Module 06 New

Module 06. Materials & Hardware 01a. Aircraft Materials - Ferrous. Question Number. 1. When drilling stainless steel, use a.Option A. drill ground to 120 °, slow cutting speed. Option B. drill ground to 90 °, fast cutting speed. Option C. drill ground to 90 °, slow cutting speed. Correct Answer is. drill ground to 120 °, slow cutting speed. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 2. How is a material galvanised?. Option A. Sprayed with nickel solution. Option B. Packed in a drum containing zinc dust and heated. Option C. Dipped in a bath of molten zinc. Correct Answer is. Dipped in a bath of molten zinc. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 3. What temperature would steel be tempered at?. Option A. At the annealing temperature. Option B. Above the annealing temperature. Option C. Below the annealing temperature. Correct Answer is. Below the annealing temperature. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 4. Tempering steel gives. Option A. greater brittleness. Option B. greater hardness. Option C. relief of internal stress after hardening. Correct Answer is. relief of internal stress after hardening. Explanation. Tempering is done to relieve internal stresses. Question Number. 5. The addition of chromium to steel will produce. Option A. toughness. Option B. hardness. Option C. ductility. Correct Answer is. hardness. Explanation. Chromium is alloyed with steel to make it harder. Question Number. 6. Chromium added to plain carbon steel. Option A. increases it's resistance to corrosion. Option B. turns it into a non-ferrous alloy. Option C. makes the metal softer. Correct Answer is. increases it's resistance to corrosion. Explanation. Chromium, when added to steel increases its hardness and corrosion resistance (hence CRS). Question Number. 7. The purpose of case hardening is to. Option A. produce a hard case over a tough core. Option B. reduce the carbon in the steel. Option C. introduce carbon into the steel. Correct Answer is. produce a hard case over a tough core. Explanation. Case hardening hardens the surface only. Question Number. 8. At normal temperatures HC steel is harder because. Option A. it has more austenite. Option B. of the % of carbon in the granules. Option C. it has less austenite. Correct Answer is. of the % of carbon in the granules. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 9. Nitriding is. Option A. tempering. Option B. anodising. Option C. case hardening. Correct Answer is. case hardening. Explanation. Nitriding is a form of case hardening. Question Number. 10. Medium carbon steels have a carbon content of. Option A. 0.3 - 0.5 %. Option B. 0.5 - 0.8 %. Option C. 0.8 - 1.05 %. Correct Answer is. 0.3 - 0.5 %. Explanation. Medium carbon steel is 0.3 - 0.6% (approx). FAA AC43 4-1. Question Number. 11. A ferrous metal contains. Option A. aluminium. Option B. iron. Option C. magnesium. Correct Answer is. iron. Explanation. Ferrous' is from the Latin for iron. Question Number. 12. With respect to ferrous metals which of the following is true?. Option A. Iron is not any element of ferrous metals. Option B. Iron is a main element and most ferrous metal are magnetic. Option C. Iron is a main element and ferrous metals are not magnetic. Correct Answer is. Iron is a main element and most ferrous metal are magnetic. Explanation. The Latin for iron is 'Ferrum' Ferrous metals are named thus, and most are paramagnetic with the exception of some stainless steels. Question Number. 13. The annealing process on steel is required sometimes as it. Option A. provides a corrosion resistant layer that prevents oxidation. Option B. allows the material a greater stress per unit area. Option C. relieves internal stress suffered after engineering processes. Correct Answer is. relieves internal stress suffered after engineering processes. Explanation. Annealing is to relieve internal stresses. Question Number. 14. Cobalt steel tested on the Brinell test would have a BHN number between. Option A. 100 to 175. Option B. 300 to 400. Option C. 600 to 700. Correct Answer is. 600 to 700. Explanation. Cobalt steel (used in cobalt drills) has a very high hardness (600-700 BHN or 60-65 Rockwell C). BL/10-3. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option C. 15. If a material is found to be in the tertiary phase of creep the following procedure should be implemented:. The component should under go dye penetrant process and condition monitored. The crack should be stop drill, condition monitoring should be applied. The component should be replaced immediately. Engineers blue. Copper sulphate. Copper sulphate. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. magnetic. BL/10-3 3. phosphoric acid and metal phosphates. CAIPs BL/7-4 1. heating under the UCP and slow cooling. Wax crayon. Question Number.3. heating over the UCP and slow cooling. 18. metal phosphates and sulphuric acid. Explanation. Option A.Correct Answer is. The tertiary phase of creep occurs just before complete failure of the component. phosphoric acid and metal phosphates. Option C. 19. Tempering entails. Explanation. heat to BELOW the Lower Critical Temperature (LCT) and cool either slowly or quench in water. heating under the UCP and slow cooling. Option A. Option B. non-magnetic.11. Option A. nitric acid and sulphur. Phosphating of steels is carried out by immersing the steel in to a solution of. Option C. Option B. What is used for marking out steels?. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Austenitic stainless steels are. Option B. 17. 16. The component should be replaced immediately.1. To temper steel. Explanation. Copper sulphate is used for marking steel. Question Number. heating over the UCP and fast cooling. Workshop Technology Part 1 Pg 209. Option B. Option C. . Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. the formation of austenite into pearlite. the formation of austenite into pearlite. The formation of steel depends upon. the formation of pearlite into austenite. formation of pearlite into austenite. The difference between annealing and normalizing is. Option A. Degaussing is another name for demagnetising. Explanation. Question Number. hardened by heat treatment. 20. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. EMI. Explanation. Question Number. the presence of pearlite in the structure. 23. 21. Option B.Option C. Option A. non-magnetic. How is residual magnetism removed after an NDT examination?. 22. . Option C. Degaussing. EMC. Austenite exists above the LCT and turns into pearlite as the steel cools. Option C. formation of cementite. Option C. formation of cementite. Degaussing. Explanation. Cementite (iron carbide) is the hard grain structure that precipitates from the austenite as high carbon steel cools from above the UCT. Question Number. Austenitic stainless steel is non-magnetic. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. the iron austenite grain structure. The hardness of steel depends upon. Correct Answer is. cool slowly to normalize. heavy and brittle. Both are heated above the UCT. Cast iron is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. but the only difference is. 26. cool slowly to normalize. restore the fatigue life of steel. Explanation. Option A. the material is. cool slowly (in the furnace) to anneal. cool slowly to anneal. both are heated above the UCT. Correct Answer is. heavy and brittle. cool in air to anneal. Option C. Explanation. cool in air to anneal. Option A. cool in air to normalize. both are heated below the UCT. Option C. both are heated above the UCT. cooled slowly. cool in air to normalize. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. very malleable. Question Number. quenched immediately. Option C. Option A. left to cool in room temperature. remove residual stress of the manufacturing process. tough. . NIL. cool in air to normalize. Option B. Option B. Option C. remove residual stress of the manufacturing process. make steel softer. Question Number. left to cool in room temperature. Normalizing of steel is done to. Explanation. Cool in air when normalising. 24. Question Number.Option A. both are heated above the UCT. Option B. Correct Answer is. When normalising. 25. cool slowly to anneal. Option B. hardness. Option C. Option A. Steel is tempered. Option C. intergranular corrosion. 28. 30. duralumin. NIL. Question Number. Exhaust systems are usually made from stainless steel which is susceptible to. This is the process of hardening (ferrous) metals. any ferrous metal. titanium. intergranular corrosion. Option A. before hardening. Explanation. surface corrosion. Correct Answer is. Option B. to increase hardening. NIL. Option C. both of the above. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Case hardening can be carried out on. .Question Number. 27. 29. Question Number. brittleness. Question Number. Option C. after hardening. Correct Answer is. both of the above. Correct Answer is. after hardening. any ferrous metal. filiform corrosion. When metal is first heated slightly above its critical temperature and then cooled rapidly it is common that the metal will increase in. infinite. the nitriding process.efunda. working stress. Option A. Option A. A low carbon steel would normally be case hardened using. Option C. pack or gas carburising. NIL. http://www. pack or gas carburising. Option B. 31. Tempering is to reduce the brittleness caused by hardening. http://www.htm Question Number.physiqueindustrie. 33. Explanation. applied stress. toughens the metal. Option A.php Question Number. Annealing steels. Option C.about. Option B. flame or induction hardening. Explanation. http://metals. Question Number.com/residual_stress. Option B. depend on its proof stress. Option B.com/library/bldef-Fatigue-Limit. The fatigue life is. NIL. finite. NIL. Correct Answer is. . infinite. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A.cfm Question Number.Explanation. 34.com/processes/heat_treat/hardening/diffusion. If a steel component is operated below the fatigue limit. residual stress. 32. residual stress. Explanation. Option C. After a product has been manufactured and all heat treatment has been carried out the stress remaining if any is termed as. makes the metal malleable. Option C. Vanadium. NIL. but soften the core. When a low carbon steel bolt is stretched beyond its elastic limit without breaking. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 36. High speed steel relies heavily on the following metallic element for its ability to cut other metals. 35. Tungsten. significantly reduce the brittleness without suffering a major drop in its strength. Option A. deform temporarily. Option B. Question Number. 1% Carbon. but soften the surface. Explanation. retain surface hardness. deform permanently. Tungsten.Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . Tempering of hardened steel is carried out to. retain core hardness. NIL. Option C. Option A. deform permanently. A&P Technician General Textbook Chap 7 page 3. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. Nickel. Explanation. become more ductile. Correct Answer is. Option A. 37. Option C. 1% Nickel. Explanation. makes the metal malleable. Option B. NIL. makes the metal brittle. Explanation. 38. steel is widely used for. it will. significantly reduce the brittleness without suffering a major drop in its strength. even when it is heated to a dull red colour. Option C. NIL. Option A. heavy and brittle. increases toughness. Option A. Normalising steels. NIL. exhaust valves. very malleable. Explanation. Cast iron is. . Option B. failure due to impact. reduction in strength due to alternating loads.T. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. reduction in strength due to alternating loads. 40. Correct Answer is. ball and roller bearings. Explanation. 41. increases the hardness. 39. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. relieves the stresses. NIL. high tensile steel bolts. Option C.S.Option A. Fatigue failure may be defined as. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Option B. heavy and brittle. Option A. Option C. tough. failure caused by stress in excess of the material U. ball and roller bearings. Question Number. relieves the stresses. Correct Answer is. Explanation. html#6 . Option C. NIL.bsu. Austenitic steel is produced when the material is heated to. above the Lower Critical Point. The alloy has not been modified. Option B. Option B. Option A. sulphur.qcplus. Option C. The depth of the indent. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. oxides. Option B. During a Rockwell Hardness test. Correct Answer is. Air is to 'decarburise' the pig iron. below the Upper Critical Point. Explanation.edu/web/acmaassel/steel. 42. 44. http://www. The percentage of impurities in the alloy. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. What does the 0 in 2024-T3 mean?. Explanation.co. NIL.jjjtrain. above the Upper Critical Point. carbon. The diameter of the indent. carbon. The diameter and depth of the indent. above the Upper Critical Point. Question Number.html Question Number.htm Question Number. The depth of the indent. Steel is produced by refining pig iron where air/oxygen is blown through the molten material to remove. The alloy has been modified. The alloy has not been modified. Explanation.com/vms/engineering_metal_stds. http://www. Explanation. Option A. 45. Option C. NIL. 43. Option C.uk/training/training-rockwell.Question Number. http://www. what dimension is measured?. material toughness. Correct Answer is. Question Number.Question Number. Toughness' is resistance to impact. The use of this type of connector eliminates. 01b. material hardness. the flaring operation prior to assembly. Impact resistance measures the. In most aircraft hydraulic systems. Specified time of contact between the indentor and test piece in a vickers or brinell hardness test is. The material is tested to full destructions. 46. two-piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used when a tubing flare is required. the material is pulled to until it breaks. the material is pulled to limit of elasticity. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process. Option C. 1. the material is pulled until it reaches its UTS. 3. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process. Option C. Option B. With the two-piece fitting (AN818) there is no relative motion between the fitting and the flare when the nut is being tightened. material ductility. Option A. Aircraft Materials . the material is pulled to until it breaks. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. In the tensile strength test. wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening process. . material toughness. Correct Answer is. 2. Option A. Question Number. Explanation.Ferrous. Option A. 6. The Charpy test measures. Option A. impact energy. The 'Fatigue limit' for steel is generally in the region of.htm . Question Number. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Explanation. CAIPs BL/10-3 5. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation.2. 5. 20%-40%. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Option A. 15 seconds. 15 seconds. 10 seconds. Option B. impact energy. Question Number. 300 J. 163 J. http://www.T. Explanation. 20 seconds. Question Number. Option C.key-to-steel. Option B. 150 J. 163 J.com/Articles/Art137.S.8. 60%-80%. 4. 40%-60%. Young's modulus. Option A.2. Option C. NIL. Option B. strain. CAIPs BL/10-3 6. Option C. In an Izod impact test the striking energy of the striker is approximately. 20%-40%. Option B. compared to the static U. Correct Answer is. eng. NIL. Option C. Option B. NIL. Impact Resistance Test. necking. Option A. Option B. Rockwell. The ability of mild steel to accept more load after the yield point is reached is due to.Question Number. Brinell and Izod. Hardness Testing. Fatigue Testing. Correct Answer is. . Fatigue Testing. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 4-11. Hardness Testing.uk/training/training-rockwell.cam. Tensile Testing. Option B. Rockwell. Brinell and Vickers. Explanation. strain hardening.uk/mpsite/properties/non-IE/toughness. Rockwell. Vickers and Izod.ac. http://www-materials. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. 7. Brinell and Vickers. What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until fracture?. Option C. Option C. Option A. strain hardening. What is a Rockwell tester used for?. Explanation.html Question Number. Rockwell. Impact Resistance Test. Option A. Hardness Test. plasticisation. 9. 8.qcplus. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation.co.htm Question Number. Option A. Which of the folllowing are all hardness testing machines?. Option B. Correct Answer is. 10. NIL. http://www. Explanation. it is for use on aircraft mainplanes only. Question Number. 2. NIL. it is for workshop use only. Explanation. 90% nitrate of soda and 10% sodium nitrate. low temperature. Option B. Question Number. 3. The most suitable mixture for a salt bath operation is. Aircraft Materials . it has been solution treated and will respond effectively to precipitation treatment. How many times can clad alloy be heat treated?. Option C.Non-Ferrous. Low stress. Correct Answer is. high temperature. BL/9-1 12. The symbol 'W' on a material indicates. what conditions are best to minimise creep?. 70% sodium chlorate and 30% sodium nitrate. High stress. 4. Option A. Low stress. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. 1. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. 3 times. Question Number. Once only. Explanation. . 90% nitrate of soda and 10% sodium nitrate. Option A. 20% nitrate of soda and 80% sodium nitrate. Option A. it has been solution treated and will respond effectively to precipitation treatment. For a particular metal material. Option C. Option C.02a. as many times as required. 3 times. Option B. Question Number. low temperature. Oxides of all metals are insulators. Do not bend at sharp angles. Explanation. It speeds up age hardening process. . Option C. It delays the age hardening process. What care should you take with 2024-T3?. Aluminium exposed to air will. Option C. 8. Option B. Low stress. low temperature. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. It softens the material to allow it to be worked. oxidise and become weaker. oxidise and become electrically insulated. Question Number. Option B. 5. oxidise and become electrically insulated. Option A. Option A. Question Number. 2024-T3 has a low fatigue resistance. 7. Composition of silver solder is. Do not remove the surface of the sheet metal. NIL. 6. tin and lead. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option C. What is the effect of precipitation heat treatment on aluminium?. lead and silver.Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Do not scratch or make nicks in it. Correct Answer is. Explanation. oxidise and become stronger. Explanation. Do not scratch or make nicks in it. tin. NIL. It speeds up age hardening process. Question Number. the copper precipitates and it remains hard and brittle. 10. Option B. brittle.alloy black. lead. Aluminium alloy. Alclad. Option A. If al. BL/6-1 Table 3. Seals the surface from moisture. Anodizing protects alloy metal from corrosion and does what else?. alloy is not quenched. 9. silver and antimony. Option A. Caustic soda turns al. silver and antimony. Question Number. Explanation. If aluminium alloy is not quenched within the minimum time allowed after heat treatment is it will be. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. . If caustic soda turns a material black what is it?. tin. Option C. Option C. Option B. Option A. Explanation. What chemical is used to identify aluminium alloys?.Option C. lead. 12. Correct Answer is. 11. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Aluminium alloy. Question Number. Option B. NIL. subject to corrosion. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Aluminium. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to. tin. Makes the surface alkaline. and pure aluminium white. malleable. brittle. Correct Answer is. 6. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option B. reasonably resistant to corrosion. not resistant to corrosion. 15. Precipitation treating makes the metal.alloy black. Option A. . Correct Answer is. NIL. Pure aluminium is highly resistant to corrosion. stronger and less ductile. highly resistant to corrosion. Option B. Option B. 20. Correct Answer is. highly resistant to corrosion. Caustic soda. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. harder. Pure aluminium is. harder. stronger and less ductile. Explanation. A material has the code 2024-TH6 on it. Question Number. Precipitation treating makes the metal. Option C. Caustic soda turns al. Option C. Copper sulphate. and pure aluminium white. Nitric acid. Explanation.Option A. 14. Caustic soda. Option B. less strong and hard. Option A. Which part of the code indicates the percentage of the alloying 20. Option C. H. Explanation. 13. element?. Explanation. 16. Option A. Alclad. Option A.Question Number. Question Number. NIL. 1025. can be hardened by annealing. Option C. Correct Answer is. 5025. number code. Option C. Option B. 19. Question Number. letter and number code. letter code Correct Answer is. can be hardened by strain hardening or cold working. Option B. cannot be hardened. Question Number. Explanation. Alpax. 5025. Which of the following metals is an aluminium silicon alloy used mainly for casting?. Option A. BL/9-1 16. Correct Answer is. Option C. 17. Explanation. 18. All materials but a few (eg lead) can be hardened by cold working. 2025. can be hardened by strain hardening or cold working. Aldrey. Non heat treatable materials. Option A.2. . Correct Answer is. letter code Explanation. Alpax. Option C. Heat treatment is shown on a British aluminium alloy by a. Option B. Option B. Aluminium alloyed primarily with magnesium is numbered. Explanation. Trade name for material used mainly for castings. Low density and corrosion resistance. 87 % Aluminium 13 % Silicon. http://www.glue-it.com/model-engineering/general-information/glossary/a_summ.htm Question Number. 20. Aircraft skin is joggled to. Option A. provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces. Option B. make a frame lighter but stronger. Option C. conform to the aircraft contour. Correct Answer is. provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces. Explanation. A joggle makes a flush surface at a join. Question Number. 21. The British system of heat treatment codes is. Option A. a series of letters. Option B. numbers and letters. Option C. a series of numbers. Correct Answer is. a series of letters. Explanation. CAIP BL/9-1. Question Number. 22. In a sheet metal store the following is marked on a sheet of aluminium alloy: L162 (sheet 1). , On a different sheet the following marking is found: L172 (sheet 2). The following is true: Option A. Sheet one has a shinier surface than sheet 2. Option B. Sheet one is more ductile than sheet 2. Option C. Sheet two is of a thicker gauge than sheet 1. Correct Answer is. Sheet one is more ductile than sheet 2. Explanation. The L numbers are the British al. alloy specs. Question Number. 23. Cold working of a material is used to reduce. Option A. material hardness. Option B. fatigue. Option C. wear of manufacturing tools. Correct Answer is. wear of manufacturing tools. Explanation. Cold working increases strength and hardness (therefore reduces wear). Question Number. 24. Sheet metal should be stored. Option A. above 25 degrees centigrade. Option B. on its edge in racks to prevent scratching. Option C. stacked flat to prevent bending of sheets. Correct Answer is. on its edge in racks to prevent scratching. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 1-8. Question Number. 25. Clad aluminium alloy (alclad) has a pure aluminium coating of. Option A. 0.002. Option B. 1% of alloy thickness. Option C. 5% of alloy thickness. Correct Answer is. 5% of alloy thickness. Explanation. The cladding is 5% each side. Question Number. 26. The main metal in monel is. Option A. aluminium. Option B. nickel. Option C. stainless steel. Correct Answer is. nickel. Explanation. Monel is a nickel alloy. Question Number. 27. A tube complying to BS T51 is. Option A. tungum. Option B. HTS tube. Option C. high pressure seamless copper tube. Correct Answer is. high pressure seamless copper tube. Explanation. BL/6-15 3.2.1 or download External document... page 28. http://www.dstan.mod.uk/data/05/069/00000300.pdf Question Number. 28. Why is nickel chromium used in many exhaust systems?. Option A. Corrosion resistant and high heat conductivity. Option B. Lightweight and flexible. Option C. Corrosion resistant and low expansion coefficient. Correct Answer is. Corrosion resistant and low expansion coefficient. Explanation. Nickel and chromium are the alloying elements in Stainless Steel. Question Number. 29. Titanium alloys. Option A. are cheap to manufacture. Option B. have a high strength to weight ratio. Option C. are corrosion resistant but heavy. Correct Answer is. have a high strength to weight ratio. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. manufacture?. Option A. 20. Option B. 2. Option C. 17. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. 30. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminium alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in its 2. Question Number. 31. Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft because they. Option A. are harder wearing than unclad aluminium alloys. Option B. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminium alloys. Option C. are stronger than unclad aluminium alloys. Correct Answer is. are less subject to corrosion than uncoated aluminium alloys. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 32. Non heat treatable aluminium alloys. Option A. can be hardened by strain hardening. Option B. cannot be softened. Option C. cannot be hardened. Correct Answer is. can be hardened by strain hardening. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 33. Solution treatment after manufacturers have performed it once can be carried out a further. Option A. 1 time. Option B. 2 times. Option C. 3 times. Correct Answer is. 2 times. Explanation. Solution treatment to Alclad can be carried out only 3 times in total. CAIPs BL/9-1. Rivets can be re-heat treated 3 times (so 4 times in total) BL/6-27 6.3. Question Number. 34. Following solution treatment aluminium alloy can be placed into service. Option A. after 5 days. Option B. straight away. Option C. after 24 hours. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Stronger. Question Number. you would be removing the oxide layer. 7 seconds. Polishing al. what material are you removing?. 3 seconds. instead of pure aluminium?. Option B. Option A. Why are aluminium alloys used on aircraft. The important factor is that clad aluminium alloy is 90% aluminium alloy. The fact that it is clad is irrelevant. Correct Answer is. Option C. 36. The time between removal from heat treatment furnace and quenching must be not more than. Question Number. . Why is clad alloy preferred to pure Aluminium?. Alloy. or Alclad. Option C. after 5 days. Oxide layer. Correct Answer is. Less brittle. pure al. Option A. 35. When buffing surface of Aluminium Alloy. More ductile. 37. Option A. Oxide layer. Option C. Tougher. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Explanation. Aluminium. Full hardness is achieved after 4-5 days.alloy. Tougher. 10 seconds. Question Number. 10 seconds. Question Number. Explanation. 38. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 2-9. Option B. Corrosion resistant. Option A. Option B. CAIPs BL/9-1 Para 7. Option B. Age hardening of aluminium is. yellowish surface due to protective treatment. duralumin with aluminium coating. Question Number. Option C. 40. Option A. yellowish surface due to protective treatment. Lighter. . Question Number. Stronger. 42. Option A. Explanation. 41. a gradual hardening over a period of time. Explanation. The magnesium alloys used in aircraft can be recognized by. 39. Explanation. duralumin with magnesium cladding. Question Number. Alclad is. Question Number. Option C. Option C.Option C. NIL. Aluminium will not age harden like aluminium alloys such as dural as there ars no alloying elements such as copper that will come out of solution over time. never carried out. shiny surface due to chromium plated on the surface. Option B. The oxide film on the surface of aluminium is. Option A. aluminium with duralumin cladding. never carried out. NIL. Explanation. silver surface due to protective coating. Option B. Option B. duralumin with aluminium coating. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. not necessary. Correct Answer is. NIL. Correct Answer is. Titanium can be identified by placing it on a grinding wheel and looking for. NIL. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. White Sparks. Option B. Explanation. method of heating only. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. Option B. 45. Correct Answer is. non porous. Option C. cladding. cladding. temperature and method of heating only. non porous. Option C. Yellow Sparks. . Correct Answer is.Option A. The critical process of heat treatment is. temperature. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. temperature. method of heating and cooling. method of heating and cooling. hard and porous. metalizing. electroplating. Explanation. Option C. porous. 44. NIL. NIL. The process of forming a pure layer of aluminium over an aluminium alloy is. 43. Option A. Correct Answer is. Red Sparks. Option A. White Sparks. NIL. What is generally true for titanium alloy?. Malleable materials are. If a material has to undergo deep cold forming operation. 49. NIL. 46. Question Number. Option B. Option C. http://www. alocrom treatment. Option B. It is stronger than the aluminium.geocities. brushing on phosphate treatment followed by paint. NIL. Option C. It has lower density than magnesium. Malleability does not necessarily mean ductility. 47. Correct Answer is. Explanation. . It is stronger than the aluminium. easy to forge. malleability.com/pganio/materials. Option C. 48.Question Number. Option C. Re-treatment of aluminium alloys can be performed by. NIL. Correct Answer is. alocrom treatment. Correct Answer is. Explanation. selenious acid treatment. malleability. ductility. Option B. easy to forge. The essential property would be.html Question Number. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Option B. highly ductile. Option A. elasticity. Question Number. easy to cast. Explanation. Correct Answer is. It is stronger than the steel. 52. 51. Correct Answer is. The metal which must not be heated in a salt bath is. an alloy. Question Number. also highly ductile. Option B. that the material is from an approved source. Option B. Malleable materials are normally. an alloy. Option A. a composite material. easily forged. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. 53. rivets made of alclad. the spec and gauge of the material. The colour code on sheet metal indicates. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. Option B. NIL. Option B. only the specification of the material. Option C. magnesium alloy. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. the combination is known as. that the material is from an approved source. Option A. Fuse means 'to melt'. duralumin. Correct Answer is.Question Number. 50. Option C. OR only the specification of the material. easy to cast. NIL. Option C. a thermosetting compound. Explanation. easily forged. . Option A. When two or more metallic materials are fused together. magnesium alloy. A piece of duralumin has been annealed and bent into shape prior to fitting to an aircraft. Option C. Correct Answer is. 55. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Cobalt is used to bond tungsten carbide to cutting tools. 56. Option B. Silicon. Option C. Large grain size is attributed to slow cooling rates and will give less tensile strength.Question Number. The cracking of structural members under repeated stress lower than the ultimate tensile load is known as. Which of the following is correct? It must be. stress reversal. Which of the following is true?. Question Number. Invar. 57. fatigue failure. Option A. Small grain size is normally attributed to rapid cooling rates and will give less tensile strength. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. fatigue failure. fitted to the aircraft within 24 hours. NIL. Option A. The common bonding material for Tungsten Carbide is. Option B. Option A. Large grain size is attributed to slow cooling rates and will give less tensile strength. Question Number. Grain size will effect the mechanical properties of metal. Option B. . Cobalt. Cobalt. Option C. Materials with large grain size are more prone to creep. Correct Answer is. creep. Explanation. 54. Option B. solution treated, precipitation treated and fitted to the aircraft within 2 hours. Option C. solution treated prior to fitting to an aircraft. Correct Answer is. solution treated, precipitation treated and fitted to the aircraft within 2 hours. OR solution treated prior to fitting to an aircraft. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 58. A sheet of metal is designated 2024-T4. The code tells us that the material is a copper based aluminium alloy. Option A. annealed and Naturally aged. Option B. solution treated and naturally aged. Option C. solution treated and artificially aged. Correct Answer is. solution treated and naturally aged. Explanation. NIL. http://www.jjjtrain.com/vms/engineering_metal_stds.html Question Number. 59. A metal is coded 1285 using the IADS coding method. This means the metal is. Option A. 85% pure aluminium. Option B. 99.85% pure aluminium. Option C. a copper based aluminium alloy i.e. duralumin. Correct Answer is. 99.85% pure aluminium. Explanation. NIL. http://www.jjjtrain.com/vms/engineering_metal_stds.html Question Number. 60. A material containing approximately 66% nickel and 33% copper is known as. Option A. Nimonic. Option B. Monel metal. Option C. Invar Correct Answer is. Monel metal. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 61. Monel metal consists of approximately. Option A. 66% Chromium and 33% Copper. Option B. 66% Copper and 33% Nickel. Option C. 66% Nickel and 33% Copper. Correct Answer is. 66% Chromium and 33% Copper. Explanation. NIL. http://www.lenntech.com/Monel.htm Question Number. 62. Silver solder is composed of the materials. Option A. Copper, Tin and Silver. Option B. Zinc, Lead and Silver. Option C. Copper, Zinc and Silver. Correct Answer is. Copper, Zinc and Silver. Explanation. NIL. http://ajh-knives.com/soldering.html Question Number. 63. The ease with which a material can be forged, rolled and extruded without fracture is an indication of a material's. Option A. malleability. Option B. ductility. Option C. brittleness. Correct Answer is. malleability. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 64. What is fatigue?. Option A. Cyclic stressing of a part. Option B. Failure of a component due to corrosion. Option C. Constant stressing of a part. Correct Answer is. Cyclic stressing of a part. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 65. Why is stop drilling carried out at the end of a crack?. Option A. To change the direction of the crack. Option B. To stop the crack from propagating. Option C. To increase the stress concentration at the crack end. Correct Answer is. To stop the crack from propagating. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 66. Annealing of aluminium. Option A. increases the tensile strength. Option B. makes the material brittle. Option C. removes stresses caused by forming. Correct Answer is. removes stresses caused by forming. Explanation. NIL. 02b. Aircraft Materials - Non-Ferrous. Question Number. 1. In the Brinell hardness test, you would measure the indentation's. Option A. depth. Option B. area. Option C. diameter. Correct Answer is. diameter. Explanation. In a Brinell hardness test, the diameter of the indent is used to indicate the hardness. Question Number. 2. Option A. hardness. The impact testing technique is used on a material to test for. Option B. toughness. Option C. shear strain. Correct Answer is. toughness. Explanation. The impact test machine measures resistance to impact (i.e. toughness). BL/10-3. Question Number. 3. An S-N curve is useful in the design evaluation process for testing. Option A. fatigue life. Option B. shear force. Option C. tension. Correct Answer is. fatigue life. Explanation. An SN curve is to evaluate a material for fatigue. S=stress level N=number cycles to failure. Question Number. 4. What is a fusible material?. Option A. The ability of two dissimilar metals to melt together. Option B. The ability of a metal to melt. Option C. The ability of a metal to be welded. Correct Answer is. The ability of a metal to melt. Explanation. Fuse' simply means to melt. Question Number. 5. Brittleness is. Option A. the property to resist wear. Option B. the property to not deform before cracking. Option C. the property to resist deformation. Correct Answer is. the property to not deform before cracking. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 6. The proof stress of a material is the stress at which. Option A. no units. Question Number. 7. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Hooke's law states that. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. directly proportional to stress. stiffness. Option C. necking of the material begins. NIL. Option B. 8. small amount of permanent set takes place. stiffness. directly opposite to stress. Correct Answer is.I. Nmm. directly proportional to stress. NIL. P.Option A. . 9. Explanation. no units. Option C. Young's Modulus is a measure of.I. Correct Answer is. the material yields. Option B. small amount of permanent set takes place. The S. Option A. elastic strain is. strain. NIL. Question Number. within the elastic region. stress. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C.S. unit for strain is. Correct Answer is. indirectly proportional to stress. Question Number. Option B. Option B. A material's yield strength is the ability to. Hardness Testing.html 03. Explanation. Explanation.uk/mpsite/properties/non-IE/strength. Load / Cross sectional area. Correct Answer is. 10. Tensile Testing. withstand a crushing force. The value of stress for a given material can be derived by. resist deformation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. 11. Fatigue Testing. Question Number. Tensile Testing. Option A. Option C.eng. NIL.cam. low temperature. Option C. NIL. Option B. resist side loads. What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks?. 12.Question Number. requires. Option B. Load / Cross sectional area. Question Number. Question Number. Adhesives containing phenol-formaldehyde.ac. . Load * Cross sectional area. Option A. Aircraft Materials . high temperature. Cross sectional area / Load. to cure. high temperature. NIL. 1. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. room temperature.1a. http://www-materials. resist deformation. Option A.Composite and Non-Metallic other than wood and fabric. Option C. mechanical and specific. Types of adhesive joints are. Two parts of the adhesive process are. mechanical and specific. Explanation. Across the ribbon. Ceramic composites retain their strength at high temperatures. Explanation. Along the ribbon. . Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. In all directions. wetting and setting. a firewall?. Explanation. Option B. Over extended honeycomb can bend in which direction?. Ceramic fibres. Ceramic fibres. Correct Answer is. NIL. Carbon/graphite fibres. Aramid (Kevlar) fibres. wetting and setting. 2. Option B. What material would be used where a high temperature application is required. Option A. Option A. NIL. Option C. Option B. Option C. cemented and specific. Option C. spreading and setting. wetting and gripping.g. e. mechanical and cemented. 4. Option B. Question Number. 5. NIL. Question Number. Option A.Explanation. Correct Answer is. 3. Question Number. Option A. Hexagonal core. warp. Question Number. Question Number. Fibre weave strength is greatest in the direction of the. weft. Explanation. 9. 8. Flexible core. Correct Answer is. A passenger window. Aluminium ore. Option C. Rectangular core. Option A. Option A. 7. Which of these core materials will be used in the making of a composite material flat panel?. Alumina ia aluminium oxide . Option A. Option B. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. 6. bias.Correct Answer is. A ceramic oxide of aluminium. Option C.a ceramic. NIL. Correct Answer is. A ceramic oxide of aluminium. An alloy of aluminium. . Explanation. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. A radome. warp. NIL. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Along the ribbon. Hexagonal core. Explanation. Question Number. What is Alumina?. Which of the following could best be manufactured from Perspex panel?. Option B. Option A. along the fibre. along the fibre. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. High voltage x-ray. Coin tap test. NIL. Option C. Explanation. either direction. Correct Answer is. across the fibre. Kevlar and Nomex are types of. Correct Answer is. Option A. A composite flap panel has structural damage. Low voltage x-ray. A passenger window. advanced composite. Strength of fibreglass is. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Sound is best absorbed by a material which is. Explanation. A cockpit windscreen. What NDT method will you use to detect?. Correct Answer is. NIL.Option C. Explanation. glass fibre composite. Option A. 12. Option B. 10. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Question Number. NIL. Question Number. advanced composite. Coin tap test. Option B. Kevlar and Nomex are Aramid materials. 13. dense. aluminium alloy. 11. Option B. unidirectional fibres. Option C. Option C. GRP. Option C. Cellular' materials make good sound insulation. nor hardness. Option C. An impact adhesive is part of the. PVC. Explanation. can be reheated and reformed more than once. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. The maximum tensile strength of fibre reinforced plastic is achieved using. 17. PTFE. A thermoplastic can be. Question Number. NIL. 14. Correct Answer is. Question Number. is not affected by even low temperatures. soft and porous. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. becomes. unidirectional fibres. NIL. Question Number. heated and formed only once. chopped strand mat. Sound is unaffected by density. Correct Answer is. Option A. GRP. Polyester resin and glass fibre cloth. NIL. Correct Answer is. 16. can be reheated and reformed more than once. Option B. fibres uniformly distributed at 45 degrees to each other. 15. Option B. soft and porous. hard. Option A. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. Question Number. thermoset group. S-glass. Option C. Anaerobic resin group. thermoplastic group. Explanation. NIL. thermoplastic group.Option A. thermoset. may be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material with thermoplastic resin. Option B. S-glass. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. NIL. 18. E-glass. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Option C. 20. thermocure. Option A. Option B. thermoplastic. Question Number. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a. Option C. is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more corrosion resistant. Option B. Option A. . 19. has a high strength to weight ratio. thermoplastic. G-glass. Correct Answer is. NIL. The classification of high tensile strength fibreglass used in aircraft structures is. Option A. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of construction. Question Number. stiffness and ability to conduct electricity. Option B. S-glass. Option A. Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?. Correct Answer is. Warp. Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fibre (Kevlar) composites?. . Zinc chloride will have no effect. Correct Answer is. The classification for fibreglass reinforcement material that is high resistivity and the most common is. High tensile strength. Option A. Explanation. High tensile strength and flexibility. Correct Answer is. Bias. 21. 23. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Warp. Acetone will soften the plastic. Option B. 22. Option B. Option C. Option A. Option A. Has a yellowish tint when viewed from the edge. 24. Option C. Flexibility. but will not change its colour. E-glass. stiffness and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium. Weft. NIL. Which is the identifying characteristic of acrylic plastics?. Option C. Question Number. NIL. Option C. Option B. NIL. Zinc chloride will have no effect. E-glass. G-glass. What tests are done on adhesive joints?. Kevlar. Option B. Flexibility and high compressive strength. Explanation. 25. Option B. High compressive strength and ability to conduct electricity.Composite and Non-Metallic other than wood and fabric. Correct Answer is. 1. 03. stiffness and ability to conduct electricity. Flexibility. Option A. Carbon fibre. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Which of the following statements is true about thermosetting plastics?. Glass fibre. Option B. Once moulded into shape they become set and cannot subsequently be softened by reheating. They become plastic when heat is applied. . Option A. Correct Answer is. They are also known as Teflon. Explanation. Once moulded into shape they become set and cannot subsequently be softened by reheating.1b. Question Number. NIL. Correct Answer is. Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite fibre composites?. Option A. 26. Which of the following is susceptible to the ingress of moisture?.Correct Answer is. NIL. 2. NIL. Option C. Explanation. Aircraft Materials . Kevlar. OR High tensile strength and flexibility. high compressive strength and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium. Stiffness. Option C. Question Number. High tensile strength. high compressive strength and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium. Stiffness. NIL. Explanation. Shear and peel.4 inches. 3. Correct Answer is. how much should each layer extend beyond the layer below it?. Increase pot life. Option B. Option A. synthetic resin adhesives. Decrease pot life. Option A. 3 . Impact and peel. NIL. Question Number. Option B.3 inches. 2 . Option A. Decrease pot life. Option C. inorganic resin adhesives. NIL. No effect on pot life. Shear and peel. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. you use.2 inches. NIL. Option C. FAA AC43 Page 3-5. synthetic resin adhesives. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Impact and shear. In a composite repair lay-up.2 inches. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. organic resin adhesives. Option B. 1 . Option C. . What is the effect of heat on a cold cure resin?. When using a hot bonder to effect a composite repair. 4.Option A. 5. 1 . What is the largest hole in honeycomb repairable with microballoons?. The resin will not harden.54 inches. CAIP AL/7-6 page 2 para 4. the pot life will be decreased.54 mm.. Answer is 1 inch.Question Number. Explanation. 6. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. 2. Question Number. No effect. Option A. Accelerator and free catalyst. Option C. . 8. Option B. the material will become weaker. Option B. What is the effect of adding too much hardener to a resin?. 7. Makes the repair more brittle. NIL. Accelerator and free catalyst. the material will become stronger. Catalyst and resin. Makes the repair more brittle. NIL. Option A.54 cm.54 cm. If you increase the amount of catalyst in a resin mixture. Option B. Explanation. 2. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Accelerator and resin. 2. 2. Option B. Option A. the pot life will be decreased. Option C. 9. What two components of a three part polyester resin are dangerous to mix together directly?. Option A. Question Number. The vacuum connections on a fibreglass repair must be placed onto the. 11. Question Number. when one outer skin is damaged. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Remove all resin and start again. For the boundary marking of a composite repair. 13. breather mat. peel ply. Explanation. 12. when both outer skins are damaged. The breather mat allows the air to flow from the repair. Option C. when one outer skin is damaged. NIL. Option B. Question Number. breather mat. What do you do if you forget to add hardener to a composite repair?. to stainless steel honeycomb only. It will cure eventually anyway. NIL. . Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Remove all resin and start again. As a temporary repair in a glass fibre internal. Add hardener at the edges and it will cure. Explanation. Option A. An air driven router is used to remove honeycomb material for repairs. 10. top layer of glass fabric directly. Option A. Option C. To indicate temperature when a repaired composite item is cured with heat lamps. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. Where would you use a Templestick?. Option B. To indicate temperature when a repaired composite item is cured with heat lamps. Option C. breather cloth. 14. a solvent wipe. corona method. cellophane. Why would you use microballoons as a filler?. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. etching. It is the lightest filler material. Option A. Correct Answer is. cellophane. A thermoplastic fibre reinforced composite is prepared by. Option A. 2 inches. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. When using a backing former on a composite repair you need to use. Question Number. 16. . Correct Answer is. Microballoons is the lightest filler material. Explanation. Option C. 17. Option A. Option B.Question Number. 2 inches. a vacuum bag. Explanation. Option C. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. Correct Answer is. 15. Option B. Heater mats should overlap the repair by. Correct Answer is. 6 inches. corona method. It is the lightest filler material. It is the cheapest filler material. 4 inches. It cross-links with the panel. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Maximum repair with microballoons is approximately 3/8 inch . Opposite side to the vacuum port. Option A. 30mm.com/surfacePrep. the easiest being on the same side as the vacuum nozzle. Option C. 21. Explanation. Although the vacuum gauge can be placed anywhere. In an autoclave what pressure would the vacuum alarm be set at?. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites shows a diagram with it opposite side (fig 7-4) and one showing it combined with the vacuum nozzle (fig 7-6). the most logical answer (and probably the one the CAA want) is opposite side of the repair to the nozzle. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 18. 2 or more arrest points.asp Question Number. Option A. Corona method is used to prepare a thermoplastic material. Option B.Explanation.bondmaster. Next to the vacuum port. 1 arrest point. Stepped curing has. Question Number. 19. 10mm. Correct Answer is. Question Number.4. Option B. Operating pressure. Explanation. Explanation. Maximum repair dimensions for use of microballoons is. . 2 or more arrest points. 20mm.closest here is 10 mm. During vacuum bag lay-up the vacuum gauge is placed where?. Option C. no arrest point. Option C. Or A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. AL/7-6 7. Correct Answer is. Over the repair. Option A. 20. Opposite side to the vacuum port. http://www. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites (dwell time = soak time = arrest point). 10mm. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. Option C. 23. a vacuum bag is used. Option B. Option C. Option A. When mixing resin it is dangerous to add. Correct Answer is. Option C. Polythene. Question Number. High temp nylon. Explanation. Explanation. accelerator and catalyst before resin. Option B. An autoclave uses pressure. Question Number. Correct Answer is. catalyst and resin before accelerator. clamps are used. to apply pressure. See Jeppesen Advanced Composites. so the alarm must sound if the pressure drops below normal. Question Number. Option A. Polypropelene. Correct Answer is. Option B. 24. Question Number. Explanation. Lower than operating pressure. High temp nylon. Option A. weights are used. Correct Answer is.Option B. In an autoclave. In an autoclave what would you cover the repair in?. . a vacuum bag is used. accelerator and catalyst before resin. 22. AL/7-6 4. Option C. Lower than operating pressure. 25. Higher than operating pressure. What does MSDS stand for?. resin and accelerator before catalyst. Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-6. Maximum Structural Design System. . Option B. Correct Answer is. decreases with an increase in temperature. Option B. Option A. Metal Surface Dimension Sector. is not reliant upon temperature fluctuations. Material Safety Data Sheet. MSDS . The heat can be applied externally (endothermic) or created internally by a catalyst or hardener (exothermic). decreases with an increase in temperature. Option B. a router. a router. Option C. Option C. Option B. CAIPs AL/7-6.Option A. carbon monoxide. Thermosetting adhesive. The latter gives off heat. Option C.Material Safety Data Sheet. Explanation. Option A. 27. static radiation. Explanation. Material Safety Data Sheet. 28. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The pot life of a cold cured resin. Option C. heat. 26. Option A. Question Number. heat. Question Number. a drill. plastics (or adhesives) require heat to make them cure. during their curing cycle give off. Honeycomb for repair can be removed with. Correct Answer is. Explanation. increases with increase of temperature. locally manufactured concave knife. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 30. Question Number. When drilling a carbon fibre reinforced plastic use. Option A. will cause the curing time to. Option C. Thick aluminium sheet. When laying up a glass fibre repair. Most correct answer for a repair to a honeycomb sandwhich structure. The effect of a lower temperature than ambient during the curing period of a resin. Airbus A340 SRM . a tungsten carbide drill. AL/7-6 4.5. Plywood. Option B. a tungsten drill with a pointed tip. increase. Explanation. the extra layer of fibre is. increase. What is used as the base covering on a honeycomb repair?.5. Option C. remain unchanged. Glass cloth or thin aluminium sheet. Option B. 31. Option C.Question Number. Explanation. for extra strength. for shrinkage. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. AL/7-6 7. a tungsten carbide drill. Option B. . Explanation. Option A. a steel drill and carbarundum powder. a sacrificial layer for sanding.states Carbide or Carbide tipped drill for composite materials. Correct Answer is. Option A. A colder temperature will cause a resin to take longer to cure. decrease. for extra strength. 29. Glass cloth or thin aluminium sheet.3. 32. Correct Answer is. Option B. stiffer joint. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. application of vacuum. Option B. Use of excessive hardener in polyester resin leads to. Option B.Explanation. reduced pot life. Ramp-up' and 'ramp-down' refer to the heating and cooling rates (in °C per minute). Option B. may cause fatigue crack eventually. Question Number. Slight waviness on a fibre composite structure. arrest point. reduced pot life. Question Number. . Question Number. ramping up. a less stiff joint. When the temperature increases on a hot bond repair is paused it is known as. Too much hardener will greatly reduce pot life as well as make the polyester brittle. Option A. AC43 3-3(3) page 3-4. When the heating is paused it is called 'hold' or 'soak' at the 'arrest point'. 34. application of pressure. Option C. Option C. Bubbles are removed from a wet composite lay-up by. Correct Answer is. arrest point. 36. 33. Bubbles (large ones anyway) are removed with a roller. 35. Explanation. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. Option C. use of a roller. may be tolerable if lightly loaded. ramping down. use of a roller. Question Number. shelf life. carry on along the ribbon. NIL. life can be extended by 12 months if stored below 10 °C. Explanation. life can be extended by 12 months if stored above 40 °C. Correct Answer is. life can be extended by 12 months if stored above 40 °C. Hot bond composite pane has a crack. 40.Option C. Question Number. it must be used immediately. package life. no life extension is allowed. Question Number. could be reinforce with additional plies over the weakened area. Option C. Option A. NIL. 37. Question Number. When it reaches the ribbon it will. Option C. have no effect on its direction. Correct Answer is. pressure. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. may be tolerable if lightly loaded. Option C. Option B. NIL. In an autoclave the air is removed by. 38. . storage life. stop. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. On a pre-preg composite. The maximum length of time a component is held in stores is known as the. shelf life. stop. NIL. Option A. Explanation. 39. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. 41. Option B. Option C. Detachment. Explanation. but works remarkably well. is not an approved method of testing. Explanation. What is the separation of an aramid panel layers described as?. Air is removed by vacuum whether an autoclave is used or not. Glass fibre. . Question Number. 43. 42. but works remarkably well. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. is crude. Explanation. Option A. Option B. will not give very reliable results. Correct Answer is. Option A. Aircraft transparent plastics are cleaned using. roller. Ceramic. NIL. Debonding. Delamination. Question Number. Tap testing a sandwich panel construction. Question Number. Option A. Asbestos. Which product is a serious health hazard when handling?. NIL. 44. vacuum. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is.Option B. Asbestos. Delamination. vacuum. Correct Answer is. NIL. is crude. paraffin and soft cotton pad. 47. X-ray and back-lighting. Option C. Correct Answer is.1. 46. Option C. Option B. may be made of any of the metals commonly used in aircraft fasteners. Option C. X-ray and back-lighting. clean dry soft leather. . warm soapy water. must be made of materials such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel. Acoustic emission will detect corrosion only. Question Number. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is.Option A. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures. Explanation. NIL. Option A. Option A. Acoustic emission and back-lighting. rinsed and dried. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Acoustic emission and X-ray. A thermosetting adhesive. Which methods can be used to inspect fibreglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water?. Option B. Option C. AL/7-4 6. Explanation. Correct Answer is. undergoes a chemical transformation and creates an insoluble substance. must be made of materials such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel. Correct Answer is. undergoes a chemical transformation and creates an insoluble substance. will be resistant to heat. must be made of high strength aluminium alloy. Option B. Option A. rinsed and dried. warm soapy water. 45. Explanation. can be re-formed when hot. the grain is parallel to the skin. 49. Option A. 51. the grain is perpendicular to the skin. perform a chemical composition analysis.Question Number. Option C. Composite inspections by means of acoustic emissions monitoring. it is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient bonding material to be applied. Question Number. analyse ultrasonic signals transmitted into the parts being inspected. Option C. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core. Option A. 48. . Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. the plug should be cut so that. have mixed enough for a test sample. Explanation. 50. 100 times the thickness of the metal. the edges of the doubler should be tapered to. Explanation. NIL. test the viscosity of the resin immediately after mixing. pick up the 'noise' of corrosion or other deterioration taking place. whatever is desired for a neat clean appearance. Option B. NIL. One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to. create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected. NIL. Option C. Option B. two times the thickness of the metal. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel. Question Number. have mixed enough for a test sample. Option B. Question Number. the grain is perpendicular to the skin. Correct Answer is. Option B. 100 times the thickness of the metal. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. The length and time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the. pot life. strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure. improved strength to weight ratio. Option C. taking place. Question Number. shelf life. Explanation. Option A. service life. use an eddy current probe on both sides of the damaged area. Question Number. Option C. Which of the following are advantages of using microballoons in repairs to laminate honeycomb sandwich panels?. NIL. 53. less density. lower stress concentrations. use dye-penetrant inspection procedures. NIL. Correct Answer is. . 54. Improved strength to weight ratio. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 52. Option B. lower stress. pot life. One method of inspecting a laminated fibreglass structure that has been subjected to damage is. Less density. exposing the entire damaged area to the penetrant solution. less density. Explanation. strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure. Option B. Option B. create sonogram pictures of the areas being inspected. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and corners. OR pick up the 'noise' of corrosion or other deterioration Question Number.2. NIL. Explanation. lower stress concentrations. lower stress concentrations. CAIP AL/7-6 para 4. Option A. Option C. Less density. 56. Superficial scars. 1 inch in diameter. Explanation. Explanation. OR one or more coats of suitable resin (room-temperature catalyzed) to the surface. NIL. 1 inch in diameter. Correct Answer is. or rain erosion on fibreglass laminates can generally be repaired by applying. 4 inches in diameter. a dull thud may indicate. 2 inches in diameter. Correct Answer is. NIL. a sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface and one or more coats of resin cured with infrared heat lamps. scratches. Bias clock. a sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface and one or more coats of resin cured with infrared heat lamps. 58. Question Number. separation of the laminates. Option A. Explanation. 57. Option C. Option A. surface abrasion. an area of too much matrix between the fibres. separation of the laminates. Option B. What reference tool is used to determine how the fibre is to be oriented for a particular ply or fabric?.Question Number. one or more coats of suitable resin (room-temperature catalyzed) to the surface. Correct Answer is. 55. less than full strength curing of the matrix. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method. a piece of resin-impregnated glass fabric facing. Question Number. Option B.2 a-d. Option C. Option C. Option A. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than. Option B. Option B. CAIP AL/7-6 para 7. Question Number. . Option A. Weft clock. 40:60. 40:60. NIL. Bleeder. Explanation. 50:50. Explanation. Option B. Release. NIL. Option A. Warp clock. Explanation. 59. the orientation of the plies to the load direction. Correct Answer is. 61. Correct Answer is. the orientation of the plies to the load direction. Breather. Option A. Question Number. 60. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite lay-up depends primarily on. Option B. Warp clock. Option C. . Correct Answer is. Option B. What is the material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Option C. NIL. the ability of the fibres to transfer stress to the matrix. Which fibre to resin (%) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best?. Explanation. Bleeder. a 60% matrix to 40% fibre ratio.Option C. 60:40. NIL. Option B. short glass fibres. Water only. Fibreglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core. Water only. Correct Answer is. Option C. When necessary. must be repaired. 64.Question Number. Explanation. can be repaired by using a typical facing patch. Correct Answer is. Question Number. what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates?. Option B. AC43 . . Option C. Option C. Fibreglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure. Fibreglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by. Option A. Correct Answer is.must be repaired using a stepped-joint or scarfed repair. cannot be repaired. NIL. trimming the rough adges and sealing with paint. 62. Question Number. must be repaired. requires replacement of the damaged core and facing. Question Number. Option A. sanding the damaged are until aerodynamically smooth. filling with putty consisting of compatible resin and clean. Option A. Water soluble oil. sanding the damaged are until aerodynamically smooth. Explanation. requires replacement of the damaged core and facing. OR filling with putty consisting of compatible resin and clean. 63. may be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous stress concentrations. Water displacing oil. Option A. 65. may be filled with putty which is compatible with the resin. Explanation. Option B. short glass fibres. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. NIL. ribbon direction. Cotton flock and chopped fibres. Option C. microballoons. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. ribbon direction. Microballoons and chopped fibres. 69. cell side. Which of the following is the definition of cure time?. . 67. one should. Explanation. 68. NIL. Question Number. NIL.Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Option A. avoid inhaling fumes. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original is the. AC43. In order to prevent dermatitis caused due to contact with polymer resin. Option A. Which of the following. Cotton flock and chopped fibres. Correct Answer is. 66. Option B. Option B. Explanation. The time taken for the mixed compound to reach a final rubbery state. The time required for the mixed compound to reach an initial rubbery state. Option C. cell edge. Correct Answer is. Explanation. when added to wet resins. Question Number. The time required for the mixed compound to reach an initial rubbery state. cotton flock and chopped fibres. provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener holes in composite panels?. OR The period after which the surface of the compound no longer exhibits adhesive properties. The period after which the surface of the compound no longer exhibits adhesive properties. Option B.. mineral streaks. Option B. The time elapsed from the adhesive being applied to the joint surfaces to them being clamped.CAAIPs Leaflet 6-1 Figure 3. shakes and splits. A screwdriver. A feeler gauge. The time elapsing between the application of the adhesive and the assembly of the joint components. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. 2. shakes and splits. AC43 Chapter 1 Section 3 Para 1-29. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. CAIP AL/7-6 para 4. Question Number. Explanation. The defects not allowed at all on wooden structures are.Wooden Structures. A feeler gauge. Option C. 03. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-4 Page 7. 3. Option A. Aircraft Materials . 1. The time between the adhesive being applied to the joint surfaces and their assembly.2. OR use disposable gloves or barrier cream. checks. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 3-5. remember to close the autoclave door during curing. Option C. pitch pockets. checks. What is an open assembly time?. A plastic strip. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. OR The time elapsing between the application of the adhesive and the assembly of the joint components. The time between the adhesive being applied to the joint surfaces and their assembly.Option B. Question Number. remember to close the autoclave door during curing. Option A. With what would you check the bonded joints of a wooden aircraft structure?. Correct Answer is. use disposable gloves or barrier cream. . Explanation. 20%. monocoque. 5%. non-monocoque. Explanation. monocoque. Option B. 20-30%. Bring the aircraft into the hangar for 2 to 3 days prior to the inspection. 10-12%. non-monocoque. the moisture content in the wood must be at least. Remove all the fabric/cloth prior to inspection. Explanation. 20%. Jack and trestle the aircraft to the rigging position. semi-monocoque. 85%. Option A. semi-monocoque. Option C. Question Number. Remove all the fabric/cloth prior to inspection. Option A. Option C. monocoque. For fungus to cause wood decay in a wood structure. The basic structure of an aircraft made of wood can be. AC43 Para 1-29. Correct Answer is. Option A. . 4. Explanation. 5. 6. Question Number. The normal moisture content in the wood of a wooden aircraft structure is. Option C. Option B. 0-2%. Option C. 7. Correct Answer is. Option B. AC43 Para 1-28 a. When a full inspection for corosion is to be carried out on a wooden aircraft you would. Correct Answer is. Question Number.Question Number. Option A. non-monocoque. NIL. Option B. By measuring the size of the water stains at joints. a minor repair. . Except where specified by the manufacturer. AC43 Para. Option B. 10. at any point except under the wing attachment fittings.Correct Answer is. Question Number. By inserting the probe of a moisture meter. By inserting the probe of a moisture meter. Option B. AC43 Para. Correct Answer is. Explanation. must replace the spar section. How is the moisture content within the wood of a wood aircraft structure determined?. 10-12%. Option B. 11. Question Number. a wooden spar may be spliced. Option A. 1-29 g. at no point. 9. a major repair. A crack is found in a wooden spar. Option A. Correct Answer is. By weighing the wood structure before and after drying it. Option C. you. 8. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. 1-29 g. Correct Answer is. Question Number. at any point except under the wing attachment fittings. at any point. Explanation. Option A. AC43 Para 1-40. Option A. only permitted by the manufacturer. Option B. a major repair. might be able to repair the spar. Replacement of a wooden spar is. AC43 Para. 1-41. Option C. Explanation. Option C. Option A. 150 °C. 100 °C. a curvature gauge. Option C. 1-44 c.1-49 b.Option C. To determine whether an aircraft wooden structure surface is compound curvature. Question Number. improving aerodynamic efficiency. AC43 Para. 20 times the skin thickness. Question Number. a heated bending former must be heated to a temperature of. 13. Option A. helping to prevent wood cracking. Option B. Option A. AC43 Para. Option B. AC43 Para. . Explanation. Option B. Option A. you would use. Correct Answer is. helping to prevent wood cracking. Question Number. reducing the requirement for sanding. must replace the entire spar. a sheet of paper. Correct Answer is. 15. 1-44. 12. Option C. Correct Answer is. might be able to repair the spar. Correct Answer is. To assist the bending of plywood. 300 °C. Wood sealants used on wooden aircraft structures are for. Explanation. a trammel. 150 °C. AC43 Para. a sheet of paper. 14. Question Number. 1-48. A splayed patch repair may be used on plywood damage which does not exceed. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is.5 inch diameter. Option C. Option C. Option C.1-51 a. Option C. AC43 Para. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. 1 in 20. Question Number. 1. 16. 10 times the skin thickness. 18.inch area. 1 in 12. 50 inch diameter. Correct Answer is. 0.0 inch diameter. 50 inch perimeter. . 3. 1 in 4. Question Number. Option A. 50 sq. Explanation. AC43 Para. Explanation. A surface patch to a plywood structure may be a large as. 50 inch perimeter. 1 in 12. 15 times the skin thickness.0 inch diameter. 15 times the skin thickness.Option B. 17.0 inch diameter. Option B. 1. AC43 Para. Question Number. The maximum size damage to plywood skin that may be repaired with a fabric patch is. Correct Answer is. Option B.1-51 c. Option B.1-51 b. The steepest slope permitted on the scarf of a scarfed plywood repair is. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para 1-52. 1-51 d and Figure 1-16. AC43 Table 1-1. 1/4 inch thick. 19. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. douglas fir. on both the outer and inner surfaces. Correct Answer is. Option B. AC43 Table 1-1. Option A. 1/4 inch thick. Option C. Question Number. on both the outer and inner surfaces. Option B. An aircraft wooden structure must be surface finished and sealed. spruce. Option A.Question Number. compared to that of spruce. . The doubler used to support a scarfed patch plywood repair should be made from plywood of a minimum. less than. 1/8 inch thick. The standard wood type for aircraft wood structures is. on the outer surfaces only. Explanation. Question Number. AC43 Para 1-64. Option C. Explanation. 22. Option B. exceeding. Option A. Correct Answer is. 20. pine. Explanation. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para. on the inner surfaces only. 21. spruce. Pine wood has a strength. the same as. Option C. 3/8 inch thick. less than. Option C. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. AC43 Para 1-2. is preferred because of its superior strength qualities. A 'shake' in a piece of wood is a crack. Compression wood. in certain locations.Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. must be rejected. in certain locations. Option A. Option C. Option A. up to 3/8 inch diameter in any location. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. induced by artificial stress. Correct Answer is. Hard knots in wood are acceptable. 25. Correct Answer is. should be rejected.1-2. Option A. Option A. Option C. shakes or splits. Option C. AC43 Para 1-2. Explanation. 24. 26. Wood with checks. never. Option B. across annual rings. is a hard-wood. Question Number. 23. . can be used for certain secondary structure. between two annual rings. should be rejected. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para. must be rejected. between two annual rings. can be used providing the damage is repaired by gluing and clamping. Shrinkage of wood is. . Option B. are types of hard-wood. Explanation. Correct Answer is. The shrinkage is equal in tangential and radial directions. Option A. least along the fibres. Option A. least across the fibres. 27. Explanation. 28. Option B. AC43 Para 1-2. Option C. negligible in the longitudinal direction. are forms of decay in wood. Question Number. Option C. Option B. negligible in the radial direction. Red heart and purple heart. Explanation. Tangential.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Radial. Question Number. The greatest amount of shrinkage in wood is in which direction?. least along the fibres. AC43 Para 1-2. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. are forms of decay in wood. AC43 Para 1-2. Shrinkage of wood is. AC43 Para 1-2. Option C. equal along and across the fibres. are harmless natural defects in wood. greatest in the longitudinal direction. Tangential. 29. 30. Nails used on wood structures should be. 32. AC43 Para 1-1. 1:20. If metal fasteners are removed from an aircraft's wood structure. 50 mm apart. Option B. Small (up-to 3/8 inch diameter) hard-knots are allowed in a wooden spar. Option C. Explanation. Option B. and are found to have corrosion on them. AC43 Para 1-2. Question Number. 25 mm apart. Explanation. Option A.Correct Answer is. 12 mm apart. Option A. Explanation. 33. 34. this can indicate. in the middle 1/3 portion. in the outer 1/3 portions. nowhere. Option C. negligible in the longitudinal direction. AC43 Para 1-11 c. 1:15. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. AC43 Para 1-1. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. in the middle 1/3 portion. . 1:8. acidity of the adjoining wood structure. Question Number. 31. Option A. The maximum permissible grain deviation in wood is. 1:15. 25 mm apart. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. plug with hardwood and re-drill. Option A. AC43 1-28 j. sealed with varnish and wet-assembled with the bolt before the varnish has dried. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. and the sealant allowed to dry before fitting the bolt. the spar may be reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Bolt holes through wooden structures should be. and the sealant allowed to dry before fitting the bolt. Option C. has the same susceptibility to moisture ingress as the side of the grain. sealed. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of the boltholes. 37. Option B. Option C. it is permissible to ream the hole. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates. decay of the adjoining wood structure. Option A. . 36. Option B. Option C. 35. is more susceptible to moisture ingress as the side of the grain. AC43 1-71. a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar entirely replaced. a new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar entirely replaced. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is.Option B. decay of the adjoining wood structure. Explanation. AC43 1-69. Wood end-grain. Question Number. AC43. left unsealed and unvarnished inside the hole. Explanation. sealed. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 38. is less susceptible to moisture ingress as the side of the grain. is more susceptible to moisture ingress as the side of the grain. Question Number. deterioration of the fastener. Option C. decay. obtain uniform strength.Option A. AC43. Option C. at right angles to the grain. Option A. shear failure. Correct Answer is. Option C. 40. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 41. no pitch pockets are within 12 inches. . parallel to the grain. Option A. Question Number. Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are characterised by buckling of the fibres that appear as streaks on the surface. Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft structure provided. at right angles to the grain. increase strength. 39. Option B. NIL. Option B. Option B. decrease weight. NIL. they produce a small effect of grain direction. they produce a small effect of grain direction. Option B. compression failure. they have no mineral streaks. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. The I-beam wooden spar is routed to. AC43. compression failure. Option C. Explanation. at right-angles to the growth rings. Correct Answer is. decrease weight. Explanation. 03.3. Aircraft Materials - Fabric Covering. Question Number. 1. Fabrics may be fitted to airframe structures by. Option A. always riveting. Option B. wood nails. Option C. tying on with string. Correct Answer is. tying on with string. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 2. Aircraft fabric covering is made from. Option A. silk. Option B. polyester. Option C. nylon. Correct Answer is. polyester. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-3 a. Question Number. 3. At manufacture, aircraft fabric is. Option A. shrunk. Option B. doped. Option C. stretched. Correct Answer is. stretched. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-3 b. Question Number. 4. Recovering or repairing of an aircraft with a fabric other than the original fabric type is. Option A. a major modification and requires approval. Option B. prohibited. Option C. a minor modification, providing the fabric is the same strength as the original. Correct Answer is. a major modification and requires approval. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-5 NOTE. Question Number. 5. Reinforcing tape used on aircraft fabric covering must have a minimum strength of. Option A. 80 lb. Option B. 40 lb. Option C. 120 lb. Correct Answer is. 40 lb. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-5 a. Question Number. 6. Lacing cord used on aircraft fabric covering must have a minimum breaking strength of. Option A. 120 lb. Option B. 80 lb. Option C. 40 lb. Correct Answer is. 40 lb. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-5 c. Question Number. 7. Fabric seams are preferable. Option A. parallel to the line of flight. Option B. spanwise to the line of flight. Option C. oblique to the line of flight. Correct Answer is. parallel to the line of flight. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7. Question Number. 8. Single stitched machine sewn seams are permissible. Option A. at all locations on the aircraft. Option B. never. Option C. only when positioned over a structure. Correct Answer is. only when positioned over a structure. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7 a 1. Question Number. 9. The minimum pitch of hand-sewn stitch is. Option A. 1/4 inch. Option B. equal to 10 times the thread thickness. Option C. 4 inches. Correct Answer is. 1/4 inch. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7 a 2. Question Number. 10. Hand sewn stitch must be locked at a minimum of. Option A. the end of the stitch only. Option B. 20 stitch intervals. Option C. 10 stitch intervals. Correct Answer is. 10 stitch intervals. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7 a 2. Question Number. 11. Fabric to be hand sewn must be doubled under at the edge to a minimum distance of. Option A. 1/2 inch. Option B. 3/8 inch. Option C. 1/4 inch. Correct Answer is. 3/8 inch. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-7 a 2. Question Number. 12. Holes are cut in fabric for inspection panels, spar fittings, drain grommets etc. Option A. after doping. Option B. before doping. Option C. before attaching the fabric to the structure. Correct Answer is. after doping. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-9 a. Question Number. 13. Aircraft fabric lacing cord is reinforced with. Option A. epoxy. Option B. wax. Option C. lanolin. Correct Answer is. wax. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-10 d 2. Question Number. 14. The dope applied to an aircraft's fabric covering causes shrinkage. Option A. on the last coat only. Option B. on the first coat only. Option C. on all coats. Correct Answer is. on all coats. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-20. Question Number. 15. The two preferred types of dope used on aircraft fabric covering is. Option A. cellulose and polyester. Option B. cellulose and butyrate. Option C. nitrate and butyrate. Correct Answer is. nitrate and butyrate. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-20. Question Number. 16. Aircraft dope, during storage in adverse conditions in a store-room, will become. What type of dope is preferred for use on natural fiber aircraft covering?. Question Number. Question Number. 18. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-20 b. acidic. AC43 Para 2-20 c. Butyrate dope may be applied over the top of nitrate dope. Either type of dope may be applied over the top of any type of dope. alkaline. Option B. discoloured. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 17. Option C. Butyrate dope may be applied over the top of nitrate dope. Option C. Explanation. Leather soled. Option A. Any type of dope is suitable. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-3.Option A. Rubber soled. Option B. AC43 Para 2-20 c. Question Number. What type of shoes should be worn by the technician applying a dope finish to a fabric covered aircraft?. Nitrate dope may be applied over the top of butyrate dope. Plastic uppers. Nitrate. 19. Option C. Explanation. Nitrate. Correct Answer is. Option B. acidic. . Which of the following is true regarding aircraft dope type?. Leather soled. Butyrate. Explanation. Option A. Option C. 60%. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Relative humidity 20 . 21. Applying dope to a fabric covered aircraft should be done by. to extend the shelf life. Option C. produce a smoother finish. produce a smoother finish. Option B.60%.75%. Correct Answer is. 20. Relative humidity 50 . Correct Answer is. Regarding the thinning of aircraft dope. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4. . temperature range 40 ° to 60 °F. Option A. temperature range 65 ° to 75 °F. Correct Answer is. underthinning is preferred to overthinning. Relative humidity 20 . A retarder is added to aircraft dope to. dope should be thinned with automotive thinners. overthinning is preferred to underthinning. Option A. spray all coats except the first three. Question Number. to retard the application time. Option B. brushing all coats to ensure it is absorbed into the fabric. 22. Option B. Explanation. 23. What are the limits of the environmental conditions for applying dope to a fabric covered aircraft?. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Explanation.Question Number. temperature range 65 ° to 75 °F. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4 and 2-20 c NOTE. Correct Answer is.70%. Relative humidity 50 . AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4. spray all coats except the first three. temperature range 65 ° to 75 °F. overthinning is preferred to underthinning. Option B. spraying all coats to avoid brush marks. AC43 Para 2-20 f table 2-4. before coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied. it does not matter. 85%. Option B. 65%. Option A. Question Number. after coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied. Option B. AC43 Para 2-21 d. Option A. Explanation. is treated with wax compound. laying the fabric out on the floor and cutting it to size prior to fitting to the aircraft. Question Number. is treated with varnish. before or after coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied. is not to be treated after application. Option C. . Correct Answer is. Coats of clear dope are applied to an aircraft's fabric. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Option C. 65%. AC43 Para 2-21 6. reinforcing patches. Option C. Question Number. 26. Option A. before or after coats of aluminium pigmented dope are applied. 50%. Option B. Explanation. inspection ports etc. reinforcing patches. it does not matter.Question Number. applying finishing tapes. applying finishing tapes. Option A. 27. Correct Answer is. 24. Correct Answer is. inspection ports etc. 25. Doped fabric. Option C. the trimming of excess fabric after fitting. Dressing out' of a fabric covering refers to. Dope should be applied to an aircraft's fabric coating in a relative humidity not exceeding. is treated with wax compound. 30. Correct Answer is. moisture enterring into the wood/fabric structure during service. AC43 Para 2-21.Explanation. moisture condensing on the surface during drying of the dope. Option B. sealed and doped. To block UV radiation. oil contamination of the doped fabric. AC43 Para 2-22. moisture condensing on the surface during drying of the dope. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. covered in fabric. Option C. Orange peeling of a doped surface may be caused by. 31. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. To provide an aluminium colour to the aircraft. To provide strength. Blushing' of a doped fabric surface is an indication of. Option A. AC43 Para 2-23. What is the reason for using aluminium-pigmented dope on a fabric covered aircraft?. 29. Option B. Option C. air temperature too low. covered in fabric. dope viscosity too high. Aircraft sheet plywood skins are. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-21. To block UV radiation. 28. Question Number. Explanation. . Option A. Question Number. dope viscosity too low. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. sealed and varnished or painted. Option A. Option A. Option A. smelling the fabric. Orange peeling of a doped surface may be caused by. spray gun pressure too low. Butyrate dope burns. Question Number. . spray gun pressure too low. Explanation. air temperature too low. the fabric can be treated with additional coats of the approved type of dope. Option C. Option C. Explanation. AC43 Para 2-32. Option B. the same rate as nitrate dope. Option B. Question Number. carrying out a burn test. Correct Answer is. Option A. 34. Correct Answer is. Option A. AC43 Para 2-32. slower than nitrate dope. Question Number. Explanation. carrying out a burn test. Explanation. the fabric can be treated with a rejuvenator. 35. observing the colour. 32. AC43 Para 2-23 c. Option C. 33. dope viscosity too high. faster than nitrate dope. Option B. Orange peeling of a doped surface may be caused by. AC43 Para 2-23 c. slower than nitrate dope. Correct Answer is. Fabric coated with nitrate dope can be differentiated from fabric coated in butyrate dope by. Option B. Question Number. If the fabric on a wood/fabric aircraft has lost its strength.Correct Answer is. the patch can be applied to the parent fabric without preparation. the new fabric section should. be extended to meet the structural member. Question Number. be extended 3 inches past the structural member. the fabric must be replaced. Where the edge of a new fabric section will be located within 1 inch of a structural member to which the fabric is attached by rib lacing or other methods. When does an aircraft fabric covering repair become a major repair?. . be extended 3 inches past the structural member. all the aluminium-pigmented dope layers must be removed from the parent fabric faying surface before the patch is applied. When the repair extends over three adjacent wing ribs. AC43 Para 2-35. Correct Answer is. Question Number. When the repair extends over a wing rib. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation.Option C. When the repair extends over two adjacent wing ribs. When the repair extends over three adjacent wing ribs. OR the fabric must be replaced. Option A. Option A. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. 38. Option B. OR When the repair extends over two adjacent wing ribs Explanation. AC43 Para 2-42 b. Question Number. Option B. Option B. AC43 Para 2-42 d. 36. 37. be designated a major repair. Correct Answer is. all the dope must be removed from the parent fabric faying surface before the patch is applied. the fabric can be treated with additional coats of the approved type of dope. AC43 Para 2-42 f. Explanation. Option A. the patch can be applied to the parent fabric without preparation. OR all the aluminium-pigmented dope layers must be removed from the parent fabric faying surface before the patch is applied. When repairing a section of aircraft fabric with a new fabric patch. Question Number. not permitted. 4 inches. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Option C. Option C. 2 inches. AC43 2-44 a. Question Number. AC43 2-44 c. Explanation. What width of finishing tape should be used on a tear in a fabric cover which is 20 inches long?. permitted only if they are temporary due to damp/wet weather conditions. 4 inches. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 6 inches. 2 inches. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. AC43 2-43 Figure 2-13. a double half hitch knot. a half hitch knot. Option B. Option C. 39. 6 inches. 42. 4 inches. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 41. a minor aerodynamic detriment. What width of finishing tape should be used on a tear in a fabric cover which is 10 inches long?. Option A. AC43 2-30 b (3) NOTE. Option A. Wrinkles in a fabric covering of a wood/fabric aircraft are. Lines of stitching of a fabric repair is locked at the end with. 6 inches. . Option B. Option B. Explanation. a hitch knot.Question Number. 40. permitted only if they are temporary due to damp/wet weather conditions. a double half hitch knot. 80-84. Explanation. 44. 60-64. Five. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. 80-84. speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading. AC43. 110-115. Question Number. AC43. Option A. How many fabric thicknesses will be found in a French-fell seam?. Option B. maximum wing loading. speed of the aircraft. Doped on after the first or second coat of dope. 43. The determining factor in the selection of the correct weight of textile fabric to be used in covering any type of aircraft is the. 46. Option C. Four. Option A. speed of the aircraft and the maximum wing loading. Explanation. 45. Option C. The threads per inch of Grade 'A' aircraft fabric is. Option B. Option A. Option C. Three. Option B. AC43 2-6 Table 2-1. Correct Answer is. . Doped on immediately prior to the finish coat. Correct Answer is. When and how is finishing tape applied on fabric covered aircraft?. Option A.Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Doped on after the first or second coat of dope. Question Number. Sewed or laced on before dope is applied. Four. The strength classification of fabric used in aircraft covering is based upon. Explanation. . chemicals and acids have no effect on. linen fabric. Option A. Explanation. Option C. To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures. Moisture. 47.htm Question Number. Option A. 48. so the threads of a double row of stitches passes through four thicknesses of fabric. To provide additional wear resistance over the edges of fabric forming structures. tensile strength.ultralightnews. penetrates the fabric and restores fungicidal resistance. Option C. bearing strength. Option B.Correct Answer is. Question Number. To prevent 'ripple formation' in covering fabric. The edges of the fabric are folded over each other. Dacron fabric. Fabric rejuvenator. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. 50. Question Number. Dacron fabric. NIL. Option A. AC43 page 2-35 paragraph (1). mildew. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. tensile strength. 49. Question Number. http://www. Option A. To provide additional anti-tear resistance under reinforcement tape. shear strength. AC43. Finishing tape (surface tape) is used for what purpose?. Correct Answer is. glass fabric.com/pilotslounge/cleaning_dacron. Option B. What is used to slow the drying time of some dope finishes to prevent blush?. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Rejuvenator. Question Number. Explanation. 70% of the original strength for intermediate fabric. NIL. Correct Answer is. 53. Option C. provide a silver colour. Reducer. aid in sealing out moisture from the fabric. 70% of its original strength. Correct Answer is. . 52. 51. Explanation. NIL. Option A. Question Number. NIL. restores fabric strength and tautness to at least the minimum acceptable level. NIL. Option B. 70% of the original strength for intermediate fabric. exclude sunlight from the fabric. Retarder. Explanation.Option B. Option C. restores fabric strength and tautness to at least the minimum acceptable level. Retarder. Option B. Explanation. OR restores the condition of the dope coatings. Option C. Option C. When testing the strength of Grade A cotton fabric covering an aircraft that requires only intermediate grade. Correct Answer is. the minimum acceptable strength the fabric must have is. Option B. Aluminium-pigment in dope is used primarily to. restores the condition of the dope coatings. exclude sunlight from the fabric. 56 pounds per inch warp and weft. Option A. Option A. the wrong quenching agent. Option A. Explanation.04a. improper heat treatment. Option A. Question Number. 3. Option C. Option C. improper heat treatment. Stainless steel. Explanation. Option C. improperly assembled components. Question Number. 2. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of. Magnesium. Intergrannular corrosion is caused by. Option C. Explanation. contact between two unlike metals. 1. Option B. Option B. 4. Corrosion. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. Nickel. NIL. Option A. excessive anodization. electromechanical action. . which is most cathodic?. Stainless steel. NIL. Correct Answer is. From the following list of metals. Question Number. Option B. contact between two unlike metals. electrochemical action. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by. dissimilar metal contact. Option B. hydroelectric action. BL/4-1 2. Option B. Question Number. Option C. . Question Number. the anode. Question Number. one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Option C. or the same metal in different states. The cathode.Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. In corrosion. Correct Answer is. Option B. 7. layer corrosion. Correct Answer is. Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as. the cathode. the electrode that loses electrons is. Corrosion is electrochemicqal action. Question Number. Which of these is a common cause of corrosion?. electrochemical action. filiform corrosion. Option A. Explanation. The anode always corrodes. either the cathode or the anode depending upon the electrolyte. Both will corrode equally. Explanation. Explanation. When dissimilar metals are brought together. Option B. layer corrosion. Explanation. Water in fuel. The anode. sub-surface corrosion. Option A. 6. 8. Which will suffer from corrosion?. NIL. The anode loses electrons. The anode. 5. Option A. either the cathode or the anode depending upon the electrolyte. Option C. Untreated metal. 11. Correct Answer is.Option B. Question Number. Corrosion in an area under continuous loading. A&P Mechanics General Handbook Page 171. dissimilar metals. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 10.1. cathodic & anodic changes in the material. Corrosion in an area under cyclic loading. Spilled battery acid. Do not confuse with corrosion-fatigue. Stress corrosion is caused by a stressed area being anodic to a non-stressed area. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Spilled battery acid. Option A. intergranular corrosion. Electrochemical reaction is caused by the contact of. . Option C. Option B. Option B. moisture on the surface of the metal. Explanation. but pure metal in contact with water causes electro-chemical corrosion. BL/4-1 3. Option A. Question Number. Option B. bonding. Corrosion due to fretting. Spilled battery acid is sure to cause corrosion. moisture on the surface of the metal. filiform corrosion. Option C. Explanation. Dissimilar metals causes galvanic corrosion. What is stress corrosion?.6. cathodic & anodic changes in the material. 9. Corrosion in an area under continuous loading. Question Number. Chemical attack is a direct result of. Option C. Option C. the joining of 2 dissimilar metals. Explanation. 13. Correct Answer is. incorrect heat treatments or incorrect alloying. 12. http://www. always be at the top of the table. Option B. Option C. cold climates. a corrosion pit in a member under stress. Question Number. cyclic stressing and a decrease in cross sectional area. Explanation. Galvanic corrosion is caused by. Correct Answer is. Option A. the most noble metal will. Option B. In the galvanic series. Option A. Explanation. Option B. if joined to another metal. Correct Answer is. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to. Option C.mcnallyinstitute. high temperatures. corrode before the less noble metal.com/Charts/galvanic-series. cyclic loading and a corrosion pit. Stress corrosion is associated with. Question Number. a corrosion pit in a member under a compressive load. the joining of 2 dissimilar metals. NIL. NIL. . Explanation. a corrosion pit in a member under stress. Option C. high temperatures. 14. dry climates. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL.Question Number. NIL. allow the less noble metal to corrode first.html Question Number. 15. Option A. allow the less noble metal to corrode first. Correct Answer is. Along the edges of repair. Option A. Selenious acid is used for the re-protection of aluminium alloys. NIL. Option B. In a poorly produced repair to skin structure. Correct Answer is. They strongly resist corrosion. NIL. Explanation. porous. non-porous. Explanation. They strongly resist corrosion. The oxide film formed on the surface of aluminium is. 16. The chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate. Question Number. 17. 19. Option A. where would stress corrosion start?. The chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. They try to revert to their natural state. What does this suggest?. All corrosion is a chemical action. OR All corrosion is a chemical action. Some metals are inherently stable. Question Number. Explanation. . hard and porous. NIL. Option C. 18. Which is the following correct statement?. Question Number. Option B. They are highly prone to corrosion. Radiate from the corner or sharp edges. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B.Question Number. Option A. Option C. Radiate from the corner or sharp edges. Form internally to produce surface corrosion. non-porous. Option B. highly resistant to corrosion. Option A. Option B. Option B. Option A. design stage. Correct Answer is. excessive anodization. Anode. Aluminium is.Explanation. Option A. NIL. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of. not resistant to corrosion. 23. Explanation. Corrosion control begins at the. NIL. Option A. Option B. Oxide film coating. Option C. design stage. which part corrodes?. Correct Answer is. Explanation. production stage. excessive etching. Option C. NIL. . Option C. Cathode. highly resistant to corrosion. Question Number. Question Number. That is why aluminium does not corrode. Anode. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. manufacturing stage. contact between two unlike metals. When galvanic corrosion takes place. 22. Question Number. Question Number. 21. Option B. 20. reasonably resistant to corrosion. Pitting.8. fretting. Option B. 3. Explanation. What sort of corrosion would a magneto be likely to encounter if completely enclosed?.1. Direct chemical attack. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. contact between two unlike metals. What are the signs of fretting corrosion?.Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. NIL. fretting. 2. None.5. Question Number. Direct chemical attack. 1. Black powder or cocoa staining. . Corrosion. 04b.1. BL/4-1 3. Flaking. intergrannular corrosion. Explanation. providing the magneto is completely enclosed. Fretting corrosion is identified by black / grey streaks. Correct Answer is. Intergranular cracking. CAIP BL/4-1 para 3. Black powder or cocoa staining. Option B.1. Option C.5. galvanic corrosion. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. Black streaks back from a rivet hole signify. BL/4-1 3. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. can be recognized by its flaking and lifting of the material layers. BL/4-1 2. 4. paint has been removed. To prevent dissimilar metal corrosion.3. the strip has become anodic. Cleans. it is affected by spatter. Question Number. Option A. Active flux does what?.2.1. . Protects. When a steel part is welded. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. BL/4-1 3. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Jointing compound is used to prevent dissimilar metal contact. To bond the components together. Option A. Option C. Intergranular corrosion. 5. Explanation. To prevent dissimilar metal corrosion. the strip has become anodic. Option B. Option B. may have no visual surface indication. may have no visual surface indication. can be recognized by a grey powder deposit. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Jointing compound is used for what reason?. To make the components easier to disassemble. Option B. Option A. corrosion occurs because. Option C. 6. NIL. Option C. Both cleans and protects.4. Cleans. 7. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded. Option A. Option C. anodizing. electroplating. Correct Answer is. NIL. 8. Option C. Question Number. Option B. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is. Option A. Correct Answer is. After welding. priming both the surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primer. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact may best be prevented by. Option A. Option C. transgranulation. Option B. electrolysis. Option B. Jointing compound is a non-porous dielectric. Option B. Explanation. Option C.1 & BL/4-1. 9. Explanation. weld decay. Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded. weld rot.Question Number. . weld deterioration. BL/6-16 4. The electrolytic process that forms an oxide film on the surface of aluminium alloys is known as. Question Number. exfoliation. galvanizing. stainless steel is susceptible to a corrosion known as. electrolysis. Option A. applying a non-porous dielectric material between the surfaces. 10. Corrosion after welding is called 'weld decay'. weld decay. OR applying a non-porous dielectric material between the surfaces.5. Explanation. 11. What is the indication of fretting corrosion on aluminium alloy?. Option C. A biocidal additive is used in the fuel. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. called. 12. Correct Answer is. Intergranular corrosion. A biocidal additive is used in the fuel. Question Number. Intergranular corrosion. NIL. What action is taken to protect integral tanks from corrosion due to micro-biological growth?. Option C. Rubber liners are installed in the tank. Fretting corrosion is identified by a black / grey powder streak. The artificial production of a film of oxide on the surface of aluminium or any of its alloys is commonly . White powder. Black powder. Option A. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Surface corrosion. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. anodizing. Option A. Question Number. Brown powder. Option B. 14. The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminium alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat treated?. NIL. 15. Black powder.Correct Answer is. 13. Option C. Explanation. Stress corrosion. OR cannot always be detected by surface indications. dry climates. a chemical process. powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal. high temperatures. Option B. . Explanation. Option A. 16. Option C. Explanation. cannot always be detected by surface indications. Question Number. powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal. Option A. a painted process. are not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-treated sheet aluminium. 18. NIL. AC43 6-3. may be detected by the white. anodizing. Explanation. anodizing. Intergrannular corrosion in structural aluminium alloy parts. Magnesium alloy components are protected by. Option A. Correct Answer is. 17. an electro process. cold climates. Explanation. Higher temperatures always accelerate corrosion. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to. parco lubrizing. high temperatures.Option A. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a chemical process. Correct Answer is. Anodizing is an artificially produced layer of oxide on the surface of aluminium (or titanium). NIL. may be detected by the white. Option C. alodizing. 21. a solution of 10% by volume of chromic acid in distilled water with 1% phosphoric acid. chromating process.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Heavy corrosion deposits on clad aluminium alloys should be removed. Option B. chromating process. Option A. 19. nitric acid. Option B. phosphate process. NIL. OR a solution of 10% by weight of chromic acid in distilled water with 0. 20. 22. If it is necessary to remove corrosion from a steel component in-situ. Option A. Option C. Option B. NIL. phosphoric acid. Question Number. phosphoric acid. Question Number. Option C. Option B. A type of protection which is applicable to magnesium alloys is the. coslettising process.1% by volume of sulphuric acid. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Corrosion products should be removed from magnesium alloys by the use of. the base of a suitable solution for this purpose is. Option C.1% by volume of sulphuric acid. mechanically using a pneumatic vibrator. chemically by use of phosphoric acid. chromic acid. NIL. Question Number. a solution of 10% by weight of chromic acid in distilled water with 0. Explanation. chemically by use of trichloroethylene. aluminium wool. . a solution of 10% by volume of chromic acid in distilled water with 1% phosphoric acid. Option C. Option A. Corrosion at the grain boundaries is called. Correct Answer is.3(ii). Option C. What action should be taken on finding intergrannular corrosion?. 25. intergrannular. a pure coating of aluminium oxide on the surface. Replace complete component part. Option B. Option C. Replace complete component part. 24. filiform. Option B. Option A. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. a deep scratch increases to become fretting corrosion. Option B. Option A. Explanation. NIL. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Fretting corrosion occurs where. . a shorter life due to hardening. 26. fretting. a purple finish. BL/4-2 2. Explanation. chemically by use of phosphoric acid. 23. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. intergrannular. two material are subject to very slight movement between the two.4. Option B. Question Number. NIL. Anodic treatment of aluminium alloy gives. Question Number. a pure coating of aluminium oxide on the surface. Correct Answer is. Option A. Renew corroded area by patching. De-corrode and reprotect. aluminium or titanium. Option B. Chromic acid solution is used to remove corrosion from magnesium alloys. 29. Sulphuric acid solution. Question Number.4. red rust. Phosphate acid solution. Question Number. Fretting is corrosion combined with small relative movement.Option C. Option C. white film. Option B.1. Correct Answer is. CAIPs BL/7-1 Para. Question Number. What is used to remove corrosion from magnesium?. two material are subject to very slight movement between the two. Option C. Surface corrosion on stainless steel is identified by. BL/7-1 4. Option A. brass or copper. AC43 6-31. Option A. Hooks. black pitting. AC43 6-5. What are the signs of fretting corrosion on steel?. . Explanation. steel or copper. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Option A. 28. Option B. Dark staining around area. pitting corrosion is allowed to become more pronounced. 27. 30. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Chromic acid solution. Option A. Chromic acid solution. aluminium or titanium. black pitting. Question Number. wires and other suspension devices used in an anodic bath should be made of. Correct Answer is. Surface corrosion on stainless steel is a black pitting. is the same as exfoliation corrosion. . metal spraying. The usual manufacturers anti-corrosion process to be applied to Fe aircraft parts is. Option A. causes rapid and severe corrosion in prolonged contact. NIL. causing a fine dark powdery paste of corrosion products. 31. OR Dark staining around area. Correct Answer is. Spilled mercury on aluminium. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. is detectable by x-rays. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact. BL/4-1 Para. Question Number. cadmium plating.2. Option C.Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Option B. Surface cracking as corrosion breaks through to surface of component. cadmium plating.1. 32. 33. Explanation. is detectable by x-rays. Fretting corrosion is caused when there is some relative movement between parts. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact. OR causes rapid and severe corrosion in prolonged contact. Correct Answer is. increases susceptibility to hydrogen embrittlement Option B. always appears as small surface cracks. Explanation. Explanation. Intercrystalline corrosion. BL/4-10 Para. Correct Answer is.5.3. Rust on surface. anodising. Surface cracking as corrosion breaks through to surface of component. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Question Number. Galvanic. BL/4-3 3. Option A. Al alloys. Option A. Explanation. NIL. Anti-corrosion treatment used on Magnesium is. BL/4-1 3. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number.5. Explanation. Fe alloys. Correct Answer is. 37. Correct Answer is. . 35. Option A.1. Correct Answer is. BL/4-1 2.Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Exfoliation. Option C. chromating. Explanation. Option B. 34. improper heat treatment. magnesium alloys. phosphating. Intergranular corrosion is also known as what?. vibration in bolted parts. electro-plating. Option A. Explanation. Stress corrosion. vibration in bolted parts. Exfoliation.3. Option B. Question Number. chromating. Option B.3 '[exfoliation is] A less harmful form of intergranular attack'.3. 36. magnesium alloys.1. water trapped between moving parts. Option C. Fretting corrosion occurs with. Chromate treatment is applied to. metallic coating. artificial protection. sharp internal corners and inaccessible places should be avoided to reduce. Option B. To check the interior of tubular members for corrosion attack. During construction. sacrificial protection. Option C. NIL. any form of test is acceptable. ultra sonic testing is necessary. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. Option B. crevice corrosion. small surfaces. Explanation. 38. 41. Option B. Option B. Option A. Question Number. dye penetrant testing should be used.Question Number. . small surfaces. Option C. Correct Answer is. artificial protection. Option A. filiform corrosion. surfaces too large for dip treatment. crevice corrosion. Anodising is a form of. NIL. Question Number. The Alocrom 1200 process was designed to treat. Explanation. ultra sonic testing is necessary. 40. Option C. 39. chromium plating. fretting corrosion. anodizing. Option B. NIL. 45. Alodizing protects alloy metal from corrosion and does what else?. NIL. sharp corners etc trapping corrosive chemicals. The form of corrosion most likely to cause stress concentration is. corrosion acting on the end faces of panels. Question Number. Explanation. NIL. Option C. Option A. Option B. Surface Corrosion. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to. Question Number. Explanation. leaks into the fuselage. Fretting Corrosion. Correct Answer is. Makes the surface alkaline. . 43.Explanation. a cause for concern is. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. alodizing. The artificial production of a film of oxide on the surface of aluminium or any of its alloys is commonly called. When cleaning aircraft faying surfaces. Seals the surface from moisture. Option A. Option A. corrosion acting on the end faces of panels. parco lubrizing. anodizing. Correct Answer is. 44. Explanation. Option C. Option A. NIL. 42. Makes a good surface for paint to adhere to. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 48. Lead acid battery fluid has been found to be leaking on the surface of the aircraft structure. Option B. CAIP BL/4-1 para 4. Explanation. Sodium bicarbonate of soda. 49. red/brown rust. Explanation. Question Number. What colour is the corrosion found on the surface of aluminium alloys?. Sulphur and Lime. What NDT method will you use to detect?. 47. Corrosion on copper is identified by. black powder. Option A. Pitting Corrosion. NIL. A composite flap panel has corrosion. White/Grey. green discolouration. NIL. White/Grey. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Black.1. Option C. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A.3. Question Number.Option C. What substance would you use to neutralise the acid?. Hot distilled water. Green/Blue. green discolouration. 46. Option B. Explanation. Option B. Sodium bicarbonate of soda. Pitting Corrosion. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. Option A. Low voltage x-ray. Explanation. When examining a piece of metal through a magnifying glass. Coin tap test. Option C. intergrannular corrosion.htm . surface corrosion. Alocrom 1200 process. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. In the anodic film inspection and sealing test. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 50.amberelect. 51. hair line cracks would indicate. chromium plating process. the dye mark will not rub off. http://www. Low voltage x-ray. the dye mark will rub off. Aluminium alloy parts are often protected by the. if a good seal has been accomplished. Correct Answer is. crevice corrosion. Alocrom plating. 52. intergrannular corrosion. Alocrom 1200 process. Explanation. the dye mark will not rub off. Explanation.uk/page12. Leaflet 6-9 Appendix 1 Paragraph 4. Option B. Question Number. NIL.Option A. Question Number. Option C. the dye mark has no importance. NIL. Option B. Option B. NIL. Option A. Option C. Option A. Option B. High voltage x-ray. Explanation.co. Option C. Option A. Anodising. Correct Answer is. Which of the following is a temporary protective measure?. blue/green deposit. to fit new parts. Corrosion on a copper alloy can be recognised by. white deposit. Correct Answer is. . Option A. Sacrificial protection. Chromating. 55. grey deposit. Option B. Explanation. 56. Which anti-corrosion chemical treatment is normally applied to aluminium alloys?. Question Number. to permit the extent of damage to be assessed.Question Number. Alclad is not considered a chemical treatment. Option C. Option B. blue/green deposit. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Cadmium. Correct Answer is. 53. to prevent further damage. Question Number. Anodising. Explanation. Question Number. Paint finish. Explanation. Chromating. Pure aluminium. Corrosion is always completely removed. Option B. Option A. NIL. NIL. Option C. Option C. 54. to permit the extent of damage to be assessed. Explanation. Option A. NIL. dichromating. Alodizing is a (non-electrolytic) deposition of oxide film. greyish powder. Explanation. stainless steel wire brush. NIL.Question Number. 58. Explanation. improper heat treatment. Question Number. fibre bristle brush. fibre bristle brush. . Option B. alodizing. alodizing. yellowish stains on surface of the metal. Question Number. improper application of primer. Option C. Option A. greyish powder. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is. Brass wire brush. Option A. Option A. 59. 60. Option B. dissimilar metal contact. BL/4-10 2. Steel wool. anodizing.3 (i). A non-electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminium alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint bonding qualities is called. fuzzy deposit or whiskery growth. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Which of the following are acceptable to use in cleaning anodized surfaces?. Explanation. Option B. black pits going into brown rust. Correct Answer is. fibre bristle brush. Aluminium wool. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Spilled mercury on aluminium causes. improper heat treatment. Option A. aluminium wool. Aluminium wool. fuzzy deposit or whiskery growth. 57. Option B. . Fasteners . 7075-T6 aluminium alloy. Which of these materials is the most anodic?. NIL. 05. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Magnesium. Correct Answer is. Option B. the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the anodic material. Option A. NIL. Zinc. Which of these materials is the most cathodic?. Option C. Cadmium. Option C. NIL. Explanation. Option B. 1. Explanation.Explanation. Option B. Question Number. NIL.1. Stainless steel. Correct Answer is. The pitch of a screw thread is. OR the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic material.Screw Threads. 61. Option C. Question Number. Option A. the surface area of the cathodic metal and the anodic material are approximately the same. Option A. Stainless steel. 62. 63. Magnesium. Galvanic corrosion is most likely to be most rapid and severe when. Explanation. the surface area of the cathodic metal and the anodic material are approximately the same. 2024 aluminium alloy. Question Number. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic material. Option A. crest to root. Option B. 2 * crest to root. Option C. crest to crest. Correct Answer is. crest to root. Explanation. Pitch is crest to crest. BL/3-2 3. Question Number. 2. A single start thread the lead is. Option A. 2 * pitch. Option B. 1 * pitch. Option C. ½ * pitch. Correct Answer is. 1 * pitch. Explanation. Lead = pitch * starts. Question Number. 3. A wire thread insert tap is. Option A. supplied in a fitting kit. Option B. slightly larger than the hole. Option C. slightly smaller than the hole. Correct Answer is. supplied in a fitting kit. Explanation. BL/2-3 2.2.2. Question Number. 4. Multi-start threads. Option A. increase the lead and decrease the pitch. Option B. increase the lead without increasing the pitch. Option C. increase the lead and the pitch. Correct Answer is. increase the lead without increasing the pitch. Explanation. Lead = pitch * starts. Question Number. 5. Buttress threads are used. Option A. to transmit power in both directions. Option B. to transmit power on one direction. Option C. on nuts and bolts. Correct Answer is. to transmit power on one direction. Explanation. Buttress threads are used to transmit power in one direction (like some vice lead screws). Question Number. 6. The lead on a single start thread is. Option A. 1 * the pitch. Option B. 2 * the pitch. Option C. 1/2 the pitch. Correct Answer is. 1 * the pitch. Explanation. Lead = pitch * starts. Question Number. 7. Colour identification of an aluminium rivet is. Option A. black. Option B. violet. Option C. green. Correct Answer is. black. Explanation. A pure aluminium rivet is black anodized. BL/6-27 Table 1. Question Number. 8. For a wire insert thread repair, the hole is tapped using. Option A. the same size. Option B. a special tap supplied with the kit. Option C. the next size up. Correct Answer is. a special tap supplied with the kit. Explanation. BL/6-22 3.2.2. Question Number. 9. Most commonly used thread form in aviation is. Option A. V thread. Option B. round thread. Option C. buttress. Correct Answer is. V thread. Explanation. V thread is the most commonly used thread form. Question Number. 10. Pitch of a screw thread is defined as. Option A. distance from the centre of one crest to the next. Option B. difference between major diameter and minor diameter. Option C. distance between the crest and the root of the thread. Correct Answer is. distance from the centre of one crest to the next. Explanation. Pitch is crest to crest. Question Number. 11. The angle of a screw thread is. Option A. half the inclusive angle of the thread sides. Option B. the inclusive angle of the thread sides. Option C. the distance the thread moves in one turn. Correct Answer is. the inclusive angle of the thread sides. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 12. The tang of a thread insert. Option A. may left it in the insert after installation. Option B. is removed with a hammer and a punch. Option C. must be removed. Correct Answer is. may left it in the insert after installation. Explanation. CAP 562 Leaflet 2-10 3.2.5. Question Number. 13. A thread insert may be removed by. Option A. a blade removal tool. Option B. a hammer and punch. Option C. a pre-wind insertion tool. Correct Answer is. a blade removal tool. Explanation. CAAIPs leaflet 2-10, page 4, paragraph 3.3. Question Number. Option A. 7 °. Option B. 57 °. Option C. 60 °. Correct Answer is. Explanation. NIL. 14. A metric screw thread angle is. 60 °. Question Number. 15. Which thread type has the better vibration resistance?. Option A. A fine thread. Option B. A course thread. Option C. Courseness or fineness of thread has no bearing on the vibration resistance. Correct Answer is. A fine thread. Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 16. Which of the following thread designations is most fatigue resistant?. Option A. UNF. Option B. UNC. Option C. UNJF. Correct Answer is. UNJF. NIL. NIL.Explanation.0015 inch interference. Chromating. What sort of surface treatment would you find on a magnesium casting?. When fitting a hyloks. Anodizing. Phosphating. UNF. Metric. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Whitworth. Option B.2. 1. NIL. Hi-lok/Hi-tique installation guide can be download from Tutorial Support Section. studs and screws. Fasteners . the hole should be drilled so it is an interference fit. they should be lubricated. Option A. each hylock should be torqued. Explanation. . Hiloks are pre-lubricated. Hole is drilled 0. each hylock should be torqued. Option B. Question Number. Option C. the torque calculated for each time. OR the hole should be drilled so it is an interference fit. Option C. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Which thread type has a 55 ° angle?. Chromating. Correct Answer is. 17. Question Number. the torque calculated for each time.Bolts. Whitworth. Option A. Question Number. Option A. 2. 05. Correct Answer is. 2 or 3 rings on the head. . Question Number. The overall length of a bolt (from under the head) and the overall length of a screw (including the head).Question Number. an 'X' on the head. Correct Answer is. BL/2-3. Option A. Temperatures above 200 °C. 120 °C or 250 °F. Option C. The length of the threads. 4. Where should you not use a nyloc nut?. Explanation. Explanation. What is the nominal screw length?. The length of thread for a bolt. The overall length of a countersunk screw and the non-threaded portion of a bolt. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 2 or 3 rings on the head. Option B. Correct Answer is.e. Option C. Option A. Under head to screw threads (i. 3. Under head to end of the threads. Contiguous rings. Option C. 6. Question Number. plain shank). 5. Temperatures above 120 °C. Option A. Option B. Nominal length from head to thread. Option B. Temperatures above 250 °C. Explanation. overall length for a countersunk screw. What is the nominal length of a UNF bolt?. Under head to screw threads (i.e. A unified thread is identified by. Option C. Option A. plain shank). Temperatures above 120 °C. a raise ring on the head. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The overall length of a countersunk screw and the non-threaded portion of a bolt. Explanation. A British close tolerance bolt is identified by. Option A. Stepped studs have a size larger at one end. an 'X' on the head. BL/6-28. Correct Answer is. A jo-bolt is externally sleeved and internally threaded. Correct Answer is. a cherry lock. 10. A British close tolerance bolt is identified with a raised ring on the head. Option C. a jo bolt. 9. a raised ring on the head. An 'x'. a jo bolt. a raised ring on the head. shouldered studs. Option B. BL/2-7 Fig 1. Option A. 14E. . Studs which have a size larger thread at one end are called. a rivnut. Option A. Option B. An 'x'. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. A dash. Question Number. Option B. a dropped collar under the head. Question Number. Option A. 8. Explanation. Correct Answer is. An AN steel bolt is identified by what marking on the head?.Question Number. A blind fastener described as external sleeve and internally threaded would be. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. plain studs. An AN steel bolt is identified with an 'x'. Explanation. 7. stepped studs. stepped studs. Option C. 12. Option A. quick release fasteners at inspection panels. Unified National Centred. Correct Answer is.N. Corrosion Resistant Steel. United National Countersunk. 11. Explanation. tensile. 13. Explanation. for easy hammering into position. A bolt with a raised dash is. NIL. . Option B. shear. Question Number. The initials U. Correct Answer is. shear. close tolerance. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Unified National Coarse. Unified National Coarse. Option C. AN standard. torsion. Dzus fasteners are quick release fasteners. Option C. A dowel takes shear loads. Explanation. quick release fasteners at inspection panels. Option A. Option B.C when related to aircraft bolts stands for. A dowel will take what loads?. Dzuz Fasteners provide. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A.Question Number. Question Number. a close tolerance fit. Option A. Correct Answer is. 14. Corrosion Resistant Steel. 17. Option C. 2= clevis bolt. a raised disk on the head face.2. UNC = Unified National Course. A close tolerance bolt has a raised disc on the head BL/2-3 Para. what letter represents the nominal length of a BSF bolt?. to ensure that it is dry bolted. Explanation.1. a raised disk on the head face. a higher resistance to corrosion. Question Number. the part is not over torqued as the bolt touches the captive part first.2. Question Number. Correct Answer is. . 16.). 5 = diameter in 16ths (5/16ths in). Capped nuts are used so. Correct Answer is. 15. Option B. A bolt part number AN25C15 when compared to a bolt part number AN25-15 has. a series of dots on the head face. UNF = Unified National Fine. Correct Answer is. Capped nuts provide an air/fluid tight seal. Option B.2. The head marking on a close tolerance BSF bolt is. a higher pitch thread. Option C. Option C. BL/6-27 3. Option A. OR to ensure that it is dry bolted. to prevent leaks from pipe ends. Option A. 15 = length in 8ths (15/8 = 1 7/8 in. Explanation. Question Number. the part is not over torqued as the bolt touches the captive part first. Explanation. C = Corrosion resistant steel. In the drawing.Explanation. Option A. 18. Option B. Question Number. a higher resistance to corrosion. a less expensive design and product costs. a lowered ring under the hexagon. Option B. A (British) 3/8 inch dia. its colour (dyed green). its colour (dyed black). Option A. G. C. Option B. BL/2-3 2. its colour (dyed green). the letter A stamped on the head. Correct Answer is. A. Option A. Option C. . Option C. BL/2-3 Fig. An aluminium alloy bolt may be identified by. Correct Answer is. B.2. 20.Option A. UNF bolt will have the diameter code letter. A. Be careful not to mark answer a) on your exam just because it is A on the drawing. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. 19. N. Explanation. Option B.2. Option B. Rivnuts were originally used for. Fork end fittings on control rod ends should have.002 inch axial movement.4. BL/2-7.Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. anti vibration compound. Question Number. securing rubber de-icing boots. 23. 22. on head. . 21. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. 24. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. securing cabin floorings. X on head. provides a good clamping force. NIL. An AN steel bolt is identified by. The AN526 truss-head screw. 0. Question Number. bolt heads fitted upwards. Correct Answer is. Option A. X on head. Explanation. securing rubber de-icing boots. plain bolt. securing structural parts. Option A. BL/6-28 5. bolt heads fitted upwards. BL/2-3 Table 2. Option B. J. J. Option C. Option A. Question Number. to stop leaks. Correct Answer is. to stop leaks. 26. is a pan-head screw.7-17. Option C. Tensile. Option C. Explanation. A pin in a fork end fitting is subjected to what loading?. Option A. NIL. 27. Question Number. Shear. UNF means. Shear. Option B. prevent overtightening due to the threaded portion being restricted by the cap.Option B. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. AC43 Para. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Hylocks. Option A. 28. Explanation. is a widely used recesses head machine screw. do not require lubrication. 25. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. to provide a dry torque joint. Correct Answer is. Capped nuts are used. are pre-lubricated. are pre-lubricated. Question Number. is a pan-head screw. require lubrication of the screw part only. Option A. . Option B. Torsion. Explanation. to stop leaks due to metal caps fitted on the heads. Question Number. (ii). Option C. shear. Option A. Correct Answer is. union national fine. to lock the nut to the bolt. unified fine. Explanation. number of locking collar grooves. Correct Answer is. A clevis bolt in a control cable fork end would be loaded in. 30. Explanation. Option B. Option A. tension. Question Number. Option B. Option A. 31. method of installation. shape of the head. to stop leaks due to metal caps fitted on the heads. Option B. 29. both tension and shear. Option C. A main difference between Lockbolt/Hucbolt tension and shear fasteners (other than their application) is in the. NIL. shear lockbolt has two locking grooves.1. unified fine. united nations fine. NIL. and the tension lockbolt has five grooves. shear. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.1. Option C. Capped nuts are used. Question Number. BL/3-2 Para 1. number of locking collar grooves. . Option B. Explanation.Option A. Option C. to provide dry bolting of the joints. hundredths of an inch. head diameter and type of material. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the. Option C. Option A. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where shear strength is desired. 33. grommet. Option C. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud. Question Number. NIL. they can be removed and reused again. Correct Answer is. body diameter. 35. body diameter. A letter identifies type of head. Option A. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to. Correct Answer is. they can be installed with ordinary hand-tools. join two or more pieces of sheet metal where bearing strength is desired. Question Number. sixteenths of an inch. manufacturer and type of material. 34. Option B. type of head and length of the fastener. Correct Answer is. Option B. hundredths of an inch.Question Number. type of head and length of the fastener. Option C. attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal. Option C. One of the main advantages of the Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that. Option B. 32. and receptacle. body type. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Explanation. tenths of an inch. the squeezed on collar installation provides a more secure. Explanation. . The stud length is measured in. tighter fit. NIL. they can be installed with ordinary hand-tools. a number identifies body diameter in 1/16 inch increments and another number identifies stud length in 1/100ths inch. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. NAS standard aircraft bolt. a standard steel bolts. Option B. NAS close tolerance bolt. Option A. attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal. Option C. NAS standard aircraft bolt. Option C. NAS close tolerance bolt. NAS close tolerance bolt. 38. Explanation. Correct Answer is. A bolt with an 'X' inside a triangle on the head is classified as an. Question Number. Option B. 36. made of aluminium alloy. NIL. Correct Answer is. class 1 fit for the threads. Option C. close tolerance bolts.Correct Answer is. NIL. class 2 fit for the threads. Option A. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. Question Number. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-1. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. Explanation. 39. Option A. 37. Explanation. Option A. A bolt with a single dash on the head is classified as an. Question Number. . Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolt-head are. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a. AN corrosion resistant steel bolt. NIL. a standard steel bolts. Option B. phosphor bronze. Option C. brass. Correct Answer is. 41. brass. Option C. includes the head and the thread. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. Option B. OR non-magnetic. Question Number. Question Number. non-magnetic. Option A.Option C. . The length of a clevis bolt. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. 43. Explanation. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-83. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-83. class 3 fit for the threads. NIL. prevented from dropping behind the instrument panel by magnetism. Explanation. soldered in place during manufacture. Question Number. class 3 fit for the threads. Option A. Explanation. Instrument Mounting nuts are. 40. Option A. 42. phosphor bronze. steel. steel. Option C. phosphor bronze. Option A. The speed nut of an Instrument Mounting nut is made from. The cage of an Instrument Mounting nut is made from. Correct Answer is. prevented from dropping behind the instrument panel by magnetism. brass. Option B. between spring and part. includes the threads but not the head. indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked. Explanation.1. Correct Answer is. The plain washer is to protect the surface of the part from the edge of the spring washer. .Option B. 2. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-5 5. Option B. Explanation. 1 in 36. How many times can a locking plate be used?. Option A. 1 in 48. Explanation. once. under the nut. 05. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. 1 in 48. then discarded. Option A.3. between spring and part. Question Number. the plain washer would be fitted. When using a spring washer. between head and spring. Question Number. includes the threads but not the head. 3. 1. then discarded. BL/6-13 3. 1 in 48. Question Number. indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked. Option C. Fasteners . The taper of a standard taper pin is. Option C. is the plain shank portion only. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-4. 1 in 20. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A.Locking devices. Option C. 3 times. Option B. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. 7. with a spring washer and a stiff nut. Explanation. Split pins can only be used once. Option C. Explanation. Until all the tabs have been broken off. only once. Correct Answer is. A spring washer must always be used with a plain washer. BL/6-13 5. Correct Answer is. Option A.Question Number. Question Number. BL/6-13 7. Once only. Explanation. Wire locking approach angles should not be less than. Correct Answer is. Option A. How many times can you use a locking plate?. 4. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. by itself. Option C. because the legs are spread and bent. Option B. only once. with a tab washer. with a plain washer. repeatedly provided they remain a good fit. 90 °. because the legs are spread and bent. Option A. Option B. with a plain washer. Option C. . As long as it remains serviceable. 10 °. Option C. Nickel alloy steel split pins can be used. 5. 45 °. As long as it remains serviceable. 6. A spring type washer when used on an aluminium component must be used. 45 °. never used over 250 °F. never re-used. A pre-load indicating washer is correctly loaded when. the outer ring is gripped. Option B. the inner ring rotates. 10. the outer ring is gripped. Option B. the shaft to be shrunk by cooling. . some sort of driving force. Option C. Explanation. Both a and b. Option A. the hole to be expanded by heat. Option A. 8. never torqued. it can be used for both inner and external applications. Question Number. Option A. A press fit requires some form of driving force.Question Number. 9. it is cheap. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. The advantage of circlips is. A non metallic locknut is. Option A. AL/7-8. A preload washer is correctly loaded when the outer ring is gripped. Option C. never used over 250 °F. Explanation. some sort of driving force. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Both a and b. the inner ring is gripped. A press fit requires. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Circlips are cheap and can be used for internal and external applications. 11. Correct Answer is. Tensile. Correct Answer is. Which can be re-used?.old tabs to be broken off. spring washer. Question Number. the tab washer may be. 14. 15. A tab washer has been removed after fitment for a short time from a non essential system. circlip. Option C. locking plate. Option A. Option A. AC43 7-101. Shear. Locking plate. In the drawing. Explanation. locking plate. Tab washer. Option B. Locking plate. Shear. Taper pins can only take shear loads. spring washer. Option C. circlip. Shake proof washer. Option C. both bolts are correctly wire locked when. . 12. Option A. Question Number. Option B. used unless it is multi-tab and there are unused tabs . Question Number. Question Number. Compressive.3. circlip.3. Explanation. re-used if a spare is not available. Leaflet 2-5 3. not re-used. re-used. Option B.Explanation. spring washer. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Taper pins are subject to what loads?. 13. not re-used. BL/6-13 3.5. 250 °F (120 °C) is the maximum temperature for nylon or fibre insert nuts. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. The wire locking is maintaining tightness clockwise in both A and B. must not be used more than once. A turnbuckle locknut is a. slotted nut. 18. Option C. maybe used more than once provided it continues to provide an efficient lock. Option A. Explanation. . A is a right hand thread and B is a left hand thread. maybe used more than once provided it continues to provide an efficient lock. Option C. Option B. may be used a second time provided it is fitted the reverse way round. Option B. both A and B are left hand threads. retain a ball bearing in a housing. An internal circlip can be used to. both A and B are right hand threads. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. both A and B are right hand threads. AC34. NIL. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is.Option A. stiff nut. Option B. 16. castle nut. Question Number. stiff nut. 17. A spring washer. Option A. Explanation. . retain a ball bearing on a shaft. By making the threads in the fibre insert slightly smaller than those in the load carrying section. Option A. AN970 large-area flat washer. AC43 Table 7-14.5. Option C. How is the locking feature of the fibre-type locknut obtained?. may be used only once. Explanation. may be used only once. Question Number. Split pins are made from. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-5. 20. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. may be used more than once. By the use of an unthreaded fibre locking insert. 22. Split pins. NIL. 21. 19. Question Number. NIL. By a fibre insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section. to do both of the above. 2.Option B. Option A. Option C. AN936 shake-proof lock washer. A washer having both twisted teeth and spring actions is. AN936 shake-proof lock washer. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. retain a ball bearing in a housing. Question Number. can be used more than once but depends on the material of the split pin. Correct Answer is. Question Number. AN935 split-ring lock washer. By the use of an unthreaded fibre locking insert. Option B. Correct Answer is. 2. A joggle in a removed rivet is indication of what type of partial failure?. Question Number. can be re-heat treated once then discarded. Explanation. Explanation.cadmium plated. 3. What gives it the other 25%?.4. must be discarded. Fasteners . Shear. Question Number. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Leave at room temperature for four hours. Option B. 2. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. brass or stainless steel. . must be re-heat treated before use. 05. must be re-heat treated before use. Precipitation treat the component when forming is complete. If D or DD rivets are not formed in time . brass or Low carbon steel . or stainless steel. or removed from the freezer in time.cadmium plated. Low carbon steel . they. Correct Answer is. Shear. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-5. or stainless steel. NIL. Correct Answer is. Compression. Leave at room temperature for four hours.Option A. Option B. Bearing. 1. Option A. NIL.cadmium plated. Low carbon steel . Option B. Correct Answer is. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 7-35.. Option A. NIL. Option C. Explanation. Option C. Option B.Aircraft rivets. Put them in a refrigerator. Forming a solution treated rivet gives it 75% of its hardness. al alloy. 7. BL/6-27 3. A BS rivet made from L36 would be what colour and marking?. aluminium L36. 5. Explanation. duralumin L37. Black anodic finish. Material and finish. Black anodic with an 'A'. 4. Option C. material and finish. Option A. Green anodic with an 'X'. Question Number. Violet anodic finish. Option B. Option C. Natural anodic with no marking. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Head shape. Option A. Black anodic with an 'A'. Option A. . Natural anodised finish. An L36 rivet is anodised black. Explanation. violet finish. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. A natural finish aluminium alloy rivet with a D on it is. material and finish. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Black anodic finish. hiduminium L86. Question Number. 6. Explanation. Example SP80 is snap head. Material specification only. What do the letters and numbers on a British rivet mean?. A British aluminium rivet is black anodised. Option B. Option C. Head shape.Question Number. Question Number. duralumin L37. How is a British aluminium rivet identified?. 11. Option B. Option C. BL/6-27 5. 9. What metal is suitable for riveting magnesium alloy?. . Option B. Monel metal. Explanation. Option C. 5% magnesium is green anodised with an 'X' or an '8'. Option C. Explanation. BL/6-27 5. green anodise with 'X' or an '8' on it. Correct Answer is. A 5% magnesium rivet is identified by. green anodise with 'X' or an '8' on it. Mild steel. What metal is suitable for riveting alloy steel?. Option B. Monel metal. Question Number. O embossed.d. Aluminium alloy. Option A. Option B. An aluminium alloy L37 rivet identification is. Explanation. Option A. BL/6-27. 8. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. X embossed. 10. violet anodise with 'S' on it. L37 is aluminium alloy with a D. Option A. 5056 aluminium alloy. Monel metal.1. D embossed.1 and AC43 7-1 para. 5056 aluminium alloy. black anodise with 'A' on it. 1100 aluminium alloy. Correct Answer is. Question Number.Explanation. 5d. What do you do to 2017 and 2024 rivets after heat treatment?. 1. Option A. Leave for a minimum of 2 hours before using. 14. D embossed. 13. An American rivet with a cross on the head is. Explanation. Option B. 1. 2117 aluminium alloy. Explanation. Option C. refrigerate for a minimum of 2 hours before using. Rivet allowance is. Explanation. Explanation. 12. An aluminium alloy L37 (Duralumin) rivet is identified with an 'D'. Option C. 1d plus the thickness of the material. Use immediately or refrigerate. Option C. precipitation harden. Refrigeration retards age hardening. Option A. retard age hardening. Option A. 15. Use immediately or refrigerate. Question Number. retard age hardening. Option B. Correct Answer is. 2124 aluminium alloy. Rivet allowance is 1.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option B. increase age hardening. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number.5d.5 * diameter.5d plus the thickness of the material. . Question Number. 1. Option B. D and DD rivets are refrigerated to. Correct Answer is. A countersunk rivet of the ‘SP’ series has a head style of. 5056 aluminium alloy. AC43 4-16.Option C. Question Number.alloy. 100 °. Coding such as SP80 means al. Option A. The coding of a British rivet indicates. Explanation. Option B. diameter of the rivets being used. Question Number. A factor which determines the minimum space between rivets is the. Option B. head type and colour. material and head type. Explanation. torsion failure. SP series rivets are 100 degree csk. diameter of the rivets being used. Option C. Question Number. Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Rivet spacing (single row) is 4 * diameter. 19. 20 °. BL/6-27 8. thickness of the material being riveted. Correct Answer is. 100 °. Option A. Option C. 18.alloy and snap head. Explanation. 90 °. A cross on the head of a rivet indicates it is 5056 al. length of the rivets being used. length and diameter. 16. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. BL/6-27 3. . 17. Option A.3. Option A. Question Number. 5056 aluminium alloy. material and head type. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Handbook Pg. A hylok. a colour and number stamped on the head. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. a letter and number code. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. 20. 22. Correct Answer is. bearing failure. Pop rivets and blind rivets cannot be used in place of solid rivets.Option B. 5% magnesium rivets are green anodized. a part number on the head. shear failure. Option A. BL/6-27 Table 1. A rivet that has 5% magnesium is identified as. Option B. A blind rivet. natural and has an m. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Identification of British aluminium alloy rivets is with. 21. shear failure. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. anodic violet and has an X.155. anodic green and has an X. what would you use to repair the structure?. Option B. Option A. a colour and number stamped on the head. Explanation. Aluminium alloy rivets are colour coded with a number or letter on the head. . NIL. anodic green and has an X. A hylok. If you can only gain limited access to both sides of a structure. A pop rivet. CSK. Question Number. 25. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. 24. CAIP BL/6-27 table 4. 23. 26. annealing. Option C. Option C. anodising. Alloy rivets are heat treated by. Universal. CSK. Rivet MS20426 has what head type?. NIL. . Option C. Option B. A. solution treating. Option B. Option A. AD. Round. Al. A rivet with no marking has the material code. solution treating. leaving assembly for 4 days to age harden. Question Number. Explanation. When a solid rivet is formed it only holds 75% of its shear strength. heating the completed assembly. Correct Answer is. D. Option B. Option A. cooling completed assembly. the other 25% comes from. leaving assembly for 4 days to age harden. A.Alloy rivets are solution heat treated. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. ½ inch dia. 1 inch length. Option C. What would the marking . Correct Answer is. 1/4 inch. What would be the diameter and length of a solid rivet if the following markings are given. Option B. The distance between two holes. What is meant by the term Pitch Ratio?. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. 1/8 inch dia. Indicates close tolerance rivet. The area of contact between the two sheets of metal when joining by rivets. Option B. 28. Explanation. . ½ inch length. AS 162-408?. Option C. CAIP BL/6-27. Explanation. 1/16 inch. 1/16 inch. ½ inch length. 27. Option B.5 indicate after the normal part number of a solid rivet?. The distance between two holes. CAIP BL/6-29 (Rivet Pitch). ½ inch length. The distance between the hole and the edge of the material. CAIP BL/6-27. Correct Answer is. The diameter of the rivet is half an inch. Question Number. Option C. 29. 1/8 inch dia. Option A. Option A. Explanation. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of. Indicates close tolerance rivet. Option C. Question Number. The rivet length in graduations of 1/8 inch. 1/8 inch. 30. ¼ inch dia. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is. 0. Question Number.032 plus 2D. Option A. What is the length of the operation stroke of the Avdel Riveter type F?. Option B. Where the head can be retrieved. In a closed structure.5D. Option B. Option C. 0.5 D. 1 inch. CAIP BL/6-27 para 3. ½ inch. Explanation. Option A. 7/8 inch.064 is to be joined together the rivet should be. 60 to 80 psi. Option C. 33. Explanation. Explanation.032 + 0. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter type F?. Option C. ½ inch.5 D. Option A. Where would a pop rivet with a break stem mandrel be used?. 40 to 60 psi. Option B. Correct Answer is. 0. . 1/2 inch stroke. Any situation calling for a pop rivet. Option B.032 and 0. Question Number.064 inches. 60 to 80 psi. 31. 20 to 60 psi. 32. Sheet thickness is 0.064 plus 1D. Option C. 34. Correct Answer is. Rivet allowance is 1. If a sheet of aluminium alloy of 0. Question Number. 60 to 80 psi.Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. 0. Question Number.096 plus 1.096 plus 1. once only. 120) c is closest. . 125 . broaching. A chobert rivet gun may be used. 0. Countersunk rivets have two angles of countersink. after the riveting process the mandrel section or stem is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 100. Option B.2.2. a tapered mandrel.2. but since there are 3 countersink angles (90. BL/6-27 3.002 inch below nominal diameter. Option C. Explanation. Option C. 100 . Explanation. In a closed structure.002 inch is the wear limit on a chobert rivet gun.Correct Answer is. indefinately. 36. Question Number. Option A. BL/6-29 8. Option A. broaching. However. BL/6-29 8. A pop rivet is not a truly blind rivet because the tail falls away and has to be retrieved. 100 . 35. 38. Correct Answer is. Option A.2. Avdel rivets are closed by. is ground down flush to rivet head. the break-stem pop rivet has a head which stays with the rivet after breaking. squeezing.135 degrees. Question Number.115 degrees. None of these are correct.115 degrees. Question Number. 100 -160 degrees. Option B. these are. Question Number. Option B. Option A. until the end has worn 0. Correct Answer is. Option C.002 inch below nominal diameter. until the end has worn 0. Explanation. On a CHERRY MAX rivet. 37. Avdel rivets are closed by broaching.1. What material is suitable for riveting steel?. Really mild steel should be used (see AC43 7-1 para. Blind rivet. A 'HUCK' rivet is similar in design to a. By elimination. AC43 4-24. Option C.1. 40. Option A. Copper. Explanation. remains in the rivet sleeve to provide mechanical strength. blind rivet. Option C. cherry rivet. Option C. remains in the rivet sleeve to provide mechanical strength. Explanation.e) but that is not an answer given. Option B. Question Number. 41. BL/6-27 5. Monel.Option B. Option C. Option A. Aluminium alloy. 39. Hi-loc rivet. Question Number. On a structural repair. Explanation. BL/6-28 Para. what type of rivet would you use when the back side cannot be accessed?. Monel. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. dome head rivet. Option A. A collar holds it in place AC43 4-57. cherry rivet. Pop rivet. Question Number. and pop rivets may cause a FOD problem due to the stem falling out. . Blind rivet.2. 4-24. no such thing as a hi-loc rivet. But both are blind rivets. Correct Answer is. discarded. The stem remains in the rivet after it is broken off. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. The Huck rivet is similar in design to the cherry rivet. Monel. Cadmium plated rivets should not be used where the temperature may exceed. 250 °C. Aluminium Alloy. What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminium tubing?.1. NIL. Option B. Option C. Shear. 42. 250 °C. Option A. AC43 Page 7-2 Para. Option A. Option C. Option B. Question Number. 120 °C. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque. 44. 200 °C. Bearing. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Question Number. It is less resistant to the shearing effect of torque. Ease of construction. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. 45. It is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque.g. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . Head. BL/6-27 5. Explanation. Head. Monel. Option A. Option C. 43. What rivets should be used with nickel alloy steel?. NIL. What type loads cause the most rivet failures?. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Mild Steel. with the normal 4D rivet spacing and 2 D edge distance. 48. Annealing. Option A. tensile loads. Question Number. anodised with 'x'. Correct Answer is. You can fit 20 rivets in 9 1/2 inches. Rivet's main strength quality is to resist. 52. torsion. anodised with 'd'. Option C. If it is to be riveted along the 10 inch length. subtract the edge distances (2 * 1/4 inch) = 9 and a 1/2 inches. Option B. L86 is violet with an 's' and L58 is green with an 'x'. anodised with 's'. . Option A. Question Number. A plate 10 inches by 5 inches is to be riveted with 3 rows of rivets. Correct Answer is. 46. 49. Explanation. 3 * 20 = 60. Explanation. Option C.Question Number. NIL. Option B. 60. How many rivets are required?. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Precipitation. What type of heat treatment can be used on DD rivets?. 56. Of the aluminium alloy rivets. Option B. A new rivet made of aluminium alloy is. 60. Option A. but L86 (hiduminium) is no longer made. 47. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Rivet diameter = 4/32 = 1/8 inch. The rivets are AN460AD4-6. anodised with 'x'. Option C. 4D = 1/2 inch. shear loads. shear loads. three times the thickness of the material to be joined. and bucking bar for installation. possibility of causing delamination. Question Number. increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener. The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivets are. utilize a rivet gun. 50. Solution Treatment. Question Number. Correct Answer is. possibility of causing delamination. Option B. Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets. 51. may be installed with ordinary hand tools. two times the rivet length. three times the thickness of the thickest sheet. Hole filling fasteners (for example. Correct Answer is. Explanation. The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is. NIL.Option C. Option C. difficulty in forming a proper shop head. Option C. 52. Option C. special rivet set. Solution Treatment. Question Number. Option A. utilize a pulling tool for installation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. utilize a rivet gun. Explanation. NIL. MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the. NIL. and bucking bar for installation. OR three times the thickness of the thickest sheet. Option B. Correct Answer is. special rivet set. Option B. 53. three times the thickness of the material to be joined. Option A. Option A. NIL. . Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. smooth heads without markings. dimples. Option A. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long. 24. Correct Answer is. 56. . 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long. Option B. Option B. dimples. an overall length of 5/16 inch. Option C. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/2 inch long. Question Number. Option A. a shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head). 54. Explanation. CAIP BL/6-27 para 4. Explanation. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T36 rivets is indicated by the number. Option B. Option A. 1/8 inch in diameter and 1/4 inch long. Explanation. 20. NIL. Option C.13-1B Chap 4 fig 4-4 on page 4-16. 2. 2. a raised dot.1. Most rivets are 2117. a shank length of 5/32 inch (excluding head). Explanation. AC 43. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. 55. an overall length of 5/16 inch.Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have. 59. diameter and manufactured head location. The NE rivet quadrant gives information on. NE. Option B. Option A. head data. . SE. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Option B. 2117-T3. Option A. 2117-T3. diameter and manufactured head location. Explanation. 2017-T3. Question Number. SE. 58. NW. Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?. interference fit fastener.Question Number. Explanation. A square around the NW digit in the quadrant of a fastner would indicate. 2024-T4. hi-lock to be used. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 60. 2117 is an 'AD' rivet. Option C. fastener identity. Option B. Explanation. NAS-523. Question Number. Option B. Option C. NAS-523. The information on rivet grip length is in which rivet code quadrant?. NIL. fluid tight fastner. fluid tight fastner. 57. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 61. Option B. The four quadrants on a quadrant rivet code system are designated. 1. By diameter. NE. What are the rigid pipes on gas turbine engines made from?. Option C. NW. SW. Maintenance schedule. N. SW.Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Copper. Parts catalogue. Aluminium alloy. bottom-right. where would you find the correct replacement part?. Correct Answer is. 06a. top-right. Pipes and Unions. By maximum pressure. NW. Explanation. Option B. Maintenance manual. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. S. How are flexible hoses categorised?. NIL. . W. When replacing a hydraulic pipe. Stainless steel. SE. Option C. NE. top-left. Option A. Parts catalogue. NIL. 2. Option B. Option A. By length. Explanation. SE. Option B. Option A. Option C. Explanation. E. bottom-left. NIL. Option A. 3. By maximum pressure. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Explanation. AL/3-13 8. How would you test a hydraulic hose?. 4. Stainless steel. Explanation. Option B. Use cardboard protection to prevent damage to seals when fitting them. BL/6-15 3.0 * working pressure.5 * working pressure.Correct Answer is. 7. Pressure test 1. material. Option A. Option A. use a cardboard protector over the threaded portions. . diameter. Explanation. Explanation.1. compress and stretch them. use grease. NIL. Question Number. AC43 9-15.4.3. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.5 * working pressure. material. 5. Pressure test 1. length. To prevent damage to seals on fitment you would. Flexible pipes are identified by. Option C. use a cardboard protector over the threaded portions. Stainless steel has a high resistance to heat. white. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. Option C.0 * working pressure. yellow. Pressure test 1. 6. Option A. Pressure test 2. A pipe carrying lubricant would be identified by the colour. Option A. Standard Aviation Maintenance Handbook Page 128/129. Option B. Option B. Teflon. The storage life of a flexible hose can be up to but not exceeding. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 10-16. Question Number. 8. 5056 or 7075.Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. 1100 or 2020 H14. Hydraulic pipes are made from. Explanation.2. Rubber. Option A. Correct Answer is. The 'lay line' will indicate twist in the hose. CAAIP Leaflet 5-5 paragraph 2. . Option C. Option A.2. Option B. identifies fluid compatibility of hose. Explanation. Butyl. 11. 5 years. white and yellow. 9. Which material is a hydraulic fluid hose made from?. Option A. Question Number. annealed steel. Correct Answer is. identifies hose material. Teflon. 10. A&P General Textbook Page 10-2. yellow. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. will assist in detection of any twist in an installed hose. The continuous coloured line on a hose assembly. Question Number. will assist in detection of any twist in an installed hose. annealed steel. Question Number. Option C. Option A. use the old one to apply the 'set'. When fitting a replacement flexible hose. Option B. yellow and white dot. yellow dot. Option B. 14. date of manufacture. Explanation. Question Number. 4 years. blue dot. Option C. always pressure test before fitting. Explanation. What type of material would hydraulic pipes on an undercarriage leg or bay be made from?. 2 years. Option A. manufacturers name. internal bore size. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. 5 years. blue dot. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. ensure adequate clearance between the hose and the aircraft structure. Question Number. date of manufacture. Explanation. The markings on a flexible hose must include the. Option C. . Leaflet 5-5 3. 15. 13. Option C. 12. ensure adequate clearance between the hose and the aircraft structure. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Question Number. NIL.Option B. MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid O-rings are identified with a.1. Leaflet 5-5 4. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. The length of a straight hose assembly is measured. It is the. 14H. Correct Answer is. Question Number.4. Stainless steel. An aircraft pipe has a number stamped on it. 5% internal diameter. No dent on a bend. Question Number. Option A. 7075. Leaflet 5-5 2. Correct Answer is. . Option B. 18. 17. 10% of external diameter. 14H. Option C. in half hard state. Option C. H14. 1100. Option A. NIL. between the extremities of the two nipples. Option B. serial number. serial number. 2024. Correct Answer is. between the extremities of the two nipples. annealed. Option B. NIL. along the coloured line. Question Number. aircraft system. No dent on a bend. between the outer faces of the union nuts. annealed. Explanation. fluid it is carrying. A metal pipe has a small indentation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 16. Option C.Option A. Option C. Stainless steel. AC43 9-30c. Option A. Explanation. What are the limits?. Option B. Question Number. . outside diameter and 1/16 inch increments. 21. Flexible lines must be fitted with a slack. The term 'cold flow' is generally associated with. Explanation. inside diameter and 1/16 inch increments. of 5 .12 % of the length. Option B. deep permanent impression left in a flexible hose by the pressure of hose clamps and supports. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. of at least 10 . NIL. NIL. welding and sheet metal. Explanation.8 % of the length. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is. 20. Option C. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness and. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option C.8 % of the length. 19. A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because. Question Number. of 5 . Option C. 22. Option A. outside diameter and 1/16 inch increments. outside diameter and 1/32 inch increments. vaporizing fuel. Explanation. Option A. Option A. expands in length and contracts in diameter. it. contracts in length and expands in diameter. expands in length and diameter. Option A. when under pressure. rubber hose. to allow maximum flexing during operation. rubber hose. Correct Answer is. 750 inch. NIL. AC65-9A Question Number. 0. The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from3/4 inch. Option A. inside diameter.606 inch. What is the inside dimension of this tubing?. OR providing bends in the tubing. Option C.688 inch. Question Number. using short. 23. 0.Question Number. Explanation. abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a high pressure (3. 0.000 PSI) hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and flaps?.072 5052-0 aluminium alloy tubing. Explanation.606 inch. 25. Which tubings have the characteristics (high strength. . Option B. inside diameter. 0. outside diameter. Correct Answer is. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing caused by expansion and contraction due to temperature changes can best be avoided by. straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of the structure of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. 24. Option B. Correct Answer is. not subjecting the aircraft to sudden changes in temperature. Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in size according to the. Option C. Option A. Option A. 26. straight sections of tubing between fixed parts of the structure of the aircraft. Explanation. Subtract 2x wall thickness from the outside diameter. Question Number. using short. Option B. Option C. wall thickness. 0. providing bends in the tubing. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. Corrosion resistant steel annealed 1/4H. is carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel. A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN. Option C. Option B. Put washer either side of the banjo. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminium alloy. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 06b. The letters mean Pressure High. 1. PHDAN means PHysically DANgerous to personnel. Option A. Question Number. Put a washer on the outside of the banjo only. Correct Answer is. Put washer either side of the banjo. 27. Correct Answer is. have about the same OD. How do you assemble a banjo hose?. is carrying a substance which cannot be made non-toxic. Option C. A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose compared to a 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same system will.Option A. Option A. Option B. have equivalent flow characteristics. Put a washer on the inside of the banjo only. Explanation. Question Number. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminium alloy. have equivalent flow characteristics. Discharge at Nacelle. Option C. is a high pressure line. NIL. usually have interchangeable applications. . is carrying a substance which may be dangerous to personnel. Option B. Pipes and Unions. Option A. Explanation. 28. Option B. Corrosion resistant steel annealed 1/4H. Option C. What coupling would you use?. The last dash number is the number of 16ths. 5. Option C. . Adapter nipples are not required on. Option A. Question Number. hand tight plus 2 flats. turn until torque is felt plus 2 flats. AN8-8852-2. Option A. pipe to externally coned adapter. synthetic rubber mineral based. turn until torque is felt plus 3 flats (half turn). Explanation. Option B. A Skydrol hydraulic seal would be made of. Option A. Option B.e. Explanation. Correct Answer is. butyl rubber. turn until torque is felt plus 2 flats. Question Number. AN8-8852-1. ethelene propylene or Teflon Phosphate Ester based. butyl rubber. natural rubber vegetable based.3. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. 3. 4. 8/16 = 0.5 in. A 0. 2. Correct Answer is. i. pipe to pipe coupling. Option B. ethelene propylene or Teflon Phosphate Ester based. AN8-8852-8.Explanation. Pipes are graded in 1/16 inch steps. BL/6-15 9. diameter pipe is to be joined using standard nuts and fittings. To install a flareless coupling. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-21. Option C. Question Number. Option B. AN8-8852-8. NIL.5 inches. Option C. Which statement about Military Standard (MS) flareless fittings is correct?. Option B. During installation. Black. latex natural rubber. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 7. Option A. rather than being torqued. Correct Answer is. pipe to externally coned adapter. Explanation. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific torque. silicon rubber. synthetic rubber. NIL. Explanation. pipe to internally coned adapter. A butyl rubber seal is made from. rather than being torqued. Correct Answer is. Option B. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific torque. MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface have made contact. MS flareless fittings should not be lubricated prior to assembly. . 8. Question Number. MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface have made contact. Question Number. Steel AN fittings are black. Blue. Explanation. Explanation. synthetic rubber. Red. Option C. BL/6-15 Figure 1. Option A. What is the colour of an AN steel flared-tube fitting?.Option C. Option C. 6. Option B. Black. NIL. Question Number. aluminium AN fittings are blue. OR During installation. Question Number. Option A. 2. Option C. carbon or high alloy steels with low working stress. Springs. carbon or high alloy steels with low working stress. Spring hooks are under bending stress. A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a. Steel music wire is. 3.Question Number. Correct Answer is. carbon or alloy steels with high working stress. Spring steel is hardened (therefore high carbon) steel or alloy steel and work under low stress so they remain within the elastic region. Explanation. Bending. Question Number. Option A. Option A. used for lower strength springs. low carbon steels with high working stress. Option B. Tension. NIL. 1. Coil springs are made from. 07. gasket. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Option B. Option B. Question Number. What load are spring hooks subjected to?. Explanation. Bending. 9. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. . packing. Compressive. compound. made of high carbon or nickel alloy. packing. used for lower strength springs. NIL. a cracked ring. Question Number. strength and squareness. When rotating a ball bearing by hand. Option A. a regular click indicates. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Option B. a cracked ring. . are susceptible to brinelling. Question Number. strength and squareness. length and strength. 1. NIL. Option B. length. can accept a small amount of misalignment. Correct Answer is. Question Number. are designed to carry axial loads. Explanation. Needle roller bearings. width. Explanation. Bearings. Correct Answer is. width.Option C. NIL. 08. Option C. length. A spring should be inspected for correct. Explanation. Option C. used for high strength springs and as progressive-rate springs. NIL. 4. Correct Answer is. Option C. strength and squareness. 2. Correct Answer is. intergranular corrosion in the outer ring. Option A. damage to the balls. are susceptible to brinelling. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Spherical roller bearings resist what loads?. A journal load is. radial. Large radial and moderate thrust. Question Number. 6. Large radial and moderate thrust.Question Number. Large thrust and moderate radial. 3. 4. Option B. Where are needle roller bearings used?. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Option A. High speed operations. Where there are space restrictions. BL/6-14 2.3.3. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Needle roller bearing. Where is fluid damped bearing used. NIL. Radial' means outward. Option C. Option B. Tapered roller bearing. Caged ball bearing. What kind of bearing is used in a landing system?. Explanation. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. Option A. axial. Correct Answer is. Option C. Tapered roller bearing. compression. Option A. radial. Needle roller bearings are used where there are space restrictions. Correct Answer is. 'thrust' means axial. Large radial but no thrust. Explanation. Where there are space restrictions. NIL. 5. CAIP BL/5-2 para. Option C. A hardy splicer is a universal coupling as found on vehicle drive shafts and they are fitted with needle bearings.2. Correct Answer is. Loads on tapered roller bearings are.2. Question Number. 8. . Plain bearings. Option B. radial and thrust. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. Needle bearings. BL/6-14 2. taper roller bearing. Option C. Option A. thrust only. Explanation. radial and thrust. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. angular bearing. radial bearing. spherical roller bearing. Ball Bearings. A self aligning bearing is a. Needle bearings. Correct Answer is. spherical roller bearing. Option A. cylindrical roller bearing. 10. Option B. A Hardy Spicer coupling has what type of bearings?. 2. precision bearing. radial bearing. 7. A self aligning bearing is a radial bearing. Taper roller bearings can take radial and thrust loads. Option B.Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C.3. Question Number. 9. Explanation. radial only. Question Number.3. A crankshaft would be fitted with a. A single row ball bearing is best suited to accepting. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 14. Option B. radial loads only. A feel test is the most likely inspection. Option B. rotating slowly by hand. Option A. Option C. rotating slowly by hand. Explanation. Explanation. journal loads. Question Number. Option A. radial loads. Thrust bearings take. group 3 bearings are used. Question Number. dismantling and inspecting. running at operating speed and listening for signs of wear. axial and radial Loads.Question Number. radial loads only. Correct Answer is. The run test is not done at operating speed. axial loads only. Option B. Shielded ball bearings are inspected by. Option B. Correct Answer is. . group 2 bearings are used. group 4 bearings are used. sideloads. Option C. Option C. Option A. Thrust bearings take side loads. sideloads. 13. Where heat is likely to be transmitted through a bearing. 12. 11. group 4 bearings are used. Group 4 bearings have the greatest clearance. Option A. Correct Answer is. To transmit thrust loads with radial loads. 17. Option B. The stationary race of a journal bearing is normally. Question Number. 16. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Question Number. BL/6-14 Para. when dismantled. Option A. A single row ball bearing carries radial loads only BL/6-14 2.2. Inspection of bearings is normally carried out. Option C. Option C. 18. Taper roller bearings transmit thrust and radial loads equally. when removed from an assembly. Correct Answer is. in situ. BL/6-14 6. Taper roller bearings are used for which of the following purposes?. no action. Explanation. in situ.2. a spigoted fit. Option C. Option A. an interference fit. Correct Answer is. To transmit radial loads whilst resisting axial movement.1. BL/6-14 5. Option A. Option B. rejection of the bearing. Explanation.3. 15. a push fit. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. To transmit thrust loads with radial loads.2.Explanation. replacement of the shield. Damage to the shield of a bearing should result in. Question Number. Option B. an interference fit. Option B. To permit axial movement whilst resisting radial load. therefore limiting radial movement. Explanation. Option A. lack of lubrication. rejection of the bearing. radial load only. it transmits axial loads. CAAIPs Leaflet 1-8 Page 3. bearing running dry. pink. Question Number. radial and axial load. Option B. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Question Number. blue. axial load only. Explanation. A thrust bearing is designed so that. it transmits radial loads. intergranular corrosion. Intergranular corrosion (on some stainless steels) looks like a thin line on the surface of the metal . radial load only. Correct Answer is. intergranular corrosion. Option C. . BL/6-14 6. Option C. Option A. A watermark on a bearing indicates. Option A. 21. Needle bearings resist. 19. When silica gel has absorbed moisture the colour changes to. Option B. therefore limiting axial movement.2. 20. white.known as water stain. Option C. pink. Question Number.Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation.1 (iii). Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 22. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Lubrication of roller bearings and needle bearings are. Correct Answer is. Question Number. measure chain and use 5% max formula to check extension. white. How do you check a chain for elongation?. Option A. Apply a load. measure chain and use 2% max formula to check extension. Option B. Correct Answer is. pink. Explanation. blue. CAAIPS Leaflet 5-4 para 6. Option B. Silica gel is used for moisture control during storage. Explanation. Explanation. 24. it transmits axial loads. it transmits axial loads. therefore limiting axial movement. Transmissions. by hand. Hang the chain under its own weight. measure chain and use 2% max formula to check extension. when serviceable it is coloured. under pressure. NIL. Question Number. 1. Option C. by hand. Apply a load. Option C. measure chain and use 2% max formula to check extension. Option B.3. therefore limiting axial movement. Option C. Option A. Option A. . at low pressure via a tube. blue. NIL. Question Number. Apply a load. Correct Answer is.Option C. But it depends what type of lubricant is used and the bearing application. Explanation. 23. 09. Question Number. Option B. A turboprop reduction gearbox is a good example of an epicyclic gear system. . Option A. 90 degrees to each other and in a differing plane. Hanged so they do not kink. Lay uncoiled and flat in greaseproof paper. Explanation. 90 degrees to each other and in a differing plane. Option C. Correct Answer is. 90 degrees to each other and in the same plane. Epicyclic gears are used on. Explanation. Oiled and coiled in greaseproof paper.Question Number. Explanation. CAAIPs leaflet 5-4 para 6. shafts rotating on offset axis.7. shafts rotating on axis 90 degrees from each other. Correct Answer is. Option C. What is the purpose of the guard. 5. 4. Option B. Option A. Oiled and coiled in greaseproof paper. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Stops the chain coming off if it goes slack. Protects personnel when carrying out maintenance. 2. Stops the chain coming off if it goes slack. How do you store a chain?. Prevents entry of foreign bodies. 3. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. Option B. NIL. Option A. shafts rotating on the same axis. where a control chain goes around a sprocket?. Option C. Worm drives operate in shafts which are. parallel to each other and in the same plane. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. shafts rotating on the same axis. The test involves painting the surface of a gear tooth then running the gear. achieved?. Explanation. Correct Answer is. On the heel. 8. AL/3-2 Figure 4. mark it leaves on a mating gear. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. By using bi-planer blocks. AL/3-2. mark it leaves on a mating gear. Question Number. Option B. By use of a chain guard. Different end fittings. Option A. Every second outer plate is extended in one direction. Option C. Every second outer plate is extended in one direction. By using spring clips. 6. The pattern of a gear is the. In the middle. in two planes. On the toe. . Option C. Question Number. Option B. When not under load where should a pair of gears sit?. How is a non-reversible chain different from a normal chain?. the path they take when the gear is rotating. Option C. 7. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. By using bi-planer blocks. Option A. How is the change in direction of a control chain. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. By using a pulley. Option A. profile of the gear teeth. then inspecting the 'pattern' worn into the painted surface. 9.Question Number. Option C. Option B. In the middle. Explanation. See Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance. Top. See Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance. The correct meshing of gears is found by observing the marks made during a gear mesh test. Middle. pattern and profile. 13. 11. Bevel. Option B. 10. Option A. On what part of the tooth should the marks be?. Option A. Correct Answer is. The teeth on the smaller wheel of a bevel gear are called the. Option B. lash and pattern. heel. Option A. Option C. foot. Question Number. Split epicyclic. Question Number. Bottom. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 12.Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. they must have. What type of gear would be used on a propeller reduction gearbox?. Option B. Option C. end play and thrust. lash and pattern. toe. Middle. See Jeppesen Helicopter Maintenance. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. For a pair of gears to operate properly. toe. NIL. . Option C. Question Number. a drive in 1 plane but transmits both directions. Explanation. positive drive and axial movement. Option B. a positive and strong drive for transmissions. A feather key allows axial movement. a drive in 2 planes but transmits 1 direction only. Epicyclic. Explanation. NIL. 16.Option C. Option A. . A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits. nitrided. Overhaul manual. 14. Option C. Maintenance schedule. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Maintenance manual. Correct Answer is. 15. Time intervals are only in the Maintenance Schedule. Question Number. Maintenance schedule. Option B. NIL. positive drive and axial movement. a drive in 2 planes and transmits both directions. a drive in 2 planes but transmits 1 direction only. Question Number. The teeth of a gear would normally be. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. A worm drive creates. 17. Option A. Where would you find the inspection interval for chains?. positive drive with the gear firmly locked. Epicyclic. Correct Answer is. Explanation. at the centre of the tooth. it does not have to be proof checked. at the centre of the tooth. NIL. Option C. On gear teeth. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Hardening right through the gear teeth would make them brittle and tend to break. tempered. the wear pattern should be. the top edge most worn. the wear pattern should be. it must be proof checked to ½ max load. Option C. Question Number. tapering off to the heel. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. 20. . case hardened. Correct Answer is. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. greatest at the heel. 18. 19. the middle of the tooth most worn. Option A. case hardened. Option B.6. the middle of the tooth most worn. Question Number. least at the toe. On bevel gear teeth. even from top to bottom. Option A. it does not have to be proof checked. If a chain is removed for routine maintenance.Option B. Option B. Explanation. Option C. greatest at the toe. AL/3-2 6. Question Number. it must be proof checked to full load. Option A. nitrided. Option C. Option A. all over case hardened. Leaflet 5-4. Question Number. Correct Answer is.4. all over case hardened. Option A.Question Number. toe is hardened. Bevel gears are. Explanation. Option C. 22. Correct Answer is. During an inspection interval one segment of a long chain is found to be defective. AL/3-2 6. Bevel gears are all over case hardened. Explanation. 24. The chain cannot be repaired. Option C. case hardened. hanging by hand by measure and sight. 23. Explanation. Question Number. running the chain over a finger by 180 degrees. . Option C. It must be replaced. replace the whole chain. Explanation. The teeth of a gear are normally case hardened by flame cooling and water spray quenching. the solution to this is to. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. replace the whole chain. 21. replace the particular segment and run components to check for serviceability. The teeth of a gear would normally be. tempered. stretching out and measuring. case hardened. running the chain over a finger by 180 degrees. A chain is checked for stiff links by. replace 3 segment either side of the deficiency. Option A. heel is hardened. Option B. Question Number. . Option A. only be fitted in one direction. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-4 para 6. Option C. the small diameter is the toe. check sight line and measure. 28. Drive planes on an epicyclic gear are. apply tensile load and measure. The large diameter on a bevel gear is called the. Option A. 27. Option B. around a common axis of the plane. Correct Answer is.3. The large diameter is the heel. Option B. Explanation. Non-reversible chains can. 25. Option A. apply tensile load and measure. Question Number.Question Number. only be moved in one direction. around a common axis of the plane. foot. Question Number.3. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 26. Adjust the end fittings. Question Number. Option B. at right angles to the plane. Lay flat on a table. Leaflet 5-4 4. not be fitted through pressure bulkheads. Lay flat on a table. heel. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. How do you check a chain for elongation?. Hang chain up. heel. Option B.2. at different angles to the plane. Correct Answer is. only be fitted in one direction. Option A. toe. A gear system. overload clutches. driven.Explanation. spiral gears have. Option A. 29. Option B. driver and idler. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. driven. is known as. no-slip clutches. 31. Option A. Explanation. freewheel clutches. freewheel clutches. have mechanical advantages. NIL. Option C. is made up of gears that are. 10. The clutch which can overrun the driving member. driven and driver. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. When is a turnbuckle not in safety?. Explanation. Compared with the spur gears. Option A. Option A. less stress concentration on gears. 1. Correct Answer is. idler. 30. When a small diameter wire can be passed through the inspection hole. Question Number. less stress concentration on gears. driver and idler. or gear train. Question Number. NIL. NIL. Control Cables. . Question Number. NIL. Option B. Option C. more wear resistance. Make sure no threads are showing at either end of the turnbuckle. When you can see daylight through the hole.448N. Option A. depending on type. breaking load in hundredweights. Explanation. Option C. British aircraft cables are classified by their. breaking loads in lbf. 3. NIL. Cables are preferred to other control systems because. they are strong and light. Explanation.Option B. Option B. 2. Question Number. Option C.143. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. breaking load in hundredweights. Option C. How do you check a turnbuckle is in safety?. single braid allows for 2 way directions. Option A. When a wire of the same diameter as the inspection hole can be passed through. Use the inspection hole or count the threads showing. they maintain slight mechanical advantage over push/pull systems. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Handbook Pg. 5. Question Number. Explanation. are locked by. . Use the inspection hole or count the threads showing. 4. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. NIL. Turnbuckles. they are strong and light. Cable control systems are strong and light. When a wire of the same diameter as the inspection hole can be passed through. diameter and breaking load in Hundredweights. Ensure that the turnbuckle cannot be turned by hand. where 1 lbf = 4. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-7. stiffnuts. Option B. Correct Answer is. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by. Option B. looking through the hole and checking for threads showing. a cable tension regulator. Option A. Option C. use a cable run with turnbuckles at least every eight feet. castleated nuts and splitpins. AL/3-7. have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally. To correctly tension cables it can help to. attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole.Option A. Option C. Explanation. have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally. locknuts and wire. . Question Number. Explanation. a cable tension regulator. take up initial slack by additional pulleys. Option A. Option C. Cable tension is maintained by. Option A. 8. 6. a fairlead. 7. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A cable tension regulator maintains cable tension. Explanation. AC43 7-43. a grommet. attempting to pass locking wire through the hole. locknuts and wire. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. join the two ends of the cable. Option C. Explanation. NIL.2. 9 * 16 cable is. Correct Answer is. BL/6-24 2. 9 strands of 16 wires. How is the diameter of a cable measured?. Option B. Correct Answer is. . 9 strands of 16 wires. Option C. Option B. cable size 9/16 inch diameter. the inspection hole is blind or the required number of threads are showing. both rods are seen to touch in the inspection hole. Turnbuckles are used to.Question Number. Diameter of one wire multiplied by the number of wires. both rods enter the barrel by the same amount. Diameter of one wire only. adjust major tension on the cable. the inspection hole is blind or the required number of threads are showing. Option A. Question Number. AC43 7-166. 9 cables having 16 turns per inch. 12. adjust minor tension on the cable. Turnbuckles are correctly fitted when. Explanation. 10. Option C. Explanation. Option A. 9. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Overall diameter. Option B. 11. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. adjust minor tension on the cable. Option C. Overall diameter. the witness hole is covered or the amount of threads showing at the cable end is in accordance with the Maintenance Manual. Option A. 13. doesn't require to be safety locked. Option B. lock nuts and safety wirelocking. Correct Answer is. the witness hole is covered or the amount of threads showing at the cable end is in accordance with the Maintenance Manual. Question Number.Question Number. Option A. 15. all flying control cables. lock nuts and safety wirelocking. NIL. Explanation. no flying control cables. Spring locking clips for turnbuckles can be used on. Question Number. 16. Question Number. teflon lock nuts. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. A turnbuckle can be safetied by. . Option A. Option C. all flying control cables. NIL. the colour on the threads is showing. Option B. What is the small hole on a swaged turnbuckle for?. NIL. To check for moisture deposits. To alloy the turnbuckle to be wire locked. A turnbuckle is in safety when. Option B. Option C. Option C. only on trim control cables. Explanation. it is lockwired. Option A. 14. To check if correct amount of cable has been inserted before swaging. To check if correct amount of cable has been inserted before swaging. and pounds for American. If a pulley shows signs of wear on one side. the cable is too tightly tensed. Option B.a. pounds for both. When checking the safety of turnbuckles you should use what?. Option A. Wire the same diameter as the inspection hole. Wire the same diameter as the inspection hole. hundredweight for British. Question Number. c. Jepperson A&P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-45. Option A.Correct Answer is. c. Question Number. Option A. Option B.a. and pounds for American. hundredweight for British. Explanation. . Cable minimum breakage strain for British and American is measured by. fourteen wires. NIL. 17. hundredweight for British. seven wires. Visual check.s. 18. Option B. NIL. Question Number. 20. the cable is misaligned. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. the pulley is too large for the cable. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. hundredweight for American. Wire smaller than inspection hole.s. CAAIPs Leaflet 2-12 Table 1 is British. 19. Correct Answer is. Option A.a. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. A 7x7 cable has seven strands each of.s. Option C. c. Table 2 is American. the cable is misaligned. figure 1-84. Option C. Phenolic resin also known as Micarta or Tufnol. tungum and high tensile steel. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. copper. Cable stops are manufactured from. Option B. stainless steel and nylon. 22. brass and phenolic resin.7-33. Option C. The system can operate in two directions. Option A. Jepperson A&P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-41. copper. the Teleflex cable consists of. Option B. Explanation. Pulleys are manufactured from. brass and phenolic resin. a high tensile steel wire with a right or left hand helix wire wound on to it. Option A. In a Teleflex flexible control system. . Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. 24. multi strand steel wires and is used primarily as a single one way device operated from a control lever. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. magnesium alloy. NIL. 23. AC43 7-148e P. stainless steel. seven wires.Option C. Explanation. 21. one wire. Explanation. a flexible seven or nineteen strand steel cable used for the operation of manual flying controls. The system can operate in two directions. a high tensile steel wire with a right or left hand helix wire wound on to it. A cable tension regulator will be installed in a flying control system to. 7 wires. . Question Number. Option A. Option C. number of strands it contains and the number of wires in each strand. 27. Aircraft flying control cables are normally classified by the. 7 * 7 cable has seven stranded wires each with.Option A. Option A. Option B. automatically compensate for low cable tension caused by worn cables. 25. relax the tension in cold conditions. 7 strands make 1 wire. minimum breaking load or the diameter in inches. circumference of the cable and overall length. Tension is set up by adjustments of the turnbuckles and tension regulators keep tension the same over varying opperating temperatures. Option C. Option B. Option B. minimum breaking load or the diameter in inches. Explanation. allow for variations in temperature which will vary the cable tension. 7 wires. Tension regulators on aeroplanes with fully metal bodies are used to. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. allow for variations in temperature which will vary the cable tension. Explanation. maintain the necessary tension. British cables are classified by the minimum breaking load . Explanation. 49 wires. Question Number. compensate for rapid movement of the controls by taking up the slack. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. maintain the necessary tension. Option C. Correct Answer is.American cables by diameter (only). 7 Wires make 1 cable. 14 wires. Correct Answer is. 26. set up the necessary tension. NIL. A flight control cable is replaced if.Question Number. Option A. a wire is 20% worn. lower current rating. What is the smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems?. 28. Option B. Question Number. Option C. CFR 23. 1. Pulleys. Option C. Explanation. 1/4 inch. Bellcranks. Pulleys. 30. Question Number. AC43 7-149 g. higher current rating. Option B. Explanation. single wires are blended together. NIL. Electrical Cables and Connectors. A 14 gauge cable when compared to an 18 gauge cable has. the same current rating. Option B. . Correct Answer is. 29. 1/8 inch. How are changes in direction of a control cable accomplished?. Option A. 5/16 inch. 1/8 inch. Option C. the protective fluid coating is missing. single wires are blended together. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. Question Number. 11. Fairleads. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. Option B.689. Correct Answer is. released from the front and extracted from the rear. higher current rating. 3. the pin will be. To reduce the chance of corrosion affecting the pins. Explanation. Option C. released from the front and extracted from the rear. thinner than airframe cable. thicker than airframe cable. NIL. Question Number. thinner than airframe cable. Jepperson A&P Technician Airframe textbook Ch7-61. 200 °C. 260 °C. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. released from rear and extracted from the front. Question Number. In a front release connector. Question Number. An interconnect cable has what insulation?. Maximum temperature of tin coated copper cable is. Option B. A 14 gauge cable is thicker than an 18 gauge cable. same thickness as airframe cable.3. released from the front and extracted from the front. Option B. Option C.2. Option A. Option A. Why is the ground side of an electrical power conductor usually connected to a male connector?. Option A. 5. Option B. Explanation. 4. Option C. . CAAIPs Leaflet 9-3 8. Explanation. Correct Answer is. To make installation of the connector easier.Correct Answer is. To reduce the chance of an accidental short. Option A. To reduce the chance of an accidental short. 2. 8. from the inside out . Option A. Explanation. Option B. NIL. Option C. as there are many different types and many different numbering systems. Option C. Correct Answer is. is flexible and suitable for soldering. Correct Answer is. 6. Cable number. EEL/3-1 9. Question Number.clockwise. Circuit function. Option B.1. from the inside out .Option C. is flexible and suitable for soldering. Question Number. can be used for interconnect wiring. This figure of 105 °C is for old obsolete cables. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Option C. 105 °C. Explanation. Cable size. Plug pins are numbered. Option B. In the wiring code shown. has thicker insulation than interconnect wire. from the inside out . 7. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . what does the number 6 (4th number from the left) represent? 1EF6B22 NMS V. This should be challenged.clockwise. Equipment wire.clockwise. Explanation. Normally 130 °C. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Pg 91.anticlockwise. Option A. Cable number. 105 °C. from the outside in . Wet arc tracking. Oxides of metals always become thicker with elevated temperatures.8. . But Palletts's Aircraft Electrical systems describes it as 'two or more separate conductors' Page 86. Explanation. Option B. An aluminium oxide layer on a conductor will do what when the temperature is increased?. Option A. Become thicker. Remain the same. Option C. emergency power. X' indicates AC power. 'X' on an electrical cable indicates. Option C. Hot stamping has been known to cause wet arc tracking. AC power. Peeling of the insulation. What is a coaxial cable?.2. Question Number. Explanation. 12. Explanation. Option C. Option C. Two or more conductors.Question Number. Become thinner. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. What must you be careful with a hot stamped cable?. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5 Para. Option B. AC power. Option A. 10. Two or more conductors. Correct Answer is. Sometimes the outer shielding is considered a conductor (and sometimes carries signal). A single conductor. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Become thicker. A coaxial cable is a single shielded cable. Correct Answer is. 11. Corrosion. Option B. Correct Answer is. control system. A twisted pair of conductors. Wet arc tracking. Question Number. 9. Reduces resistance. 16. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Fire hazard. Option A. 15. 1 amp. What is the danger if a silver coated connector comes into contact with glycol de icing fluid.Question Number. . Option C. Option B. Option B. there is an electrostatic field around it which helps to reduce the electromagnetic field. 10 amp. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. it has less resistance. Correct Answer is. weight for weight it can carry more signal. All metal oxides are insulators. Option A. Corrosion. Insulates. Correct Answer is. 5 amp. Option A. Option A. The shielding in a coaxial cable converts the electromagnetic field into electrical energy. 18 swg is a 10 amp cable. Wet arc tracking. Provides strength. 13. Correct Answer is. Option C. What is the effect of aluminium oxide on aluminium electrical cable?. Fire hazard. What amperage is an 18 swg cable?. A co-axial cable is better than a normal cable because. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Option B. 14. Explanation. there is an electrostatic field around it which helps to reduce the electromagnetic field. Insulates. Option C. 10 amp. Explanation. nickel plated copper. The conductor in tersil cable is nickel plated copper. 20. The 22 represents the cross sectional area. Copper is an inferior conductor to aluminium when comparing. Option A. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. 18. current/weight ratio. stainless steel. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5 Para. nickel plated copper. wet track arcing can occur. current rating. cross sectional area. corrosion can occur. Correct Answer is. weight for weight. Option C.Explanation. 19. Option C.8. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Option C. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Red Plague. Silver coated connectors and glycol deicing fluid is a fire hazard. Option A. When silver coated connectors are used in unpressurised parts of the aircraft. EEL/9-3 2. Question Number. Option A. The 22 represents the. 17. corrosion can occur. CSA with CSA. cross sectional area. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 83. Question Number.7. Question Number. load for load. The conductor in Tersil cable is. Correct Answer is. tinned copper. separation of the coating can occur. CAAIPs. A cable is marked NYVIN 22. 200 °C. an insulator. Option A. fire resistant -5 minutes. a conductor. weight for weight. Explanation. On a rear insert plug the tool is used to. Leaflet 11-5 7. insert the pins from the rear and extract from the front. . Option B.1. 20 mins. Any metal oxide is an insulator. Question Number. Question Number. non corrosive.Correct Answer is. Silver plated copper wire has a maximum working temp of. 10 mins. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 24. Aluminium is better than copper when you compare weight to weight (CSA = cross sectional area). Option B. 300 °C. 200 °C. Leaflet 11-5. Option C. 15 mins. Fireproof -15 minutes. 22. Option A. Option A. an insulator. Correct Answer is. insert the pins from the front and extracted from the rear. Option C. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is.5. 21. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Oxide on exposed silver plated wires is. Leaflet 11-5 5. Explanation.2. Option A. 23. 15 mins. 250 °C. For an electrical cable to be fireproof it must be able to stand 1100 °C for. Question Number. Option B. Aluminium wiring when flexed will.2. have a higher resistance. Correct Answer is. Nickel coated copper -260 °C. vertically. Explanation. 28. insert the pins from the rear and extract from the rear. . Nickel coated cables temperature range is. Option C. Flexing aluminium wire will work harden it. Explanation. Question Number. 27. the swage is formed when. insert the pins from the rear and extract from the rear. horizontally. the bypass valve closes and ram is neutrally loaded. Question Number. Option B. Silver coated copper -200 °C. Option B. Option A. Explanation. 200 to 250 °C. Option A. NIL. Option A. Explanation. Option C. have no effect.7. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Tin coated copper -135 °C.Option C. horizontally. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-3. Option A. Question Number. On a hydraulic swaging tool. A foot operated hydraulic swaging tools is checked for fluid level. Correct Answer is. 100 to 150 °C. work harden and embrittle. 25. All electrical pins are inserted from the rear. The difference is how they are removed. 150 to 200 °C. 200 to 250 °C. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5 Para. Option C. only when operating pressure is reached. work harden and embrittle. Correct Answer is. 26. Explanation. what will happen to the voltage drop?. Correct Answer is. Stay the same. Option C. Correct Answer is. single-strand. Option B. The cross sectional area of a copper crimp barrel is. single-core.7. leads are. screened.T. H. Option A. Explanation. screened. Option C. multi-core. 29. swage pressure is reached on the gauge. Explanation. If the cross sectional area of a cable is increased. Interference in ribbon cables can be prevented by. Correct Answer is. Option A. the bypass valve opens and ram is neutrally loaded. Question Number. multi-strand. 32. screened. 30. Decrease. Explanation. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Decrease. single-core. 31. Question Number.5. Option C. Question Number. Leaflet 9-3 Para. multi-strand. grounding alternate wires so that signal wires are never adjacent. multi-strand. An 80 wire ribbon cable. 40 of them will be grounded to the metal connector at each end. Option B. Option B. grounding alternate wires so that signal wires are never adjacent. using alternate return wires so that the cable differences cancel each other out. The connector will be 40 pin. single-core. Option C. screened. the use of a common earth return between signal wires in the cable. . Increase. the bypass valve opens and ram is neutrally loaded.Option B. Question Number.7 e (iii). Most HT leads are multi-strand single core. larger than an aluminium one. Option B. When crimping. Interconnect cables. same as an aluminium one. Correct Answer is. it more malleable. NIL. 20. Question Number. 33. Explanation. Explanation. Electrical cable on aircraft is mainly made from copper because. smaller than an aluminium one. Option C. Option B. Explanation.Option A. 20. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Chapter 20 is 'Standard Practices'. what chapter in the ATA system should you refer to?. it offers low resistance to current flow. 35. Question Number. 4. Option B. it does not oxidise. Correct Answer is. smaller than an aluminium one. employ thinner insulation than airframe types. Option B. are the cable through the MEC to the engine. employ thinner insulation than airframe types. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Option A. CAAIPS Leaflet 11-5.3. 24. 12. Correct Answer is. 34. it offers low resistance to current flow. are used for equipment wire in the unified system. NIL. Option A. . Option C. 37. Correct Answer is.caa. Option C. A fire resistant cable must maintain adequate insulation in a fire for. use a tooling hold between the assembly and cable.6).PDF . 39. Chap 4 pg 87. Knuckling is a problem on earlier aircraft cables due to. hot stamping of cables. the outer covering is cut back to expose the braided outer conductors. paragraph 4. Option C. When silver coated connectors are used in unpressurised parts of the aircraft. Explanation. page 5. red plague can occur. Option B. External document….5 (note the difference from a 'Fireproof' cable para 4.7. Option C. 30 minutes. Option B. Red Plague. Question Number. CAAIPs leaflet 11-5. Explanation. Option B. back-off the insulator and connect with conductor. The first step for the coaxial cable to attach to the end fitting is. Option A.co. 5 minutes. Option B. Option C. http://www. wires being pulled through too hard. too much flux. 10 minutes. Option A. Correct Answer is.Question Number. CAAIPs Leaflet 11-5 Para. red plague can occur. Question Number. wet track arcing can occur. Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd edition by EHJ Pallet. 36. separation of the coating can occur. 38. the outer covering is cut back to expose the braided outer conductors. wires being pulled through too hard. 5 minutes.uk/docs/33/AIL0140.8. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Which of the following types of electrical wire is likely to be used for connection of thermo-couples around the jet-pipe of a turbine engine?. Option B. Cable current ratings are based on a conductor temperature rise of 40 °C and if the maximum design ambient temperature is continuously exceeded they should be. which segment the cable is in. Option C. Fepsil. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. 43. there is no heat required. divide by the 'K' factor. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 83/4. halved. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Fepsil. the circuit function. Option C. Option A. multiplied by the 'K' factor. Tersil. . there is no heat required. Correct Answer is.Question Number. the quality of crimped joints will be constant. NIL. In the cable identification '2 P 215 A 28 N' the position of the letter P indicates. Option C. 40. multiplied by the 'K' factor. Correct Answer is. no flux is needed. Option C. Option A. 41. NIL. Question Number. The main reason why crimped joints are preferable to soldered joints is. Option B. Option A. that it is a Pneumatics system cable. 42. Nyvin. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Crimping terminals are colour coded. Question Number. 46. 44. more current. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-3 para 9. the same current. . 14 SWG is a bigger cross sectional area than 18 SWG. both the crimping tool and the size of the wire to be used. are fitted from the front but removed from the rear. Option A. Question Number. Option B. 45. Option A. Option B. Option B. A 14 SWG electrical cable when compared to a 18 SWG cable can carry.Correct Answer is. Direct removal connector pins are fitted from the rear. Option C. Option A. Explanation. 47. Aircraft Electrical System 3rd editin By EHJ Pallet. Airframe handbook page 449. Option A. both the crimping tool and the size of the wire to be used. Explanation. The colour indicates. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. the circuit function. as the fields due to current flow in the inner and outer cancel each other out. as they are able to handle high current. as they produce an electrostatic field around them which prevents HIRF interference. the wire size to be used with that crimp only. as the fields due to current flow in the inner and outer cancel each other out. and removed from the rear. Option C. last para on pg 86. Option B. less current. Explanation. the type of crimping tool to be used only. Correct Answer is. more current. Co-axial cables are used. AC65-15A A&P Mech. Question Number. NIL. Which of the following factors must be taken into account when determining the wire size to use for an aircraft installation?. at 1-foot intervals. 50. it should be secured along its entire length. current carrying capability of the conductor. Allowable power loss. at 2-foot intervals. Correct Answer is. current carrying capability of the conductor. Option C.Option C. Correct Answer is. and removed from the rear. Mechanical strength. wherever the cable sags. Question Number. Allowable power loss. 48. 49. OR Allowable power loss. permissible voltage drop. Option A. NIL. When installing coaxial cable. Grouped together to facilitate inspection. Question Number. Option B. Option A. resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure. allowable power loss. . type of load (continuous or intermittent). type of load (continuous or intermittent). Option A. current carrying capability of the conductor. Explanation. and removed from the front. Enclosed in a conduit. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. type of load (continuous or intermittent). allowable power loss. resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure. Mechanical strength. at 2-foot intervals. permissible voltage drop. permissible voltage drop. Option B. How should splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle?. permissible voltage drop. resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure. Option C. Option B. the power supply side of the circuit. AC 43 para. . The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is. splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses of installed wiring. Correct Answer is. When approved. the ground side of the circuit. Option C. either side of a circuit (makes no difference). Correct Answer is. three. Option B. Staggered along the length of the cable. Option B. crimping and soldering. soldering. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is.Option C. Explanation. Option A. 52. one. NIL. Correct Answer is. The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on. one. crimping. NIL. Explanation. NIL. 53. two. Question Number. 51. Option C. crimping. the ground side of the circuit. 11-167 (c). Question Number. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by. Staggered along the length of the cable. Option A. combined resistance and current-carrying capacity. In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers used to designate electrical wire sizes. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wires?. the ground side of the circuit. Option B. Option C. Explanation. 56. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible. Coaxial cables are routed at right angles to stringers and ribs. The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are. NIL. either side of a circuit (makes no difference). The socket section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop. current-carrying capacity. Correct Answer is. . NIL. Question Number. the system voltage and cable length. Correct Answer is. the voltage and amperage of the load it must carry. cross sectional area. Explanation. Option A. 57. Option B. cross sectional area. Option C. Option A. the number assigned to a size is related to its. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with stringers and ribs. Option A. current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop. Option A. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. 55. the power supply side of the circuit. Option B. 54. Option C. NIL. the power supply side of the circuit.Question Number. Option B. Option A. Question Number. Pearlite. Question Number. 1. the wires should be protected from chafing by. Cementite or Iron Carbide. formers. Correct Answer is. Option A. wrapping with plastic. NIL. NIL. Austenite. Option A. Pearlite. 2. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. . Martensite. Option C. Question Number. Option C. 58. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Cementite or Iron Carbide.Explanation. When carbon is fully dissolved in iron and therefore uniformly distributed in solid solution. Ferrite. Option B. using a suitable grommet. the metallurgical structure is called. Austenite. 12. Where electrical cables pass through holes in bulkheads. NIL. When one carbon atom chemically combines with 3 iron atoms. Option C. firewalls etc. using a suitable grommet. the result is called. Option B.. Correct Answer is. ribs. wrapping with electrical tape. Correct Answer is. ferrite and cementite. strong without being brittle.Question Number. Pearlite combines the properties of. Explanation. The amount of carbon necessary to produce a totally pearlitic structure is. Martensite. The properties of ferritic metal are that it is both.83%. Correct Answer is. Explanation. soft and weak. Option A. Explanation. Pearlite. Pearlite. 6. NIL. Correct Answer is. 4.83%. Option A. Question Number. NIL. Question Number. cementite and Martensite. 0. . Option C. Option C. 1. Explanation. soft and weak. Option C. martensite and iron carbide. Option B. 0. ferrite and cementite. Option A. 3. Option B.0%. NIL. Option B.83%. Cementite laminated with ferrite in alternate layers produces. Option C. 1. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Ferrite/Iron. strong but too hard and brittle. 5. NIL. NIL. soft and weak. strong but too and hard and brittle. Explanation.C.P and L. soft and weak. Option B. Eutectic Point. This hesitation is known as the. The properties of cementite metal are that it is both. Lower Critical Point. strong but too hard and brittle. Correct Answer is. strong without being brittle. Question Number. eutectic point. Question Number. hesitation point. Option A. strong without being brittle. The properties of pearlitic metal are that it is both. Option C. NIL. the point where the two meet is known as the. when talking about U. Option A. Option C. 7. Upper Critical Point. . strong but too hard and brittle. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is.P. Option B. strong without being brittle. When heating a straight carbon steel. there is a hesitation (slight pause) in the temperature rise before it increases a further 200oC. Correct Answer is.C.Question Number. 10. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. Lower Critical Point. 9. Option B. Option A. Referring to a iron/carbon phase diagram. Option C. 8. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL.Option C. . Explanation. point of no return. eutectic point.