IFR Study Questions1 Q: What are the instrument currency requirements? A: FAR 61.57 (c) (d). Within the preceding 6 calendar months, that person has completed 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking through the use of navigation systems either in flight in the appropriate category of aircraft being flown or a flight simulator or flight training device representative of the aircraft category for the instrument privileges being sought. If these are not done within the prescribed time or 6 months thereafter, the pilot must pass an instrument proficiency check in order to operate under IFR. A: FAR 61.57 (d). If a pilot does not meet the instrument experience requirements within the prescribed time or 6 months thereafter, the pilot must pass an instrument proficiency check before acting as PIC in IFR. The proficiency check must be in an aircraft in the appropriate category, flight simulator, or flight-training device representative of that category. A: An appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot's certificate. A: FAR 61.51 (g). Only flight time when the aircraft is operated solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated conditions. A: FAR 91.167 (b) (2). An alternate must be filed if at least 1 hr. before and 1 hr. after the ETA at the first intended point of landing, the ceiling will be less than 2,000' AGL and visibility is less than 3 SM. An alternate is also required if the destination airport has no IAP. A: FAR 91.169 (c). The airport minima specified, or, if none specified, 600'/2 SM for a precision approach, 800'/2SM for a non-precision approach. A: On NOS charts, a dark triangle with the letter "A" on the approach charts. On Jeppesen airport diagrams. A: FAR 91.175 (f). Under part 121, 125, 129, or 135, the minimums prescribed under part 97. If none are prescribed, the following applies: 2 engines or less - 1 SM visibility, greater than 2 engines 1/2 SM visibility. Part 91 operators need not comply with this regulation, although non-standard takeoff procedures require adherence. A: FAR 91.167 (a). Enough to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly from there to the alternate airport, and for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruising speed. A: AIM 5-2-6. Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all published departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of runway elevation, climbing to 400' above the departure end of the runway elevation before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200' per NM. Exceptions and/or variances are explained in published DP's. A: On NOS charts, a dark triangle with the letter "T" on the approach charts. 2 Q: What happens if a pilot allows his instrument currency to expire? 3 Q: Who can be a safety pilot? 4 Q: What is legally considered instrument flight time? 5 Q: When do you have to file an alternate? 6 Q: What are the standard alternate minimums? 7 Q: How can you tell if an airport has non-standard alternate minimums? 8 Q: What are the standard take-off minimums? 9 Q: What are the fuel requirements for an IFR flight? 10 Q: What is the standard take-off procedure? 11 Q: How can you tell if an airport has non-standard take-off minimums and procedures? Page 1 of 25 12 Q: What documents do you need on board an aircraft for it to be airworthy? A: AROW - Airworthiness certificate, Registration, Operations handbook, Weight and Balance information. A radio station license is required on international flights. A: FAR 91.171 (a). Within the preceding 30 days. 13 Q: How often must the VOR be checked for accuracy for IFR? 14 Q: What are the legal methods of checking VOR receiver accuracy and what are the tolerances for each? A: FAR 91.171 (b). VOT, ± 4°. Designated ground checkpoint, ± 4°. Designated airborne checkpoint, ± 6°. VOR radial along a prominent ground reference along the centerline of a designated airway and more than 20 miles from the VOR station, ± 6°. Dual VOR check tuned to the same VOR, within 4°. A: FAR 91.171, 91.409, 91.411, 91.413. VOR within preceding 30 days. An annual and 100 hr. inspection (if for hire). Pitot-static, altimeter, and transponder within the preceding 24 calendar months. A: A/FD or A/G voice communications on the low altitude enroute chart. 15 Q: Which inspections and what maintenance are required for IFR flight? 16 Q: Where can you find the frequency for a VOT check? 17 Q: How frequently should you check your altimeter setting? A: FAR 91.121 (a). Altimeter should be set to current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft. If no station is available, the current reported altimeter setting of an appropriate available station. A: AIM 5-1-13. You may cancel anytime the flight is in VFR conditions outside of class A airspace. If completing an IFR flight to an airport without an operating control tower, the pilot must initiate the closing of the flight plan by calling FSS or other means of direct communication with ATC. A: AIM 5-4-20 A visual approach can be initiated by ATC or the pilot. It is an IFR procedure and the reported weather must be 1,000'/3 SM. If the pilot has the airport in sight but not the aircraft to be followed, then ATC retains separation and wake turbulence responsibility. When following a preceding aircraft, the pilot assumes acceptance of the visual clearance and is responsible for separation. A: AIM 5-4-22. A contact approach must be requested by the pilot. Conditions must be at least 1 SM visibility, pilot is operating clear of clouds, and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions. ATC may authorize it provided ground visibility is greater than or equal to 1 SM, the airport has a standard or special instrument approach procedure, and separation is applied between aircraft so cleared and other IFR or special VFR aircraft. 18 Q: When can you cancel an IFR flight plan? 19 Q: What are the conditions for a visual approach? 20 Q: What are the conditions for a contact approach? Page 2 of 25 21 Q: Which reports do you have to make to ATC without a request when in radar contact? When not in radar contact? A: AIM 5-3-3 At all times: When leaving a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned altitude When changing altitude operating VFR on top When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 fpm When going missed approach Change in TAS of 5% or 10 knots from the filed TAS Time and altitude of reaching a holding fix or point where cleared When leaving a holding fix or point Any loss in controlled airspace of radio or navigation equipment Any info relating to safety of the flight Not in radar contact: When leaving a FAF/outer marker or fix inbound for final approach A corrected ETA if the error is over 3 minutes Un-forecast/hazardous weather; and Compulsory reporting points 22 Q: What is the minimum safe altitude (MSA) for IFR operations? A: Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1,000' of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility (usually 25 miles) upon which a procedure is predicated. These altitudes are for emergency use and do not guarantee acceptable nav signal coverage. A: FAR 91.215. Class A, B, and C airspace; in all airspace within 30 NM of an airport with a mode C veil, within and above the boundaries of class B or C airspace up to 10,000' MSL, and all airspace above 10,000' MSL except that airspace at or below 2,500' AGL. A: FAR 91.205. TOMATO FLAMES, FLAPS, CDART, GAS Tachometer Oil temp. gauge Magnetic compass Altimeter Temperature gauge (if liquid cooled) Oil pressure gauge Fuel gauge (for each engine/tank) Landing gear position lights Airspeed indicator Manifold pressure gauge ELT Safety belts Fuses (3 of each type) Landing light (if for hire) Anti-collision lights Position lights Source of electricity (adequate) Clock with seconds (must be installed) Directional gyro Attitude indicator Rate of turn indicator Two way radios and navigational equipment appropriate to the ground facilities being used (DME above FL240) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity Altimeter adjustable to pressure (sensitive) Slip/skid indicator 23 Q: When are you required to have a Mode C transponder? 24 Q: What instruments are required for IFR flight? Page 3 of 25 25 Q: How is an aircraft approach category determined? 26 Q: When is a procedure turn not to be authorized? A: 1.3 times Vso at max gross weight. A: Straight in approaches, holding patterns, DME arcs, radar vectored, when designated "NoPT", and timed approaches. A: The maximum holding speeds for all civil aircraft are: Up to 6,000' MSL - 200 kias from 6,001' to 14,000' MSL - 230 kias from 14,001' up - 265 kias Slowdown must be initiated 3 minutes before reaching the clearance limit that is an IAF. 27 Q: What is the maximum holding speed for reciprocating engine aircraft and when are you expected to effect the speed reduction? 28 Q: What procedure do you follow when you have diverted from your destination and your alternate has gone below alternate minimums? 29 Q: How wide is a victor airway? A: Continue unless minimums have gone below minimums for approach or request another diversion if possible. A: 4 NM each side of centerline. When an airway extends more than 51 NM from the nearest navaid, it includes the airspace between lines diverging at angle of 4.5° from centerline. These lines extend until they intersect the diverging lines from the navaid at the other end of the segment. A: Authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude within the block of airspace. Once you descend from an altitude and report, you may not go back to that altitude without further clearance. Cruise clearance also gives approval for making approach to a destination airport. A: Identification, position, time, altitude, position (over next reporting point), time, position (over following reporting point). 30 Q: What is a cruise clearance? 31 Q: What is the sequence of information given when making a routine report IFR in a non-radar environment? 32 Q: How often are the enroute charts and approach plates revised? 33 Q: What is the lost communication transponder code? A: Every 56 days. A: 7600 Page 4 of 25 34 Q: Explain in detail the lost communication procedure with regard to altitude, routes and holding. A: FAR 91.185 & AIM 6-4-1 VFR Conditions: Land as soon as practicable. IFR Conditions: Route - Last assigned; if being radar vectored by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route or airway specified in the clearance, in its absence, the advised EFC route; or in its absence, the route filed in the flight plan. Altitude - The highest of the following for the route being flown: MEA, EFC altitude, or altitude assigned in the last ATC clearance. Leave clearance limit - If the clearance limit is an IAF, descend as close as possible to the EFC time (if received) or the ETA in the flight plan. If the clearance limit is not an IAF, leave it at the EFC time (if received) or upon arrival over the limit and then direct to an IAF and commence descent and approach as close as possible to the ETA in the flight plan. 35 Q: If while enroute to your destination you lost your communication completely, and upon arrival at the airport you were forced to execute a missed approach, what would your next action be? 36 Q: Define MDA A: Go to the alternate immediately. ATC will have cleared the airport for 30 minutes only, and shooting multiple approaches or holding will create a problem. A: MDA - Minimum Descent Altitude. Used for non-precision approaches, is the lowest altitude to which descent is authorized on final or during circle-to-land approaches. A: DH - Decision Height or Decision Altitude (DA). Used for precision approaches, is the altitude at which a decision is made to continue the approach or do a missed approach procedure (i.e. you may descend below DA briefly while executing the missed approach). A: HAA - Height Above Airport. Height of MDA above the published airport elevation. Used in circling minimums. A: HAT - Height Above Touchdown. Height of the DA or MDA above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone. Used with straight-in minimums. A: TCH - Threshold Crossing Height. Theoretical height above the runway threshold at which the aircraft's glideslope antenna would be if the aircraft maintains the trajectory established by the mean ILS glideslope or MLS glidepath. A: NoPT - No Procedure Turn. None authorized in a full approach with "NoPT". A: TDZE - Touchdown Zone Elevation. Highest elevation in the first 3,000' of landing surface. A: Precision gives you glideslope information. 37 Q: Define DH 38 Q: Define HAA. 39 Q: Define HAT. 40 Q: Define TCH. 41 Q: Define NoPT. 42 Q: Define TDZE. 43 Q: What is the primary difference between a precision and non-precision approach? 44 Q: What is meant by the term "cleared for the option" when issued in an approach clearance? A: Used primarily in a training environment, it authorizes a stop & go, touch & go, full stop, etc. Published missed approach procedures are not to be carried out. Climb out instructions should be followed if doing a missed approach. Page 5 of 25 45 Q: When can you descend below the MDA or DH? A: FAR 91.175 (c) When the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. The flight visibility cannot be less than that prescribed in the approach briefing, and one of the following must be visible: Threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights REIL's VASI TDZ, TDZ markings, TDZL's Runway or its markings, or runway lights NOTE: the ALS may be in sight , but you may only descend to 100' above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference, unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable (ALSF-1 or ALSF-2 systems only). 46 Q: What are the components of the ILS system? 47 Q: What is a compass locator? 48 Q: What is an ASR approach? A: Localizer, glideslope, marker beacons and ALS. A: An NDB co-located at the outer marker or a middle marker. A: ASR - Airport Surveillance Radar. Approach control radar used to detect and display an aircraft's position in the terminal area. ASR provides range and azimuth information but does not provide elevation data. Coverage of the ASR can extend up to 60 miles. A: PAR - Precision Approach Radar. Primary radar equipment used to determine the position of an aircraft during final approach, in terms of lateral and vertical deviations relative to a normal approach path, and in range relative to touchdown. A: A radar approach/vector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyrocompass or directional gyro. Instead of providing the pilot with headings to be flown, the controller observes the radar track and issues control instructions "turn right/left" or "stop turn" as appropriate. A: Approaches with an "A" or "B" designation means that the approach is not aligned within 30 degrees of the final approach course. They are circling approaches. A: A fix permitting additional descent within a segment of an instrument approach procedure by identifying a point at which a controlling obstacle has been safely overflown. A: No. 49 Q: What is a PAR approach? 50 Q: What is an no-gyro approach? 51 Q: What does the term VOR-A and VOR-B mean on the approach plate margin? 52 Q: Explain a step-down fix. 53 Q: Does an aircraft on an instrument flight plan making an instrument approach in VFR conditions have the right-of-way or priority over other VFR traffic? 54 Q: When reporting missed approach, what procedure do you follow and what information do you give? A: Advise ATC upon reaching the missed approach point that you are going missed, and execute the missed approach instructions for the procedure being used, or alternate instructions given by ATC. Advise ATC of your intentions. A: When radar is required on the approach plate and to expedite traffic. 55 Q: When will radar be used to assist an instrument approach? Page 6 of 25 56 Q: Where is the missed approach executed when the approach facility is on the field; and how do you time the approach? 57 Q: What is the maximum recommended allowable altimeter error for IFR? 58 Q: What is the maximum recommended allowable precession error in the DG for IFR? 59 Q: What are the allowable errors for the attitude indicator and how long is the gyro allowed to stabilize? 60 Q: Does it matter where a VOT check is performed? Can it be done in the air? 61 Q: After approach says, "Turn left heading 230, expect ILS 5 approach", two-way radio communication failure is experienced, what is your next action? 62 Q: What is the procedure for timing the outbound leg of a holding pattern when holding at a VOR, NDB or an intersection? A: At station passage. Timing is not required. A: ± 75' A: No more than 3° in 15 minutes. A: 5° in a turn while taxiing, and 5 minutes to stabilize. A: A VOT check can only be performed as published in the A/FD, whether a ground or airborne checkpoint. A: AIM 6-4-1. Squawk 7600, proceed direct to the IAF and complete the full approach if in IMC. A: AIM 5-3-7. Outbound timing begins over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position cannot be determined, start timing when turn to outbound is completed. For VOR watch for to/from flip. For NDB's watch for the ADF needle to point to the wingtip, or the tail of the ADF needle to point 90° from the inbound bearing. A: When approaching from the parallel sector, the parallel entry procedure would be to turn to a heading parallel to the holding course outbound on the non-holding side for one minute, turn in the direction of the holding pattern through more than 180°, and return to the holding fix or intercept the holding course inbound. A: When approaching from the direct sector, the direct entry would be to fly directly to the fix and turn to follow the holding pattern. A: When approaching from the teardrop sector the procedure is to fly to the fix, turn outbound to a heading for a 30° teardrop entry within the pattern on the holding side for 1 minute, then turn in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound holding course. A: The chart is valid up to 17,999' but the maximum cruising altitude is 17,000'. A: HAT, HAA, and TCH. 63 Q: Explain the procedure for entering a holding pattern with a parallel entry. 64 Q: Explain the procedure for entering a holding pattern with a direct entry. 65 Q: Explain the procedure for entering a holding pattern with a teardrop entry. 66 Q: What is the maximum altitude you can fly in reference to the IFR low altitude enroute charts? 67 Q: What are the three AGL altitudes on the approach plates? 68 Q: Explain the sensing on the ILS, front and back course, inbound and outbound. A: Front course sensing - follow glideslope indication at the proper altitude, and when tracking inbound, direct sensing occurs. Outbound, reverse sensing occurs. Back course sensing - Ignore the glideslope indications, and when tracking inbound, reverse sensing occurs. Outbound, direct sensing occurs. NOTE: Doesn’t apply to an HSI. Page 7 of 25 69 Q: How would you correct for a fly up or fly down error while on an ILS approach? A: Small adjustments will require small pitch changes. Larger adjustments may require power changes. Fly towards the glideslope indicators. A: Glideslope interception. A: MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude - Lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements (2000' above highest obstacle within 4 NM of course to be flown in mountainous areas; 1000' above highest obstacle within 4 NM of course to be flown elsewhere). A: MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - Lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigation signal coverage within 22 NM of a VOR. A: MAA- Maximum Authorized Altitude. Published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment that provides adequate reception of navigation aid signals. A: MRA - Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be identified. A: MCA - Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude (MEA). A: The symbol ------| |------ 70 Q: What is the FAF on a precision approach? 71 Q: Define MEA. 72 Q: Define MOCA. 73 Q: Define MAA. 74 Q: Define MRA. 75 Q: Define MCA. 76 Q: What symbol on the chart indicates a change in MEA, MOCA or MAA? 77 Q: Explain the term "straight-in" vs. circling minimums. 78 Q: What is Tower Enroute Control (TEC)? A: Straight in minimums require that the runway be aligned within 30° of the approach, otherwise circling minimums apply. A: AIM 4-1-18. It is an ATC program to provide service to aircraft proceeding to and from metropolitan areas by using designated approach control areas linked by a network of identified routes. It is generally for non-turbojet aircraft at and below 10,000' MSL that are on flights of 2 hours or less. TEC information can be found in the A/FD when applicable. A: Approaches at busy airports to expedite traffic. The follow must apply: Control tower in operation, direct communication maintained between the pilot and the center or approach controller until pilot is instructed to contact tower, if more than one missed approach none require course reversal, if only one missed approach then no course reversal and visibility and ceiling are above prescribed circling minimums, no procedure turn is authorized when cleared for the approach. A: A visual maneuver accomplished by a pilot at the completion of an instrument approach to permit a straight in landing on a parallel runway not more than 1,200' to either side of the runway to which the instrument approach was conducted. It is used in case of traffic or other hazards on the approach runway. 79 Q: What is a timed approach? 80 Q: What is a side-step maneuver and why would you have to do such a maneuver? Page 8 of 25 81 Q: You are on a circling approach and have started your circling maneuver when you suddenly lose sight of the runway environment, how should you execute your missed approach? 82 Q: What it a visual descent point? A: AIM 5-4-19. The pilot should make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course. A: A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight in approach procedure from which a normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided identifiable markings at the approach end of the runway are clearly visible to the pilot. A: Middle marker - PAR or compass locator. Outer marker - PAR, ASR, NDB, VOR or DME. A: At altitudes from 1,000' - 4,500', 35° within 10 NM then 10° out to 18 NM. 83 Q: What can you use as substitutions for inoperable components on an ILS approach? 84 Q: What are the limits of the area where you can receive proper course guidance from the localizer? 85 Q: What is an LDA? A: LDA - Localizer Type Directional aid. A navaid used for nonprecision instrument approaches with utility and accuracy comparable to a localizer but which is not a part of a complete ILS and is not aligned with the runway. A: SDF - Simplified Directional Facility. A navaid used for non-precision instrument approaches. The final approach course is similar to that of an ILS localizer except that the SDF course may be offset from the runway, generally not more than 3°, and the course may be wider than the localizer, resulting in a lower degree of accuracy. A: Outer Marker - Blue, 2 kHz, dashes Middle Marker - Amber, 3 kHz, dashes and dots Inner Marker - White, 6 kHz, dots A: HSI - Glideslope indicator for pitch, CDI for bank. OBS - VSI for pitch, DG for bank. 86 Q: What is an SDF? 87 Q: What are the names, colors, and identifiers for the marker beacons? 88 Q: What are the primary instruments for pitch and bank during a descent on the glideslope of an ILS approach? 89 Q: Is an alternate static source required for IFR flight? 90 Q: What are the standard IFR clearance items? A: Only if flying for hire. A: CRAFT - Clearance, Route, Altitude, Frequency, and Transponder code. A: Must be requested by a pilot on an IFR flight plan, and if approved, the pilot assumes the following responsibilities: Fly at appropriate VFR altitudes, comply with VFR visibility and distance from clouds, comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to this flight (minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearance, etc.), and should advise ATC prior to any altitude change to ensure the exchange of accurate traffic information. A: AIM 2-1-5. Touchdown Zone Lights - Installed on some precision runways and are composed of two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. They are steady burning white lights, which start 100' beyond the landing threshold and extend to 3,000' beyond the landing threshold or midpoint of the runway, whichever is less. 91 Q: Explain the "VFR-on top" clearance. 92 Q: What is TDZL? Page 9 of 25 93 Q: If a runway has RCLS, how are the lights configured? A: AIM 2-1-5. RCLS are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50' intervals. When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000' of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000', and for the last 1,000' of the runway, all centerline lights are red. A: An accident or any of the following incidents: Flight control system malfunction, injury or sickness of flight crew member, failure of structural components of a turbine engine, excluding compressor or blades, in flight fire, collision in flight, $25,000 damage to property other than aircraft, aircraft overdue and believed to have been involved in an accident. A: Accident - 10 days. Incident - If requested. Missing aircraft - 7 days. A: An uninterrupted descent from cruising altitude to interception of a glideslope or to a minimum altitude specified for the initial or intermediate approach segment of a non-precision instrument approach. A: Terminal 1,000' to 12,000' and 25 NM Low Altitude 1,000' to 18,000' and 40 NM High Altitude 1,000' to 14,500' and 40 NM 14,500' to 18,000' and 100 NM 18,000' to 45,000' and 130 NM 45,000 to 60,000' and 100 NM. 94 Q: What requires immediate notification to the NTSB? 95 Q: The NTSB requires what follow up reports? 96 Q: What is a profile descent? 97 Q: What are the different VORs and what are their service volumes? 98 Q: What are the different NDBs and what are their service volumes? A: Compass Locator - 15 NM MH - 25 NM H - Up to 50 NM HH - 70 NM A: Within 40 miles of a radar site, 3 NM separation. Otherwise 5 NM. 99 Q: What are the standard IFR separation standards? 100 Q: What are the altimeter setting procedures? A: When below 18,000' MSL: If less than 31.00" Hg, set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft. If pressure is above 31.00" Hg, then set to 31.00" and consult the NOTAM procedures. Over 18,000" set the altimeter to 29.92" to read pressure altitude. A: Air Defense Identification Zone. Requirements to transition through it include a flight plan, 2-way radio, if transponder is equipped, then it must be on and position reports must be made. A: AIM 2-1-4. Runway edge lights are white except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000' or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings. A: All aircraft except: Jet, scheduled flights, training within 50 NM of a base airport, design and testing, new aircraft being delivered, crop dusters, research and development, and single seat aircraft. 101 Q: What is the ADIZ and what is required to pass through it? 102 Q: What color are the runway edge lights on an instrument runway? 103 Q: Who must have an ELT? Page 10 of 25 104 Q: What is a warning area? A: AIM 3-4-4. Airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 nm outward from the coast of the US that contains activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. A: ...an altimeter. 105 Q: When both the pitot tube and drain hole are blocked, the ASI acts like... 106 Q: When both the pitot tube and drain hole are blocked, what effect will a climb or descent have on the airspeed indicator? 107 Q: If the alternate static source is used, what will happen to the static pressure and why? 108 Q: What happens to the VSI if the static ports become blocked? 109 Q: What happens to true airspeed as the outside air temperature increases? 110 Q: What does the altimeter read when a local altimeter setting is used and the aircraft is on the ground? 111 Q: How much does atmospheric pressure decrease (approx.) for every 1,000' of elevation? 112 Q: If a current altimeter setting is not available at the time of departure, what may be used as a substitute? 113 Q: Above 18,000' what is the setting in the Kohlsman window of the altimeter and why? 114 Q: If an aircraft flies from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure without adjusting the altimeter the indicated altitude will read... 115 Q: How long should you allow the attitude indicator to become erect? 116 Q: What information does the turn coordinator give? A: A climb will show a rise in airspeed and a descent will show a decrease in airspeed because the gauge is acting as an altimeter. A: The static pressure will be lower because of the venturi effect on the cockpit. A: It will stabilize and not show any change in a climb or descent because the change in air pressure can't be detected. A: It increases. A: True altitude at field elevation. A: 1" Hg. A: Departure airport elevation. A: 29.92" to read pressure altitude. Above FL180, all aircraft are flying pressure altitudes. A: ...higher than the true altitude. "High to low, look out below!" A: 5 minutes. A: Rate of roll and rate of turn. The inclinometer (ball) shows the quality/coordination (i.e. slip/skid) of the turn. A: Once every 30 seconds at 1350 Hz 117 Q: If the VOR is out of service, but the DME is working, how often will you hear it's ID? 118 Q: What indicates passage of a VOR station? 119 Q: At 30 NM out from a VOR, one dot deflection represents how many miles off course? At 60 NM out? 120 Q: What is required for a PIC to operate under IFR, or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR flight? A: A complete reversal of the TO/FROM indicator. A: 30 NM - one dot = 1 NM off course 60 NM - one dot = 2 NM off course A: An instrument rating. Page 11 of 25 121 Q: What must the PIC familiarize himself with before beginning an IFR flight? A: DWARF Delays (ATC) Weather conditions Alternate Airports Runway information Fuel requirements 122 Q: If you deviate from an ATC clearance in an emergency, what must be done. 123 Q: What should you do if while in flight a distress situation is encountered? 124 Q: What must be done if an aircraft's transponder fails in class D airspace? 125 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for Class B airspace? A: Notify ATC ASAP. A: The pilot should immediately declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance. A: Nothing, it is not required in class D airspace. A: Flight Visibility - 3 SM Distance from Clouds Clear of clouds. 126 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for Class C airspace? A: Flight Visibility - 3 SM Distance from Clouds 500' below 1,000' above 2,000' horizontally 127 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for Class D airspace? A: Flight Visibility - 3 SM Distance from Clouds 500' below 1,000' above 2,000' horizontally 128 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for Class E airspace? A: At or below 10,000' MSL Flight Visibility - 3 SM Distance from Clouds - 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontally At or above 10,000 MSL Flight Visibility - 5 SM Distance from Clouds - 1000' below, 1,000' above, 1 SM horizontally 129 Q: What are the basic VFR weather minimums for Class G airspace? A: 1,200' or less AGL Day - 1 SM, Clear of clouds Night - 3 SM, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal More than 1,200' AGL but less than 10,000' MSL Day - 1 SM, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal Night - 3 SM, 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal More than 1,200 AGL and over 10,000' MSL 5 SM, 1,000' above, 1,000' below, 1 SM horizontal 130 Q: What are the requirements for special VFR? A: 1 SM visibility and ability to remain clear of clouds. At night, only IFR rated pilots in an IFR equipped aircraft can request them. A: Enough fuel to make it to the intended airport, then fly to the alternate airport (if required), then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruise. 131 Q: What fuel reserves are required for an IFR flight? Page 12 of 25 132 Q: What are the minimums required for listing an airport without an instrument approach as an alternate? 133 Q: What are the oxygen requirements between 12,500' and 14,000'? Between 14,000' and 15,000'? Above 15,000'? A: The weather forecast must allow a descent from the MEA , approach, and landing under basic VFR. A: 12,500' - 14,000' Pilots can fly for up to 30 minutes without supplemental oxygen. If the flight lasts longer than 30 minutes at that altitude, the crew must use supplemental oxygen. 14,000' - 15,000' The required crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for the entire time. Above 15,000' All crew must use oxygen and passenger must be provided oxygen for their use. 134 Q: If an aircraft doesn't have a transponder, how long in advance must the pilot request a deviation? 135 Q: What is the NTSB part that covers accident and incident reporting responsibilities? 136 Q: What is the distance from the runway threshold to the fixed distance markers? 137 Q: What is the distance from the runway threshold to the TDZ marker? 138 Q: What is the distance from the beginning of the TDZ marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker? 139 Q: What information does a VASI provide? A: 1 hour. A: NTSB 830 A: 1,000' A: 500' A: 500' A: Only glide path guidance and safe obstruction clearance within ± 10° of the extended centerline from as far as 4 NM from the threshold. It does not provide information on alignment with the runway. A: Information for all navigation facilities that are part of the National Airspace System (NAS) and all public airports in the A/FD. A: It includes such data as runway closures, personnel or equipment near or crossing runways, beacon outages, and lighting aids not affecting instrument approach criteria, such as VASI. A: It is a temporary or permanent regulatory change published as needed by the National Flight Data Center (FDC). FDC NOTAMS advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures, and amended aeronautical charts and flight restrictions prior to normal publication. A: A flight plan that is part VFR and part IFR. A: It implies that a ceiling of more than 5,000' and visibility of more than 5 SM exist. A: IFR weather exists. 140 Q: What does a distant NOTAM(D) contain? 141 Q: What does a local NOTAM(L) contain? 142 Q: What is an FDC NOTAM and what does it contain? 143 Q: What is a composite flight plan? 144 Q: What does the absence of sky condition and visibility from the ATIS imply? 145 Q: What does the operation of an airport beacon during the day mean? Page 13 of 25 146 Q: What altitude should you enter on the flight plan for a plan that has different altitudes for different legs? 147 Q: If a clearance contains a void time, but that time has passed before you were able to take off, what should be done? 148 Q: What does minimum fuel mean to ATC? A: The altitude for the first leg. A: Advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes after the void time if a decision is made not to take off. A: It is an advisory to ATC that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur. A: Advise ATC and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made. A: 4 NM radius and 2,500' AGL. A: 5 NM radius, SFC - 4,000 AGL 10 NM radius, 1,200' - 4,000 AGL A: Ceilings less than 1,000' and/or visibility less than 3 SM 149 Q: What should you do if you lose your transponder above FL240? 150 Q: What are the normal limits for class D airspace? 151 Q: What are the normal limits for class C airspace? 153 Q: What conditions (Ceiling & Visibility) are considered IFR? 154 Q: What conditions (Ceiling & Visibility) are considered MVFR? 155 Q: What conditions (Ceiling & Visibility) are considered VFR? 156 Q: What is RVR? A: Ceiling 1,000' - 3,000' and/or visibility 3-5 SM A: Ceilings greater than 3,000' and/or visibility greater than 5 SM A: RVR - Runway Visual Range. An instrumentally derived value that represents the horizontal distance the pilot can see down the runway from the approach end. The transmissometer (which determines the distance) is located near the touchdown point on instrument runways, and reports in hundreds of feet. A: 1/2 SM, or 2400 RVR. A: Continue the approach to the MAP, at or above the MDA/DA, before executing any turns. A: The outer compass locator (LOM) transmits the first two letters of the localizer and the middle compass locator (LMM) transmits the last two letters. A: Continue the approach using the VASI, and report the malfunction to ATC. 157 Q: What are the normal ILS visibility minimums? 158 Q: What should you do if executing the missed approach before reaching the MAP? 159 Q: Which two letters of the localizer does an outer compass locator (LOM) transmit? The middle compass locator (LMM)? 160 Q: What should you do if while on an ILS approach, you lose the signal, but you have the VASI in sight. 161 Q: What effect does groundspeed have on descent rates? 162 Q: When cleared for an approach, does/can the pilot execute a procedure turn? 163 Q: What is the minimum navigational equipment for a VOR/DME approach? A: If your groundspeed increases, the descent rate increases. If your groundspeed decreases, the descent rate decreases. A: No. A: One VOR receiver and DME. Page 14 of 25 164 Q: What do you put in the remarks section of the flight plan if you don't want to use published DP's or STAR's? 165 Q: If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is not available, can you still use a GPS approach? 166 Q: What are the requirements for an alternate when using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches? 167 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal "Steady Green" mean? 168 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal "Flashing Green" mean? 169 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal "Steady Red" mean? 170 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal "Flashing Red" mean? 171 Q: While in flight, what does the light gun signal "Alternating Red & Green" mean? 172 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun signal "Alternating Red & Green" mean? 173 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun signal "Flashing White" mean? 174 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun signal "Flashing Red" mean? 175 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun signal "Steady Red" mean? 176 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun signal "Flashing Green" mean? 177 Q: While on the ground, what does the light gun signal "Steady Green" mean? 178 Q: What is a feeder route? 179 Q: When is the flight crew required to wear shoulder harnesses? 180 Q: What is wind shift and pressure change indicative of? 181 Q: Is wind direction given in ATIS reports magnetic or true? A: No DP's and STAR's. A: No. You have to select a different form of navigation and approach. A: Any alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, other than GPS, which is anticipated to be in use at the ETA, and which the airplane is equipped to fly. A: Cleared to land. A: Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time). A: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling. A: Airport unsafe - do not land. A: Exercise extreme caution. A: Exercise extreme caution. A: Return to starting point on airport. A: Taxi clear of runway in use. A: Stop. A: Cleared to taxi. A: Cleared for takeoff. A: A transition from the enroute phase to the IAF. A: During take-off and landing. A: A frontal passage. A: Magnetic. Page 15 of 25 182 Q: What weather is associated with a cold front? A: Unstable air, cumuliform clouds, turbulent air, good visibility and showery precipitation. A: Stable air, stratiform clouds and fog, smooth air, fair to poor visibility in haze and smoke, steady precipitation. A: If you are already established on the final segment. 183 Q: What weather is associated with a warm front? 184 Q: When can you continue an approach after the weather has gone below minimums for that approach? 185 Q: When climbing or descending to a new altitude, at what rate should this be done? A: At an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to within 1,000' of the assigned altitude, and then attempt to climb or descend at a rate of 500-1,500 FPM until the assigned altitude is reached. A: 1800 RVR. 186 Q: On an ILS approach with centerline lighting and touchdown zone lighting available, the standard minimum of 2400 RVR can be reduced to what value? 187 Q: How far behind a heavy jet should a small aircraft be? 188 Q: What is the frequency range in which localizers operate? 189 Q: What are the required read backs to ATC? A: At least 5 NM. A: 108.10 - 111.95 MHz (odd tenth's) A: Headings, Altimeter Setting, Leaving Altitude and New Altitude, Frequencies A: Type (UA/UUA), Location, Time, Flt. Level, Aircraft, Wx A: Below 14,000' - 1 minute Above 14,000' - 1 1/2 minutes A: Thunderstorms, Rain, Interference, Coast Line, Night, Mountain A: Ceilings less than 500' and/or Visibility less than 1 SM. 190 Q: What is the required information for a PIREP? 191 Q: How long should holding legs be? 192 Q: What are the ADF errors? 193 Q: What conditions (Ceiling & Visibility) are considered LIFR? 194 Q: What is the rule of thumb for leveling off at an altitude? 195 Q: What is the rule of thumb for leading a roll out. 196 Q: What is the rule of thumb for less than 100' of altitude adjustment? 197 Q: What is the rule of thumb for more than 100' of altitude adjustment? 198 Q: What are the rules of thumb for a 100 RPM/1" Hg change in engine power? 199 Q: What is the rule of thumb for a standard rate turn? A: 10% of VSI. A: Half the bank angle. A: 1/2 bar width pitch. A: Full bar width pitch. A: 100 fpm descent/climb or ± 5 KIAS A: Bank angle equal to 15% of TAS. Page 16 of 25 200 Q: What is the rule of thumb for figuring how far out to begin a 3° glidepath descent? 201 Q: What is the rule of thumb for figuring the rate of descent for a 3° glide path? 202 Q: What are the 4 S's of aircraft control? 203 Q: What is the frequency range used for VORs? 204 Q: What are the operational principles of a VOR? A: Altitude to be lost/300 = Distance A: Ground Speed/2 and add a zero on the end. A: Soon, Small, Slow, Smooth (Don't forget to trim!) A: 108.0 - 117.95 MHz (Localizers use 108.1 to 111.95 - odd tenths) A: A. Line of sight operation B. Two signals transmitted (reference and variable); reference beam is a 360° continuous cone, while variable beam rotates continuously at 1800 RPM around the reference signal. Location is defined by use of phase difference between the two signals. The two signals are in phase at 360° magnetic. Receiver measures phase difference. Degree of phase difference is based on the variable signal's position in relation to reference signal. C. Course/radials are referenced to magnetic north. 205 Q: What are some errors related to VORs? A: Course Bends - needle moves slower than normal Course Scalloping - needle moves faster than normal (scalloping sounds like galloping) Fluctuations up to 6° can be caused by certain RPM settings. Note: VOR is NOT affected by weather, electrical and atmospheric disturbances. 206 Q: What is the frequency range of an NDB? A: 190 - 535 KHz. (except for compass locators, all transmit a 3 letter ID Morse code.) "W" indicates no voice capability for the beacon. A: Since there is no "flag" to warn the pilot when erroneous bearing information is being displayed, the pilot should continuously monitor the NDB's identification. A: Two antenna receivers (sense and loop); when loop is parallel to signal, a max induced voltage difference between two sides of loop received; when loop is perpendicular to signal, a minimum and equal voltage differences between two sides exists. Due to ambiguity (behind or ahead, left or right), a separate sense antenna is necessary to eliminate ambiguity. The loop antenna senses direction by comparison of voltages. A: The position of the plane of the loop in reference to the station determines the induced voltages in the sides of the loop and the strength of the signal received through the antenna. Maximum signal strength is received when there is a maximum difference in the induced voltages in the sides of the loop. Plane of loop parallel to direction of wave travel. Minimum signal strength exists when equal voltages are induced in both sides of the loop simultaneously. Thus, loop antenna senses direction by comparison of voltages. It cannot determine if signal is coming from behind or ahead or left or right (no ambiguity) A: Since the loop antenna cannot discern between front/back and left/right, a sense antenna (vertical wire that receives from all directions) is combined with the loop antenna for ambiguity. 207 Q: Why must you constantly monitor an NDB when using it for navigation? 208 Q: What are the operating principles of an NDB? 209 Q: How does a loop antenna on an ADF work? 210 Q: How does a sense antenna on an ADF work? Page 17 of 25 211 Q: What does "BFO" on the ADF radio mean? A: Beat Frequency Oscillator (underlined identifiers on JEPP products). BFO is required to hear Morse code identifiers in some countries. A: Aircraft equipment transmits (interrogates) paired RF pulses to ground transponder. Ground transponder returns same RF pulse pair with same spacing but on a different frequency. The DME unit times the round trip and reports a distance in NM. A: The distance reported by a DME unit is slant range, not horizontal range; therefore, DME is only accurate when you are farther from the station in nautical miles than you are in thousands of feet of altitude. For example, if you are cruising at FL240, DME is inaccurate within 24 DME due to slant range error. However, DME will tell you your altitude in NM, when you are directly above the station. In the above example, directly above the station your DME readout will be 4 DME (4 NM x 6000'; 6000'/nm) A: UHF 962 - 1213 MHz. Military aircraft equipped with TACAN will receive distance information from a TACAN or VORTAC automatically. Civil aircraft must have a separate/independent interrogator which utilizes VHF frequency pairing. When a ground TACAN or DME station is not paired with a VOR geographically, its "ghost" VOR/VHF frequency is charted on enroute charts (VHF frequency pairing). In this case, the airborne equipment must be switched from "remote" to "frequency" for manual tuning. "Remote" slaves the DME interrogator to whatever is tuned into the navigation radios (freq. Pairing). A: One time for each three or four times that the VOR or LOC coded ID is transmitted. About every 30 seconds. A: It may become overloaded and signal update delays are possible. 212 Q: How does DME work? 213 Q: In regards to DME, what does slant range mean? What are the errors associated with it? 214 Q: What is the frequency range of DME? How does an aircraft send/receive signals? 215 Q: How often is the DME coded identification transmitted? 216 Q: What happens if there are many users of the same DME ground station? 217 Q: Where is the localizer for an ILS approach located on the airfield? 218 Q: How wide is the course of an ILS localizer at the runway threshold? 219 Q: What letter precedes the ID of all ILS localizers? 220 Q: What are the frequencies of the two "lobes" that are used in a localizer? 221 Q: How does the VOR receiver get glideslope information. 222 Q: Where is the glideslope transmitter located? How wide is the beam? A: 1,000' from the far end of runway along extended centerline. A: 700'. 350' to either side of center at full scale deflection. A: I ".." A: Right side - 150 Hz Left side - 90 Hz A: Through a UHF frequency paired with its associated VHF localizer frequency. A: Between 750' and 1,250' from the approach end of the runway and offset 250' to 650' from the runway centerline. It transmits a glide path beam 1.4° wide. A: Bottom - 150 Hz (0.7° bottom lobe transmits 150Hz) Top - 90 Hz 223 Q: What are the frequencies of the two "lobes" that are used by the glideslope? Page 18 of 25 224 Q: What is the normal projection angle of a glideslope and where (altitude) does it usually cross the middle and outer markers? What is the normal glideslope range? 225 Q: When should you disregard the glideslope information? A: Projection angle is normally 3° so that it intersect that MM at about 200' and the OM at about 1,400' above the runway elevation. Normal glide slope range is 10 NM. A: When at angles considerable greater than the published path (False courses) and when on a localizer back course approach (they are non-precision anyway). A: 10 NM - 1,500' 1 NM - 150' Threshold - 1' 226 Q: What is the thickness of an ILS glideslope at 10 NM? At 1 NM? At the threshold? 227 Q: What is the BC marker? A: A white light with the Morse code for I twice ".. ..". It signifies the back-course FAF. A: When Wx is 800' ceiling and 2 miles visibility. A: Delay, separate traffic, weather, missed approaches. A: Right turns. 228 Q: When are ILS critical areas active? 229 Q: Why use holding patterns? 230 Q: What is the standard direction for turns in a holding pattern? 231 Q: What does an BFR (Biennial Flight Review) consist of? A: At least 1 hour of ground instruction and 1 hour of flight instruction. FAR 61.56: must be accomplished once for every 24 calendar month period. Results in a logbook endorsement by a CFI. You cannot lose your license from a failed BFR, you just don't get the endorsement until you satisfy the CFI. Note: the clock starts over for an applicant who has satisfactorily completed a test for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege. 232 Q: What recency of experience is necessary in order to carry passengers? A: FAR 91.57: Recent pilot experience, PIC. Within the preceding 90 days, 3 takeoffs and landings in the same category and class. Night: 1 hr after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise, 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop in the same category and class. A: Always check for preferred routes. Check for prohibited and restricted airspace as well as MOAs and consider placing a call to FSS to see if these areas will be hot/affect your flight. Check the NAVAIDS you are planning on using in the A/FD to ensure they will be useable. Also check for any NOTAMS affecting possible routing/MEAs. Check for DPs/STARs. For direct routes, ensure that full radar coverage/controlled airspace covers the route. Be cognizant of extensive overwater routes, high terrain. A: Save altitude selection until towards the end of the flight planning problem so that you may get the most current winds and temperatures aloft data. Use winds aloft to look for favorable winds/tailwinds. Look at temperatures aloft for TAS computation and passenger comfort. Do you have an oxygen system in place for aircrew/passengers? In not, place "NO OXYGEN" on your IFR flight plan and plan to stay below 12,500' (lower at night). Consider terrain elevations and MEAs along the route. Consider how much distance is involved; with long flights you might as well climb high if it proves beneficial. There is no point in climbing high for a very short flight. Consider passenger comfort. 233 Q: What are some things to consider when planning an IFR route? 234 Q: What are some things to consider when selecting an altitude for an IFR flight plan? Page 19 of 25 235 Q: How long after you file a flight plan with a FSS will it remain active before being "kicked out" of the system? 236 Q: What are the different methods for filing a flight plan. 237 Q: What is the procedure for receiving a IFR clearance at an uncontrolled field? A: 1 hour after proposed departure time on the flight plan. A: Call a FSS at 1-800-WXBRIEF. File online at duats. Contact a FSS on the ground through a RCO. Contact a FSS in the air. A: At an uncontrolled field, when you call the FSS to file your flight plan, you will get an IFR clearance as well, but it will have a void time. At busy fields, the void time will be in about 10 minutes; at quiet fields there will be a little more time. Thus, it is important to have all the passengers and luggage loaded and everything ready to go before calling FSS to file/receive clearance. A: Contact clearance delivery or ground control. (Not all airports have clearance delivery or it's not always active) A: At controlled fields it is automatically done for you. At uncontrolled fields, you can call a FSS or ATC on the telephone upon landing (within 30 minutes) or you can cancel with ATC/FSS on the radio once you have the destination airport in sight visually. This allows more traffic into the airport sooner. A: MVA - Minimum Vectoring Altitude. Can be lower than MEA/MOCA. Provides 3 miles of obstruction clearance and 1,000' nonmountainous and 2,000' mountainous. A: Taken twice daily by sounding balloons. Information provided by sounding balloons: temperatures, humidity, pressure, winds and freezing level. With regard to upper air observations, PIREPS are still the only "direct" information for turbulence, icing and cloud tops. A: Standard (within 6 hours) Outlook (more than 6 hours away) Abbreviated (to supplement information) A: Hourly surface observations. Taken before the top of each hour. A SPECI is issued whenever warranted (when there is a significant change) Sky cover is in eighths A: Radar reports are transmitted at 35 minutes past the hour and contains data that is used in preparing the graphic radar summary chart (via a grid and VIP). W is short for rain showers. Slashes separate azimuth and range information for returns from either a VOR or a station/airport. XX = extreme, X = intense, + = heavy, D = Diameter, A = Area, L = Line, C = Cell 238 Q: How do you receive IFR clearance at a controlled airfield? 239 Q: What are the methods for closing an IFR flight plan? 240 Q: Define MVA. 241 Q: What information is derived from upper air observations and how often are measurements taken? 242 Q: What are the three types of briefings that a pilot can request from a FSS briefer/DUATS? 243 Q: What are METARs and how often are they issued? What's a SPECI and when is it issued? 244 Q: What is a radar report and when is it issued? 245 Q: What are the two types of satellite imagery and when is it retrieved? 246 Q: What is a TAF? How often are they issued? How long are they valid? A: Visual and infrared. Images are received every 30 minutes. A: Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts. Issued 4 times daily, with each covering a 24 hour period. (0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z). Sky cover is in eighths. Page 20 of 25 247 Q: What is included in an Area Forecast (FA)? How often are they issued? How long are they valid? A: Area Forecasts (FA) forecast enroute weather and forecast conditions for airports that do not have TAF reporting capability. Hazardous weather is included in SIGMETS/AIRMETS/CONV. SIGMETS. Issued 3 times daily for 6 separate multi-state geographical areas. 18 hour synopsis: location and movement of fronts and pressure systems, ceilings, visibility and winds. 12 hour VFR clouds and weather. Breakdown by state: Visibility, precipitation, thunderstorm activity, winds greater than 20 knots. 6 hour outlook: a general outlook statement for expected conditions. This is attached at the end of the VFR clouds and weather section. 248 Q: What is a CONVECTIVE SIGMET (WST)? When are they issued? How long are they valid? A: Issued for: severe thunderstorms (winds > 50, hail > 3/4", tornadoes), embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, level 4 thunderstorms with 40% coverage. Implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low level wind shear. Wind shear is any change in wind velocity (speed/direction). Hazards to ALL aircraft. Issued for three separate areas: West (W) for the west coast to 107° W longitude; Central (C) for 107° W - 87° W longitude, and East (E) for the area from 87° longitude to the east coast. Issued at 55 minutes past the hour and with special bulletins as warranted. Maximum forecast period is 2 hours. Each convective sigmet is issued with a sequential number followed by "E" for east, "W" for west, and "C" for central. Ex. CONVECTIVE SIGMET 26E. Next = 27E. 249 Q: What is a SIGMET (WS)? When are they issued? How long are they valid? A: Corresponds with associated area forecast. 4 hours maximum forecast period. Non-convective weather hazardous to ALL aircraft. Includes severe icing not associated with thunderstorms, severe turbulence or CAT not associated with thunderstorms, dust storms, sandstorms, volcanic ash (visibility at surface less than 3 miles), volcanic eruption. Names are NOVEMBER through ROMEO and VICTOR through YANKEE followed by sequential numbering. SIERRA, TANGO and ZULU are exclusively used by AIRMETS. A: Issued for the 6 areas corresponding to the area forecasts. Forecast period is 6 hours. Issued every 6 hours, and as necessary. Includes moderate icing, moderate turbulence, surface winds greater than 30 knots sustained, ceilings and visibilities below basic VFR for over 50% area coverage, mountain obscurement. AIRMET SIERRA: IFR and mountain obscurement. AIRMET TANGO: turbulence, strong surface winds, low level wind shear. AIRMET ZULU: icing and freezing level. A: Just like an area forecast but it is in a route format. Route width is 25 miles either side of the route. Sky cover, tops, visibility, weather, obstructions to visibility and synopsis. There are more than 300 selected routes identified by a separate route number Forecasts are used in TWEB, TIBS, and PATWAS. These forecasts are issued three times a day, each valid for 15 hours. 250 Q: What is a AIRMET (WA)? When are they issued? How long are they valid? 251 Q: What is included in an TWEB? How often are they issued? How long are they valid? Page 21 of 25 252 Q: Describe a Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD). How often are they issued? How long are they valid? How are light and variable winds shown? How are winds over 100 knots shown? Over 200 knots? A: Issued twice daily at 0000Z and 12000Z (each good for 12 hours) No winds are forecast within 1500 feet of station elevation. No temperatures are forecast for the 3000' level, or for any level within 2500' of station elevation. 9900 means light and variable winds. Winds greater than 100, subtract 50 from the first 2 digits and add 100 to the next digit(s). Ex. 850552 means winds 350° at 105 knots, and -52° C temp. Winds 200 knots or greater are plotted as 99 (199 or greater). Ex. 7799 = 270° at 199 knots or greater. 3000, 6000, 9000, 12000, and 18000 (true altitudes); 24000, 30000, 34000, 39000 (pressure altitudes). Observed winds aloft are also available twice daily (1200/0000Z), but the information is already 5-8 hours old at issuance. Forecast winds/temps aloft are more widely used. 253 Q: What is included in a Center Weather Advisory (CWA)? Who issues them? How long are they valid? 254 Q: What is included in a Convective Outlook (AC)? How often are they issued? How long are they valid? Describe the two panels and what they contain. A: NOWCAST for conditions beginning within the next 2 hours. Maximum valid time = 2 hours. Relevant to the ARTCC area of responsibility. Issued by Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU). A: Prospects for general thunderstorm activity and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 48 hours. Issued once a day at 0800Z. Use AC chart (severe weather outlook chart) for planning flights that will take place alter in the day; the chart is used strictly for advanced planning. Left Panel: 1st 24 hour period. Areas of possible general thunderstorm activity as well as severe thunderstorm activity. Areas of hatching shows severe activity. Thunderstorm activity is expected to the right of the line when facing in the direction of the arrow. Right Panel: shows the following day/2nd 24 hour period. Severe thunderstorm outlook only. 255 Q: What is a Severe weather watch bulletin (WW,AWW, "willy willy")? When are they issued? A: Not exclusively for aviation, used for public broadcast also. Depicts area of severe thunderstorms or tornado activity. Unscheduled and issued as required. Ex. "Severe Thunderstorm Watch", "Tornado Watch" Alert message (AWW) is sent out in short abbreviated text before the WW is sent out (WW is in plain text format for easier use by the public) to alert WSFOs, WSOs, CWSUs, and FSSs. A: Issued once every 3 hours starting at 0000Z. Depicts isobars, pressure systems, troughs, ridges, fronts and station models. It is a ready means of locating pressure systems and fronts. Overview of winds, temperatures and dewpoint at chart time. A: Transmitted at 3 hour intervals starting at 0100Z, and is compiled from surface observations (METARS). Includes areas of IFR, MVFR, and VFR. Cloud height or ceiling information is found under the station circle. Weather and obstructions to vision are located to the left of the station circle. Visibility values are entered to the left side of the obstruction to visibility symbol that is immediately to the left of the station circle. 256 Q: What is a Surface Analysis Chart? How often are they issued? 257 Q: What is a Weather Depiction Chart? How often are they issued? Page 22 of 25 258 Q: What is a Radar Summary Chart? How often are they issued? How are radar returns and cell movement shown on the chart. What are some of its limitations? A: Graphically displays radar reports using a grid system for plotting. Also shows intensity (VIP: video integrated processor) levels. Transmitted at 35 past the hour. Cell movement: arrow pointing in the direction the cell is moving TO with the speed in knots at the top of the arrow head. Lines and areas use shaft and barb. Radar only detect liquid precipitation drops and ice particles of precipitation size. Does not detect clouds and fog. Cloud tops may be higher than precipitation tops seen by radar. A: It is called composite because it consists of 4 panels. Upper left is stability panel and lower left is the freezing level panel. This chart uses observed upper air data and is issued twice daily at 1200Z and 0000Z. A: Stability panel: outlines areas of stable and unstable air using a lifted index (LI). Large positive values (+8) represent very stable air (colder than ambient air that falls after being lifted and resists vertical rising). Large negative values (-4) represent unstable air (air that is warmer than surrounding air after lifting and adiabatic/expansion cooling so it is conductive to vertical motion. The lifted index is the number above the small line and the k index (used by meteorologists) is placed below the small line. The K index can be used to determine a % chance of thunderstorms with unstable air. A: Freezing level panel: observed freezing level data from upper air observations. Solid lines are contours of the LOWEST freezing level and are drawn for 4000' intervals. THIS IS IN CONTRAST TO THE LOW LEVEL SIGN. PROG. ON WHICH THE FREEZING LEVEL ALOFT IS THE HIGHEST FREEZING LEVEL AT 4000' INTERVALS. A: When the airplane is in actual instrument conditions. A: AIM 1-1-19 (6). Using the calculated pseudo-range and position information supplied by the satellite, the GPS receiver mathematically determines its position by triangulation. The GPS receiver needs at least four satellites to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution. The GPS receiver computes navigational values such as distance and bearing to a waypoint, ground speed, etc., by using the aircraft's known latitude/longitude and referencing these to a database built into the receiver. 259 Q: What is a Composite Moisture Stability Chart? How often are they issued? 260 Q: Describe the stability panel of a Composite Moisture Stability Chart. 261 Q: Describe the freezing level panel of a Composite Moisture Stability Chart. 262 Q: When may a CFII log instrument time? 271 Q: How many GPS satellites are required to determine a three dimentional postion? 272 Q: How many satellites make up the GPS "constellation" and what is the minimum number visible on any given spot on earth? A: AIM 1-1-19 (7) The GPS constellation of 24 satellites is designed so that a minimum of five are always observable by a user anywhere on earth. The receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites above the mask angle (the lowest angle above the horizon at which it can use a satellite). Page 23 of 25 273 Q: What is RAIM? How many satellites must be in view in order to perform the RAIM function? Can you navigate using GPS withouth RAIM? A: AIM 1-1-19 (8) & (9) The GPS receiver verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS constellation through receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. At least one satellite, in addition to those required for navigation, must be in view for the receiver to perform the RAIM function; thus, RAIM needs a minimum of 5 satellites in view, or 4 satellites and a barometric altimeter (baro-aiding) to detect an integrity anomaly. For receivers capable of doing so, RAIM needs 6 satellites in view (or 5 satellites with baro-aiding) to isolate the corrupt satellite signal and remove it from the navigation solution. Baro-aiding is a method of augmenting the GPS integrity solution by using a nonsatellite input source. GPS derived altitude should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude since the vertical error can be quite large. To ensure that baro-aiding is available, the current altimeter setting must be entered into the receiver as described in the operating manual. (we don't have this on the Seminole) RAIM messages vary somewhat between receivers; however, generally there are two types. One type indicates that there are not enough satellites available to provide RAIM integrity monitoring and another type indicates that the RAIM integrity monitor has detected a potential error that exceeds the limit for the current phase of flight. Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. If RAIM is not available, another type of navigation and approach system must be used, another destination selected, or the trip delayed until RAIM is predicted to be available on arrival. On longer flights, pilots should consider rechecking the RAIM prediction for the destination during the flight. This may provide early indications that an unscheduled satellite outage has occurred since takeoff. Aircraft using GPS navigation equipment under IFR must be equipped with an approved and operational alternate means of navigation appropriate to the flight. Active monitoring of alternative navigation equipment is not required if the GPS receiver uses RAIM for integrity monitoring. Active monitoring of an alternate means of navigation is required when the RAIM capability of the GPS equipment is lost. 274 Q: What functions of DME and ADF can a GPS replace? A: (1) Determining the aircraft position over a DME fix. GPS satisfies the 14 CFR Section 91.205(e) requirement for DME at and above 24,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) (FL 240). (2) Flying a DME arc. (3) Navigating to/from an NDB/compass locator. (4) Determining the aircraft position over an NDB/compass locator. (5) Determining the aircraft position over a fix defined by an NDB/compass locator bearing crossing a VOR/LOC course. (6) Holding over an NDB/compass locator. Page 24 of 25 275 Q: What is the difference between a fly-over and a fly-by waypoint? A: AIM 1-1-19 GPS approaches make use of both fly-over and fly-by waypoints. Flyby waypoints are used when an aircraft should begin a turn to the next course prior to reaching the waypoint separating the two route segments. This is known as turn anticipation and is compensated for in the airspace and terrain clearances. Approach waypoints, except for the MAWP and the missed approach holding waypoint (MAHWP), are normally fly-by waypoints. Fly-over waypoints are used when the aircraft must fly over the point prior to starting a turn. New approach charts depict fly-over waypoints as a circled waypoint symbol. Overlay approach charts and some early stand alone GPS approach charts may not reflect this convention. Page 25 of 25