All team "One vision … One Mission" 0 The Ear 1. The Following is true about the tympanic membrane EXCEPT: a. It is rounded in shape. b. It is placed obliquely forming acute angle with meatus anteriorly and obtuse one posteriorly. c. The normal tympanic membrane is pearly white in color. d. The light reflex is due to the concave position of the membrane. 2. The following is true about the Eustachian tube EXCEPT: a. It ends 1 cm behind the posterior end of the inferior turbinate. b. The upper 1/3 is bony while the lower 2/3 is fibrocartilagenous. c. It is normally opened at rest. 3. Choose the correct answer: a. Ear washing is not contraindicated in traumatic perforation of the drum. b. Pathological perforation of the drum occurs at any site while traumatic ones occurs in pars tensa only. c. In ear washing, the sterile nozzle of the syringe is directed to the drum directly. d. Ear washing is indicated in the presence of fistula between the middle & inner ear. 4. Pain on mastication is present in: a. Acute mastoiditis. b. Otosclerosis. c. Furunculosis of the external ear. d. Allergic otitis externa. 5. Sagging of the postero-superior wall of the EAC occurs in: a. Acute mastoiditis. b. Furunculosis of the external ear. c. Otitis media. d. Petrositis. 6. The causative agent in otomycosis is: a. Aspergillus nigers & / or Candida albicans. b. Streptococci. c. Staphylococci. d. E.coli e. B. pyocyaneus. 7. Ramsy-Hunt syndrome is: a. Herpes-zoster affection of the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. b. Dysphagia in middle aged female. c. Dysphagia in old male. d. Sensory-neural deafness in newly born. 8. Stapedectomy is one line for treatment of: a. Otosclerosis. b. Otomycosis. c. Otitic barotrauma. d. Secretory otitis media. All team "One vision … One Mission" 1 9. Bloody discharge from the ear occurs in: a. Fracture base of the skull. b. Glomus jugular tumor. c. Haemorrhgic otitis media. d. Rupture drum. e. All of the above. f. Non of the above. 10. The most common cause of deafness in children: a. Acute otitis media. b. Secretory otitis media. c. Chronic otitis media. d. Cholesteatoma. 11. In traumatic ossicular disruption, all is true EXCEPT: a. The audiogram shows 55 dB loss. b. Separation of the icudo-stapedial joint is the commonest lesion. c. There is bulging drum. d. C.T scan is indicated. 12. Crescentic hairline is an otoscopic finding in: a. Otomycosis. b. Otosclerosis. c. Secretory otitis media. d. Acute otitis media. 13. Reservoir is a characteristic sign in: a. Acute mastoid abscess. b. Acute otitis media. c. Chronic otitis media. d. Secretory otitis media. 14. Gradinigo syndrome occurs in: a. Acute mastoid abscess. b. Acute petrositis. c. Chronic otitis media. d. Secretory otitis media. 15. Griesinger's sign is: a. Edema & tenderness over the posterior border of the mastoid process. b. Unilateral pulsating otorrhoea. c. Vertigo & nystagmus on increasing the pressure of the EAC. d. Tenderness on the tip of mastoid bone. 16. Fever in lateral sinus thrombosis is: a. Intermittent. b. Remittent. c. Low grade. d. High grade. All team "One vision … One Mission" 2 17. Tobey-Ayer's test is a characteristic sign in: a. Brain abscess. b. Lateral sinus thrombosis. c. Extradural abscess. d. Meningitis. e. Cavernous sinus thrombosis. 18. Pain in acute tonsillitis is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 19. Pain in acute sinusitis is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 20. Pain in tempro-mandibular joint is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 21. Pain in cancer larynx is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 22. Pain in salivary calculi is referred to the ear through: a. The 5th nerve. b. The 9th nerve. c. The 10th nerve. d. 2nd & 3rd cervical nerve. 23. The fluids presents in secretory otitis media is: a. Mucopurulent. b. Serosanguinous. c. Exudates. d. Transudates. e. Mixture of exudates & transudates. 24. The discharge in case of cholesteatoma is: a. Copious purulent. b. Copious offensive. c. Scanty offensive. d. Thick scanty creamy. All team "One vision … One Mission" 3 In Rinne's test: a. In conductive deafness: bone conduction is better than air conduction. In lesion of facial nerve at vertical part"below the nerve of stapedius" there is: a. It helps in follow up of the case. Watery discharge from the ear occurs in all of the following EXCEPT: a. In perceptive deafness: air conduction is better than bone conduction. In conductive deafness: sound is heard better in the healthy ear.25. d. b. d. In conductive deafness: air conduction is better than bone conduction. e. b. Comparison of bone conduction of both ears at the same time. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea. b. No impairment of lacrimation. It helps in hearing aid selection. c. The following is true about pure tone audiometry EXCEPT: a. 32. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 4 . c. Endolymphatic sac surgery. No impairment of salivation. d. In lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen. b. c. 31. f.M. Loss of taste. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea. d. c. No impairment of taste. 28. It measures fixation and dislocation of the ossicular chain. Impairment of salivation. 30. It measures the pressure changes in the middle ear. Comparison between air & bone conduction of the same ear. Cerebro-spinal otorrhoea. In Weber's test: a. Schwabach's test is: a. c. c. Acute otitis media. All of the above. L. 26. In perceptive deafness: bone conduction is better than air conduction. 27. b. In perceptive deafness: sound is heard better in the diseased ear. there is: a.L of the facial muscles. c. b. d. Impairment of lacrimation. b. Comparison of duration of bone conduction of the patient & the examiner. 29. e. In perceptive deafness: sound is heard better in the healthy ear. It gives the amount of the hearing loss in dB. In conductive deafness: sound is heard better in the diseased ear. d.N. It gives the type of deafness. The following is true about impedance audiometry EXCEPT: a. Parotid fistula. It measures the patency of the Eustachian tube. Hyperacusis. It gives the possible cause of deafness. c. d. b. d. c. Loss of taste. Paralysis involves the voluntary. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower 1/2 of the face on the opposite side. Geniculate ganglion. Bacterial infection. e. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower & upper 1/2 of the face on the opposite side. Internal facial auditory meatus. Impairment of lacrimation. 34. All of the above. Hyporeflexia. Impairment of lacrimation. Hyperacusis. c. emotional & associative movement. b. e. c. 40. In lesion of the facial nerve at the geniculate ganglion. Stylomastoid foramen. Auto immune. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower 1/2 of the face on the opposite side. e. b. c. In LMNL of the facial nerve. there is: a. there is: a. d. Impairment of salivation. Vascular ischemia. there is: a. b. The early symptom of Bell's palsy is: a. In LMNL of the facial nerve. Hypotonia. Dropping of angle of the affected side. Hypotonia.33. Obliteration of the angle of the mouth. Cerebellopontine angle. 37. there is: a. Hyporeflexia. Paralysis of the muscles of the lower & upper 1/2 of the face on the same side. c. Pain of acute onset behind the ear. there is: a. 35. d. Bell's palsy is LMNL at the level of: a. Loss of taste. d. Hyperacusis. Inability to close the eye. All of the above. Paralysis involves the voluntary but spares the emotional & associative movement. 39. d. c. Paralysis involves the voluntary but spares the emotional & associative movement. d. In lesion of the facial nerve at horizontal part. Impairment of salivation. b. 38. c. b. c. The cause of Bell's palsy may be one of the following EXCEPT: a. b. d. In UMNL of the facial nerve. All team "One vision … One Mission" 5 . b. Reaction of degeneration. Virus infection. 36. Bezold abscess. Chloride diminished. Males are more affected than females. Otitis externa. Protein diminished. Reconstruct the tympanic membrane. 48. Sugar diminished. c. Cell count increased. d. All team "One vision … One Mission" 6 . Mastoiditis. d. 45. Meningitis. Reconstruct the ossicles. 44. Petrositis. Brain abscess. d. Boring. d. d. b. Reconstruct the tympanic membrane. c. The type of deafness is conductive. All are correct about Meniere's disease EXCEPT: a. c. Dull aching. d. Throbbing. b. b. Burning. c. 46. Labyrinthitis. d. b. Mastoiditis. c. f. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media in the suppurative stage is: a. CSF examination in case of meningitis shows: a. Labyrinthitis. b. b. Cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media includes: a. Decompression of the labyrinth is indicated if the vertiginous attack is crippling. 47. It is an endolymphatic hydrops. e. Intra cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media includes: a. b. 43. To preserve hearing. b & c. Facial nerve paralysis.41. To give safe ear. c & d. Mastoiditis. 42. Reconstruct the ossicles. c. b. The aim of modified radical mastoidectomy is: a. All of the above. The aim of radical mastoidectomy is: a. Lateral sinus thrombosis. c. Extra cranial complications of chronic suppurative otitis media includes: a. To give safe ear & to preserve hearing. a. c. b. e. In malignant otitis externa all the following is true EXCEPT: a. d. Traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane. Morning. The test of hearing in infants is: a. The tympanic part of the facial nerve. b. 55. d. Mainly treated surgically. 53. Dull aching. McEwen's triangle is the surface landmark of: a. All the day. c. 52. Perforation of the drum. Mastoid antrum. Mid-day. The commonest organism is pseudomonas. Longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT: a. d. Burning. 50. Dome of the lateral semicircular canal. Boring. b. 22 times. Icudo-stapedial joint. b. Bulging of the drum. There may be facial paralysis. 54. Throbbing. d. b. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media is more severe at: a. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media disappear after: a. d. Profound hearing loss. b. Rinne test. ABR "Auditory Brain stem Response". d. Weber test. 200 times. c. Night. c. c. Congestion of the drum. c. The middle ear magnifies the sound: a. b. Conductive hearing loss. 20 times. d. Pure tone audiometry. c. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media in the catarrhal stage is: a. LMNL facial palsy. 56. It is common in old diabetic. 21 times. b.49. All team "One vision … One Mission" 7 . c. 51. c. b. d. 61. Aural fullness. All of the above. Hemorrhage in the facial nerve nucleus. 60. All team "One vision … One Mission" 8 . Ophthalmoplegia. Benign middle ear tumor. d. 64. c. Nerve excitability test. Cut in the tympanic segment in the facial nerve. c. b. Electromyography. Local ear drops are highly indicated. The earliest manifestation of cavernous sinus thrombosis is: a. It may be caused by longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone. It heals spontaneously within 3 months. c. Test of hearing in malingering. Edema of the facial nerve inside its bony canal. The main treatment is conservative. The following are the manifestations of temporal lobe abscess EXCEPT: a. Aphasia. d. c. Early acute suppurative otitis media is manifested by: a. 62. Skin in a wrong place. Test of hearing in retrochoclear lesion. Non of the above. all are true EXCEPT: a. b. Proptosis. Electroneurography. Specific middle ear granuloma. ABR "Auditory Brain stem Response" is used in: a. Vertigo. In traumatic rupture of the drum. 63. d. Fever. All of the above. d. Convulsive fits. b. b. The pathology in case of Bell's palsy is: a. Cholesteatoma is: a. c. b. d. d. Deafness. 59. Retracted tympanic membrane. c. c. Ptosis.57. b. b. d. Detection of acoustic neuroma. Facial nerve tumor. b. The most accurate diagnostic test to detect degeneration of the facial nerve: a. Hemi paresis. 58. Stapedial reflex. c. c. 70. b. Bezold's abscess is a swelling: a. 68. Streptococci. d. d. Brain abscess. d. Petrositis. UMNL 7th cranial nerve palsy. Conductive deafness is the main presentation of: a. Meningitis. UMNL 5th cranial nerve palsy. In front of the ear. d. The most common vertigo is: a. LMNL 7th cranial nerve palsy. 66. Acoustic neuroma. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. c. d. LMNL 5th cranial nerve palsy. Acoustic neuroma.65. Below the ear in the neck. Non of the above. c. 71. b. Meniere's disease. Otosclerosis. Pneumococci. 72. Glomus tumor. Mastoiditis. Pseudomonas aeroginosa. A case of ear infection followed by headache. d. Extradural abscess. Labyrinthitis. b. b. b. c. Furunculosis of the external auditory canal. Behind the ear. b. Lateral sinus thrombosis. Unilateral hearing loss with pulsating tinnitus is suggestive of: a. Inability to raise the eye brow & close the same eye with deviation of the angle of the mouth to the opposite side is: a. Petrositis. c. Extradural abscess complicating CSOM. 67. Ear wax. Above the ear. b. Haematoma auris. c. The commonest organism in malignant otitis externa: a. Ototoxicity. b. d. c. Moraxella catarrhalis. blurring of vision & vomiting is suggestive of: a. c. d. 69. All team "One vision … One Mission" 9 . The intracranial complications of cholesteatoma are all of the following EXCEPT: a. 77. All of the above. b. b. d.73. b. 74. c. c. Ear wax. Otosclerosis. Lateral sinus thrombosis. The following are tests of hearing sensitivity EXCEPT: a. The medial wall of the middle ear shows the following EXCEPT: a. It opens during swallowing. b. It is wider & horizontal in children. c. The pyramid. It ventilates the middle ear. It opens in the oropharynx. b. d. Medical treatment. Vestibular nerve section. Acute otitis media with small perforation. The triad of ear discharge. d. Meniere's disease. b. 78. c. b. Otosclerosis. d. Labyrinthectomy. c. Auditory Brain stem Response. Pure tone audiometry. Labyrinthitis. In case of Meniere's disease with mild SNHL is treated by all the following EXCEPT: a. The oval window. d. b. Extradural abscess. Tympanometry. Mastoiditis. c. The lateral semicircular canal. Acute exacerbation of CSOM. 75. Meniere's disease. All of the above. Tuning fork tests. d. 80. c. The promontory. c. retro-orbital pain % 6th nerve paralysis is due to: a. Apical petrositis. Acoustic neuroma. 76. Pulsating ear discharge may be found in: a. d. All are true about the Eustachian tube EXCEPT: a. Fluctuant SNHL usually occurs in: a. Mixed hearing loss may be caused by one of the following: a. All team "One vision … One Mission" 10 . 79. Endolymphatic sac decompression. d. Presbyacusis. d. Labyrinthitis. d. b. vomiting & neck rigidity in a patient with cholesteatoma is an indication of: a. Facial palsy. Lateral sinus thrombosis. Insertion of Grommet tube is indicated in: a. 85. 82. All of the above. Continuous ear discharge. Fever. b. b. c. Fundus examination. b. 83. Fever & rigor developing in a case of cholesteatoma is suggestive of: a. Persistent headache. Vertigo is a case of cholesteatoma is a suggestive of: a. Acute suppurative otitis media. 88. Obliteration of retro-auricular sulcus. c. headache. Nystagmus & vertigo induced by pressure on the tragus is a sign of: a. Labyrinthine fistula. SNHL. c. b. Temporal lobe abscess. d. c. 84. d. Benign paroxysmal vertigo. Vestibular neuritis. Equilibrium during angular "rotational" movement is the function of: a. Cholesteatoma only. Secretory otitis media resistant to medical treatment. d. CT scan. Acute petrositis. The saccule. Tenderness over mastoid antrum. d. The semicircular canal. Sagging of postero-superior meatal wall. Acute mastoiditis.81. c. Lateral sinus thrombosis. c. b. Chronic otitis media. Cerebellar abscess. The earliest symptom in a case with cholesteatoma that indicates intracranial complication is: a. 86. b. 87. The utricle. Fistula complicating cholesteatoma. c. c. The cochlea. All team "One vision … One Mission" 11 . Squint. b. d. Lumbar puncture. Acute mastoiditis is manifested by all of the following EXCEPT: a. b. Cholesteatoma bridging an inner ear fistula. c. Non of them. Traumatic. d. Jugular foramen syndrome. d. b. d. b. Malingering. Herpetic. 92. The parotid gland. All of the above. c. Occulomotor paralysis. Tympanosclerosis. c. c. The tympanic segment. Trigeminal paralysis. c. Ramsy-Hunt syndrome. Both of them. 93. d. b. 95. b. d. Nasopharyngeal neoplasm. Hyper mobile footplate of the stapes. 94. All of the above. Otitis media with effusion. Horner's syndrome. 96. The most common cause of otitis media with effusion is: a. Following ear surgery. Allergy. Otosclerosis. Cholesteatoma. b. 90. d. Neoplastic. b. Otitis media with effusion. Labyrinthine fistula with dead ear. c. Slowly progressive conductive deafness in middle aged female with normal drum & Eustachian tube function is most probably due to: a. 91. b. A false +ve fistula test is due to: a. Facial paralysis. Bell's palsy. LMNL facial palsy with intact taste sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue indicates injury at the level of: a. The concept that the facial nerve supplies the auricle is related to: a. c. c. Bell's palsy. d. The internal auditory canal. The stylomastoid foramen. Anesthesia of the face may be caused by: a. Inadequate treatment of acute otitis media.89. All team "One vision … One Mission" 12 . d. Otitic barotraumas. Adhesive otitis media is a complication of: a. Facial palsy is most commonly: a. b. The nasolacrimal duct. b. Roof of the sinus. e. d. Electroneurography. Loss of stapedial reflex. d. Floor of the sinus. All team "One vision … One Mission" 13 . Complete LMNL facial paralysis due to acoustic neuroma may be associated by all the following EXCEPT: a. b. b. Loss of lacrimation of the ipsilateral eye. b. Gramycin. 100. All of the above. It runs in families due to genetic inheritance. The ostia of the posterior ethmoidal sinuses. A patient with uncomplicated CSOM has: a. c. d. Hyperacusis. The middle meatus contains: a. b. It is endemic in Egypt. b. 98. anterior ethmoidal & frontal sinuses. Schirmer test. Ear discharge & headache. The inferior meatus receives the opening of: a. 99. b. Medial wall of the sinus. 2. Stapedial reflex.97. d. The anterior ethmoidal sinus. All are true about rhinoscleroma EXCEPT: a. c. Ear discharge & fever. 3. c. Kanamycin. The posterior ethmoidal sinus. Gustatory test. 4. d. Ear discharge & hearing impairment. The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens in: a. Ear discharge & dizziness. The ostia of the maxillary. c. Nasolacrimal duct. c. Loss of taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. It is sub-epithelial inflammatory granuloma. Topognostic test is used in the assessment of facial paralysis include all the following EXCEPT: a. The maxillary sinus. d. The following drugs are ototoxic: Neomycin. Saliclates. a. c. The Nose 1. c. Between the medial wall & floor of the orbit. It is a disease of low immunity & low resistance. c. d. Sarcoidosis. 10. c. Sarcoidosis. c.B. 12. Rhinosporodosis. Aspergillosis. b. 9. Sarcoidosis. c. Sarcoidosis is: a. b. Low virulent T. All team "One vision … One Mission" 14 . Fungal infection of nasal mucosa. 7. Tuberculosis. Syphilis. Tuberculosis. d. Gram –ve short capsulated diplobacillus. c. Rhinoscleroma. Russell bodies is a characteristic histological finding in: a. b. Aspergillosis. Rhinosporodosis. Tuberculosis. Syphilis. d. d. Sarcoidosis. Rhinoscleroma. Rhinoscleroma. Keim test is positive in: a. Low virulent T. 8. Treponema Ballidum. 11. d. c. Treponema Ballidum.B bacillus. Perforation of bony part of the nasal septum occurs in: a. Sporozoon. b. c. d. Mikulicz cell is a characteristic histological finding in: a. Gram –ve short capsulated diplobacillus. Sporozoon. b. Sarcoidosis. The causative agent of rhinoscleroma is: a. d. c.B bacillus. Spontaneous recovery is usual in: a. Syphilis. c. Chronic sub-epithelial inflammatory granuloma of upper respiratory tract. Infection with sporozoon. b. 6. b. d. Non caseating granuloma with histological picture similar to T. Rhinosporodosis. b. The causative agent of lupus vulgaris is: a. d. Rhinoscleroma.5. b. Unilateral nasal obstruction.B infection of nasal mucosa. b. c. Soft & mobile. 16. The ideal intranasal decongestant: a. Unilateral nasal discharge. Allergic. Fungal infection of nasal skin. c. Grayish in color. Nasal furunculosis is due to: a. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. 14. Must be isotonic & faintly alkaline. H. 20. All of the above. Reddish in color. b. Allergic rhinitis. d. Must not damage the cilia. c. Chronic rhinitis. F. c. d. c.13. Bilateral nasal epistaxis. c. Acute rhinitis. b. b. Lupus vulgaris. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. Apple-jelly nodules of the nasal mucosa is a clinical finding in: a. Bilateral nasal obstruction. Must not be followed by rebound congestion. d. c. 15.B of nose is represented by: a. d. All team "One vision … One Mission" 15 . The allergic nasal polyp is: a. If a patient represented with edema & swelling after nasal trauma: a. Repair should be delayed for 3-10 days.influenza infection of the nose. b. d. c. The mechanism of nasal allergy is: a. b. Eosinophils in great numbers in nasal secretion is a finding in: a. Tuberculosis. d. Atrophic rhinitis. 19. Rigid & non mobile. Repair should be done immediately. Infective. b. Saroidosis. T. Secondary to malignancy in the nose. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. 17. 18. 21. The most common type of nasal polypi is: a. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. d. Staphylococcal infection of a pilosebaceous gland. b. Rhinoscleroma. The most common site of origin of allergic nasal polpi is: a. 27. c. d. b. Allergic rhinitis. Bulla ethmoidalis. c. b. Concha bullosa. b. Lamina papyracea. 25. Rhinoscleroma. Ethmoidal sinus. d. Allergic rhinitis. Accelerated flow rate with straining. Surgery to canalize the stenosed canal. Sediment formation after standing in a test tube. CSF rhinorrea is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. b. Antibiotics to avoid infection.22. b. Chronic rhinitis. Containing glucose. CSF rhinorrhea. Sneezing is a prominent feature in: a. c. Cytotoxic drugs. Nasal drops. Inverted papilloma. c. All team "One vision … One Mission" 16 . b. d. 23. b. Haitaus semilunaris. All the following lines of treatment could be applied in rhinoscleroma EXCEPT: a. c. d. d. Sphenoid sinus. Frontal sinus. Chronic rhinitis. b. Allergic nasal polyp. Maxillary sinus. c. Treatment of the cause. Atrophic rhinitis. c. Cleaning & sterilization of the skin of the nasal vestibule. 26. All are true about the treatment of CSF rhinorrhea EXCEPT: a. c. Anterior ethmoid presents bulge in the middle meatus called: a. d. 29. d. Watery nasal discharge is a finding in: a. Atrophic rhinitis. Laser surgery. Antrochoanal polyp. Rifampicin. 28. Acute rhinitis. Clear color. 24. Unilateral polypoidal mass arising from the lateral wall of the nose in 55 years old man is most probably: a. d. In diabetes. Perforation of the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum may be due to: a. All of the above. Nasal regurgitation occurs in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Syphilis. Attack of severe epistaxis. Which of the following is used to confirm nasal allergy: a. b. d. 36. Opacity of the affected sinus. All team "One vision … One Mission" 17 . T. All of the above. Bone destruction. All of the above. Unilateral chronic maxillary sinusitis is usually of: a. b. 32. Cleft palate. 33. At puberty. Syphilis. c. d. b. d. Post nasal discharge may occurs: a.B. 35. b. Lupus. T. Dental origin. Rhinorrhea.30. 31. c. Fluid level. 37. b. d. c. d. b. Perforation of the bony part of the nasal septum may be due to: a. b. c. Mucosal thickening. c. d. Esinophilia in blood.B. 34. c. Elevated serum IGE. All of the above. c. Leprosy. Palatal paralysis. Radiological finding of sinusitis include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Advanced maxillary sinus carcinoma. The main presenting symptom of ethmoidal nasal polyp are all of the following EXCEPT: a. d. Esinophilia in nasal secretion. c. Persistant nasal obstruction. Ethmoid carcinoma. d. Leprosy. Lupus. At pregnancy. b. Orbital origin. Nasal origin. Obstruction of a duct of a mucus gland. d. All of them. c. Anterior ethmoidal artery. 39. The maxillary artery. Mac ewing triangle. c. Anemia. c. 44. All of them. b. Non of the above. The sphenopalatine artery. The frontal mucocele may be caused by: a. c. 46. b. b. Pyriform fossa. Arterial hypertension. Histopathology shows Mikulicz cells. 41. Responses to rifampicin. Allergic nasal polyp. The internal jugular vein. 42. c. b. All of the above. Choanal atresia. b. Chronic frontal sinusitis. c. Little's area is the site of anastomosis of the following arteries EXCEPT: a. Acute & chronic sinusitis. b. The anterior ethmoidal artery. Resistant epistaxis from below the middle turbinate requires ligation of: a. 43. Renal failure. Greater palatine artery. Little's area. All team "One vision … One Mission" 18 . FB in the nose. 40. Antrochoanal polyp.38. Sphenoethmoidal recess. 45. Unilateral sinusitis. d. d. c. d. Sphenopalatine artery. b. Non of them. Unilateral nasal obstruction in newly born infant may be due to: a. Unilateral mucopurulent & purulent nasal discharge may be due to: a. The following are some general causes of epistaxis EXCEPT: a. Ascending pharyngeal artery. Rhinoscleroma characterized by the following EXCEPT: a. Non of them. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. The most common site of nasal bleeding is: a. b. d. Adenoid abscess. c. c. d. Hard-like nodules. d. d. b. Post nasal discharge may occurs in: a. Ulceration of the surrounding tissue. Congenital. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. c. 52. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Ethmoidal sinusitis. 53. Ampicllin. Allergic. b. Malignant. d. The commonest cause of CSF rhinorrhea is: a. b. Nasopharyngeal sarcoma. The commonest complication of sinusitis is: a. The following lesions may leads to proptosis EXCEPT: a. 5th cranial nerve. 54. c. Meningitis. Salicylates. 3rd cranial nerve. Orbital. Cervical sympathetic chain. Maxillary sinusitis. Traumatic. Anticoagulants. Subperiosteal abscess. The following drugs can cause epistaxis EXCEPT: a. b. Extradural abscess. d. 50. 48. 51. The following are cranial complications of sinusitis EXCEPT: a. d. Fistula formation.47. c. c. d. The commonest cause of nasal polypi is: a. b. Osteomylitis of the maxillary & frontal bone. b. c. Extradural abscess. d. Infective. b. Brain abscess. d. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma cause Horner's syndrome as a result of infiltration of: a. b. d. Adenoid hypertrophy. All team "One vision … One Mission" 19 . Non of the above. d. Infective. Secondary to malignancy. Neoplastic. c. c. c. 49. 7th cranial nerve. Quinine. Frontal sinusitis. b. Periodic headache is a characteristic symptoms in: a. b. c. Hypertension. The main manifestation of antrochoanal polyp is: a. 59. Bilateral choanal atresia. b. Vacuum headache. d. d. b. Allergic nasal polypi. Septal perforation. Antrochoanal polyp. Headache. 62. b. The commonest cause of epistaxis in 50 years old man is: a. 56. All the day. Non symptomatic deviated nasal septum needs: a. c. 60. d. d. No treatment. All of the above. d. Neoplastic. Toxic headache. At night. Angiofibroma. d. c. Adenoids. d.55. Cauterization. Nasal allergy. 61. b. Cyclic asphyxia is the presenting symptom is: a. Septoplasty. Non of them. b. c. Septal haematoma. Tension headache. All of the above. Non of them. Allergic. Periodic. c. Sneezing. Unilateral nasal obstruction. 58. Septal abscess. c. b. c. Proptosis. Headache in sinusitis is due to: a. c. The time of occurrence of headache in frontal sinusitis: a. d. Acute laryngitis. All team "One vision … One Mission" 20 . Infective. The following is complication of SMR of deviated nasal septum: a. 57. Alternating nasal obstruction is mainly: a. b. Sub-mucperichondrial resection. 65. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. The anterior part of the middle meatus. the discharge is in: a. The inferior meatus. 67. Low grade fever. Intermittent fever. The supra-orbital margin. The inferior meatus. Remittent fever. The anterior part of the middle meatus. In maxillary sinusitis. Choanal atresia. b. Non of them. All over the middle meatus. 68. The posterior part of the middle meatus. 64. All over the middle meatus. The inner canthus. Adenoids. No fever. d. The supra-orbital margin. In ethmoidal sinusitis. d. the discharge is in: a. b. d. Non of them. b. 70. c. c. b. d. d. The anterior part of the middle meatus. The inner canthus. The posterior part of the middle meatus. The point of tenderness in acute frontal sinusitis is: a. 66. The infra-orbital margin. Non of them. Chronic sinusitis has: a. d. b. c. d. 69. c. The point of tenderness in acute maxillary sinusitis is: a. The point of tenderness in acute ethmoidal sinusitis is: a. Non of them. The inferior meatus. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 21 . b. In frontal sinusitis. The supra-orbital margin. All over the middle meatus. the discharge is in: a. Unilateral nasal discharge and unilateral nasal obstruction in 13 years old boy is most probably diagnostic of: a. c.63. b. The infra-orbital margin. c. d. The inner canthus. c. c. The posterior part of the middle meatus. The infra-orbital margin. Cervical origin. c. Eye origin. The nasolacrimal duct opens in: a. Catarrhal inflammation. Non of them. 74. Sinus origin. b. c. All of them. c. 76. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. b. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. Catarrhal inflammation. Non of them. Allergic sinusitis. Non of them. d. Mucoid fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates: a. d. Mucopurulent fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates: a. All of the above. d. All team "One vision … One Mission" 22 . Headache may be due to: a. Headache may be due to: a. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Temporal arteritis. Dental origin. c. b. Watery fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates: a. d. d. c. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. b.71. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Allergic sinusitis. c. c. 72. b. b. d. 75. All of them. c. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Catarrhal inflammation. Headache may be due to: a. b. Suppurative inflammation with reversible pathology. Suppurative inflammation with irreversible mucosal damage. 73. Allergic sinusitis. b. d. Middle meatus. Non of the above. d. Purulent fluid in the maxillary sinus indicates: a. Catarrhal inflammation. 78. 77. Inferior meatus. Allergic sinusitis. Neurogenic origin. Superior meatus. b. Headache may be due to: a. d. c. c. c. The cause of secondary hemorrhage is: a. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle. Constipation. All team "One vision … One Mission" 23 . b. b. d. b. Premenstrual. Non of them. c. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature. Unilateral epistaxis. 2. The cause of primary hemorrhage is: a. c. FB in the nose may be characterized by: a. All of the above. Hypoglycemia. Unprepared patient. Unilateral obstruction. Unprepared patient. c. Unprepared patient. Hypotension. Wound sepsis. Fever in diphtheria is: a. Headache may be due to: a. All of the above. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle. The pharynx 1. c. The cause of reactionary hemorrhage is: a. 82. All of the above. Remittent fever. Allergic origin. Unilateral nasal discharge. d. d. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature. 81. Rising of blood pressure with slipping ligature. Non of the above. 3. b. d. Headache may be due to: a. d. Intermittent fever. Anemia. Psycogenic. c. All of the above.79. Injury of the pharyngeal muscle. b. Wound sepsis. Wound sepsis. 80. d. b. d. 4. Low grade fever. b. High grade fever. Non synchronous with the temperature. In a case of 5 years old boy with a membranous faucial lesion . d. Diphtheria. Streptococci. Paul-bunnell test is diagnostic for: a. The causative agent of vincent`s agent: a. b. All of the above. Candida albicans. Diphtheria. Thrush stomatitis. Herpes simplex. the most probable diagnosis is: a. b. b. Infectious mononucleosis. b. Barr-epestin virus. Full bounding pulse. d. Membranous tonsillitis may be due to : a. d. Acute follicular tonsillitis. b. 10. b. c. c. Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to: a. 6. 11. Boreli vencenti. d. Barr-epestin virus. the pulse in diphtheria is: a. Barr-epestin virus.5. temp 38° & pulse 180/min. Infectious mononucleosis. Infectious mononucleosis. 12. d. d. Diphtheria. c. b. b. c. 8. c. All of the above. d. Boreli vencenti. Streptococci. c. Streptococci. Candida albicans. All team "One vision … One Mission" 24 . Candida albicans. Acute follicular tonsillitis. d. Acute follicular tonsillitis. Weak rapid pulse. TB. Boreli vencenti. Herpes zoster. c. 9. The causative agent of thrush stomatitis is: a. Synchronous with the temperature. The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis: a. Agranulocytosis. c. 7. External drainage posterior to sternomastoid. TB of bodies of the cervical vertebrae. Internal drainage via longitudinal incision. b. 21. c. b. b. d. Non of the above. External drainage anterior to sternomastoid. b. b. b. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is treated by: a. Precancerous condition. Blood diseases. All of the above. Malignant condition. Night mares. Suppuration of the retropharyngeal gland. 17. Leucoplakia of the oral & pharyngeal mucosa is: a. c. d. Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to: a. Skin diseases (linchen planus). c. Adenoid face. External drainage anterior to sternomastoid. d. AIDS. 14. Toxic condition. d. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is caused by: a. Cephalosporin. Behcet's syndrome. Syphilis. b. 15. 19. c. Internal drainage via longitudinal incision. 20. Para Pharyngeal abscess. Acute tonsillitis may cause all of the following EXCEPT: a. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess is treated by: a. c. 18. Ampicillin. Otitis media with effusion. c. Pharyngeal ulcer may be due to: a. Non of the above. Inflammatory condition. The following antibiotic is contraindicated in infectious mononucleosis : a. c. Non of the above. Diphtheria bacilli.13. d. b. Quinsy. Non of the above. Acute retropharyngeal abscess. d. c. Erythromycin. 16. All of the above. d. c. All team "One vision … One Mission" 25 . External drainage posterior to sternomastoid. d. Adenoid hypertrophy may lead to all of the following EXCEPT: a. d. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess. Sensory neural deafness. Toxic (heavy metals). b. Sever epistaxis. Bleeding. Non capsulated. 26. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma spread to the surrounding tissue because it is: a. c.22. The most dangerous complication of ludwig`s angina is: a. 28. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma. 29. Upper respiratory tract obstruction. Conductive deafness. c. d. c. 25. Non muscle coated blood vessels. Pre-malignant. Cellulitis of the floor of the mouth. c. is a clinical manifestation of: a. d. Soft friable tissue. Cellulitis of the pyriform fossa. Mixed deafness. Non of the above. b. 27. b. the possible cause of death in case of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is: a. Ludwig's angina is: a. The cause of bleeding in cases of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is: a. Malignant. All of the above. Suppuration of the retropharyngeal gland. Sensory neural deafness. Ludwig's angina. d. Non of the above. c. c. Retropharyngeal abscess. Recurrent infection. TB of bodies of the cervical vertebrae. d. d. 24. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma may cause: a. d. Malignancy. Diphtheria bacilli. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 26 . c. c. Cellulitis in the parapharyngeal space. CHL. 23. Non capsulated. b. Acute laryngeal edema. Frog face appearance. d. Non of the above. b. Cellulitis in the retropharyngeal space. b. b. d. Highly vascular. b. Nasal obstruction. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is caused by: a. 32. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Tonsillectomy is indicated in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Posterior to tonsils. b. Diphtheria carrier. Non of the above. Benign tumor. Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT: a. During epidemic of polio. d. Chronic tonsillitis. After peritonsillar abscess. Uncontrolled diabetes. c. d. c. The swelling in acute retropharyngeal abcess is: a. b. After peritonsillar abscess.30. d. Postcricoid carcinoma. Superior to tonsils. c. b. Tonsillectomy is indicated in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Hypopharyngeal carcinoma. During epidemic of polio. 31. b. 33. Locally malignant tumor. d. Postcricoid carcinoma. Impacted FB. 36. c. c. 6th nerve paralysis occurs in the following cases EXCEPT: a. 38. All team "One vision … One Mission" 27 . Appears from outside the neck. Full stomach. In the middle line. Petrositis. 35. b. c. d. Symptoms of septic focus. b. Inferior to the tonsils. d. d. c. Chordoma is: a. b. Cavernous sinus thrombosis. c. Trotter's syndrome occurs in: a. Oropharyngeal carcinoma. Diphtheria carrier. 37. c. During acute attack. 34. Lateral to the middle line. During menses. Lateral to tonsils. The most common site of quinsy is: a. b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Non of the above. Blood diseases. d. Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Malignant hypertension. Tumors of tonsils. Malignant tumor. d. b. c. Non of the above. c. Hemorrhage 7 days following tonsillectomy operation is: a. 5th nerve. Hemorrhage within the 24 hours following tonsillectomy: a. 42. d. Primary. Reactionary. d. Non of the above. Backward of the tongue. Injury of the pharyngeal muscles & mucosa. Primary. Inhalation of vomitus or blood clots. All team "One vision … One Mission" 28 . c. Primary. d. c. b. Injury of the pharyngeal muscles & mucosa. b. c. b. 40. 41. c.39. Secondary infection. d. 46. To detect bleeding. All of the above. Non of the above. 43. b. The cause of reactionary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy: a. Hemorrhage during the operation of tonsillectomy is: a. 44. Rising blood pr with slipping of ligature. Reactionary. To prevent inhalation of the vomitus or blood. To prevent backward falling of tongue. b. 12th nerve. Secondary infection. 9th nerve. Non of the above. All of the above. Extubation spasm. 10th nerve. d. Reactionary. c. 45. c. Rising blood pr with slipping of ligature. b. Secondary. b. b. d. d. Pain in the ear in cases of acute tonsillitis or following tonsellictomy is referred via: a. The value of post-tonsillectomy position is: a. d. The cause of secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy : a. The cause of suffocation & laryngeal spasm after tonsillectomy: a. Secondary. Non of the above. Secondary. Bezold's abscess. Liver disease. Very sever local symptoms & mild systemic symptoms. Usually occurs with TB of the cervical vertebra. Acute laryngeal abscess is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: a. One attack of quinsy 2 months ago. c. d. d. 52. Contraindication of tonsillectomy includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. b. Behcet's disease is characterized by a all of the following EXCEPT: a. Genital ulcer. Ludwig's tumor. b. corneal opacity. Hemophilia. d. Non of them. c. Cytotoxic drugs. Lupus erthromatosis. Occur most commonly in infants. d. Vincent angina is characterized by : a. 54. d. 48. Pemphigus. c. b. Stomatitis. Stomatitis associated with skin lesions: a. 53. The following metabolic disorder associated with stomatitis: a. Vincent angina. Conjunctivitis. b. All of the above. d. Tendency to recur. b. d. Very mild local & systemic symptoms. Very sever local & systemic symptoms. e. irridocyclitis. herps like lesion. All of the above. b. Acute attack. Treatment of Behcet's disease consist of: a. c. Involves the prevertebral space. Uremia. 51. c. SNHL. Antihistaminic. Is seen in lateral X-ray of neck. Infection reaching the submental & submandibular space is called: a. c. d.47. Very sever systemic symptoms & mild local symptoms. 50. Corticosteroids locally & systemic. Submandibular sialadenitis. c. b. All team "One vision … One Mission" 29 . 49. DM. Active rheumatic arthritis. Linchen planus. c. b. b. Pharyngeal pouch. Thyroid isthmus nodule. Cystic hygroma. b. 60. d. 57. Quinsy. b. Submental LN. Suprahyoid thyroglossal cyst. Tonsillar diphtheria. Cystic hygroma. Ranula. Fever may become hectic. Chronic tonsillitis. d. Acute tonsillitis. The following are lateral swelling in neck EXCEPT: a. Tonsillar diphtheria. c. Quinsy. d. 58. 62. Chronic tonsillitis. The following are midline swelling EXCEPT: a. b. Pain become throbbing. d. c. c. All team "One vision … One Mission" 30 . b. Tonsillar diphtheria. The following signs of pus collection in quinsy: a. Dermoid cyst. b. Chronic tonsillitis. c. c.55. Lymph gland enlargement. b. Acute tonsillitis. Low grad fever is known to occur in: a. The following are submental swelling EXCEPT: a. d. Dermoid cyst. Feeble very rapid pulse is known to occur in: a. Tumor of the sublingual salivary gland. The following are swelling of the floor of the mouth EXCEPT: a. Plunging ranula. Dermoid cyst. Branchial cleft cyst. d. c. Quinsy. All of them. c. 61. d. Acute tonsillitis. Carotid body tumor. BULL NECK is known to occur in : a. 59. d. c. 56. Thyroglossal duct cyst. b. Softening & fluctuation can be detected. Pre-malignant. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is: a. d. d. 3. Cancer oesophagus. The dysphagia in plummer-vinson syndrome start to: a. Cancer oesophagus. d. X-ray barium swallow showing rat-tail appearance is a finding in: a. Non of the above. Fluids then to solids. d. d. c. The dysphagia in cardiac achalasia starts to: a. b. Fluid & solids at the same time. Cancer oesophagus. Cancer oesophagus. Microcytic hypochromic. b. 6. Cardiac achalasia. b. Cardiac achalasia.The Oesophagus 1. d. Macrocytic. b. Corrosive oesophagitis. Pharyngeal pouch. X-ray barium swallow showing parrot-peak appearance is a finding in: a. Pharyngeal pouch. Postcricoid carcinoma. d. All team "One vision … One Mission" 31 . Fluids then to solids. Cancer larynx. d. c. 4. Both. Locally malignant. Non of them. 2. c. Non of the above. c. Cardiac achalasia. Plummer Vinson syndrome. Fluid & solids at the same time. Solids then to fluids. X-ray barium swallow showing tea-pot appearance is a finding in: a. 7. c. Malignant condition. 8. Plummer-Vinson syndrome predispose to: a. All of the above. b. The anemia in Plummer Vinson syndrome is: a. b. 5. Pharyngeal pouch. c. All of the above. c. Plummer Vinson syndrome. c. b. Solids then to fluids. b. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation. c. Both of them. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence. c. b. c. d. Cardiac achalasia is: a. Regressive. b. Pharyngeal pouch. Plummer Vinson syndrome. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation. 12. Failure of relaxation of crico-pharyngeal sphincter during swallowing leads to: a. Chronic superficial oesophagitis with web formation. 13. X-ray with barium swallow showing multiple stricture in the oesophagus ia a diagnostic finding in: a. d. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence. c. All team "One vision … One Mission" 32 . d. Cancer oesophagus. b. Stridor due to laryngeal oedema. Chronic corrosive oesophagitis. Cardiac achalasia. 16. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter. Dehydration due to electrolytes imbalance. d. The cause of death in corrosive oesphagitis may be: a. b. Intermittent. 15. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT subclavian artery or double aorta. 11. b. c. Dysphagia in cancer oesophagus is : a. Non of them. d. Dysphagia in cardiac achalasia is: a. Progressive. 10. d. Stationary. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT subclavian artery or double aorta. b. c. Dysphagia lusoria is: a. Non of them. Stationary. Compression of the oesophagus by abnormally located RT subclavian artery or double aorta. c. Intermittent. PATRESON-BROWN-KELLY syndrome is: a. b. c. Cardiac achalasia. d. Plummer Vinson syndrome. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter. Regressive. d. Failure of relaxation of cardic sphincter. 14. Herniation of the pharyngeal mucosa via kllian dehiscence. b. Progressive.9. The commonest type is squamous cell carcinoma. c. The left bronchus. d. Cortisone in the acute stage is contraindicated. Dysphagia may be due to: a. c. c. Enlarged left atrium. Adult males. b. Cardiac achalasia. c. b. Vomiting is not encouraged. Normal feeding is encouraged. The trachea. Which is true about laryngeal carcinoma: a. d. The right bronchus. All of the above. All are correct about corrosive oesophaditis EXCEPT: a. c. Old males. The Larynx. All of the above. Enlarged malignant gland. The larynx. All of the above. 2. d. c. b. b. b. Enlarged thyroid. d. Shock may occur due to electrolytes imbalance. Rise of the blood O2 level. 20. Wash of the blood carbon dioxide level. Infants. Is predisposed by smoking. Inhaled smooth small FB is commonly arrested in: a. 3. Aneurysm of the ICA. Old females. b. Non of the above. c.17. Spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus. 21. Violent vomiting or large meal may cause: a. d. 18. Apnea immediately after opening the trachea is due to: a. Rise of the blood carbon dioxide level. Mediastinal tumor. c. d. Plummer Vinson syndrome. d. Aneurysm of the aorta. b. Trachea & Bronchi 1. All team "One vision … One Mission" 33 . Pharyngeal pouch. d. Pharyngeal pouch occurs mostly in: a. b. Commoner in males. Dysphagia may be due to: a. 19. Leucoplakia of the larynx is: a. Staphylococci. All team "One vision … One Mission" 34 . The left recurrent laryngeal nerve swing in the chest around: a. b. Singer's nodules: a. d. Non of the above. Allergic nodules. d. d. c. d. Endoscopy & biopsy. Vasomotor rhinitis. 11. b. 6. Localized epithelial hyperkeratosis on the free edge of the vocal cord. The causative agent of acute laryngo-tracheal bronchitis is: a. Pneumococci. d. 10. MRI. b. Premalignant nodules. c. b. b. Epithelial hyperplasia. The commonest cause of breathing difficulty after tracheostomy is: a. At the arytenoids. 8. b. All of the above. hoarseness of voice & stridor. At the junction of the anterior 1/3 with posterior 2/3 of the vocal cords. 7. Laryngeal lesions are investigated by: a. Aortic arch.4. 30 years old female suffring form bilateral nasal obstruction. c. Acute rhinosinusitis. d. The site of singer`s nodules is: a. Pneumonia. c. Non of the above. d. At the epiglottis. Epithelial degeneration. Thoracic duct. c. Epithelial hypertrophy. d. Obstruction of the tube by secretion. The most probable cause is: a. Left main bronchus. c. 5. c. Pneumothorax. Chronic infectious granuloma. CT. b. c. 9. Non of the above. crusty nose. Streptococcus haemolyticus. Left ventricle. b. Allergic rhinitis. Surgical emphysema. Rhino laryngo scleroma. 20. Syphilis of larynx. Multiple laryngeal papilloma occurs in: a. c. c. Single laryngeal papilloma is: a. The posterior part. b. Acute epiglottitis. 19. The following conditions cause stridor EXCEPT: a. The subglottic part. b. TB of the larynx. c. 18. 17. All team "One vision … One Mission" 35 . 13. c. The middle part. Syphilis of the larynx affects: a. c. Children. The posterior part.12. Non of them. The anterior part. The subglottic part. The subglottic part. Precancerous. Adults. Painful cough & dysphagia occur in: a. b. The posterior part. b. The middle part. Bilateral adductor paralysis. c. c. Lupus of the larynx. The middle part. 15. Locally malignant lesion. Malignant lesion. d. Laryngoscleroma. b. d. Non of the above. Laryngeal diphtheria. d. d. b. d. Scleroma of the larynx affects: a. b. Acute laryngitis in adult. The anterior part. Adults. Acute laryngitis in children. Scleroma of the larynx. b. Both of them. c. b. d. 16. Non of them. d. Both of them. d. TB of the larynx affects: a. 14. Bilateral abductor paralysis. The following conditions cause stridor EXCEPT: a. Multiple laryngeal papilloma. The anterior part. Children. c. d. Single laryngeal papilloma occurs in: a. b. 23. The supraglottic area. Opiates. Both of them. Non of them. b. c. b. The narrowest part in the infantile larynx is: a. Non of them. Expectorants. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia. d. Both of them. d. d. 22. The subglottic area. 27. Surgical emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to: a. c. d. c. Both of them. Cyclic asphyxia is a manifestation of: a. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly. The following drug is contraindicated after tracheostomy: a. c. Congenital laryngeal web. Injury of the pleura. 25. d. c. Laryngomalacia. The pyriform fossa. 26. Congenital bilateral choanal atresia. Injury of the pleura. d. Laryngeal web. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly. When small tube is used and a wide opening made in the trachea. 28. Both of them. When the skin is closed tightly. b. 24. b. d. Congenital subglottic stenosis. All team "One vision … One Mission" 36 . b. Non of them. Non of them. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Acute laryngitis. c.21. b. Non of the above. d. Injury of the pleura. Pneumothorax after trachestomy occurs due to: a. A newborn with cyanosis and respiratory difficulty improved by insertion of an oral airway. b. Mediastinal emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to: a. Surgical emphysema after tracheostomy occurs due to: a. Non of them. Injury of the pleura. c. Analgesics. Non of the above. c. 36. d. Syphilis. Mediastinal emphysema. c. Complete obstruction of the bronchus. Injury of the pleura. c.29. Valvular obstructive emphysema occurs due to: a. Perichondritis. All of the above. d. The best position after trachestomy: a. Non of them. d. Laryngeal stenosis may be due to: a. Scleroma. Partial obstruction of the bronchus. 31. d. c. d. b. TB. b. c. c. b. c. All of the above. d. Pulled out by voilent cough. Scleroma. b. All of the above. b. Endotracheal intubation. All of the above. Traumatic. Ventricular bands. b. 32. Supine. b. High tracheostomy. Pneumothorax. All team "One vision … One Mission" 37 . Congenital. Semi-sitting. Laryngeal stenosis may be due to: a. Scleroma. Acute pulmonary edema. c. Syphilis. b. c. c. The tube may slip due to: a. 37. Ulceration of the vocal cord edge (mouth nibbled) occurs in: a. All of the above. Dyspnea. Loosely tied tape. b. d. d. crepitation and expectoration of large amount of frothy stained sputum after trachestomy is suspected of: a. When the pretrachial fascia is sutured tightly. Laryngeal stenosis may be due to: a. d. 33. 35. Sarcoidosis. Structures in the larynx responsible for sphincteric function: a. 34. 30. On one side. Aryoepiglottic folds. TB. Vocal cords. Standing. Small sized tube. 7) d. 15) c. 30) d. 54) b. 57) d.c. 49) a. 42) c. 48) d. 99) c. 80) d. 32) a. 12) c.b. 8) a. 52) d. 29) b. 75) d. 71) d. 74) b. 82) d.b. 19) b. 7) a. 68) c. 35) a. The Nose 1) d. 23) e. 2) c. 4) c. 22) c. 37) b. 6) b. 77) d. 18) a. 70) d. 31) d. 89) d. 80) b. 67) b. 36) a. 60) b. 45) b. 65) b. 50) c. 47) d.d. 61) d. 17) b. 20) a. 26) a.c. 24) b. 12) b. 43) b. 73) c. 67) a. 100) e. 5) a. 3) b. 39) c. 41) d. 73) d. 64) b. 49) a. 18) b. 53) b. 87) d.c. 48) b. 28) c. 27) a. 44) f. 70) b. 35) d.d. 9) e. 96) a. 42) e. 16) a. 88) a. 75) a. 94) c. 14) a. 55) b. 78) d. 60) d. 84) d. 62) c. 10) b. 68) a. 2) d. 69) c. 38) c. 23) b. 95) a. 72) c. 59) d. 74) a. 61) d. 79) b. 83) b. 90) b. 82) d. 17) d. 31) e. 64) b.c. 33) e. 46) d. 63) c. 78) c. 11) c. 45) c. 81) a. 47) a. 14) b. 33) b. 3) a. 15) b. 11) b. 62) c. 81) d. All team "One vision … One Mission" 38 . 76) d. 52) d.d. 72) c. 36) c. 4) c.The Answers The Ear 1) a.b. 53) b.d. 65) a. 92) c. 58) a. 41) b. 32) a. 57) b. 13) c. 16) b. 56) d. 25) a. 76) b. 77) d. 39) a. 27) b. 44) d. 59) b. 66) c. 50) a. 86) d.d. 56) a. 98) c. 40) d. 43) a. 69) c.c. 20) a. 34) e. 9) b. 51) d. 10) d. 91) b. 29) f. 97) d. 46) a. 26) a. 22) a. 30) a. 58) d. 63) d. 40) c. 6) a. 37) d. 71) c. 21) a. 85) c.e. 28) b. 24) c. 13) a. 79) d. 25) c. 66) d.d. 8) a. 34) a. 5) a. 51) b. 21) c. 55) a. 19) a. 93) c. 54) d. 38) d. 47) d. 15) b. 27) a. 51) c. 54) d. 11) a. 5) a. 53) a. 25) b. 26) a. 39) c. 23) a. 42) a. 3) b. 28) d. 17) c. 28) c. 11) c. 21) d. 62) a. 8) c. 33) a. 18) b. 30) a. 15) c. 12) a. 32) a. 36) a. 37) d. 24) b. 2) d. 13) d. 4) c. 23) b. 21) a. 25) a. 2) b. 3) c. 8) a. 33) a. 19) d. 15) a. 22) b. 6) b. 34) d. 7) a. 16) a. 24) a. 52) d. 9) a. 5) d. 9) b. 5) a. 22) b. 16) c. 44) b. The Larynx. 56) d. 7) d. 32) b. 59) d. 60) a. Trachea & Bronchi 1) c. 14) c. 61) a. 31) a. 13) d. 29) b. 7) d. 3) c. 19) b. 29) a. 11) c. 14) c. 40) b. 14) d. 20) d. 8) b. 2) d. 48) c. 18) d. تم بحمد اهلل All team "One vision … One Mission" 39 . 6) c. 20) c. 27) b. 20) c. 10) a. 35) c. 9) b. The Pharynx 1) a. 50) b. 10) d. 6) c. The Oesophagus 1) a. 4) b. 26) b. 46) d. 41) b. 10) d. 31) d. 13) d. 49) b. 12) d. 37) a. 16) a. 43) b. 34) c. 18) b. 19) a. 55) d. 58) d. 45) d. 12) c. 57) d. 4) a. 30) b. 17) a. 36) d. 17) a. 21) d. 38) d. 35) d.