Histology Final Reviewer

Histology Final ReviewerExcept eyes and ears 1 B Trans face D. Cis-trans face Aha makita ang forming face? Hahaha Actually, forming face is aka cis face. (mind= blown) The transport vesicles merge with the Golgi-receiving region, or cis face. On the opposite side of the Golgi network, at its shipping or trans face, larger saccules or vacuoles accumulate, condense, and generate other vesicles that carry completed protein products to organelles away from the Golgi. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) Which of the following is true of the plasma membrane? A Enzyme links influence inner and extracellular matrix communication B A bi-layer structure composed of phospholipids and sugars C Membrane proteins are synthesized by the Golgi complex D Glycocalyx lines the outer surface of the cell membrane D. Some of the outer lipids, known as glycolipids, include oligosaccharide chains that extend outward from the cell surface and contribute to a delicate cell surface coating called the glycocalyx. A. All types of cell signaling use membrane receptor proteins that are often linked to enzymes such as kinases or adenylyl cyclase whose activities initiate intracellular signaling pathways. B. Bilayer structure: long-chain fatty acid (hydrophobic) + head that bears a phosphate group (hydrophilic) + cholesterol which insert at varying densities C. The Golgi apparatus, or Golgi complex, completes posttranslational modification of proteins synthesized in the RER. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 5 This cytoplasmic organelle’s enzymes digest proteins for destruction: A Lysosomes C. Microbodies B Secretory granules D. Proteasomes D. Proteasomes degrade and digest damaged or unneeded proteins; ensure quality of exported proteins. A. Lysosomes – digest microbes or materials (eg, ingested by the cell, worn-out cellular components, or the entire cell) B. Secretory granules with dense contents of digestive enzymes are also referred to as zymogen granules. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 6 2 This intermediate filament can be found in striated muscle cell: A Keratin C. Desmin B Vimentin D. Neurofilaments C. Desmin – muscle cells A. Keratin – epithelial cells B. Vimentin – mesenchymal cells D. Neurofilaments – neurons (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) Which of the following best describes the mitochondria of cells with high-energy metabolism? A Few in number, short cristae C. Closely packed cristae B Flat shelf-like cristae D. Lipid rich cytoplasm C. Cristae are more numerous in mitochondria of highly active cells. A. The number of mitochondria is related to the cell’s energy needs: cells with a highenergy metabolism (eg, cardiac muscle, cells of some kidney tubules) have abundant mitochondria, whereas cells with low-energy metabolism have few mitochondria. B. The inner membrane is folded to form a series of long infoldings called cristae, which project into the matrix and greatly increase this membrane’s surface area. D. Both mitochondrial membranes contain a higher density of protein molecules than other membranes in the cell and have reduced fluidity. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 3 7 Which of the following is used to determine cell and tissue type differences? A Cell membrane structure C. Abundance of organelles B Nuclear staining of chromatin D. Volume of cytoplasm Sections are mounted on glass slides for staining, which is required to reveal specific cellular and tissue components with the microscope. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) Which of the following is true of the endoplasmic reticulum? A Made up of tubular stacks of sac-like cisternae B Discontinuous membrane surrounding the cisternae C Acidophilic cytoplasm due to presence of polyribosomes D Its membrane is continuous with outer part of nuclear envelope 8 A microscopic slide shows an abundant number of spindle-shaped cells with acidophilic cytoplasm and elongated nucleus. The cell is a: A Hepatocyte B. Fibroblast C. Neuron D. Segmenter B. Fibroblasts typically have large active nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm that tapers off in both directions along the axis of the nucleus, a morphology often referred to as “spindleshaped.” A. Hepatocytes are large cuboidal or polyhedral epithelial cells, with large, round central nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm rich in mitochondria. C. Neuron – The cell body is large and has a large, euchromatic nucleus with a welldeveloped nucleolus. D. Neutrophils, the most abundant type of leukocyte, have polymorphic, multilobed nuclei, and faint pink cytoplasmic granules. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) The ER is a convoluted (hence not tubular stacks in letter A) network of enclosing continuous (as opposed to discontinuous in letter B) spaces called cisternae and extending from the nucleus (letter D) to the plasma membrane. Multiple ribosomes in the same mRNA make up a polyribosome (polysome), and an abundance of these produces basophilic (hence not acidophilic in letter C) cytoplasm after H&E staining. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 4 Budding rough endoplasmic vesicles are found in which part of the Golgi complex? A Forming face C. Inner face 1 4. Involved in organelle transport 9 A microscopic slide shows a polyhedral cell with a eosinophilic cytoplasm and two spherical nuclei: A Hepatocyte B Neuron C Fibroblast D Segmenter *Please refer to rationale in number 8  10. Which of these membrane specializations provides the best pathways for electrical current flow between adjacent cardiac cells? A. gap junctions B. desmosomes C. tight junctions D. adhering junctions The longitudinally oriented portions of each disc have many gap junctions providing ionic continuity between cells. These serve as “electrical synapses” and allow cells of cardiac muscle to act like a multinucleated syncytium as in skeletal muscle, with contraction signals passing in a wave from cell to cell. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 11. Which of the following best describes the mitochondria? 1. inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to water 2. the matrix is found between the outer and inner membrane 3. cristae are folds of the inner membrane 4. has an incomplete lipid bi-layered membrane Mitochondrion is seen to have two separated and very different membranes that together create two compartments: the innermost matrix (hence choice 2 is wrong) and a narrow intermembrane space. The inner membrane is folded to form a series of long infoldings called cristae, (hence choice 3 is correct) which project into the matrix and greatly increase this membrane’s surface area. The lipid bilayer of the inner membrane contains unusual phospholipids and is highly impermeable to ions (Figure 2–20). Integral proteins include various transport proteins that make the inner membrane selectively permeable to the small molecules (hence choice 1 is correct) required by enzymes in the matrix. Monomeric proteins: α and β tubulin; move cilia and flagella; Two or more microtubules are often linked side-by-side by protein arms or bridges, which are particularly important in cilia and flagella. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 13. Which of the following is true of the peroxisome? 1. breaks down proteins 2. its enzymes eliminate H2O2 3. mitochondria-like membrane 4. covered by lipid bi-layer membrane? Choice 1 – proteasomes; Peroxisomes are spherical organelles enclosed by a single membrane and named for their enzymes producing and degrading hydrogen peroxide, H2O2. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 14. Which of the following prevent/s leakage of lytic enzymes into the cytoplasm? 1. pH of lysosomal cytoplasm 3. cell membrane 2. lysosomal membrane 4. cytosolic pH Cytosolic components are protected from these enzymes by the membrane surrounding lysosomes and because the enzymes have optimal activity at an acidic pH (~5.0). Any leaked lysosomal enzymes are practically inactive at the pH of cytosol (~7.2) and harmless to the cell. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 12. Which of the following best describes the microtubules? 1. Has alpha and beta tubulin units 2. Responsible for cellular movement 3. Cilia & flagella have doublets 2 Also known as Urothelium, the unique morphological feature of the cells is that it allows distention as the urinary bladder fills. It protects the underlying tissues from the hypertonic and potentially cytotoxic effects of urine. It is characterized by superficial dome-shaped cells called umbrella cells. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) Module 2 1. The completion of genetic recombination is achieved in which stage of prophase I? A. Diplotene B. Leptotene C. Pachytene D. Zygotene When synapsis is complete for all chromosomes, the cell is said to be in pachytene. Each bivalent looks like a single structure, but is actually two pairs of sister chromatids held together by the synaptonemal complex. Genetic recombination is completed at this point, with sites where it has occurred (usually one per chromosome arm) appearing as nodules in the center of the synaptonemal complex. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 2. 2. Which of these connective tissues is typically most closely associated with epithelia? A. reticular B. adipose C. areolar D. dense connective Loose Connective Tissue (areolar) is very common and generally supports the epithelial tissue. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 3. This connective tissue type forms a sponge-like supporting network of the bone marrow: A. reticular (bone marrow, liver, pancreas, adrenal glands, all lymphoid organs except thymus) B. dense regular (ligaments, tendons, aponeuroses, corneal stroma) C. adipose( in many body regions and organs) D. mucous (umbilical cord and fetal organs) A cell, with absent nucleoli and nuclear membrane but with equal distribution of organelles around the periphery, is most likely in which mitotic phase? A. prophase B. prometaphase C. metaphase D. anaphase Cytoplasmic movements during late metaphase effect the approximately equal distribution of mitochondria and other organelles around the cell periphery. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 3. Which of these takes the longest time to complete? A. G1 B. S C. M phase 4. A member of the mononuclear phagocyte system found in the central nervous system: A. Langerhans cell (skin) B. von Kupffer cell (liver) C. Osteoclast (bone) D. Microglia. (CNS) D. interphase The cell cycle is the period of time between the birth of a cell and its own division to produce two daughter cells. It generally lasts a minimum of 12 hours, but in most adult tissues can be considerably longer, and is divided into four distinct phases, which are known as G1, S, G2 and M. The combination of G1, S and G2 phases is known as interphase. (Source: Junqueira’s Basic Histology, 13th ed) 4. Dendritic cell - lymph node, spleen Monocyte - blood Macrophage - connective tissue 5. Encapsulated nerve endings found in the conjunctiva and external genitalia: A. Pacinian corpuscles ( sustained touch and vibrations, reticular dermis and hypodermis) C. Krause’s end bulb (Found primarily in the skin of penis and clitoris, low frequency) B. Meissenr’s corpuscles (light touch, low frequency) D. Ruffini’s corpuscles ( stretch or twisting) Which of these is a common feature of mitosis and meiosis II? A. preceded by an S phase B. synapsis and crossing over C. generates identical daughter cells D. sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles Unencapsulated - Merkel, Free nerve Ending, root hair plexus Encapsulated - Meissner, lamellated (pacinian), krause end bulb, ruffini This second division is more like mitosis, in that chromatids separate during anaphase, but, unlike mitosis, the separating chromatids are genetically different (the result of genetic recombination). 5. The adapter molecule during translation is: A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA 6. The cells of this epidermal layer are constantly renewing to replace dead cells: A. basale ( characterized by intense mitotic activity, presence of progenitor cells. Single layer of basophilic cuboidal or columnar cells) B. granulosum ( 3-5 layers of flattened cells, undergoing keratinization) C. corneum (15-20 layers of squamous, keratinized cells filled with keratin) D. lucidum ( found only in thick skin, translucent layer) D. DNA Module 3 1. The epithelial type whose surface cell layer changes in shape as a consequence of a change in volume of the fluid content of the organ which the epithelium lines: Stratified cuboidal C. Transitional Pseudostratified columnar D. Stratified squamous 7. Which of the following is true of the reticular layer of the dermis? A. Abundant collagen ( dunno, naa man sad collagen pero type 1 lng) B. Heparan SO4 in the matrix (dermatan SO4 dapat!! Ano ba!!) C. Fewer cells than papillary layer D. Few elastic fibers ( network of elastic fibers so daghan dapat) 3 Liver Ratio: a) Parotid glands. Stereocilia are typically much longer and much less motile than microvilli. Dark (filled with strongly eosinophilic granules. Long branched processes which facilitate movement of molecules in the cells of the epididymis are: A.Reticular layer is much thicker. Multilocular fat cells are larger D. D) Stereocilia are a much less common type of apical process.contract to move the watery secretion into the duct 10. By light microscopy cilia on the columnar cells appear as a wave of long projections. spleen and lymph nodes) where they support rapidly changing populations of proliferating cells and phagocytic cells. Stereocilia 9. Lucidum (anucleated dead cells. restricted to absorptive epithelial cells lining the epididymis and the proximal part of ductus deferens in the male reproductive system. Langerhans cells are primarily found in which epidermal layer? A. bed). but with many mixed tubuloacinar secretory units. located in each cheek near the ear. which increase the surface area available for absorption. when completely developed. Spinosum (keratinocytes with desmosomes. Stereocilia are much longer than microvilli and often have distal branching. Serous (salivary gland) D. The unilocular type is the more common type in adults B. Pancreas C. Hyaluronic acid (none) B. are branched tubuloacinar glands. An epithelial type lining the visceral layer of serous membranes: A. is composed of cells that. contain one very large droplet of whitish-yellow fat in their cytoplasm. Serous cells of these mixed units are mostly in peripheral crescent. are branched acinar glands with exclusively serous acini.sue (bone marrow) and some lymphoid organs (eg. Simple squamous B. 13. Which of these is a compound tubuloacinar gland with seromucous secretion? A. Reticular C. Flagella D. The stroma of hemopoietic organs is made up of which connective tissue type? A. Keratan SO4 (none. B) Epithelial cells lining the respiratory tract have many very well-developed cilia.shaped groups called serous demilunes. merkel cells) B. Cilia C. Pseudostratified columnar Ratio: I) Abundant reticular fibers also characterize the stroma of hemopoietic tis. hemopoietic cords or islands of cells. Langerhans) C. which produce two-thirds of all saliva. Chondroitin SO4 (collagen type II) C. specialized fibroblastic cells called stromal cells (also called reticular or adventitial cells) and a delicate web of reticular fibers supporting the hemopoietic cells and macro. the more common type. 14. b) The pancreas is a mixed exocrine-endocrine gland that pro. A network of elastic fibers is also present providing elasticity to the skin. Multilocular type is avascular Heparan SO4 . Parotid B. Which of the following is true of adipose tissue? A.collagen type III and IV Ratio: I) White adipose tissue. Microvilli B. Simple cuboidal C. and sinusoidal capillaries. The stroma is a meshwork of 4 . Basale (melanocytes. Each pancreatic acinus consists of several serous cells surrounding a very small lumen. Areolar B. Dense D. Granulosum(keratinocytes with hyaline granules) D.phages. Clear (produce the sweat) C. without myoepithelial cells. This cell of the sweat glands contains secretory granules in its apical cytoplasm: A. it undergo mesocrine secretion) B. II) Red bone marrow contains a reticular connective tissue stroma (Gr. gaya gaya kay hyaluronic) 12. thick skin only) 11. Simple columnar D. Myoepithhelial cells . consists of dense irregular connective tissue (type 1 collagen) with more fibers and fewer cells than the papillary layer. Dermatan SO4 ( collagen type I) D. 8. The two types are rich in brown mitochondria C. At the apical ends of the tall epithelial cells lining organs such as the epididymis are numerous very long stereocilia. Submandibular D. Adipose 15. Mucous (salivary gland) Ratio: A) Absorptive cells lining the small intestine demonstrate the highly uniform microvilli of a striated or brush border particularly well.marily serous acini. having pri. and may show distal branching along their length. c) Submandibular glands.duces both digestive enzymes and hormones. Which glycosaminoglycan is associated mainly with type II collagen? A. II) White adipocytes are called unilocular because the triglycerides are stored in this single large droplet. stroma. gap junctions B. zonula adherens Ratio: The basal layer (stratum basale) is a single layer of basophilic cuboidal or columnar cells on the basement membrane at the dermal-epidermal junction. and tactile epithelial cells called Merkel cells. a small bundle of smooth muscle cells. (ang picture nalang makaexplain ) D. peroxisomes C. the nail bed. Merkel Ratio: Hairs are elongated keratinized structures that form within epidermal invaginations. the hair follicles. The nail plate is bound to a bed of epidermis. which contains only the basal and spinous epidermal layers. impermeable layer around the cells. Which of these is responsible for the disappearance of cytoplasmic organelles in keratinocytes? A. corneum Ratio: A similar process of keratinization also produces the nails. producing a lipid-rich. 21. Hemidesmosomes in the basal cell membranes join these cells to the basal lamina. Which of the following skin appendages is attached to the capsule of the sebaceous gland? A. Fe2+. and ascorbic acid (vitamin C) as cofactors. Langerhans B. 18. which are hard plates of keratin on the dorsal surface of each distal phalanx. The proximal part of the nail is the nail root and is covered by a fold of skin. extends from the midpoint of the fibrous sheath to the dermal papillary layer. Keratinocytes C. eccrine sweat gland 16. apocrine sweat gland B. C D. granulosum D. What is the most abundant cell in the epidermis? A. 22.bisan naa sa manual) 19. tight junctions D. ribosomes Ratio: Among the last activities of the keratinocytes. There are also three much less abundant epidermal cell types: pigment-producing melanocytes. A B. hair follicle D. Which of the following vitamins is necessary for collagen synthesis? A. These cells form the matrix of the elongating hair root. basale B. B C. arrector pili muscle C. Nails are modifications of which layer of the epidermis: A. Which of these is the main cellular component of the hair follicle? A. or eponychium. lysosomes D. (wala sa junquiera. usually when it is cold in an effort to trap a layer of warm air near the skin. proteasomes B.tions that require O2. Merkel B. Keratinocytes C. the lamellar granules undergo exocytosis. antigen-presenting Langerhans cells. and desmosomes bind the cells of this layer together in their lateral and upper surfaces. Keratinocytes continuous with those of the basal epidermis cover the dermal papilla.tinized epithelium composed of cells called keratinocytes. The junctional complexes found between keratinocytes in the stratum basale: A. 5 . the part of a hair extending beyond the skin surface is the hair shaft. Melanocytes D. Langerhans Ratio: The epidermis consists mainly of a stratified squamous kera. from which the epidermal stratum corneum extends as the cuticle. desmosomes C.20. D Ratio: (Step 2 in collagen formation) Hydroxylase enzymes in the ER cisternae add hydroxyl groups to some prolines and lysines in important reac. spinosum C. Contraction of these muscles pulls the hair shafts to a more erect position. Melanocytes Ratio: The arrector pili muscle. 17. producing a lipid-rich. Tight junction : adherin 3. Epithelial B. Excess electrolytes can be removed in sweat. most predominant cell C.ratio: dermal vasculature has a thermoregulatory function. The shunts decrease blood flow in the papillary layer to mini. A – protective B – metabolic C – thermoregulatory D – sensory E – more than one of the choices above Ratio: Other than its secreting and protective functions. This material forms a major part of the skin’s barrier against water loss. the lamellar granules undergo exocytosis. (metabolic) 24. its ducts open at the skin surface B. 1. Type III collagen can be found in skin. II) eccrine sweat gland. The basis for the naming of stratified epithelia is the shape of the: A. keratinization and production of the lipid-rich layer also have a crucial sealing effect in skin. II 3. nuclei of the cells at the outermost surface 31. Type II collagen can be found in cartilages and vitreous body. Which of the following tissue types has the least amount of extracellular matrix? A. muscle. arteriovenous anastomosis Which of the following is/are function/s of epithelial tissues? 1. I The collagen type found in the basal lamina: 2.( thermoregulatory) Duct cells of Eccrine sweat glands absorb Na+ ions from the secreted water to prevent excessive loss of this electrolyte. P. and by a proteoglycan. Page 75. conduct electrical impulses 2. are sensitive mechanoreceptors essential for light touch sensation. provide structural support 3. MODIFIED MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: Read each statement carefully.mize heat loss in cold conditions and increase this flow to facilitate heat loss when it is hot. match the stated cell/structure found in the skin to its corresponding function by using the key below. cells located closest to the basement membrane B.At the epidermis each duct merges with the stratum basale and sweat flow continues in a spiraling channel through the five epidermal strata to an excretory sweat pore in the skin surface 29. its ducts open into hair follicles Ratio: I) apocrine sweat gland-The ducts of apocrine glands are similar to those of the eccrine glands. Together. it also functions for absorption found in the intestinal lining. most superficial layer of cells D. Muscle 30. blood vessels and frequently with Type I collagen. Shade the circle corresponding to your final answer on the answer sheet provided. Gap junction : actin 2. Conduction of nerve impulses is a function of the nervous tissue. II. Eccrine . secretes non-viscous sweat C. They are abundant in highly sensitive skin like that of fingertips and at the bases of some hair follicles. Merkel cells D ratio : Merkel cells. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. impermeable layer around the cells. secrete hormones 4. 23. Which of the following is true of an apocrine sweat gland? A. 28. seen the in the dermis only D. tendon. or epithelial tactile cells. usually when it is cold in an effort to trap a layer of warm air near the skin. IV Which membrane junction and transmembrane protein are correctly paired? 1. thus helping maintain a constant body temperature. which involves numerous arteriovenous anastomoses or shunts located between the two major plexuses. Ratio: Type IV collagen can be found in the external lamina and in basal lamina with laminin and the two. III 4. Page 73) 26. the pelecan. arrector pili muscle C ratio: Contraction of these muscles pulls the hair shafts to a more erect position. and choice #3 is a function of the conducting system of the heart. are held by the adhesive glycoprotein enactin/nidogen. for covering and lining. For items 26-30. 106) 27. C 6 . Type I can be found in skin. 33. Page 77. bone and dentin.Sweating is a physiologic response to increased body temperature during physi.cal exercise or thermal stress and is the most effective means of temperature regulation of humans. the lipid-rich material found in stratum granulosum A ratio: Among the last activities of the keratinocytes. Refer to Table 4-2 Junqueira’s 13th ed. Catenin complexes for Adherent junction. Options may be used once. E-cadherin. Nervous D. Choice #1 is one of the functions of connective tissues. At the epidermis each duct merges with the stratum basale and sweat flow continues in a spiraling channel through the five epidermal strata to an excretory sweat pore in the skin surface. Claudins and ZO proteins. more than once or nothing at all. but they usually open into hair follicles at the epidermis and may contain the proteinrich product. Answer: 25. Hemidesmosomes : integrins Ratio: Tight junction’s major transmembrane proteins are Occludins. protect exposed surfaces 32. and Connexin for Gap junction. laminin and type IV collagen. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. sweat glands E (B/C) ratio: There are two types of sweat glands-eccrine and apocrine. Connective C. Desmosomes : cadherins 4. forming the barrier to penetration by most foreign materials. Cells found in the stratum basale still contain cytoplasmic organelles. and phospholipids. Simple tubuloalveolar Ratio: Pancreas as an exocrine gland have a glandular epithelia of Serous Glandular Epithelium. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Page 87 & 89) Ratio: Both the microvilli and stereocilia contain arrays of actin filament and actin-binding proteins. Oviduct 3. Which of these is/are histamine-secreting connective tissue cell/s? 1. Rectum 4. osteoclasts 4. lucidum 3. Table 4-4. larynx. Cilia contain internal arrays of microtubules. Page 82) 38. basale 2. lymphocyte 4. plasma 2. The presence of this/these structure/s in all layers differentiate/s the stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus from that of the skin: 1. Macrophages Ratio: Mesenchymal cells produce all types of connective tissue proper and the specialized connective tissues bone and cartilages. Flagellum Ratio: Mucous cell type of exocrine glands with merocrine secretion are filled apically with secretory granules and contain heavily glycosylated proteins called Mucin.4. granulosum 4. organized secretory cells 4. Corneum Ratio: Starting from the stratum lucidum up to stratum cornuem. Keratin 4. eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors. Page 77-81) 40. Plasma cells are B-lymphocytederived. 101 & 143) The following organs are lined by simple columnar epithelium: 1. Osteoclasts development requires two polypeptides produced by osteoblasts(M-CSF & RANKL). Choice #3 is the basis for classifying most stratified epithelia. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. unicellular glands produce mucin 3. they become Squames or metabolically inactive packets of keratin lacking nuclei. that could be squamous. Tubuloalveolar or tubuloacinar is under the compound glands class in which ducts from secretory units converge into larger ducts. Hemidesmosomes and Gap junction) and may bear bear cilia or microvilli. Spines & granules 3. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. it contains much less keratin. and same with stratum granulosum where cells here undergo the terminal differentiation process of Which of the following is true of simple epithelial tissues? 1. Merocrine 3. line solid organs and glands 2. form follicles or vesicles 42. and as they are moved to the skin surface. and macrophages are derived from bone marrow precursor cells. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. 35. Compound tubuloacinar 2. Desmosomes. Serous 4. they lack cytoplasmic organelles. 34. Page 82) 36. Figure 4-14) 37. adipocytes 2. Gallbladder 2. Page 99-104) 39. naming is based on the shape of the topmost layer of cells 7 . lateral cell to cell attachments are via junctional complexes Ratio: Simple epithelial tissues’ lateral attachment are via junctional complexes( these are Tight junction. or other particulate material. lining of renal collecting duct and gallbladder. cuboidal or columnar. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. cellular component in the secretion 2. Adherent junction. And the lining epithelium of esophagus(together with mouth. Macrophages have phagocytic activity and specialize in turnover of protein fibers and removal of dead cells. Which of these is/are derived from mesenchymal cells? 1. Stereocilia 2. Mast Ratio: Other than histamine. Its endocrine part is the Islet of Langerhans. serine proteases. Mast cells’ secretory granules also include heparin. osteocytes 3. macrophage 3. Cytoplasmic staining 2. Page 98. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Microvilli 4. tissue debris. retaining their nuclei and metabolic function. Laboratory guide on Epithelium) Ratio: Lining epithelium of the skin is Stratified Squamous Keratinized Epithelium and its cells become more irregular in shape and flatten as the accumulate keratin in the process called keratinization. Which of the following is true of exocrine glands? 1. Which of the following is true of the pancreas as an exocrine gland? 1. The oviduct has a non-ciliated cells called the peg cells. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Formation of follicles or vesicles is a characteristic of Endocrine glands where the glands lose the connection to their original epithelium and therefore lack ducts. Choice #1 can also be lined not just by simple epithelial tissue but by any other type of lining epithelium. Cilia 3. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. antibody-producing cells. Which of the following cell surface specializations is/are associated with actin filaments? 1. oviduct lining. Nucleus 41. Ovary Ratio: Simple Columnar Epithelium can be found in the lining of intestine. free cell surfaces may bear cilia or microvilli 3. vagina and anal canal) is Stratified Squamous Nonkeratinized Epithelium. cytokines. Table 4-3. The keratinocytes in these layers of the epidermis lack cytoplasmic organelles and nucleus: 1. tendons. PAS-positive 4. in addition to abundant Mitochondria. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Ratio: Laminin has a binding sites for integrins.and 6-sulfate that can be found in cartilage and aorta. small amounts of ground substance 8 Dura mater surfaces are lined by which of the following simple epithelial tissue? A. Laboratory guide on Connective Tissue) Ratio: Differential distribution of myelin differentiate white matter from gray matter. free nerve endings and Merkel cells. Both chondroitin 4. specifically simple coiled tubular gland. Page 124-5 & 128) Ratio: Sweat glands are classified under simple exocrine gland. flattened fibroblasts between fibers 3. interwoven bundles with no particular orientation. Which of the following is/are encapsulated cutaneous receptor/s? 1. Page 380) 50. 1. neuronal cell bodies in the white matter outnumber gray matter neurons C. both gray and white matter contain unmyelinated axons. Dense regular connective tissue can be found in ligaments. Choice #3 refers to dense regular collagenous connective tissue. Neuronal cell bodies in the white matter are very few as compared to gray matter where it contains abundant neuronal cell bodies. Dense regular 3. Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscle. Adipose 4. type IV collagen. both types are embedded in the dermis 4. Loose Which of the following is true of the central nervous system? A. organelles are pushed to the periphery 2. the ducts of the apocrine type open into the hair follicle for the eccrine type opens directly in a sweat pores found in the skin’s surface. astrocytes. Tactile discs Which of the following is true of mucous connective tissue? 1. and both types are embedded in the dermis. Choice 4 refers to dense irregular connective tissue where the collagen fibers are in irregular. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. dendrites. abundant ground substance 3. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Also. randomly arranged fibers 49. dendrites and neuroglia Ratio: Hypodermis or subcutaneous layer consists of loose connective tissue and contains adipocytes in varying number in different body regions and vary in size affected by nutritional state. high lipid content 2. Ratio: Argyrophilia in reticular fibers is due to high content of sugar chains bound to type III collagen. fibroblasts predominate Ratio: Having an abundant ground substance specifically proteoglycans and fibroblasts are predominantly present are referring to mucous connective tissue. Tactile discs of nerve fibers can be found in the epidermis together with free nerve endings. Meissner’s corpuscle 3. collagen fibers enclosed by fibroblast cytoplasm 2. aponeuroses and corneal stroma. cuboidal B. nuclei of cells are eccentric and flattened 3. Which of the following is/are common histologic features of dense regular collagenous and elastic tissues? 1. Vater-Pacinian corpuscle 4. The PAS-positive is not responsible for the agyrophilia but instead it is also due to the same reason as that of agyrophilia. Krause end bulbs and Ruffini corpuscle. columnar D. collagen fibers in bundles 4. ducts of both types open into the hair follicles Which of the following is/are true of unilocular adipose tissue? 1. has numerous amounts of mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum Ratio: In choice #4. and submucosa layer of the digestive tract. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. 2. are under the unencapsulated receptors as with the root hair plexus. Unilocular adipose tissue or White adipose tissue contains few amount of Endoplasmis Reticulum and Mitochondria as compared to Brown adipose tissue where. it has rich vasculature to help mediate the tissue’s principal function of heat production. squamous C. Both types of sweat glands can’t be found in all parts of the body because apocrine glands are confined ti skin of the axillary and perineal region. and specific proteoglycans. Table 5-5) 44. Krause’s end bulbs 2. they are also associated with Merkel cells and these structures. Which of these is/are responsible for the argyrophilia in reticular fibers? 1. simple exocrine glands 2. and its cytoplasm is filled with keratohyaline granules. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Page 175) 47. high content of sugar chains 46. Page 373. Page 113-6. Page 373-4) 45. pseudostratified columnar . (Laboratory guide on Connective Tissue) 48. presence of collagen fibers Ratio: Dense regular collagenous and elastic connective tissues have collagen fibers that are in parallel arrangement. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Dense irregular 2. Acts as structural components of the extracellular matrix 4. Chondroitin sulfate is found in cartilage and aorta 3. cells are supported and bound together by reticular fibers 4. organ capsule. Which of the following is/are true of the sweat glands? 1.keratinization. are found in all parts of the body 3. Page 111) Which of the following connective tissues is/are present in the hypodermis? 1. Which of the following is true of connective tissue ground substance? 1. brain cortices are multi-layered with single population of neuronal cells B. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. 4. Dense irregular connective tissue can be found in the dermis of the skin. myelin content is responsible for the difference between gray and white matter D. Laminin has binding sites for fibroblasts 2. and the initial unmyelinated portions of axons. Table 5-6. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. (Laboratory guide on Connective Tissue) Ratio: Encapsulated receptors are all phasic mechanoreceptors and these are Meissner’s corpuscle. Page 365-7) 43. extremely small diameter 3. microglial cells. Water is a major component 2. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Axoplasm contains essentially NO polyribosomes or RER. Mitochondria Ratio: Cells of the neural tube give rise to the entire CNS. Boron 40th ed. develops from neural tube cells 3. Neurolemmocytes or the Schwann cells are found only in the PNS. fibroelastic Ratio: Epineurium is a dense. the dense connective tissue. bipolar. 161. Page 164) Ratio: For choice A. gray matter Ratio: The main components of PNS are the nerves.ions but very little protein and its only cells are normally very sparse lymphocytes. Which of the following is/are true of the nerve cell? 1. elastic D. ganglia. Page 179. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. white matter content 12. unipolar or axonic neurons (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Golgi complex C. and nerve endings. which of the following organelles is/are absent in the dendrite? 1. Choices #1 and #3 are both associated with the Perikarya. K+. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Which of the following CNS glial cell is/are correctly paired to function? 1. Microglia – repair of axons and dendrites Ratio: Microglia secretes immunoregulatory cytokines and constitue the major mechanism of immune defense in the CNS. and their apical surfaces. Page 206) In Junquiera. Ratio: Mitochondria occupies 40% or more of the cytoplasmic volume needed for continuous aerobic metabolism as compared to skeletal muscle fibers where it only occupies 2%. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Which of the following is/are true of the axon? 1. Main functional component is the endothelium of blood vessels B. Page 182) 6. Abundant in motor neurons 4. Rough ER B. It can be classified according to the number of processes extending from the cell body. surrounds the entire muscle and each muscle fiber is covered by a very thin. neurofilaments 2. Which of these is/are component/s of the peripheral nerve system? 1. Which of these is/are correctly associated with Nissl bodies? 1. Page 179) 4. dense B. and Cl. Axons is much longer. Page 164) The tissue component of the epineurium: A. from which the CSF is secreted. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Golgi complex Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle tissue? each fiber is covered by dense connective tissue the thick filaments are localized in the A band single nucleus at the periphery of the cell uniform size and shape of cells Ratio: The Golgi apparatus is located ONLY in the cell body. variable in length 9. could either be a multipolar. and their basal surfaces exhibit interdigitations and folding. possess microvilli. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Page 175) 3. Page 174 & 180) 5. has a constant diameter and branches less profusely compared to dendrites. high protein content Ratio: CSF is clear. Repair processes is one of the functions of Astrocytes.Ratio: Both the internal and external surface of the dura mater are lined by simple squamous epithelium of mesenchymal origin. neutrophils are the predominating cellular component B. 8. irregular fibrous coat that wraps peripheral nerves externally. but mitochondria cab be found throughout the cell and are usually abundant in the axon terminals. absent RER in axoplasm 4. Residual bodies from lysosomal digestion 3. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. contains Na+. secreted by pial fenestrated capillaries D. multiple branches 3. Gray matter together with white matter are organized areas in the CNS. the Epimysium. may contain 1-2 nuclei 4. thinning diameter from origin 2. Arachnoid villi provide the main pathway for absorption of CSF back into the venous circulation. Fibrous astrocyte – proper embryonic development 4.neurolemmocytes 4. Which of the following is true of the histologic features of the blood-brain barrier? A. Oligodendrocytes – secretes myelin 2. lipofuscin) found occasionally in nerve cells. areolar C. ganglion 2. a fine cylindrical process that varies in length and diameter according to type. RER 4. nerve 3. Page 165) Ratio: The endothelium of blood vessels is the main structural component of the BBB with well-developed occluding junctions and with little or no trancytosis activity. Page 160. mitochondria 3. Adhering junctions are the main structural component C. #1 constitute the pigmented materials(eg. delicate layer of reticular fibers and scattered 9 . Figure 9-4) 7. Ependymal cell – cerebrospinal fluid movement 3. classified based on the number of processes 2. including neurons and most glial cells. There are no lymphatic vessels in CNS tissue. Page 170 & 173) Which of the following best describes cerebrospinal fluid? A. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Presence of abundant pinocytotic vesicles D. Page 242) 10. absorption is facilitated by lymphatic vessels C. The abundance of this organelle in cardiac muscles indicates the importance of the tissue to be maintained under aerobic conditions: A. CSF is actively secreted by choroid plexus epithelium. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Absence of fenestrations of the capillaries Ratio: Most neurons have only one axon. Nucleus D. polyribosomes 2. 11. RER and free ribosomes Ratio: RER and free ribosomes constitute the basophilic material appearing as clumps called Nissl bodies and its amount varies with the type and functional state of the neuron and is particularly abundant in large nerve cells such as motor neurons. They are avascular and receive nutrients by diffusion from capillaries in adjacent perichondrial connective tissue. Page 142. Osteopontin is an extracellular matrix glycoprotein implicated in the pathophysiology of inflammatory. there are loss of chondrocytes by apoptosis. Strontium. and Carbonate. or synovial fluid. and In the ossification zone. (Boron 40th ed. It is also located inside a lacunae but does not secrete a new matrix. Potassium C. Table 10-1. Regeneration of cardiac muscle are by replacing the damaged tissue by proliferating fibroblasts and growth of connective tissue forming myocardial scars. Easily destroyed with constant friction D. absence of T tubular system Ratio: The tissues of cartilages does not contain vessels or nerves. Very abundant in articular discs B. Copper. 143. it is done by osteoblast. Page 87) 21. 18. Cancellous bone C. The calcified cartilage zone. Osteonectin B. Chondrocytes are flat close to the perichondrium. Page 191-2. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. vitamin K-dependent polypeptide that binds Ca2+ ions and raises their concentration locally. Which glycoprotein binds calcium and hydroxyapatite? A. Has firm consistency and highly elastic C. Thick filaments are localized in the A band whereas. bone tissue first appear. Silicon and Boron are of less in number and even are present only in trace amount. C. Perichondrium can be found in both hyaline and elastic cartilage but not in fibrocartilage. Carbonate Ratio: The major ions which make up the mineral part of bone include Calcium. 134. Page 87-88. Laboratory guide on Cartilage and Bone) Ratio: Cellular striations in cardiac muscle is comparable to that in the skeletal muscle and this is due to lateral registration of sarcomeres in adjacent myofibrils. Cells closest to the epiphyseal side of cartilage resemble typical chondrocytes D. All cartilages are covered with perichondrium. chondrocytes begin to divide rapidly and form columns of stacked cells parallel to the long axis of the bone. Only elastic cartilage possesses elasticity. Average life span between 2-3 weeks 22. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Choices A. Derived directly from the bone marrow D. B & C together with Citrate. and it said to be very poor especially beyond early childhood. They are likely to calcify during puberty. Which of these is a major ion that makes up the mineral component of bones? A. Laboratory guide on Cartilage and Bone) 20. Laboratory guide on Cartilage and Bone) 10 . Bone collar D. Chloride D. In the proliferative zone. and in the pubic symphysis. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. D. Boron 40th ed. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Ratio: Due to the low metabolic rate and avascularity of cartilages. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Pericytes participate in the repair of the vascular smooth muscle. The hypertrophic chondrocyte has accumulated glycogen and hydroxyapatite crystals Ratio: At the resting zone. Which of the following best describes cardiac muscle? A. At the zone of proliferation. Lead. whose cytoplasm has accumulated glycogen. contains branching cells with spherical nucleus C. Possess a cell body and numerous fine processes B. Osteopontin C. C. 22nd ed. Page 130. Hydroxyl. Which of the following is true regarding endochondral ossification? A. Composed of collagen types I & II C. in attachment of certain ligaments. Easily destroyed with constant friction is the articular cartilage which is also a hyaline cartilage. it contains swollen. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Cartilage can easily regenerate. Which of the following is/are related to hyaline cartilage? A. Sodium B. and more round than those at the periphery. Loss of chondrocytes by apoptosis begins at the ossification zone C. They have blood vessels located at the surface only. Osteonectin together with type I collagen. autoimmune. Magnesium. the thin filaments are in the I band. Which of the following is true about osteocytes? A. Table 7-1) D. As chondrocytes mature. which of these will you expect to find in both? A. Page 210 & Table 10-1) 15. Zinc. Fibers of the skeletal muscle are single multinucleated cells found on the periphery of the fibers in varying diameter from 10 to 100μm . Boron 40th ed. Calcified cartilage matrix Ratio: Choices B. Laboratory guide on Cartilage and Bone) Ratio: Osteocytes possess a cell body and the cells extend many long dendritic processes. Iron. 1o and 2o ossification centers B. Page 134. the chondrocytes are larger. When given microscopic slides of endochondral and membranous ossification specimens. At the hypertrophic cartilage zone. Pages 149-151) 17. Which of the following describes a fibrocartilage in a joint? A. They are derived from osteoblasts. the chondrocytes increase in size B. 135. pericytes are responsible for its regeneration D. and it is measured in years. Page 132.fibroblast called Endomysium. which can only be found at the cartilage’s surface. B. Phosphate. and D can only be found in endochondral ossification specimen. Which of the following describes a cartilage? A. Osteocalcin 19. degenerative chondrocytes. Osteoprogenitor cells can transform to osteoblasts who in turn will secrete the matrix. presence of myosin filaments causes cellular striations B. Aluminum. they decrease in size. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Page 141. Average lifespan of an osteocyte varies with the metabolic activity of the bone and the likelihood that it will be remodelled. Matrix produces by the chondrocytes of fibrocartilage contains type II collagen. Fluoride. especially those found in articular surfaces D. B. it is consists of hyaline cartilage with typical chondrocytes. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Page 151) 16. At the center. and malignant disorder(Taber’s Cyclopedic Medical Dictionary. Plays a role in elasticity of articular discs Ratio: Fibrocartilage can be found in intervertebral discs.). Located inside lacunae and secretes new matrix C. Page 242]) 14. damaged cartilage undergoes slow and often incomplete repair. proteoglycan aggregates are organic matter embedded in the calcified matrix of the bone. Osteoprotegerin Ratio: Osteocalcin (Calcium-binding Glycoprotein) is a small. and in the corniculate and cuneiform cartilage in the larynx. 25. Ratio: Cardiac muscle contains less well-developed Sarcoplasmic Reticulum with one small terminal cistern per sarcomere in diad with T tubule. consisting type 1 collagen fibers. larynx Ratio: Elastic cartilage can be found in the auricle of the ear. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. tendons. epiglottis. The non-collagenous organic components of bones are produced by which of these cells? 1. Chondrocytes are differentiated from the center of ossification. 4. and several glycoproteins. 133 -osteoblasts are responsible for synthesid of the organic components of bone matrix. Choice #3 refers to skeletal muscle. -primary bone is replaced by secondary bone in adults except in some parts namely the calvaria. Young osteocytes 4. Page 208 & Table 10-1) 3. 24. 5. Ratio: Skeletal muscle consists of muscle fibers which are long cyclindrical multinucleated cells and it is covered by a dense connective tissue called Epimysium. ultiple layers of calcified matrix and is called lamellar bone. and intercalated discs are made up of many desmosomes and fascia adherentes that serve to bind cardiac muscle cells firmly together and are found between adjacent muscle cells. Which of the following best describes smooth muscle fiber? well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum connects to other cells via nexus large and multinucleated absent T-tubules 2. has cavities which contains adipose tissue 4. proteoglycans. Haversian canal contains blood vessels only 4. 125. Secondary bone shoes . 3. 128 -Osteoblasts differentiate directly from mesenchyme and begin secreting osteoid. Elastic cartilage is seen in these structures: 1. tooth sockets. may be found on the surface of flat bones 3. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. 1:1 ratio of intercalated disc to fiber Which of the following is true regarding osteons? 1. are found within medullary cavities 2. Calcitriol B. Choice #4 refers to the cell shape and size of a smooth muscle. . artyenoid. In intramembranous ossification. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Osteoblasts secrete osteoid matrix and calcification follows. Regulation of parathyroid hormone 2. walls of the external auditory canals. Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle tissue? Dense connective tissue covers an entire muscle Myofilaments and ribosomes fill the cytoplasm Cross-section view reveal multinucleated fibers Fusiform and large fibers in bundles 4. -osteoblasts activated by PTH produce a cytokine called osteoclast stimulating factor -PTH targets the osteoblasts which stop production of osteoid and matrix vesicles. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Which of the following diminishes the activity of osteoclasts? A. base 3. Osteoblast-derived signal D.23. Which of the following is true of the cardiac muscle (Junquiera)? One T tubule associated with one sarcoplasmic reticulum cisterna Golgi apparatus occupy 40% of cytoplasmic volume of cells Intercalated discs are made of multiple junctions 4. Cytokines from macrophages C. It has irregular smooth ER without distinct organization. Calcitonin Ratio: Activity of osteoclasts is controlled by local signaling factors and hormones and have receptors for calcitonin. epiglottis 2. 124 -among the noncollagenous material secreted by osteoblasts is the small vit k dependent polypeptide osteocalcin. amount of trabeculae is the same in all bones P.external ear 4. Table 10-1) P. Mesechymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts Which of the following describes a cancellous bone? 1. Which of the following is directly related to osteoblasts? 1. Page 191-2. a thyroid hormone. Page 134 & Laboratory guide on Cartilages and Bones) 1.121. Page 206 & Table 10-1) 26. eustachian tubes. Mature osteocytes 3. 126 -primary bone is the first bone to tissue to appear in embryonic development and it is characterozed by random distribution of fine collagen fibers and is therefore called woven bone. which of the following occur/s? 1. (Junqueira’s 13th ed. Osteoclasts 2. 27. Secretion of glycoprotein 3.the flat bones that form the calvaria have two layers of compact bone seperated by a thicker layer of spongy bone. Mitochondria occupy 40% of cytoplasmic volume of cells. The perichondrium is replaced by osteoprogenitor cells. Interstitial lamellae are located near the periosteum 2. Woven bones are also seen in adults P. 2. -the haversian canal contains blood vessels. This help regulate the process of calcium mobilization from hydroxyapatite. 125 -compact bone has shows dense areas without cavities whilenthe cancellous bone has areas with numerous interconnecting cavities. Ratio: Smooth muscle fiber connects to other cells via Nexus or Gap junction and doesn’t have T tubules but with caveolae which may function similar to that of T tubule. Demineralization of bone matrix 11 . Differentiation of osteoclast 4. nerves and loose ct. Page 143) P. Osteoblasts P. Lamellar bone forms the basic unit of bone tissue 3. 142 . 7. Rudimentary sarcoplasmic reticulum is present but T tubules are not. absent T-tubules C. well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum A. Which of the following is true of the central nervous system? A. in sheaths.the main components of white matter are myelinated axons and myelin producing oligodendrocytes. Which of the following is true of skeletal muscle fiber? A. T-tubules C. Neuronal cell bodies in the white matter outnumber gray matter neurons C. Synapses B.epimysium surrounds the entire muscle 6. brain cortices are multi-layered with single population of neuronal cells B. 168 . Membrane C. Cytoplasm D. cerebellum. Which neuron type in sensory ganglia serves the sense of sight. 141 .each cardiac muscle only contains 1 or 2 centrally located pale staining nuclei. D.cardiac muscle cells have numerous mitochondria which occupy 40% or more of the cytoplasmic volume 4. Myofilament 10. Epimysium C. Which of the following is true of cardiac muscle? A. Which of the following best describes smooth muscle fiber? A.nerve cell bodies are present only in the gray matter.muscle fibers are arranged in bundles surrounded by the epimysium an external sheath of dense ct. . 5. The long oval nuclei is found at the periphery of the cell. central. and the cochlea and vestibular ganglia. Multipolar C. All cells are interconnected by gap junctions 2. P. single central nucleus. P.cardiac muscle cells within a finer often branch and bind to cells in adjacent fibers. Neuronal processes but no cell bodies are found in the white matter. The functional division of the nervous system responsible for the input transmission of visceral organs: These structures are absent in smooth muscle: 12 . glial cells surround most of the neuronal cell bodies. Neurons D. 179 -intercalated discs cross the hains of the cardiac cells at irregular intervals . and spinal cord show regions of white and gray. smell and balance? A.most synapses impinging on neurons are located on dendritic spines. Branching muscle cells C. Spine B. lacks cellular connections C. single large cells. encapsulated myofibril D. . both gray and white matter contain unmyelinated axons. In he CNS. the cereberum. Zonulae occludens connect cells D. . They also have gap junctions which provide ionic continuity between adjacent cells. Perimysium D. Nuclei P. supported by pericytes. Bipolar D. its gap junctions function like electrical synapses D.Sarcomere B. 180 -smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus located in the center. perimysium is a connective tissue that surrounds each fascicle or bundles of fibers. Sarcoplasmic reticulum P. Perineurium 11. 3. differemces caused by the differential distribution of myelin . absent cell membrane B. 167 . . This structural component of the dendrite is where synaptic signals are processed first: A. Each muscle fiber itself is surrounded by a more delicate ct called the endomysium. multinucleated. 152 . . connected to other muscle fibers by nexus. RER cisternae 12. occur at regular intervals between cardiac cells B. Mitochondria C.desmosomes and fascia adherens serve to bind cardiac cells firmly together. spherical nucleus P. Multinucleated cells B. The investing connective tissue of a skeletal muscle fascicle A.1. 168 . Myofibril D. This structure is responsible for the banding pattern of skeletal and cardiac muscle: A. dendrites and neuroglia P.longitudinal portion of each disc have multiple gap junctions. Organelles P. . myelin content is responsible for the difference between gray and white matter D. desmosomes are found in its longitudinal regions C.when sectiomed. 179 . Unipolar B. Pseudounipolar P.rudimentaru sarcoplasmic reticulum is present but T tubules are not. Endomysium B. bipolar neurons that are found in the retina. 9.the banding pattern in sarcomeres is due mainly to the regular arrangement of two types of myofilaments. branched. White matter does not have neuronal cell bodies but mcroglia is present. 147 . 141. fascia adherens are anchoring sites for myosin P.the connective tissue around each fascicle is called perimysium. T tubules B.glial cells are 10x more abundant in the mammalian brain than neurons.pseudounipolar neurons are found in the spinal ganglia. . well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum B. 8. Myofilaments abundantly fill the sarcoplasm P.most neurons are multipolar. Which of the following is a common component of gray and white matter? A. P. polyribosomes.long cylindrical multinucleated cells. 180 .endomysium surrounds each muscle fiber .concentrated near the nucleus are mitochondria. well-developed T-tubules D. cisternae of RER and the golgi app. . mucosa. Which of the following is true of the intercalated discs? A. olfactory. Neuroglia C. Nexus B. axolemma D. P. same histologic appearance in all epidermal layers C. Which of the following is true of the histologic features of autonomic ganglia? A. secretory coil of eccrine type are composed of two cell types B. Tight junctions D.comsists of 15-20 layers of flattened. 318 . 318 . dark and myoepithelial cells. cardiac .somatic motor for voluntary control of skeletal muscle . 163 . 1-2 nucleoli in the nucleus B. P. undergo mitosis up to the stratum granulosum P. uscle. become active during puberty P.autonomic motor for involuntary comtrol of smooth muscle. apocrine sweat is clear and transparent C. and skeletal muscles . . autonomic motor SC= 15-20 layers -statum lucidum is only seen in thick skin -connective tissue of the skin contains a rich metwork of blood and lymphatic vessels which are found between the hypodermis and the dermis. 330 .eccrine sweat glands are coiled and have small lumens consisting of 3 cell types.sebaceous glands open into hair follicles while seeat glands open to the epidermal surface. simple branched glands D. P.capsules of your intramural ganglia is less well defined . . 329 -sebaceous glands are embedded in the dermis over most of the body sirgace except in the thick.internal surface of all dura mater as well as its external surface in the soinal cord is lined with simple squamous epithelium 15. somatic motor D. 323 -the epidermis usually shows only 4 layers in think skin while ot is 5 in thick skin: SB= single layer SS=thickest epidermal layer SG= 3-5 layers SL=thin translucent layer 13 . Very thin stratum lucidum B. nonnucleated keratinized cells. 142 . Macula adherens P. 16. some cells may still divide and this zone is called stratum germinativum. columnar C. Capillary-rich epidermis 21. accumulate increasing amounts of keratin while in transit B. initial segment C.axon hillock is where all axons originate which is a pyramid shaped region.autonomic hanglia usually have multipolar neurons. Seen as a single layer 13. Shallow dermal papillae D. Desmosomes C. -Sebaceous glands are branched acinar glands wohh several acini. visceral sensory C. Which of the following best describes thin skin? A. . ducts of merocrine glands connect with hair follicles P. 149 .astrocytes are in direct communication with one another via gap jumctioms 19. non-encapsulated 20. Astrocytes communicate with each other via which of the following? A.sweat glands are epithelial derivatives embedded in the dermis which open to the skin surface.axolemma is the limiting membrane of the axon. .A.initial segment is the site where various excitatory and inhibitory stimuli impinging on the neuron are summed. fascia. Which of the following is true of the histologic features of stratum corneum cells? A. The stratum granulosum is the site for terminal differentiation.secretion from sebaceous glands greatly increases during puberty. -stratum basale is characterized by intense kitotic activity. 153 . mesaxon P. the light. . P.total skin thickness varies according to site -cells in the stratum corneum contain only fibrillar and amorphous proteins with thickened plasma membrane which are called squames or horny cornified cells.apocrine sweat glands are innervated by adrenergic nerve endings while eccrine sweat glands are innervated by cholinergic fibers. Flattened and filled with keratin C. axon hillock B. Which of the following best describes of sweat glands? A. Prominent mitcohondria D. 14. hairless skin of the palms and soles. parenchymal tissue provide neuron support B. Which of the following is true of the keratinocytes? A. The part of the neuron where a myelinated axon will arise: A.somatic sensory transmits input from skin. . squamous D. same duct opening as sweat glands B. 142 . joints. pseudounipolar neurons predominate D. become stellate-shaped in the stratum corneum D. cuboidal B. pseudostratified columnar P. . 17.lumens of apocrine glands show stored protein rich product which myoepithelial cells help move into ducts opening to hair follicles. Which of the following is true of the sebaceous glands? A. amd glands 18. and superficially between the papillary and reticulqr dermal layers. Dura matter surfaces are lined by which of the following simple epithelial tissue? A.visceral sensory transmits input from stomach and intestines . Layers are of equal thickness C. absent capsule cells in intramural ganglia C. 318. Just above the basal layer. somatic sensory B. apocrine glands are innervated by cholinergic fibers D. hypodermal appendages C. Undifferentiated embryonic connective tissue which participates in the formation of organs: P. Which of the following is a histologic feature of the dermis? A. Mesenchyme 22. Meissener’s corpuscles D. Elastic fibers are regularly arranged D. 73 14 Transitional epithelium is characterized by A. free polyribosomes. mitochondria. membrane junctions P. Epithelial cell specializations which increase the absorptive surface of the epithelium in the small intestines: A. Sheet-like intracellular structure D. Reticular tissue support the fat cells C. all cells touch the basement membrane P. . glandular secretions -connective for supoort and function -muscle for movement -nervous for transmission of nervous impulse. 73 -pseudostratified columnar epithelium so called because all cells are attached to the basal lamina even though theor nuclei lie at different levels. layers of flat cells D. Pacinian corpuscles C. corneum 5. Elastic fibers predominate in its matrix C. Basale. and vibrations. Body region B. Location in a specific organ D. 4. Basale. -has extensive vascular supply 24. Krause’s end bulbs B. 70 . Muscle P. 86 -connective tissues originate from the mesenchyme formed by undifferentiated cells called mesenchymal cells.found in absorptive cells such as the lining of the small intestines. Which of the following is true of the hypodermis? A. pressure. 25. P. microvilli D. all cells have the same size and shape D.basal lamina serve as pathways for cell migration.nail bed only contains the basal and spinous layers. rer.glassy membrane surrounds the arrector pili muscle which forms a connective tissue sheath. Contains cells with eccentric & flattened nucleus B. 3. Absence of blood vessels D. P. Ruffini’s corpuscles 6. 325 -pacinian corpuscles sense coarse touch. Epithelial B. 329 . 323 -subcutaneous layer os also known as the hypodermis consists of loose ct. 109 . Which of the following is true of the basal lamina? A. Spinosum and granulosum B. spinosum. 66 . Abundant fibroblasts in the matrix P. Connective C. microvilli are more prominent 1. The nail bed is composed of which epidermal layers: A. Cytoplasmic organelles are absent D. From this layer anchoring fibrils of type vii collahen insert into the basal lamina. all cells are exposed to the surface C. Encapsulated nerve endings found in the conjunctiva and external genitalia A. 66 -epithelial tissue lines surface of body cavities. P. 23. nuclei are at different levels B. mainly areolar connective in tissue reticular layer D. Nervous Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium is classified as simple epithelium because A. -the thickest portion of he cytoplasm contains a golgi app. Elastic fibers are also present. Mucous C. 2. spinosum. its ability to stretch B. -meissners detect light touch -krause and ruffini are pressure sensing mechanoreceptors. lamina propria C. Cellular life span C. Loose P. basal lamina B. elastic fibers around the arrector pili muscle P.the papillary layer consists of loose ct. Largely made up of type I collagen B. P. 322.reticular layer is thicker and is composed of irregular dense connective tissue. . its secretory function C. Which of the following is true of fat tissue? A. high mitotic activity .white adipose tissue have eccentroc and flattened nuclei due to the lipid droplet. Tissues are classified according to: A. granulosum. 327 . Reticular B. contains areolar tissue interspersed with fat tissue B. Contains loose connective tissue B. 7. Thick membrane seen under light microscopy 8. spinosum C. D. -the badal lamina is a felt like sheet of extracellular material -visible only with electron microscope where it appears thick -type iv collagen is abundant which forms the felt like sheet. Pathway for cell migration C. Basale.A. presence of collagen and elastic fibers in papillary layer C. granulosum D. -reticular fibers support individual fat cells and bind them together. Cellular appearance & function Which tissue lines body cavities and blood vessels? A. Junquiera. 9. A nuclear membrane separates prokaryotic organelles from the nucleus B. the human organism is made up of both prokaryotic & eukaryotic cells C. and elasric fibers. loosely packed collagen fibers D. 13th Edition. Reticular D. fibroblast Rationale: Animal cells are eukaryotic. abundant in smooth muscle & bone marrow D. gel-like consistency in all connective tissue types C. 100 . 42. vimentin – striated muscle cell B. In epidermal cells.reticular fibers consists of type 3 collagen fibers -are not visible in hematoxylin and eosin preps but are easily stained in silver salts.87 . Which of the following best describes reticular fibers? A. Dense regular P. desmin – axons C. The type of connective tissue proper which occurs in the umbilical cord: A. keratin – vaginal epithelium Rationale: ■ Keratins or cytokeratins are a diverse family of acidic and basic isoforms that compose heterodimer subunits of intermediate filaments in all epithelial cells. tightly packed elastic fibers B. accumulate in allergic states 41. Transitional epithelium also have fewer cell layers when the bladder is distended. loosely packed elastic fibers C. processong. 13. 13th Edition. 108 . Which of the following pairings between filament type and occurrence is true? A. closely packed bundles of collahen seperated by ground substance which causes their white appearance and their inextensibility. packaging substance of cells and fibers D.cytochemically. secrete extracellular matrix C. -reticular fibers constitute a network around parenchymal cells of various organs and are particularly abundant in hematopoeitic organs 10. active transport by pinocytosis. propel mucus in the respiratory tract P. P. made up of a glycoprotein bi-layer 12. structurally visible with the use of a light microscope C.Junquiera. absorption in the digestive tract B. Which of the following best describes cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system? A. its fluidity is due to the presence of phospholipids D. Which of the following is true of ground substance? A. 98 .ground substance is a highly hydrated. The cells are also able to adjust their relationship with one another as the bladder is filled and the wall is stretched. 11. mast cell C. secretion and active transport D. -tendons and ligaments have parallel. synthesize hormones D. histones are present in both prokaryotes & eukaryotes D. Which of the following connective tissue cells has a structural function? A. tightly packed collagen fibers P. 87 -mononuclear phagocyte system are long living cells and may survive for . membrane-limited structures are present in eukaryotes P. plasma D. Mucous C.lar acidic protein (GFAP) found especially in astrocytes. 15.abundant in organs that are subject to changes in form or volume like the uterus. . reticular. proteoglycans. secretion of biologically active molecules.fibroblast synthesize most components of connective tissue ecm including proteins such as collagen and elastin which would form collagen. glycosaminoglycans & glycoproteins B. onths in the tissues.. neutrophil B. 73 -simple squamous epithelium facilitates movement of the viscera. arteries. limits the passage of substances entering & exiting the cell B. complex mixture of macromolecules namely GAG. Which of the following is true of the plasma membrane? A. survive for a long time in tissues B. and glycoproteins 14. intestinal muscle layers. visible in hematoxylin & eosin staining C. 106 15 . most abundant in epithelial tissue 43. page 19. They are important for uptake. They are encoded by over 30 related genes and produce filaments with different chemical and immunologic properties for various functions. combination of water. Which of the following is true of the cell? A.characterized by a superficial layer of domelike cells. P. supporting cells of central nervous system tissue. Desmin filaments of a cultured cell are shown immuno. page 18. with distinct membrane-limited nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm containing various membrane-limited organelles. Important vimentin-like proteins include desmin found in almost all muscle cells and glial fibril. diffusion and filtration C. and presentation of antigens. neurofilaments – astrocytes D. form the parenchyma of lymphoid organs The flat cells of simple squamous epithelium are specialized for A.mucous tissue is found mainly in the umbilical cord and fetal tissue. P. Tendons and ligaments receive their strength from: A. cytokeratins accumulate ■ Vimentin is the most common class III intermediate filament protein and is found in most cells derived from mesenchyme. transparent. Rationale: The plasma membrane functions as a selective barrier regulating the passage of materials into and out of the cell and facilitating the transport of specific molecules. composed mainly of type IV collagen B. Loose B. which involves differentiation of new chondroblasts from the perichondrium. in the differentiation process termed keratinization. mRNA. 13th Edition. The evolution of keratins made terrestrial life possible. the Eustachean tubes. Junquiera. page 132. cells which secrete steroids have flattened mitochondria C. 46. perinuclear cisterna D. Which of the following is related to hyaline cartilage? A. larynx Rationale: Elastic cartilage is found in the auricle of the ear. C. Which of the following describes a cartilage? A. 40th Edition. B. As the mesenchymal cells grow. B. Intermediate filaments of keratins form large bundles (tonofibrils) that attach to certain junctions between epithelial cells. Which of the following is related to the growth of cartilage? A. page 41. D. Junquiera. young chondrocytes or chondroblasts have an elliptic shape. Rationale: From their surfaces facing away from blood vessels. D. In the development of cartilage. Chondrocytes are flat close to the perichondrium D. epiglottis B. 16 . 51. 47. inner ear 45. Which of the following nuclear parts is responsible for the controlled communication between the nucleus and cytoplasm? A. Keratinization also provides some protection from minor abrasions and produces various hard protective structures of skin. 13th Edition. There are gap junctions which joins the adjacent cell. page 84. 13th Edition. Elastic cartilage is seen in these structures: A. adjacent to marrow cavities. 52. Which of the following describes a cancellous bone? A. page 134. ■ Lamins are a family of seven isoforms present in the cell nucleus. 13th Edition. ribosomes. horns. Cartilages grow in length and in girth. Junquiera. They are likely to calcify during puberty. beaks. II & XI collagen fibers. the pore complexes regulate movement of macromolecules between the nucleus and cytoplasm. amount of trabeculae is same in all bones Rationale: Adjacent cells are linked by gap junctions. resulting from the mitotic division of preexisting chondroblasts. The perichondrium is replaced by osteoprogenitor cells. Var. Growth in width is more common in young cartilages C. fibrous lamina C. are clear. fasciculated fibrous tissue D. The matrix are composed of types I.Junquiera. In intramembranous ossification. The increase in length is due to the mitosis of chondrocytes. has cavities devoid of adipose tissue D. and by appositional growth. are found within medullary cavities C. consists more of type I collagen Rationale: Fibrocartilage. especially those found in articular surfaces Rationale: The inner and outer nuclear membranes are bridged at nuclear pore complexes (Figures 3–2 through 3–6). may be found on the surface of flat bones B. with the long axis parallel to the surface. matrix between cristae contains DNA & RNA D. page 55. table 8-1 of page 157. 50. the polarized osteoblasts secrete the psyeoid components that calcify and form trabeculae of woven bone. which of the following occurs? A. Rationale: At tbe periphery of the cartilage. C. which of the following is a true statement? A. Although ions and small solutes pass through the channels by simple diffusion. Osteoblasts secrete osteoid matrix and calcification follows. does not cover articular surfaces of clavicles C. 53. the cartilage tissue enlarges both by interstitial growth. It is also known as medullary bone. 44. nuclear pore B. Rationale: Once initially formed. page 149. Cartilage can easily regenerate. 13th Edition. mitochondrial ribosomes suspended in outer membrane matrix B. the walls of the external auditory canals. present in body regions subjected to pulling forces.Junquiera. present in equal amounts in intervertebral discs and articular cartilages B. and the scales of reptiles).ious core proteins of a nuclear pore complex. Junquiera. Gray's Anatomy. Chondrocytes are differentiated from the center of ossification.■ Neurofilament proteins of three distinct sizes make het. Only elastic cartilage possesses elasticity. display eightfold symmetry around the lumen. where they form a structural framework called the nuclear lamina just inside the nuclear envelope. Junquiera. nucleoplasm 49. B. Rationale: Cancellous bone is found in the inner region of bones. Which of the following is true of the mitochondria? A. called nucleoporins. the epiglottis and the cuneiform cartilage in thr larynx. such as nails (as well as feathers. 13th Edition. Junquiera. base C. Junquiera 13th Edition. Has firm consistency and highly elastic C. the cytoplasm is bigger than the nucleus. page 48.erodimers that form the subunits of the major interme. All cartilages are covered with perichondrium. all with similarities to the corresponding bacterial components. B. Many cells become fibroblasts which are synthesized by chondroblasts. 48. Mesechymal cells differentiate into osteoclasts. D. artyenoid. page 130. and tRNA. page 135. 13th Edition. 13th Edition. The interstitial growth usually happens in the diaphysis.diate filaments of neurons. B. Its outer mitochondrial membrane is impermeable D. which results in an outer layer of nonliving skin cells that reduces dehydration. is characterized by a matrix containing a dense network of coarse type I collagen fibers. Rationale: The mitochondrial matrix contains a small circular chromosome of DNA. Which of the following pertains to fibrocartilage? A. chloride. D. D. page 87. page 88. forming woven bone. Gray's Anatomy. The hypertrophic chondrocyte has accumulated glycogen and hydroxyapatite crystals 55. Osteonectin B. Gray's Anatomy. copper. membrane rupture D. C They react to activity of thyroid hormone D. Rationale: Each osteon is permeated with the canaliculi of its resident osteocytes. and the phosphatases released in matrix vesicles by osteoblasts pro. The resting zone consists of hyaline cartilage with typi. sodium. They are derived from osteoblasts. 13th Edition. Osteocytes are best described by one of the following statements: A. Gray's Anatomy. In the proliferative zone. and these form pathways for diffusion of nutrients. 60. Canaliculi infiltrate the osteons to form pathways. aluminum. 40th Edition. 40th Edition. 40th edition. Junquiera. fluoride.Osteoprotegerin Rationale: Calcium-binding glycoproteins. notably osteocalcin. Volkmann’s canal are centrally which communicate with each other. silicon and boron. loss of the chondrocytes by apoptosis is accompanied by calcification of the septa of cartilage matrix by the formation of hydroxyapatite crystals. strontium. lead. bone tissue first appears. large blood vessels traverse cartilage to supply other tissues. Osteopontin C. page 88. cartilage is avascular and receives nutrients by diffusion from capillaries in adjacent connective tissue (perichondrium). chondrocytes exhibit low metabolic activity. Which of the following is related to an osteon? A. Junquiera. The osteoclasts are described by which of the following sentences? A. Phosphate is one of the major inorganic components. but these vessels release few nutrients to the cartilage. C. They have blood vessels located at the surface only. many of which are present only in trace quantities. It is made up of 50% collagen. As chondrocytes mature. The hypertrophic cartilage zone contains swollen. B. 2. magnesium. The ground substance is mainly made up of non-collagenous glycoproteins. page 151. the chondrocytes increase in size B. 56. between the vascular system and the osteocytes. degenerative chondrocytes whose cytoplasm has accu. In some instances. D. These cells are found inside resorption bays Rationale: Osteoclasts are large polymorphic cells containing up to 20 oval. Which of the following correctly describes an osteoblast? A. At the zone of proliferation.mote calcification of the matrix. C.ity. 4. B. Rationale: Osteocytes play an important role in the maintenance of bone: their death leads to the resorption of the matrix by osteoclast activity. closely packed nuclei. Rationale: Osteoblasts are derived from osteoprogenitor stem cells of mesenchymal origin.teum invade the cavities left by the chondrocytes. Rationale: Bone minerals are the inorganic constituents of the bone matrix.mulated glycogen. They synthesize bone matrix. 57. Osteocalcin D. In the matrix. B. Many of these cavities will be merged and become the marrow cav.cal chondrocytes. etc. In a bone matrix. Capillaries and osteoprogenitor cells originally from the perios. Cartilage also lacks lymphatic vessels and nerves. they develop to become osteoclast. Usually derived from stem cell of mesenchymal origin. They are connected to one another by their axonal processes. 40th Edition.which of the following statement is true? A. 58. Rationale: In all three forms. 13th Edition. As might be expected of cells in an avascular tissue. page 87. The collagen fibers & crystals in woven bone are arranged parallel to each other. phosphate hydroxyl and carbonate. gases. Other tissues containing type I collagen do not contain osteocalcin or matrix vesicles and are not normally calcified. 54. In the ossification zone. D. Less numerous ions are citrate. D. Gray's Anatomy. which are present in the bone marrow and other connective tissues. This hypertrophy compresses the matrix into thin septa between the chondrocytes. Only found on the surfaces of growing bones C. 13th Edition. A mature bone is moderately dehydrated. Loss of chondrocytes by apoptosis begins at the ossification zone C. They undergo bone resorption after their death 61. they decrease in size. They lie in close contact with the bone surface in resorption bays (Howship's lacunae). Which of the following is true regarding endochondral ossification? A. 3. page 88. Junquiera. page 130. chondrocytes begin to divide rapidly and form columns of stacked cells parallel to the long axis of the bone. Rationale: An epiphyseal growth plate shows distinct regions of cellular activity and is often discussed in terms of five zones. starting from the thin region of normal cartilage: 1. cellular swelling B. C. B. Cells closest to the epiphyseal side of cartilage resemble typical chondrocytes D.C. Which of these correctly describes the morphologic changes which take place during apoptosis? A. The circumferential lamellae are found in between the osteons. Which glycoprotein is used as a marker of new bone formation? A. The cells are large with few nuclei. Osteoblasts settle in a layer over the septa of calcified cartilage matrix and secrete osteoid over these structures. potassium. They are formed during bone formation. 59. iron. Their activity is enhanced by calcitonin. zinc. In the calcified cartilage zone. The major ions which make up the mineral part of bone include calcium. page 143. nuclear fragmentation 17 . B. mitochondrial swelling C. Gray's Anatomy. 5. 49th Edition. consists principally of type 1 collagen and elastic fibers. Irregular arrangement of T tubule and sarcoplasmic reticulum 4. 13th Edition. metaphase. Junquiera. sister chromatids separate and move toward oposite spindle poles by a combination of microtubule motor proteins and ynamic changes in the lengths of the microtubules as the spindle poles move farther apart. page 69. prophase B. 64. Synapsis and genetic recombination Rationale: Two key features characterize meiosis. Desmosomes & gap junctions c. sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles Rationale: Mitosis involves four phases: prophase. Elastin was the only one mentioned in Junquiera. The main component of the tunica adventitia is? Answer: A. Which of the following membrane junctions are abundant in the transverse portion of the intercalated discs? a. such as those of the liver.2nd Bimonthly Rationale: Apoptosis results in small membrane-enclosed apoptotic bodies. or tunica externa.S. page 22. letter D is their common feature and it refers to anaphase. others. the intercalated discs. Which of the following is the best possible reason why calcium is actively exported into the cardiac fibers? a. During synapsis. 5. DNA replication prior to the start of prophase D. pages 63 . synapsis and crossing over D. which quickly undergo phagocytosis by neighboring cells or cells specialized for debris removal. 13th Edition. pachytene. diplotene and diakinesis. keratinocyte B. Which of these occurs in meiosis but NOT in mitosis? A. Which of the following best describe large artery? Answer: B. 13th Edition. with relatively more elastin. come together in an activity called synapsis. 40th Edition. 13th Edition. prometaphase C. Diakinesis is also considered as this phase of meiosis II: A. Atrial muscle fibers have lesser T tubules 2. Early in the process.Junquiera. Absence of ribosomes c. anaphase and telophase.S. Tight junctions & gap junctions Rationale: Transverse regions of these steplike discs. Purkinje cell D. one from father).Junquiera. Junquiera. Presence of diad b. Collagen and elastic fibers Rationale: The outer adventitia. hepatocyte C. Junquiera. page 60. 63. the chromosomes become fully condensed and undergo metaphase. page 206. 18 .68. In anaphase. double-stranded breaks and repairs occur in the DNA. Gap junctions & fascia adherents d. Gray's Anatomy. Crossing over produces new combinations of genes in the chromosomes in the germ cells so that few if any chromosomes are exactly the same as those in the mother and father. Small diameter of cardiac cells Rationale: Less well-developed. I really cannot find number 2.Junquiera. Separation of sister chromatids during the anaphase C. Chromosomes align at the equatorial plate in metaphase B. metaphase D. are terminally differentiated. Rationale: The structure and function of the contractile proteins in cardiac cells are essentially the same as in skeletal muscle. the homologous chromosomes of each pair (one from mother. cell cycle activities may be temporarily or permanently suspended with the cells sometimes referred to as being in the Go phase. anaphase and telophase. Junquiera. zygotene. and the sarcoplasmic reticulum is less abundant. 65. with markedly fewer T-tubules. Cells are supported by reticular fibers and fibroblasts 3. 13th edition. 1. anaphase Rationale: Meiotic prophase I is a long and complex phase that differs considerably from mitotic prophase and is customarily divided into five substages: leptotene. In meiosis. however. page 67. Some differentiated cells. Less-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum d. Figure 11-7. 13th Edition. 2. Atrial muscle cells are larger than in the ventricles 62. page 202. The media is much thicker in large arteries than veins. Atrial muscle cells are somewhat smaller. The T-tubule system and sarcoplasmic reticulum. when synapsis and crossing over are completed. generates identical daughter cells B. P. Which of these cells can be described as “trapped” in the G 0 phase? A. Fascia adherents & desmosomes b. one small terminal cistern per sarcomere in diad with T tubule. cancer cell Rationale: As postmitotic cells begin to specialize and differentiate. preceded by an S phase C. 13th Edition. together these serve to bind cardiac miscle cells firmly together to prevent their pulling apart under constant contractile activity. renew cycling under certain conditions. some of which result in reciprocal DNA exchanges called crossovers between the aligned maternal and paternal chromosomes. Junquiera. including most muscle and nerve cells. 13th edition. pages 205206. Which of these is a common feature of mitosis and meiosis II? A. page 217. T tubules are more numerous and larger in cardiac muscle. Junquiera. are not as regularly arranged in cardiac fiber. 3. 4. Please confirm for the presence of reticular fibers. Which of the following is true of the myocardium? Answer: A 1. Smooth muscle cells and reticular fibers in media Rationale: The media (M) contains many elastic lamellae and elastic fibers (EF) alternating with layers of smooth muscle. have many desmosomes and fascia adherentes (which resemble the zonula adherentes between epithelial cells). Among the choices. page 219. P. Updated Edition. Hyaluronidase 3. What is the main component of the Valves? A. page 504. page 213. 13th Edition. page 245. Forms the bulk of the heart 4. Collagen & elastic fibers C. 13th Edition. preventing the valves from turning insude-out during ventricular contraction. Membrane Bound Granule that contains Fibrinogen A Delta B Lambda 19 . Exocardium B. Junquiera. Large Eccentric. The chromatin is less condensed than in lymphocytes and typically stains lighter than that of large lymphocytes. 13th Edition. Fibronusom Trigonum C. The cytoplasm of the monocyte is basophilic. Septum membranuceum d. Boron. 16. The cardiac extracellular matrix is composed of: 1. Myocardium C.6. Vascular supply 4. Direct impulse conduction from Atrium to ventricle is delayed because of the presence of this structure A. 13th Edition. Fibronectin 4. AV node B. Dermatan sulfate 9. Vascular supply 4. the sunendocardial layer in the ventricles contains the conducting (Purkinje) fibers of the heart's impulse comducting network. Epicardium and Adipose C. Nerves 2. Figure 11-3. Which is/are content(s) of the subendocardial layer 1. Conducting fibers 3. page 215. Rationale: The valves are basically flaps of connective tissue anchored in the heart's dense connective tissue. lightly stained. or cardiac skeleton. Dense connective tissue & smooth muscle cells B. These fibers are cardiac muscle cells joined by intercalated disks but specialized for impulse conduction rather than contraction. This fibrous tissue includes the chordae tendineae. Fibrous Skeleton D. Reticular cells Rationale: The monocyte nucleus is large and usually distinctly indented or C-shaped (Figure 12–12). Nerves 2. What part of cardiac skeleton forms the upper part of the interventricular septum a. Which of the ff are contents of the tissue layer beneath the endothelium of the endocardium? A. Macrophages & dense irregular tissue D. Lymphoid tissue Rationale: 12. 14. Annuli fibrosi b. horse-shoe shaped Nucleus with basophilic cytoplasm A Lymphocyte B monocyte C Neutrophil D Basophil Rationale: The impulse does not spread directly from the atria to the ventricles because of the presence of a fibrous atrioventricular ring. Collagen Fibers 3. Junquiera. Dense regular CT B. Epicardium D. Junquiera. Bundle of his C. Musculi pectinate 7. 11. Reticular cells & fibroblasts Rationale: Rationale: 8. 10. Endocardium Rationale: Below the endothelium and myoelastic layer. AV Valves Rationale: 15. Endocardium and CT D. Structure is intermediate between P and T cells 3. Hyaluronic acid 2. Linear arrangement attached by intercalated discs 13. cords that extend from the cusps of both atrioventricular valves and attach to papillary muscles. Lymphoid tissue Rationale: Valves and cords are covered by the nonthrombogenic endothelium. Which is also known as the visceral layer of the serous pericardium A. Which of the following is/are contents of the subendocardial layer? 1. Rationale: The epicardium corresponds to the visceral layer of the pericardium. the membrane surrounding the heart. Which of the following best describes the Purkinje cells? 1. Smallest myocardial cell 2. Junquiera. Figure 11-2 of page 214. Monocyte B. Eosinophil 19. Which of the following plasma proteins are released by lymphocytes A. page 234. pages 235 and 237. 13th Edition. Specific granules are specialize cytoplasmic lysosomes B. 26. Human erythrocytes suspended in an isotonic medium are flexible biconcave discs. Macrophage C. Platelets B. page 256. Neutrophils B. 17. 13th Edition. Rationale: By far the most numerous type of agranulocyte in normal blood smears or CBCs. Which of the following cells supplement the activity of mast cells A. Junquiera. Junquiera. Monocyte 24. lymphocytes can be subdivided into functional groups by distinctive surface molecules (called "cluster of differentiation" or CD markers) that can be distinguished using antibodies with immunocytochemistry or flow cytometry. Lymphoblast Rationale: Ultrastructurally. 13th Edition. 22. Has a round and indented nucleus Rationale: Erythrocytes are terminally differentiated structures lacking nuclei and completely filled with the O2-carrying protein hemoglobin. Liver D. major basic protein C. 13th Edition. Bone Marrow C. Lymphocyte D. Erythrocytes 21.minal compartment for neutrophils. Metamyelocyte C. Complement proteins 20 . with flattened crystalloid cores containing major basin proteins (MBP). where the cells reside for a few days and then die by apoptosis. 23. page 242.cytes enter the connective tissues by migrating through intercel. P-Selectin B. RBCs are the only blood cells whose function does not require them to leave the vasculature. Lymphoid Organ 20. Basophil D. Junquiera. Although they are morphologically similar. These cells are not affected by Bone Marrow Problems A. anucleated cells which normally do not go out of circulation A. Which of the following is pertained as the major hemopoeitic organ in the early fetal life? A. page 238. Neutrophil B. Inflamed connective tissues thus form a fifth ter. Rationale: Granulocytes possess two major types of cytoplasmic granules: lysosomes (often called azurophilic granules) and specific granules ghat bind neutral. which are immunoglobulins (antibodies) secreted by plasma cells (terminally differentiated B lymphocyte) in many locations.C Alpha D Gamma C. Gamma globulin D. This formed element possesses Phagocytotic Ability then die soon after phagocytosis A Eosinophil B Basophil C Monocyte D Neutrophils 25. The substance responsible for the strong acidophilia in eosinophils A.lular junctions between endothelial cells of postcapillary venules in diapedesis. These agranular cells are spherical in shape with same morphologic characteristics but can be differentiated through their markers. Dendritic Cell C. 13th Edition. Ankyrin 18. Biconcave. Reticulocytes C. Poorly developed Golgi Complex and rER D. Lymphocytes are typically thr smallest leukocytes and are abundant. 13th Edition. Albumin Rationale: Rationale: Gamma-Globulins. Megakaryocyte Rationale: At sites of injury or infection. regardless of whether they have performed their major function of phagocytosis. neutrophils and other granulo. pages 243-244. the eosinophilic granules are seen to be oval in shape. Which of the ff is a terminally differeniated cell? A.Junquiera. natural killer cells D. Junquiera. Spleen B. Reticulocyte D. True about the characteristics of Granulocytes A. an arginine-rich factor that accounts for the granule's acidophilia and constitutes up to 50% of the total granule protein. Junquiera. lymphocyte constitute a family of leukocytes with spherical nuclei. Eosinophil C. constituting up to a third of these cells. Which of the ff cells is not phagocytic in function A. basic or acidic stains and have specific functions. segmenter B. Multinucleated cells with abundant mitochondria C. Fibrinogen B. True about hematopoesis 1. hematocrit C. Normal MCV. Which of the following blood cells mature and differentiate in the bone marrow? A. plasma cells 39. Which of the following comes from cytoplasmic fragments of precursor cell? Answer: B. True about Bone Marrow Answer: B megakaryocyte largest in hematopoiesis 41. What is the first step done in manual leukocyte count A Estimate Leukocyte count under LPO B Record Immature granulocytes and leukocytes C Determine Differential Counts D Ascertain that smear is well made 32. Polychromatophilic Erythroblast D. heralded by appearance of azurophilic granules B. Leukocytes 33. Both Abnormally Small and abnormally large erythrocytes were found in blood smear A. Cells of mononuclear phagocytic system are all derived from which hematopoietic cell? A. Proerythroblast B. Presence of lymphatic Nodules 37. 4. Which lab test determines the RATE of production of rbc A. Decreased RDW B. Which of the ff phrase refers to promyelocyte A. metamyelocyte 40. NK cells B. sinusoids d. make up 50% of circulating lymph 34. What is the final stage in the differentiation of B cells? Answer: A. increased rdw C. monocyte D. Reticulocyte C. Monocytes D. Distinguished by an indented semi___ nucleus D. terminal cells cannot divide 38. Myeloblast C. platelets 35. lymphoid nodules c. Reticulocytes C. Bone marrow aspiration site A. Which of the ff. cells is not normally found in the peripheral blood smear? A. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate 28. normal mcv. True about NK cells? 1. connective tissue 36. Polymononuclear cells C. Monocyte share lineage with Answer: B. promyelocyte D. lymphocytes D. Stage/ cell in erythropoiesis where it is no longer dividing A. Which of the Following differentiates the thymus from lymph gland? a. Supported by reticular Connective Tissue c. Monocytes B. large lymph with granules / 2. bilroth's cord b. megakaryocyte B. Decreased RDW 30. Femur B Manubrium C Vertebrae D iliac crest 31. Band Neutrophils D. Segmenter C. reticulocyte count D.renewal is up until cells become lineage specific 2 successive levels of progenitor will decrease in capability to divide 21 . plasma cells 43. Erythrocytes C. Lymphocytes with Granules 42. have markers used to identify b and t cells 3.27. Orthocromatic Erythoblast 3. Incapable of cell division 29. granulocytic lineage 44. self . What is the major component of the splenic white pulp? a. Eosinophil 45. smaller than the myeloblast C. Hemoglobin Count B. myelocyte B. Lymphocytes B. Division of cortex and medulla b. decrease MCV. Which type of leukocytes can return to the blood from the tissues A. increased rdw D. decreased mcv. At which stage is the beginning of production of specific granules? A. cause lysis to target cells / 4. Spleen b. divided into medulla and cortex 2. Basement membrane D. Inner cortex .multi nodular with abundant B lymphocytes 4. Thymus b. Which part of nasal is keratinized stratified epithelium with sebaceous. Red pulp C. Mast cells 4. Marginal D. White pulp B. A splenic zone containing plenty of sinuses and loose lymphatic tissue. Reticular cells are responsible for dark staining d. Which of the following lymphoid organs is dual in origin? A. Type 2 4. Type 1 2. Outer cortex . Areolar Tissue is the main tissue of the Capsule The Respiratory System 48. Muscularis mucosae 2. medullary sinuses connect via reticular fibers and cells 3. cortical to medullary lymphocyte ration favors the cortex c. lamina propria C. What is true of the Thymus: a.lymphocytes 2. A. Which of the ff. Tonsils B. Spleen C. arises primarily from the mesenchyme b. Peyer's patch 4. Appendix D. hair glands A.lymphocytes 3. brush 3. B . Which of the following is true of a lymph gland? Answer: B. Neuroepithelial B. Macrophages 46. Salivary corpuscles seen in the tonsillar crypt 7. Which of the following associations about the histologic features of the lymph node is true? Answer: C or D 1. Bone Marrow 6. Lymphatic cords 55. Oval clusters in lymphatic cells have some extracellular matrix but has no connective tissue describes? a. Which among these describes tonsils: 1. Nasopharyngeal 5. Lymphatic nodules c. Lymph node c. Goblet C. T . thymus Rationale: the components of the blood air barrier are as follows -alveolar type 1 cell -capillary endothelial cell -fused basement membranes of capillary and alveolar epithelium answer: anything aside from the above mentioned 51. Medulla . Spleen c.branching cords separated by capillary like structures 47. Which of the following is a MALT? a. Macrophage D. Largest single accumulation of lymph tissue a. Can be differentiated by their lining epithelium 3. Production of Lymphocytes 54. A non-ciliated cell which secrete proteins for brachioalar protection? A. Cords 1. The portion of mucosa where the reissessen muscles are found: A. 1.contains dark staining germinal centers 2.d. Epithelium B. Liver d. Submucosa and Adventitia 49. Outer cortex . Lymph nodes b. Presence of sinuses are distinct feature 4. Clara Cell 52.sweat.dense network of macrophages and lymphocytes 3. Lymphatic sinuses d. Thymus d. is not part of the blood air barrier? 50. Vestibule C.endothelial 53. This/These alveolar cells make/s up stratified squamous epithelium of alveoli. Which of the following is/are true of the blood-air barrier? 22 . Which of the following are the cellular components of the thymic cortex? 1. These Layers are merged in the Bronchiole Answer: A. 2. Which of the following is the final stage of B cell differentiation? A.9-5. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Mitochondria C. reticulocytes D. plasma cells C. Polymorphic nuclei D.237 & table 12-2. a reticulocyte count provides an estimate of the rate of red cell production.000/uL) are involved in blood clotting. Type II alveolar cells predominate 8. pseudostratified columnar to simple epithelium Which two types of cells release histamine and heparin? A.75%). Fusion of the alveolar and endothelial cells' membranes 2. Neutrophils (57-67%) kill and phagocytose bacteria. 103 & 243) 1. reticulocyte count B. Tight junctions can be seen between alveolar cells 4. 261) 10. 238) 11. Monocyte C. large polyploid cells of red bone marrow. lymphocytes with granules 3. however. Pg. other enzymes and toxins. Basophil B. hemoglobin C.75%) modulate inflammation and release histamine during allergy (supplement mast cells). Alveolar septum is excluded in the formation of the barrier 3.(Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Ribosomes Ratio: Leukocytes are divided according to the presence or absence of specific granules. Specific granules B. they continuously recirculate through the body in connective tissues. Which type of leukocyte is the only one which returns to the blood from the tissues after diapedesis? A. Metamyelocyte D. Eosinophil C. Promyelocyte D. Platelets (150. and pseudopodia-like cytoplasmic processes: A. Histologic feature going down the respiratory system? (not the exact question) Answer: 2. Neutrophil C. Reticulocyte D.000-400. erythrocyte sedimentation rate 7. Pg. They can be subdivided into functional groups by distinctive surface molecules called clusters of differentiation or CD markers. blood. Eosinophils (1-3%). produce platelets or thrombocytes. together with eosinophilic peroxidase.Page 514) 23 . Pg. act to kill parasitic worms or helminths. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. eosinophils and basophils. Because reticulocytes are immature red cells that lose their RNA a day or so after reaching the blood from the marrow. megakaryocytes C. Pg. mast cells Cell division is no longer possible at what stage of erythropoiesis? A. The main identifying characteristic is the abundance of large acidophilic specific granules typically staining pink or red. Basophils (0-0. 8. 4. Lymphocyte Ratio: Basophils (0-0. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CD 8).1. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. 242 and table 12-2) Ratio: Reticulocytes are immature non-nucleated red cells that contain RNA and continue to synthesize Hb after loss of the nucleus. 268) Which among the blood cells is morphologically the most diversified. Myelocyte C. Lymphocytes (25-33%).0million/uL in men). (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Orthochromatic erythroblasts Leukocytes are divided into two classes based on the presence or absence of visible organelles called: A. Leukocytes are either granulocytes (possesses azurophilic and specific granules) or agranulocytes (azurophilic granules only) Examples of granulocytes include neutrophils. Monocytes (3-7%). Mast cells B. it is recognized by its ovoid nucleus.5million/uL in women. Macrophages 9. smaller and fewer glands 4. Segmenters B. Eosinophils Ratio: Lymphocytes are the most numerous type of agranulocytes in normal blood smears (25-33%). Regulatory or Suppressor T cells (CD4 & CD25) and B lymphocytes (monomers of IgM or IgD called B-cell receptors BCRs) which differentiate into plasma cells. Major classes include T lymphocytes (CD 4). monocytes and macrophages B. RBC (3. Which of these cells normally represents the largest proportion of the total WBC count? A. Polychromatophilic erythroblast B. and lymph. The cells that produce the smallest formed elements in peripheral blood A. Which of the following cells is not normally found in the peripheral blood? A. Lymphocytes do not stay long in the lymphoid organs. Neutrophils (57-67%). Basophilic erythroblast C. Pg. irregular cell outline. 5. hematocrit D. 6. band neutrophils B. Platelets Ratio: Constitutes 1-3% of the total leukocytes. Examples of agranulocytes include lymphocytes and monocytes. (Wiliams? Nka limot ko sa author and name sa book. basophils and lymphocytes D. Lymphoblast Ratio: Megakaryocytes. Basophil B. Natural killer cells D. Plasma cells C. Erythroblasts C. Pg. monocytes B. Lymphocyte D. An absolute reticulocyte count or reticulocyte production index is more helpful than the percentage. Hehe . Platelets (150. Which of the following is the initial stage where granulocytes show specific granules? A.000-400. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Eosinophil D. mast cells and basophils Ratio: Basophils has basophilic specific granules containing heparin and other sulfated GAGs and also contain much histamine and various other mediators of inflammation. by releasing them from the ends of cytoplasmic processes called proplatelets. Mature stage 4.) 12. Platelets (smallest formed elements) of blood enter the circulation by crossing the discontinuous endothelium of sinusoids in the red marrow. Megakaryocytes B. Eosinophils contain major basic proteins (MBP) of which. Which granulocyte phagocytizes allergens and chemically attacks parasitic worms? A.000uL). Promyelocyte B. Neutrophil D. Which of these parameters will give an estimate of the rate of red cell production? A. natural killer cells D. Basophils supplement the functions of mast cells which also contain the above mentioned vasoactive agents and other substances during inflammation and allergic reactions.1-6. neutrophils and platelets C. Lymphocytes C. respiratory. vertebral body Ratio: Bone marrow examination provides assessment of the state of hematopoiesis and aids in the diagnosis of several hereditary and acquired benign or malignant diseases. Which of the following is true of the respiratory epithelium? A. proteoglycans. Macrophages Ratio: The spleen is composed of the white pulp and red pulp. RDW is elevated in accordance with variation in red cell size (anisocytosis) Mean cell volume (MCV) measures the average volume of red cells and is calculated from the Hct and the red cell count. It has three major regions: an outer cortex. Goblet cells (secrete mucus). and laminin. outer cortex – contains dark-staining germinal centers B. Pg. oil & sweat glands beneath the olfactory epithelium B. Which of the following is true of red bone marrow? A. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. The main cellular component of the white pulp? A. marrow bed is supported by a thick layer of reticular fibers D. lymphatics. normal MCV.276) 21. The cortex includes a subcapsular sinus which receives lymph from the afferent lymphatics and lymphoid nodules with or without germinal centers which fill most cortical areas and formed largely by helper T lymphocytes and proliferating B lymphoblasts. Which of the following best describes the spleen? A. Estimate leukocyte count using low power objective B. inner cortex – multi-nodular with abundant B-lymphocytes 22. Annie Mia. sternal angle C. The medulla is composed of branching cordlike masses of lymphoid tissue (medullary cords) separated by dilated spaces lined by discontinuous endothelium (capillary-like structures) that is called the medullary sinuses.251) 17. Pg.13. Which of these CBC results will support this finding? A. pg. Large trabeculae originate at the hilum on the medial surface of the spleen and carry branches of the splenic artery. fibronectin. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Ascertain that the film is well made Ratio: A well made film significantly reduces errors in the outcome of the test. increased MCV. femur B. When viewing leukocytes on a peripheral blood smear. abundant cytoplasmic granules in its cellular content Ratio: Most of the nasal cavities and the respiratory system’s conducting portion is lined with mucosa having ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium (respiratory epithelium). Determine the differential leukocyte count D. Extends up to the tunica serosa Ratio: Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) is one of the secondary lymphoid structures which are located diffusely in the mucosa or inner lining of the digestive. reticular cells line marrow sinusoids C. White pulp consist of lymphoid nodules and the periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths or PALS (which consist primarily of T cells with some macrophages). Record immature granulocytes and lymphoid cells C. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. pg. C. increased RDW D. The matrix also contains collagen type I. outer cortex – dense network of macrophages and lymphocytes D. normal RDW B. 343) 18. 16. Reticular D. Small granule cells (part diffuse neuroendocrine system or DNES. medulla – branching cords separated by capillary-like structures Ratio: Lymph nodes are bean-shaped. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. encapsulated. Most of the lymphocytes here are B cells. vein. see chapter 5) and Basal cells (progenitor cells). and genitourinary tracts which are a common site for invasion by pathogens because their lumens open to the external environment. 279) 14. normal MCV. keratinized epithelial lining up to the nasal fossae 24 . (Wiliams? Page 531) 19. hemopoietic cords or islands of cells and sinusoidal capillaries. Which of the following associations about the histologic features of the lymph nodes is true? A. shaft. which of these chronologically precede the rest? A. adipocytes equal the number of reticular cells Ratio: The red bone marrow contains a reticular connective tissue stroma. absence of lymphatic vessels in the splenic pulp B.281) 15. a central medulla. Non-encapsulated aggregates of lymphoid tissues B. red pulp is supported by collagen type II Ratio: The organ is surrounded by a capsule of dense connective tissue from which emerge trabeculae to penetrate the parenchyma or splenic pulp. collagen types I & III are found in the matrix B. while the red pulp consists of blood-filled sinusoids or splenic cords. We regard the posterior iliac crest as the preferred site due to the large marrow space that allows both aspiration and biopsy to be performed with ease at one time. among T cells. decreased RDW C. Which of the following is true of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue? A. enclosed by a loose connective tissue capsule C. Which of these areas is regarded as the preferred site for adult bone marrow aspiration? A. Major cell component is the macrophage D. ciliated columnar up to the bronchioles C. A complete blood count and peripheral blood smear were obtained from Ms. and nerves to the splenic pulp. columnar cells differentiate to replace other cell types D. Exclusively found in the respiratory tracts C. decreased MCV. normal RDW Ratio: Red cell distribution width (RDW) is a parameter that measures variation in red blood cell size or red blood cell volume. Which of the following is a histologic feature of the nasal cavity? A. and a smaller area between these two called the paracortex. RBCs B. It has five major cell types: Ciliated columnar cells (sweep mucus). The pathologist reported presence of both abnormally small and abnormally large red cells. Brush cells (chemosensory receptors). distributed throughout the body along the lymphatic vessels. CD4 helper T cells predominate.The stroma is a meshwork of specialized fibroelastic cells called stromal cells (aka retricular or adventitial cells) and a delicate web of retricular fibers (collagen type III). The red pulp is supported by reticular tissue rich in macrophages and lymphocytes. iliac crest D. lymphoid nodules are seen in the white pulp D. contains mucous-secreting cells B. Pg. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Pg. structures. 281) 20. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. The presence of which of the following structures in the mucosa differentiates the bronchi from the trachea? A. They phagocytose erthyrocytes lost from damaged capillaries and airborne particulate matter that has penetrated as far as the alveoli. ingest debris found in the interstitium B. phagocytosed bacteria over the alveolar surface D. alveolar duct & terminal bronchiole B. Which of the following is true of Type II alveolar cells? 25 . laryngeal cartilages in the lamina propria B. connective tissue B. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. thin and attenuated C. pg. The outermost layer is the epicardium which is the site for the coronary vessels supported by loose connective tissue and contains adipose tissue. lined by flat alveolar cells B. ciliated epithelium D. bipolar neurons in the submucosa Ratio: The mucosa covering these and other parts of the nasal cavity walls has a lamina propria with important roles in conditioning inhaled air. pg. alveolar sac. the thickest layer. hyaline cartilage C. ciliated epithelium. 352 & figure 17-2) 24. cartilage Ratio: The trachea is lined by typical respiratory epithelium underlain by connective tissue of the lamina propria and seromucous glands in the lamina propria and submucosa. loose connective tissue C. Surfactant is secreted continuously by endocytosis. duct & respiratory bronchiole C. smooth muscle & elastic fibers constitute the cords Ratio: B is incorrect since mixed mucouse and serous glands are found in the lamina propria. 350) 30. It divide to replace their own population after injury and to provide progenitor cells for the type I cell population. supported by reticular and elastic fibers D. adipose tissue D. pg. its lamellar bodies give rise to surfactant B. goblet cells. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. abundant epithelial goblet cells C. The subendocardial layer merges with the myocardium. 215) 27. The alveoli open to which of the following grouped structures? A. pg. pg. alveolar duct. 351) 31. smooth muscle B.C. cardiac muscle B. terminal & respiratory bronchioles Ratio: Alveoli are saclike evaginations. formed after about the 10th generation of branching. D is incorrect since the vocal cords are composed of skeletal muscle (vocalis muscle). seromucous glands. cartilage C. which mainly consist of cardiac muscle for pumping blood. stratified squamous epithelial lining D. and alveolar sacs. Surfactant is produced by these cells which contains protein-lipid complexes synthesized initially in the ER and golgi apparatus with further processing and storage in large organelles called lamellar bodies. non-mitotic D. ciliated epithelium. A complex of vasculature with loops of capilliaries near the epithelial surface carries blood in a general direction counter to the flow of inspired air and releases heat to warm that air while it is humidified by water released from small seromucous glands. terminal & respiratory bronchioles D. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. pg. serous glands Ratio: The mucosa of the larger bronchi is structurally similar to the tracheal mucosa except for the organization of cartilage and smooth muscle. 358) 26. The submucosa also contains C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage covered by perichondrium. alveolar ducts. With regards the arrangement of the structures of the trachea from the lumen to the outside. cartilage D. C is incorrect since the epiglottis has stratified squamous epithelium. presence of submucosal Clara cells Ratio: Bronchioles are typically designated as the intralobular airways with diameters of 1 mm or less. connective tissue. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. each about 200 um in diameter. 347) 28. absent mucosal glands & cartilage B. pg. 343) A. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. pinocytic vesicles in its cytoplasm Ratio: Type II alveolar cells (type II pneumocytes or septal cells) are cuboidal cells that bulge into the airspace. In larger epithelium. In the thin lamina propria. connective tissue. alveolar sac. pg. Which of the following is true of the alveolar ducts? A. ciliated epithelial lining seen in the epiglottis D. Ciliated epithelium terminates in the respiratory bronchioles. although dense connective tissue is associated with the smooth muscle. 348 figure 17-5) 29. venous plexuses in the lamina propria D. mucoserous glands. and a deep layer of connective tissue called subendocardial layer which contains modified cardiac muscle fibers (Purkinje fibers) for the heart’s impulse conducting network. Which of the following is true of the larynx? A. receive pinocytosed substances from type II cells C. pg. Each alveolus resembles a small rounded pouch open on one side to an alveolar duct or alveolar sac. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Which of the following best describes the dust cells? A. mucoserous glands. Which of the following is a histologic characteristic of the bronchioles? A. they lack both mucosal glands and cartilage. its lysosomal enzymes digest carbon dioxide Ratio: Dust cells (alveolar macrophages) are found in alveoli and in the interalveolar septum. Which of the following structures is common to the endocardium and myocardium? A. 357 & figure 17-17) 23. from the respiratory bronchioles. epithelial lining Ratio: The endocardium consist of a very thin inner layer of endothelium and supporting connective tissue. where the ciliated epithelium terminates Ratio: Both the alveolar ducts and the alveoli themselves are lined with extremely attenuated squamous cells. which of the following is true? A. stratified to ciliated epithelium. it is still ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium but decreases in height and complexity to become ciliated simple columnar or simple cuboidal epithelium in the terminal bronchioles. a strand of smooth muscle cells surrounds each alveolar opening and a matrix of elastic and collagen fibers supports both the duct and alveoli. pg 356) 25. middle myoelastic layer of smooth muscle fibers and connective tissue. smooth muscle. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. abundant submucosal glands in the cords C. cartilage tissue in the lamina propria C. ciliated epithelium. Which of the following cells of the epicardium secrete pericardial fluid? A. 217) 41. distinct elastic laminae Ratio: Large veins have a well-developed intima. larger than the adjacent contractile muscle fibers. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. indistinct elastic laminae D. table 11-1) 32. and proteoglycans. simple epithelium 26 . pg. Both media and adventitia contain elastic fibers. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. across which molecular exchange occurs between blood and tissue fluid. pg. Adipose connective tissue is generally found in this part of the heart: A. Ventricles Ratio: Because strong force is required to pump blood through the systemic and pulmonary circulations. Interposed among the muscle fibers are variable amounts of elastic fibers and elastic lamellae. The structure of these lymphatic ducts is similar to that of large veins. thin tunics Ratio: Capillaries consist only of an endothelium rolled as a tube. This structure separates the intima from the media of an artery: A. presence of valves C. with reinforced smooth muscle in the middle layer (t. (But it was also mentioned 42. pg. Diminished amount of fibrils D. the epicardium. The basal lamina helps determine which macromolecules interact with the endothelial cells. Which of the following structures are common to the tunica intima and tunica media? A. Reduced amount of organelles Ratio: Purkinje fibers are pale-staining fibers. Which of the following is true of the Purkinje fibers? A. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. reticular fibers. Subendocardium Ratio: The external tunic of the heart. Larger lymphatic vessels are the one that contains valves internally. presence of adipocytes in the media Ratio: A and D is incorrect since the tunica media is made up of many smooth muscle layers with much less elastic material. pg. areolar tissue predominate in the adventitia C. Which of the following is most correct of the veins? A. loose connective tissue C. media arranged both longitudinally and circularly. Subepicardium B. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. They mingle distally with contractile fibers of both ventricles and trigger waves of contraction through both ventricles simultaneously. fibroblasts C.that in the adventitia. with sparse peripheral myofibrils and much glycogen. epithelial cells C. clear boundary between layers B. 216. is the site of the coronary vessels and contains considerable adipose tissue which cushion the underlying structures. endothelial cells Ratio: The epicardium is the visceral layer of the pericardium and is covered by the simple mesothelium that also lines the pericardial space. its media is made up of layers of collagen & elastic fibers B. valves contribute to its beaded appearance Ratio: The largest lymphatic vessels are the thoracic duct (drains to left subclavian vein) and right lymphatic duct (drains to right subclavian vein) of which all lymphatic vessels ultimately converges to drain to the cardiovascular system. the myocardium is much thicker in the walls of the ventricles.228) 37. Which of the following best describes the medium artery? A. it contains connective tissue and is thinner than media. 227) 33. endothelial cell lining B. pg. distinct basal lamina D. 225. smooth muscle fibers in tunica media D. The tunica media. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. distinct boundaries between coats D. reticular fibers B. pg. contain endothelium & basal lamina C. fat cells B. D is incorrect since smooth muscle is situated only on the t. The mesothelial cells secrete a lubricant fluid that prevents friction as the beating heart contacts the parietal pericardium on the other side of the pericardial cavity. In which of the following parts of the heart are the muscle fibers of the largest size? A. pg. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. media) arranged both longitudinally and circularly. Which of the following is true of the large lymphatic vessels? A. loose connective tissues D. Valves C. smooth muscle cells D. the middle layer. equal thickness of all layers C. all types show openings in endothelial cells B. mesothelial cells D. Endothelial cells from the capillary lumen are covered by a basal lamina and bound tightly together with junctional complexes. B is incorrect since lymphatic capillaries have an incomplete basal lamina. It also resembles that of veins except with thinner walls and no distinct separation among tunics. all types have prominent subendothelial layers B. Atria D. Myocardium D. pg. ) 40. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. figure 11-16) 35. consists chiefly of concentric layers of helically arranged smooth muscle cells. Nodes B. fenestrated elastic fibers B. figure 11-4) 34. Endocardium C. C is incorrect since the endothelium contains a connective tissue with smooth muscle and a prominent internal elastic lamina. smooth muscle in all layers Ratio: Ratio: A is incorrect since lymphatic capillaries has openings between the endothelial cells (not valves) held in place by anchoring filaments. equivalent thickness of the media & adventitia C. The adventitial layer is thicker than the media in large veins and frequently contains longitudinal bundles of smooth muscle. And so wala ko kabalo if unsa ang sakto ani sorry) (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. pg. with alternating layers of smooth muscle and connective tissue. Which of the following is true of the capillaries? A. all of which are produced by the smooth muscle cells. nutrient arteries are prominent in the intima D. Which of the following is common to all types of lymph vessels? A. 343) 39. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. SER-rich cytoplasm B. 221. but internal and external elastic laminae like those of arteries are not present. pg. 213) 38.228) 36. smooth muscle fibers Ratio: The innermost tunica intima consists of the endothelium and a thin subendothelial layer of loose connective tissue sometimes containing smooth elastic fibers. Peripheral nuclei C. but the media is relatively thin. Thin to absent adventitia B. 47. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Pancreas 2. Abundant connective tissue in portal areas 3. Fibroelastic(forgot the sumpay waaa) 43. junquiera 27. Mucous(forgot the sumpay) D. “ pg 303. Highly vascularized loose and dense connective tissue 3. 3 layers on the muscularis externa 45. Branched tubuloacinar C. Veins can be differentiated histologically from arteries by: A. Which of the following is true of the large veins? A. The adventitial layer is thicker than the media in large veins and frequently contains longitudinal bundles of smooth mucles. Muscular & adventitial C. Dense D. 225. Which of the ff is true of the urinary bladder? 1. but the internal elastic laminae like those of arteries are not present. Intima & adventitial Ratio: Capillaries consist only of an endothelium rolled as a tube. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. with alternating layers of smooth muscle and connective tissue. Taenia coli D. Which is true of the stomach? A. Gallbladder 49. pg. Which is true about the basic histologic features of the urinary passages? 27 . Thick media D. B 44. figure 11-7) 26.219. Well-developed tunica intima C. Adipose B.227) “The surface mucous cells that line the lumen and gastric pits secrete a thick. muscular. pg. Which of the following tunics are absent in the capillary wall? A. Separated from other lobule by connective tissue 2. Liver 3.: This is true of the GI tract ans: exhibits layered smooth muscle throughout 42.Ratio: Simple squamous endothelial cells line the intima that has subendothelial loose connective tissue and is separated from the media by the internal elastic lamina. Plicae B. Intima & muscular B. adventitial D. 4. Both the media and adventitia contain elastic fibers. Mucous demilunes B. Hepatocytes centrally arranged around a central vein ans: C (2.4) Tissue component of adventitia of Urinary passages A. but the media is relatively thin. Fenestrated external elastic lamina D. across which molecular exchange occurs between blood and tissue fluid. pg. Intima. The basal lamina helps determine which macromolecules interact with the endothelial cells. and highly viscous mucous layer that is rich in bicarbonate ions and protects the mucosa from both abrasive effects of intraluminal food and the corrosive effects of stomach acid. a sheet of elastin. Three layered muscularis in all parts 2. Indistinct boundaries in musuclar layer Which of the following is true of submandibular A. Dome shaped superficial cells provide protection to underlying cells 4. Simple Columnar Epithelium C. Which of the following is true of the hepatic lobule: 1. Areolar 3rd Bimonthly Q. Valve of Kerkering Ans. Endothelial cells from the capillary lumen are covered by a basal lamina and bound tightly together with junctional complexes. figure 11-16) Extrinsic Glands of the Digestive System 1. Lining epithelium of the intima B. Mucous C. Intestinal villi C. What structural component of the small intestine is made up of the mucosa? A. (Junqueira’s Basic Histology 13th ed. Presence of internal elastic lamina C. Being thin with prominent tunica adventitia Ratio: Same with the number above. Multi-layered smooth muscle in media Ratio: Large veins have a well-developed intima. adherent. Secretion protects the surface of the interior of the stomach ans: surface mucous cells 43. (not sure pa unsay answer:P) Which of the following layers occupy the least of the total volume of the adrenal gland? C a. C. smaller in size compared to the follicular cells 3. A layer of collagen fibers separate the thyroid follicles from each other The following are descriptive of the chief cells of the parathyroid. Its cells become vacuolated in tissue preparation D. contains large hormone-secreting granules A. Its venous system drains directly to the inferior vena cava B. Same sized follicles D. Cord-like arrangement of cells 77. EXCEPT C a. forms clusters between thyroid follicles 2.Which of the following cell secrete prolactin? A. EXCEPT C A. strongly basophilic cytoplasm D. loose connective tissue septa in the parenchyma c. abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum d. Catecholamines Which of the following is not true of the neurohypohysis? C A. Androgens D. zona fasciculata – lipofuscin laden polyhedral cells C. Which of the following is true of endometrium? 28 . composed of colloid-containing follicular spheres b. type of glial cell associated with the pineal gland. EXCEPT D A. zona glomerulosa C. D. Liver-somatomedin B. Which of the following cell and hormone pairing is correct? A. Glucocorticoids C. Mammotropic C. Somatotropic B. Lipid droplets in the cytoplasm of its cells C. the intense eosinophilia of oxyphil cytoplasm is due to the abundance of: MITOCHONDRIA The following are descriptive of the zona fasciculata. staining divides the islet cells into three types C. Which is true of the thyroid gland? Which of the following is true of the parafolluicular cells? A 1. Gonadotropic D.erythropoietin Which of the following associations between each layer of the adrenal gland and cellular content is least likely true? A. zona reticularis b. consists of unmyelinated axons C. tight junctions allows communication between cells The following are histologic features of the thyroid gland. small and polygonal C. Mesangial cells . Corticotropic Which of the following is true of the islets of Langerhans? A. encapsulated by reticular fibers B.ADH C. Helical arrangement of the muscular layer 3. embedded within exocrine pancreatic tissue made up of four types of cells enclosed by areolar connective tissue capsule cord-like arrangement of islet cells 12. Pituicytes . medulla – polyhedral cells supported by reticular tissue D. Cardiac cells . EXCEPT B a. contains glial cells The following are true of the islets of Langerhans. Which of the following are multihormonal endocrine microorgans embedded in exocrine tissue and made up of cell clusters? A-islets of Langerhans 71. medulla 75. zona glomerulosa – closely packed columnar cells B. Mineralocorticoids 80. has cytoplasmic granules b. has abundant secretory cells D. Containspolyhedral-shapedcells B. Longitudinal fold of the mucosal layer B. its stroma contains reticular fibers 70. Covered by loose connective tissue capsule B. Which of the following hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex play a role inglycogenesis? A.melatonin 79. zona fasciculata D. equally distributed throughout the entire pancreas D. vesicular nucleus 73.Which of the following is true of the pancreas: A. Functional unit is the colloid C. zona reticularis – anastomosing irregularly shaped-cells D. purely cuboidal epithelium-lined follicles d. made up of the pars nervosa and neural stalk B.1. answer 30. Medial lemniscus.D 29 . The most numerous papillae found in the entire surface of the tongue A. What is true to the large intestine? A. lymphatic tissue and nerves may be found in the mucosa c. All are lined by simple columnar epithelium b. Descemet's Membrane E. Abundant Smooth Muscles d. has sebaceous glands b.. Which of the following nuclei is related to the olfactory pathway? A. Muller cells a. Fully calcified concretion found at the glandular lumen 92. Which structure is least likely to be found in the corpora cavernosa? A. A. Trapezoid 87. Which of these structures carries joint position sense from the left hand? 1.ANSWER 94. Transitional epithelium c. Posteromedial ventral. the serosa makes up the outermost layer in all GI organs 36. 41 Ans. An accessory gland of the male that characterizes branching and anastomosing glands which. Broadman area 38 is the cortical area for hearing (underlined word is 38) a. Presence of plicae B. 2.83. supporting tissue common in efferent duct and epididymis. Has a bony framework 20. basket cells 38. Solitarius D. Habenular C. Generally lined by stratifed and columnar epithelium B. Bartholin D. Glands. Nuclei . left 2. Cornea . Ganglia 2. Which is true of the prostate gland? A. Erectile tissue C.true d. Fasciculus cuneatus. Presence of haustrations . Central zone contains the main gland C. Schwann cell 4. Bruch's Membrane B. left 43. Supported with a dense fibromuscular stroma B. 86. layered smooth muscles are found in the tunica muscularis d. Tenon's capsule D. Sclera 37. Seminal vesicle what is the common lining of the Utricle and saccule? Which of these phrases regarding the inner third of the external auditory meatus is true? a. Avascular 93. Which of the following best describes penile urethra? 42. Blood vessels B. Nerve 3. D A. Which of the ff is true of the general histologic charateristic of the GI tract? A. right 4. right 3. dense irrregular C. fungiform papillae d. Lined by simple to cuboidal epithelium D. Muscle fibers D. Prostate C.smooth muscle D.. filiform papillae b. innervated by CN VII c. Which of these receptors are the most abundant in hairy skin? D. Absence of Taenia coli C. cicumvallate papillae 4th Bimonthly 1.loose connective B. Bolbourethral B. Serous secreting glands of littre in the mucosa C... Rare fat tags D. 95. Nucleus gracilis.fibroelastic tissue a. O(?) C.. foliate papillae 84. Which of the following is/are exclusively found in the CNS? 1. Loose fibroelastic tissue in lamina propria D. Gasserian B. optic tract. group of cells in the anterior horn cells serves musculature for neck and trunk a.Bruch's Membrane c. a. tela choroidea b. posterior 32. Thoracic and lumbar c. Frontal B. Correct sequence from the retina to the optic cortex. CHOROID . Multipolar 3. Ans: Glutamatergic 29. medial b.optic radiations 21. lateral d. What connects the broca's to the wernicke's area? Ans. neuromuscularjunction 28.lateral genucleate body. Parietal C. thoracic c. Corticospinal tract C. septum pellucidum – ANS 21.38. A patient presented with fluctuating limb weakness but no sensory complaint. A unique feature of subthalamus compared to the other components of the basal ganglia. Predominant cells in ventral and dorsal striatum Hyperphagia 1. 1. Arcuate nucleus 38. Golgi Which of the following are being regulated by the dorsal pallidum 1 ventral anterior 2 habenecular 3 centromedian 4 pulvinar Ans: 1 and 3 33. Occipital 19. Cervical B. Granule 3. the lateral gray column is totally absent in this region of the spinal cord a. Spinal cord segment that has the largest volume of gray matter A. lumbar d. fasciculus Cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis are both found in these segments: a. Thoracic C. Sacral 30. Crus cerebri B. Restiform body 20. Brachium pontis D. Constitutes the Auditory System: A. Lumbar and sacral d. Double membrane made up of gray and white matter lined by ependyma. Sacral and coccyx 17. Underlying condition would most likely involve Ans. cervical b. 42.optic chiasma. Which of the following association cortex forms the language area? A. b. Ans: optic nerve. Cerebellar glomeruli processes 16. Lumbar D. alveus d. broca’s aphasia localization: 44 2. Contain Ache 4. dysfunction of ventromedial nuclei of thalamus? 3. TRapezoid B. Aspiny dendrites 2. Superior Olive C. sacral 18. Cochlear D. Compact transverse fibers of the pons serving as attachment to the cerebellum A. Cervical and thoracic b. medium sized 38. choroid plexus 30 . central c. Temporal D. Medial Lemniscus Answer: C 31.