NIL. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft. Option A. resulting in an unstable overbalance. are isolated to improve sensitivity. Explanation. 9. Question Number. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. A flying control mass balance weight. longitudinal axis. rearwards. Correct Answer is. resulting in too much assistance. horizontal stabilizer. Option B. rearwards.close to the hinge line. forwards. resulting in loss of assistance. Option B. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line. Option A. . Question Number. Option C. excessive play in trim tab attachments. Option B. equalize aileron drag in a turn. 11. Explanation. Question Number. Control surface flutter may be caused by. Elevator. Question Number. Correct Answer is. provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move the control. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. excessive play in trim tab attachments. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?. Rudder. Aileron. equalize aileron drag in a turn. Option A. 10. 12. Option A. NIL. fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces. ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack. Option C. NIL. Option B. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to. NIL. Explanation. Option C. allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow. Option C. Option A. NIL. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs. attach weights forward of the hinge line. Rudder. high static friction in trim tab control tabs. 13. Option B. Explanation.Question Number. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. attach weights forward of the hinge line. prevent control surface flutter. make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control. Option C. Correct Answer is. is provided to. Option B. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved. Option A. by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line. Option C. 14. 15. Correct Answer is. Option B. Provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder. Option A. Question Number. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram). Option B. Option A. by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to. Option C. Question Number. increase stability. . Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7. Explanation. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line. decrease the drag when the control is deflected. Correct Answer is. 16. assist the pilot in moving the control.Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 25 Para 7. assist the pilot in moving the control. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line. Explanation. provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls. A horn balance is.2 Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. 20. placing a weight ahead of the hinge point. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. reduce the control load to zero. 19. placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface. Aerodynamic balance is used to. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. AL/3-24 para 4. Explanation. 18. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point. Explanation. a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls. prevent flutter of the flying controls. Option A. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface. make the flying controls easier to move. Option B. Option C. operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied. Option C. Option C. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end. 17. . Option C. Option A. Option B. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line. operating automatically to provide feel to the controls. make the flying controls easier to move. Explanation.Question Number. Correct Answer is. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16 Question Number. 21. A control surface is mass balanced by. Option A. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line. Option B. the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line. Option C. fitting a balance tab. Correct Answer is. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 22. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to. Option A. relieve stick loads. Option B. trim the aircraft. Option C. give more feel to the control column. Correct Answer is. give more feel to the control column. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 23. A flying control mass balance weight. Option A. tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line. Option B. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line. Option C. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible. Correct Answer is. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 24. Option A. yaw. Option B. pitch. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in. Option C. roll. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. pitch. 11B.03.5. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Nacelles/Pylons (ATA 54). Question Number. 1. Jet engines are usually mounted by. Option A. aluminium castings. Option B. forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure. Option C. welded steel tubing. Correct Answer is. forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 2. A pylon structural member supports the. Option A. centre section. Option B. engine. Option C. empennage. Correct Answer is. engine. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 3. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks. Option A. provide wing bending relief. Option B. provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing. Option C. reduce tailplane download. Correct Answer is. provide wing bending relief. Explanation. NIL. 11B.04. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21). Question Number. 1. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must. Option A. stay the same. Option B. increase. Option C. decrease. Correct Answer is. decrease. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23. Question Number. 2. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?. Option A. Vapour cycle. Option B. Air cycle machine. Option C. Pneumatic pump. Correct Answer is. Vapour cycle. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-34. Question Number. 3. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause. Option A. the cabin pressure to increase. Option B. the cabin pressure to decrease. Option C. it will not effect on cabin pressure. Correct Answer is. the cabin pressure to increase. Explanation. The discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. If line leaks , valve will close, and cabin pressure will increase. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 14-22. Question Number. 4. A spill valve opens. Option A. to control the flow to the cabin. Option B. to control the air from the cabin to outside. Option C. to prevent an excessive pressure difference. Correct Answer is. to control the flow to the cabin. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23. Question Number. 5. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by. Option A. altitude sensor. Option B. cabin over pressure relief valve. Option C. bellows in the outflow valve. Correct Answer is. altitude sensor. Explanation. CAIP AL/3-23 para 7. Question Number. 6. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant. Option A. inlet and vary the outlet. Option B. outlet and vary the inlet. Option C. inlet and outlet. Correct Answer is. inlet and vary the outlet. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-20. Question Number. 7. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control. Option A. cabin differential pressure. Option B. the rate of pressurisation. Option C. cabin air flow. Correct Answer is. cabin differential pressure. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. CAIPs AL/3-23. Question Number. 8. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is. Option A. more important in ascent. Option B. equally important in ascent and descent. Option C. more important in descent. Correct Answer is. more important in descent. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-20 onwards. CAIPs AL/3-23. Question Number. 9. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the differential capsule in the pressure controller will. Option A. let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure. Option B. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard. Option C. have a constant mass flow. Correct Answer is. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.3.13. Question Number. 10. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum. Option A. a warning light comes on in the cockpit. Option B. compressor delivery is automatically boosted. Option C. an inward relief valve opens. Correct Answer is. a warning light comes on in the cockpit. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4.4.4. Question Number. 11. A water separator is located. Option A. downstream of heat exchanger. Option B. downstream of turbine. Option C. upstream of the turbine. Correct Answer is. downstream of turbine. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16-30 or CAIPs AL/3-24 4.2.3 fig 3. Question Number. 12. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is. Option A. 500 ft. per min. Option B. 300 ft. per min. Option C. 100 ft. per min. Correct Answer is. 500 ft. per min. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23. Question Number. 13. Before carrying out a ground pressure check,. Option A. set altimeter to QNH. Option B. check all pitot and static lines are fitted. Option C. turn on all instruments. Correct Answer is. check all pitot and static lines are fitted. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 12.2.5. Question Number. 14. On touch-down of aircraft. Option A. the outflow valve will be shut. Option B. the cabin pressure will be zero. Option C. the outflow valve will be fully open. Correct Answer is. the outflow valve will be fully open. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 15. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed. Option A. 40 feet per second. Option B. 120 feet per second. Option C. 20 feet per second. Correct Answer is. 120 feet per second. Explanation. BCAR Section D6. Question Number. 16. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat, how is the heater reset?. Option A. After it cools the pilot resets. Option B. On ground only by engineer. Option C. After cooling below 300°C it auto resets. Correct Answer is. On ground only by engineer. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe pg 14-30 under Safety Features. Question Number. 17. Ditching control is used to. Option A. achieve rapid depressurisation. Option B. close the outflow valves. Option C. maintain cabin pressure at sea level. Correct Answer is. close the outflow valves. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-2 fig 5 item Y, CAAIPs Leaflet 5-2. Question Number. 18. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be. Option A. all closed. Option B. all open. Option C. removed. Correct Answer is. all open. Explanation. AL/3-23 12.3.4. Question Number. 19. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to. Option A. set QFE. Option B. disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve. Option C. reset/disable the pressure controller. Correct Answer is. reset/disable the pressure controller. Explanation. The pressurisation system must be controlled manually. Setting QFE is for the automatic control of the valves. Question Number. 20. In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler. Option A. is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. Option B. delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground. Option C. cools the vapour further to prevent slugging. Correct Answer is. is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14020/css/14020_106.htm Question Number. 21. In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by. Option A. restricting compressor outlet. Option B. restricting compressor inlet. Option C. restricting duct outlets. Correct Answer is. restricting compressor outlet. Explanation. Best answer we can get to a bad question. Heat is added by varying the amount of compressor outlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger. Question Number. 22. Which of the following can be used on the ground?. Option A. Turbo fan. Option B. Turbo compressor. Option C. Turbo brake. Correct Answer is. Turbo fan. Explanation. Used on air conditioning systems to supply air on ground. Question Number. 23. Air conditioning systems. Option A. increase and decrease the temperature of air. Option B. increase the temperature of air. Option C. decrease the temperature of air. Correct Answer is. decrease the temperature of air. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 Para 2.2. Question Number. 24. An air cycle machine turbine. Option A. drives compressor to increase temperature. Option B. drives compressor to decrease temperature. Option C. drives compressor to pressurise aircraft. Correct Answer is. drives compressor to increase temperature. Explanation. The compressor is to INCREASE the temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be extracted. Question Number. 25. In the flightdeck of a pressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows. Option A. cabin differential pressure. Option B. cabin pressure altitude. Option C. aircraft altitude. Correct Answer is. cabin differential pressure. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-23. Question Number. 26. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM. Option A. will have decreased pressure and temperature. Option B. no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor. Option C. will have increased pressure and temperature. Correct Answer is. will have increased pressure and temperature. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 27. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between. Option A. 8,000ft and standard barometric pressure. Explanation. B757 has an additional water trap at the inlet of the turbine. 30. Correct Answer is. 29. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. Option C. sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin. cabin will not pressurise. Question Number. . Option B. Option B. Option C. Option A. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency. Question Number. If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft. NIL. Correct Answer is. cabin will not pressurise. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?. At the inlet of the compressor. maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off. Correct Answer is. NIL. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential. aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens. outflow valve opens immediately. CAIPs shows it at the outlet of the turbine (not one of the answers). Option A. At the outlet of the compressor. Option B. At the inlet of the turbine. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency. Explanation. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure. cabin remains at sea level untill maximum differential. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure. 28. Option C.Option B. Option A. if the engines are shut-down. At the inlet of the turbine. 0.5 lbs per minute per person. Option B. Correct Answer is. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?. before distribution. Correct Answer is. AL/3-24 Figure 3. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Option B. AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect of the Spill Valve). 33. . It is not affected by altitude. It is not affected by altitude. TCV and mixer valve. TCV. 0. flow control valve. Question Number. Option C. At the outlet of the blower. At the outlet of the blower. Explanation. In an air conditioning system. At the inlet to the cabin. 34. Question Number. At high altitudes. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. the air goes through the. Option B. Correct Answer is.5 lbs per minute per person. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?. At the inlet of the blower. Option A. TCV. At low altitudes.Question Number. 31. BCAR Section D. 10 lbs per minute per person. 1 lbs per minute per person. Option B. Option C. 32. Option C. Correct Answer is. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes. controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin. Question Number. Explanation. 35. NIL. Option A. Option C. In a cabin air recirculation system. control the airflow out of the cabin. Option B. 40% of recirculated air. 50% of fresh air. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. 40% of fresh air. Option B. controlling the output of the compressor. 38. recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions. controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin. NIL. Option C. Explanation. Option B. NIL. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is. most important in ascent.Question Number. 60% of fresh air. equally important in descent and ascent. 60% of recirculated air. Question Number. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to. ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded. most important in descent. Cabin pressure is maintained by. . 40% of recirculated air. Explanation. Option C. 60% of fresh air. Option C. Option A. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. controlling the supply of air to the cabin. 36. most important in descent. 50% of recirculated air. CAIPs AL/3-23. 37. 42. the same for both the above sources. reduce the air supply temperature. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 3. . hottest from an engine compressor bleed. spill valves. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to. varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system. hottest from an engine compressor bleed. Option B. Option A.5. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. engine speed variations. Question Number.Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. reduce the air supply temperature. controlling the water vapour in the supply. spill valves. 41. Option B. Option A. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by. increase the air supply temperature. AL/3-24 Fig. Explanation. provide an emergency ram air supply. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by. automatic control devices. AL/3-24 2. 40.3/2. AL/3-24 4. hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box. Option B. Option C. Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.2. 39. Correct Answer is. Option A. is less than ambient R. Question Number. Question Number.C. Inward vent valves will operate when. the cabin R. limit negative differentials. the differential pressure is constant. Question Number. is more than ambient R.C. a double scale on the aircraft.O. Option C.C. Correct Answer is. a special instrument. During normal pressurized climb following take-off. Option C.C. Explanation. 43. the cabin R. limit positive differentials. Option C. is less than ambient R. CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3. Option C. Inward vent valves are fitted to. cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude. increase ventilation.O. Option B. Option B. a double scale on the aircraft. the cabin R.C. Explanation.2. Explanation.O. limit negative differentials. Option B. . Option A. CAIPs AL/3-23 Fig 3.O.O. Option A. warning lights. 46. 44. CAIPs AL/3-23 6.Explanation.O. Cabin rate of climb is shown by. aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude. Option B. 45. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2. Option A. depressurising after descent.C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor.Correct Answer is. Option B. contaminate the air. Option B. Option C. conditions and aircraft altitude. I. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the. Correct Answer is. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. Option A. 49. cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude. In pressurized aircraft. Explanation. conditions. altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure. Correct Answer is. not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard. adding heat to the pressurising air. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between. temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by. 8. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft. . Question Number. an internal oil leak will. 50. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-23 6.A. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2. Question Number. Option A. 47. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2.000 ft and sea level. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number.S. CAIPS AL/3-24 4.A.S.2. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. extracting heat from the pressurising air. extracting heat from the pressurising air. Explanation. Option B. varying cabin pressure. pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I. 48. Option C. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. Option B. 54. contaminate the air. Question Number. diff. despite compression heating. same as ambient temperature. lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating. CAIPs AL/3-24 4. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. not contaminate the air.2. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for. Option C. reducing pressure. Option B. Question Number. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. 52. 53. air supply heated by the pressurising process. When an aircraft has reached max. Option A. Option A.Option C. NIL. driving the units compressor. Correct Answer is. a little more than ambient air temperature. pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. driving the units compressor. Explanation. AL/3-24 4. air supply heated by the pressurising process. Option A. 51. . Option B.2. Question Number. a little more than ambient air temperature. Correct Answer is. Option C. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be. NIL. Option C. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from. Explanation. 2 p.S. Explanation. Explanation.s. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. NIL. Option C.i. Question Number.s. . Explanation. 58.5 p. Correct Answer is. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a. NIL. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting. 1. discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination. pressure controller/discharge valve combination.i.S.16 p. pressure controller/discharge valve combination. 57.s.s. Option C. Option A. 0. cabin pressure gauge.i. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number.Option B. Option A. 0. cabin altimeter. cabin V. Explanation. 56.I. cabin V.i. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding. 55. Option C. Question Number. constant mass flow. 0. Option A. Option B. constant mass flow. pressure controller/dump valve combination.I.5 p. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a. Correct Answer is. all pressurising air to be spilled overboard. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 3. CAIPs AL/3-23 9. 000 ft. inwards relief valves.Option A. Explanation. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor. CAIPs AL/3-24 4. safety relief valve. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. Option C. Option A. air supply to the cabin. at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10. air supply to the cabin. the rate of pressurisation. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3. CAIPs AL/3-23. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 61. airport altitude selectors. directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.000 ft. Option B. Correct Answer is.2. Option B. Explanation. Option C.000 ft. Correct Answer is. safety relief valve. cabin pressure differential.1. Explanation. . Option A. CAIPs AL/3-23 6. at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10. Question Number. air supply to the cabin. the cabin is always maintained at sea level. 60. Option B. The function of spill valves is to control. 59. Correct Answer is. Option A. Pressurisation control ensures that. Option B. disconnected. Option C. discharge valve opens. connected. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is.2 iv. pressure controller should be adjusted. outward relief valve is inoperative. and lower altitudes. Option B. Question Number. discharge valve closes. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 62. Explanation. Option A. connected. discharge valve should be adjusted. to give a heating effect.Question Number. Option C. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 10. CAIPs AL/3-23 12. to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere.5. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3. cross connected. Explanation. Option A.L. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the.2. Question Number. 63. discharge valve opens. pressure controller should be adjusted. Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be. NIL. mass flow ceases through the cabin. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. Correct Answer is. . and lower altitudes.2. 64. Option A. Option C. Option B. 65. Explanation. Closed.2. 69. Question Number. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?. Explanation. Pressure discharge valve. Pressure relief valve. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B.3. Option A. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?. AL/7-11 3. Both position. most undesirable because of the drag created. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Option B.Question Number. Pressure regulator controller. Option B. Open. 66. Correct Answer is. Yes. 68. Yes. NIL. Option C. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is. Option A. Closed. No. most desirable because it increases the air-flow. Option A. not effective in any way. Option C.10.2. AL/3-23 12. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. most undesirable because of the drag created. Question Number. AL/3-23 12. Occasionally. Option B. Pressure discharge valve. Explanation. To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?.3.9. Option A. Explanation. 67. the heat exchanger cooling air is. 71. ram air from ambient conditions. . to achieve maximum pressure differential. Question Number. bled from cabin air supply duct. air bled directly from engine or through blower. combustion heater. Option C. to allow controlled pressure during descent. thermal heater. 72. Question Number. AL/3-24 3. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Question Number. exhaust heater. Option B. to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater. Option B. Explanation. In a turbo fan cold air system.3. Correct Answer is. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft.Question Number. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 5. this is an. 73. Explanation. Option A. Option B. 70. higher differential pressure than the discharge valve. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. A safety valve will normally relieve at. exhaust heater. Option A. ram air from ambient conditions. lower differential pressure than the discharge valve. NIL. to allow controlled pressure during descent. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside the muffler. negative differential pressure. Option C. ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude. Question Number. whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude. NIL. Option C. the cabin climbs to a lower altitude. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . NIL. Explanation. Question Number. whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to. constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin. 77. cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft. Option B.Correct Answer is. Conditioned air is. Option A. 75. Question Number. 76. Option B. The principle of cabin pressurisation is. temperature and pressure adjusted. Option A. moisture removed. Explanation. Question Number. higher differential pressure than the discharge valve. maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained. 74. Option B. all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere. cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude. the cabin climbs to a lower altitude. Option A. constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Explanation. temperature and pressure adjusted. Option C. the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced. Option C. oxygen added. NIL. NIL. ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded. regulating the mass flow into the cabin. regulating the position of the inward relief valve. you should use. . Option C. Option C. Throttle switches. Question Number. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches overridden. Option A. NIL. 81.Option C. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?. not operate. Explanation. Flap position switches. Option A. Option B. remain closed. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by. Throttle switches. Option C. Question Number. regulating the position of the outflow valve. 78. Option A. Undercarriage switches. Correct Answer is. Explanation. then the outflow valve will normally. 79. Explanation. 80. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. remain closed. regulating the position of the outflow valve. maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. When carrying out a ground pressure test. Question Number. Explanation. open. Option A. NIL. the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system. NIL.U. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from. 84. gas turbine compressor bleed air. the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system. . 83. 20 percent. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of. Correct Answer is.Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. gas turbine intake ram air. 20ºC to 24ºC. Option C. Option C.U. Option B. Option B. Option B. NIL. 12ºC to 18ºC. NIL. 60 percent. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. gas turbine compressor bleed air. Correct Answer is. combination. 18ºC to 24ºC.P. Correct Answer is. a G. 82. 30 percent. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at.P. Option A. Question Number. 18ºC to 24ºC. Option B. ground trolley and clean air. Explanation. Option C. Option A. ram air at the wing leading edge. Question Number. and A. 30 percent. NIL. the gas turbine exhaust. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. Question Number. The cabin differential pressure is. Option C. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 87. Question Number. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. Option A. the compressor of the gas turbine engine. Option A. 85. the dump control valves. the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. the engine exhaust heat. The cabin altitude is. Option B. 86. . the vent valves. Explanation. the outflow valves. the warm air supply is provided by. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by. Option C. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. Explanation. NIL. Option A. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. NIL. Option C. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system. Option B. Question Number. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. Correct Answer is. Option A. 88. Correct Answer is. the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is.Question Number. the outflow valves. Option B. the compressor of the gas turbine engine. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. NIL. Cabin pressure differential is the difference between. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine. increases. 89. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin pressure differential is not exceeded. Option B. Option C. Question Number. decreases. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level. Option A. sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet. Oxygen content increases as mass per unit volume. Explanation. 90. remains constant. Option A. the oxygen content. Correct Answer is. 92. Option C. Option A. 8000 ft. Option B. NIL. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first. 91. increases. Correct Answer is. then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger. Option B. then directly to the heat exchanger. Correct Answer is. ISA conditions and aircraft altitude. When air is pressurized. and sea level. . Your interpretation of the question may differ. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. passes across an expansion turbine. Option B. Question Number. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine. but NOT as a percentage of the other gases in air. passed across an expansion turbine.Question Number. Option A. A negative differential pressure is prevented by. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. AL/3-23 Fig 2 Pg 3. an inward relief valve.5 PSI. 93. the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10. the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure. an inward relief valve. Option A. the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure. provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits. Question Number. Correct Answer is. zero. a rate of descent.000 ft is reached. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. NIL. . the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant. a rate of descent. Correct Answer is. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet. Option B. NIL. Explanation. -0. the cabin rate of change indicator will show. Question Number. Option B. NIL.Correct Answer is. Option C. 96. +0. 95. Explanation. Option A. Option A. a blow off valve. Option A. a rate of climb. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'. If cabin pressure is increasing. a spill valve.5 PSI. 94. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of. Question Number. Question Number. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is. 98. automatic.9 PSI. Option A. Option B. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C. NIL. Correct Answer is. selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve.A. 99. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8. Question Number. . conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C. Explanation. the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be. The humidity within a passenger cabin should. 97. Rate of change of cabin pressure is. +9. Explanation. -0. Option B. Question Number.A.Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. be between 30% and 70%. Explanation. 100. Question Number. Option C. Option A. selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller. Option C. selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller.25 PSI.A.U. by surface heat exchange in the C. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 770 Fig 16-34.5 PSI at cruising altitude. Correct Answer is. by compression of ambient air across a turbine. Option A. Option B. not be greater than 40%.U. not be less than 60%. NIL. NIL. be between 30% and 70%. Question Number.5 PSI. Option C. If the ambient pressure is 2.U. Correct Answer is. the height at which the aircraft is flying. 103. the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height. 25 ft/min. Option B. NIL. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system. Option A.4 PSI. apply suction to remove air and moisture. Option B.5 PSI. Question Number. apply suction to remove air and moisture. Correct Answer is. Option C. 25 ft/min. Explanation. 11.6 PSI. flush the system with a solvent. Option B.Option A. 200 ft/min. 5. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. Option A. 8. the selected cabin height. 11. 300 ft/min. Correct Answer is. BCAR Section D.4 PSI. 102. Option C. the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height. NIL. Cabin differential is determined only by. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. pre-heat the system to 100°F. 101. . Correct Answer is. NIL. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than. Option B. Question Number.Question Number. 105. ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure. Option A. Option C. remain at ground level pressure. during descent. 104. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order toIf the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. NIL. Option A. the cabin pressure would. To avoid discomfort. the rate of change of pressure should be low. thus increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage. Option A. Explanation. NIL. Explanation. 106. Option B. remain at ground level pressure. the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system. Correct Answer is. particularly. Option C. ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression. Option B. maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes. the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to. Question Number. engine noise coming through the ventilators. Explanation. A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce. maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes.5. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system. Correct Answer is. . during ascent. Option C. AL/3-24 fig 3 and para 2. Correct Answer is. 107. Option B. Question Number. Option A. decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft. decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft. the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system. Option C. when cabin pressure is decreasing. 108. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling. Option A. when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure. reducing the pressure of a vapour. Option A. when climbing with pressurization OFF. Question Number. Option C. to restore ground level conditions is the cabin. NIL. Option B. the blower or compressor. Option C.2.3. Question Number.000 ft.Correct Answer is. Explanation. 111. Option A. sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin. Option B. during descent. changing a liquid into a vapour. Explanation. the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached.2. changing a vapour into a liquid. the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10. 109. Explanation. system heat is removed from the charge air by. Option B. Correct Answer is.000 ft. changing a liquid into a vapour. If an aircraft is operating at 40. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. AL/3-23 6. . Option C. 110. Option B. Question Number. Option A. An inward relief valve will operate. the cabin discharge valve. AL/3-24 para 13. the pressurization ensures that. when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure. Question Number.000 ft. The pressure controller activates. after an aircraft has landed. the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. safety valve operation. Explanation. When cruising near the operational ceiling. Option A. a gauge being used. Option A. collect any rain accompanying the ram air. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 113. pressure controller hunting. Option B.Option C. A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to. pressure controller hunting. on a specific indicator. The cabin rate of climb is shown. inward relief valve operation. by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator. Question Number. extract surplus water from the charge air. Option B. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere. 114. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent. Explanation. extract surplus water from the charge air. as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Option C. Option C. Option C. Question Number. the spill valve. Option B. . the flight altitude set on the pressurization control panel may be 500 ft. the cabin discharge valve. 112. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. on a specific indicator. An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of an aircraft is not subjected to. Explanation. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger. 118.Question Number. fan. temperature and humidity. temperature and humidity. Option B. engine bleed air or blower air. Option C. forces which would cause the aircraft to explode. air bled from the main cabin supply duct. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. temperature. turbine. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Explanation. ambient ram air. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Correct Answer is. Explanation. . 116. too high an internal pressure. a high negative differential pressure. thermal inertia and heat load. Option A. Option C. humidity. 115. Correct Answer is. ambient ram air. the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the. Question Number. Option C. Option B. 117. Option A. Question Number. Option C. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by. a high negative differential pressure. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by. temperature only. fan. inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger. Correct Answer is. vapour converts to a liquid. Option C. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. dots. variable. Question Number. Option C. Option A. . Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. When dissipating heat in a vapour cycle system. Question Number. 122. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 121. Option B. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. inward relief valve position. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are. Option B. cabin mass air flow. Option B. dots. vapour converts to a liquid. constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes. Option A. Question Number. the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is. 119.Explanation. rectangles. Option B. liquid converts to a vapour. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Option C. Option A. Option A. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Option C. In most pressurization systems. outflow valve position. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of. Correct Answer is. 120. the liquid sublimates. Explanation. depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude. triangles. restricting compressor outlet. Option A. Option A. closing all valves and inlets. Option C. Question Number. restricting compressor outlet. Option C. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. restricting compressor inlet. Question Number. deploying life rafts. Ditching control is used for. Question Number. Option B. on the ground. Explanation. In an air conditioning system. at low altitudes. ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. A cabin humidifier is operated. rapid aircraft depressurisation. closing all valves and inlets. Option B. Option B. outflow valve position. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. at high altitudes. Explanation. Option C. . 124. Explanation. at high altitudes. heat is added to the air by. 126. 125. Option A. 123. restricting duct outlets. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude. Option B. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Question Number. Correct Answer is. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?. Option B. Option C. cabin safety relief valves. 10 lbs/minute. decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air. Correct Answer is. cabin safety relief valves. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. 128. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Question Number. Question Number. inwards relief valve. 127. Option A.05. 129. not affect the charge air pressure. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by.Instrument Systems (ATA 31). Correct Answer is. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will. Explanation. ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times. Explanation. Whatever the captain sets. spill valves. 10 cubic feet/minute. . decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Option C. Option B. 10 cubic feet/minute. Option A. 11B. ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes. increase the pressure but decrease the temperature.1. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Instruments/Avionic Systems . Question Number. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. 4. 500 ft. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on. Option C. NIL. 3. Machmeter. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at. Option B. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 223. Aircraft on the ground with one engine running. 10 000 ft radio alt. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?. 2 500 ft radio alt. Option B. Option A. 2.500 ft. . VSI. Aircraft in the air with both engines running. VSI. Option C. ASI. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 10. 2 500 ft radio alt. Option A. 2. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-.000 ft. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on. Option C.500 ft. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. 1 000 ft radio alt. 2. Explanation. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. Eismin p323-324. Option A. 1. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. cos of latitude. Altimeter.000 ft. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 103. . Option B. Correct Answer is. tan of latitude. 6.3web. The runway heading is. Option A. Question Number. above 10. Altimeter. Option B. Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes. Option B. Option A.ne.html Question Number. vertical speed indicator. Explanation. when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?. Air speed indicator. 8. 5. 7. http://www2. Option C. Option C. Option B. QFU. Explanation. QDR. always. sin of latitude. Correct Answer is. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure. Option C. always.Question Number. QDM. Option A. Question Number. A machmeter works. QFU. always except on the ground. Correct Answer is. cos of latitude. NIL.jp/~jahfa/kokuningen/Q.tky. ADI. Angle of attack. Inner gimbal. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Correct Answer is. move probe up. move probe down. move probe up. Correct Answer is. . move probe laterally. Option A. IRS. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 358. Option C. Option B. Option A. Move probe up. Radio marker information is displayed on. Option B. 9.Pallett Page 73. 12. EICAS. ADI.Explanation. Option C. Accelerometer. so it operates sooner. Question Number. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?. Question Number. closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point. Option B. Option C. Option C. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 45. Outer gimbal. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Angle of attack. 10. Option B. 11. Explanation. Rectification is to. HIS. Rotating vane. Option A. Where is alpha angle used?. Aircraft Instrument and Integrated Systems . Question Number. NIL. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Vibration monitoring signals are sent. 15. direct to the gauge. Explanation. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from. 16. A & P Technician Airframe Textbook Chap III page 592. Question Number. via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge. Option A. via a signal conditioner to the gauge. Option A. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would. Option C. 14. This is from. Option B. via a signal conditioner to the gauge.25. carry out a check swing after fitment. NIL.25 mb or QNE. align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error is induced. Option C. QFE. Question Number. Option B. . Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. 13. 1013. Question Number. QNH. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and Avionics Page 90. Inner gimbal.Correct Answer is. 1013. 1013. Option C. In Airways flying. what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?.25. Explanation. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from. dampen sudden pressure changes. Explanation. Correct Answer is. This is to. Correct Answer is. 19. alt. Question Number. alt. Rad. zero and minus. alt. zero and positive. Option B. reaches 2. goes out of view. aft of combustion chamber.Option A. in the combustion chamber. prevent FOD ingestion. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number.500 ft. Rad. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient. aft of the combustion chamber. . allow for calibration. Explanation. Option B. Error warning in view. The hot junction of thermocouple is. When a rad. Option B. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. Option C. Option A. Option C. ambient and minus. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. dampen sudden pressure changes. Explanation. 18. in the instrument. Correct Answer is. Option A. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195. alt. Rad. Option C. The hot junction is the sensor. The restriction is to damp out surges in pressure. Option B. what happens to the display?. aft of combustion chamber. goes out of view. ambient and minus. flag in view. 17. 20. Correct Answer is. Yellow. below ambient pressure. blue. Option B. thrust levers. Option C. thrust levers. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________ ________________ when close to stall. This is. electrically. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Red. magenta. Red. flap position. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. above zero pressure. cyan. Option C. Option A. . by kinetic heating. electrically. 23. Question Number. by compressed bleed air. Pitot tubes are heated. Option C. Pallett Page 290. blue. Explanation. Option B. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury.2. Option A. green. Correct Answer is. yellow. blue. Red. Explanation. fast/slow switch.Question Number. Explanation. above ambient pressure. 22. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient. NIL. Option B. green. Correct Answer is. 21. Option A. Question Number. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?. Option C. CAIPs AL/10-1 Para 3. Explanation. Option B. below ambient pressure. +/.200 feet plus +/. map. radar. Attitude is on the EADI. 26. ILS. Explanation.Question Number. Option A.8. Explanation.eur-rvsm. plan. Option A. plan. The HSI provides information on. radar. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure.3 Question Number. . Option A. Option B. a full test of the system should be carried out. map. ILS. VOR. Option B. http://www2. Explanation. aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised. 25. Option C.htm PAra. Correct Answer is. aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns.3 Question Number. attitude. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system.50 feet for instrument errors. The sensing element of the flux valve. and a quick release disconnect connection is disturbed. VOR.com/library. +/.50 feet for instrument error. a full test of the system should be carried out. the maximum tolerance for the system would be. a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so.8. attitude. Option C. ILS. the allowances for the system should be halved. +/. radar.eur-rvsm. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM. plan. Correct Answer is. Option C. VOR. Question Number. Option B.300 feet plus +/. Option B. Correct Answer is. 24.50 feet for instrument error. NIL. 27. http://www2. VOR. Option C. +/. ILS.htm PAra.500 feet for the system overall. NIL. map.200 feet plus +/. Option A.com/library. Option B. 31. 28. Displacement. micrometer. Option C. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees. 0 degrees. Option A. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure. Question Number.Avionics Fundamentals Page 106-110. Question Number. +2 degrees. Option A. -2 degrees. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. 5 degrees. 1 degrees. Option B. Jeppesen . 3 degrees. Question Number. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?. Explanation. an inclinometer. Explanation. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/10-5 9 note. Question Number. an inclinometer. The coefficient C is. spirit level. Explanation. Option C.Correct Answer is. AL/10-5 page 6 table 1 (-2)-(-2)/2 = 0. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing. Tied down. Option B. 0 degrees.2 degrees. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. the maximum allowable error is. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with. 5 degrees. Option C. South error . 29. Option A. 30. Option B. Option A. Explanation. compensated by applying a constant torque. Correct Answer is. toppling. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page 129. Option B. Question Number. AL/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom. Tied down. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for. in the air only. Option A. drift. Space.Option C. NIL. Option C. NIL. Option A. Question Number. compensated by applying a constant torque. Question Number. Explanation. maximum at the pole. drift. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 192. both on the ground only and in the air. Correct Answer is. Random drift of a gyro is caused by. Option C. The apparent wander for directional gyros is. on the ground only. 33. Option B. both on the ground only and in the air. Option A. Option C. Explanation. erection. Option B. A radio altimeter system can be self tested. 34. dependant on longitude. 32. Option A. . 35. Explanation. Correct Answer is. error in roll when aircraft is turning. Question Number. at 360 degrees. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. 39. 37. Question Number. .2. This is normal. on any heading. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. when 90 degrees apart. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence. Option C. when 45 degrees apart. Explanation. when 90 degrees apart. Option A. Correct Answer is. Gauge requires re-calibration. Angle between flinders bars determines their correcting influence. gyro friction and unbalance. AL/10-5 9. Question Number. Coefficient A is adjusted. EPR gauge reads just above 1. Option B. on any heading. Transmitter is unserviceable. Option C. Question Number. NIL. gyro friction and unbalance.Option B. when parallel to each other. With engine static and engine blanks fitted. Option C. Correct Answer is. at 270 degrees. aircraft turning with an error in roll.7. Explanation. Gauge requires re-calibration. 38. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 104. 36. Option A. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. correction card for master only. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. 20 inches. Lower. Both. So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass. Correct Answer is. Upper. Explanation. Upper.uk/probes. Option B. 24 inches. Explanation. each having a corrected compass card. NIL. 40. Option B.2 Note. Correct Answer is. http://www. what does amber indicate?.org. both are adjusted on each heading. AL/10-5 9. master and slave adjusted. On the CWP. Option A. Option C. 24 inches.Option A. 41. Cautionary info. master adjusted. 42. Option C. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?. slave adjusted. Warning. Correct Answer is. slave adjusted.htm Question Number.b737. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Explanation. master adjusted. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?. .2. Present status. Al/10-5 9. Cautionary info. Option B. each having a corrected compass card. Question Number. Option B. Option C. When power is switched off. Correct Answer is. Avionics Fundamentals Page 185. Explanation. 43. restricts inner gimbal. Option B. required flight path compared with horizon. ADI. HIS. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. restricts inner gimbal. On an EADI the command bars show the. stops outer gimbal. Option A. Energised off. restricts outer gimbal. required flight path compared with aircraft position. Option C. Which instrument shows Decision Height?. ADI. required flight path compared with aircraft position. EICAS. Question Number. Pitot static probes. INS. Option B. the gimbal brake. . Option C. 44.Question Number. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 212/213. Explanation. Used for gimbal lock prevention. Option B. Correct Answer is. ECAM. INS. Avionics Fundamentals Page 128. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. required flight path compared to planned flight path. 46. 45. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?. Option A. Option A. Option C. altimeter. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?. As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer. (Note: VOR is 5° per dot. FMC. standby altimeter. Secondary Radar is ATC transponder encoder. In a compass system. 49. Correct Answer is. FMC for nav.allstar. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?. Explanation. ASI. 47. Explanation. Option B. secondary radar. ILS is 2 1/2° per dot). NIL. mach-meters. The airdata computer inputs to. secondary radar. http://www. Option A.edu/aero/FltDirS. Option A. cabin rate sensors. 6°. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft.5°. ASI. 50. FMC. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is.fiu. Option C.25mb). 10°. 10°. 48. Question Number. what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it . altimeter. altimeter. mach meter. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft.Question Number. As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013. 2.htm Question Number. normally fitted?. Option C. Option C. an azimuth gyro. Option C. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 199. Option A. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips. 53. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. 52. Option C. . an azimuth gyro. An RMI has inputs from VOR and. At what height does the rising runway appear?. Question Number. no other sources. Option C. 51. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 303. Option A. Explanation. 200 ft. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 194.Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. direction and attitude. course and attitude. Option A. course and direction. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 182. Option C. Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft. 300 ft. In a modern HSI. Option B. course and direction. Correct Answer is. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips. A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft. Option B. a remote compass input. 200 ft. Option B. 500 ft. Correct Answer is. the displays are. 56. http://www. Correct Answer is. Option A.html Question Number. Question Number. reservoir. DME hold. compressor inlet. Gyro pivot friction. Option B. Option C. 55. Option A. An H on the EHSI indicates. Errors when aircraft banking. Correct Answer is. faster. Compared to air driven gyros. NIL. Explanation. reservoir. Option C. NIL. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from. 57. Option C.co.uk/instruments/readout-pneumatic. slower. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 102. same speed. Option B. the electric gyro runs. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Earths rotation. compressor outlet. Option A.demon. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 358. .gage-technique. DME hold. Option A. Earths rotation. Option B.Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. VOR hold. faster. Option C. 54. Question Number. ILS approach. What is apparent drift due to?. Explanation. Question Number. An aircraft airspeed indicator has. Correct Answer is. Alt. True airspeed and speed of sound. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance Page 189. . True airspeed / indicated airspeed. 60. continues to indicate but with a warning flag. NIL. Correct Answer is. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view. Option C. a leak check is always required. Explanation. How does a machmeter work?. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule. 58. static to the capsule. Option C. Option B. Option C. a leak check is not required. Question Number. Option C. Harris Page 20. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings. Option A. Option A. Option B. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule. the rad. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. pitot to the capsule. Question Number. Option A. Indicated airspeed / temperature. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer. Option A. Question Number. Kermode Mechanics of Flight 10th edition p339. 59. Above 2500 ft. Explanation. 61. True airspeed and speed of sound. Option B. pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored. and Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 65. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. 62. Option A. go hard over. gives heading with respect to magnetic north. Option C. Option C. two coils only. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is.Explanation. 64. oscillate. NIL. . NIL. Option A. this is due to insufficient de-aeration. this has no influence on compass readings. Question Number. The needle of a resolver is connected to. Explanation. oscillate. be sluggish. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. changes heading with the heading of the aircraft. 63. Option A. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit. two coils and a permanent magnet. Question Number. two coils only. this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying. The flux detector element. Question Number. changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed. NIL. Option C. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude. Option B. two coils and an electromagnet. gives heading with respect to magnetic north. Question Number. position indication will. Explanation. Option B. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. Correct Answer is. Torque synchro. Option B. Option C. 179 degrees. NIL. 67. A compass swing must be performed. Explanation. 179 degrees. Explanation. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?. The swing can be performed at a later date. Option A. Question Number. what type of compensation is there?. Option A. Which of the following is correct?. . A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Option A. 69. A measuring device.html#BUBBLES Question Number. Option B. AL/10-5 Table 1 columns 7 and 8. Explanation. A compass swing must be performed.se/files/compass. NIL. 180 degrees. Hair spring.silva. 181 degrees. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Servomotor. Torque synchro. Option A. http://www. AL/10-5 10. 66. Option C. To steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer. 68. Option C. Option B.Correct Answer is. In a Machmeter. No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old. Question Number. this is due to insufficient de-aeration. Explanation. Correct Answer is. decrease the rate of precession. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Square-Law compensation. decrease the rate of precession. Correct Answer is. Option C. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?. Option A.Option B. decreasing the rotor speed. Option B. 73. . David Harris Page 33. Explanation. Correct Answer is. increases with a higher rotor speed. Question Number. NIL. Option C. David Harris Page 33. 72. increases with a lower rotor speed. increasing the rotor speed. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. decrease the rate of precession. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. 70. Random drift of a gyro is caused by. Compensation is not required. Increase the rotor speed. Option A. Decrease the rotor speed. Question Number. Compensation is not required. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Explanation. Increase the rotor speed. No effect. Explanation. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by. is unaffected by changes in rotor speed. Option C. Correct Answer is. decreasing the mass of the rotor. the rate of precession. David Harris Page 33. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. 71. increases with a lower rotor speed. increasing the rotor speed. Option A. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro. Option B. rotation of the earth. Option C. aircraft turning with an error in roll. Correct Answer is. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33 (Real Drift). Question Number. 74. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of. Option A. increased reaction of the air from a bisected port. Option B. decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Option C. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Correct Answer is. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 49. Question Number. 75. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by a. Option A. mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal rings. Option B. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the athwartships axis. Option C. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis. Correct Answer is. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51 (see page 48 for 'athwartship). Question Number. 76. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected. Option A. for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'. Option B. during turns. Option C. when the fast erection button is pressed. Correct Answer is. during turns. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51 bottom. Question Number. 77. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to. Option A. give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn. Option B. give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn. Option C. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn. Correct Answer is. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 51. Question Number. 78. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after switching on because. Option A. excessive hunting will take place. Option B. overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur. Option C. the normal erection switch contact will burn out. Correct Answer is. excessive hunting will take place. Explanation. AL/10-2 9.3.2. Question Number. 79. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to. Option A. the effect of the earth's rotation. Option B. unbalance of the gimbals. Option C. bearing friction. Correct Answer is. the effect of the earth's rotation. Explanation. AL/3-23 12.3.2. Question Number. 80. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has. Option A. a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal. Option B. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal. Option C. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal. Correct Answer is. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 46/7. Question Number. 81. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves would be increased if the. Option A. angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases. Option B. rotor speed decreases. Option C. spring tension was increased. Correct Answer is. rotor speed decreases. Explanation. Nil. Question Number. 82. The Turn and Slip indicator employs. Option A. a vertical gyro. Option B. a rate gyro. Option C. an azimuth gyro. Correct Answer is. a rate gyro. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 54. Question Number. 83. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be. Option A. it would have no effect. Option B. it would under read. Option C. it would over read. Correct Answer is. it would under read. Explanation. Nil. Question Number. 84. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?. Option A. By a switch on the outer gimbal. Option B. By a switch on the inner gimbal. Option C. By a flux take-off device. Correct Answer is. By a flux take-off device. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77/78. Question Number. 85. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/- 85º?. Option A. To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly. Option B. To prevent outer gimbal rotating. Option C. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock. Correct Answer is. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock. Explanation. Nil. Question Number. 86. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately. Option A. 2,400 rpm. Option B. 4,200 rpm. Option C. 22,500 rpm. Correct Answer is. 4,200 rpm. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 53. Question Number. 87. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to. Option A. 15 sine latitude. Option B. 15 cosine latitude. Option C. 15 sine longitude. Correct Answer is. 15 sine latitude. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 37/8. Question Number. 88. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon. Option A. change in inductance to operate. Option B. change in resistance to operate. Option C. change in voltage applied to operate. Correct Answer is. change in resistance to operate. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 50/51. Question Number. 89. Precession of a gyro depends on. Option A. both answers (a) and (b). Option B. angular velocity of the rotor only. Option C. moment of inertia of the rotor only. Correct Answer is. both answers (a) and (b). Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 53. Question Number. 90. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on. Option A. angular velocity of the rotor. Option B. moment of inertia of the rotor. Option C. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor. Correct Answer is. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 33. Question Number. 91. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate. Option A. faster. Option B. the same speed. Option C. slower. Correct Answer is. slower. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 41. Question Number. 92. Gyro rigidity is proportional to. Option A. mass and speed. Option B. mass, and radius of mass from spin axis. Option C. mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis. Correct Answer is. mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 33. Question Number. 93. Gyro precessional force is. Option A. inversely proportional to the applied force. Option B. directly proportional to applied force. Option C. proportional to the square of the applied force. Correct Answer is. directly proportional to applied force. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 33. Question Number. 94. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately. Option A. 22,000 rpm. Option B. 15,000 rpm. Option C. 4,200 rpm. Correct Answer is. 15,000 rpm. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 46. Question Number. 95. A V.S.I. is connected to. Option A. vacuum. Option B. static pressure. Option C. pitot pressure. Correct Answer is. static pressure. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22/23. Question Number. 96. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates. Option A. 1,000 ft/minute rate of descent. Option B. 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb. Option C. 100 ft/minute rate of climb. Correct Answer is. 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 24. Question Number. 97. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that, to allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument. Option A. seven minutes should elapse. Option B. three minutes should elapse. Option C. fifteen minutes should elapse. Correct Answer is. fifteen minutes should elapse. Explanation. AL/10.2 8.1 c. Question Number. 98. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to. Option A. reduce compressibility error. Option B. minimize errors caused by leaks in the system. Option C. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws. Correct Answer is. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 99. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?. Option A. Inverting the gyro. Option B. Running gyro at low speed. Option C. Running gyro at high speed. Correct Answer is. Running gyro at low speed. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 100. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate. Option A. horizontal to left. Option B. vertically down. Option C. vertically up. Correct Answer is. horizontal to left. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22. Question Number. 101. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule. Option A. leads the case pressure. Option B. lags the case pressure. Option C. is the same as case pressure. Correct Answer is. leads the case pressure. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22. Question Number. 102. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level flight, cause the instrument to indicate. Option A. a rate of climb. Option B. zero. Option C. a rate of descent. Correct Answer is. zero. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22. Question Number. 103. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will continue until. Option A. as long as the force is applied. Option B. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force. Option C. plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force. Correct Answer is. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 33. Question Number. 104. An artificial horizon has. Option A. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally. Option B. the inner gimbal pivoted vertically. Option C. the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally. Correct Answer is. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 47. Question Number. 105. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to. Option A. 14.7 PSI. Option B. 100 millibar. Option C. 1 inch Hg. Correct Answer is. 14.7 PSI. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 106. In the directional gyro. Option A. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically. Option B. the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally. Option C. the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally. Correct Answer is. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 42. Question Number. 107. The millibar is a unit of. Option A. barometric pressure. Correct Answer is. Explanation. In the Turn and Slip indicator. Question Number. the spin axis is lateral. Option C. are expressed in. David Harris Page 53. Explanation. NIL.S. Option C. Option B. . the. Question Number. knots (kts). The units on the calibrated scale of a V. barometric pressure. Option A. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. hundreds of feet per minute. hundreds of feet per minute. atmospheric temperature. capsule is evacuated and sealed. 110. miles per hour (mph). capsule is evacuated and sealed. Option C. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option B. 111. David Harris Page 6. Correct Answer is. 109. Correct Answer is. the spin axis is longitudinal. the spin axis is lateral. In an altimeter.I. the spin axis is vertical. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from.Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. pressure altitude. Explanation. Option B. Option A. 108. Question Number. capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke.large aircraft are 1000s ft/min). (Light aircraft only . inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure. . 114. Option C. A rate two turn is. more instantaneous. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Option A. Option B. a venturi. David Harris Page 40. Question Number. Correct Answer is. more accurate. Option A. a tapping from the induction manifold. 360 degrees per minute. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 90 degrees per minute. self draining non-return valve. float valve. less accurate. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. NIL. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 131. more accurate. a venturi. Option B. David Harris Page 55. Explanation. Explanation. 180 degrees per minute. Option C. Question Number. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a. 113. Option B. a pitot head. NACA duct. Option C. 112. Explanation. Question Number. 360 degrees per minute. self draining non-return valve. David Harris Page 54. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is. Explanation. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s). carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s). descending. Correct Answer is. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a. it is necessary to. David Harris Page 22/23. AL/10-1 15. 117. Correct Answer is.Question Number. balance weight. climbing. vertical speed indicator to indicate climb. altimeter reading to decrease. Question Number. altimeter reading to increase. Option A. David Harris Page 8. Option A. U-spring acting on the capsule. calibrate the instrument concerned. Option C. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule. Option A. Option B. . Explanation. Option A. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection. in level flight. Option B. altimeter reading to decrease. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply. 115. altimeter reading to decrease. Correct Answer is. 118. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is. Option C. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.5. Option B. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the. descending. Explanation. Option C. 116. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule. Option C. Option B. 100 deg. Option A. 122. . Question Number. Option B. Option B. David Harris Page 54.Explanation. Option B. only when a leak is suspected. a continual precession in roll. Option C. a roll error and gyro topple. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Respectively. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. and 32 deg. 120. 180 deg. Explanation. Option B. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed. 212 deg. Respectively. Correct Answer is. NIL. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is. only when an instrument is changed. rate 1 turn.5. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed. and 100 deg. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause. Question Number. 119. Option A. Option A. rate 2 turn. Explanation. a continual precession in roll. a pitch error and gyro topple. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a. rate 3 turn. Option A. A pitot or static leak check is carried out. Option C. Question Number. and 100 deg. Question Number. AL/10-1 15. Respectively. rate 1 turn. Option C. 121. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 15°C. NIL. Explanation. 212 deg. 124. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. the angle between True North and the desired track. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. 14. Option A. David Harris Page 87. 125. in degrees from True North. and 100 deg. Option C. NIL. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Question Number. in degrees from True North. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured. Option C. 126. Correct Answer is. limit the outer gimbal movement. Explanation. in degrees from the aircraft's heading. Option B. in degrees from the desired track. Option B.69°C. Aircraft heading (HDG) is. NIL. Respectively. Option A. 32°C. Option A. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Correct Answer is. reduce gimbal nutation. . 123. Question Number. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. Explanation. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to. the angle between True North and the actual track. Option B. 15°C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is. by a control synchro. different variation. instrument location in the instrument panel. 128. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation.mil/ops/DOT/school/L23CockpitFam/magneticcompass. equal variation. 129. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin. Option B. Position error is caused by. Agonic lines link places of. David Harris Page 17. Option A. prevent gimbal lock. Correct Answer is.cap. Option C. Option A. zero variation. by a differential synchro. Option B. Option B. . mechanical imperfections in an instrument. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20. pitot head position. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. Question Number. by a control synchro.cfm Question Number. zero variation.af. Option A. https://ntc. 130. 127. add 112 degrees. by a torque synchro. Explanation. Explanation.Option C. pitot head position. Option A. prevent gimbal lock. Option C. Correct Answer is. eddy current or variable spring. by a torque synchro. 132. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Explanation. Option B. Option C. add 273 degrees. use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32. Explanation. Option A. by a control synchro. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either. Question Number. 133. Question Number. Correct Answer is. eddy current or air dash pot. viscous. viscous. eddy current or air dash pot. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. 131. Option C. Option C. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is. Option B. Explanation. add 273 degrees. Correct Answer is. variable spring or moving iron. eddy current. rotated slower than air driven gyros. . Option A. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 41. Option A. by a differential synchro. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20. NIL. Explanation. Electrical driven gyros are. rotated faster than air driven gyros. rotated faster than air driven gyros. by a control synchro. Option C. rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros. viscous. NIL.Option B. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. If the bulb circuit is broken. Correct Answer is. The supply of Desynn indicating system. will not affect the aneroid capsule. Option B.Question Number. Option B. When an aircraft is descending. David Harris Page 5. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the resistance will be infinite. is alternating current at 400 c/s. 137. Option A. the pressure in the altimeter case. Option C. . Option A. outer ring to move. Question Number. full scale deflection. will cause the aneroid capsule to expand. is direct current. and that drives it toward fsd. Question Number. Think of it this way . there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. Option C. Option C. is alternating current at 50 c/s. With the gyro at normal running speed. Option A. Explanation. Option B. a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will cause the. outer ring to move. NIL. This will give. no scale deflection. outer and inner ring to move. Option A. 136. mid scale deflection. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract. inner ring to move. Option C. full scale deflection. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract. 134. Correct Answer is. 135. Option B.resistance increases with temperature. Explanation. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable. by the pitot system. Option C. Option C. 140. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B.A. by the static system. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set. is direct current. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. 138. NIL. . Correct Answer is. Explanation. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?. above sea level. Option B.S. Explanation. NIL. by the vacuum system. Question Number. removing the static connector from its static vent. Question Number. Option A. indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I. by the static system. 141. standards. Explanation. removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes. Explanation. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE). Option A. indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the atmosphere by. 139.Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 9. Option B. An altimeter is operated. Option B. Option C. David Harris Page 8. Option B. Corrects for capsule elasticity. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. rotor. Explanation. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?. Horizontal. Option C. Corrects for capsule elasticity. . Option A. The capsule in an altimeter responds to. David Harris Page 36. 144. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Option A. instrument case. Horizontal. Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. David Harris Page 5. Compensates for change in density. absolute pressure. Explanation.Option A. Option C. David Harris Page 5. inner gimbal. instrument case. Both vertical and horizontal. absolute pressure. gauge pressure. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the. Vertical. Option B. Question Number. 142. Explanation. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. differential pressure. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. 143. it does not require warming up. 145. Explanation. 147. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of. Option C. 148.S. Explanation.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. remains the same. Option B. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one. Correct Answer is. Explanation. increases. Question Number. Option A.A. directional gyro. The advantage of an instantaneous V. mach number and temperature.I. Option A. 146. rate gyro. Option C. vertical gyro. Option C. airspeed and temperature. directional gyro. mach number and temperature. decreases. For a particular I. as the density decreases with altitude. Correct Answer is. over a conventional one is.S. Option C. . Question Number. Option B. Question Number. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a. airspeed and altitude. NIL. increases. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 272. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems.S. Explanation. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. David Harris Page 24.A. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one. David Harris Page 27. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. it does not require pitot/static pressure. the T. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182 Figure. NIL. is anti-freeze oil. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182. both ends sealed. one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Decrease the rotor speed. 151. 152. circular cross section. decrease the rate of precession. decrease the rate of precession. toroidal cross section. Correct Answer is. Increase the rotor speed. decrease the rate of precession. Explanation. Option A. Option B. No effect. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Bourdon Tubes have. Correct Answer is. 149. Option B. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments. Question Number. is silica-gel.Question Number. Question Number. In a Bourdon tube. 150. oval cross section. Option C. oval cross section. . What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?. is silica-gel. Increase the rotor speed. is sodium-bicarbonate. NIL. Option A. NIL. from the aircraft ATC system. Brahm's press principle. NIL. http://www. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation.Question Number. anti-freeze oil. Option A. is known as. Boyle's Law. an earth gyro.htm Question Number. Question Number. kerosene. Option C. and its gimbal restrained either electrically or by a spring. Question Number. Brahm's press principle. Option A.com/pressure/datasheets/PDH. Charle's Law. Explanation. . The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is. Option C. 155. Option B. Explanation. castor-oil. 156. castor-oil. 153. Option A. NIL. dialled in by the pilot. The distance readout on an HSI is. Correct Answer is. from the aircraft DME system. Correct Answer is. from the aircraft DME system. 154. a rate gyro. a tied gyro. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation.bcmsensor. Option C. Option C. Option B. Question Number. attitude rate gyros. One dot VOR deviation represents. Option A. Explanation. NIL. NIL. vertical gyros. force per unit volume. Option A. Option B. To reduce 'backlash'. To reduce 'backlash'. David Harris Page 52. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option B. Option C. a rate gyro. Explanation. weight or mass. Option C. force per unit area. vertical gyros. directional gyros. 157. Pressure may be expressed in. . Option C. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?. To return the pointer to zero. 160. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. force per unit area. 5°. Option B. 2 miles. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's. 159. NIL. Question Number. 158. Explanation. To act a controlling force. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. an ILS station. Correct Answer is. Question Number. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure. Option B. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures. atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure. Option A. Question Number. 162. . An absolute pressure gauge measures. Explanation. Correct Answer is.Option C. Option C. Option A. NIL. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to. Option A. has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type. Option C. pressures extremely accurately. the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure. 163. 161. NIL. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type. Explanation. NIL. Option B. 164. Correct Answer is. has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated. absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure. Question Number. 1¼°. 5°. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. indicates 1. Explanation. 985.014. 1. such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge. . Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. David Harris Page 9.i. 1. Option C.s.7 p. the altimeter will read. a VOR station. Option A.s. an ADF station. 167. Explanation. the airfield height. Explanation. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter. NIL. zero. NIL. this represents.i. 166. Correct Answer is.s. Option B. Option C.s. 1. Correct Answer is. Question Number. A pressure gauge.000 p.Option B. 165. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir.014.s. screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir. off scale. Option A.000 p.i. Question Number. Question Number.i.7 p. To fill a Dead Weight Tester. Option B. In terms of absolute pressure. Option C. a VOR station.i.3 p. Option C. remove platform and fill cylinder. the airfield height. aircraft ADF system. Explanation. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection. The applied pressure to an A. QFE is set and it should read airfield height. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. compass system. varies with the. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale. Option C. square root of the speed. square of the speed. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. The HSI compass card is positioned by the. Option B. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. heading select knob. Option C.S. Correct Answer is. Question Number.I. is static pressure only. Correct Answer is. 169. 170. Correct Answer is. Option C. David Harris Page 13. cube root of the speed.S. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale. Correct Answer is. is pitot pressure only. Option B.Question Number. Option B. the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale. Option B. square of the speed. NIL. 171. compass system. are pitot and static pressure. are pitot and static pressure. David Harris Page 15. Option A. .I. Option A. 168. Explanation. the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale. The supply to an A. encounters a head wind of 50 knots. decelerating. 172.Question Number. Question Number. 350 knots. Option A. its ground speed is. Explanation. carriers. 174. the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations. accelerating. Option B. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations. accelerating.I. less than the ground speed. the difference in amplitude of the two r. climbing. Correct Answer is. 450 knots. Question Number. Option A. equal to the ground speed. Option B. Option A. Option C. Option B. Option C. NIL. 173. 400 knots. Option C. David Harris Page 13. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to. 175. greater than the ground speed. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations. Explanation. . Question Number. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots. NIL. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. The capsule for an A. airspeed will be. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems.f. Option A. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air. Correct Answer is. will be expanding when the aircraft is. equal to the ground speed. Explanation.S. sound relative to the aircraft's altitude. Explanation. you are checking for leaks in the. David Harris Page 19. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. instrument case. Option B. 178. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed. Correct Answer is.4 and para below. two coils. 177. Question Number. 179. Explanation.. Option A. three coils. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 186 Fig 7. 176. Option A. Option C. Option C. two coils. one coil. Option A. ranging bar and screws are fitted. a. and Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 45. bi-metal corrector is employed. Option A.18 and text below.S. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level. Option C.I. . ranging bar and screws are fitted. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter. 350 knots. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed of. Question Number. Question Number.Correct Answer is. 10 to 1 gearing is used. Question Number. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 44 fig 2. The moving element of a ratiometer has. To provide a linear scale on an A. Option A. zero feet. Explanation. below zero feet (negative altitude). the required path with respect to actual path. NIL. After passing over the station. below zero feet (negative altitude). pressure chamber. Explanation. Option B. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120° and 'TO'. Option C. the indications will be. Option A. NIL. Explanation. 182. positive altitude. 181. true horizon. Correct Answer is. Option C. the required path with respect to actual path. The command bars in a flight director system indicate. Option B. Correct Answer is. the altimeter should read. 300° and FROM.Option B. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013. Correct Answer is. Option A.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020. instrument case. Option C. . Question Number. 180. Question Number. 120° and FROM. 300° and TO. Explanation. Assuming aircraft is on the ground. Correct Answer is. Question Number. on the same course. NIL. Option C. 120° and FROM. capsule stack. the actual path with respect to required path. Option B. 183. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Isogonal lines link places of. Option A. . Explanation. the magnetic bearing. using fluid.Question Number. 185. Option C. tying it to the case. Option B. Option A. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type. NIL. Option A. Option C. different variation. the relative bearing. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the relative bearing. Option B. The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window. Option B. Option C. Explanation. NIL. locking. Correct Answer is. zero variation. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity. Option A. 186. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type. equal variation. using fluid. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is. precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt. NIL. Option B. the complimentary bearing. 184. Question Number. A compass is made aperiodic by. equal variation. Explanation. Option A. If True Airspeed is 470 knots. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 81. David Harris Page 14. Question Number. David Harris Page 49 (acceleration error). Explanation. 296 knots. 662 knots. Option B. 278 knots. Option C. In an Artificial Horizon. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. displacement of erection control device. 550 knots. Erection Error is caused by. 187. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. Option A. what is the Equivalent Air speed?. Correct Answer is. Option C. 278 knots. Option B. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by. Option A. 304 knots. 304 knots. Correct Answer is. Option C. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. 189. . Question Number. Question Number. 188. 190. 293 knots.Explanation. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots. Option A. bottom lightness of inner gimbals. Explanation. True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. what is the Calibrated Airspeed?. bottom lightness of inner gimbals. Option C. displacement of erection control device. Correct Answer is. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. Option B. Option C. longitudinal axis. After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing. Explanation. both a) & b). the radio magnetic indicator. magnetic heading. Option B. longitudinal axis. the course deviation bar. Option B. lateral axis. Correct Answer is. displacement of erection control device. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. both a) & b). . The manual VOR input is for. NIL. the course deviation bar. 191. an orifice. Explanation. a capillary. the resultant correction is known as. NIL. 193. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option A. David Harris Page 64/65. NIL. 194. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's. 192. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option A. the ADI. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. both lateral and longitudinal axis. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees. Option C. The coefficient C is. Explanation. This is not he same as a previous question. 196. Option C. AL/10-5 Table 1. mercury switch on outer ring. you would. correct heading. Question Number. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by. Option A. Explanation. . Explanation. Question Number. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of. +2 degrees. Explanation. set it up the same as the one removed. Option A. an adjustment nut on inner ring. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system. an adjustment nut on inner ring. Correct Answer is. -2 degrees. series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor. residual deviation. carry out a new compass swing. 198. set it to zero datum. Option C. South error + 2 degrees. carry out a new compass swing. 0 degrees. Option A. 197. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. residual deviation. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 45. NIL. -2 degrees. Option C.Option B. 195. Option B. Correct Answer is. http://www2. Option C. when Mcrit is reached.br/Boeing727/Manual/warnings. Option C. pitot. http://www. pitot and static. Machmeters work on. when Mcrit is reached. 200.ig. altitude information.com. Explanation.htm Question Number. .300ft system. Option A. Explanation. +/. +/. Correct Answer is. pitot and static.Option A. Correct Answer is.com/library. Explanation. Option B. +/-50ft for instrument error. +/-50ft for instrument error. Correct Answer is. +/. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM. NIL. approach to or deviation from selected altitude.eur-rvsm.htm Question Number. NIL. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. 199.domingoaereo. NIL. Option A. 201. selection of altitude. Option B.200ft system. when Mach 1 is exceeded. NIL. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn. maximum tolerance for the system is.hpg. static. when envelope limit is reached.300ft system. approach to or deviation from selected altitude. +/. Option C. Correct Answer is.500ft system tolerance. Option A. +/-50ft for instrument error. David Harris P17 ASI Errors (3). plan. compression of air in the tube at high speed. Option B. Option B. 203. vertical across the earth. Explanation. blockage in the pitot tube. Correct Answer is. VOR. ILS. An HSI provides what information?. horizontal at the magnetic equator. Option C. vertical at the poles. Option C. compression of air in the tube at high speed. attitude. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. plan. Question Number. NIL. ILS. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems . VOR. Option A. vertical at the poles. 205. Correct Answer is. Explanation. map. Option C. It is required. map. 202. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by. There is an air bubble in the compass:. It is due to high altitude. Correct Answer is. horizontal at the magnetic equator. radar. Option C. attitude. radar. VOR. ILS. Option A. misalignment of pitot head. VOR. 204. NIL. It is due to high altitude. Explanation. plan. horizontal across the earth. The fluid is not aerated properly. The earth's magnetic field is. Option A. Option A. ILS. map. to compensate for expansion of the fluid. Option B. Option B. Question Number. .Question Number. Option C. Option B.Question Number. Question Number. A. Instruments/Avionic Systems . to actuate on. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 189. Emergency frequency is.C. Option A. Autopilot servo brake is energised. A. Explanation.C. 121. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage. Option A. 11B. However. 3. to actuate off. Heavy passenger aircraft. 1.Avionic Systems. 121. Option B. 206.5 Hz.5 Hz. A flux detector output is a.2. A. 123.5 Hz. Option C.C. Explanation.05. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage. 2. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 142. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47. to actuate off. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?. voltage. Aerial work aircraft.C. Light aircraft. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 125. . voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage. prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. at the same time as the clutch. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is.5 Hz. rectified D. no direct reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found. Correct Answer is. Light aircraft. Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14. Option B. Less than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS. 112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Correct Answer is. 5. JAR OPS 1. ILS. Correct Answer is.1 MHz is what frequency?. Option A. VHF. VOR. Question Number. Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13. Option C.820 or 1. .Explanation. VHF. Explanation.850. 4. VOR. 121. VHF. 112. Question Number. Option A. VOR.5 MHz is what frequency?. ILS. Explanation. 118-137 MHz is VHF frequency. Option B. Correct Answer is. use cellulose paint. Option C. On a fibreglass aerial. . use any paint. 7. 6. Not cellulose. Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-2 8.1. Explanation. Option B. do not use cellulose paint. Option B.2. Polyurethane. what paint should be used?.Question Number. CAIPs RL/2-2 8. Option A.2. Not cellulose. Option A.1. Correct Answer is. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna. Option C. do not use cellulose paint. Cellulose only. Question Number. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Two. Option B. Three. 8. Option A. Four. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-36.Question Number. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 81. Option C. . Three. 9. ILS marker beacon lights are. blue. Explanation.Question Number. amber. amber. white. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 312. blue. blue. Option B. Option C. . blue. amber. green. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24. Correct Answer is. green. white. white. Explanation. a HF frequency. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 69 shows this as a localiser frequency. 111. an ILS frequency.Question Number. .1 MHz is. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. a VOR frequency. an ILS frequency. Option C. 10. Option B. . energised off. energised at the same time as the clutch. Explanation. Option C. Pallett Page 142. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is. energised off. energised on. Correct Answer is.Question Number. 11. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option A. 850 c. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-25. 121. 12. 121. .Question Number.5 kHZ.5 MHz. Option C. Option A. 121.5 MHz. Correct Answer is. The aviation distress frequency is.5 MHz.820 or 1. JAR OPS 1. 122. Explanation. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Option C.Question Number. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to. 2500 ft. Eismin Page 323 . . Option B.324. 13. 100 ft. Option A. Correct Answer is. 2000 ft. 2500 ft. an ILS frequency. .118 MHz are VOR frequencies. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14. Option A. 112 . Explanation. an ADF frequency. Option C. Option B.Question Number.1 MHz is. Correct Answer is. 112. a VOR frequency. 14. a VOR frequency. Question Number. 15. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?. Option A. Very High Frequency. Option B. Low Frequency. Option C. High Frequency. Correct Answer is. Low Frequency. Explanation. Decca navigation is low frequency. Question Number. 16. Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?. Option A. VOR. Option B. DME. Option C. Loran C. Correct Answer is. Loran C. Explanation. Loran C is a type of LF Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Also Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell Page 101. Question Number. 17. A GPS satellite will come into view. Option A. 20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Option B. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Option C. 10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Correct Answer is. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Explanation. Elevation mask' is 15 degrees. Question Number. 18. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to. Option A. transport category aircraft only. Option B. private aircraft. Option C. aerial work and transport category aircraft. Correct Answer is. transport category aircraft only. Explanation. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N. Question Number. 19. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is. Option A. to allow the pilot to override. Option B. to limit the range of control movement. Option C. to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway. Correct Answer is. to allow the pilot to override. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Pg 289. Question Number. 20. Track mode of an RA is operational. Option A. from 0 to 2,500 feet. Option B. from 1.0 to 100 feet. Option C. above 10,000 feet. Correct Answer is. from 0 to 2,500 feet. Explanation. The radio altimeter is operational from 0 - 2500 ft Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 223. Question Number. 21. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?. Option A. 1. Option B. 3. Option C. 2. Correct Answer is. 2. Explanation. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160. Question Number. 22. Wavelength of band radar is. Option A. 3 cm. Option B. 5 cm. Option C. 10 m. Correct Answer is. 3 cm. Explanation. Introduction to Avionics Dale Cundy Page 82. Question Number. 23. Precipitation static is caused by. Option A. lightning strikes. Option B. HF radiation. Option C. skin to air particle collisions. Correct Answer is. skin to air particle collisions. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics - Eismin page 211. Question Number. 24. HF aerials have weak points designed at. Option A. both ends. Option B. the front end. Option C. the back end. Correct Answer is. the back end. Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-2 para 2.2.4. Question Number. 25. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?. Option A. 1000 MHz. Option B. 1030 MHz. Option C. 1090 MHz. Correct Answer is. 1090 MHz. Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals page 211. Question Number. 26. CAT 2 RVR limit is. Option A. 1200 ft. Option B. 1000 ft. Option C. 10,000 ft. Correct Answer is. 1200 ft. Explanation. CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page 199. Question Number. 27. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is inhibited?. Option A. THS. Option B. Elevators. Option C. Ailerons. Correct Answer is. THS. Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-35. Question Number. 28. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will. Option A. angle of incidence remains the same. Option B. increase the angle of incidence of the THS. Option C. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS. Correct Answer is. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 29. In autopilot, the control column. Option A. does not move. Option B. moves in pitch. Option C. moves in pitch and roll. Correct Answer is. moves in pitch and roll. Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-47 (Parallel system). This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft. Question Number. 30. Option A. VOR. Option B. LORAN C. Option C. ILS. A hyperbolic system is. Correct Answer is. LORAN C. Explanation. Loran C is a type of Omega Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Question Number. 31. When is autothrottle disengaged?. Option A. On landing. Option B. After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency. Option C. On selection of thrust reverse. Correct Answer is. On selection of thrust reverse. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286. Question Number. 32. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause. Option A. column will not move and trim system will move. Option B. column to move but trim system not to move. Option C. column to move and trim system to move. Correct Answer is. column to move and trim system to move. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-47 - This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft. Question Number. 33. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?. Option A. Number of pulses per signal. Option B. Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second. Option C. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second. Correct Answer is. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 34. Option A. 400 m. Option B. 200 m. CAT 2 RVR limit is. Option C. 800 m. Correct Answer is. 400 m. Explanation. CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. 1200 ft = 400m Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page 199. Question Number. 35. How many programs can a FMC store?. Option A. One current. Option B. Two. Both active. Option C. Two. One active and one standby. Correct Answer is. Two. One active and one standby. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 399 on. Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00 page 201. Question Number. 36. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at. Option A. take off. Option B. approach. Option C. cruise. Correct Answer is. take off. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 286. Question Number. 37. How does an IRS calculate velocity?. Option A. Integration of accelerometers. Option B. Differentiation of laser gyro. Option C. Double integration of accelerometers. Correct Answer is. Integration of accelerometers. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 191. Question Number. 38. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?. Option A. Glideslope. Option B. VOR. Option C. Localizer. Correct Answer is. Glideslope. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187. Question Number. 39. Glideslope controls autopilot in. Option A. yaw. Option B. roll. Option C. pitch. Correct Answer is. pitch. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187. Question Number. 40. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at. Option A. all voltage levels. Option B. low current levels. Option C. high voltage levels. Correct Answer is. low current levels. Explanation. Reference found in an older version of A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 700 (Not in latest edition). Quote 'If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers, the static discharge occurs at lower current and more frequently'. Question Number. 41. What is B-RNAV?. Option A. Indicates true airspeed. Option B. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint. Option C. Ability to store 6 waypoints. Correct Answer is. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint. Explanation. See Module 11 Forum. Explanation. 44.Question Number. 75 MHz. 45. . ADF. Option C. Option C. Option B. Question Number.6cm. Land based. RA. Ref Boeing and Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-27. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters. Question Number. What is the wavelength of C band radar?. Most aircraft systems use about 5. NIL. 43. An AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based). Option C. 42. DME. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse. Explanation. Option A. ILS. Correct Answer is. VOR. Option A. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 17 m. ILS. Option B. ADF. VOR. 7 cm. C Band is 4 . Correct Answer is.8 cm. ILS. Option B. 7 cm. Option B. Option A. What is primary radar?. Radar that gives height and position. 100 MHz. ILS. 3 cm. Option A. by pilot on selector panel. NIL. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?. automatically. Question Number. Pallett. 49. Option B. Question Number. Option B. 75 MHz. the autopilot motor. The manual VOR input is for. The mach trim is initiated by. by a switch. Amber. Explanation. Page 231. a PCU. . by a switch. course deviation bar. Option C. 47. 48. Option B. Pallett. the autopilot motor. Option C. Question Number. Automatic Flight Control. Option A. Explanation. RMI. 50 MHz. Option A. B737 MM Chapter 34-31-02. 4th Edition Page 183/4. course deviation bar. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. glideslope.Option C. Correct Answer is. TCAS is selected. Option C. not available in cruise. Explanation. an electric motor. 46. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. Automatic Flight Control. by pilot on selector panel. Explanation.robins. receiver. Correct Answer is. 51. Laser gyros are. Correct Answer is. . Correct Answer is.af. NIL. 52. Explanation. Option C. White. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Fifth Edition Eismin Chap 13 page 271. processing unit. For aircraft with dual CMCs. space. Laser gyros. must be connected to the left side. aligned to the magnetic north. Option C. must be connected to the left side. Explanation. 50.htm Question Number. Correct Answer is. when only one CMC is available. http://www. it. Option B. A GPS system is formed from. Blue. control. Option B. control. 53. display unit. Question Number. Page 219 fig 14-2.Avionics Fundamentals. Amber. user. Option A. processing unit. Option C. Jeppesen . Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99. interactive console. must be connected to the right side. Option B. aligned to the true north. space. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. user. Option A. can be connected to either side. Option C. aligned to the aircraft structure. satellites. aligned to the aircraft structure.mil/lkn/jssmogps. Explanation.Option B. Pallett. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is.Option A. for turn command back-up. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. in any order. 4th Edition Page 121/122. changes with barometric altitude. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. followed by glideslope. Explanation. . changes with radio altitude. Question Number. glideslope first. Option B. A radio coupled approach is. Option A. have rotational parts. Option C. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 184-185. 55. Option B. Option A. followed by glideslope. Correct Answer is. Avionic Fundamentals page 263. 54. Automatic Flight Control. Option B. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel. Option C. Explanation. for yaw damping compensation. Explanation. for turn coordination. 56. do not have rotational parts. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS. followed by localiser. have movable parts. Option A. localiser first. changes with radio altitude. do not have rotational parts. for turn coordination. does not change. localiser first. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99. UHF. Option C. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles. Question Number. Option C. 57. What frequency are VOR and ILS?. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for. Option A. Advances throttles. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 286. 60. HF communications. on left side of control wheel. Option C.Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. 59. Option A. Explanation. VHF. Automatically switches off. JAR 25. Automatically switches off. Correct Answer is. VHF. weather radar. Option A.1329 (d). HF. Stays armed for go around in an emergency. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles. Option C. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. An aircraft lands in autoland. Option B. . Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426. Option B. Correct Answer is. marker beacons. Option B. 58. NIL. What happens toautothrottle?. Explanation. Option B. on right side of control wheel. Correct Answer is. HF communications. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. on the ground by the pilot. throttle'. red caption and aural 'pull up. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. a localizer and the marker beacons. Option B. Question Number. a localizer and a glide slope. Option B. a glide slope and the marker beacons. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. amber warning. by calendar date monthly. 64. Option A. Option C. Option A. The components of an ILS are. 62. Option A. 61. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'. in the air by the pilot. VHF.Question Number. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give. Correct Answer is. FMC has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan. in the air by the pilot. Question Number. VHF. NIL. HF. Correct Answer is. undercarriage. flaps. a localizer. . Option B. 63. Option A. UHF. a glide slope and the marker beacons. a localizer. Option C. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'. Question Number. ILS and VOR operate in which range. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-1. lateral steering. Option A. Explanation. fly right. the glideslope provides. 750 ft. the flag. Explanation.Explanation. vertical steering. the deviation indicator will show. Question Number. 500 ft. Option C. Correct Answer is. fly left. fly right. Option B. Question Number. Option C. 1000 ft. 68. 67. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69. Option B. Question Number. VOR. Option C. distance checks. 65. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69. Option A. . If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates. ADF. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 73. Option B. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. In ILS. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?. NIL. Explanation. 66. 500 ft. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. vertical steering. Option A. Option C. Question Number. NIL. 70. take off. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for. Correct Answer is. 69.e left. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?. location. FMC via CDU. Correct Answer is. cruise. BITE. NIL.Option C. 71. FMC via CDU. Dataplate on the FMC. The purpose being to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i. 72. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. take off. Option B. magnetic orientation. Option C. ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all. Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. aircraft type. Explanation. Option A. approach. Correct Answer is. glideslope. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:. glideslope. Option B. NIL. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. location. Explanation. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?. Option B. Option C. 150 Hz right of runway centerline. the aircraft must fly. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. inner gimbal. Explanation. Explanation. 90 Hz left of runway centreline. up. NIL. 90 Hz below the glide path. nowhere . 75. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach. Question Number. Option B. 90 Hz left of runway centreline. 150 Hz left of runway centerline. outer gimbal. GPWS has only connection to the RA. all gimbals. 150 Hz above the glide path. Of the three. 150 Hz right of runway centerline. Option C. all gimbals.this is normal on an ILS approach. Radio altimeter. Option A. 73. INS has mercury switches on. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 116. . Option B. Option C. Air speed indicator. down. Pressure altimeter. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. 74. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. It does use barometric vertical speed however. Question Number. Explanation.Option A. 90 Hz right of runway centreline. Radio altimeter. Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 70. Option B. down. Option B.117. Option A. VHF and UHF. From VOR and ADF systems. 190 .95 MHz.1150 KHz. Option C. By modulation of an audio tone. 76. 190 . From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?.1759 KHz. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 197. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?. Option B. 79. Correct Answer is. Option A. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?. VHF. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal. From VOR only. From ADF only. From VOR and ADF systems. . Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13. VHF and UHF. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option C.1759 KHz. Option C. 77. Option A. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal. HF. By using an alternate frequency. 108.Question Number. Option C. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106. Correct Answer is. 78. Explanation.00 . 1025 . To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display. NIL. Option C. NIL. http://www. 82. operate?. Option A. Flaps/undercarriage. NIL.com/content/aviation/14014/css/14014_166. Option A. Correct Answer is. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather radar?. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). How does it . NIL.html Question Number.com/town/pipexdsl/r/arar93/mds975/Content/aerials2. Option A.tpub. 80. Option C. Correct Answer is. To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band. 81. Correct Answer is. Option C. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath.Explanation. Explanation. Rudder/ailerons. To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length. Option B. Autothrottle. 83. http://dspace. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance. Question Number. Explanation. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance. Option B.dial. http://www.htm Question Number. To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground.htm Question Number. Flaps/undercarriage. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?. Explanation.artietheairplane. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.com/radar.pipex. Option B. suspended between two springs in a tube. 86. Explanation. 85. NIL. not the accelerometers. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass. In an IRS system you would expect to find. Option B. and is not remote). Explanation. Option C. Option B. Option C. an azimuth gyro system. Question Number. (Note: in b. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 256. Explanation. a remotely mounted mass on the airframe. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN. after a B or C check has been completed. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224. daily. Correct Answer is. Explanation. . ring laser gyros. Option A. Correct Answer is. It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS. three strap down accelerometers. ring laser gyros. Option C. a mass suspended in free air. Option A. It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies. it is the system which is strapdown. every 28 days. azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved). every 28 days. Correct Answer is. 84.Option A. Option C. (Note: the mass is suspended in fluid. suspended between two springs in a tube. Option B. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN. in c. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Assuming they mean a strapdown system. Option A. Question Number. Option B. The FMS navigation database is updated. 136 MHz. 89.Question Number. Option B. Explanation. demand. Explanation. follow up. 87. as part of the passenger telephone system. Option A. NIL. Error. follow up. Error. NIL. correction. Question Number. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a. . Correct Answer is. correction. hi tone chime. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 295.136 MHz. 108 . communications between the aircraft and base. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. command. Correct Answer is. hi tone chime. Option B. What are the main areas of the autopilot?. command.118 MHz. two tone chime. correction. Option A. 90. horn. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 88. Option B. correction . Option C. 108 . Option C.112 MHz. Error. communications between the aircraft and base. Option C. Option B. reporting defects on the aircraft automatically. VHF frequency is. Option C. demand. 108 . Option A. Error. 108 . resolved. follow up. Option C. DME works on the frequency of. HF. B737. 94. 92. Option B. Option A. sense aerial. loop aerial. JAR 25. Option C. to a VOR. A radial is referenced. Explanation. flightdeck. both loop and sense aerial. UHF. 91. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Explanation. from a beacon. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Option A. . from a beacon. Question Number. ADF works by using. Channel 3 on a CVR records. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 310 and 278. Correct Answer is. flightdeck. UHF. Explanation. on a compass. Option B. Option A. 93. first officer. Option C. captain.1457. Option B. VHF. NIL. Explanation. Option B. Option C. both loop and sense aerial. NIL. Manually in the air. Mode S. Option C. Automatically by due date. Question Number. 98. Explanation. Explanation. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance). . uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop. Manually in the air. Option A. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9. 95. Option B. Question Number. Mode 2. GPS. 96. Mode A. Mode 2. Mode 6.Correct Answer is. Option B. uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. NIL. Option B.19. Mode S. Option C. Question Number. How is the next database on the FMC activated?. Manually. on the ground. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Pull-up' command?. Mode C. Explanation. Explanation. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be. Mode 3. Question Number. Option A. 97. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option C. NIL. on both gimbal rings. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches. 102. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. 101. on inner gimbal ring. Option B. Rate integrated gyro. Correct Answer is. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?. rate gyro. 100. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Option B. Correct Answer is. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?. The IRS laser gyro is a. Question Number. RA. Correct Answer is. Question Number. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. Option C. Eismin Page 373. either RA or TA. NIL. red squares and amber circles. TA. . on outer gimbal ring. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. Option A. White diamonds. on inner gimbal ring. displaced gyro. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection). rate gyro. RA. displacement gyro. Option A.Option C. 99. 104. red squares and amber circles. NIL. 3 autopilot computers are considered. The laser ring gyro.Option B. does not have gimbal. red diamonds and amber squares. Option B. Question Number. Fail resistant. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. elevator is inhibited. Eismin Page 373. Option B. does not have gimbal and rotating parts. 103. Option A. 106. Fail Operable. does not have gimbal and rotating parts. 105. Correct Answer is. Option C. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Explanation. . In autopilot with THS in motion. NIL. has a stabilized platform. Auto Trim is inhibited. Option A. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection). Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?. Auto Trim is inhibited. Correct Answer is. Question Number. White squares. the. red diamonds and amber circles. Fail Operable. Fail Passive. Option A. White diamonds. Option B. Correct Answer is. White circles. Mach trim is inhibited. Option C. . Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. 109. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. NIL. Option B.com/~jproc/hyperbolic/decca. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers. Option C. Option B. HF. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 406. because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode. it has no effect.Option A. VHF. the failed FMS has a blank screen. Option C. the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby. Option A. Within reach of the First Officer. Explanation.idirect. Option A. Correct Answer is. If one FMS fails during flight. http://webhome. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. By deselecting auto-throttle first. 108. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?. Option A. LF. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Within reach of the Captain. NIL. the failed FMS has a blank screen. Within reach of both pilots. Option B. NIL. Decca navigation uses. Within reach of both pilots. It is not possible. Correct Answer is. LF.html Question Number. 107. now it is active. Option C. Explanation. A flat plate antenna is a. Option C. Option A. Option B. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?. 111. Explanation. Gear position warning. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 311. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. the CDI offset bar. NIL. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 342. 112. Stall warning. . The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to. NIL. 50 MHz. a Doppler antenna. 113. 75 MHz. parabolic antenna. Stall warning. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 75 MHz. Option C. the RMI. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of. a series of slots and wave guides. Question Number. Option B. Resolution Advisories. 100 MHz. the ILS system. Option B. a series of slots and wave guides. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option B. 110. Explanation.Question Number. the CDI offset bar. Option B. 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite. Option A. Explanation. alt. 117. Correct Answer is. 4 satellites.com/gps/basics. 4 satellites are required to provide height information as well as position. altitude alert. 4 satellites. Altitude. Option B.Question Number. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites. 3 satellites. NIL. 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 319. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Altitude. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. . GPWS. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites. Interrogation. the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. 114. Option B. system?. Option C. Option C. Option C. Option A. Altitude and interrogation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. http://www. TCAS.asp. Correct Answer is. To obtain an accurate GPS fix. Option A.tycoelectronics. Question Number. GPWS. 6 satellites. 115. The GPS satellite system consists of. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 318 and 319. 116. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:. Option C. Option C. The autothrottle system at touchdown will. NIL. 121. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286. When will the decision height aural warning sound?. Option B. Before decision height. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft. NIL. Question Number. Option B. Option A. . 118. the pilot must. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier. Correct Answer is. go to idle. Avionics Fundamentals Page 211. under CAA Rules. After decision height. set the altitude to be fed into the INS. Question Number. 119. Option A. apply reverse thrust. Option A. At decision height. Option A. go to idle and disconnect. Option C. 120. for the database of aircraft landing altitudes. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed. Question Number. Explanation. go to idle and disconnect. At decision height. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS. insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS. Explanation. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. . A laser gyro output is. 124. Option B. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. Question Number. 10-2 g. directly proportional to frequency addition. Option B. 10-6 g. Option A. inversely proportional to angular turning rate.Correct Answer is. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe. Option A. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has. Explanation. constant force. non-linear force. 10-6 g. linear force. David Harris Page 82. linear force. Question Number. 125. 123. Option A. Question Number. 10-3 g. David Harris Page 33. Option A. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe. 122. Option C. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe. Correct Answer is. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a. NIL. Explanation. David Harris Page 90. Option C. Option B. David Harris Page 81. David Harris Page. Correct Answer is. Option A. . 128. Coriolis effect is the result of. re-aligning the stable platform. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform. Explanation. pendulous suspension. Correct Answer is. gyro wander. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs. Question Number. 126. Option B. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform. Question Number. platform misalignment. In an IN system. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. David Harris Page 85. a differential followed by an integration. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Coriolis effect is corrected for by. directly proportional to angular turning rate. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a single integration. Option A. Option C. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 127. 129. In an IN system. NIL. Option B.Option C. Explanation. Option A. two successive integrations. torquing the gyros. Option A. two successive integrations. the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a. Explanation. directly proportional to angular turning rate. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 133. David Harris Page 77. orthogonally. David Harris Page 77. Option C. orthogonally. Question Number. Option C. Option A. rate gyro.Option B. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. In an IN system. Question Number. Earth rate is approximately. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. . Option A. David Harris Page 76. the purpose of the stable platform is to. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a. Correct Answer is. provide attitude reference. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers. force balance system. Option A. displacement gyro. Question Number. Option B. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers. force balance system. rate integrating gyro. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. parallel to each other. stop the gyros from toppling. 130. 120 degrees apart. Correct Answer is. rate integrating gyro. 132. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Option B. linear spring. Question Number. 131. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. . azimuth gimbal. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum. roll gimbal. 15 degrees per hour. Option A. the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical. Option A. Explanation. pitch gimbal. Option B. NIL. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. three gimbals. Option C. Option C. four gimbals. Option B. the stable platform is the. Explanation. four gimbals. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use. Correct Answer is. 84 degrees per hour. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical. Option B. David Harris Page 77/78. 15 degrees per hour. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 134. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. a pitch gimbal. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 37. In a gimbal system. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical. azimuth gimbal. Explanation. 5 degrees per hour. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. 136. the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft. Option A. David Harris Page 86. 135.Option A. Option C. When in manual mode. the C. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of. 8. . actual track across the earth's surface. Correct Answer is. angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or right of desired track. 84. TK (cross track) is the. Question Number. 84.4 seconds. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. two minutes before the next waypoint. 140. David Harris Page 86.Question Number.4 minutes. alert lamp of the IN system will flash. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. Option B. 137. air data computer. NIL. Option B. Option C.U. air data computer.4 minutes. Question Number. Option B. Option A. 84.D. Option A. Option B. 139. David Harris Page 89. thirty seconds before a track change is required. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. satellites. two minutes before the next waypoint. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. perpendicular distance from the desired track. Option A. when an error is detected. Option C. An IN system requires data from the. David Harris Page 88. Doppler system. perpendicular distance from the desired track. 138.4 minutes. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. great circle arc. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 78. Option A. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted. Question Number. Option C. vertical speed indicators. 142. parallel to each other. Option C. The output of an INS can be fed to.N. Option B. altimeters. 3 axis accelerometer. Option A. Correct Answer is. 141. 90º to each other. attitude indicators. Option A. 144. Question Number.S. Explanation. 3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll).N. Question Number. Option C. David Harris Page 81. course directed by ground station. Option C. an aircraft flies. A basic I. Correct Answer is. Option B. David Harris Page 85. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Using I. Option B. 90º to each other. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B.Question Number.S. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 143. 120º apart. Option A. attitude indicators. NIL. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros. platform has. rhumb line. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. . great circle arc. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track. before the aircraft moves?. For the INS. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made. David Harris Page 85. 147. to maintain the alignment phase. when attitude information is lost. Option A. standby power only when on the ground. both when airborne and on the ground. Option B. Option C. switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage. Option B. Option C. Explanation.A. Question Number.T. Option A. 145. Present position. Option A. both when airborne and on the ground. NIL. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays. David Harris Page 85. the Battery Unit provides. when navigation information is lost. 146. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. E. . when navigation information is lost.N. distance perpendicular from the selected track. Option C. Correct Answer is. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track. Waypoints. Question Number.S. to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays. Question Number. standby power when airborne. Present position. 148. Option C. Option A.Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. What must be entered in to the I. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error. Option A. Option B. Option B. 150. INS wind speed is calculated from. Explanation. an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading. 152. the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option C. 149. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude.Explanation. the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS. Option B. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude. the vectorial addition of TAS and GS. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by. Question Number. Option A. . 151. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate. the vectorial addition of IAS and GS. Explanation. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine of the latitude. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from. Option C. Option A. Option B. David Harris Page 88. the vectorial addition of TAS and GS. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the longitude. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error. NIL. the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal. 154. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment. 153. Option A. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System). Question Number. Correct Answer is. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. An IRS alignment. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment. Option A. takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment. Option B. Explanation. a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds. David Harris Page 85. Question Number. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power down. 155.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. Correct Answer is. that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies. an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. Question Number. the No. Option B. . the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal. Explanation. Option B. 156. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that. the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together. Explanation. takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU. 1 and No. Question Number. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU. NIL. Option A. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option C. Option C. NIL.Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. David Harris Page 47. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together. 159. Question Number. Option A. flight director computer. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading. Option A. Option A. Explanation. NIL. difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading. 160. VHF nav system. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the. Explanation. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the. is the difference between the desired course and the actual course. Option C. Option B. .Option C. Option B. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode. comes direct from the compass system. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together. Option C. Option A. NIL. 158. Correct Answer is. VHF nav system. VHF comm system. 157. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading. selected course counter. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. DME system. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Automatic Flight Control. Option C. 161. Option C. . NIL. Question Number. 90 KHz. 90 Hz. 90 Hz. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line. VHF nav set. as seen from the localiser transmitter. Explanation. Pallett. 163. Option C. Option A. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°. Correct Answer is. 90 Hz. page 181. Option B. 150 Hz.6. Option A. turn left. 90 KHZ. is. Option A. Fig.6 and Aircraft Radio Systems. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is.Option B. It says 'as seen from the localiser transmitter'. straight ahead. Above the glideslope. Powell. 150 Hz. VLF nav system. Explanation. turn right. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. turn right. 150 Hz. top of L/H column. Page 72. when the aircraft heading is 150° is. the ILS glideslope signal modulation is. Explanation. VHF nav set. Question Number. 162. Correct Answer is. equi-signal sector. The glideslope transmitter is located.Question Number. . Option C. Option B. 150 Hz modulation sector. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. NIL. distance to touch down. NIL. Question Number. Question Number. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway. at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway. Correct Answer is. The glideslope and localiser frequencies. 167. at the approach end of the runway. page 181 (bottom of the page) and Aircraft Radio Systems. the horizontal plane. Fig. have to be selected separately. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of. the vertical plane. Option A. Option C. page 72. are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary. Option B. Option A. 5. 164. Explanation. 90 Hz modulation sector. Option A. Explanation. the horizontal plane. Option A. Correct Answer is. equi-signal sector.5. Option B. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway. Option C. Powell. Option C. Option B. 166. 165. Pallett. Question Number. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the. Option B. The glideslope equipment operates in the. UHF band. Option A. the vertical plane. . 169. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. HF band. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation. page 71 and Avionics Fundamentals. Question Number. Option A. 170. HF band. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Option C. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both. VHF band. Option C. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of. 171. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. Jeppesen. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Option A. page 206. Aircraft Radio Systems. Question Number. the vertical plane. The localiser equipment operates in the. Powell. the horizontal plane. distance to touchdown. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing. Option B. UHF band. VHF band. 168. UHF band. VHF band. Correct Answer is. Option A. Powell Pages 58 All frequencies between 112. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Radio Systems. Question Number. Option C.00 and 117.Option B. killfrost anti-icing fluid. R. Aerial masts may be damaged by. Question Number.B. Option C. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.3 MHz. Correct Answer is.Underdown and David Cockburn Page 72. Option C. 180 per quadrant. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.3 MHz.95 MHz (High Power VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108.2 MHz. Option A. 174. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is. 114. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?. NIL. Option C. Aircraft Radio Systems. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Skydrol hydraulic fluids. Explanation.9 MHz. the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations. infinite. 360. 720 in 360°. Option B. 127. 172. Explanation.95 MHz (Terminal VORs). 173.e. Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids.00 and 111. . Skydrol hydraulic fluids. 103. 114. i. Correct Answer is. infinite. NIL. Question Number. Option A. water. Most radio aerial masts are. 1300 Hz. Option B. Question Number. bonded. Correct Answer is. Option C. 177. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Option A. NIL. 180° out of phase. alternate dots and dashes. Option B. 176. Option C. Question Number. bonded. Option B. 400 Hz. The modulation of the outer marker is. The middle marker modulation is keyed with. in phase. 178. dots. Question Number. Option A. 270° out of phase. insulated from the fuselage. dashes.Question Number. Option A. Option C. 180° out of phase. . Option A. Correct Answer is. not bonded. Aircraft is due South of the station. 175. Explanation. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals will be. 400 Hz. NIL. alternate dots and dashes. Option B. 3000 Hz. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. Option B. Correct Answer is. Incompatible Flight Director modes are. Option C. Option A. 180. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. 3500 ft. visually. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312. An over station sensor (OSS) detects. altitude hold and ILS. Option A. Option A. Question Number. both visually and aurally.avionicswest. Option B. 181. VRU and compass. aurally. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is. Explanation.Explanation.htm Question Number. NIL. Option C. http://www. Option A. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot.com/marker_beacon_receiver. 182. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311. VOR and glidepath. 3500 ft. both visually and aurally. Option C. 3 miles. Question Number. 179. Option C. Explanation. 7 miles. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter. from. Correct Answer is. ILS.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Discriminator on control panel. the TO/FROM indicator would show. Explanation. variable and reference phase signals. from. reference phase signal. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 3o6 and 307. . How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?. NIL. ILS. Option C. Option C. 183. Correct Answer is. Explanation. to. Option A. they both have the same sensitivity. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station. variable and reference phase signals. NIL. Question Number. 184. Option A. VOR. Option B. Option A. Question Number. no indication. Option C. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is. 186. altitude hold and ILS. Option A. variable phase signal. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 185. Explanation. The VOR system comprises. NIL. Explanation. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode. Explanation. Trigger pulse from ground station. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the. Option C. the UHF band. Frequency discriminator in receiver. Frequency discriminator in receiver. right of the control column. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. 190. Correct Answer is. left of the control column. Question Number. 187. The glideslope transmitter operates on. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Option B. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button. Question Number. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button. JAR AWO Para 153. Explanation. Option A. .Option B. Question Number. the VHF band. the audible warning. Option A. Option B. Question Number. can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot. Option B. David Harris Page 133. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 308. 189. frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ. NIL. Option A. switches off after a time interval. side of the controls away from the throttles. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. the UHF band. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 188. side of the controls away from the throttles. mute the DME operation during transmit phase. 191. disconnect the autothrottle. disconnect the autothrottle. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds. Option A. Option B. Explanation.Option A. mute coms transmission during transponder operation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position. Explanation. With autothrottle engaged. JAR AWO Para 306 b. a decision height of 50ft. Question Number. 192. . Option C. drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position. no decision height. Explanation. Option A. 193. supply altitude readout. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279. the application of reverse thrust will. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. During ATC transponder operation. a decision height of 50ft. an autothrottle system is. Option B. Question Number. side lobe suppression acts to. Option B. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing. NIL. Option C. mute the DME operation during transmit phase. a decision height depending on RVR. mandatory. a matter of choice for the operator. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation. both systems can be operated simultaneously. None of above. 196. L band DME transmits on a frequency of. 1090 MHz. NIL. 2210 MHz. 194. Option C. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon. NIL. Option A. #1 HF system can transmit but not receive. Option A. Question Number. 1090 MHz. the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon. NIL. Glideslope and localizer. Option C. Option B. 197. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is. Option A. DME and Glideslope. Correct Answer is. Option B. Which two frequencies are paired?. 195. Question Number. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver. Option B. Explanation. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon. Option C. Option B.. 4133 MHz. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation. NIL. Option A. Glideslope and localizer. Localizer and DME. Question Number. . Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Explanation. NIL. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?. Option A. 199. Question Number. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive. Option B. Explanation. Option C. 198. Question Number. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by. when its load is purely. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency. NIL. Explanation. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. Option C. Correct Answer is. capacitive. 700 ft. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Option C. . 7 ft.Question Number. 70 ft. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?. Avionics Fundamentals Page 200. 700 ft. inductive. Correct Answer is. Option B. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. Option B. resistive. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. 201. 200. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive. Option A. Question Number. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. . Option B. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force. Option C. no rotating parts. Explanation. Explanation. resistive. to stop the motor overheating. Laser gyros have. 204. Amber. Option B. Question Number. White. Most aerials are. 203. NIL. not bonded. bonded. Correct Answer is. Option C. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force. 202. Option A. Option B. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. to give control surface feel. made from non-conductive material. Amber. 205. Correct Answer is. Option A. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?. Explanation. Question Number. Blue. Option C. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. rotating parts. Option A. NIL. Explanation. bonded. NIL. Option A. ILS. 206. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. VOR. Option B. ILS. ADF. . Explanation. VOR. DME. Correct Answer is. no rotating parts. ACARS is. Question Number. ILS. Question Number. Explanation. 208. 209. Option A. DME. fail operational. a satellite communication system. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. Explanation. A laser gyro has moving parts (dither motor vibrates) but not rotating parts. fail soft. Triplex autopilot is. moving parts. ADC. aircraft structure. DME. Option B. Laser gyros are aligned to. 207. Explanation. fail passive. Correct Answer is. aircraft structure. ADC. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. true north.Option C. Option C. magnetic north. fail operational. ADF. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 282. FMCS does not normally utilise ADF. Option B. 1. Pitch. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?. Option C. 2. Yaw. 212. 2. NIL. 210. 3 (one is used for redundancy). The altimeter. 213. Correct Answer is. The ATC control panel. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. The airspeed indicator. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight. Question Number. Option C. 211. Explanation. Correct Answer is. a navigation system. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Question Number. Option A. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250. Option A. Option C. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?. Option B.Option B. Option C. Roll. Pitch. What is secondary radar?. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. The ATC control panel. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. Excessive terrain closure rate. In an autothrottle system. Question Number. VHF. Explanation. E. Question Number. Approach. Explanation. 215. Excessive descent rate. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use. Option B. Option A. Option B. 216. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?. Excessive descent rate. unsafe terrain clearance. Option B. Excessive descent rate.H. Cruise. Signal returned from a transponder. Take-off. NIL.Option A. Question Number. Option C. when is EPR or thrust mode used?. Correct Answer is. Take-off. Explanation. Explanation. Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph. Correct Answer is. Signal returned from a transponder. excessive terrain closure rate. excessive terrain closure rate. altitude loss after take-off. Option A. HF.J. Option C. HF. VLF. NIL. A backup radar on an airfield. . 214. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Option A. when on approach to landing. cells begin to gas freely. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period.Question Number. how many axis are used?. Autopilot. 4. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period. Electrical Power (ATA 24).180. 1. Option B.4. Option A.06. 217. Correct Answer is. . 11B. EEL/1-1 4. NIL. Question Number. Option C. 3. Option B. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. 3. 2. Explanation.8 and Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 23. SG reaches 1. Terminals shorted. Correct Answer is. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 61. Correct Answer is. current. voltage. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-5 Para 4. Terminals shorted. current. . power.1. Left open circuit. what should be done?. Option A. When a current transformer is disconnected. 2. 3.Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Option B. Question Number. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant. Resistor placed across terminals. . What does the differential sensing coil sense?. NIL. Volts.Question Number. Power. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Current. Current. Correct Answer is. Option A. 4. Battery. Option A. Where does the GCU gets its power?. PMG.Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. Option C. Explanation. Option B. . Correct Answer is. RAT. PMG. PMG is main supply for GCU. 5. battery is back up power for GCU. Question Number. 6. Correct Answer is. Option B. either series or parallel depending on the design. . Galley loads are wired in. Explanation. Option A. parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption. parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption. Option C. series. All loads on an aircraft are wired in parallel. A fuse-type current limiter. . another type of current limiter holds the current but does and open the circuit see Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 202. can be used as a radio suppressor. However. Option B. See Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 112.Question Number. opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded. or. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Option A. opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded. 7. limits current flow to a load. Eismin Page 99. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. busbar voltage decreases. Option A. When a load is shed from a busbar. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. current consumption from the bar decreases. . 8. busbar voltage increases. Load shedding reduces current consumption.Question Number. Eismin. Page 241. the. current consumption from the bar decreases. Option C. Option B. Option A. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. Phase relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system (although answer b says it will be paralleled. is unimportant. Correct Answer is. is unimportant. must be BCA. Explanation. thereby changing the question???).Question Number. . In unparalleled AC generation systems. Option C. 9. the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the others. Option B. In a multi-generator system. 10. the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by. Option A. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 49. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits. over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits. Correct Answer is.Question Number. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits. over-current and under-current protection circuits. Option C. . Explanation. Option B. 11. Correct Answer is. Explanation. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators. automatic load shedding. . Changing the speed would also change the frequency and thus the phase relationship. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators. equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators. Option C. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by. Generators are always controlled by adjusting the field strength.Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by. Explanation. Weak spring tension of the brushes can cause excessive sparking. weak spring tension. Correct Answer is. weak spring tension. brushes positioned on MNA. Option A. 12. rotating field diode failure. Option C. . 13. Option B.Question Number. Option A. take the temperature of the electrolyte. Explanation. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft. Correct Answer is. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-1. take the temperature of the electrolyte. allow to stabilise for one hour. carry out a capacity test. . Correct Answer is. the interlock circuit is controlled by pins. Option C. On an AC external power plug. EF. AB. EF.Question Number. . Option B. Option A. Explanation. CD. 14. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. before the over voltage limit is exceeded. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. after a fixed time delay. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 119. 15. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated. .Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. http://homepages. prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody.net/~paul. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching. A diode connected across a coil will. 16. Option B.html . prevent back EMF and allow faster switching. Option A. suppress arching when relay is opening and closing.which. Option C.Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. so c is the 'least incorrect'.Question Number. Explanation. Over-frequency and under-frequency. On some aircraft. under frequency will NOT trip the relay. A and b are both wrong because under and over voltage will both trip the relay. Option B. Option C. 17. Over-frequency and over-volts. Which fault does not always trip the GCR?. Correct Answer is. Under-frequency and under-volts. Over-frequency and under-frequency. Option A. . Option A. Option B. uses the volts coil to trip the GCR. detects voltage difference between source and load. detects current difference between source and load. 18. detects current difference between source and load. .Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. Explanation. Option C. Differential protection in a generating system. Correct Answer is. Option A. is detected using all phases. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. & B737 Manual. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Explanation. is detected on generator neutral circuit. 19. is detected using any phase. Open phase sensing on a current transformer. . is detected on generator neutral circuit.Question Number. Option C. captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus. battery is disconnected from bus. 20. Option A. . the. battery is disconnected from bus. generator voltage falls to zero. Option B.Question Number. If the battery is switched off in flight. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4. 21. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4. generator must be stationary. To flash a generator field the. . generator rotates but is not on line. Option A. Explanation.Question Number. generator must be stationary. generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage. Option C. Correct Answer is. the voltage regulator. the swashplate. the constant speed drive. 22.Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. the voltage regulator. The voltage is controlled by the voltage regulator. Option A. Explanation. Option C. . Voltage is controlled by. A and B. The ground interlock pins are numbered. Option C. 23. Explanation. E and F. Option B. Correct Answer is. C and N.Question Number. Option A. . E and F. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72. at any time. CAIP EEL/1-3 para 4. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery. Option C. only in the battery workshop. Explanation. only in the battery workshop.Question Number. . Option A. Correct Answer is. when fully charged. Option B. 24. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates. Option C. 7-32. not enough charging current. . Correct Answer is. low electrolyte temperature. Option A. excessive charging current. excessive charging current. 25. Explanation. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Page 7-31.Question Number. Correct Answer is. . Explanation. undervoltage. During a normal engine shutdown. generator tripping is initiated by. Option A. underfrequency.Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 120. Option C. Option B. undervoltage. overcurrent. 26. Bicarbonate of soda. Boric acid. Boric acid.Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Distilled water. Boric acid. Option B. . Correct Answer is. Option A. 27. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines. large circulating currents developing. . Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 52. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Before operating generators in parallel. Option B.Question Number. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines. voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits. their voltages should be matched to prevent. 28. Correct Answer is. . in series so when loads are shed current is reduced. Option B. 29. Correct Answer is. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar. Option C. in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced. in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced. All loads are connected in parallel with each other. Option A. Explanation.Question Number. in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced. Correct Answer is. Explanation. overload protection. Option A. differential current protection. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121.Question Number. 30. negative sequence protection. Option C. differential current protection. . A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for. Correct Answer is. ambient pressure to cabin pressure.Question Number. 31. Explanation. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares. . generator voltage to busbar voltage. Option A. Option B. generator current to busbar current. Option C. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. generator current to busbar current. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. . 32. Option A. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 48. Option B. is of no consequence after paralleling.Question Number. In an AC generation system. Explanation. the frequency and phase rotation. must be out of phase prior to paralleling. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. NIL.which. speed up operation by reducing back EMF. Option B. Explanation. prevent contact bounce. 33. speed up operation by reducing back EMF.Question Number.html .hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody. ensure smooth contactor operation. Option C.net/~paul. Diodes are placed across a contactor to. Correct Answer is. http://homepages. Correct Answer is. isolate the battery from the main busbar. Option A. disconnect all power to the main busbar. . isolate the battery from the main busbar. The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar. 34. Explanation. shut down the APU. Option B. Option C. allowing it to be charged from the generator(s). Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will.Question Number. Explanation.Question Number. Correct Answer is. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators. Option A. to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs. Option C. Option B. . 35. it is important to maintain generator outputs at the same voltage. NIL. to prevent CSD shock loading. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Eismin page 199-200.Question Number. uses a voltage coil in series with generator output. Option B. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output. uses a current coil in parallel with generator output. 36. . high oil pressure. Option A. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate. Option C. high oil temperature. low oil pressure. page 7-50. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook . Option B.Question Number. low oil pressure. low oil temperature. low oil temperaturelow oil pressure. low oil pressure. high oil temperature. high oil temperature. Explanation. . 37. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. an IDG.Question Number. an hydraulically actuated swash plate. 38. NIL. Option A. an hydraulically actuated swash plate. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by. Option C. a CSD. Explanation. . does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant. An AC generator used with a CSD.Question Number. 39. NIL. Option C. Explanation. needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load. . Correct Answer is. does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant. needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load. Option B. Option A. PMG is main supply for GCU. Option A. initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output. battery is back up power for GCU. 40. Correct Answer is. Power to a GCU is supplied. by the generator output only. . initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. Explanation.Question Number. by the battery bus or rectified generator output. Option C. Question Number. Option B. differential protection and undervoltage. Correct Answer is. Trip signals for a GCR are. Option C. differential protection and undervoltage. overfrequency and undervoltage. NIL. underfrequency and overcurrent. Option A. 41. Explanation. . 42. page 7-50.Question Number. Explanation. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook . high oil temperature / low oil pressure. high oil temperature / low oil pressure. . High oil temperature / low oil quantity. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. low oil quantity / low oil temperature. Teflon. Nomex.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont tradename for PTFE). Option C. Option A. Also AC43 Para. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with. PVC. Teflon. This is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition Page 69.11. . 43.Question Number. Correct Answer is. 44. A heat gun should be operated at. . Explanation. Option B. the specified temperature.Question Number. 100°C above the specified. the specified temperature. or 100°C (approx) above the heatshrink temperature. 100°C below the specified. Option A. Option C. A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature. it will damage the drive shaft. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because. it will trip the GCR. it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. it will trip the GCR.Question Number. Option C. . Option A. Option B. 45. . closing of fuel and hydraulic valves. Explanation. amplitude of voltage. Eismin. Option B. page 203.c could also be considered correct. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. 46. Option C. time delay circuit. Inverse time delay .Question Number. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on. amplitude of voltage. Option A. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. ID unit. Explanation. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a. Option A. CSD unit. Option C. Correct Answer is. swashplate.Question Number. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a swashplate. Option B. . 47. swashplate. low retentivity. Option A.Question Number. A permanent magnet should have. low coercivity. Correct Answer is. NIL. 48. Explanation. low coercivity. high coercivity. low retentivity. high retentivity. low coercivity. Option C. Option B. . high retentivity. see Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Figure 1.Question Number. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode.32 for charger disconnect system. However. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?. The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. 49. The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted. . B737 switches to trickle charge. Option B. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode. Since volume increases. Explanation. decrease. 50. but mass remains constant.Question Number. with temperature. increase. remain the same. . Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. the SG will. density decreases. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery. decrease. Option A. Explanation. where would you adjust it?. By means of a remote trimmer. Adjusted with a remote trimmer. In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel. Option A.Question Number. Correct Answer is. On the GCU. Option B. By means of a remote trimmer. Option C. 51. . On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting. 52. Option B. by angle of swash plate. by angle of swash plate. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is. Control of an HPG is via a swashplate. by CSU. Correct Answer is.Question Number. . Option C. by IDG. Option A. Explanation. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal. Option B. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 7-32.Question Number. Explanation. Option A. the electrolyte level is lower than normal. 53. Option C. the electrolyte level stays the same. . a BPCU. Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by. Option A. . a GCU. B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares status information with the GCU's.Question Number.'. 54. an IRS. Option C. Explanation. The BPCU controls all electrical buses and controls load shedding. Option B. Correct Answer is. a BPCU. 1.3 A. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. What is the current drawn from the source?. 0. Option B.2 A. Explanation. Next find current in Primary = 4 x 3/10 = 12/10 = 1. 3 A. Option C. Option A. 1. Correct Answer is. Find current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A.2 A. .2A. 55.Question Number. Option B. Option A. 56.Question Number. . This is normal. Correct Answer is. no cause for concern. no cause for concern. Explanation. there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines. the battery is faulty. an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current. the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery. Option C. Option A. is only allowed in the shop.Question Number. is permitted. Explanation.4. . is not allowed. CAIPs EEL/1-3 Para 6. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ. is not allowed. 57. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. It is defective. Correct Answer is. one cell has low reading.Question Number. NIL. Option A. It must be replaced. It must be replaced. . Option C. Explanation. 58. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks. It needs topping up. Correct Answer is.Question Number. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure.1. 30 minutes. 59. 30 minutes. Option C. Option A. Option B.now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4. Explanation. 60 minutes. Forever. What time duration would the battery be expected to power essential equipment?. AWN 81 para 3. .2 . Option C. a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket. Option B. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. the interlock circuit. Pallett Page 290. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Explanation. ground handling bus. Option A. . These are used for. 60. An external power plug has two short pins. the interlock circuit. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 51 and 52. Option B. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck. to monitor total current load. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. 61. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck. Explanation. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is. . to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised.Question Number. subject the battery to load and check the voltage.7. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.6 and 4. check voltage and check the SG of each cell. Option B. Option A.5.Question Number. measure the discharge time. 62. Explanation. Option C. measure the discharge time. Correct Answer is. subject the battery to load. . To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery. Option C. Option A. Option B. 63. AC generators in parallel. DC generators in parallel. AC and DC generators in parallel. Circulating currents are associated with. Explanation. . NIL. Correct Answer is.Question Number. AC generators in parallel. 64. Generator brush bedding. Option A. should not be done on the aircraft. should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done. can be done on the aircraft. Explanation. Option B. Option C.but would be difficult).6 (Does not say that it cannot be done on the aircraft .Question Number. . Correct Answer is. CAIPs EEL/1-4 4.3. can be done on the aircraft. Option A. Option C. 100 Amps. 101 Amps. Correct Answer is. Option B. 102 Amps. 101 Amps. 65. .Question Number. What is the amperage at point '' to the nearest amp?. AC and DC electrical generators. Paralleling is used for. 100 volts accross far right load. Question Number. DC. Option C. Pallett 3rd edition Page 32. (Kirkchoff's Law). . therefore 100 volts also accross 100ohm load (parallel circuit theory) I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA. Explanation. Option B. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Correct Answer is. 67. DC electrical generators only. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. AC. Chapter 24 Section 21. Chapter 24 Section 31. (Ohms Law) Total current at '' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps. Option A. Option C. Option B. AC or DC. AC or DC. Chapter 24 Section 31. AC and DC electrical generators. 68. Question Number.Explanation. Explanation. Chapter 31 Section 21. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. AC electrical generators only. Option A. NIL. Option C. 66. Pitot tubes are heated by. Option B. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact. Question Number. Option B. 71 degrees F. constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage. constant current. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is. Option A. Option A. the resistive element is. 70. fluctuating. Question Number. stationary. NIL. stationary. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. pulse width modulating. Option A. . in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length. Option C. 69. 144 degrees F. Option B. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is. Explanation. the battery is charged by. Question Number. constant voltage. In a carbon pile regulator. Option B. Option C.Question Number. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact. Option C. Explanation. in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length. 71. Correct Answer is. 72. 144 degrees F.1. NIL. Option B. 144 degrees C. Correct Answer is. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3. If an aircraft has no battery charger. constant voltage. zeners and transistors. Option C. decreases frequency. Question Number. Option C.Explanation.1. increase in torque only. . 18. Option C.1. Question Number. 74. transformers and transistors. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 16. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3. Option A. 75.1. voltage and current coil. decreases frequency. Explanation. voltage and current coil. NIL. Increasing the real load primarily. 73. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3. decreases output voltage. Question Number. Correct Answer is.3. Question Number. 76. voltage coil. Inductive reactive load causes. increases output voltage and increases frequency. Explanation. Option B. Option A. 17. Option C. zeners and transistors. increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated. Option A. diodes and transformers. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated. Option A. Correct Answer is. current coil. In a transistor voltage regulator. Explanation. Correct Answer is. the voltage output is controlled by. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by. Option B. Option B. Option B. NIL. Option C. Option B. Differential protection in an AC system protects against. 78. Correct Answer is. a reverse current flowing from the battery. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option B. Explanation. short circuits. NIL. When resetting the CSD on the ground. line-line. Option B. enable generators to be paralleled. rotating at idle. Option C. 79. Question Number. reactive power from the generator that does work. line-line-line. Question Number. Question Number. the engine should be. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to. Option A. Question Number. stationary. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated. Option C. real power from the generator that does work. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Explanation. short circuits. 77. stationary. Option B. Pallett Page 121. Option A. rotating at Nsync. . Correct Answer is. 80. real power from the generator that does work. Option A. apparent power from the generator that does work. NIL. Option A. line-earth faults. prevent engine overload. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft. Question Number. . 84. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 37. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. it would be an indication that the. CSD driveshaft had sheared. Explanation. Option B. increases and amperage output increases. generator output voltage will. the most likely consequence is. deactivation of the field regulatory TRs. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight. Option B. 83. bus tie interlock is inoperative. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. energise the bus tie relay. Assuming all systems are operating normally. CSD driveshaft had sheared. 81. decrease and amperage output increases. activation of the time delay circuit. enable generators to be paralleled. 82. Option A. Option C. as aircraft electrical load increases. Option B. NIL. remain constant and amperage output increases. Option C. remain constant and amperage output increases. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system. Correct Answer is.Option C. activation of the time delay circuit. maintain constant load on the generator. NIL. Explanation. they are connected in. Explanation. phase sequence detection circuit has operated. Option A. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Positive to battery relay. Option B. Airstream. Fan. Aircrfat Electrical Systems Pallett Page 21. Explanation. 86. series. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is.Option A. either parallel or series and switched between as an option. Option C. Watts. Pallett Page 70. Option A. How is an aircraft battery rated?. Compressor. Positive to external power relay. . How is RAT driven?. Option A. Ampere hours. Pallett Page 23/26/27. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Positive to external power relay. Option B. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?. Ampere hours. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Correct Answer is. Joules. Airstream. Option C. Question Number. Ground or earth. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Ram Air Turbine. Correct Answer is. either parallel or series and switched between as an option. parallel. 87. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 85. Option C. The short prongs are for DC only. Option C. Option B. Option B. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF). 88. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical System. 90. Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection. Option A. current regulation coil in series. increased torque and reduced speed. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?. Option B. 91. 89. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?. Pallett Page 11. Option C. Pallett pg 72. To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay. Option A. Option B. The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off. Correct Answer is. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. reduced torque and increased speed. . increased torque and speed. Option A. To speed up the operation. Option C. Option A. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in. Question Number.Question Number. current regulation coil in series. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection. Aircraft Electrical Systems. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. To help plug location/fit. Explanation. Option C. voltage regulating coil in parallel. increased torque and speed. Explanation. voltage regulating coil in series. circulating currents. 93. 94. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system. circulating currents. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 81. positive. caused by resistance of the coil. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. http://www. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude. Option A. trips at a set level. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude. Option B. the tripping circuit. The small pins in the power connector plug are.com/search?q=define:Eddy+Currents Question Number. Option C. Option A. 95. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 70. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 119/120. Option A. NIL. Explanation. . Question Number. trips after a time delay. Option A. positive.Question Number. negative. the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to. supply essential services. neutral. provide a means of monitoring the load. Correct Answer is. Eddy currents are.google. caused by heating effect of the coil. Option B. 92. Option C. In an AC distribution system. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 11. Option C. Question Number. KW. in parallel with the field windings. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Option A. Option B. EEL/1-2 Page 5. Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage regulation. 96. Option B. KW & KVAR. across the generator output. An old Module 4 question. differential protection. in parallel with the field windings. rectification. voltage regulation. . 97. Option B. AC generator output indications are measured in. 98. Option C. Explanation. Option A. in series with the field windings. Correct Answer is. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is. voltage stabilisation. KVA & KW. Option C. Zener diodes are for. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 121. voltage regulation. 99. Option C. phase sequence monitoring. Explanation. differential protection. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. load monitoring. Question Number. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Fig. Correct Answer is. 102. how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter.Correct Answer is. Option A. one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load). Explanation. . Question Number. more voltage to the busbar. Option C. Option B. 101. Slightly variable DC. Question Number. Variable AC. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system. Correct Answer is.2. Option B. 5. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. The answer here depends upon which output they are referring. However. Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant). 100. Option B. Load shedding allows. Question Number. Option A. Pulse width modulated DC. Option A. more current to the busbar. Explanation. By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only. By power fed from static inverter only. Option C. KVA & KW. A voltage regulator has two outputs. Option C. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?. less current to the busbar. from which KW can be calculated). a DC generator is rated in KW only. Pulse width modulated DC. An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power factor. less current to the busbar. kVAR. Generator power pilot relay. Option B.5 (d). Not sure of the point of this question. Under-frequency. kVA. EEL/1-2 3. Under-current. 103. what prevents GCR being tripped?. 104. Option A. to control output current. Generator control relay. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. Option A. kW. Question Number. Option C. a stability winding is used. In a generator system. Option A. In what units are static inverters rated?. Correct Answer is. just like an AC generator. in series with the field to prevent oscillations.4. Explanation. to prevent voltage overshoot. to prevent voltage overshoot. Option A.Question Number. Generator control relay. The GCR is the only one which is (sometimes) 'within' the GCU. kVA. On engine shutdown. Question Number. Explanation. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?. VA or KVA. Generator line contactor. (Never heard of a 'generator power pilot relay'). 106. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Under-volt. 105. Question Number. Option B. Option C. Option C. . Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Under-frequency. Explanation. Question Number. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?. 108. reactive load by adjustment of generator fields. in parallel with the generator volts coil. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting. Real load by control of generator fields. Option A. Explanation. When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system. Question Number. Explanation. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting. 107. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system. in series with the generator volts coil. NIL. when is the charger switched off automatically?. Correct Answer is. Option A.Correct Answer is. reactive load by adjustment of generator fields. Question Number. . 109. in series with the generator field. Real load by control of the constant speed drives. Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives. Correct Answer is. When a field relay trips the generator off-line. EEL/1-2 Fig 1. Option B. Option C. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. in series with the generator volts coil. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is. 110. Real load by control of the constant speed drives. When the alternators are fully loaded. Question Number. Option C. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 48 and 49. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment of generator fields. it can be reset. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 120. Option B. Option A. after the fault has been cleared. Option B. on the ground only.Option A. phase rotation does not matter. Option C. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and. What controls output from the generator?. NIL. Option A. bus bar voltage rises. 112. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. 113. CBA must equal CBA. has full descriptions of all 3 units. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically. Option C. on the ground only. GCU. Question Number. bus bar current decreases. Explanation. GCU. Option B. Explanation. bus bar current decreases. Question Number. Option A. 111. Correct Answer is. by cycling the generator switch. ELCU. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Correct Answer is. bus bar current rises. NIL. Option B. CBA must equal ABC. CBA must equal CBA. Correct Answer is. . Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option C. NIL. BPCU. Explanation. Eismin. 116. When replacing a current transformer. Correct Answer is. Option A. . Option C. B757 Maintenance Training Manual. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Option C. electrolyte level. it can only be fitted one way round. Question Number. charge. Explanation. Option A. voltage is below battery voltage. 115. Option B. control relay is tripped only. Nil. Correct Answer is. breaker is tripped only. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of. breaker is tripped only. Correct Answer is. voltage is above battery voltage. Option B. Option B. voltage is too high. NIL. Question Number. it can only be fitted one way round. Option C. 114. breaker and control relay are both tripped. 117. Option A. During normal engine shut-down.Question Number. Correct Answer is. the generator. electrolyte temperature. Explanation. NIL. Explanation. charge. voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting. The generator warning light will come on when. it can be fitted any way round. voltage is below battery voltage. Option C. Question Number. citric acid. makes it cheaper to make. 118. Option A. Correct Answer is. Connect the generator to the busbar. Option A. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will. . Bring the generator on-line. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is. 120. 121. Option B. The economy coil on a relay. borax powder. Question Number. decrease as the engine speed increases. Correct Answer is. remain constant. Correct Answer is. Bring the generator on-line. reduces current required to close. Control output voltage.Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. sodium bicarbonate. Option C. Explanation. reduces current required to hold closed. Question Number. decrease as the engine speed increases. Option C. What is the function of the generator control relay?. Option C. NIL. increase as the engine speed increases. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. sodium bicarbonate. Option B. Option A. reduces current required to hold closed. NIL. Option C. 119. Decreases due to the back EMF as engine speed increases. Option B. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook p 7-30 refers. Option C. restores magnetism. Option B. when battery is on load. Question Number. Option A. NIL. Option B. Option B. restores magnetism. Correct Answer is. Battery charge. Option A. EEL/1-1 4. By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load. Option B. when battery is on load. By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal. NIL. Explanation. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation. Correct Answer is. 123. 122. Option C. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery. Question Number. Explanation. 125. Correct Answer is. Electrolyte temperature. Electrolyte temperature. decreases resistance. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?. Option A.Question Number.3.4. power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC. By voltmeter in the cockpit. what should be taken into account?. Explanation. Flashing a generator field. Option A. Correct Answer is. 124. Ambient temperature. Option C. Question Number. By voltmeter in the cockpit. In a split bus power distribution system. generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus. increases resistance. Option C. . each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 23. Question Number. 126. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system. Option A. modifies generator field excitation current. Option B. modifies generator drive speed. Option C. modifies generator field excitation voltage. Correct Answer is. modifies generator field excitation current. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 49. Question Number. 127. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil. Option A. in series with the generator output. Option B. in series with the current coil. Option C. in parallel with the generator output. Correct Answer is. in parallel with the generator output. Explanation. EEL/1-2 3.2.1. Question Number. 128. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to. Option A. prevent contact pitting and burning. Option B. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed. Option C. close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts. Correct Answer is. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 129. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has. Option A. a resistor in series with the points. Option B. a volts coil in parallel with the points. Option C. a resister in parallel with the points. Correct Answer is. a resister in parallel with the points. Explanation. EEL/1-2 Figure 3. Question Number. 130. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out. Option A. when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench. Option B. only off the aircraft. Option C. during flight. Correct Answer is. only off the aircraft. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 131. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?. Option A. Evaporation. Option B. Over charging current. Option C. Undercharging current. Correct Answer is. Over charging current. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1.3 Page 3 Para 3.4.1. Question Number. 132. An AC generator connected to a CSD requires. Option A. a separate voltage regulator. Option B. no voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator frequency. Option C. no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage. Correct Answer is. a separate voltage regulator. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 133. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be followed?. Option A. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are followed by a water rinse. Option B. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. Option C. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water. Correct Answer is. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are followed by a water rinse. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.1.4. Question Number. 134. Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?. Option A. A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is above 20°C. Option B. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte temperature. Option C. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F. Correct Answer is. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F. Explanation. CAIPS EEL/1-1 4.3.4 (American Text such as Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-27 specify 80°F as the standard, but CAIPs specifies 60°F as standard - take your pick). Question Number. 135. An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following resultant action in the voltage regulator:-. Option A. The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field. Option B. The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation. Option C. The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile. Correct Answer is. The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation. Explanation. EEL/1-2 3.1.1. Question Number. 136. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will. Option A. be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled. Option B. have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled. Option C. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower. Correct Answer is. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Thomas Eismin 5th Edition page 200. Question Number. 137. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because. Option A. the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution. Option B. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing. Option C. most of the acid is in the solution. Correct Answer is. most of the acid is in the solution. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.6.2. Question Number. 138. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source?. Option A. The total plate area of the battery. Option B. The state-of-charge of the battery. Option C. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery. Correct Answer is. The state-of-charge of the battery. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 139. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes. Option A. constant current and varying voltage. Option B. constant voltage and varying current. Option C. constant current and constant voltage. Correct Answer is. constant voltage and varying current. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 52. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.1. Question Number. 140. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of. Option A. normal operation. Option B. excessive gassing. Option C. excessive plate sulphation. Correct Answer is. excessive gassing. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see also CAIPs EEL/13 4.2 (h). Question Number. 141. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in. Option A. contamination of both types of batteries. Option B. increased explosion and/or fire hazard. Option C. normal battery service life. Correct Answer is. contamination of both types of batteries. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/2-1 Page 1 Para 2.11. Question Number. 142. If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn from No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow. Option A. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator. Option B. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator. Option C. in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator. Correct Answer is. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.2 (h). Question Number. and. 143. On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive Option A. it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified. Option B. it can only be reset when all loads are switched off. Option C. resetting can only be carried out on the ground. Correct Answer is. resetting can only be carried out on the ground. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 144. In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the. Option A. generator drive torque. Option B. generator speed. Option C. voltage regulator. Correct Answer is. generator drive torque. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 48-49. Question Number. 145. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication. Option A. for low speed. Option B. for low oil pressure. Option C. for when it is disconnected from the generator. Correct Answer is. for low oil pressure. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 146. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is. Option A. being charged. Option B. under load condition. Option C. in a discharged condition. Correct Answer is. in a discharged condition. Explanation. EEL/1-3 3.4.2. Question Number. 147. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level because the. Option A. fluid evaporates through vents. Option B. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates. Option C. fluid level was not periodically replenished. Correct Answer is. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates. Explanation. Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook page 7-32 and 7-33. a) could also be correct. Question Number. 148. The purpose of 'field flashing' is to. Option A. test the insulation resistance of a field winding with a 1000V supply. Option B. measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed. Option C. change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding. Correct Answer is. change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 4. Question Number. 149. The purpose of an inverter is to convert. Option A. DC to AC. Option B. AC to DC. Option C. AC to a higher frequency AC. Correct Answer is. DC to AC. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 150. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?. Option A. By the level of the electrolyte. Option B. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte. Option C. By measuring discharge. Correct Answer is. By measuring discharge. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.6. Question Number. 151. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?. Option A. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle. Option B. The cell temperature will run too low for proper output. Option C. No adverse results since water may be added anytime. Correct Answer is. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.3. Question Number. 152. In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature. Option A. causes an increase in internal resistance. Option B. increases cell voltage. Option C. causes a decrease in internal resistance. Correct Answer is. causes a decrease in internal resistance. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.8 (a). Question Number. 153. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only. Option A. toward the end of the charging cycle. Option B. when the electrolyte level is low. Option C. if they are defective. Correct Answer is. toward the end of the charging cycle. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.5.5. Question Number. 154. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator. Option A. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil. Option B. becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises. Option C. is connected in series with the carbon pile. Correct Answer is. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 155. In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the. Option A. generator speed. Option B. generator drive torque. Option C. voltage regulator. Correct Answer is. voltage regulator. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48. Question Number. 156. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause. Option A. overheating of inductive devices. Option B. overvoltage of capacitive devices. Option C. overspeeding of AC motors. Correct Answer is. overheating of inductive devices. Explanation. Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency. Question Number. 157. The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains. Option A. nitric acid. Option B. sulphuric acid. Option C. hydrochloric acid. Correct Answer is. sulphuric acid. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.1.4. Question Number. 158. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out. Option A. by applying a coating of petroleum jelly. Option B. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate. Option C. by washing with distilled water. second. Option C. 120 degrees apart. 160. Explanation. The three voltages of a three phase generator are. Option C. sulphuric acid must be added. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate. 90 degrees apart. 159. 161. Option B. Question Number. has 24 cells. Explanation. 120 degrees apart. Explanation. Option A.Correct Answer is.6. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery charging. Explanation. A 12 volt lead-acid battery. CAIPS EEL/1-1 4. NIL. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per. Option A. Question Number. Option B. minute. revolution. Option C. . Correct Answer is. Option A. second. NIL.1. Correct Answer is. Question Number. distilled water must be added. 180 degrees apart. Question Number. electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added. 162. distilled water must be added. Option B. Option A.Option B. 5 amps. 3. . speed at which the armature rotates. strength of the magnetic field. Ammeter reading will be. Option B. Option B. 3. NIL. line volts equals 1. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. has 6 cells.73 phase volts. has 12 cells. 7 amps.4 amps. Option C. line volts equals phase volts. Option C. NIL. number of conductors in the armature. The active component of an A. NIL. Option A. Option B. 165. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 5 triangle in this case. 163. In a delta connected generator. Correct Answer is. Explanation.C. Option C. Question Number. line volts equals phase volts. Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. Correct Answer is. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the. 164. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. 5 amps. has 6 cells. Explanation. strength of the magnetic field. 4. phase volts equals 1.73 line volts. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Standby compass. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. Windscreen heating. S. 168. Correct Answer is. 169.G. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Hydraulic pump. one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same. Assuming no voltage regulator is considered. . reaches 1. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ. Option A. Explanation.G. decrease and the amperage output will increase. 166. cells begin to gas freely. Option A. Option C. remain constant and the amperage output will increase. Option C. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. Correct Answer is.180. Explanation. decrease and the amperage output will increase. Option A. the voltage will. Option B. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ. Option B. Correct Answer is. Any heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?. Explanation. only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals. otherwise b is the answer.Question Number. and voltage remain constant for specified period. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery. Option C. and voltage remain constant for specified period. Windscreen heating. NIL. S. Option B. Option A. Question Number. S. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity). 167.7.G. Explanation. 172. Option B.5 kW. Question Number. copper connectors are used. 173. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft. the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour. 24 kW. Correct Answer is. field current. Correct Answer is.8 has a maximum continuous power output of. Option B.G. 30 kW. Option A. Option C. to stabilize. Option C. . the electrolyte temperature must be noted. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S. NIL. engine speed. armature current. Option B. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery. the connectors may be painted. Option A. Option A. NIL.G. Explanation. Question Number.2 (vi). 171. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0. Before taking S. Explanation. 170. Correct Answer is.Question Number. field current. Option A. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. Option C. 37. Option B. the electrolyte temperature must be noted. Explanation. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the. 24 kW. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge. 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity. 175. 6 amps for 10 hours. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will deliver. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. NIL. Option C.8 = TP/30 TP = 24. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases. 174. Option A. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. 6 amps for 10 hours. Option B. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery. 60 amps for 10 hours. Option B. 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity. NIL. remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the electrolyte. 60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand. Explanation. 176. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge. .Explanation. 12V with 50 ampere hour capacity. Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce. 12V with 25 ampere hour capacity. Option A. PF = TP/AP 0. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge. Option B. Explanation. 177. Option A. decrease. Correct Answer is. remain constant. For battery charging. Option B. Option C. NIL. When using A. Explanation. Option A. transformer and rectifier would be required. DC. 180. NIL. an A.C. an A. NIL. AC at 400 c. Option C. transformer and rectifier would be required. Correct Answer is. if the load increases the generator output voltage will. Explanation. the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current.p. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. a D. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases. Correct Answer is.C. Correct Answer is. the electrical supply connected to the battery must be. Option B.Option B. Option C.s. inverter would be required. DC. decrease.C.C. NIL. Option A.s. transformer and rectifier would be required.C. Explanation. Question Number. Option A.C. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator. Question Number. power on the bus bar you require 28V D. increase. Option C. an A. for battery charging. 179. 178. . the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator. AC at 50 c.p. the generator is not connected to the bus bar.f. a hydrometer must be used. Option B.m. slip rings via commutator. with the same capacity as each battery. 24V e. . NIL. it is an indication of. connections on the stator. 184. Option C. Explanation. If a nicad battery overheats. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. connections on the stator. the generator voltage regulator setting is too low. 183. Option B. Correct Answer is.m. NIL. thermal runaway. thermal runaway. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Option C. the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips. 12V e. slip rings. Question Number. 182. Option C. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability. with twice the capacity of each battery. 24V e. Explanation.f. Question Number. Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce. NIL. 181.m.m. Explanation. with twice the capacity of each battery. 12V e.f. Correct Answer is. with twice the capacity of each battery. Option B. Question Number. Option A. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. Option A. The output from an AC generator is taken from. Option A.f. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Option A. . CAIPs EEL/1-3 8. Explanation. tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies. Explanation. Option B. in the fully discharged condition.5V battery voltage higher than generator. 188. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. in the fully charged condition. Option C. by checking the specific gravity of each cell. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge. increasing generator voltage.6. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.Question Number.5. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. NIL. Explanation. Option A. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to. increasing battery voltage. by checking the voltage of each cell under load. the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed. 187. in a totally dry condition. 186. Option B. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. a differential voltage of 0. 185. EEL/1-3 4. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by. Option A. in the fully discharged condition. Option C. increasing generator voltage. it should be stored. Correct Answer is. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Explanation. An audio bell and red PFWL. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL. Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by. litmus paper that turns black. Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL. Correct Answer is. indicating paper that turns red. indicating paper that turns red. Explanation. 192. as that in the battery. the pilot will receive the following indications:-. DC to AC. The purpose of an inverter is to convert. 191. Option C. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s. NIL. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL. Option A. Option C. Option A. Option B.Question Number. Question Number. When a DC generator fails. Option B. 190. AC to DC. To restore electrolyte after spillage. as that in the battery. Option B. DC to AC. Correct Answer is. Option C. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s. Option A.g. AC to a higher frequency AC. NIL. Question Number. add acid only. Acid turns litmus paper red. indicating paper that turns blue. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is.g. 189. Correct Answer is. . Option C. add distilled water only. Explanation. Option A.5.Explanation. Explanation.com/defense/documents/aft_manual. alteration of contact spring tension. When connecting aircraft batteries.8. Correct Answer is. 194. NIL.Eismin Page 199. hygrometer. . Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 66. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Pallett Page 12. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by. 0. 195. positive earth. http://www. Option B. 0. Correct Answer is. hypsometer. alteration of the field resistance. 0.pdf Question Number. 196.9. Option C. Explanation. NIL. Option B.energysys. Option A. Explanation. and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics . Option C. Question Number. 0. Battery SG is measured using a. negative. Option B. 193. the last lead to connect is the. Option C. alteration of contact spring tension. Option A.8. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option B. hydrometer. hydrometer. Option A. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of. adjustment of voltage coil resistance. Option A. Option B. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor. Option A. the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate. the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate. Explanation. Question Number. field strength and the speed of the generator. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged. The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor. Correct Answer is. number of conductors and the field strength. 199. Explanation. measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn. 198.Option C. . Question Number. the establishing of a potential across the cell. Battery capacity is checked by. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Polarization in a cell is. Explanation. the fact that as a battery discharges. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 43. Correct Answer is. positive. Correct Answer is. Explanation. discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged. NIL. Option A. 197. Option C. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 21. Option B. the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's. negative. discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state. Correct Answer is. 203. Correct Answer is. 202. alter the driving speed. NIL. NIL. alter the field current. Question Number. any phase and earth or between any two phases. real load only. phases A and B only. Question Number. Option C. Option B. reactive load only. whilst maintaining constant frequency. Correct Answer is. A frequency wild supply would be suitable for. it is necessary to. Option A. the phase and earth only. Option B.Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 46. Option B. . real and reactive load. real and reactive load. instruments and navigation systems. Option A. Option B. NIL. Explanation. any phase and earth or between any two phases. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator. Option A. alter the field current. Option C. 200. 201. Correct Answer is. Option A. 3-phase torque motors. Explanation. In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for. Explanation. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. deicing loads. Option C. alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit. deicing loads. Question Number. Three 12V. Correct Answer is. Option A. 12V 40Ah. 12V 120Ah. 12V 120Ah. Question Number. the method of mixing is unimportant. Option C. 204. Option B. 40Ah accumulators in series would give. Explanation. NIL. a DC motor. Correct Answer is. 205. either an AC or DC motor. 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give. Explanation. Option A. add acid to water. a DC motor. Explanation. an AC motor. Option A. Option B. 36V 40Ah. Option C. add acid to water. add water to acid. Option B. 36V 120Ah. Correct Answer is. Option C. 206. NIL.Question Number. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. An inverter can be an AC generator driven by. 12V 120Ah. Three 12V. 207. 36V 120Ah. Question Number. Option C. . 36V 40Ah. When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries. NIL. Option C. Option A. Option A. efficiency. 400 Hz alternator is. Option C. 400/3 x 60. Option C. Option A. The RPM of a 6 pole. 22V. 210.Explanation. Option C. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19. 6000. Kilovolts. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 35.2 volt cells. 211. Option A. Volt Amps. 20V. Explanation. Watts. Question Number. 1. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Option B. Volt Amps. . The ratio between apparent power and true power is the. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 3. Question Number. power rating. 208. Apparent power is measured in. Correct Answer is. 8000. 24V. 4000. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 8000. What will be the nominal battery output?. 209. power factor. Option B. power factor. NIL. Option A. Option C. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant. . It says 'UNparalleled'. must be synchronized. NIL. Option B. speed. Explanation. Option A.0 ohms. When operating two AC generators unparalleled. Option A. Question Number. it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator. Option C. voltage. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is. must be in opposition to one another. Question Number. Question Number. When the GPU is connected to the aircraft. 22V.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. Option B. Option B. 214. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2. 213. it supplies essential services. 215. 212. Explanation. is unimportant. current. Question Number. NIL.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Nil. it is paralleled with the aircraft generator. the phase of each. Option C. 5. Option A. it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator. is unimportant. Explanation. Correct Answer is. current. Option A.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which. Explanation.2 V. Question Number. incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit. does not require a CSDU. Option C. Correct Answer is. 217. The maximum load permitted is 32KW.D. Option C. only rotates during starting. Explanation. has separate CSDU. 219.8 lagging.2 CCV = 10 x 2 = 20. Internal R=V/I = 5. Question Number. An I. Option B.52 ohms.52 ohms. The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0. Option C. Option B.G (integrated drive generator). provides initial excitation. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same. The maximum load permitted is 32KW. Question Number.8 = 32 KW.2/10 = 0. Question Number. only rotates after starting. Option B.M. Explanation. Option A. . PF = TP/AP 0.1 x 12 = 25. Option A.52. Correct Answer is. A P. Explanation. Internal voltage drop = 5. 2. NIL. provides initial excitation. The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 x 0. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. OCV = 2. 0.Option B. 218. 0. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 43. The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA.52 ohms. 216. incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit. Option C. Correct Answer is. capacitive circuits. Correct Answer is. RPM and speed. Option C. Question Number. CSDU (constant speed drive unit). Option A. resistive circuits. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. frequency. 220. CSDU (constant speed drive unit). Option C.Option A. 221. NIL. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48. voltage and phase relationship. frequency. Speed of an alternator may be controlled by. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. The real load of an alternator is directly related to. RPM and phase relationship. output shaft rpm. frequency. inductive circuits. output voltage. resistive circuits. frequency. Correct Answer is. . Option B. Option C. Option A. Question Number. 222. NIL. keeping engine rpm constant. varying the field current. Option B. Option A. voltage and phase relationship. NIL. Question Number. output shaft torque. Explanation. output shaft torque. Frequency wild' alternators supply. NIL. Option C. Question Number. . Aircraft Electrical Systems. 224. Correct Answer is. keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures. not affected by change of temperature of machine. compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings. 225. keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures. Pallett Page 45 and diagram. Explanation. 223. Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system. Explanation. Question Number. normally lower when the machine is hot. the same. keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures. Option A. A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on line. not the same. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 226. Option C. normally higher when the machine is hot. Option B. Insulation resistance of electrical machines is. normally higher when the machine is hot. Option C. before full output is available from the voltage regulator?. the outputs are constant. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles. Explanation. Option A. Option C. not the same. The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Option B. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and phase relationship is.Question Number. Option A. 230. 229. Correct Answer is. They will be synchronised when. Option A. NIL. Option C. Question Number. can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. . Option B. the lamp is extinguished. The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of. Low oil press and CSD speed. Question Number. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency. the lamp is extinguished. disconnection of the other alternators. the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished. crash engagement. NIL. Explanation. Hi oil temperature and low oil press. crash engagement. Option B. Option A.Explanation. cannot be checked. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. Option B. 227. Option C. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. ground power disconnection. Question Number. Correct Answer is. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator. NIL. the lamp is maximum brightness. 228. Option B. Option C. Option C. inversely proportional to the length of cable. The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is. NIL. . Option B. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Low oil temperature and low oil press. Option C. is not allowed to be adjusted. An external ground power supply can be used for. 232. is adjusted with the engine stationary.Option C. Option B. Hi oil temperature and low oil press. Option C. Correct Answer is. 231. NIL. all normal services required by flight and ground crew. only the emergency busbar services. The CSD or IDG speed governor setting. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails. is adjusted with the engine stationary. Option A. Option A. Option B. Explanation. 233. 234. Question Number. Question Number. only the ground handling busbar services. The APU generator can normally be. NIL. connected in parallel with the aircraft's main generators. is adjusted with the engine running. Explanation. Correct Answer is. connected in parallel with the ground power supply. used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails. Question Number. all normal services required by flight and ground crew. Option A. NIL. Option C. Question Number. fully charged condition. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. not affected by length of cable. single phase to direct current. main bus bar. A frequency wild AC generator is used for. http://www. not affected by length of cable. NIL.net/documents/wiring/cable_impedance. Question Number. Option C. CAAIPS Leaflet 6-4 Page 13. Option A. battery bus bar. Correct Answer is. 237. ground service bus. Option B. single phase to direct current. A ni-cad battery is stored in the. fully discharged condition. Transformer rectifier unit (TRUs) change. dry condition. proportional to the length of cable.epanorama. Option C. Option A. fully discharged condition. NIL. Correct Answer is.html Question Number. Option B. main bus bar. Explanation. Galley loads are supplied from the. Explanation. direct current to AC. 238. Option B. 236. Explanation.Option B. three phase AC to direct current. 235. . Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. replace the battery. Prevent bounce. Cell is defective. Option A. JAR 25. Question Number. fluorescent lights. Option B. 239. What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?. Explanation. Option A. Option B. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?. NIL. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Option B. deicing loads. Option A. 11B. Option C. Prevent spikes. Explanation. Option C.07a. Option B. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water. Prevent spikes.Option A. Correct Answer is. Replace the defective cell. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water. To prevent current going the wrong way. Explanation.857. instruments. Correct Answer is. 1. deicing loads. NIL. Class C. Option C. Class B. It is known as a 'flywheel diode'. Class D. 240. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under. Class D. Explanation. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25). 3 inches. Option A. Explanation. 24. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of. Explanation. CO2. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-12. 4 b All inflatable safety equipment use CO2. 2. . Nitrogen. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 5. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 4. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is. dependant upon aircraft type. 3 inches. CO2. CO2. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with. Option C. Option A. 3.Question Number. Option C. Option B. Explanation. All inflatable emergency equipment are inflated with CO2. CO2. 15. air.3 (now in CAP747). Option B. 15. 5 inches. Option B. Option A. AWN 64 Para 4. Option B. oxygen. helium. 4 inches. Option C. Question Number. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be. Option C. BCARs. Testing of the cartridges is the same procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges. Toilets must have a smoke detection. . Option B. 7. one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time. Correct Answer is.1 and CAIPs AL/3-12 4. Explanation. Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?. Option A. Leaflet 5-2 4. Every 12 months. 8. Explanation.1. AWN 99.Explanation. Option B.6. all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body. ANO. How often are life jackets inspected?. CAP 747. 6. AWN 99. any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground. Question Number. Option B. Option A.3 on. aural and visual warning in the main cabin.815. Option C. Option C. connected to a pump to pump the smoke out. In accordance with the manufacturers specification. Option A. Correct Answer is. all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-73. Question Number. Question Number. JAR 25. In accordance with the AMM. In accordance with the manufacturers specification. Option B. Explanation. Option A. light in the cockpit. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 9. When testing emergency slide bottles. have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket. Question Number. Explanation. With white spirit. Question Number. Question Number. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7. Cabin operations manual. Cabin safety on-board card. NIL. light in the cockpit. Correct Answer is. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts.854 says a) or b). Correct Answer is. 10. Option B. Option A. 12. 13. Option A. Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which document?. JAR 25. 11. After a successful ditching. . Option C. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?. Option A. Option B. Explanation. With warm water with low alkalinity soap. the liferafts deployment will. Option B. Option A. Option C. With MEK.Correct Answer is. NIL. Cabin operations manual. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Schedule 4 of the ANO. Question Number. JARs. NIL. How do you clean seat belts?. Option B. be briefed by the cabin crew. Explanation. With warm water with low alkalinity soap. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts. The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using.Option C. CO2.1421. 2 megaphones are required. Option B. 16. 15. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Option B. 2 megaphones are required. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:. nitrogen. . Question Number. Option C. compressed air. Correct Answer is. 11B.561 and 25. Option A. 9g. Option A. Correct Answer is. 1 megaphone is required. 3 megaphones are required.07b. 9g. NIL. Question Number. 14. Correct Answer is. CO2. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25). Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of. 15g. Option C. JAR 25. Option A.810. Schedule 4 of the ANO. Question Number. Explanation. 12g. AL/3-12 2. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Airworthiness Notice 79. JAR Ops 1. the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads. Question Number. 4. Option A.6.1. not exceed the floor loading limits.Question Number. nylon. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option C. 28 inches. does not matter as the trolleys move. Correct Answer is. Option B. 2. Option A. the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances. AWN 64 Para 4. Correct Answer is. not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour. Option C. Cargo nets are made from nylon or polyester (not polypropylene). not exceed the floor loading limits. 3. Explanation. When loading a cargo aircraft. . A galley trolley will be designed to. the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads. Option B. Option C. nylon. 1. the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?. Option C. AWN 99 para 5. Option A. 24 inches. hessian. 26 inches. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 26 inches. polypropylene. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Cargo nets are manufactured from. Option B. Option B. Must be stowed for take-off. 45°C. PTV = Personal Television. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called. Option A. location. landing and turbulence. Correct Answer is. 5. 8. maximum weight. Option A. Correct Answer is. position. Option C. AWN 99 4. 55°C. Explanation. Option A. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques. 4. Must be stowed for take-off. minimum equipment.Question Number.2. Option C. position. 7. . 6. flight number. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating. controlled equipment. is not the part of maintenance schedule. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Option C. PTV type entertainment equipment. landing and turbulence. 65°C. Question Number. Correct Answer is.11. Option A. Question Number. Option B. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques.1. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above. has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting. uncontrolled equipment. flight number. uncontrolled equipment. AWN 99 5. 45°C. Option B. Correct Answer is. side cart guides and fore and aft latches. 9. Question Number. Explanation. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. CAP 455 AWN No. NIL.2. Question Number. . Question Number. you can fit seats facing forward or rearward.2. Option B. Option C. Option B. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP). rope. Option A. 12. the button is pushed again. 10. the button is pulled out. Option B. containerised cargo is held down by. A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as. a controlled item. Option A.99 5. AWN 64 Para. Option A. Option C. With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation. a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated. 11. you can only fit seats facing forward. Option A. side cart guides and fore and aft latches. On large aeroplanes. Option C. Question Number. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP). Explanation. To reset the light. netting.Explanation. Explanation.2. an uncontrolled item. NIL. the button is pushed again. Correct Answer is. Question Number. goes off. neither. Explanation. Option A. a controlled item. On pulling the fire handle.Option C. the light goes off. goes off.2 Dimension C. Option B. bleed air and generator goes off. The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is. Explanation. 3 inches. the generator goes off line. 600 psi. the generator goes off line.. Option B. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. the light extinguishes. 600 psi. 3 inches. 1250 psi. Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to. 1. . 13. Question Number. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-7. Explanation. the light remains on. 11B. hydraulics. B757 AMM. as it is removable. 7 inches. the generator goes off line. Option A. 5 inches. Explanation.1. the light remains on. Option A. Fire Protection (ATA 26). Correct Answer is. the aural warning. goes off. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd EditionPage 166".08a. Option B. 1500 psi. AWN99 Para 4. Question Number. CAP 747 GR No. stays on. 2. Option A. Correct Answer is.4 in para d. 5. Option A. In a capacitive fire detection system. class B compensation. there is a short to earth. Explanation. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a. there is a break. 4. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. the system and the extinguishing system are the same. it checks the integrity of the contacts. 3. Option C.857. . the system and the extinguishing system are the same.2. Question Number. Correct Answer is. it checks the integrity of the contacts. the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning. Option B.1. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when. CAIPs AL/3-9 Para 4. there is a break. there is a break. the system will not work. a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning. Option B. Option C. class D compensation.2. 6.Question Number. the system will work but not test satisfactory. Jeppesen a+p Technician Airframe Textbook page 11-6 b describes a systron-donner system. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. if. Option C. Option A. the system is different but the extinguishant is the same. Option B. class B compensation. JAR 25 1203 f2. class A compensation. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out.This is the same system the CAA call a sensor/responder system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para 2. Question Number. Explanation. the system will work but not test satisfactory. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25. Option A. the system is the same but the extinguishant is different. the system will work but not test satisfactory. 8. Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged. in the disposal container. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 163. Question Number. Option A. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder. Option C. Option A. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder. B737 MM 26-24-00 pg1. 10. using master warning visual and aural signals. JAR 25-854 a. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged. Question Number. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses.Question Number. Correct Answer is. water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged. Correct Answer is. Option C. 9. Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged. Explanation. Option B. oxygen gas.4. b. Question Number. using master warning visual signals only. helium gas. Option B. When inspecting lavatory installations. the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material. No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only. A fire detection loop must be capable of. Explanation. AWN 83 5. Option C. using master warning visual and aural signals. 7. Option B. The temperature sensitive strip changes color from white to black at the indicated temp. detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is no longer present. Option A. Lavatories must have. . 8. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Option C. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection. . Option A. Red light. Correct Answer is. Question Number. AC or DC. What external warning is there for an APU fire?. AC. NIL. Option B. Aural. Option C. Both aural and a red light. 14. Explanation. Jeppesen Page 9-22. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out.3. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat. DC. Option B.2. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Option A. Both aural and a red light. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat. Correct Answer is. 12. Option A. AWN 57 Para. every two years. Option C. to protect against continuous flushing. Question Number. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by. to protect against freezing at altitude. AL/3-26 2. 11. Question Number. 13. DC. nitrogen gas. Explanation. helium gas. Transport Category Aircraft Systems. Explanation. Option B. cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Option B. only when equipment items fail random tests. Correct Answer is. B747-400 AMM. 15. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers.b737.4 (d). Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. When the fire handle is operated it. Option A. calibration check. Dirty contacts. every five years. operates fire extinguisher only. Volts drop. Question Number. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done.org. Explanation. NIL. Explanation. continuity check. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers. only when equipment items fail random tests.2. Explanation. Option C. Option A. 17. Correct Answer is.htm Question Number. What is the contamination monitor for. . cuts off field current. Question Number. Integrity comparator. function check. NIL. Option C. Option C. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a. Option A. EEL/1-7 2. in a Systron Donner fire detection system?.uk/fireprotection. Option B. cuts off field current. Dirty contacts. 16. http://www. 18.Option B. Question Number. continuity check. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power. Option C. A continuity check. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 19. Explanation. AWN 83. Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage. Trick question. Correct Answer is. Option C. . A continuity check. 21. Option C. every 2 years. A continuity check is carried out . Explanation. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?. 20. Option A. when a sample fails. Option B. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Option B. CAAIPs. Pressure. Option B.Option A. Option A.now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 20. Option C. AWN 83 . Continuity. In a gas firewire system.with a safety ohmmeter. AWN 83. Bottles are fired. AWN 80. But a safety ohmmeter does not check voltage. Capacitance increase. Pressure. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Toilet fire detection issues can be found in. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 16-8 Lindberg System. what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?. NIL. Correct Answer is. when a sample fails. Question Number. Explanation. every 5 years. Smoke detectors consist of a. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke.857. Light in the cabin. C. Option B. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class. Explanation. Option C. Option C. D. D. 24.Question Number. Correct Answer is. In a toilet smoke condition. JAR 25. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke. Explanation. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. 25. Question Number. Question Number. same potential as ground. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. The outside casing of a firewire has. A. Option A. Explanation. Audible warning in the cabin.2. JAR 25. same potential as ground. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke. . Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9. NIL. Option C. 115VDC potential above ground. Option B. Question Number. Option B. Option C. 22. 23. Explanation.854. 28VDC potential above ground. Option B. lamp detecting 2% smoke. Option A. what would be the indication?. Option A. Correct Answer is. The firewire. Option C. Explanation. Pallets Aircraft Electrical System Third Edition page 163 fig 10. The firewire. . Option A. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201. Option B. JAR OPS 1. Option A. Correct Answer is. Bi-annually. red warning light goes off. hydraulics. Explanation. Question Number.Question Number. Option A.17. 4 Fire Extinguishers. AWN 60. & fuel is cut off. Option B. Generator goes offline. 4 Fire Extinguishers. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Question Number. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?. The outside of the firewire to earth. & fuel is cut off. hydraulics & fuel stays on. The firewire. B737 MM. When the fire-handle switch is pulled. 27. Light goes off only when fire is extinguished. Warning light is an indication of fire. Generator. Generator. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Fire Protection (ATA 26). Every 5 years. red warning light stays on. 1. Generator. 2. Explanation. Option C. red warning light stays on. 11B. hydraulics. 4 Methyl Bromide.790. red warning light stays on. Option A. a.08b. 3 BCF. sensor & controller. 26.300 people?. CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6. Option C. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-10. Option A. Annually.3. Option B. Weighed. NIL.1.Option C. one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. on bracket. 3. 6. Explanation. 4. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger. AL/3-10 6. Explanation. on head fitting. Option B.3 and 7. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle. Explanation. on base of body. The weight of an extinguisher is stamped. para 6. on head fitting. Annually. Weighed. Check the pressure. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle. Portable fire extinguishers are operated by. . Check the tell-tale wire. 5. Option C. Question Number. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?.3. Question Number. Option A. 6. Option C. Explanation. Option B. 8. 7. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. 5. baggage holds only. Question Number. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs. . Correct Answer is. would not prevent movement of the control column. 1. Question Number.Option B. all fires in fuselage.09. engines only. 11B.851.3. Question Number. Explanation. the installation of external ground locks to the main control surface. Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot. 7. would not prevent movement of the control column. JAR 25. all fires in fuselage. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 8. Option C. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 . 6.500 passengers?. Option C. Option A. 6. Option C. Option B. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. CO2 fire extinguishers are used on. Second Edition Page 253 (first line). is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the wind.851. AL/3-10 3. 5. 7. JAR 25. Flight Controls (ATA 27). Option B. would also prevent movement of the control column. Option A. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Flight spoilers are used in flight and on the ground. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 51. A full time yaw damper system detects. Correct Answer is. band pass frequencies. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-6. a ball bearing. they. Option C. 4. Option A. all frequencies. Explanation. only operate in flight. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is. Option C. can operate both on the ground and in flight. a plain bearing. 3. Ball bearings are used in fibre pulleys. However Ground spoilers can ONLY be used on the ground. Question Number. 5. band pass frequencies. the secondary stops will just be in contact. Option C.Question Number. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 222 on. a ball bearing. only low frequencies. Option A. With respect to flight spoilers. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted. Explanation. the secondary stops have been over-ridden. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 2. . Option B. can operate both on the ground and in flight. Option B. only operate on the ground. a roller bearing. Question Number. Option A. cable misalignment. with the aileron in the neutral position. Explanation. will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls. Question Number. . demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. Option B. Option C. with the aileron in the down position. when the aircraft is in level flight attitude. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-40. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-45. pulley misalignment. Option C. with the aileron in the neutral position. Option A. A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of. To allow the cable to be tensioned. 8. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. What is an aileron balance cable for?. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. excessive cable tension. Option C. 6.Correct Answer is. can only be carried out during flight. Option A. Explanation. A flying control static friction check. pulley misalignment. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed. Explanation. The clearance is on the secondary stops. 9. 7. Question Number. Correct Answer is. To correct for wing heaviness. Option C. Option B. Option C. increase degree of movement at high speed. 11. To allow aircraft to fly hands off. For a given pilot effort. 10. decrease degree of movement at low speed. 60°. Use of trim reduces the associated control movement direction range. Question Number. for 'up' travel movement. if the control column is pulled back. increase degree of movement at high speed. for 'up' travel movement.30 degrees and a further 15 degrees with ailerons. spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to. Option B. A horn balance on a control will. decrease degree of movement at high speed. To allow the cable to be tensioned. would make no difference to the movement. 15°. a servo tab fitted to the elevator will. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. the horn balance increases movement. Correct Answer is. In the air . Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-27. Option A. Explanation. range of movement of the elevator is restricted. Option B. 30°. Option C. 13. (nose up). Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 5-6. 12. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. In normal flight.Option C. On the ground. Correct Answer is. for 'down' travel movement. Explanation. Question Number. . 60°. Question Number. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing. Correct Answer is. automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements. both move up. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant. 15. NIL. both move down. Option C. move down. Option A. the aircraft will be fitted with. Option C. which makes the wing lift. Could also be answered 'b'. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing. 16. both move down. Explanation. Choose your interpretation. Option B. Option B. Option C. integrated fuel monitoring system. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. . remain stationary. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight. 14. then the aileron on the right wing will. NIL. if a column is moved forward. In normal flight. Option B. the elevons will. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing. symmetrical flight control trim. Option B. Option A. Explanation. remain in line with the elevator. move down. The downgoing aileron (the right one) has an increase in AoA locally. move up. if the control wheel is moved to the left. depending on whether it means the cause or the effect. Correct Answer is.Option A. decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing. Explanation. thusreducing the AoA of the wing as a whole. would prevent the movement of the control column. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-29. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-29. 20. Both must be operated together. Option C. The other switch half is to supply the power to the motor. Option C. the installation of external ground locks between the control surface and the balance tabs. Correct Answer is. The 'split' trim switch has one half closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim motor. Question Number. Option A. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs. Option B. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach. increased sensitivity for increased speed. on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer. would prevent the movement of the control column. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible. to operate the trim. Explanation. would not prevent the movement of the control column. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch. Explanation. Correct Answer is. decreases sensitivity for decreased speed. Automatic Flight Control. Option A. increased sensitivity for increased speed. Option A. 18. Explanation. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch. 19. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with. Option B. Correct Answer is. on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch. Question Number. The two switches for pitch trim are located. symmetrical flight control trim. decreases sensitivity for increased speed. Question Number. Explanation. Probably referring to Load Alleviation Function. . Pallett Page 223. and to engage the clutch. Option C. Option B.Correct Answer is. Question Number. 17. the possible cause may be. Option A. symmetrical application of ailerons. flap position. Question Number. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft. . operation of the elevator. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?. And Vise versa on the other aileron. Explanation. Explanation. 23. Option A. Yaw damping rate changes with. Correct Answer is. Option C. The Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron. altitude. CAIPs EEL/1-2. symmetrical application of ailerons. Option A. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-19. Correct Answer is. Option B. airspeed. Option B. which is on the downgoing wing. Correct Answer is. wing root bending moments are reduced by. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. 21. Option B. Increase drag on the up going wing. Option B. Avionic Fundamentals page 292. bearing seized. flap tracks out of rigging. flap motor internal leakage. transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another. 22. Option C. Decrease drag on the up going wing. flap motor internal leakage. Decrease drag on the up going wing. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. airspeed. Option C. Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads. Option C. This is to prevent a hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. 7%. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Option A. Option C.H. Option C. Option B. fitting a tachogenerator. 26. Option A. Option A. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by. para 2). Question Number. Eismin 5th Edition Page-370. moves up at impending stall. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?. 24. fitting a tachogenerator. Droop.321%. Correct Answer is. A wing mounted stall warning vane. feedback from control surface. 27. Automatic Flight Control by E. gives a visual indication of impending stall. 4%. Option B. page-157 (feedback. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Surfaces behave like manually controlled surfaces.J. Explanation.Question Number." Question Number. Correct Answer is. Droop. feedback from the servo motor. Explanation.Pallett 3rd edition. Option C. . Remain in last position. Go to neutral. 10. Option B. moves down at impending stall. "The drop in pressure releases a valve which lets the fluid pass easily from one side of actuator piston to the other. Correct Answer is. Option C. 25. 7%. moves up at impending stall. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. ailerons. 31. flight management and guidance computer. Option C. 29. Option C. balance the tabs. Question Number. During an autopilot controlled turn. Option B. ailerons and rudder will move. In a fly-by-wire aircraft. Option A. Option B. NIL. Flight control computer. NIL. rudder and elevators will move. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26. Option A. Explanation. flight augmentation computer. counteract flutter on control surfaces. Flight management computer. flight control computer. Option A. what controls the roll spoilers?. On a full fly-by-wire system. Option A. Mass balance weights are used to. rudder and elevators will move. Flight control computer. Correct Answer is. flight control computer. a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the. 30. Option C. Question Number. rudder and THS will move. Question Number. balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26. Question Number. 28.Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. ailerons. Flight augmentation computer. . ailerons. Question Number. . Option C.Correct Answer is. Active load control involves. Explanation. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-29 (Load Alleviation Function). varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft. Option A. Question Number. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 292. Option C. prevent control surface runaway. Explanation. aileron and spoiler. damp the system oscillation. Option A. Option C. Explanation. NIL. brakes are deployed. Question Number. limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed. Correct Answer is. 32. elevator and aileron. 34. elevator and stab. 35. counteract flutter on control surfaces. Option B. intervention & monitoring the human pilot. Correct Answer is. Option A. ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground and. prevent control surface runaway. Active load control uses. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft. protect the servo motor. Question Number. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle. Option B. Explanation. Option B. 33. Option A. Correct Answer is. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to. aileron and spoiler. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to. Flight Augmentation Computers. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft. thrust reversers are deployed. Option A. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Flight Guidance and Management Computer.b737. prevent nose pitching down. electric flight control unit. Correct Answer is. Flight Augmentation Computers. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. C of G movement. Explanation. weight on ground switch is activated. If the elevator is deflected over a long time.htm.Option B. Option B. 37. Question Number. Option A. the AFCS trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the elevator deflection load. prevent adverse yaw in a turn. Option B. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by.org. 38. Option C. http://www. NIL. Option C. Option C. continued pitch input. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26. Question Number. 36.also. rudder trim is nulled by the. A320 Ground Spoiler Logic diagram .uk/flightcontrols. . continued pitch input. thrust reversers are deployed. Correct Answer is. prevent adverse yaw in a turn. Explanation. Option C. prevent nose pitching up. pitch of aircraft in cruise. Option C. Question Number. balance panels. Explanation. During either manual or automatic control. ELAC and SEC.Question Number. . ELAC. 42. Flutter can be prevented by. On a fly-by-wire aircraft. During either manual or automatic control. Option C. cause a nose up moment. Correct Answer is. Option B. During manual control only. Option A. 39. Option B. Explanation. During automatic control only. Explanation. 40. Correct Answer is. NIL. mass balance. Correct Answer is. Option A. cause a nose down moment. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-23. Option A. mass balance. 41. Option A. trim tabs. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input. In an automatic flight control system. SEC. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. when may the yaw damper be applied?. Option B.226. ELAC and SEC. what controls stabilizer trim?. Differential aileron control will. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 222 . Option B. servos move to neutral and lock. Option C. both ailerons are down. operation of the trim controls is required. servos remain stationary and provide damping. Correct Answer is. Fast/Slow indication. 43. one is up one is down. .Question Number. autopilot need not be engaged. for the trim system to operate. NIL. the ailerons are neutralised (faired) and the aircraft will hold the turn. Option B. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Question Number.218. Explanation. In an autopilot coordinated turn. In an auto trim system. Option A. Explanation. 45. Automatic Flight Control. Autothrottle applying more power. Option A. Option C. autopilot must be engaged. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the ailerons are faired. In a fully fly by wire system. How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?. servos lock at last position. Correct Answer is. 44. Option A. servos remain stationary and provide damping. when the turn angle is reached. Pallett Page 213 . Autothrottle applying more power. the ailerons are faired. Option C. if the elevator loses all electrical power. Due to the aircraft's neutral lateral stability. Option B. Question Number. autopilot need not be engaged. Explanation. A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew Operating Manual. 46. Reduce flap deployment. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. ailerons moving symmetrically upward. Question Number. NIL. NIL. Question Number. Option B. will limit the flight profile. 48. landing gear up and locked. Option B. spoiler moving symmetrically upward. Mach/Speed Trim. Option B. has no effect on the aircraft's operation. Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when. Option A. will reduce the operational height and speed. Correct Answer is. has no effect on the aircraft's operation. Explanation. flaps are retracted. NIL. Option A. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward. Option B. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward. Explanation. Electric Trim. Correct Answer is. Option C. Pitch Trim. 47. Option C. 49.Question Number. Mach/Speed Trim. Option A. 50. Correct Answer is. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?. Option A. Option C. A single failure of fly by wire. flaps are extended. Correct Answer is. . flaps are retracted. Question Number. Option C. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. rudder and elevator. 54.D. Correct Answer is. Spoiler position feedback is provided by a. Option A. Question Number. a microswitch. 52. . Option C. Option C.M.V. Option C. an R. minimise flutter. increases feel as airspeed increases. Explanation. restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed. elevator and aileron. 51. prevent adverse yaw.D. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Elevons combine the functions of both. Option A. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36. an R. Option C. Question Number. 53.C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed. Option A.Explanation. rudder and aileron. Question Number.V. NIL. A differential aileron system is designed to.T.T. a S. elevator and aileron. restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed. Option A. Rudder 'Q' limiting. NIL. compensate for aileron reversal. has the actuator rams co-axial. 56. Question Number. NIL. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn. 58. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. has the actuator rams parallel. Correct Answer is. Option A.F. Option C. prevent adverse yaw. for power operated control systems. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?. Option A. Active load control uses. Explanation. An artificial feel system is required. Explanation. Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn. Question Number. for power operated control systems. Option B.U. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. elevator and ailerons. 57. elevator and stab. NIL. Option C. Option A. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn.com/content/engine/14105/css/14105_157.tpub. . http://www. for proportional control systems. for power assisted control systems. 55. A tandem P. has two control surfaces under its control. NIL. has the actuator rams co-axial.htm Question Number. Option A. NIL.C. Option B. To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL. automatic and instantaneous. prevent overloading of the power control units. NIL. Explanation. but not recommended. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces. Question Number. . 62. Explanation. Option B. compensate for high temperature only. 59. automatic and instantaneous. Question Number. The purpose of control cable regulators is to. Option A. NIL. ailerons and spoilers. possible. Option A. compensate for low temperature only. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to. 61. Option C. Correct Answer is. increasing the sensitivity of the control system. Explanation. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. Question Number. Option C. ailerons and spoilers. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces.Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system. operated by the standby hydraulic system. a requirement of the manual reversion is that it must be. Option B. Question Number. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by. Option A. Option C. 60. NIL. rudder. Option C.Option A. rudder. NIL. travel of the jack body. Option B. to provide pressure to operate the control. NIL. mechanical stops in the control system. elevator. Option A. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook page 12-38. Option B. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the. 64. mechanical stops in the control system. travel of the jack ram. rudder. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. elevato. to revert the system to manual operation. NIL. ailerons. ailerons. Explanation. Correct Answer is. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. elevator. Option A. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. 65. 63. Option C. . The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the. depending on the selection. NIL. Correct Answer is. either opposite each other or together. 68. NIL. 66. 69.Question Number. Option C. Explanation. vibrates the control column near stalling speed. Option A. vibrates the control column near stalling speed. . Option A. elevator. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. opposite to each other only. Option B. Correct Answer is. gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off. Option A. Option C. due to the high longitudinal stability. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Question Number. Option A. rudder. either opposite each other or together. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high. 67. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the. Ruddervators when moved. A stick shaker is a device which. Option B. together only. ailerons. depending on the selection. ailerons. will move. helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground. Option B. via a fixed linkage. Option B. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces. Option B. A servo tab is operated. NIL. Question Number. via a fixed linkage. Explanation. Question Number. automatically.Question Number. 70. Option A. they must be positioned by. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. changes. Question Number. by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved. Option A. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops. 73. when the C. Option B. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 23. Option C.G. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces. Explanation. Correct Answer is. and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces. 72. An anti-balance tab is moved. operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached. 71. Option C. Option B. increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators. hydraulically. moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops. When checking full range of control surface movement. . moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops. The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. this may be compensated for by. use of the rudder control. use of the rudder control. Option C. 76. 74. Fowler flap. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. . Split flap. Option A. servo tab. 77. Option C. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?. Fowler flap. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. NIL. 75. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?. split flap. Option B. Option C.Explanation. Elevator. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Fowler flap. Tailplane. Option A. Explanation. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a. Tailplane. Question Number. Rudder. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a. plain flap. trim tab. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Slotted flap. Question Number. NIL. Option A. Option A. Fowler flap. geared balance tab. rudder. Explanation. Question Number. Lift dumpers. Explanation. What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?. Correct Answer is. NIL. Trim tabs. Spring tabs. 78. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Balance tabs. Air brakes. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. 80. Explanation. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence. Option C. ailerons. Option C. or speed tending to rise above the Never Exceed Limit?. Option A. Wheel brakes. they combine with. Trim tabs. Correct Answer is. geared balance tab. NIL. Option B. Option B. When spoilers are used asymmetrically. . NIL. Air brakes.Option C. Option B. Explanation. Option C. NIL. elevators. ailerons. Question Number. 79. 83. With hydraulic ram operated flying controls. after the stall. Correct Answer is. just before the stall.Question Number. air loads on the control surfaces. remain in the position they were when power was removed. NIL. provide feedback to the pilot. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. are operated by the autopilot only. Q feel. A stick shaker operates. Correct Answer is. Option B. 84. Explanation. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 168. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. when the pressure is reduced to zero. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces. Option C. Option B. the flying control surfaces. just before the stall. Option A. Option A. at the onset of the stall. NIL. 82. In a power assisted flight control system. Option C. Option C. . 81. Powered flying control actuators. Explanation. air loads on the control surfaces. the feel required is normally supplied by. Option A. Option B. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces. Question Number. stay at neutral. droop. Question Number. stretching springs. droop. Correct Answer is. roll will not occur. pitot and static pressures. Option B. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft. Correct Answer is. 87. 86. Option C. Explanation. Option A. 88. NIL. Option A. Option B. pitot pressure only. Correct Answer is. Option B. the jack ram being attached to structure. pitot and static pressures. pitch trim is not affected. Option A. pitch trim is not affected. because at low level air density is high. static pressure only. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed. nulling of the servo valve. Question Number.1 Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. Question Number. "Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by. nulling of the servo valve. Avionics Fundamentals pg 257 fig 17-31. . Power 'operated'controls use a Q feel system.2.Explanation." Option A. AL/3-7 8. Q feel units use. 85. air loads on the control surface. Question Number. Explanation. Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock. Explanation. Option C.1 and 8. Option C. no yaw takes place. Question Number. NIL. aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn. the aileron control wheel only. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. A differential aileron control system results in. A lift transducer is normally fitted. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Lift transducer. "If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler . the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever. NIL. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn. Explanation. Option A. also known as a stall sensor. on the leading edge of the wing. Spoiler panels are controlled by. Option A. on the elevator control system. Option A. NIL. Option C. 89. Option C. Option B. on the leading edge of the wing. Option C. 92. Option B. Question Number. 90. Correct Answer is. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn. aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements. Explanation. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. a speed brake lever only. to the nose area of the aircraft. 91. Question Number. the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. Explanation. because the pilot has too many tasks to perform. Option B. rolling. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to. In a fly-by-wire control system. the spoiler panels. NIL. remain where they are. Option A. . NIL. the control system computer. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. pitch changes. Option C. Option C. Option A. prevent inadvertent operation. Option A. allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown. Correct Answer is. rolling. Option B. NIL. go to full up. prevent inadvertent operation. Explanation. Explanation. 95. Option B. Option C. go to down if any are not already down. lock the speed brakes down during flight. Correct Answer is. the follow-up transducer is fitted to. the hydraulic actuator. yawing. go to down if any are not already down.system. Option B. Question Number." Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. the pilots input. Option C. the hydraulic actuator. Question Number. Explanation. 93. 94. Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of. Explanation. moves the rudder only. Question Number. Option B. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up. 99. Option C. NIL. Option B. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . greater than 90%. moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll. 96. Option C. Explanation. A differential aileron control is one which gives. When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left. Explanation. the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down. 98. a larger aileron up travel than down.Question Number. equal aileron travel in each direction. Option A. moves the rudder pedals and the rudder. NIL. greater than 75%. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads. Option A. NIL. moves the rudder only. Option B. but variable for stick movement. the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down. Option C. Option A. a larger aileron up travel than down. Question Number. Option A. greater than 75%. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up. the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 97. A series type yaw damper. greater than 50%. elevator down. left spoiler remaining retracted. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree. Option A. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control. 101. right spoiler extending. right spoiler extending. 102. both spoilers extending. A stick shaker. left aileron moves up. Option B. Option A. Option C. Option B. right aileron down. Question Number. left spoiler remaining retracted. Option C. Question Number. Option B. 103. Explanation. Explanation. move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral. Option A. Explanation. Option C. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column. Option B. elevator down. Option A.Question Number. is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column. If the control column is moved forward and to the left.3. left spoiler extending. an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will. NIL. left aileron moves up. elevator down. elevator up. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. left aileron moves down. vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe. Correct Answer is. right spoiler remaining retracted. right aileron up. AL/3-21 page 22 para 13. right aileron moves down. 100.2 and Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 211. Question Number. roll to the right is caused by. Option C. left aileron moves up. right aileron down. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column. NIL. . move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low. Option A. Question Number. Option B. The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down. Explanation. NIL. Explanation. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. The elevator trim tab has moved up.Correct Answer is. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree. What was the direction of travel of the trim tab?. The elevator trim tab has moved down. brass. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. . Option C. NIL. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. 106. Pulleys in a flight control system are made from. Question Number. An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism. increase cable tension in cold weather. NIL. Option B. 107. 105. 104. Option B. Option C. Option A. Question Number. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. decrease cable tension in cold weather. stainless steel. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. The elevator trim tab has moved down. Correct Answer is. Explanation. retain a set tension. retain a set tension. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to. Explanation. 110. Option A. Question Number. pitch Frequency. roll frequency. Option B. throttle lever. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. aircraft tends to go nose up. dutch roll frequency. dutch roll frequency. dampens the rudder movement. aircraft tends to go nose down. 108. fast/slow switch. Option C. restricts movement of the throttles. Option C.Option A. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft. NIL. Explanation. locks the ailerons and elevators. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's. flap position. then the. restricts movement of the throttles. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Explanation. aircraft tends to roll to the right. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. 109. Option B. Option A. Option B. aircraft tends to go nose up. . throttle lever. Explanation. NIL. 113. the closed position. 112. The outboard ailerons on some aircraft. the open position. Option B. Ground spoilers are used to. are isolated at slow speeds. Option B. 11B. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal. are isolated to improve sensitivity. Question Number. prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing. decreasing the velocity of the aircraft. Option B. Option C. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal. increasing the altitude of the aircraft. Option B. Option C. its last position. 1. Option A. 111. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity. A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in.Question Number. Correct Answer is. increase wing loading on take-off. The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by. Option A. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option C.10. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. the closed position. Fuel Systems (ATA 28). Question Number. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity. decrease wing loading on landing. NIL. Option A. decrease wing loading on landing. NIL. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Option B. Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on. 3. CAIPs AL/3-17 5. Option A. NIL. by the fuel. separate venting for each tank.8. air spaces interconnected. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the. low pressure systems. Correct Answer is. 4. Option B. Question Number. A320 FCOM 28. by air. 28 V DC bus. Option A. 2. .30 pg1. no airspace. Option C. by internal cooling. Explanation. 115 V AC.3. 737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. Explanation. 28 V DC bus. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated. Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for flight. battery. high pressure systems. Option C. Question Number. air or vapour systems. air or vapour systems. Option A. Explanation. by the fuel. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C.Explanation. 5. Option B. The dielectric constant of kerosene is more than that of air. Question Number. 9. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-17. no change. . Question Number. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 7-3. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-18. increases. Correct Answer is. B757 MM Chapter 28-41-00. Question Number. system capacitance. Option A.Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. 7. Correct Answer is. increases. Option B. Microbial growth is. the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full. it is applied wet and flushed out. When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. it is added to the fuel and burnt. Explanation. Option C. brown black slime. red dots. air spaces interconnected. As fuel level increases. Option C. Explanation. Option B. it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank. Option A. When refuelling. decreases. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. it is added to the fuel and burnt. Question Number. 8. Explanation. Option B. 6. it is applied dry and left. Question Number. brown black slime. press type rivets.e. corrosion takes place. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. tank shut-off valve point. tanks completely empty. In biologically contaminated fuel. Option A. AL/3-15 4. Option B. Correct Answer is. press type rivets. tank outlet.1.14.Option C. Option C. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by. contact adhesive. 10. Correct Answer is. bolts. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-38. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. a fuel flow test should be carried out at. Correct Answer is. tanks completely full.1. Option A. engine inlet. . 13. Question Number. Option C. below the fungal colonies. Option C. 11. Option B. NIL. After a tank bag has been replaced. engine inlet. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. AL/10-3 11. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.3 says press studs or cords. green sludge. 12. Correct Answer is. stop engine from using tank during transfer. Option C. Option A. 15.957. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to. Question Number. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. shut off fuel before structural damage. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. below the fungal colonies. Explanation. Option C. Option C. vents to allow overfueling. provision must be made to. provide overflow facility to dump fuel. Explanation. shut off fuel before structural damage. In a fuel system with interconnected vents. tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet. JAR 25. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity. Option A. an expansion space is not required.969. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. Question Number. 17.969. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. the bottom 2 inches of the tank. Correct Answer is. the top of the tank. . JAR 25. Correct Answer is. JAR 25. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight. Fuel tanks interconnected must have. Option A. Option B.Option B.3. Option B. 16. 14. AL/3-15 para 8. Option A.4 says 'up to 50 psi'. Option B. Option B. An anti-corona device. Question Number. soft reversion. Option A. A nozzle. 20. Explanation. Option B.Option A. any tank to any engine. Option C. Pressure refuelling is carried out at. . Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. An anti-corona device. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 40 PSI. Option A. hard reversion. Explanation. 18. A corona device. 15 PSI. mechanical reversion. Question Number. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vaporisation?. 20 PSI. Option C. 40 PSI. B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. Option C. TTS FADEC Booklet Page 13. any tank to any engine. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from. 19. Option C. left tank to right tank. Explanation. Correct Answer is. AL/3-17 5. Option B. tank to tank. Correct Answer is. soft reversion. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. Option B. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods. Correct Answer is. Depends on altitude. Option C. AL/3-15 9.Question Number. Explanation. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is. 22. be full. Integral fuel booster pumps. the fuel tanks should. Option C. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 6. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. to ensure that all available fuel can be used. 21. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 353. Option A. lets the fuel do cooling. require ram air cooling. Option A. Decreases. NIL. 23.17. require no cooling. Correct Answer is. Option C.3. . lets the fuel do cooling. Decreases. Question Number. 24. Option A. Option B. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. be empty. Increases. Correct Answer is. to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Option A. 26. NIL. Option A. In a light fixed wing aircraft.Question Number. the tank does not pressurise. Correct Answer is. both the engine driven and booster pump fail. By suction from the engine driven fuel pump. Explanation. 27. How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?. Option C. Option B. the filler cap should be left open. To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the engine driven pump fails. Option C. Option C. ice blockage. By a fuel boost pump. Question Number. 25. ice blockage. Option C. A fuel tank suction valve will open when. NIL. the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible. Correct Answer is. the fuel warning light indicates. NIL. the tank should be filled as full as possible. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. the tank should be filled as full as possible. pump failure. filter popped or pump fail. filter popped or pump fail. Explanation. Option B. the booster pump fails. Option B. Question Number. 28. Option B. By a gravity feed pump. Option A. the booster pump fails. By a fuel boost pump. . Option C. ram air is circulated around the tank. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. this could be caused by. . Correct Answer is. 31. Option B. 29. 30. Option A. Flexible. Explanation. green and in line. Option C. cabin air is bled around the tank. a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. which of the following is most prone to leaks?. amber and cross line. Question Number. amber and cross line. NIL. NIL. fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister.Explanation. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit. cabin air is bled around the tank. the magnetic indicator would show. amber and in line. NIL. Integral. 32. Integral. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up. Option B. NIL. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Rigid. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump. Option A. two 28V DC motors. Option C. . 34. Option C. Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated. NIL. Option C. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would. NIL. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. two single phase AC motors. fuel tank vent pipes. Option B. pull the fire handle. Correct Answer is. Option A. After first pulling teh firebottle CBs. 33. Option A. Explanation. close the cross bleed valve. the APU fuel feed. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. close the HP fuel lock. Explanation. fuel leaking past the inlet screens. Option A. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a. fuel tank vent pipes. Question Number. A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on. 35. Explanation. fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed. two 28V DC motors. pull the fire handle. 36. Correct Answer is. two three-phase AC motors. Option C.Option B. fuel jettison system. seep. Option C. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. prevent the centre from being defuelled. more durable and easier to maintain. Explanation. Question Number. The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they. Option C. Water. Correct Answer is.4. Option B. 37. run.Option A. Methylated Spirit. NIL. AL/3-15 page 8 para 5. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Kerosene. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel. Option B. A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to. Option B. . Option A. are cheaper to manufacture. automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time. Question Number. stain. NIL. Option C. 38. Correct Answer is. Explanation. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. Water. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. 39. Option A.1. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Explanation. Explanation. run. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with. Option B. 2. Explanation. Option C. is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7. However. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. the use of a pressure/heat exchanger.11. a parallel system. compressing the fluid in a reservoir. a separate system for each engine. Question Number. Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) (63) Question Number. based upon the fact that the fuel system can feed any engine from any tank.Question Number. Question Number." 11B. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-21 5. Explanation. 3. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system. 1. 2. Correct Answer is. we have interpreted it as 'every engine is fed from the same system'. Correct Answer is. is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions. the same system for each engine. 40. On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using. and all three answers arguably correct. "This question can be interpreted an many ways. Option C. What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?. Option B. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. Option C. the same system for each engine. Option B. . Option A. Option A.Option A. In the pressure line. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?. Increase in temperature is an indication of internal leaks. maintain a high pressure to all systems. In the case drain. Option C. dampen pressure inputs. Green. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Option B. . Option C. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8. A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will. In the case drain. Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-31 Also known as priority valves CAIPs AL/3-21 5.3. Increase in fluid temperature. Fluid loss. Option B. Correct Answer is. 5. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Increase in fluid temperature. 4. Explanation. allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply. Green. In the suction line. Correct Answer is. allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply. Option B. Option A. Yellow. Increase in fluid pressure. 6. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-44. White. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?. Explanation. . Increase acidity. Question Number. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-16. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. to fail-safe open. 9. Question Number. Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection. Option B. Option C. Option A. By pressurising. Correct Answer is. Option B. The depressurising valve (sometimes called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed. Option A. store fluid under pressure. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?. Energised Open. Hi acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis. Correct Answer is. Option C. Increase acidity. Energised Closed for fail-safe. Energised Closed for fail-safe. Option C. Option B. Explanation. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?. Increase viscosity. store fluid under pressure. provide additional fluid if leaks occur. By pressurising. Question Number. Explanation.Question Number. 10. Option A. Vent Reservoir to atmosphere. are only ever used in an emergency. 7. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7. Pass over a tray. Option B. Explanation. 8. Increase alkalinity. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 3. Option A. 14. Some systems show temperature. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in. Option C. Option C.1. Overheating causes acidity.Question Number. Option B. 13.3. acidity. Question Number. viscosity. Explanation. Question Number. . A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?. show fluid temperature and quantity. ethylene propylene or Teflon. show pressure and source of hydraulics. butyl rubber. synthetic rubber. Explanation. Option A. Option B. butyl rubber. ACOV. Correct Answer is. ethylene propylene or Teflon. natural rubber. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. A normal hydraulic system will. Option B. alkalinity. Pressure relief valve. acidity. Option B. Explanation. Option C. show pressure and source of hydraulics. Question Number. 11. Return line back to pump. 12. ACOV. but they are not 'normal'. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of. illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready. Correct Answer is. 18. use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer. CAIPs AL/3-21 12. Correct Answer is. Question Number. flush with same hydraulic oil. Option A. 3000 PSI. angle of swashplate. Option B. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number.Explanation. When flushing hydraulic systems. 300 PSI. flush with same hydraulic oil. When replenishing a hydraulic system. . Option C. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. Hydraulic systems normally operate at. Option C. IDG. use any hydraulic fluid. Option B. restriction valve. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Pages 7-5 & 7-7. flush with methylated spirit. Option B. Option C.2. 1800 PSI. 15. Question Number. 16. Option B. angle of swashplate. NIL. Option A. 3000 PSI. Explanation. 17. Explanation. flush with any hydraulic oil. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option A. gears. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?.5. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. Pass over a tray. Option A. used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure. Explanation. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. 19. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is. 21. Option C. Option A. regulators. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. Option B. de-energised to start the pump. When replacing a flexible pipe. Option B. do a bonding check. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting. energised to the run position. 20. tighten only hand tight. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with. Pass through a restriction. . Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Option C. 22. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. Vent to atmosphere. Explanation. AL/3-13 6.Correct Answer is. de-energised to start the pump. Correct Answer is. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting. Option A. Option B. Pass over a tray. Option C. A duplex seal consist of. NIL. a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring. Question Number. . maximum stroke. regulators. Explanation. 25. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents. When is an hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?. Option A. Correct Answer is. pump cavitation. reverse flow. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. 26. Option C. a square section rubber ring within a steel washer. Option A. 23. half way position. A variable angled pump starts at. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. servo pressure. 24. overpressure. Option B. Explanation. a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. maximum stroke. minimum stroke. Option A. Question Number. a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. Option A. Option C.Option C. Constant delivery is constant flow rate. When selected on. CAIPs AL/3-23. Correct Answer is. reverse flow. NIL. Option B. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Swash Plate & Valve Block. 29. filter. Option A. Drive Shaft.1-12. . pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Option A. there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required. AL/3-21 4. What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?. Option C. Correct Answer is. pump. Swash Plate & Valve Block. Explanation. An hydraulic closed system is one where. Correct Answer is. Variable swashplate pump. Option B. Explanation. Drive Shaft. filter. Option C. Jeppeson A & P Technician Airframe P8-15. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts. Option A. 30. most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit. Option C. Correct Answer is.Option B.3. Swash Plate & Cylinder Block.2. When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available. 27. Question Number. selector valve. When selected off. Swash Plate & Cylinder Block. selector valve. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. Question Number. Correct Answer is. AL/3-21 12. Hydraulic oil accumulator. Question Number. Drive Shaft. Option C. AL/3-21 Figure 2. Question Number. Explanation. If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be. Reservoir. When selected off. pump. 28. Reservoir. Option B. pump cavitation. Explanation." Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. relieve excess pressure. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. 33. A marker number on a pipe indicates. Option A. relieve excess pressure. NIL. Question Number. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. A thermal relief valve is fitted to an hydraulic system to. Option B. Option C. 31. prevent excess temperature. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. Option C. Correct Answer is. relieve excess pressure. . 32.Option A. NIL. Option B. Option C. absorb pressure surges. Thermal relief valves relieve the pressure build-up due to excessive temperature. prevent a leak back of pressure. absorb pressure surges. rapid fluctuations of instruments. rapid depressurisation of system. the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe. Option A. Explanation. rapid fluctuations of instruments. Option C. the thickness of the wall on the pipe. NIL. "One reason for fitting an accumulator in an hydraulic system is to. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run. Option C. Option A. Option B. accumulator. Correct Answer is. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is. The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of. preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack. Option C. 37. A shuttle valve is used for. Option A. control the rate of system operation. landing gear and doors. AL/3-21 6. Option C. Question Number. Option C. selector. maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails. engine driven pump.2. Correct Answer is. Option A. landing gear and doors. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to. 35. 36. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Option B. . Correct Answer is. Option B. safety switches. Option A. Explanation. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. 34.Question Number. restrict the rate of pressure build up. limit the maximum pressure. Explanation. NIL. control the rate of system operation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. brake anti-skid units. accumulator. AL/3-21 6.4. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. Explanation. AL/3-21 Page 10. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 39. allow a full flow from the valve. 3000 PSI. NIL. Explanation. Option B. 41. moisture in the fluid. Option A. 40. Explanation. isolate one component from another. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. NIL. low accumulator pressure. prevent incorrect installation. facilitate bleeding of the system. Correct Answer is. Option A. AL/3-21 Page 10. 4000 PSI. 3000 PSI. The purpose of a non-return valve is to. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Option B. the air pressure is. prevent incorrect installation. Correct Answer is. The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to.Explanation. 38. Option A. Option C. restrict the movement of components. Question Number. . 1000 PSI. When the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air pressure of 1000 PSI. Option B. Question Number. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by. 45. NIL. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. During a leak test of an hydraulic system.Option C. two NRVS fitted. 42. Option A. are self idling. Correct Answer is. must be at maximum. Explanation. low accumulator pressure. NIL. Question Number. Option A. two NRVS fitted. Option C. Question Number. relief valve set too high. Explanation. piston ram displacement. Option C. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the. 43. Option B. must be at maximum. a striker pin. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. require an automatic cut-out valve in the system. system pressure. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. is not important. must be minimum working. NIL. Correct Answer is. 44. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system. relief valve. Mechanical sequence valves are operated by. CAIPs AL/3-21 Page 6. Question Number. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system. Option C. the operation of a NRV. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to. the reservoir must be checked for correct level. Option C. In aircraft hydraulic systems. before a pressure relief valve.2. 48. 49. before a pressure gauge. 46. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. the fluid pressure must be released. before a pressure gauge. NIL. . Option A. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator. Option A. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. the fluid pressure must be released. Explanation. NIL. a striker pin. before a pressure sequence valve. Question Number. maintain a constant fluid level. Option B. Option C. AL/3-21 13. it is permissible to use. Question Number. provide a reserve of stored energy. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Pressure relay valves are fitted. 47. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 15 Page 7. Correct Answer is. Option C.3. all air must be bled from the system. Option B. Option C.Option B. Option B. the pilot. NIL. prevent the hydraulic lock forming. Question Number. Explanation. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure. 51. Option C. Option A. Option B. A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system. accumulator and relay valve. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure. Option B. Correct Answer is. prevent the hydraulic lock forming. 50. Question Number. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an. NIL. to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator. only the specified fluid. any hydraulic fluid available. .Option A. Correct Answer is. raise fluid boiling point. NIL. any fluid of the same specific gravity. accumulator and shuttle valve. Option C. Explanation. limit pump wear. Option A. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. An automatic cut-out valve will. Option C. relieve excessive pressure to return. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. only the specified fluid. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. 52. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. methylated spirits. landing gear and auto-brake systems. AL/3-21 3. Explanation. Option C. .Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Option B. 55. Option A. Option C. Butyl Rubber. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. provides cooling for the fluid. senses fluid pressure.3. Option A. Correct Answer is. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. Synthetic Rubber. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with. nose wheel steering. Natural Rubber. any clean hydraulic fluid. senses fluid temperature change. Correct Answer is. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?. 56. A thermal relief valve. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. the same type of fluid as used in the system. Option B. Butyl Rubber. the same type of fluid as used in the system. Option B. 54. Option B. NIL. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-14. Option C. Option A. Explanation. A RAT hydraulic pump is for. Correct Answer is. senses fluid pressure. 53. Option A. a stack pipe higher than the normal level. AL3-21 8. Option C. Explanation. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to. Option C. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally. pressure * stroke. a pressure relief valve is used. area * pressure. Correct Answer is. 57. Explanation. Option C. Option B. a tap into a convenient return line. Option A. Option A. Option B. Option B. the bottom of the reservoir. low pressure. Question Number. a pressure reducing valve is used. Question Number. Option B. a pressure reducing valve is used.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from. 59. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. the bottom of the reservoir. 60. NIL. single acting. area * volume. double acting. Jeppeson A & P technician Airframe P8-23.1. NIL. area * pressure. double acting. Option A. . 58. To enable an hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures. a pressure regulating valve is used. contracts in length and diameter. Explanation. 1. a variable volume pump. Correct Answer is. pressures above 3000 PSI. has the rams parallel. NIL. expands in length and diameter. 62. Option A. Option A. 63.Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. . The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation. Explanation. A tandem PFCU. Option A. Option B. has the actuator rams co-axial. Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) (25) Question Number. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with. 11B. Question Number. has two control surfaces under its control. Question Number. Option A. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?.12. Screwdriver torque test. NIL. 61. Option C. A&P Mechanics General Handbook page 115. Option B. Explanation. is a flexible hose under pressure. Correct Answer is. contracts in length and expands in diameter. a fixed volume pump. a fixed volume pump. Option C. has the actuator rams co-axial. Option C. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Explanation. 70°C at 100 PSI. Option C. Windshield heating provides. Option C. Question Number. impact resistance enhancement. 3. Question Number. . independent on each side but with the same power source. impact resistance enhancement. Option B.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6. 70°F at 10 PSI. the windshield wiper system is. Explanation. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?. On large transport aircraft.Option B. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. Option B. 7°F at 100 PSI. 4. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is. one system for both sides but with the same power source. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. 5. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 13-6 (last paragraph). Option C. Retard rotation [of the detector] with slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver. Option B. Option A.2. Option A. Correct Answer is.2. more efficient. 2. Question Number. Screwdriver torque test. thermal expansion for a tighter fit. increases strength to resist cabin pressure. less of a fire hazard. CAIPs AL/11-3 5. Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement. Question Number. 70°C at 100 PSI. By a motor load test. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. goes out immediately. all the time. Correct Answer is. . when selected by the crew. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector. 6. Option C. Aircraft Electrical Systems. goes out after one more cycle. Option A. the warning lamp on the flight deck. 8. Pallett. it is switched on. Option B. ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing. Correct Answer is. Page 178. Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must. Option B. AL/11-6 3. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion. Question Number. Ice formation on wings is due to. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Option B.1.Option C. paint the surface. independent on each side with different power sources. Question Number. Option A.2. when selected by the crew. Question Number. remove all paint.2. 7. Correct Answer is. suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing. Option C. Explanation. independent on each side with different power sources. AL/11-6 2. Option C. 9. remove all paint.2. Option B. Explanation. Option A. when in the air. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing. CAIPs AL/11-1 4. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 1. . before rain and spread on window surface by wipers. Option A. steps up output for severe weather conditions. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. air from the cabin. Option B. Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-1 3. 13. Explanation. goes out after a set period of time. supplies AC Power for heating. provide more efficient deicer cycles. 12.Option C. Windshield rain repellent is applied. Correct Answer is. prevent electrical static build up. Option B. Question Number. sealed window. 10. prevent electrical static build up. the autotransformer. Option A. Correct Answer is. air from the cabin. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by. supplies DC power for heating. Option A.4 (unless they mean 'bonded' as in cemented. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to. Option A. provide smoother airflow over leading edge. Correct Answer is. goes out after a set period of time. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 62/63 (Note: a transformer cannot 'supply'. Question Number. Option C.4. 11. In a cockpit window heater system. an electrical heating element. CAIPs AL/11-6 3. steps up output for severe weather conditions. Option B.1. In which case the answer is b). Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 13-18. step down voltage. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen. blade attachment end. use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers. Pneumatic rain removal systems. AL/11-4 4. Option C. are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions. Explanation. Question Number. are not permitted on large transport aircraft.b737. and which is dense. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen. Option B. 16. Question Number. the shaft end. A&P Airframe Textbook Page 13-17. Option A. Correct Answer is. when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured. Jeppesen. Correct Answer is. step up voltage. Option A. the shaft end. glaze Ice. Option C. Question Number. Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at.2.org. http://www. Explanation. centre point of the blade. 14. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. tough and sticks closely to the surface is called. step up voltage.2. Windscreen autotransformers. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. Explanation.uk/iceandrain. 15. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing. .htm Question Number. Explanation. Option B.Option C. Option C. Option A. 17. they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option C. frequency wild generator. Windscreen heating is supplied from. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. Option C. 20. hoar Frost. Correct Answer is. direct to the windscreen. Option B. via a transformer. Question Number. OR increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Explanation. A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by. NIL. Explanation. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Correct Answer is. frequency wild generator. rime Ice. Option B. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electrical Systems. via a rectifier. Explanation. 18. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Pallett. page 174. Explanation. direct to the windscreen.Option B. glaze Ice. When testing pitot head heaters. Pallett. 19. DC generator. Option C. increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. NIL. they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability. Option B. Option C. . they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability.10-29. fig. page173. they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings. Question Number. Question Number. frequency wild generator. Monel. engine compressors. nylon.Question Number. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. an open circuit. NIL. normal. place soft cloth between blade and window. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection being made. Option A.1. 21. Question Number. Option A. Option B.2. Option B. 23. a short circuit. a short circuit. Option B. use slow wiper only. 24. The most probable cause would be. make sure to. use water as lubricant when operating. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. 22. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. a combustion heater. Option B. Option C. Question Number. nylon. When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground. use water as lubricant when operating. stainless steel. . The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from. engine compressors. air conditioning ducting. external leakage. . 2. Option C. Option C. wheel hub. brake drum. Correct Answer is. Option A. wheel flange. Option A. 1. What is run-back ice?. Option A. 11B. air in the system. Glaze ice. Option A. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly. Option B. Glaze ice. Correct Answer is. Landing Gear (ATA 32) (68) Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. 3. Explanation. Option B. air in the system. AC20-147. CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-31.Question Number. internal leakage. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32. Option C. Glime ice. wheel flange. Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the. Explanation.13. Option B. Question Number. A brake debooster valve is provided for. Rime ice. Spongy brakes are usually a result of. increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly. 25. be serviceable. Option B. 6.mil/cgi-bin/atdl/fm/1-509/ch10. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 4.html Question Number. vertically. produce a loss of fluid.army. www. Option B. Correct Answer is. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly. Explanation.adtl. NIL. and should be replaced.Option C. horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top. bottom of the wheels are closer together. decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes. Option B. Badly corroded brakes should be replaced. 5% by pressure. Option B. Option A. 5. Explanation. wear brake pads too quickly. vertically. positive camber is when the. On a wheel bogie unit.1. Question Number. bottom of the wheels are closer together. Option C. Explanation. .I. Correct Answer is. at 15 to 20 P. and should be replaced. Correct Answer is. Option A. 15% by volume. top of the wheels are closer together. Question Number. wear brake pads too quickly. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-47 CAIPs AL/3-18 15. Option C.S. Option C. and provide better grip. 7. Tubeless tyres are stored. front of the wheels are closer together. Option A. Explanation. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-13. Option A. Correct Answer is.the separator has bottomed. speed up the flow in one direction.75-14. Option B. A tyre specification 32 x 10.1. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon. Leaking air/oil seals. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-6. Overall diameter. Option B. type of fluid most readily available. Bead diameter. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 8. 9. Question Number. Section Width. 5% by volume. The leg is serviceable . Option A. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Option B. Section Width. Option C. fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?.733. heat generated in operation of the system. Option B. Explanation.Option C.75 refer to. Correct Answer is. Option A. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. 11. heat generated in operation of the system. Option A.the separator has bottomed. Question Number. Option A. Option C. 5% by volume. When servicing an oleo. Question Number. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon heat generated in operation of the system. What does the 10. 10. Explanation. Separator plate stuck open. The leg is serviceable . AWN 70. A restrictor valve. Explanation. Correct Answer is. the type of seal material. and JAR 25. Question Number. . horizontal no more than 4 high. . Made up wheels should be stored. NIL. "After MLG down and securely locked. Option B. 15. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. damp the rebound." Option A. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-5. vertical at working pressure. a red light is illuminated n the flight deck. 14. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to. Correct Answer is. Option A. separate the oil from the air. Correct Answer is. shorted sensor. absorb the landing shock. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. Question Number. Option B. ensure the separator does not bottom. Option A. damp the rebound. 13. Option C. 12. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension.Option C. The possible causes are. Question Number. Option A. restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Explanation. restrict the compression of the air. CAIPs AL/3-6 Page 7&8. Explanation. CAIPS AL3-18 para 15-1 and 15-3. 19. Option B. the flange is secured by. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Explanation. Question Number. a retainer plate. Option C.4. Correct Answer is. Question Number. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents. tracking. Option C. Option A. 18. tracking. symmetry. the light part of the tyre. a lock ring. Explanation. In detachable flange type wheels. Correct Answer is. Option A. When checking for alignment of a MLG. splay. Correct Answer is. twist. . out of adjustment sensor. Outer diameter. Question Number.1. camber. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 176.Option B. breather points. Option B. out of adjustment sensor. These markings are found on a tyre32 x 10. military reference. wiring problem.45 R 14. 16. check. Correct Answer is. Inner diameter.6. tracking. tracking. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 2. Explanation. Option B. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-13. 17. Explanation. qwidth. Option C. Question Number. breather points. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Option A. symmetry. Outer diameter. symmetry. Option C.What does the number 32 mean?. camber. Option B. symmetry. albeit the overpressure as a result of temperature rise. due to excessive charging pressure. for overpressure protection. . Option A. 23. to provide strength. Explanation. the light part of the tyre. Question Number. military reference. Option C. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging. 22.3 iii. Explanation. AL/3-6 3.3. Option B. AL/3-19 3. Correct Answer is. Question Number.1. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means. Correct Answer is. Option B. to deflate the tyre before removal.1. a lock ring. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-18 4. Option C. caused by a leaky seal. 21. for over temperature protection. bolts. this is. Correct Answer is. 20. normal.2 Fuse plugs protect the tyre from explosion due to overpressure. Option C. to provide a wear indication. www. Option B. Question Number. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are. Explanation.7. Option B.pdf Question Number. Correct Answer is. caused by a leaky seal. Option A. to indicate the position for tyre levers.dunlopaircrafttyres. Explanation. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is. to provide strength.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172.Option C. Option A. NIL. for overpressure protection. to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. the red dot should be positioned. Explanation. the light part of the tyre. NIL. Option C.10. weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away athigh temperatures. to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction. Composite brake units. a faulty selector valve. On selection of MLG down. Question Number. A restrictor valve can be used. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. a faulty selector valve. opposite the charging valve. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. adjacent to the charging valve. gear lowered at too high an airspeed.1. on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 3. Explanation. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures. Option A. Correct Answer is. a faulty actuator. Option A. adjacent to the charging valve. Explanation. 24. have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures. Option B. Question Number. The cause is.Option C.2. When fitting a tyre. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-20 'Carbon Brakes'. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures. 26. 25. . Correct Answer is. Question Number.6. 27. Explanation.7. breather points. Option C. Dunlop Aircraft Tyres General Servicing Instructions Para 3. the gear extends then begins to retract again. Option C. Correct Answer is. 29. Explanation. Option C. a stuck relief valve. Option A. 200°C. Explanation. the emergency system. Question Number. Question Number. tubed and tubeless tyres. The fault could be. Explanation.2. Correct Answer is.Option C. Explanation. tubed and tubeless tyres. Option A. Boeing 757 Carbon Brake wheel. tubed tyres. NIL. tubeless tyres. Option B. Option B. 200°C. 250°C.4. CAIPs AL/3-6 4. When an undercarriage is lowered. 150°C. 30. Option C. a leaky selector valve. So does Dunlop General Servicing Instructions. . Option B. Vents holes are found on. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. AL/3-18 2. a leaky selector valve. 28. Correct Answer is. Description and Operation 32-42-82 Part AHA1648 . Option A. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-42 says both tubed and tubeless.Yellow Plug Temperature 390°F. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. it tends to creep back up. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?. Leaflet 5-7 Para 9 Question Number. Correct Answer is. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction. Option A. Correct Answer is. To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection. . Tyre moving around the wheel. Option A. Horizontal movement of the tyre. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. 31. 34. Explanation. The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is. Question Number. Explanation. part of the shimmy damper. an anti-skid device. To reduce vibration and shimmy. NIL. 32. for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension. Option C. Tyre moving around the wheel. Explanation. Option B. . To reduce vibration and shimmy. increased flaring. 33. Explanation. To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection. lowering slats. Option A. an anti-skid device. Question Number. What is tyre creep related to?. Option C.Question Number. Option B.Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. Vertical movement of the tyre. Option C. Aquaplaning' can be reduced by. any oil can be used. Option A. . Correct Answer is. Option A. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking. Option A. loss of pressure/leakage. 37. Option C. Neither. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Skid control. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Tyre inflation. Option C. Option B. The types of seals the leg uses. air pressure too high. 38. Option B. brakes release on rising torque. air pressure too high. 36. 35. the likely cause is. In an anti-skid system. NIL. A Maxaret is used in what system?. NIL. If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection. NIL. The types of seals the leg uses. Question Number. brakes release on falling torque. Question Number. The material of the leg. Explanation. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking. Correct Answer is.Question Number. oil level too high. Explanation. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 10-37. Correct Answer is. Self centring landing gear. Option B. Option C. Option B. Skid control. Correct Answer is. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment. The restrictor is placed in the retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the jack on extension. . 41. to ensure the aircraft is still rolling. Option B. Option C. the rate of descent is too high. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 10-12. landing gear down line. Option B. brakes seizure.Question Number. Correct Answer is. to slow the rate of extension.this is a well known error in CAIPs. Question Number. Option C. over inflation of tyres during servicing. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems. The most likely reason for this warning is. the landing gear is not locked down. if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures. A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents. A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the. to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped. 42. Explanation. the landing gear is not locked down. the airspeed is too high. return line from the landing gear selector. Option B. 40. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-6 fig 4 sows them in the down line . 39. landing gear up line. Question Number. Option C. tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking. NIL. landing gear up line. The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. Question Number. between the apex strip and the casing piles. Question Number. tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking. neither system will be available. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. a separate pilot operated control. emergency braking will not be available. melt at a specified elevated temperature. Option C. between the bead and the casing piles. emergency braking will not be available. rudder pedals. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Option B. 43. Correct Answer is. Option C. 44. NIL. Correct Answer is.1. Option A. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-8 para 3. Option A. If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position. eliminate the need to check air pressure . Correct Answer is. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will. Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by. facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly. Option C. the control column. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. 45. Explanation. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted. NIL. CAAIP Leaflet 5-7 fig 1. Option A.3 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 9-6. 46. normal braking will not be available. a separate pilot operated control. Option B. Option B. Explanation. the base of the tie bar. over-inflation. Explanation. bogie type undercarriages are used to. Option A. Option B. Option C. melt at a specified elevated temperature. spread the weight over a large area. 48. Explanation. Option A. . Option B. prevent skidding. Option B. the top of the tie bar. NIL. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing. Option C. Option C. hop damper is used. snubber is used. under-inflation. 1 mm from the rib base. spread the weight over a large area. Question Number. castoring damper is used. 47. Explanation. Option A. Option C. NIL. On large aircraft. a. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. under-inflation. 50. Option B. Explanation. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to. Option A. 49. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of. NIL. Question Number. Question Number. absorb increased landing shock. Correct Answer is. excessive toe-in. Correct Answer is. NIL. the top of the tie bar. . brake control valves. Option A. anti-skid units.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. Option A. Option B. 54. is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure. Correct Answer is. increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. In the case of pressurized aircraft.6. braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. an argon and CO2 mixture. hop damper is used. JAR 25. non-return valve. Question Number. AL/3-21 6. Question Number. On large aircraft. Explanation. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. NIL. Brake deboosters. Explanation.733 (e). assist the operation of the anti-skid unit. nitrogen. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air. Option C. Option B. A modulator is fitted in conjunction with. Option C. is subject to cabin pressure. Option C. Question Number. 52. anti-skid units. Explanation. 51. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. the nose-wheel bay. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. 53. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air. Correct Answer is. Top of wheels closer to fuselage.6 times the tyre pressure in bar. Question Number. 56. horizontally. Explanation. 58. Option C. NIL.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. Explanation. Tubed tyres are stored. up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top. Correct Answer is. Option A. . CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 15. up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points.gremline. Option A. 55. 9. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type. horizontally. horizontally. what is positive camber?.html Question Number. 8. Hydro Mechanical. The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is. Option A. Question Number. 8. Direct Acting. On a main landing gear. http://www.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. is not pressurized. is not pressurized. Option C. 57. up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points. Option B. Direct Acting. Question Number. Explanation. 8. horizontally.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.Option C. Correct Answer is.1 and 15. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads.com/page13.2.2. Option B. Articulated. NIL. Explanation.2. Option A. NIL. Tyre creep could be caused by.com/reference/terms. Option A.Option B. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. Option B. symmetry. the cockpit indicator shows. Option B. overpressure. no indication. When the landing gear is locked up. 59. twist. Front of wheels closer to fuselage. under pressure. Correct Answer is. no indication. 62. symmetry. 61. http://www. symmetry. Question Number. When checking the alignment of a main landing gear. tracking.php#C Question Number. Question Number. excessive wear. splay. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 10-12. Option C. Explanation. camber. check. Explanation. Option B. 60. Option C. Option A. green light. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem. . Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. tracking. tracking. Explanation. red light. symmetry. Option C. Question Number. tracking. Correct Answer is.desertrides. NIL. under pressure. Correct Answer is. camber. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation. assist the wheel to castor. Question Number. the torque links will. Option B. Option C. Option B.Option A. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch. Explanation. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician textbook page 9-12. Correct Answer is. water dispersing treads. Explanation. water dispersing treads. AL/3-18 15. twin contact. Option C. Option B. . Correct Answer is. Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored. keep the wheel in track. 65. in the manufactures boxes. Option C. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used. 64. 63. Option A. keep the wheel in track. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation. Option A. Option C.1. carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem. a plain tread. Explanation. vertically. horizontally. allow the wheel to shimmy. vertically. A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have. When fitting a tyre to a hub. using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate. port light red. heavy spot. . balance indicator. Option A. maker's serial number. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. 32-42-98. Correct Answer is. measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released. Explanation. Starboard light red. heavy spot. Starboard light red. Option C. Option C. 11B. brake wear is checked by. tail light white. Correct Answer is. 66.which of the following is true?. the valve assembly. the valve assembly. Correct Answer is. Option B. port light green. Option B.Question Number.14. 67. tail light Red. Question Number. Option A. Option C. the red spot on the tyre should be in line with. Explanation. Lights (ATA 33) (37) Question Number. A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate. Starboard light green. opposite side to the valve assembly. Option A. port light red. tail light white. Dunlop component maintenance manual Ch. 68. tail light White. port light green. NIL. light spot. Option B. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 9-49. Explanation. 1. Option A. With aircraft lights . On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters. Option C. Starboard light green. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. phosphor coatings. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?. rare gases and mercury vapour. rare gases and mercury vapour. of at least 3 candelas.net/~pthrush/lighting/flour. Question Number. 15%. 25%. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base. Option B. at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern. then. A fluorescent tube contains. 2. Option A. . Option A. Correct Answer is. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative.Explanation. at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern. Option B. Option C. 5. Question Number. the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only. the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired.html Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. 3. 4. of at least 3 candelas. A white steady light is required. Explanation. Option C.users. http://www. phosphor coatings. Option B. orange coatings. Option C. No reference found. 20%. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 145. of at least 3 candelas. iodine coatings and rare gases.mis. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base. Option A. CAP 393 Rules of the Air Rule 11 (2) (a) (iii). Option C. at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern. Explanation. Can fly without passengers in accordance with the MEL. of at least 3 lumens. Option B. at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern. rare gases and mercury vapour. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. 11°. 9. 11°. and JAR 25. Option A. Option C. Option C. 7. 140°. Question Number. battery bus. battery bus and ground services bus. 110°. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146.Correct Answer is. and EEL/1-10 301 a). 15°. 140°. Explanation. AWN 56 2. Correct Answer is. 180°. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1.1387. 110°. Option A. Question Number. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?. . Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the. Option A. Option A.11. 25%. Option C. 125°. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146. Explanation. 110°. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is. Question Number. 8. 20°. 6. Correct Answer is. 11°. Correct Answer is. Explanation. What is the arc of a landing light?. and JAR 25.1387. Option B. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. 11. Explanation. Option B. 10. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. Correct Answer is. Dome lights will illuminate. Question Number.Option C. Explanation. NIL. BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar) although other aircraft (A340. DC handling bus. Option B. battery bus and ground services bus. Option C. white. AC handling bus. Correct Answer is. Eismin 5th edition page 256. 13. green. red. ground services bus. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. Option C. Correct Answer is. All lights will illuminate. 20% obscured. Explanation. Option B. red. Option A. 12. Option A. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Escape route lighting must not have more than. Explanation. the battery bus. AC handling bus. Option A. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured. Option A. B747) use 28VDC ground bus. . Option C. 10% obscured. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?. 15. 15% obscured. 20% obscured. The angle of a runway turnoff light is. and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2. 50°. 40°. . 50°. 115 V AC. 115 V AC. 60°. Question Number. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?.Option B. 10%. Question Number. None. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115). JAR 25. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. 14. Explanation. 28 V DC. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146. Option C. 25%. 28 V AC. 17. NIL.812 (l) (1). 16. 25%. Question Number. Option B.11.1. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of. OFF. Option C. Question Number. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. 10%. Option C. JAR 25. Explanation. 25%. 11 (2) (d). 50 candelas. Option A. 20 candelas. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel. Option C. Correct Answer is. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-23. Option B. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is. . 20. 15%.812. ON. Armed. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. 100 candelas. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para. 19. 18. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Armed. Option B. 25%. Option B. Option B. Option A. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel. 20 candelas. Question Number. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during flight. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Option A. baggage compartment lights. avionics bay lights. 110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum. refuelling lights. Option C. logo lights. It cannot. Question Number. must show through an inclusive angle of. The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground. 21. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is.5.Question Number. That time period is at least. 2 minutes. Option B. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head. Correct Answer is.5. engine scanning lights. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates. Option A. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and. baggage compartment lights. Option C. avionics bay lights. EEL/1-10 3. EEL/1-10 3. how is it reset?.3. EEL/1-10 5. Select full 'RETRACT'. 2 minutes. Explanation. . 24. Option A. Option B. a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or burning. 22. Service lights include. in addition. refuelling lights. 5 minutes. Option A. Select full 'RETRACT'. 23. Question Number. 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum. engine scanning lights. Option A. 1 minute. Question Number. Explanation. baggage compartment lights. Option B. refuelling lights.1. Option B. avionics bay lights. Option C. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted.they are wired in parallel. and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed. . series with the light and the transistor is not conducting. Explanation. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on. Option A. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para 2 a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-10 3. Option A. parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting. Explanation. or intense artificial light to operate.1 c). 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. Correct Answer is. Question Number. http://www. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight. 28. because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted. require a period of daylight. Option C. Question Number. 27. Correct Answer is. Option A. are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas. Page 153.8. Self-illuminating signs. EEL/1-10 4. Pallett . Question Number. Correct Answer is. the resistor is in. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed. individually . to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight. Option B. Option C. The transistor is conducting all the time the light is switched on. Option B. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. Option B. series with the light and the transistor is conducting.com/cgi/kds?$=main/special/real777 Question Number. 26. 25.Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option C.flightsim. Option A. series with the light and the transistor is conducting.Option C. Correct Answer is. When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM'. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Halon. First Officer's only in emergency mode. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced.4. Hydraulic pump failure. Correct Answer is. the caution light is coloured. Question Number. 29. Xenon.they are wired in series. amber. Correct Answer is. Pallett . Option C. 32. Fire warning.Aircraft Electrical Systems. . Option A. which has the highest priority?. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Option B. Question Number. Option B. NIL. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?. together . green. Explanation. Option A. Fire warning. CAIPs EEL/1-10 4. 30. Explanation. Freon. red.they are wired in series.1. NIL. In the CWS system. Xenon. together . Page 153. amber. Duct overheat. On a CWS. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Option B. 31. Option A. Neon gas and blue. self illuminating lights. Xenon Gas and blue-white. strobe light. A club66 user who got this question. continue with reduced passenger load. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A.2.7. 34. Tritium Gas is used in a. Option B. at 60 inch intervals. continue with reduced passenger load. at 40 inch intervals. Explanation. self illuminating lights.3. ferry flight to main base for rectification. queried it with the CAA. Explanation. no reference has been found. Question Number. ground the aircraft.1. at 40 inch intervals. Option B. . Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2. Helium gas and white. Option C. 35. However. Option C. Option C. Option B. landing Light. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is what?. Option A. EEL/1-10 3. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system. at 70 inch intervals.8. 33. Option B. Correct Answer is. Xenon Gas and blue-white. Correct Answer is.1. He was told (by the CAA assessor)that the answer is b. Correct Answer is. EEL/1-10 4.Option A. Option C. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit. Dual circuit. Option A. The dilutor demand regulator functions. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250. Option B. 2. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 2. when landing gear doors are not closed. Option A. 1. Option B. Correct Answer is. only when the supply valve is opened by the user. . below 10. Single circuit. lack of oxygen. Single circuit.000ft and descending. all the time. Anoxia is due to. when landing gear is up. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. Option B.1. 37. Option A. Individual circuits. low air pressure on the body. release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood.15. Oxygen (ATA 35) (62) Question Number. Option C. 11B.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate. Option A. Explanation. lack of oxygen.000ft and descending. NIL. 36. below 10. CAIPs AL/3-25 para 4. . Explanation. 02 system pressure has leaked away after charging. Option C. litmus paper. Option C. are variable depending on discharge. Thermal Relief Valve. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-10. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-25 Para 6. Option B. Explanation. are painted in white on the cylinder. Oxygen cylinder test dates. may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder. 4. If an O2 system is leaking. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. a glass plate. What is the most probable cause?. Question Number. Question Number. are painted in white on the cylinder. Option C. when the user breathes in. when the user breathes in. NIL. Option A.2. where would you most likely find the cause?. Correct Answer is. Temperature compensator. To measure moisture in an oxygen system use.Option C. Breathing regulator. Question Number.2. 3. 6. Breathing regulator. a hygrometer using the dew point method. 5. Option A. Option A. Supernumerator regular. Explanation. Correct Answer is.4. Correct Answer is. a hygrometer using the dew point method. Option B. Option B. Loose connection. Explanation. temperature gauge. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with. Correct Answer is. all the time. No TRV on O2 system. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Option A. A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens. 10. pressure and quantity gauges. Loose connection. Option C. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel. Breathing mask will only leak if system is turned on. the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended. 7. Correct Answer is. the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with. 9. Explanation. . oxygen purity gauge.Option B. Option C.9. when 100% selected. Question Number. As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. when breathing. Option B. Option B. Option B. when breathing. Breathing mask. Option C. 8. Question Number. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-9. Option A. pressure and quantity gauges. Explanation. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit. Question Number. Option C. 3 states green for cylinders for American origin.2. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p7 para 4. CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5. green in colour with a RH thread. American made crew oxygen cylinders are. Option C. N2. a demand regulator. Correct Answer is. Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator. an overpressure indicator. NIL. What is the principle of an O2 generator?. Option A. Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air. green in colour with a RH thread. Option B. Question Number. O2. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is.13. Option C. Option C. Option B. . an over temperature indicator. Which connector has a left hand thread?.5. Explanation. Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator. Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator. black in colour with a RH thread. 11. O2. Question Number.Option A. Option B.3(e). Freon. a demand regulator. 12. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. (l/h threads are for charging points). green in colour with a LH thread. CAIPs AL/3-25 3.1. 13. Option A. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen. Question Number. turned on and safety wire-locked.3. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number.Question Number. 1800 PSI. Option B.1 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8. an oxygen system. Explanation. 1800 PSI. . and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3. 15. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?. 17. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient. Option C. an hydraulic system. Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI. Option C. Option C. an oxygen system. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down. Option A. Option C. A&P Mechanic Airframe Handbook Page 598. Correct Answer is. 14. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient. once charged should be. NIL. turned on by crew. a fuel system. Option A. A thermal compensator is used in. Option B. 300 PSI. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Oxygen storage cylinders. Explanation. 16. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature. AL/3-25 4. Option A.12.2. turned on and safety wire-locked. Option B. Option B. the oxygen is. Explanation. turned off. CAIPs AL/3-25 4. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 8-8. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-9. Explanation. attendant must drop masks. Shut-off valve. 18. passenger must get mask from overhead stowage. Option C. additional flightcrew.Question Number. Question Number. 000 ft. Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. changes in altitude. Explanation. Option C. Option B. Option A. Charging connection. 21. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14. the user breathes in. Option C. less than 500 psi is in bottle. CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5. Option A. Option A. . Charging connection. Option B. Question Number.3(e). Correct Answer is. 100% is selected. Option B. Line valve. the user breathes in. masks drop automatically. Correct Answer is. 20. additional flightcrew. extra supply in case of emergency. Question Number. A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for. 19. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?.13. masks drop automatically. Option A. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least. 5 years. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 14-8 or CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p16. 15 minutes. a change in colour. Option B.Question Number. Explanation. Option A. How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?. Explanation. 5 minutes. AL/3-25 4. Option A. Option C. a protruding pin. Red rupturing disc. . Option C. 30 minutes. a broken tell-tale wire. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. 15 minutes. a change in colour. Green rupturing disc. Audible warning. 25. Option C. Option B. 22. 24. Correct Answer is. Option B.13. The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is. 5 years. AL/3-25. Question Number. A discharged chemical generator is indicated by. Option C. Option A. Green rupturing disc. 10 years. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 23. Correct Answer is. 2 years. Correct Answer is. Option B. 25. Option B. 38. 25. 4. Question Number. Option A. Question Number.000 ft. Option C. 27. Option B.000 ft. the cabin altitude must be. Explanation.000 ft. AL/3-25. 26. 29. Option A.1439. wire locked open. at or below 8. Option C.3 and JAR 25. at a maximum of 12. Option B. and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8 and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3.000 ft. 28. AL/3-25 Table 1. The oxygen line service valve must be. 10. Option A. AL/3-25.1. Option C.6. Option A. 10. 8.000 ft. wire locked closed. Explanation. Correct Answer is.000 ft. only be wire locked with telltale wire. AL/3-25 3. Correct Answer is. Question Number. wire locked open.000ft. Explanation.Explanation.000 ft.000ft. 4. . below 10. Question Number. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions.000 ft. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above. Option C. Correct Answer is.000ft. selection of emergency on this regulator will result in. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot. Option A. 100% oxygen at positive pressure. above 30. Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes. Option A. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. each member of the crew has a regulator. Option C. 31.000 ft. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-23.000 ft. Option A. Option B. above 40.000 ft. at or below 8. oxygen is supplied. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot. Question Number. Correct Answer is.000 ft. AL/3-25 fig 3. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure. In the diluter demand oxygen system. AL/3-25 table 1. Option A. In a diluter demand oxygen system. 32. Explanation. In a continuous flow oxygen system. each member of the crew has a regulator. 30. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Correct Answer is.000 ft. Option B. when the mask is plugged into the socket. Option B. 33. Explanation. Option C. each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply. on passenger inhaling into the mask. above 40. NIL. oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow. Option B. below 40. 100% oxygen supply as the user inhales. Option A. Question Number.i. alloy steel. Question Number. Option C.s. 35.6.800 p. 37. AL/3-25 3. 34. Option A. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of. Correct Answer is. 2. stainless steel.200 p. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in. Option A.s.s. Option A. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure. Question Number. Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to. Option C. Correct Answer is. 1. Explanation. 1.Option C.000 p. Option C. Explanation.800 p.i.7 ©. Explanation. litres/minute.s. every 3 years. Correct Answer is. Option B.6. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. litres/minute. 1. Option B. aluminium. Option B. .i.i. Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested. AL/3-25 3. pounds/minute. litres/pounds. alloy steel. Explanation. 36. Oxygen bottle capacity varies between. Correct Answer is.6.8. Option B. Option C. Question Number.2. 41.Option B. 100 3200 litres. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 para 5. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C.2. wire locked in the 'on'.2 and Leaflet 5-9 5. 38. Option A. AL/3-25 5.2 (h). AL/3-25 4. every 4 years. Question Number. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders. 200 2250 litres. Option B. every 4 years. Option A. Option A. stamped on the neck ring.9. 39. Explanation. wire locked in the 'on'. 40. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. 80 2250 litres. Correct Answer is. stamped on the neck ring. After installation. every 6 years. Option B. stamped on a metal label. left in the 'on' position. left in the 'off' position until required. Question Number. the oxygen bottle on/off valve is. stencilled on the bottle. Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found. Question Number. 80 2250 litres. Correct Answer is. . Option C. AL/3-25 4. What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?.s. is relieved by under pressurising the bottle. Explanation.13. 43. AL/3-25 4. 42. Question Number. by an arrow.s. The whims of the aircraft designer. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder.i.i. Option B. by an arrow.i. Option B. Option C. is relieved by a thermostat. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. by colour coding. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p. Option B. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p. by visual inspection. The pressure used in the system. 44. AL/3-25 4. Explanation. Option A.i. Explanation. AL/3-25 5. cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p. is relieved by a bursting disc. cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p. Correct Answer is.5.3.1 ii). Option C. . Option A. Option C. is relieved by a bursting disc.Option A.s. The pressure used in the system. AL/3-25 Page 8. Explanation. Option B.s. The length of the pipe runs. The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated. If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system. Explanation. Explanation. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of. Teflon tape may be used. 48. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. steel wool. lack of Anoxia.11. Option B. Option A. rectangles. Oxygen filters are made of. Option C. flow indicators. dots. Question Number. sintered bronze. 46. . Option B. pressure indicators. Teflon tape may be used. flow indicators. rectangles. Correct Answer is. Option C. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by.Question Number. NIL. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Option B. Option C. AL/3-25 Page 8. distilled water may be used sparingly. Explanation. diamonds. NIL. Correct Answer is. 47. CAAIP's Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4. Option A. sintered bronze. Explanation. carbon fibres. Option A. 45. Option C. no lubricant may be used whatsoever. acrylic based plastic materials.12. 52. ZAL/3-25 4. A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is.1. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient. Option A. MIL-L-25567B. black with a white collar. MIL-L-25567B. Explanation.2. Option A. AL/3-25 5. black with a white collar. Correct Answer is. http://www. 51. Explanation. leak testing solution to Spec.2 (vi). 49.com/chemsol/lubricants. Option C. Option B. grease free medical soap. the oxygen is. Option B. AL/3-25 5.Question Number.chemsol. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen.7. soapy water. Correct Answer is.2. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-19 rh column 2nd para. traces of oils or greases. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature. white with a black collar. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Option C. traces of oils or greases. AL/3-21 3. Option A. Question Number. leak testing solution to Spec. In areas closely associated with oxygen systems. magnesium particles. Correct Answer is.html Question Number. Explanation. particular care must be taken to avoid leaving. Option A. Option B. black. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down. . 50. Option A. When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system. Explanation. When charging an oxygen bottle in situ. 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. Option C. 53. temperature. 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is.2 (vi) (a). Option B. no electrical power must be used. Option B.5. charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph. Explanation. Option C. Option C. oil must not come into contact with the system. NIL. charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph. pressure. A chemical oxygen generator operates at. the area must be well ventilated.Question Number. Option A. purity. Explanation. 45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes. AL/3-25 5.12.2. Option C. 54. Option A. Option B. slacken off the retaining straps first. Option A. AL/3-25 3. . oil must not come into contact with the system. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. pressure. charge slowly through a water trap. 45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes. 55. 56. Correct Answer is. 60. Teflon tape.2. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A.3. The indicator pin would be protruding. Question Number. aluminium alloy. NIL. Option A. Explanation. 59. Question Number. Option C. WD40. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 5. . Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be. 58. stainless steel. applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape. 57. Explanation.Explanation.1. Option B. hellerene. How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?. Option C. Explanation. A pressure seal would be broken. titanium. Teflon tape. AL/3-25 4. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape. Option C. stainless steel. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of. Option A. By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint. Option B. Lubricate oxygen connector threads using.7. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4. Option A. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape. Oxygen purging is a process of. removing moisture from the system. 1. it dumps. 62. Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) (10) Question Number.4. To check an oxygen system for moisture. Question Number.16. pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass. NIL. the system between compressor and regulator valve. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-54. just the moisture trap. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p19 para 6. Explanation. Option C. a sniff test is used. CAIPs AL/3-22. measuring the flow rate from the regulator. Option B. Question Number. a hygrometer is used. Option A. Explanation. pressure testing the system. Option A. 61. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system. just the moisture trap. . Option B. Option A. 11B. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 6. Correct Answer is. Option C. a hygrometer is used. the whole system. The pneumatic system pump is a. 2. Question Number. Correct Answer is.1. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Option C. removing moisture from the system. By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint. Question Number. High pressure pneumatic source is a. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-22. spur gear. Option A. 3. Option C. all equipment. Option C. reciprocating pump. In a pneumatic system. reciprocating pump. Option C. reciprocating pump. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-56. Option C. essential equipment.Option A. reciprocating pump. Option A. they do so by being situated in the non-essential lines. Correct Answer is. Option B. butterfly pump. CAIPs AL/3-23 4. Although they protect the flow to the essential systems. non-essential equipment.1. Maintainer valves work in same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence the reference). . 4. the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to. piston type. 5. Question Number. Option B. non-essential equipment. Although smaller systems may have avane type. Option B. centrifugal Compressor. centrifugal type. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.1. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. butterfly pump. CAIPs AL/3-23 4. piston type. Option A. rotor vane type. and closing off if the pressure drops. High pressure pneumatic pump is a. Option B. Correct Answer is. if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of time. 8. 7. Interconnected to share loads. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. lose pressure from the compressor side only. Explanation. Option C. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?. between the compressor and the PRV. Option C. Option C. . Option A. just the moisture trap. Explanation. Option B. Option A. AL/3-22 figure 1. PRVs. On a high pressure pneumatic system. CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1. Question Number. NIL. Two compressors driven by separate engines use. Correct Answer is. 6. lose pneumatic pressure partially. lose all pressure. It must be temperature controlled. lose pressure from the compressor side only. Explanation. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain. Option B. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. Option A. Option B. It must be filtered. 9. between the compressor and the PRV. the system would. Option C. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. Question Number. It must be pressure controlled. all the system.Question Number. Rotary vane type. 11B. http://www. Option C. Explanation. What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?. Positive displacement type. What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?. NIL.2. Option A. 10. water cooling. thermal protection. Waste water drain masts. Option B. . Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by.html Question Number. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. 3.avweb.Correct Answer is.17. Explanation. Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable. AWN 57. Positive displacement type. Prevent toilet freezing. AWN 57 Para. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard. cooling fan on timer switch.com/news/maint/182905-1. Option C. thermal protection. 2. Water/Waste (ATA 38) (9) Question Number. Question Number.3. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Spur gear type. Option C. It must be filtered. 1. Option B. NIL. Option A. installation of neoprene foam insulation. Option B. AWN 83. Explanation. 4. AWN 80. NIL. Option C. Option C. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Explanation. 6. Question Number. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only. 737 AMM ch. AWN 83. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons. Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by. 5. Download an old copy from the Forum. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons. Explanation. are not heated. All the AWNs listed have now been removed. Correct Answer is. AWN 79. 30-71 28VAC on ground and 115VAC in air. Question Number. placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping. the whole drain assembly must be replaced. Option A. are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground. Toilets are the subject of. the tank must be de-fuelled. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. the seal is not replaceable. Correct Answer is. Option B.Option A. . the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. for ground use only.18. Option C. Option A. the associate lavatory system may be inop. Option A. Option B. hot air blower.DO NOT ENTER'. Correct Answer is. Explanation. spring loaded open. . with lav door secured closed and placard 'INOPERATIVE. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Toilet waste valves are. Correct Answer is. Option C. not spring loaded. ribbon heater. 1. 7. 8. reflected signal from aircraft's own radar. Correct Answer is. Primary Radar is. induction heater. A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight. Close toilet until landing. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet. IAW B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2. Close toilet until landing. NIL. 9. ribbon heater. Explanation. 11B. Toilet recirc fan is part of the lav system. The heater used on a drain mast would be a. Option C. Option B. interrogation of aircraft's transponder. It can be overcome by thermal compensating device. spring loaded closed. Option A. Explanation.Question Number. NIL. spring loaded closed. Option A. phase A must be. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 5. Explanation. Question Number. for ground use only. Option C. Option B. 2. Option A. is important if the first generator fails. Explanation. is unimportant. may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low. may charge at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low. Option B. 90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC. Question Number. may charge at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low. in-phase with other generators and ABC. Option C. A battery in situ on an aircraft charges at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains constant. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system. Option A. NIL. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. must be in-phase prior to paralleling. 3. in-phase with other generators and CBA only. . To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators. Correct Answer is. the phase of the second generator to be brought on line. Explanation. NIL. in-phase with other generators and CBA only. Explanation. NIL. Option A. When an autopilot is Fail Passive. Question Number. must be in-phase prior to paralleling. Option C.Correct Answer is. 4.. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 6.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load. The generator output is split between the 0. So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer to 200V than the other two answers.Option A. the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot.04 ohm are the field windings. 200V. Explanation. the autoland can continue. Option C. Option A.06/100x 200V = 0. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. . 206V. What is the voltage across the shunt winding?. 0.06 ohm). Option C. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft. 212V. but only by 0. output voltage at the load is 200V. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft. The 10 ohm shunt. 200V.06 ohm and the 0. Pallett Automatic Flight Control p211.12V (across the 0. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown. Option A. EADI. current limiters. slant range to beacon. Correct Answer is. Option A. slant range to beacon. height and range to beacon. EHSI & EADI. Question Number. EHSI. Explanation. NIL. 10. Option A. On a direct current circuit. Option B. EHSI & EADI. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. 9. Option C. above bus voltage. Option B. allow excessive current to the load circuit. Correct Answer is. Question Number. On an aircraft's navigation displays. . prevent excessive current to the field circuit. Option C. below bus voltage. the same as bus voltage. Explanation. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system. distance measuring equipment gives. Option C. prevent excessive current to the load circuit.Question Number. Option A. Radio deviation is shown on. above bus voltage. NIL. 8. Correct Answer is. ground range to beacon. 7. prevent excessive current to the load circuit. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option B. On a direct current twin generator system. the paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming generators voltage is. Explanation. The decision height light will illuminate when. 3 Months. the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height. 1 Month. 12. Option C. Option C. the database is updated every. Option B. NIL. Option A. Question Number. indicated airspeed and altitude. Option B. Indicated Airspeed Module. the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the. 2 Months. Option B. Question Number. Option A. indicated airspeed and altitude. Option C. Mach information is derived from. 11. 14.Explanation. The deviation indicator is duplicated. 1 Month. On a flight management system. Explanation. the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Option B. the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. It is on the EHSI and EADI. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC). Option A. indicated air speed and total air temperature. pitot and static pressures. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system. Mach Module. . Question Number. Option C. NIL. Altitude Module. 13. the decision height is selected. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from. pitot air pressure. static air pressure. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 17. Correct Answer is. 16. Altitude Module. 15. Option A. Option C. NIL. True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach information and. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system. . Option B. pitot air pressure and total air temperature.Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. Option C. NIL. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC). pitot pressure only. Static Air Pressure. pitot and static air pressure. static pressure only. altitude is produced from. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. static air pressure. Option B. Question Number. Total Air Temperature. In a Central Air Data Computer. NIL. pitot and static air pressure. Pitot Air Pressure. Option C. Total Air Temperature. Question Number. Correct Answer is.