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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS INGENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES By Randy O. Allado Emmylou R. Edulan Jerick D. Lee Adrian S. Paala Woodrow B. Pino MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN THERMODYNAMICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Allado Emmylou R. Edulan Jerick D. Lee Adrian S. Paala Woodrow B. Pino 1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek words meaning _________. a. transformation of heat b. transformation of energy c. movement of heat d. movement of matter 2. What is the Si unit for temperature? a. Kelvin b. Celsius c. Fahrenheit d. Rankine 3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object because of the difference in temperature is called a. heat b. temperature c. thermodynamics cycle d. energy flow 4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a substance changes from one phase to another. a. specific heat b. heat of expansion c. latent heat d. useful heat 5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes. a. intensive property b. extensive property c. volume expansion d. thermal expansion 6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place. a. elongation b. thermal stress c. expansion contraction d. thermal expansion Latent Heat c. a. volume d. a. Specific Energy b. pressure b. a. Molecular Energy c. A plot of pressure vs. a. Wein Diagram d. Internal Heat 9. temperature 11. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or solid phase.7. Specific Heat Capacity b. Atomic Energy d. Histogram 12. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure c. Heat of Transformation d. Internal Energy b. Grand Energy c. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases possible for that particular substance. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or removed to change the temperature of a substance. Phase Energy 8. Internal Energy d. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas. a. liquid or solid. Phase diagram b. Specific Pressure d. Elemental Energy . a. Vapor pressure depends only on _________. P-T diagram c. force c. Phase Pressure b. Equilibrium Phase Pressure 10. calorie 14. Zero-Point Energy d. useful work b. a. temperature c.2 m c. 0. 273 K 17. How much will the length of a 1. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 Celsius degree. energy consumed c. 10 K b. heat d. Convert the change of temperature from 20˚C to 30˚C to Kelvin scale. Joule d. 2.13. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance. internal KE b. a. a. 3. Subliminal Energy 16. movement b. Atomic kinetic energy c. specific heat b. 303 K d. 293 K c. mass 15.67 m b.47 m . 0.1 m d. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the “useful” work obtainable from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume. latent heat c. a. a. Helmholtz free energy d. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature. Kinetic Energy 18.0 km section of concrete highway change if the temperature varies from -15˚C in winter to 41˚C in summer? a. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no intermediate liquid stage. 0. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature. 800 J 21. 1400 J b. Conduction c. relative humidity c.21 m b. a. absolute pressure d.18 in 20.19. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the “useful” or process-initiating work obtainable from an isothermal. depleted c. work 23. Du-Pont Potential b. Rabz-Eccles Energy d. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of house.31 in d.18 m c. Gibbs free energy c. exhausted d. Claussius Energy 22. a. heat b. vapor pressure 24. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is at right angles to the sun’s rays at the top of the atmosphere? a. 0. 0. a. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________. Radiation . 10000 J d. vacuum pressure b. isobaric thermodynamic system. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the temperature can change by 55˚C? a. Convection b. 6000 J c. 0. a. none of the above 30. expand b. change d. Radiation d. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.d. proportional to c. none of the above 29. Sublimation 26. unrelated to b. increases c. a. For most solids. remains constant d. decreases b. a. increase 27. Sublimation 25. the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of linear expansion. no volume b. twice d. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________. zero temperature at all scales d. the relative humidity decreases c. no pressure c. three times 28. a. the relative humidity increases b. Convection b. what happens as the temperature rises? a. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a temperature change. the relative humidity remains constant . a. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from 4˚C to 0˚C. Conduction c. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant. a. contract c. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection. a. convection current d. elastic material b. such as a fan. is used to produce the fluid flow. mass flow c. matter c. A convection process in which an external device. the air would eventually become saturated 31. volume 35. terminal velocity 36. escape velocity c. a. Maxwell speed Distribution d. Convection b. Radiation d. a. Conduction c. a. blackbody 33. Teflon d. Emission 34. gram-mole d. Thermionic Convection . External Convection c. Forced Convection b. a. a. Placid Convection d. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of atoms/molecules. transponder material c. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.d. velocity of propagation b. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the material. mass b. placidity b. heat transfer 32. closed container c. process 38.37. process d. isolated system b. A closed system is also known as _________. point function c. -256 43. . control mass d. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. a. -120 d. path function c. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________. control volume 42. intersection 40. a. When a solid melts. a. Open system is also known as _________. path function b. 290 b. closed container c. boundary c. a. the temperature of the substance increases. point function d. control mass d. control volume 41. a. interface d. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius? a. wall b. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process used to reach that state. cycle b. 63 c. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular change in state. a. cycle 39. isolated system b. Fahrenheit temperature . shape of the object 46. heat enters the substance. aluminium b. Kelvin temperature d. pressure b. liquids b. increases b.3 x 10^4 45. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities? a. 1.5 x 10^4 d. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has? a. heat leaves the substance. decreases c. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature. 15 b. As we heat a gas at constant pressure. Celsius temperature c. c. solids other than metals 47. temperature b. metals d. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35˚C to 55˚C. its volume a. type of material d. 44. concrete 48. a. 6.b. none of the above 49. 1500 c. stays the same d. gases c. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its a. glass d. the temperature of the substance decreases. brass c. d. amount of material c. Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched? a. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100˚C. entropy c. doubled c. the volume is a. . none of the above 56. it increases by a factor of 2 c. law of diminishing return d. a. Only energy can cross the boundaries. Isocaloric process d. what happens to the rms speed of the molecules in the gas? a. isochoric c. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment. Isochoric process 54. increased fourfold b. If the pressure on the gas is doubled. adiabatic b. decreased by a quarter 51. it increases by factor of 4 d. the entropy of water a. reduced by half d. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. increases b. No volume changes occur during this type of process a. remains the same d. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled.50. zero work 55. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________ process. Lenz’ Law 53. decreases c. it increases by a factor of square root of 2 b. enthalpy b. isobaric d. Isobaric process b. a. none of the above 52. Isomillimetric process c. d. any holes in the object expand as well b. triple point d. thermopile c. super heated steam 61. thermos 62. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps. Vaporization c. When an object undergoes thermal expansion. current steam c. phase steam d. thermocouple b. normal boiling point c. a. dry steam b. point of infliction 58. aerosol 59. fusion d. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________. a. What device measures infrared radiation below? a. boiling temperature b. dryness fraction b. dry steam b. any holes in the object remain the same . wet steam c.a. a. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation temperature. flash steam 60. c. thermodynamic device d. Closed system Open system Isolated system Isoenergetic system 57. b. a. wet steam d. a. mass increases d. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________ respectively. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure d. heat d. a. Isothermal c. one watt d. the third law of thermodynamics . raising the temp and lowering the temp b. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle b. Isovolumic 67. one calorie c. the first law of thermodynamics b. Isochoric b. pressure 65. Thermos was invented by _________. a. a. a. one Joule b. volume b. Thomas Edison d. The statement “heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body” is governed by _________. the second law of thermodynamics c.c. molecular activities would cease 63. one BTU 64. lowering the temp and raising the temp 68. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water 1 F˚ from 63 ˚F to 64 ˚F. Sir James Dewar 66. Isobaric d. power c. a. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature c. Sir Fredrich the Great c. Most cooking activities involve _________ process. a. isobaric pressure 74.86 x 10^4 N/m^2 d. gage pressure c. a. surface pressure b.80 x 10^3 N/m^2 b. Gauss statement 70. Barometric law c. the zeroth law of thermodynamics 69.0 cm high. 1 x 10^5 tons b. mean free path b. 87. 6 x 10^15 tons d. a. 2 x 10^6 tons c. Torricelli’s law b. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm long. the pressure will be increased at every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth? a. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid.d. a. 91. 9. Clausius statement c. Newton’s Second law . Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74. a. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another molecule. compacting factor d. standard atmospheric pressure d. 73.2 x 10^4 N/m^2 72. Rankine statement d.56 x 10^2 N/m^2 c. molecular space 71. path allowance c. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler to a hotter body a. Carnot’s statement b. 8 x 10^10 tons 73. Density 78. 760 lb 77. 9. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon centigrade and used Celsius Instead? a. 1957 d. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called _________. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by _________. 1948 . What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyle’s Law? a. Evangelista’s Law c. a. Archimedes Principle b. Surface Pressure d. Bernoulli’s Equation 79. force per length b. diffusion b. 1936 c. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water. you need _________ force. Pascal’s law 75. Pressure d. solution 80. viscosity c. Atmospheric Pressure b. streamline flow d. 1950 b. 62.d. Torricelli’s Theorem d. a. Gauge Pressure c. surface tension c.81 lb c. Isobaric Pressure 76. a. 76 lb d.4 lb b. a. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________. a. 21. Joule-Thomson process d.6 J/K c. Burnign Cycle c. critical point 82. process b. system c. Shikki Cycle d. Innate Properties c.7 J/K . Rankine Process b. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________. triple point temperature c. Natural Properties d. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to its initial state.5 J/K b. 15. also called a _________. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled. a. Intensive properties of a system are called _________. Inside Properties 84.81. relative humidity b. equilibrium d. is a type of isenthalpic process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower pressure state. Bulk Properties b. 30. Carnot Cycle c. a. 24. to produce saturation. How much does the entropy of the 20g change in this process? a. Shapa R’ Elli Cycle 86. cycle 83. dew point d. Otto Cycle b. a. at constant pressure. In thermodynamics.3 J/K d. a. Twenty grams of ice at 0˚C melts to water at 0˚C. a throttling process. Refrigeration process 85. Latent heat b. 11. Who coined the term latent heat? a.28 % b. 10 kJ d. 5 kJ b. Joseph Black . 1500 J 89. a. action – reaction d. 20. Heat of Fusion 92. the enthalpy-entropy relationship c. 12 kJ 90. a. 36.87. Find the work done on the system. Joe di Maggio d. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180˚C and exhausts directly into the air at 100˚C. John Thompson b. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of 0. conservation of energy 88. conservation of mass b. 17. 1900 J d. 1400 J b. a.77 % c.36 % d. Studey Baker c. Specific heat d.66 % 91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.04 m3 to 0. 15 kJ c. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 kPa. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles? a. What is the upper limit of its efficiency? a. 1700 J c. Sensible heat c. find the change in internal energy of the system. steady flow c. algebraic flow 98. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics 95. Entropy c. 1/860 W. Third Law of thermodynamics d. 1/250 W. Heat of Fusion 94. Sensible Heat c. 1/180 W. Lazare Cycle c. streamline flow b. Specific Heat d.h b. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the system remain constant with respect to time. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0 Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.93. a. a. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is the _________. Isothermal Cycle d. 1/360 W. One calorie is equal to _________.h d. Latent Heat b. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer? a. First Law of thermodynamics b. Carnot Cycle 97. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant. constant flow d. Ideal Gas Law d. a. Second Law of thermodynamics c.h c. a.h 96. a. Polytropic process b. Carnot Cycle . Otto Cycle b. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine the pressure at this point a.33 kPa c.33 kPa d. Rudolf Classius .99. Who is the father of thermodynamics? a. 633. Lazare Carnot b. 933.33 kPa 100.33 kPa b. Sadi Carnot c. 833. William Thompson d. 733. Lee Adrian S. Paala Woodrow B. Pino .MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN CHEMISTRY General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Edulan Jerick D. Allado Emmylou R. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components. double displacement 5. 760 cm Hg C. replacement reactions C. combustion reactions B. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is A. A.1. hydrometer 2. hygrometer D. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products. mass spectrometer B. the type of reaction is A. the reaction is: A. mixture 3. metathesis D. 76 mm Hg B. hydrates C. combination C. isotope B. neutralization 4. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound. 7. 760 mm Hg D. barometer C. A. displacement D. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their individual relative masses. decomposition B.6 cm Hg 6. ion D. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called . 5? A. The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as: A. spectrometer D. pressure D. mass C. Roasting C. Froth flotation process 7. The law of conservation of mass B. A. manometer B.0 A. Chemical Bond 11. Covalent Bond C. The law of chemical reaction 10. Metallic Bond D. The law of multiple proportions D. The law of constant composition C. volume B. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between atoms is less than 1. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature? A. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity difference between atoms is greater than 2. A device used to measure density. Ionic Bond B. Calcination B. hydrometer C. density 8. densimeter 9.A. Smelting D. Covalent Bond . stickiness 16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called A. reductant B. period B. polycarbon D. What is the charge on the Be atom? A. elasticity C. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is called: A. group C. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called A. viscosity B. family D. polymorphs B. Neutral 13. reducing agent . The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be).B. +4 B. +8 C. glueyness D. Chemical Bond 12. -4 D. row 14. Ionic Bond C. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called A. Metallic Bond D. plastics 15. hydrocarbons C. atomic number 4. This is known as: A. The law of multiple proportion D. When the same elements can form two different two compounds. law of conservation of energy 18. The law of conservation of mass C. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the reaction. oxidant D. specific weight D. 4 D. the law of conservation of mass B. Fahrenheit B. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called: A. Kelvin . 2 C. the law of multiple proportion D. This is known as: A. the law of definite proportion C. specific gravity B. relative gravity C. The law of conservation of energy 19. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond? A. relative weight 20. 8 21. The law of constant composition B. acceptor 17. 3 B. the ratio of masses of one of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the other element.C. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. The SI unit of temperature is A. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called A. 21 amu 24. 10 amu B. law of conservation of energy 23. the law of multiple proportion D. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons. the law of constant composition B. Celsius D. oxidation number 25. atomic weight D. momentum B.C. A. Rankine 22. 19 amu C. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value. mass C. This is known as: A. tolerance . A. error C. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by mass. velocity 26. precision B. percent abundance C. inertia D. the law of conservation of mass C. 15 amu D. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called A. atomic number B. 1829 times D. A. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an “identification tag” for a substance. 7300 times C. quarks B. The law of compounds 31. The law of multiple proportion B. 1567 times 32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called . A. ions C. mass B. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called A. accuracy B. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron? A. The law of conservation of mass D. isotope D. accuracy 27. density D. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.D. error D. The principle of the constant composition of compounds. 1837 times B. volume 29. precision C. The law of definite proportion C. margin 28. originally called “Proust’s Law” is now known as A. molarity C. warks 30. cation D.A. anion C. mechanical bond B. A positive ion is called A. quark 36. atomic bind D. isotopes D. anion C. polymer 35. positron B. positron D. covalent bonding . compounds 33. The forces that hold atoms together are called A. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called A. positron B. isotope C. chemical bond 34. cation D. quark 37. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called A. ions B. ionic bonding B. A negative ion is called A. quarks C. ion B. formula bond C. polar bonding D. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called A. row 39. remains unchanged 41. column 40. transition group B. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to their group number? A. is doubled C. representative or main group D. electron dot diagram D. constellation diagram C. series D. argand diagram B. metals . period B. structural formula 42. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure A. group C. period C. is decreased to half B. group B.C. series D. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called A. metallic bonding 38. is increased to four times D. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called A. noble gas C. 43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a “p” orbital? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration A. isoelectronic B. isometric C. iso-ionic D. isotope 45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals? A. Group 1 B. Group 2 C. Group 3 D. Group 4 46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens? A. Group 4 B. Group 5 C. Group 6 D. Group 7 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN ENGINEERING ECONOMICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Allado Emmylou R. Edulan Jerick D. Lee Adrian S. Paala Woodrow B. Pino 1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want A. B. C. D. Necessity Utility Luxuries Discount 2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount. A. B. C. D. Common stock Voting stock Pretend stock Non par value stock 3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell. A. B. C. D. Book value Market value Use value Fair value 4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service. A. B. C. D. Loss Depreciation Extracted Gain 5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that one supplier’s actions significantly affect prices and supply. A. B. C. D. Oligopoly Monopsony Monopoly Perfect competition C. C. B. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise. A. Monopoly Monophony Oligopoly Perfect competition 11.6. D. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer. A. A. B. B. Cartel Monopoly Corporation Competitors 10. B. D. Monosony Monopoly Oligopoly Oligopsony 7. A. D. C. B. Devaluation Deflation Inflation Depreciation 9. D. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry. . A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods substitute. A. D. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price level. Salvage value Price Book value Scrap value 8. C. C. B.A. A. D. A. D. D. C. C. D. C. C. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price level. Annuity Amortization Depreciation Bonds 14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital. C. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time. A. B. D. C. Bilateral monopoly Monopoly Oligopoly Bilateral Monopoly 12. Interest Amortization Annuity Bonds 15. The place where buyers and sellers come together. B. D. A. Stock value Par value Interest Maturity value . The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate A. Maker Store Bargain center Port 16. B. Deflation Inflation Devaluation Depreciation 13. B. B. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many sellers. B. D. C. A. A. Perpetuity Ordinary annuity Annuity due Deferred annuity 20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses. D. B. B. A. D. Oligopoly Duopoly Duopsony duopoly 19. C. Bilateral monopoly Oligopoly Duopsony Duopoly 18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in one business market or commodity. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods.17. C. C. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be retrieved. after the beginning of the payment. Sunk cost Fixed costs Depletion cost Construction cost . D. A. B. D. B. C. Tally Par value Check and balance Break even 21. A. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product. D. B. A. A. A. B. A. D. D. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation. Net cost . C. B. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has been charged to depreciation. C. Operation costs Construction cost Depletion cost Production cost 24. B.22. D. Marginal cost Marginal revenue Extra profit Prime cost 25. D. Scrap value Salvage value Book value Market value 27. An obligation with no condition attach is called A. C. C. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all materials that go into production is called A. B. C. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk. Junk value Salvage value Scrap value Book value 26. Personal Gratuitous Concealed Private 23. B. B. C. Maintenance cost C. D. B. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically. D. Annuity Bond Amortization Collateral 31. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date. Market value Fair value Salvage value Book value 32. C. A. The addition cost of producing one more unit is A. Estimated value of the property at the useful life. D. C. Physical inventory Counting principle Stock assessment Periodic material update . B. C. A. D. Prime cost Marginal cost Differential cost Sunk cost 30. B. D. Operating cost 28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the future is called A.B. Prime cost D. A. Market value Net value Discount Interest 29. C. B. A. Fixed assets Deferred charges Current asset Liability 34. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies considerably. Fraud Tort Libel Scam 35. D. A. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by the injured party to recover damages. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time A. B. D. C. B. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time. A. Utility Supply Stocks Goods . C. C. B. B. Depletion Capitalized cost Perpetuity Inflation 36. D. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other material which will be sold. D. D. C. Commodities Necessities Demands Luxury 37.33. A. C. B.38. B. It is sometimes called the second hand value A. Partnership Proprietorship Corporation Joint venture 42. A. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one person. D. Scrap value Salvage value Book value Par value 39. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time. B. Satisfaction . Deflation Depletion Declination Depreciation 40. A. C. B. B. D. A. C. A. D. D. C. D. A. C. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit. C. Single proprietorship Party Corporation Partnership 41. Dummy person Minors Demented persons Convict 43. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent. Luxury C. Perfect competition Monophony Monopoly Cartel 45. C. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit. D. C. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market. D. B. C. D. A. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation. A. C. C. Utility 44. Commodities Necessities Luxuries Supplies 46. B. B. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded. Authorized capital Paid off capital Subscribed capital Investment 47. D. B. A. A. A. D. Necessity D. Ledger Spreadsheet Journal Logbook 48. B.B. Life span Economic life Operating life Profitable life . C. B.49. B. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain region. D. D. A. Fair value Par value Market value Book value . Permit Royalty License Franchise 50. A. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise. C. Edulan Jerick D. Allado Emmylou R.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Pino . Paala Woodrow B. Lee Adrian S. B. and money. materials. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories. Research Manufacturing Testing Design and Development . Engineering Management Engineering Materials Engineering Organization Engineering Club 3. machinery. Management Planning Organizing Supervision 2. C. leading. B.” A. Research Design and Development Testing Manufacturing 5. C. B. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except A. and controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives. D. B. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to a finished physical term. D. C. A. Testing Construction Sales Physical Education 4. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power. D. D.1. C. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning. A. C. organizing. D. B. A. B. C. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for the product. C. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process. D. Construction Government Consulting Sales 10. D. B. D. B. A. B. especially those that require technical expertise. Research Design and Development Testing Manufacturing 7. A. B. C. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet their needs. Research Design and Development Testing Manufacturing 8. C.6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization requiring his services. D. A. Construction Sales Consulting Government . A. A. D. C. Construction Sales Consulting Government 9. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested for workability. C. Teaching Government Management Consulting 13. The first step in Decision making process is to A. D. A. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of engineering courses. Decision Making Engineering Management Initiative Problem solving 15. Analyze environment Diagnose problem Make a choice Articulate problem or opportunity . D. Teaching Government Management Consulting 14. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing specific tasks. monitoring. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of the various tasks in regulating. Construction Sales Government Consulting 12. B. D. A. C. B. and controlling the activities of various institutions. B. A. C. A. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.11. C. D. C. B. public or private. D. B. The last step in decision making process is to A. B. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals. Management Planning Organizing Supervision 20. C. D. Quantitative evaluation Qualitative evaluation Relative evaluation Subjective evaluation 19. D. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning. D. A. Operational Planning Intermediate Planning Strategic planning Secondary Planning 21. Analyze environment Make a choice Diagnose problem Evaluate and adapt decision results 17. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives. B. A.16. D. B. C. C. A. A. C. D. B. Quantitative evaluation Qualitative evaluation Relative evaluation Subjective evaluation 18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and analytical. . C. B. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment. A. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources. Operational Planning Intermediate Planning Strategic planning Secondary Planning 25. Operational Planning Intermediate Planning Strategic planning Secondary Planning 26. A. B. A. C. B. A. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy. Operational Planning Intermediate Planning Strategic planning Secondary Planning 22. D. D.A. A. B. D. C. B. Operational Planning Intermediate Planning Strategic planning Secondary Planning 23. Operational Planning Intermediate Planning Strategic planning Secondary Planning 24. C. D. D. C. Marketing Plan . Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources. B. C. B. A. C. Short-range plans . It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm. B. B. B. A. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms and by product family. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. D. A. D. C. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan. Marketing Plan Financial Plan Production Plan Short-range plans 29. Short-range plans 27. A. and recommends a direction for financial activities. B. Short-range plans Long-range plans Standing Plans Single-Use Plans 31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. D. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned with these planes. D. A. analyzes financial needs. These are mostly undertaken by middle and top management. Marketing Plan Financial Plan Production Plan Human Resource Management Plan 30. Production Plan D. C. C. Marketing Plan Financial Plan Production Plan Short-range plans 28. Financial Plan C. A. Single-Use Plans 32. Standing Plans D. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation. D. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring situations or function. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be repeated. Policies Procedures Guidelines Rules 34. C. Policies Procedures Guidelines Rules 35. Standing Plans . B. D. B. Long-range plans C. A. D.B. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action. Policies Procedures Guidelines Rules 36. A. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly. A. D. Short-range plans Long-range plans Standing Plans Single-Use Plans 33. Short-range plans B. A. C. B. C. C. Long-range plans C. B. D. Organizing Planning Supervising Structure 41. C. D. A. Organizing Planning Supervising Structure . D. D. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner. C. B. Project Budget Program Financial Statement 39. A. Single-Use Plans 37. Project Budget Program Financial Statement 38. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization. A. B. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from. Project Budget Program Financial Statement 40. C. A. C. B. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a program. B. B. D.D. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities. C. A. C. B. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries. C. B. C. D. such as engineering or marketing. A. C. Functional Organization Product or Market Organization Matrix Organization Divisible Organization . D. C. Functional Organization Product or Market Organization Matrix Organization Divisible Organization 45. A. D. D. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”. B. D. A.42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity. A. B. Functional Organization Product or Market Organization Matrix Organization Divisible Organization 44. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division manager and to a project or group manager. Functional Organization Product or Market Organization Matrix Organization Divisible Organization 46. B. Functional Organization Product or Market Organization Matrix Organization Divisible Organization 43. A. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with a certain type of product or customer. is grouped into one unit. and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization. A. B. Line authority Staff authority Functional authority Head authority 48. B. D. D. selects. C. C. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it. A. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis. C. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs. B.47. C. A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior. Resourcing . Ad hoc committee Standing committee Sinking committee Midget committee 52. D. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life. D. Ad hoc committee Standing committee Sinking committee Midget committee 51. A. Line authority Staff authority Functional authority Head authority 49. B. Line authority Staff authority Functional authority Head authority 50. D. trains. B. A. A. regardless of where the personnel are in the organization. C. A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty. A. recruits. B. Staffing 53. D. B. Forecasting B. C. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success. A. Forecasting Evaluation and Control Programming Recruitment 57. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the organization. Recruitment C. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals. D. Hiring D. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected. A. C. B.B. D. Evaluation and Control . Forecasting Evaluation and Control Programming Recruitment 56. Forecasting Control Programming Recruitment 55. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to succeed on the job. A. C. D. B. Forecasting Control Programming Recruitment 54. C. A. A. D. D. B. the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and coworkers.C. C. D. C. Training 58. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. A. Monetary reward Promotion Demotion Transfer 61. A. A. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job. Selection D. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition. C. . B. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the organization. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a higher position. Performance Appraisal Induction and Orientation Training and Development Monetary Rewards 59. Monetary reward Promotion Demotion Transfer 62. C. Performance Appraisal Induction and Orientation Training and Development Monetary Rewards 60. In this staffing procedure. A. B. D. B. A. B. C. D. Separation Promotion Demotion Transfer 63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee. A. B. C. D. Separation Transfer Termination Demotion 64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message. A. B. C. D. Counseling Communication Hypnotism Language 65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the organization. A. B. C. D. Information Function Emotive Function Motivation Function Control Function 66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the organizations objectives. A. B. C. D. Information Function Emotive Function Motivation Function Control Function 67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization, employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance. A. Information Function B. Emotive Function C. Motivation Function D. Control Function 68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight. A. B. C. D. Verbal Oral Written Nonverbal 69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements. A. B. C. D. Verbal Oral Written Nonverbal 70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal. A. B. C. D. Suppression Motivation Praising Unification 71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except: A. B. C. D. Willingness to do a job Self-confidence in carrying out a task Needs satisfaction Inferiority complex 72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except: A. B. C. D. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory Expectancy Theory Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory Gagarin’s Theory 73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals. A. B. C. D. Sales talk Motivation Leading Commanding 74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions within the organization. This describes: A. B. C. D. Legitimate power Referent power Coercive power Reward power 75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as: A. B. C. D. Legitimate power Referent power Coercive power Reward power 76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment. A. B. C. D. Legitimate power Referent power Coercive power Reward power 77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with the former. A. B. C. D. Legitimate power Referent power Coercive power Reward power 78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader: B. A. Feed forward control Preventive control Concurrent control Feedback control 82. D. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future. C. C. A. D. A high level of personal drive Knowledge of the company. C. D. and in order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived. Feed forward control Preventive control Concurrent control Feedback control . A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence. C. B. Planning Controlling Evaluation Inspection 80. C. B. D. B. A.A. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity. Feed forward control Preventive control Concurrent control Feedback control 81. industry or technology Charisma Greedy 79. D. A. B. Product Design Blueprinting Product planning Conceptualizing 87. Plotting Scheduling Timetable Anticipating . D. A. C. B. translating this forecast into the demand it generates for various production facilities. B. D. and arranging for the procurement of these facilities. C. Product Design Blueprinting Product planning Conceptualizing 86. Planning Operations management Evaluation management Backboning 85. A. C. D. B. D. B. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product. C. The process of planning. C. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation. and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively.83. organizing. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long each operation in the production process takes. Operation Production Construction Creation 84. D. A. A. A. B. B. Work-Flow Layout Quality Control Inventory Control Purchasing and Materials Management 90.88. and storage activities in the firm. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material acquisition. C. D. D. B. Work-Flow Layout Quality Control Inventory Control Purchasing and Materials Management 92. D. A. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods. B. B. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company. B. The four P’s of marketing are the following except: A. C. Product . movement. A. Work-Flow Layout Quality Control Inventory Control Purchasing and Materials Management 91. C. Advertisement Commercial Marketing Sales 93. C. Work Quality Control Inventory Control Purchasing and Materials Management 89. A. A. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system. C. A. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services. D. D. D. A. C. B. beliefs. C. D. B. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need. C. B. Product Price Promotion Place 95.B. services. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the product. A. Product Price Promotion Place 98. Advertising B. D. or service. A. A. Publicity 94. Product Price Promotion Place 97. C. or action. Promotion D. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and behavior. Publicity . A. D. B. Product Price Promotion Place 96. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or persuading people about particular products. idea. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their customers. Price C. C. Personal selling 99. service. C. 100. or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor. Sales promotion D. Advertising Publicity Sales promotion Personal selling A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service. Advertising Publicity Sales promotion Personal selling .C. D. B. D. B. A. A. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product. Pino . Allado Emmylou R. Edulan Jerick D. Lee Adrian S.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN ENGINEERING MECHANICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Paala Woodrow B. vector C. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field. moment vector B. A. A. dot product . none of the above 3. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1 A. _________ is used. none of the above 4. dot product D. A. A. unit vector D. none of the above 2. tensor D. vector product C. A. vector sum 7. scalars B.1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________. dot product B. scalar product C. It is sometimes called the vector product. scalar B. vector unity 5. vector C. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction. cross product D. tensors D. vectors C. tensor D. The product of a scalar and a vector is a A. vector product B. tensor C. It is sometimes called the scalar product. scalar B. unit scalar 6. A or B D. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point. two-dimensional 11. two-dimensional C. coplanar B. tensor product D. continuum translation B. D. concurrent D. finite translation D. internal force B. 9. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object. the straight line collinear with the vector is called the ________. A. line of reaction C.B. C. cross product C. A. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition. When a force is represented by a vector. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication. parallel B. coplanar C. external force C. unit vector 8. none of the above 12. line of vector D. discrete translation C. line of action 10. line of apsides B. body force D. Which of the following statements is false? A. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane. A. B. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero. The cross product is commutative. this is referred to as __________. A. surface force 13. steady translation . A. B. shear C. load B. w tanθ D. w cosθ C. w sinθ B. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components about P. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground. . A. the component of weight (w) parallel to incline is __________. equal. A couple is composed of two forces that are A. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point. momentum C. D. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object. moment B. equal B. Torricelli’s Theorem 15. bear D. Cavalieri’s Theorem B. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis. opposite and different lines of action 17. w cotθ 19. 18. C. A. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value. A. impulse D. Which of the following statements is true about a couple? A. Pascal’s Theorem C. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle θ. mass 20. equal and different lines of action D. torsion 16.14. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object. Varignon’s Theorem D. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity. A. equal and opposite C. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is called A. gravity reflected force C. ground reflected force B. moment arm B. 1. When a body is in contact with the ground. gravity reaction force 23.A. center of reflection D. mass 21. lbm-ft/s2 B. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point called A. acceleration of gravity C. g-cm/s2 C. 3. the force that is reflected back to the body is called A. kgf 22. is equivalent to A. mass of the load B.6 m/s2 24. Newton. all of the above 26. The unit of force. center of pressure 25. moment arm D. shear C. ground reaction force D. The gravity in the moon is about A. kg-m/s2 D.6 m/s2 D. bear D. moment distance . center of reaction C.6 m/s2 B. center of force B. load B.6 m/s2 C. 0. 2. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following? A. A. Finite Element Method C. A. all of the above 29. Which of the following is an example of contact force? A. quantization of forces 30. A. the moment exerted by the force ___________. Gilbert Lewis B. the force is applied at the moment axis. D. Gordon D. composition of forces D. Contact Mechanics 32. A. A or C 27. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when acting in given directions. is unchanged D. the applied force is zero. decreases C. increases B. air resistance force D. C. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force. integration of forces C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis. lever arm D. becomes zero 28. electric force . gravitational force B. Cotrell 31. Discrete Mechanics B. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics A. resolution of forces B.C. magnetic force C. Continuum Mechanics D. Stephen Timoshenko C. J. The moment of force is zero when A. B. It is also known as quantity of motion. sliding friction 34. one dimension) with uniform accelerations are often referred to as A. force C. UVATS D. Which of the following statements is correct? A. static friction C. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is. dynamic friction B. C. remain at rest B. Either of the above 37. the object will __________ if pulled with a force of 3 N. First Law C. D. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction. accelerate D. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.33. SUVAT C. UVATS B. B and C 35. kinetic friction D. This is known as Newton’s ___________ of motion. A. momentum B. “Observed from an internal reference frame.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor. B. 36. Zeroth Law B. Given µ = 0. A. A. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction. the net force on a particle is proportional to the time rate of change of its linear momentum”. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1. A. acceleration . move C. mass D. Third Law 38. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal. Second Law D. Brayton Number B. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely fills the space it occupies. all of the above 43.39. Knudsen Number C. A. A. Material derivative is also known as __________. convective derivative D. commoving derivative C. Quantum Derivative 42. Contact C. position vector C. displacement field D. A. displacement field D. displacement vector B. Continuum 40. position field B. Prandtl Number 41. Finite Element B. path field . A. Particle Derivative D. A. A. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles of the moving continuum body. Discrete D. position field 44. Material Derivative B. In fluids. Reynolds Number D. substantial derivative B. _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be made. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed configuration is called the ________. action field C. Continual Derivative C. compressibility B. A. compressive stress 48. non-Lagrangian fluid 51. Particle Image Velocimetry B. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape. oobleck . shear stress C. Discrete Mechanics 46. Navier – Stokes Equations B. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow. It is defined as. longitudinal stress B. the fluid continues to flow A. A. Solid Mechanics C. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient. Reynolds Equations D. Fluid Mechanics D. Particle Image Flowmeter D. Lagrangian fluid D. non-Newtonian fluid C. Particle Image Viscosimetry 47. Newtonian fluid B. Torricelli Equations C. tensile stress D. viscosity 49. Particle Image Accelerometry C. plasticity C. elasticity D. Continuum Mechanics B. regardless of the forces acting on a fluid. A fluid at rest has no A. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid? A. Lagrangian Equations 50. A. A.45. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the external pressure and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid. B. center of mass D. calculate the resistance to buckling C. 25 N at 66° 55. lie anywhere on the area C. then A. A. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will A. reactant B. center of gravity B. the forces acting the object are balanced. lie somewhere along the line symmetry B. either of the above 53.18 N at 246° B. not lie on the line of symmetry 57. pudding C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam D. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry D. reverse effective force 54. equilibrant C. all of the above . 18 N at 66° C. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act A. no forces are acting on the object. A. D. It can also be called moment of inertia. 25 N at -114° D. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force. buoyant D. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10° and 15 N at 100° is A. C. all of the above are correct 56.B. paint 52. water D. determine the state of stress in a section B. centroid C. the object is in equilibrium state. parallel axis theorem D. B or C 59. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is distributed about the reference axis. 1/6 mr2 B. all of the above 60. fourth moment of area 63. moment of area C. the applied force is zero B. polar moment of area 64. 1/5 mr2 B. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is A. 2/5 mr2 C. mass moment of inertia B. A. second moment of area C. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is A. transfer formula C. The moment of force is zero when A. third moment of area D. wholly or partly immersed in a fluid. 4/5 mr2 61. the force is applied at the moment axis C. A. This is known as the ____________.58. . 2/3 mr2 62. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis D. 1/2 mr2 D. moment of area B. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal axis to another parallel axis. “Any object. It is the material’s ability to resist twisting A. 1/3 mr2 C. second moment of area D. is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object”. moment of axis theorem B. 3/5 mr2 D. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are known as __________. acceleration C. displacement B. none of the above 68. 7 N C. A. tends to rise B. 10 N D. the object __________. weight reaction 66. fluid pressure C. Bernoulli’s Principle B.A. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or partially immersed. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight. buoyancy D. displacing water of weight 3 N. Determine the tension in the string. elastic collisions . momentum D. A or B D. none of the above 70. A. Archimedes’ force B. Impulse is equal to ________. A. Torricelli’s Principle C. change in momentum C. Pascal’s Principle 65. 13 N B. 3 N 67. A. tends to sink C. impulse 69. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water. A or B D. It is the rate of change of velocity A. Archimedes’ Principle D. force x time B. A. acceleration 74. 10 N-s D.5 N-s D. mass x linear velocity C. velocity D. 20 N-s 73. work . 200 N-s 72. When hit. A. 1 N-s B. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0. radians per second 75. The SI unit for angular velocity is A. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity D. The time derivative of angular momentum is called A. momentum B. revolutions per second C. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time. inelastic collisions C.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. 0.05-second. mils per second D. 5 N-s C. 1 N-s B. static collisions D. mass x angular velocity 76. 400 N-s C. plastic collisions 71. angular velocity B.B. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity B. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula A. angular acceleration C. degrees per second B. the velocity of a 0. What is the magnitude of the impulse delivered by the bat to the ball? A. then what is the momentum change of the object? A. impulse C. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system can be known at once. torque 77. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is A. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant acceleration without having a known time interval. Heisenberg uncertainty principle B. A. Bernoulli’s equation B. . It appears to act outward the body. Bohr’s uncertainty principle 78. A. C. A. Vf = Vi + 2as 82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force? A. Vf = Vi + at C. Torricelli’s equation C. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for determining the internal forces and reactions on that structure.D. Cavendish’s equation 81. statically determinate B. dynamically indeterminate 80. Torricelli’s equation of motion is A. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + at D. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + 2as B. D. particle momentum principle C. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity. kg-m2 B. m4 D. kg-m4 C. statically indeterminate C. dynamically determinate D. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path. m2 79. It is directed toward the center of the circular path. B. particle position principle D. Newton’s equation D. 1. Kforce D. 1. D. Centripetal acceleration A. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity. m3 kg-1 s-2 B. C. changes the magnitude of the velocity. 1. N kg-1 s-2 C. Gforce 86. changes nothing about velocity.02 x 1057 N B.83. Eforce B. 85. D.211 x 1043 N D.211 x 1041 N B. 1. The value of Gforce is equal to A. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is A.02 x 10-57 N C. C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration. 84. m2 kg-1 s-2 D. 1. changes the magnitude of the velocity. Tforce C. B. changes the direction of the velocity. 1. Tangential acceleration A. 4 x 1011 m3 s-2 . electromagnetic and electrostatic force manifest. N kg-1 m-1 88. The gravitational force constant has the units A. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is A.02 x 10-67 N D. 1. changes the direction of the velocity. A. B. changes the magnitude of angular velocity. 1.211 x 1042 N C. changes nothing about velocity.02 x 1067 N 89.211 x 1044 N 87. 6 m/s2 C.005 C.6 m/s2 91.02 D. rolling resistance B. 0.1 – 0. 4 x 108 m3 s-2 D. 1. rolling friction C. Given that the radius of the moon is 1.2 C. none of the above 93. 0. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat surface.01 – 0. coefficient of rolling friction B.34 x 10 22 kg. rolling friction constant 94.730 km and mass is 7. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates? A. 2. dimensions C. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is A. 0. 4 x 1014 m3 s-2 C. 0. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is A.0002 – 0. 0.0010 B. A. either of the above 92. determine the acceleration due to gravity on the moon.B. 0. 4 x 1010 m3 s-2 90.6 m/s2 D.3 95. 0.0010 B. 3.0002 – 0. coefficient of friction C. coefficient of resistance D. both A and B D. 0. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as A. A. type of material B. rolling drag D.015 .6 m/s2 B. 16 C. A. A. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = U xi – 4j + 6k and V = 3i + 2j – 3k. mechanical coefficient 97. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it. 14 D. Determine the component Ux.67 D.67 C. mechanical factor C. A. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i – 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k. mechanical advantage D. discrete mechanics D. 0. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects. 6. 110 N 99. 5. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j – 90k (N). continuum mechanics 98. 7. factor of safety B. A. 100 N D. 130 N B. quantum mechanics B.05 – 0. 8. A. 12 100. 18 B.67 .D. 120 N C.06 96. classical mechanics C.67 B. Edulan Jerick D. Allado Emmylou R. Pino .MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN PHYSICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Lee Adrian S. Paala Woodrow B. 7. latent heat of fusion D. Luminous Intensity D. A. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow. Bernoulli’s Theorem C. Total mechanical energy B. Illuminance B. Luminance C. This is known as A. 2.1. Fluid theorem C.” The concept is known as A. Archimedes Principle The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is A. 3. speed and amplitude traveling in opposite directions are superimposed. Radiance The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles B. Coulomb’s Law It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per square meter. 4. constructive interference always results to zero According to this law. the sum of the pressure. Newton’s Law C. standing waves are produced D. cold fusion C. A. Pascal’s theorem D. Inverse Square Law D. distractive waves are produced C. Pascal’s Principle B. solid fusion . 5. Total kinetic energy D. the phase difference is always zero B. Hydraulic theorem The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of the system. A.” A. Total momentum When the two waves of the same frequency. Total potential energy C. condensation B. the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the same value. Law of Universal Gravitation B. “The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them. 6. Ideal Fluid Principle D. Elastic potential energy C. the vapor pressure A.8. The quality known as specific heat is based on: A. Q = mif D. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is A. Q = -mif B. Gas thermometer B. can have any value 9. is less than the atmospheric pressure D. if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization. which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to freeze a liquid? A. Platinum resistance thermometer C. Kinetic energy 11. Decreases as the temperature is increased C. frequency increases D. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly 1500oC? A. Internal energy D. is greater than the atmospheric pressure C. In physics. Which of the following is true? The density of water A. compound D. Is minimum at 4oC D. At the boiling point of liquid. When the pitch of a note is raised then. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead . its A. Mechanical energy B. Mercury thermometer 10. element C. Q = miv 12. wavelength is increased C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one degree Celsius D. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil C. None of the above is true 14. Cohesion is the attraction between like A. respectively. Is maximum at 4oC B. Q = -miv C. molecule 15. Increases with temperature 13. frequency decreases B. Thermo couple thermometer D. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid B. atom B. the increase in temperature due to induction B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions C. longitudinal B. none of the above 19. They transmit the energy B. When salt is added to water. remains unaffected D.16. Frequency C. decreases C. 20 Hz to 20. stationary 23. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure 20. Less than 20 Hz B. increase B. More than 25. The heat waves C. transverse D. convection C. is A. Normal range of the frequency of sound. All of the above . Which of the following is not true about sound waves? A. the boiling point of water will A. neither longitudinal nor transverse C. When sugar is added to water. decreases D. radiation D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure 17. They travel faster in air than in solids D. Wavelength B. They produce interference 22. Any of the above is possible 18. decrease D. Amplitude D. All of these 24. which the human beings can hear. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid? A. The loudness of sound depends upon its A. On decreasing the pressure. increases B.000 Hz D. its boiling point A. The shock waves D. The Beta rays 21. increases B. remain unaffected C. conduction B. The sound waves B.000 Hz C. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light? A. its boiling point A. remains unaffected C. Sound waves in air are A. Kelvin 32. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury C. temperature 30. Sound above the frequency of 20000 Hz is called A. radiation C. Specific heat B. Ultrasonic sound 26. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface D. conduction B. Joule B. On a sunny day at the beach. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC B. mass B. Water starts boiling when A. vaporization 27. when they differ in A. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered D. Hypersonic sound D. density B. density D. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without rise in its temperature is called its A. Thermal conductivity D. Supersonic sound B. A. Latent heat C. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised 29. Intrasonic sound C. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure 28. Water equivalent 31. convection D. Faraday D. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what process? A. Its temperature reaches 100oC B. depth D. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and heat was A. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V. Boltzmann C. specific mass C. specific heat C. Which of the following statements is correct? A.25. the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is due to the difference in of water and sand. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC C. thermal conductivity . room temperature B. At hills it will be A. maximum at 4oC C. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of: A. same at all temperature B. atmospheric pressure 38. The instrument. thermometer C. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is A. conduction of heat C. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure. is called A. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer D. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same reading? A. proportional to T 36. the potential energy of molecules decreases C. A. which measures temperature by radiation.33. directly proportional to square root of P C. radiation of heat D. minimum at 4oC D. The density of water is A. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases 35. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer C. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. independent of its pressure P B. -40oC C. A mercury thermometer is constructed at A. maximum at 0oC . directly proportional to the square of its temperature T D. -42oC D. thermopile B. the potential energy of molecules increases B. -38oC B. conduction and radiation of heat 40. -50oC 37. pyrometer D. hydrometer 34. the kinetic energy of molecules increases D. convection. 100oC B. convection of heat B. More than 100oC D. May be any of the above 39. Less than 100oC C. Standing wave D. remains unchanged D. -143oC 44. molecules move more slowly B. its A. its temperature always increases 42. increases B. pitch B. When a substance is heated. Wavelength and matter C.41. refraction of sound B. When waves go from one place to another they transport A. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes from left is called a A. molecules move more rapidly C. amplitude 47. timber D. there is no change in the speed of its molecules D. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is A. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having the same frequency and loudness is called A. frequency B. Transverse wave C. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice A. wavelength D. -273oC C. Frequency only D. interference of sound D. reflection of sound 48. None of these 45. 0oC B. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in A. decreases C. Energy and matter B. velocity C. diffraction of sound C. intensity C. Echo is formed as a result of A. Energy only 46. -39oC D. decibel . none of these 43. Longitudinal wave B. A Decibel is a A. musical instrument B. electromagnetic waves B.49. a measure of clarity of sound . waves on vibrating string 50. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave? A. a sound wave in air C. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork C. a water wave D. a measure of intensity level D. Pino . Edulan Jerick D. Paala Woodrow B. Lee Adrian S. Allado Emmylou R.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN STRENGTH OF MATERIALS General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Farrell’s Law 3. plastic range . brittle C. rupture point 7. malleable range C. malleable C. conductible 6. Young’s Theorem D. compressible D. proportional limit C. elastic range D. A. A ________ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture A. conductible D. Strength of materials can most aptly be described as “statics of deformable _______ bodies”. Young’s modulus B. Yield strength 4. A ________ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of rupture A. yield point D. ductile D. ductile 5. Hooke’s ratio D. proportional limit C. elastic limit B.1. Hooke’s Law C. malleable B. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is called A. Pascal’s Law B. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is no permanent or residual deformation when the load is entirely removed A. rupture point 8. elastic limit B. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a linear function of strain. elastic B. rigid C. brittle B. Modulus of rigidity C. The modulus of elasticity is also known as A. yield point D. It states that the elongation is proportional to the force A. rigid range B. A. thermal 2. Orthotropic B. elastic range D. Specific Rigidity C. Pascal’s Number B. heterogeneous material B. Isotropic C. Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight A. ultimate strength C.9. Young’s Modulus D. One of having the same elastic properties in all directions at any one point of the body A. monostate material 16. plastic range 10. Specific Strength B. The ratio of the strain in the lateral direction to that in the axial direction A. Specific Modulus D. One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body A. rupture point 11. tensile strength D. rigid range B. malleable range C. Specific Gravity 14. Monotropic . multistate material C. The maximum ordinate to the curve A. Specific Modulus D. Specific Strength B. Anisotropic D. yield strength B. Specific Gravity 15. The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress is known as A. both B and C are correct 12. homogenous material D. elastic limit B. yield point D. Specific Rigidity C. Poisson’s ratio 13. Defined as the ratio of the Young’s modulus to the specific weight A. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of rupture is called A. proportional limit C. Factor of Safety C. Isotropic C. Orthotropic B. Expansion D. The change of volume per unit volume is defined as the A.17. Young’s modulus B.27 24. 225-240 GPa D. Isotropic C. Thermal stress C. Kelvin stress B. Mutation 20. Orthotropic B. Hydraulic stress D. Bulk modulus D. Dilatation C. Convection B. 2-5 MPa D. Poisson’s ratio of glass A. 195-210 GPa C. 7-11 GPa C. The typical Young’s modulus of steel is A. Monotropic 19. 0.19 C. Shear modulus 21. Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry A.16 B. 0. 2-5 GPa . 0. 275-310 GPa 23. Anisotropic D.23 D. Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body A. A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or form A. 145-170 GPa B. Material that has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry A. 0. Anisotropic D. The yield strength of pure aluminum is A. 7-11 MPa B. Humid stress 22. Modulus of rigidity C. Monotropic 18. A. Circumferential stress B. Watt C. Optimum stress B. Differential stress D. Hoop stress C. Distortion C. Partial stress 31. Tangential stress C. All of the above 30. One Newton per square meter is one A. perpendicular B. directly proportional to B.25. Shearing stress B. less than D. Torsion D. Expressed as the ration of total deformation to the initial dimension of the material body in which forces are being applied. Elasticity B. Deflection D. skew 29. inversely proportional to C. Pascal D. Tensile and compressive stress are caused by forces _________ to the areas on which they act A. greater than 27. Dilation 32. It is the change in shape and / or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a displacement between an initial and a deformed configuration A. Joule B. The condition under which the stress is constant or uniform is known as A. parallel C. angled D. Kelvin 26. Dislocation C. The maximum safe stress a material can carry A. Strain . Which of the following is/are known as tangential stress? A. Stress D. Working stress C. Deformation B. Girth stress D. Simple stress 28. Stress on an object is _________ its cross sectional area A. Negative C. Radial distortion C. Torsion B. Centrifugal force 39. Torque C. Mils B. A. Engineering strain is also known as A. Cast iron B. Cannot be determined 35. Circumferential shear D. the Poisson’s ratio is A. Zero D. Tangential load . Cannot be determined 36. Gradians C. Which of the following materials is known to expand instead of contracting when stretched in the other direction? A. Is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque. Cast iron B. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand. Positive B. Sand C. Torsion D. the Poisson’s ratio is A. Hooke strain B. It is the rotational force down a shaft A. Degrees 40. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract. Cauchy strain C. Positive B. Pressure B. Radians D. Auxetics D. The angle of twist is measured in A. Auxetics D. Couch strain D. Negative C. Pascal strain 34. Zero D. Sand C. Cork 38. Cork 37.33. Which of the following is known to have no contractions or expansion when stretched in the other direction? A. None of the above 43. Spiral D. 134 mm D. 5.24 mm C. A. 4973.5 kN.53 mm C. Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter. Find the stress.43 mm B. If the inner diameter is 3mm.30 MPa 44. 104 mm B. 4. 2. Autumn B.33 MPa B. A. 4892. Beam 42.34 mm D. 8. what should the outer diameter be if it is not to exceed 125 MPa? A. A 6mm bar is subjected to a tensile force of 4000 N.69 mm 46.34 mm B. 43. 435. Determine the outside of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a stress of 140 MPa. A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to an axial load of 4. 70. 153 mm .53 N D. Spring C. 4. Volume expansion C.5 kN if its ultimate stress is 140 MPa A.34 mm 47. What is the minimum diameter of a bar subjected to an axial load of 6. 7. 4932. 6.41 mm D.41.74 MPa C. Elongation D. The form of deformation of a spring is A.43 N 45. 4901. If the circumference of the cross section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm. 7. 113 mm C. It is made of elastic material formed into the shape of a helix which returns to its natural length when unloaded A. Twisting B. 333.59 N B.34 MPa D.43 N C. what maximum axial load can it handle if the stress is not to exceed 100 MPa? A. 43 kN D.34 mm B. 2.28 MPa 50. 434 kN B. 75 MPa 54. A.21 MPa C. What pulling force is needed to shear off the bolt if it can withstand a stress of up to 175 MPa? A. A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of 30 MPa.9 mm 53. 3. are being pulled at opposite directions alternately.48. A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPa.26 MPa D.39 mm D. If the thickness is 10% of the inner diameter.4 mm D. 3. 272 kN 51. If the plates are secured by two bolts 75 mm in diameter. A 20 m bar with a square cross section of 9 mm2 is subjected to a tensile force without exceeding its ultimate stress. 150 MPa B. 4. 242 kN C. 14. what is the shearing stress applied to each bolt? A. 1. What force is required to punch off a 5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the ultimate punching stress is 200 MPa? A. 495 kN D. 100 MPa D. 100 mm in diameter can be punched.45 kN C.53 kN B. 33. 150 MPa B.32 mm C. 100 MPa D. 13.24 mm 49. 17.57 kN 52. secured by a 60 mm bolt. What is the tangential stress in question 51? A. 15. 1. 8. what is the longitudinal stress? A. 17.3 mm B. 125 MPa C. If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical one. 4.23 MPa B. Three plates. determine the maximum thickness of plate from which a hole. 125 MPa C. Two plates are being pulled at opposite directions with a load of 20 kN.9 mm C. 75 MPa . what should the diameter be? A. 12. If the compressive stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa. 26. 023 m B. A. 287 oC 60.43 MPa C. 453.184 m D. 431.34 mm B.75 mm 56.33 MPa 57.8 x 10-6 / Co and E = 180 GPa. 2. 45. a 17 m rod 8 mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 24 kN. 321.34 mm B. 134.06 mm B. A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached to the ceiling atone end. 75. A. If a weight of 40 kN is hung on its lower end.43 MPa D.34 m 58. 67. 217 oC C. 48.24 mm D. 75.33 mm D. At temperature of 25oC.12 mm C.78 mm B. At what temperature without the load will the bar have the same elongation? Use α = 13. If the tensile stress of a spherical vessel is limited to 17 MPa.32 MPa B.7 x 10-6 / Co.34 mm 59. 52. By how much will a 15m steel rod with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is subjected to a tensile load of 26 kN. what is the total elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit mass of kg/m3. 245 oC D.34 mm C. 293. 75. 69. what is the minimum thickness allowed if its inner radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20 N/mm2 of pressure? A. What is the bearing stress if a 15kN force is applied to plates 9 mm thick secured by a bolt 8 mm in diameter? A. 13.104 m C. 1. 115 oC B.87 mm D. 75.245 m 61.34 mm C. 4. 8. A. Use E=200 GPa A. A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to the ceiling at one end. 275.55. 46.23 mm . 6. A. What is the elongation if a steel bar 7m long is subjected to a temperature change of 17oC? Use α = 11. 1. At what new length could be expected if it has a unit mass of 5000 kg/m3 ? Use E = 750 MPa. 208.44 mm C.44 mm D. 3.57 N-m B. A.31 MPa B.44 mm D. If the unit mass of steel is 5120 kg/m3 and E=200 GPa.62 MPa 65.342 kN-m B.32o D.89 kW . 3. A steel wire 10 m long.62o C.305 kN-m 68. 33. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300mm2 and length of 150 m is suspended vertically from one end.46 MPa C. 54. 542. It supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end. 53.62.23 kW C. What is the torque if the power transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s is 1 MW? A. 636.05 mm D. How many degrees of rotational deformation would occur on an 8 m cylindrical bar 8 mm in radius if it subjected to torque of 95 N-m? A.44 MPa D.43 N-m 66. 5.34o B.34 N-m D.34 N-m C. A. 13. 15. 2. What is the torsion on a solid cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm subjected to a rotational force of 27 N-m? A.53 kW D.46 mm 63. 434. 35. 255.43 kW B.12 mm C. What is the maximum torque allowed if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to 40 MPa only? A. A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. Neglecting the weight of the wire.53o 67.26 mm B. 43.33 mm 64. hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N. 56. 23. determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140 MPa and the total elongation is not to exceed 5 mm.45 mm B. 7. 5. find the total elongation of the rod. What is the maximum allowable power transmitted if the stress should not exceed 380 MPa? A. 2. 8. 35.33 mm C.453 kN-m D. 92. 1. 5.532 kN-m C. 18. Assume E = 200 GPa. 3. 4. 1. 42. 13. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming cylinder 150 mm in diameter. A. 231.32 MPa C.21 MW D. 431. 1658 mm 70.43 MPa D. Compute number of turns required to permit an elongation of 132 mm without exceeding a shearing stress of 184. By how much will a spring with 9 turns elongate if it supports a weight of 400 N? The wire diameter is 6 mm and the mean radius is 28 mm.43 mm C.64 MPa 73. 16.02 mm D.4 MPa . A. 117.67 MW C. Use the exact formula. Using G=83 GPa. 64. 120. 132. 154.32 MPa B. 12.7 mm.67 MPa 72. Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be twisted through two complete turns without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 MPa. A.24 turns D.29 MPa B. 432.26 MW 71. 1. 153. 26.8 MPa. 1280 mm D.36 turns 75. 365. 15. 6280 mm B. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4o. 325. A helical spring with mean radius of 40 mm has wire diameter of 2. Use G=83 GPa. Use G=150 GPa.65 mm 74.43 turns B. 3.6 MPa B. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2kN.35 MPa D. A. A.21 MW B.35 mm B.83 turns C.54 MPa C. compute the power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s.69. 238. 3420 mm C.9 MPa C. A. A. Use G=35 GPa. 1. Solve question 69 using the exact formula. What is the shearing stress if there is a 22 N load? Use the approximate formula. 18. 9 MPa .126. Allado Emmylou R. Pino . Lee Adrian S.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN ENGINEERING MATERIALS General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Paala Woodrow B. Edulan Jerick D. Viscidity D. Resistance B. Anelastivity . hardness 2. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another I known as A. Gummosity B. ductility B. elasticity D. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling together is known as A. Friction B. Cohesion C. Viscosity 3. Thermoplastic 7.1. Thermoduric D. Thermoscopic B. Viscosity 8. malleability C. Plastic D. Adhesion D. Glutinosity C. it is called A. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as A. Brittle B. Elastance B. Specific change D. Elasticity C. Ductile C. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called A. When a body is resistant to heat. Permeance C. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is called A. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic limit without being ruptured is called A. Impedence D. Charge C. Nucleon interaction 5. Elastivity D. Conductance 6. Potential difference B. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is called A. Thermotropic C. Malleable 4. Isogonic D. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or motion is called A. Torpidity B. Greater the wavelength. Pyxeria C. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as A. Thermal convection . Conductance C. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a glass prism? A.9. Phosphorescence 10. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is A. Permeability D. it is called A. slower the speed of color 11. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature gradient is called A. Isotropic C. Thermal capacity B. The violet color travels slower than the red color C. The violet color travels faster than the red color B. Incandescence B. Capacitance B. All the colors of white light travels the same speed D. Temperature 15. Isodynamic B. Accumulation 13. Scintillation D. Inertia 12. Calidity B. Passivity C. Luminescence C. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with another object is called A. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions. Thermal conductivity C. Caloric D. Isotopic 14. Thermal radiation D. Inactivity D. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents. fluorescence C. diastrophism D. chromaticity 17. rigidity C. elastic deformation D. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having negligible to the flow of an electric current is called A. supercharging B. fatigue 20. incandescence 18. superfluidity D. dichromatism C. debility B. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher frequency is called A. thereby giving to the crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as A. illuminance B. dichroism B. radioluminescence D. supercooling C.16. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is A. superconductivity . diamagnetic B. paramagnetic C. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called A. ferromagnetic 19. ferromagnetic D. Paala Woodrow B. Pino . Lee Adrian S.1 General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Allado Emmylou R. Edulan Jerick D.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN LAWS & ETHICS . 1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do. A. Contracts B. Obligation C. Quasi-delicts D. Condition 2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind. A. Obligum B. Obligate C. Obligare D. Obligus 3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property, independent of contract. A. Contracts B. Obligation C. Quasi-delicts D. Condition 4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of justice may compel their performance. A. Civil Obligations B. Natural Obligation C. Pure Obligation D. Condition 5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience, they are not legally demandable. A. Civil Obligations B. Natural Obligation C. Pure Obligation D. Condition 6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party A. Juridical or legal tie B. Prestation C. Active subject D. Passive subject 7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something A. Juridical or legal tie B. Prestation C. Active subject D. Passive subject 8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the obligation or known as the creditor or oblige A. Juridical or legal tie B. Prestation C. Active subject D. Passive subject 9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or known as the debtor or obligor A. Juridical or legal tie B. Prestation C. Active subject D. Passive subject 10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation. A. Law B. Contracts C. Quai-delicts D. Work 11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except A. An act or omission B. Accompanied by fault or negligence C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties D. Acts or omissions punished by law 12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable. A. Pure obligation B. Condition obligation C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation. A. Pure obligation B. Condition C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition. A. Pure obligation B. Condition obligation C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the fulfillment of the condition. A. Suspensive Condition B. Alternative obligation C. Reciprocal obligation D. Resolutory obligation 16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the happening of the event. A. Suspensive Condition B. Alternative obligation C. Reciprocal obligation D. Resolutory Condition 17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration of said term. A. Pure obligation B. Obligations with a period C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 18. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount “as soon as possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the remedy of “B” is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be paid. This illustrates: A. Pure obligation B. Obligations with a period C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation 19. A kind of period with suspensive effect. A. Ex die B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain date A. Ex die B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 21. A period established by law. A. Ex die B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 22. A period agreed to by the parties. A. Judicial period B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 23. A period authorized by the court. A. Judicial period B. In diem C. Legal period D. Voluntary period 24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something. A. Pure obligation B. Condition C. Reciprocal obligation D. Alternative obligation Mixed Solidarity D. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation. Divisible obligation D. Reciprocal obligation D. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. Marc could not compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this illustrates: A. Solidary obligation C. The delivery of the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Pure obligation B. Mixed Solidarity D. Passive Solidarity C. Pure obligation B. Condition C. this is called A. Joint obligation B. but the payment of one of them is sufficient. Joint obligation B. Reciprocal obligation D. Mixed Solidarity D.25. Solo Solidarity 30. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only. Alternative obligation 27. Solo Solidarity . it is called A. A. Solidary obligation C. Passive Solidarity C. Active Solidarity B. Alternative obligation 26. Active Solidarity B. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only. Indivisible obligation 28. A. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt. An obligation wherein various things are due. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time. Condition C. Divisible obligation D. Active Solidarity B. determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor. Solo Solidarity 31. Passive Solidarity C. and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit A. A. Indivisible obligation 29. A. Quantitative C.00 against “A”.000. Moral 35. intellectual or mental division A. and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150. Quantitative C. This illustrates: A.32. Preceding 38. Indivisible obligation 34. All of the above 37. however could not compel “A” to deliver the car and pay the penalty at the same time. Ideal D. Law B.00.000. Penal clause C. Solidary obligation C. Qualitative B. Subsidiary C. This is _______ type of penal clause: A.00. They agree in writing that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a specified date. Mental 36. Solo D. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity A. Indivisible obligation 33. Joint B. Joint obligation B. Partial .00. “B”. Stipulation D. “B” could demand the payment of P10. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality A. Ideal D. Divisible obligation D. Solidary obligation C. An obligation which is capable of partial performance. Divisible obligation D. “A” fails to make the delivery. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on May 1st. Qualitative B. “A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. “A” shall pay “B” as penalty P10. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach. Ideal D. Qualitative B. and Pedro to pay Juan the same amount of P150. Joint obligation B. Quantitative C. A. A type of division also known as moral. Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1 st. Implied 43. By altering the signature D.39. Solo D. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance. By the condition or remission of the debt C. By Payment or Performance B. A. Express D. A. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced totally. Partial 40. A. A. Partial B. A. Express D. Complete C. Joint obligation B. Express D. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts in their concurrent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Express D. Partial B. Joint B. Complete C. Legal compensation B. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except A. Implied 46. Implied 45. Voluntary compensation C. Indivisible obligation 42. Judicial compensation A. A. Partial B. Judicial compensation D. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation. Implied 44. Complete C. Subsidiary C. Partial compensation . Solidary obligation C. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee. Partial B. By the loss of the thing due 41. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can be enforced. Complete C. Divisible obligation D. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and compensation extinguishes the obligations entirely. A. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to the rights of the creditor. they entered into another contract whereby instead of “A” delivering a car. Legal compensation B. A. “A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Real novation C. Judicial compensation D. Personal novation D. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff. Legal compensation B. Partial compensation 51. Personal novation D. A. True novation B. Voluntary compensation C. Total compensation C. Real novation C. A. Legal compensation B. True novation B. Partial compensation 50. True novation B. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts. Substitute novation 52. Real novation C. Partial compensation 49. Partial compensation 48. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation. Personal novation D. Judicial compensation D. A. This illustrates: A. “A” would deliver a truck. Substitute novation 53. Total compensation C.47. Subsequently. Judicial compensation D. Judicial compensation D. Total compensation C. A. Legal compensation B. Substitute novation . Kontrus B. Tractum D. Unnatural elements 59. Contractumus 57. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give something or to render some services. terms. A. Deliberation . contractus C. A. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law unless there is an agreement to the contrary A. Essential element B.54. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except A. Contracts B. Condition 56. Natural elements C. A. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon the terms of the contract. Substitute novation 55. Accidental elements D. Obligation C. Accidental elements D. cause or consideration D. consent of the parties B. Essential element B. A. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or modification of principal condition. Preparation or Conception B. Quasi-delicts D. Mixed novation B. Personal novation D. Perfection or Birth C. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such as conditions. Consummation or Termination D. Real novation C. Natural elements C. effects to the subject 58. object or subject matter C. etc. Unnatural elements 60. A. Preparation or Conception B.000. Executory contracts 67. Unilateral contract . A. Implied contracts C.000. Executory contracts 66. Deliberation 64. oral or written. Consummation or Termination D. A. Juan agrees to receive P2. A contract that is perfected by mere consent. Implied contracts C. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration. such as a contract of sale. Consummation or Termination D. Perfection or Birth C.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it. A contract that has already been performed. Real contract D. Pedro gives the amount P2. Express contract B. A. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. A contract that has not yet performed. Express contract B. A. Consummation or Termination D. Executed contracts D. Preparation or Conception B. A. Executory contracts 65. Deliberation 63. Bilateral contract C. Consensual contract B. This refers to what stage of the contract A. Perfection or Birth C. A. Deliberation 62. Implied contracts C. Executory contracts 68. Executed contracts D. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct. Executed contracts D. Implied contracts C. Perfection or Birth C.61. Express contract B. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words. A. Preparation or Conception B. Express contract B. Executed contracts D.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the amount. Real contract D. Contrary to public order 73. Contrary to good customs D. Bilateral contract C. Bilateral contract C. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to A.00. Against moral C. Consensual contract B.000. Contrary to good customs D. Unilateral contract 72. Contrary to law B. Consensual contract B. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of P100. A. A. Invitations were printed and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial bed. Contrary to good customs D.000.00 the latter agrees to live with “A” without the benefit of marriage. Contrary to good customs D. Bilateral contract C. Contrary to public order . A. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or gratuitous deposit.69. 2007. Real contract D. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to A. Against moral C. Against moral C. Contrary to public order 74. Contrary to law B. Pedro. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any enterprise whatever in the Philippines. Unilateral contract 71. entered into a contract with “B” whereby the latter agreed to murder “C”. Contrary to public order 75. Real contract D. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations. for and in consideration of P1. Against moral C. Consensual contract B. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to A. Unilateral contract 70. Contrary to law B. however walked out of it and was never heard of again. “A”. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to A. Contrary to law B. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the pure liberality of the giver. B. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has been committed. Reformation B. Consent B. Erroneous 81. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons. Liberation Contract 79. 82. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual mistake. Onerous Contrary D. such as creditors. Rescissible Contract B. Effect of contract 77. Novation C. A. A. or accident. Liberation Contract 80. Voidable Contract C. A. Gratuitous Contract B. the contract may be rescinded. inequitable conduct. The following are requisites of contracts except A. Void or Inexistent Contracts . The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties D. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the mutual undertaking or promise of either of the contracting parties. Onerous Contract D. Onerous Contract D. C. There is a valid contract. Unenforced Contracts D. fraud. Cause of contract D. The contract is in writing. A. Remunetory Contract C. Remunetory Contract C. Gratuitous Contract B. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation? A. Remunetory Contract C. Object of contract C. A. Gratuitous Contract B. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the service or benefit for which the remuneration is given. Defect D. Liberation Contract 78.76. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation. damage B. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. Voidable Contract D. payment 84. Payment B. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to another without the consent of the latter. Void or Inexistent Contract B. Unenforceable Contract C. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. Voidable Contract D. A. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect. Unenforceable Contract C. Nominal Damages C. Void or Inexistent Contract B. Negotiorum Gestio 86. Damages D. object and cause or consideration. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract. Unenforceable Contract C. Void or Inexistent Contract B. Compensation 89. effect C. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the price is unjust or inadequate. It is a valid contract until it is annulled. A. or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act. A. Voidable Contract D. lost wages and the repair or replacement of property. Moral Damages . lesion D.83. Unenforceable Contract C. Voidable Contract D. A. Void or Inexistent Contract B. Injury C. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be A. recompense. Negotiorum Contract 88. Negotiorum Gestio 85. A. consent. Negotiorum Gestio 87. It typically includes medical expenses. namely. A. Law of people . Nominal Damages C. A. Temperate and Moderate Damages 90. Temperate or Moderate Damages 93. besmirched reputation. A. and as a consequence of which some damages must be awarded to determine the right. Moral Damages D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages 95. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a violation of some legal right. wounded feelings. Temperate or Moderate Damages 91. A. Damages that includes physical suffering. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury. A. reckless. serious anxiety. moral shock.D. Compensatory Damages 94. A. Moral Damages D. Exemplary Damages C. Law of merchants B. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by the judgment of a competent court. fright. or oppressive character of the acts complained of. Nominal Damages C. Nominal Damages C. Corrective Damages D. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants. Nominal Damages C. Law of mariners D. Temperate or Moderate Damages 92. Moral Damages D. mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the civilized countries of the world. Liquidated Damages B. Moral Damages D. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. mental anguish. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of wanton. malicious. social humiliation and similar injury. Actual or Compensatory Damages B. A. Law of businessmen C. 2 General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Lee Adrian S. Pino . Edulan Jerick D. Allado Emmylou R.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN LAWS & ETHICS . Paala Woodrow B. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________ amperes and above passes through one’s chest cavity. Results from abnormally high sound level. A. A. the physical effects of which may vary from minor discomfort to serious injury. 100. A. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is: A.1. 150V DC B. Resistance D. Electrical Shock B. 50V RMS AC 7. Sonic Boom 3. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is A. 45V DC C. Voltage C. 160V DC . Conductance 4. Lightning C. 0. Corona D. 24V RMS AC D.030 D. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth. 0.11 C.000.000 ohms C. Super Sonic C. Thunder B. 0. Aurora 2.010 B. 1. 0. 10.000 ohms D. Acoustic Shock D. Current B. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is: A. 12V RMS AC C. 100 ohms 5. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately: A. 135V DC D.33 6. 45V RMS AC B.000 ohms B. Voltage limiting 12. A. Grounding D. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.8. Resistance limiting C. Current limiting B. Current limiting B. Current Limiting 10. Ground Path D. Resistance limiting C. A. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct bonding. or about one meter. diodes. Grounding D. Ground Resistance B. discharge gaps. A. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a fuse in series with a circuit. Voltage limiting 11. etc. Grounding D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC 9. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface separated by a distance of one pace. Shielding C. Current limiting B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC C. which operate under abnormal voltage condition. A. A. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC D. Resistance limiting C. Grounding B. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its connection to ground electrode. Resistance Path . A. Voltage limiting 13. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC B. when permissible or by use of surge arresters. Bonding D. in the direction of maximum potential gradient shall be no greater than __________. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage to plant equipment possible. Grounde Electrode C. 43 ohms D. 43 ohms D. A. Made Ground 18. Ground pole B. 25 ohms B. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.14. A. 5 ohms 15. It is a metal strip or rod. Guy D. 25 ohms B. fuse B. Guy D. Grounding 19. A. 3 ohms C. Lightning Rods C. Ground pole B. A. Surge arrester D. Lightning rod C. For equipment locations. Made Ground 17. Surge arrester D. and all allied installations. Lightning rod C. A. Lightning Rods C. the ground resistance must never exceed __________. fuse B. 5 ohms 16. Grounding . 3 ohms C. usually of copper or similar conductive material. designed to protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel) from lightning damage. the ground resistance must never exceed __________. A. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal operating potentials. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance electrical contact with the earth. antenna towers. A. Use multiple rods C. 12 times a year 25. Extra Heavy Loading Zone . Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible D. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohmcentimeter. Direct Method or two terminal test B. Bonding or Grounding 21. Earth resistivity C. A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth B. 3 times per year B. Triangulation Method D.20. A. Cubic resistance D. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240 kph wind velocity. 3 times per year B. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use: A. once a year D. Surge arrester D. fuse B. Light Loading Zone D. All ground connections. 12 times a year 26. The following are ways to improve grounds except: A. Place stones near the rod 24. be it solderless or soldered. shall be checked at least __________ to be sure they are tight. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards. Medium Loading Zone C. Earth density 23. twice a year C. A. A. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages. Lightning rod C. once a year D. at least __________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED. Ground resistance B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method C. Heavy Loading Zone B. Three terminal test 22. twice a year C. A. 12. before entering battery rooms C. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds __________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the equipment room or location where people are staying. inside the room only B. 1 kW D.27. Medium Loading Zone C. A.5 and 32. Heavy Loading Zone B.5 and 25. Extra Heavy Loading Zone 29.2 C. Light Loading Zone D. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160 kph wind velocity.5 and 60. flour D. Caustic soda .2 B. Heavy Loading Zone B. 10 kW C. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage. kerosene C. 5 kW B.3 30.2 D. Light Loading Zone D. 15. A. A. oil B. 15. outside the room only D. Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and “NO SMOKING” signs should be posted ___________. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees Celsius. 15 kW 31. 55. Extra Heavy Loading Zone 28. A. Medium Loading Zone C. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200 kph wind velocity.2 and 52. Both A and C 32. A. between two ground connections or between similar parts of two circuits. A. Guy 34. damaged B. Fault current B. fault D. short 37. Stairway B. A. A. main cable C. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two. dropline D. used to run a subscriber’s line from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the house or building. Flame Retarding C. Flame Proof B. Anti Flame . An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured readily when subjected to flame. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon. a physical condition that causes a device. Dark current C. a component or an element to fail to perform in a required manner. Guy D. A. hazard C. Insulated wires.33. A. Pole 35. Burn Proof D. A. Climbing Space C. Bond B. main line B. Dead short 38. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths. Fuse D. dropwire 36. Short C. Leakage current D. A. Fuse D. around or over the surface of solid. or to some conducting body of relatively large extent that serves in place of the earth. A discharge through air. Guy post 44. but do not enter. produced by the application of voltage such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc. Anchor guy C. between parts of different potential of polarity. Arc 41. Flame Retarding C. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced force on a pole or other overhead line structures. A. A. ground D. jumper C. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy. Burn Proof D. whether intentional or accidental. Flame Proof B. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test. Manhole B. A. short B. Bond B. ink 42. A. Anti Flame 40. Washover D. Short C. Overhead guy B. Finger hole . by which an electric circuit or equipment is connected to earth. Guy 43. Aurora B. Bla guy D. Rathole C. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach. liquid or other insulation. A. A conducting connection. Corona C.39. Handhole D. Fuse D. Lightning arrester B. A. A. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service. A metallic rod. A. plant D. Drop ground D. messenger 48. and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs. Ground rod C. Lightning gap . by diverting surge current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified. Rathole C. Lightning rod B. A. Breaker D. A. conductors. zone B. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth. driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth. Manhole B. A. Radials 50. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system. cables and any associated apparatus. support C. guy B. conduit D. Lightning Protector 46. large enough for a person to enter.45. Finger hole 47. Handhole D. area C. division 49. its primary function being to support wires or cables of the system. Lightning ball B. Lightning rod C. A subsurface chamber. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage. Lightning Arrester C. in the route of one or more conduit runs. Tower sway C. A. Tower bend 53. Tower bend 55. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customer’s premises. Tower displacement B. earth mat D. Service drop B. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that elevation A. Subscriber’s loop C. underneath B. Tower twist D. underground C. Tower bend 54. Tower sway C. under earth .51. Tower displacement B. Local drop 52. Tower sway C. Tower twist D. Main line D. Tower displacement B. A. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at that elevation. Tower twist D. A. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind load position at that elevation A. Edulan Jerick D. Pino .3 General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Paala Woodrow B. Lee Adrian S. Allado Emmylou R.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN LAWS & ETHICS . drop wire B. 50mm 4. 4.4m B. 6. 20mm B. Overhead entrance D. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a pole to a building. service entrance D. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should be ___________.6m . 4m D.1. A. terminated to the main cross connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility. 30mm C.3m C. local loop C. 5. A. Underground entrance C. 30m C. 3m C. 1m 6. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter. subscribers loop 2. A. A. 20m B. 40mm D. the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street must be ___________. the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power entrance must be __________ radial distance. In aerial entrance. A.5m D. 40m D. Aerial entrance B. Define as wires or cables entering the building. 2m B. A. Handhole 3. 50m 5. In aerial entrance. 3. 5m D. Overhead entrance D.5m C. minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only. 100 mm C.1m 8. 800 mm B. 900 mm D. 45 mm 13. 3. 50 mm D. 65 mm D. 4.5m B. 75 mm C. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________ pairs. A.7. 50 mm B. 150 mm 12. A. A. In aerial entrance. For underground entrance. Underground entrance C. 6. Handhole 9. must be __________. 20 . A. An underground entrance’s minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic inside private property is A. conduits should be separated from power conduits by not less than __________ in well-tamped earth: A. conduits should be separated from power conduits by not less than __________ of concrete. 100 mm C. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the need for possible subsequent repairs to the property. 300 mm B. Aerial entrance B. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a service box. 600 mm C. 5. A. For underground entrance. 300 mm B. 700 mm 10. 150 mm 11. 50 mm D. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is A. 0. 0.22m x 1.91m B.19m 18. 1 B. drop wire B.91m x 1. The minimum number of entrance conduit is A.61m x 0.61m x 0. 0. A. 40mm D. 40 C. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is A.23m x 1.19m x 1. 2 C.19m 16. The minimum size for service box is A.91m x 1.73m C. 20mm B. 0. 50 14.61m x 0. 0. 0.91m x 0.19m x 1.61m x 0.91m x 0. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________ pairs. 30mm C.91m x 0.91m x 0.73m C.19m x 1. 50mm 19.73m C.73m C. The minimum size for service-box is A.91m B.B.91m x 0. 0. 0.19m 15.21m D.21m D.19m x 1.61m x 0. 4 20. 0.91m B.23m x 1.61m x 0. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is A. 0. service box . It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are terminated.23m x 1.21m D.91m B. 0.21m D. 0. 0.19m 17. main terminals D.91m x 1. 0.91m x 1.91m x 0. 0.23m x 1.22m x 1.61m x 0.61m x 0. 0. 3 D. 30 D.91m x 0. terminal wire C.22m x 1.22m x 1.91m x 0. 21. and located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other special services is: A. 800 mm C.3 m B. Normally __________ away from all hazards. black D. 1. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all terminations. 1. yellow C. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers is: A. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an entrance is: A. A. yellow C. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal blocks. blue 26. black D.3 m C. 700 mm 23. blue . white B. 2. A. black D. yellow C.6 m D. 800 mm B. white B. A. Riser System D. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) B. Service Box 24.6 m 22. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting. 2. 1000 mm D. white B. blue 25. Main Distributing Frame (MDF) C. Elevated Riser C. A. Open Riser B. Riser System D. A. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines between two or more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet. A. Open Riser B. Riser System D. Service Box 28. A.27. Main Distributing Frame (MDF) C. Service Box 29. Elevated Riser C. usually beginning at the ground floor and extending throughout the height of the building. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF) C. Closed Riser D. Underground Riser . Closed Riser D. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) B. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless placed in metallic conduit. Underground Riser 30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets vertically or non-vertically aligned. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will exceed 300 pairs. Pino .4 General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Lee Adrian S. Allado Emmylou R.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN LAWS & ETHICS . Edulan Jerick D. Paala Woodrow B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines C. in plasma. including. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECT”. applications involving optical. A. Electronics and Communications Engineer 4. in gaseous media. but not limited to. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer B. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines 2. Electronics Engineer D. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge. Physics 3. A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer B. Electronics and Communications Engineer 5. electromagnetic and other energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals. RA 9292 is known as A. Electronics Technician 6. A. A. Professional Electronics Engineer C. Professional Electronics Engineer C. Communications C. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. Electronics Engineer D. in a vacuum. Electronics Engineer D. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECE”.1. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer B. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer B. in solid-state and/or in similar devices. A. Electronics Engineer D. Electricity D. in semiconductors. Professional Electronics Engineer C. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004 B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004 D. Electronics B. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “PECE”. Electronics and Communications Engineer . 5734. Professional Electronics Engineer C. ATM D. A. production. ICT C. radio. storage and transmission/reception of data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal. text. written or printed matter. fixed or moving pictures or images. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data. programs and/or instructions. Paging . Transmission D. Information Technology 9. Communications C. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio. Communications C. Information Technology 11.7. Telecommunications D. text. textual. data. also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing such data and information. Communications C. The process of sending and/or receiving information. by wire. electromagnetic and technological means. intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or format and for any purpose. or other electronic. The acquisition. visual/optical/light. Any transmission. A. optical wave guides or other devices and wired or wireless medium. data. Telecommunications D. spectral. Computer B. Information and Communications Technology B. video. images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means. Telecommunications D. A. Laptop 8. executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting the results. Broadcasting C. Information and Communications Technology B. signals and/or messages between two (2) or more points by radio. electronic messages. Information and Communications Technology B. A. A. Communications B. words. emission or reception of voice. pictorial. or any information. cable. numeric or the like. transformation. music or visible or audible signals or sounds. Information Technology 10. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise. 7 years B. Technical services 15. hotels. A. and other technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering. condominiums. Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician. Power Plant 13. stadia. PIECEP D. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings. Commercial Establishment C. Production Area D. experience and professional capability in undertaking advisory and review. construction.12. 5 years D. watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit. Industrial Plant B. To be qualified as a Member of the Board. Accredited Professional Organization C. hospitals. Organization of PECE 16. Secondary services D. maintained. supervision. Industrial Plant B. assembled. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being used. schools. Consulting services B. Production Area D. and any other building/s or area/s for business purposes. design. A. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics Engineers. Power Plant 14. A. assembled. sold. Commercial Establishment C. IECEP B. A. pre-investment or feasibility studies. motels. apartments. maintained. Primary services C. manufactured or operated. management and related services. where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used. 3 years . sold. he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment. manufactured or operated. planning. memorial chapels/parks. 10 years C. A. stores. supermarkets. parking areas. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term. 7 years. position of immediate supervisors for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate). 10 years. A. __________ and Senate Bill No. from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer or Electronics Engineer. 2 years 21. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in government service or in the private sector. 5734. 4552 . Below 75% but not lower than 60% 20. 3 years B. 80% 19. 109 D. 60% C. 3 18. in the format to be prescribed by the Board. 10 years. Below 70% but not lower than 50% C. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she has failed to obtain the passing rating. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. 5224. a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination: A. A. Provided. 5 years.17. relevant accomplishments and name. 5 D. 10 C. however. that a candidate who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s. at least ___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work. To pass the licensure examination. A. Below 70% but not lower than 60% B. description of specific responsibilities. 2 years D. 7 B. 458 C. indicating the inclusive dates. 5447. 2 years C. Below 60% but not lower than 50% D. 50% B. 5533. A. companies worked for. 70% D. 2683 B. _______. 22. 2004 D. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity of RA No. 2005 23. 3 B. March 27. 2004 25. A. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on A. 9292. March 2. May 24. 10 D. A. 9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 1. April 27. 2. 7 27. Article III of RA No. April 17. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18. 3.2004 D. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. April 17. 2 26. March 5. 2004 C. March 17. 7 . 10 C. 2004 B. A. 1. 2 C. 3 C. one must provide __________ certification/s signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the applicant is factual. 5 B. 2004 B. 3 D. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on A. May 28. RA 9292 was approved on A. 5 B. April 17. 3 D. 2004 24. 2005 D. 2007 C. 2004 B. 2004 C. April 27. February 2. To qualify in the registration to be PECE. ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the Philippines B. 7 30. 48 mm D. subject to compliance with the applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board. 2 C. 5 B. 3 C. reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape. 1 B. 32 mm . To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT). A. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT). __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card. 7 29. 10 D. upon application of the party concerned and for reasons deemed proper and sufficient. ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the Philippines D. A. he/she must have rendered at least ___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment either in the Government or private sector. technical capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the Board. A. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the Philippines 32. 28 mm B. 5 B. A Filipino PECEs.28. A Filipino PECEs. A foreign national that are PECEs. 4 31. A. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to A. consisting two concentric circles. 45 mm C. 3 D. ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad C. 3 C.one must provide individual certification/s from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity. 10 D. with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter. The Board may. the atom symbol contains A. the atom symbol contains A. the lower half part of the annular space bear the words A. A. with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter. LICENSE NO. computer 37. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING B. grey with boundaries in black color B. In the official seal/logo of the Board. 4 electrons 38. 4 nuclei 39. radar transceiver D. 36. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape. white with boundaries in black color D. In the official seal/logo of the Board. yellow with boundaries in black color . 35. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION C. 1 electron B. electron C.33. 2 electrons C. 45 mm C. 3 nuclei D. consisting two concentric circles. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION C. 48 mm D. 2 nuclei C. the upper part of the annular space bear the words A. 1 nucleus B. 3 electrons D. In the official seal/logo of the Board. NAME OF THE MEMBER D. 32 mm 34. NAME OF THE MEMBER D. In the official seal/logo of the Board. In the official seal/logo of the Board. In the official seal/logo of the Board. atom B. 28 mm B. the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an A. the outer and inner ring is filled with A. orange with boundaries in navy color C. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING B. LICENSE NO. 9292 shall be. navy blue background C. White. Black. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29. a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the outer circle measuring __________ in diameter. Black . black with white background B. the inner ring is filled with A. 28 mm B. electron C. orange 43. black with grey background D. red D. atom B. orange C. white background 42. A. In the official seal/logo of the Board. Article IV of RA No. white with grey background 41. 45 mm C. A. red B. 48 mm D. the atom is colored with ___________ and the nucleus and electrons in __________ color. 35 mm C. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29.40. a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the upper part of the inner circle A. In the official seal/logo of the Board. computer . black background D. orange background B. a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner circle measuring ___________ in diameter. A. 48 mm D. radar transceiver D. Article IV of RA 9292 shall be. White. Article IV of RA 9292 shall be. 32 mm 45. 32 mm 44. the text is A. in the official seal/logo of the Board. 28 mm B. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29. white with black background C. is the A. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER” 48. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION C. license number B. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER” 49. the portion of the inner circle below the diametral space shall bear A. NAME OF THE MEMBER D. the lower portion of the annular space bear A. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license D. license number B. the word “PHILIPPINES” C. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer. license number B. license number B. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER” . the word “PHILIPPINES” C. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING B. a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word A. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license D. Article IV of RA 9292 shall be. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER” 50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer.46. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license D. below the words LICENSE NO. 47. the upper portion of the annular space bear A. the word “PHILIPPINES” C. LICENSE NO. the word “PHILIPPINES” C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license D. 3 General Engineering and Applied Sciences By Randy O. Pino . Lee Adrian S. Paala Woodrow B. Allado Emmylou R.MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN LAWS & ETHICS . Edulan Jerick D. A. 10 minutes or 15 minutes D. Newsbreak B. to 10:00 p. extro. each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________ of news per day (from 5:00 a. Secondary source C. first offense B. or may be a person who acts as a conduit. all of the above 4. fourth offense . A. All of the above 3. Primary source B. headline and commercial load. and recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and. Newscast D. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates A.m. 1st person source D. 75 min. 60 min. 2nd person source 5. B. for improper placement of advertisement shall be given for: A. Flash report C. second offense D. 1 minute B. A. In KBP radio standards. C. primary source B. D. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________ A. 2nd person source 6. secondary source C. 30 min. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of news is extracted or attributed to. third offense C.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis. 2. 45 min.1. 5 minutes C.m. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding intro. recommendation to the NTC for the cancellation of permit to operate the station. 1st person source D. 7. 3 minutes and 30 sec D. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro Manila A. A. A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called A. 3 D. hitch-hiker C. 20 min 13. 2 C. lead commercial D. 15 min B. 1 minute and 15 sec . All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. competitive system of commercial broadcasting is: A. Private Service Announcements D. 17 min C. Advertising B. The principal source of revenue of the free. 1 B. Private Announcements C. cow-catcher B. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the KBP or directly with the broadcast station. Fund D. sweeper 11. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila A. sweeper 12. cow-catcher B. Donation C. All of the above 10. hitch-hiker C. lead commercial D. A commercial following the close of the program is called: A. 4 9. Public Announcements 8. 18 min D. Radio stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPM’s every clockhour. A. Public Service Announcements B. 15 B. 7 minutes and 30 sec C. 14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila A. 15 B. 7 minutes and 30 sec C. 3 minutes and 30 sec D. 1 minute and 15 sec 15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila A. 15 B. 7 minutes and 30 sec C. 3 minutes and 30 sec D. 1 minute and 15 sec 16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside Metro Manila A. 15 min B. 17 min C. 18 min D. 20 min 17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila A. 17 B. 8 min and 30 sec C. 4 min D. 1 min and 30 sec 18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila A. 17 B. 8 min and 30 sec C. 4 min D. 1 min and 30 sec 19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila A. 17 B. 8 min and 30 sec C. 4 min D. 1 min and 30 sec 20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ breaks in every program hour A. 5 B. 7 C. 6 D. 8 21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ breaks in every program hour A. 5 B. 7 C. 6 D. 8 22. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per hour. A. 20 min B. 15 min C. 30 min D. 25 min 23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards: A. shall not be placed within the same cluster B. can be placed in the same time cluster C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between D. A and B 24. The following advertisements shall not be allowed: A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading expressions B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these acts C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and grammar D. All of the above 25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province A. Local product B. Local account C. Local merchandise D. Local goods 26. The following are considered local accounts except: A. Bowling Alleys B. Painting shops C. Barber shops D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province 27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM 32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM C. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM B. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM B. Outside Metro Manila. AM radio prime time is the time A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM 39. 12 noon to 2:00 PM D. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM B.34. Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM 38. For provincial stations. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM C. 9:00 AM to 12 noon B. all of the above 36. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM C. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM . AM radio prime time is the time A. Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within: A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM B. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM 35. Within Metro Manila. In Metro Manila. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM B. FM radio prime time is the time A. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM 41. FM radio prime time is the time A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM C. All of the above 37. AM radio prime time is the time A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM C. Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within: A. Outside Metro Manila. For provincial stations. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight D. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. all of the above 40. In Metro Manila. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM D. For provincial stations. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision. 30 min B. A. 18 C. advisories in the public interest D. 15 B. 45 min D. news bulletins B. advertisements 45. 20 .42. 2 C. 3 D. shall not be used for any other purpose like: A. A. 4 43. 17 D. A. 75 min 44. In TV standards. last minute program changes C. 60 min C. either electronic or manual. inclusive of breakspots. 1 B. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes per hour in foreign or local programs. every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday. Text crawls.