Delhi University msc 2016.pdf

June 10, 2018 | Author: Ashutosh Singh | Category: Documents


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Delhi University, Geology MSc entrance. 2016 Test booklet series A. 1. Which of the following is NOT a mineral. A. Hedenbergite B. Fayalite C. Pseudotachylite D. Monazite 2. The mineral having highest hardness among following is a. Graphite b. K-feldspar c. Calcite d. Quarts 3. Which mineral does not form when muscovite and quarts react at high temperature? a. K feldspar b. Oligoclase c. Silimanite d. Andalusite 4. Kyanite-staurolite schist represents a. Mafic protolith b. Peletic protolith c. A calcic protolith d. An arenite protolith 5. Which represents a typical contact zone metamorphic reaction? a. Chlorite+ muscovite+ biotite+ quartz+ H2O b. Chl+ k feldspar=biotite+qrtz+H2O c. Chl+ musc=cordierite+biotite+H2O d. Kayanite=siliminite 6. Magma moves upward because of a. Lower density and higher volatile content than the adjacent solid rock b. Higher silica content than surrounding rocks c. Higher mafic mineral content than the surrounding rocks d. Higher viscosity than the surrounding rocks 7. __________ is common ore of uranium a. Azurite b. Celadonite c. Pitchblende d. Cubanite 8. The concentration of heavy minerals stream or wave action leading to an economic deposit is called a. Hydrothermal deposit b. Placer deposit c. Skarn deposit d. Stratiform deposit 9. Which of the following rocks float in water because of high porosity? a. Pumice b. obsidian c. andesite d. rhyolite

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10. olivine and quartz can not occur together because a. one is plutonic and the other is a volcanic mineral b. one is a metamorphic and the other is a magmatic mineral c. they are chemically incompatible d. one is a silicate while the other is carbonate 11. According to aAnderson theory of faulting, the principal tress axis Sigma1 (max. compressive stress) should be horizontal during: a. Strike slip faulting b. Normal faulting c. Reverse faulting d. Wrench faulting 12. In one limb of map-scale fold, the cleavage (axial planar) dips at a shallower angle than bedding. The fold is a. An upright fold b. A reclined fold c. An overturned fold d. A sheath fold 13. The dihedral angle between fault plane and any vertical plane passing through its strike line called: a. Hade b. Throw c. Heave d. Dip 14. If the pole of the planar structure plots a centre of a stereonet, the plane is a. Horizontal b. Vertical c. Inclined d. None 15. A ‘cigar’- shaped prolate strain ellipsoid is characteristics of: a. Flattening deformation b. Plane-strain deformation c. Constructional deformation d. None 16. A discontinuous cleavage formed by selective dissolution of material along parallel plane is called: a. Disjunctive cleavage b. Slaty cleavage c. Crenulation cleavage d. Transected cleavage 17. If, in a folded layered sequence, thinner layers show smaller fold and thinker layers show larger folds the fold structure will be called: a. Disharmonic fold b. Arrowhead fold c. Polyclinal fold d. Fan fold 18. Klippe and nappe are termed related to a. Angular uncomformity b. Overthrust sheet c. Diapiric intrusion d. Transform fault

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19. A rock body fractures under instantaneous high stress, but deforms slowly without fracturing at steady, lower stresses. This mechanical behaviour is known as: a. Frictional b. Plastic c. Elastico-viscous d. Nonlinear viscous 20. ‘scar fold’ are typical structures associated with a. Boudins b. Buckle fold c. Normal faults d. Wrench faults 21. An unconformity where the lower unit is essentially of plutonic origin, is known as: a. A disconformity b. A paraconformity c. An angular unconformity d. A nonconformity 22. To analyse the shear sense in mylonite one must look at a section oriented a. Perpendicular to stretching lineation b. Perpendicular to foliation and parallel to stretching lineation c. Perpendicular to stretching lineation and parallel to foliation d. Perpendicular to both foliation and stretching lineation 23. Stretch of linear object is by definition , the ratio of: a. Intial length to final length b. Final length to final length c. Square of the intial length d. Cha ge in length to the intial length 24. A fine powdery rock flour produced by abrasion and milling along a brittle fault surface is called: a. Gauge b. Cataclasite c. Breccia d. None 25. If the fault plane strikes parallel to the dip direction of a marker bed displace by the fault, the structure is called: a. Strike fault b. Strike- slip fault c. Dip fault d. Dip-slip fault

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26. 27. Coesite is a high temp. polymorph of a. Garnet b. Orthoclase c. Apatite d. Quartz 28. Bowl-shapped large, shallow mafic intrusion with inward gentle dipping layers is called a. Laccolith b. Phacolith c. Chonolith d. Lopolith 29. Suits of rocks exposed in a original belt where oceanic lithosphere is emplaced at continental margin is called as: a. Spilite b. Banakite c. Shoshonite d. Ophiolite 30. In binary system , two crystallization curves joining a point where simultaneous xtallization of two mineral component takes place is called as: a. Peritectic point b. Eutectic c. Cotectic d. None 31. Chief element found as alloy in the core of the earth are: a. Fe-mg b. Ni-fe c. Si-mg d. Mg-ni 32. Which of the following element are diadochic in the structure of dolomite a. Fe-mg b. Ca-na c. Fe-al d. Na-k 33. RF factor is associated with a. Chromatography b. AAS c. XRD spectroscopy d. XRF spectroscopy

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34. Fine the correct pair

35. Which of the following elements is associated with crude oil? a. Cd b. Pb c. As d. V 36. Hydraulic conductivity is a function of: a. Medium only b. Fluid only c. Both fluid and medium d. Either fluid or medium 37. Under non-equilibrium ground water flow condition, the water head: a. Changes with time b. Does not change with time c. Remains above confining layer d. None 38. In confining aquifer storativity is approximately equal to” a. Conductivity b. Intrinsic retention premiabilty c. Specific retention d. None 39. Intrinsic permeability is dependent on: a. Property of the fluid alone b. Property of medium alone c. Property of both fluid n medium d. None 40. Dimension of specific storage is a. LT-1 b. L2T-1 c. L3T-1 d. L-1 41. In an isotropic aquifer a. Aquifer parameter are same in all direction b. Aquifer parameter do not vary spatially c. Aquifer parameter vary in space and direction both d. None 42. Transmissivity is: a. Hydraulic conductivity x saturated aquifer thickness

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b. Storativity x aquifer thickness c. Extension of the aquifer d. Specific capacity Which of the following map give the direction of groundwater flow? a. Depth to water level map b. Water level fluctuation map c. Water table contour map d. None Porosity of a formation is summation of: a. Hydraulic conductivity and transmissivity b. Specific storage and specific retention c. Specific retention and specific yield d. None Resistivity surrounding in groundwater exploration estimates a. Variation of resistivity with depth b. Horizontal variation in resistivity c. Both a and b d. None Dimension of hydraulic conductivity is a. LT-1 b. L2T-1 c. L3T-1 d. L-1 Aquifer heterogeneity relates to a. Temporal variation in aquifer parameter b. Both spatial and temporal variation in aquifer parameter c. Directional variation in aquifer parameter d. Spatial variation in aquifer parameter Na adsorption ratio groundwater quality is used for studying a. Hydrochemical facies b. Metamorphic facies of rock samples c. Suitability of ground water for irrigation uses d. Portability Electrical conductivity of groundwater is a direct function of: a. Intrinsic permeability of the formation b. Storativity of the formation c. Total dissolved solids in the groundwater d. None The Ganga-brahamputra groundwater is direct function of a. The Vindhyans b. The deccan basalt c. The aravallis d. Bhabar and terai belts The ‘D’ layer within the earth corresponds to the depth range between a. 2740km-2890km b. 2010km-2035km c. 2890km-3050km d. 250km-375km

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52. What is correct statement regarding CCD? a. Above CCD calcite is dissolved and aragonite is stable phase b. Below CCD calcite is the only stable phase c. CCD is situated at much greater depth than aragonite compensation depth ACD d. The is depth of CCD is approx. 200m 53. Which of the following is not a chronostratigraphic unit? a. System b. Erathem c. Group d. Series 54. Seismic profile helps to a. Interpret stratigraphy which is not exposed b. Record subsurface rock c. Find focus d. Find fossil 55. Syringothyris is characteristics fossil of a. Silurian b. Ordovician c. Carboniferous d. Cambrian 56. Which of the following sediment types is expected in marine trenches? a. Globigerina ooze b. Pteropod ooze c. Melange d. Fossiliferous sandstone 57. Which of the following stratigraphic boundary marks max. extinction events? a. Cretaceous-tertiary boundary b. Precambrian- Cambrian boundary c. Jurassic- cretaceous d. Permian- Triassic 58. A matrix supported conglomerate is found with chaotic clast orientation. A few clasts are found bedding perpendicular orientation as well. The bed is a product of deposition by a. Debris flow b. Liquefied flow c. Turbidity current d. Water flow on a granular substrate 59. A clastic sedimentary rock consist of 70% of quartz, 7% feldspar, 15%of ferruginous binding material as matrix and 8% lithic fragments. What will be the name of rock? a. Qrtz arenite b. Quartz wacke c. Feldspathic arenite d. Lithic wacke 60. A correct structure can be used as feature for: a. Fixing top-bottom of bed b. Determining paleo-current direction c. For both stratigraphic top and paleo-current determination d. None

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61. First stage of horse evolution is known as a. Eohippus b. Hyrocotherium c. Mesohippus d. Epihippus 62. In response to the expansion of grassland, mammals evolved a. Brachydont dentition b. Bunodont c. Lophodont d. Hypsodont 63. A specimen used as diagnostic of a particular new species is know as: a. Holotype b. Paratype c. Lecotype d. Neotype 64. The concept of punctuated equilibrium was proposed by a. James hutton and Charles lyell b. Neils eldrege and Stephen gould c. Charles Darwin and Alfred Russell Wallace d. William smith and Nicholas steno 65. Evolution above species level is know as a. Microevolution b. Macroevolution c. Iterative evolution d. None 66. Origin of birds is sought among a. Sauropod dinosaurs b. Ornithischian c. Prosauropods d. Dromaesosaurid theropods 67. Glossopteris is a plant fossil known from the rock of a. Upper gondwana b. Middle c. lower d. rajmahal interappean beds 68. saurischian and ornithuschian dinosaurs are distinguished primarily by their a. pelvic str. b. Mode of locomotion c. Food habbit d. Brain size 69. Feeding burrows made by animal are a. Domichnia b. Fodinichia c. Cubichnia d. Pascichnia

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70. Corals prefer to grow in a. Polar ocean b. Cool subtropical ocean c. Stagnant water d. Tropical oceans 71. Graphic correlation is used in paleontology to test a. Synchronicity of FAD and LADs b. Morphological variations c. Paleobiogeography affinities d. None 72. Ginko is a a. Index fossil b. Living fossil c. Invertebrate fossil d. Vertebrate fossil 73. Body of strata corresponding to the overlapping stratigraphic range of two or more specific taxa is known as: a. Taxon range biozone b. Lineage biozone c. Assemblage biozone d. Concurrent range biozone 74. Angiosperms first appear in the fossil record of: a. Late cretaceous b. Middle cretaceous c. Early cretaceous d. Late Jurassic 75. Lagerstatten deposit contains a. Permineralized fossils b. Recrystallized fossil c. Cast and molds d. Exceptionally preserved fossils 76. Hydrocarbons reservoir of Bombay high is a. Well sorted sandstone b. Fossiliferous limestone c. Fractured granite basement d. Salt diaper 77. Taphonomy is the science dealing with a. Study of biogeography of fossil b. Reconstruction of paleo environment by means of fossil c. Mode of preservation of fossil d. Study of fossil spore and pollens 78. Nummulites were abundant rock-building foraminifera during a a. Silurian b. Devonian c. Carboniferous d. Eocene

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79. The shells of a brachiopod consist of a. Two equal but in equilateral valve b. Two unequal but equilateral valve c. Two equal and equilateral valves d. None 80. In trilobite the most primitive suture line is describes as a. Hypoparian b. Opisthoparian c. Proparian d. Gonatoparian 81. Which of the following represents an ore mineral of tin? a. Wolframite b. Rutile c. Cassiterite d. Molybdenit 82. Chromite deposits is associated with _________roocks. a. pegmatite b. felsic c. ultramafic d. leucocratic

SaRfraz Ahmed

SaRfraz Ahmed

SaRfraz Ahmed

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