CCDA.pdf

Vendor: CiscoExam Code: 200-310 Exam Name: CCDA - Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions (DESGN) Version: 17.041 QUESTION 1 Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step in a design implementation plan? (Choose three.) A. step description B. design document references C. easy guidelines in case of failure D. estimated implementation time E. simple implementation guidelines F. estimated rollback time in case of failure Answer: ABD QUESTION 2 A company is implementing an Identity Management solution with these characteristics: Which Cisco Trust and Identity Management solution would you recommend? A. NAC Appliance B. Cisco IBNS C. CSM D. Cisco Security MARS Answer: B QUESTION 3 You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface? A. RMON B. SNMPv3 C. NetFlow D. Cisco Discovery Protocol Answer: C QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. On which router should you configure redistribution? IPsec VPN B. SSL VPN . NetFlow B.A. FWSM C. Router 4 E. Router 1 B. ISE D. sFLOW Answer: ABC QUESTION 6 Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels? A. Router 3 D.) A. Router 2 C. AnyConnect VPN C. VRRP E. Router 5 Answer: B QUESTION 5 Which three Cisco technologies can you use to detect and mitigate threats? (Choose three. virtualization C.) A. increased security D. RFC 1918 B. GLBP D. repeatable scalability C. HSRP B. VRRP C. automation D. standardization E. EasyConnect VPN Answer: A QUESTION 7 Which RFC defines the IPv6 standard? A. RFC 2460 D. modulation Answer: ABC QUESTION 10 Which option is a benefit of the modular approach to network design? A. improved resiliency Answer: B QUESTION 11 . RFC 2740 Answer: C QUESTION 8 Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers? A. IGRP Answer: C QUESTION 9 Which three options are characteristics of data center evolution? (Choose three. optimization F. consolidation B. higher availability B. RFC 2338 C.D. virtual link Answer: D QUESTION 14 Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points? A. NSSA E. totally stubby C. Which would satisfy this requirement? A. RIPng C.You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network bandwidth. sniffer mode C. IPS B. monitor mode B. WCS Answer: AC QUESTION 13 Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes? A. ASA D. OSPF D. rogue detector mode D. RIPv2 B. backbone D. EGP Answer: C QUESTION 12 Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure enterprise edge security? (Choose two. which NX-OS technology can be used to facilitate this requirement? . stub B. ARP E. given that the two data centers are using Layer 3 routed DCIs. local mode Answer: C QUESTION 15 To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote data centers. ACS E. NAC C.) A. Cisco ASA C. OTV C. 150 ms D. ISDN D. MPLS D. access layer Answer: C QUESTION 18 Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch offices? A. 300 bytes B. vPC Answer: B QUESTION 16 What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications? A. DWDM C. 1 sec C. core layer C. Metro Ethernet Answer: D QUESTION 19 Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat detection and mitigation at the Enterprise edge? A. SPT E. data link layer B. Cisco IPS . Cisco Catalyst FWSM D.A. VRF B. Cisco IOS router B. DSL B. 500 ms Answer: C QUESTION 17 At which layer of the network is route summarization recommended? A. distribution layer D. ring B. cost Answer: C QUESTION 22 A hierarchical design of the EIGRP domain facilitates which two of the following? (Choose two. virtual links Answer: AB QUESTION 23 Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Service Provider Module? (Choose three. Frame Relay D.) A. which technology is recommended to provide the underlying transport? A. collapsed core F. route summarization B. ADSL E. star C. signal attenuation B. required distance D.Answer: D QUESTION 20 If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure IPSEC VPN connection. faster convergence C. partial mesh Answer: BCF . required bandwidth C.) A. Metro Ethernet C. full mesh D. ISDN B. unequal cost load balancing D. ATM Answer: D QUESTION 21 Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP? A. core/edge E. electromagnetic interference E. redistribution E. It divides the network into operational network modules.QUESTION 24 Which of the following is a component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module? A. controller redundancy F. LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings C. It divides the network into functional network modules. Internet Connectivity D. mobility groups Answer: AB QUESTION 26 Which three describe challenges that are faced when deploying an environment for teleworkers? (Choose three. verifying available power at employee's house for necessary equipment D. reducing daily commuting time to main office location F. C. Building Distribution E. automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters D.) A. B. Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming E. avoiding situations where employees might use nonstandard hardware or configurations E. It divides the network into role-based network modules. WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN Answer: D QUESTION 25 Which two features are supported by single wireless controller deployments? (Choose two. Answer: A . D. providing access to FTP servers located in main office location G. It divides the network into regional network modules. Teleworker B. supporting a mix of technically knowledgeable and nontechnical users B. implementing leased line connectivity between main office and employee's home location Answer: ABD QUESTION 27 Which statement describes the methodology that supports the Cisco Enterprise Architecture models? A. E-Commerce C. automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs B.) A. simplifying router installation and configuration C. latency Answer: A QUESTION 32 . ARIN C. RIPE B. bandwidth D. security B. All areas need to connect back to area 0. Which two things should you consider before deployment? (Choose two. D. enterprise branch C. APNIC Answer: B QUESTION 30 An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules. NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0. IANA D. B. MAN Answer: CD QUESTION 31 WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. server farm/data center E. IEEE E.) A. static versus dynamic routing C. Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links. C. DMZ B.QUESTION 28 OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. building distribution D. Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet? A. as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. E. The OSPF process number on each router should match. Answer: AE QUESTION 29 Which is the North American RIR for IPv4 addresses? A.) A. ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment. QoS E. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two. MGCP B. CDP E. virtual link Answer: D QUESTION 33 Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic? A. RTP C. C. Use organizational input. Cisco Discovery Protocol C. Answer: ABE QUESTION 36 Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two. E. F. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application. B. SCCP D.) A. Perform a traffic analysis. D. BGP B. QoS D. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network. totally stubby C. stub B. RMON E. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees. ICMP Answer: B QUESTION 34 Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing data for billing network usage? A. NSSA E.) . NetFlow Answer: E QUESTION 35 What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three. backbone D.Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes? A. Which numbered box represents the core layer? . reduces dial infrastructure expenditures D. reduces the routing table size by using automatic route summarization C. allows the subnet mask and classful routing updates to be advertised E. secures the hosts on a subnet by using RFC 1918 addresses Answer: C QUESTION 38 Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two. RIPv2 C. A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN Answer: DE QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. BGP D. reduces the number of physical connections E. EIGRP Answer: DE QUESTION 37 What is the benefit of VLSM? A.) A. RIPv1 B. extends the network to remote users B. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly C. OSPF E. reduces configuration complexity by using the same subnet mask length B. reduces the routing table size by using manual route summarization D.A. #3 D. security between departments C. #2 C. #4 E. the use of multivendor equipment F.) A. #1 B. the segmenting of broadcast domains E. video streaming on the LAN B. staff input B.) A. #5 Answer: C QUESTION 40 Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.A. a limited corporate budget Answer: BD QUESTION 41 Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three. the segmenting of collision domains D. visual inventory . exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables. network audit D. the routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP) C. the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer. independent of any other devices. C. C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches. B. which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers. traffic analysis E.single site.C. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer. Answer: C QUESTION 45 When considering the three VoIP design models . the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by STP. the routing abilities of the host devices D. the need to control the broadcast domains within the campus core Answer: A QUESTION 43 Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design? A. server statistics Answer: ACD QUESTION 42 What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional campus network design? A. B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches. and distributed multisite . the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core. In a small data center. The access layer is normally not required. D. centralized multisite. With Layer 2 access. Layer 3 service support at the network edge B. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3.which question below would help to eliminate one of the options? A. D. Answer: B QUESTION 44 Which statement is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer design? A. as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is the most optimal. Will the switches be required to provide inline power? . Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN? Answer: D QUESTION 46 With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design.) A. D. core . B. N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to minimize intercontroller roaming events. avoids the potential impact of oversubscription on aggregate network performance. local mode Answer: C QUESTION 49 Application servers require load balancing and security services. Fibre Channel C. C. monitor mode B. sniffer mode C. multimode fiber B.B. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response? D. or salt-and-pepper access point design. Dynamic load balancing. single-mode fiber E. the different options available to the designer have their own strengths. N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming. Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX Answer: AD QUESTION 48 Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points? A. which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two. HVDC transmission lines D. maintaining traffic on the same subnet for more efficiency. rogue detector mode D. Which statement is an example of such a strength? A. N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of the controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center. serial RS-232 F. Will users need to make offsite calls. beyond the enterprise? C. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned? A. Answer: B QUESTION 47 When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100 meters apart. VDC B.B. flat B. bandwidth metric D. what topology should be used for maximum scalability? A. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure? A. virtual routing and forwarding E. Layer 3 access D. What two virtualization technologies can address the problem by directly reducing the number of physical devices? (Choose two. EIGRP variance C. floating static entry B. virtual LANs Answer: BC QUESTION 51 A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. virtual servers D.) A. aggregation C. virtual port channels F. vPC C. OSPF maximum paths Answer: A QUESTION 52 When designing a new enterprise campus network. virtual switching systems B. virtual device contexts C. star D. partial mesh E. Rapid PVST+ . three-layer C. distribution Answer: B QUESTION 50 A data center is reaching its power and cooling capacity. full mesh Answer: B QUESTION 53 A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the distribution block? A. discovery mode D. reliability when implementing routing over spanning-tree at the access layer D. controller port D. performance differences between core. centralized management of access control lists at the distribution layer C. VSS E. management port C. distribution and access layer equipment Answer: D QUESTION 55 What is the maximum RIPv2 hop count for a reachable route? A. 15 D. 14 C. reduced scalability of the network when introducing a large number of switch blocks into the routing table B.D. Flex Links Answer: D QUESTION 54 An organization is deciding what routing protocol to use throughout their network. service port B. 16 Answer: C QUESTION 56 Which Cisco Wireless LAN Controller interface is used for out-of-band management? A. sniffer mode Answer: A . monitor mode B. promiscuous mode C. What must be considered if routing is to be performed at the access layer? A. 13 B. virtual port Answer: A QUESTION 57 In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion detection services? A. aggregation layer E.) A.) A. group parameters B. technical personnel Answer: ACD QUESTION 60 Which three layers comprise the traditional hierarchical model? (Choose three. core layer B. policy limitations E. limited timeframe to implement Answer: ABF . preempt parameters D. Internet layer Answer: ABC QUESTION 61 Which three are considered as technical constraints when identifying network requirements? (Choose three. support for legacy applications B. to ensure proper functionality? A. new documentation C. priority parameters C.QUESTION 58 Which HSRP parameters must match. management personnel F. existing network management software D. existing documentation B.) A. network layer F. tracking parameters Answer: A QUESTION 59 What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three. new network management tools E. bandwidth support for new applications C. support for existing legacy equipment G. distribution layer C. limited budget allocation D. limited support staff to complete assessment F. access layer D. Loop-Free Square F. RSTP E. beginning-of-row E. VRRP C. Loop-Free Triangle E. IS-IS D. Looped U D. Looped Triangle B.QUESTION 62 Which two common cable management strategies are used in high-density server deployments in the data center? (Choose two. middle-of-rack C. BGP Answer: A QUESTION 65 Which three are valid Layer 2 access designs? (Choose three.) A. top-of-rack B. end-of-row Answer: AF QUESTION 63 Which protocol is the recommended first-hop redundancy protocol for an existing infrastructure that contains multiple vendors and platforms? A. OSPF C. OSPF Answer: B QUESTION 64 Which IGP provides the fastest convergence by default? A. EIGRP B. middle-of-row F. HSRP B. Looped Square C.) A. Loop-Free U Answer: ABF QUESTION 66 . IGRP D. bottom-of-rack D. network management servers B.) A. fast transport B. Aironet Office Extend Access Point D. access D. 1000Base-SX D. distribution C. security C. DHCP servers C. backbone E. Active Directory servers D. redistribution Answer: A QUESTION 68 Which servers that reside in the data center require direct links to all other enterprise modules? A. 1000Base-LX C. Catalyst 3560 Series Switch . summarization D.) A. aggregation Answer: AB QUESTION 67 What is a characteristic of campus core designs? A. Cisco Unified IP Phone B. 1000Base-T Answer: B QUESTION 70 Which three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution? (Choose three. core B. IP SLA servers E. Cisco 880 Series Router C. web servers Answer: A QUESTION 69 Which Gigabit Ethernet media type provides the longest reach without a repeater? A. 1000Base-CX B.Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-sized LAN? (Choose two. Answer: A . OSPF E. 512 D.) A. security C. D. satellite Answer: ABC QUESTION 73 Which three protocols support VLSM? (Choose three. MPLS Layer 3 VPN G. C. RIPv1 C. 256 C. data D. 64 B.E. IGRP Answer: ACD QUESTION 74 Which statement describes a unique advantage of EIGRP? A. Leased lines Answer: ABE QUESTION 71 What is the maximum number of groups that is supported by GLBP? A. EIGRP D. RIPv2 B. It enables source-based load balancing. Cisco 2900 Series Router F.) A. Internet E. 1024 Answer: D QUESTION 72 Which three service categories are supported by an ISR? (Choose three. It enables equal-cost load balancing. B. It enables unequal-cost load balancing. It enables port-based load balancing. storage F. voice B. distance vector C. RIPng Answer: A QUESTION 78 Which is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate? A. which solution would be the most appropriate solution to consider? . stateful D. path vector Answer: A QUESTION 77 When you are designing a large IPv6 multivendor network. The interior gateway protocol that they select must support these requirements: multivendor environment. 2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words B.QUESTION 75 ACME corporation is implementing dynamic routing on the LAN at its corporate headquarters. 2 x 4 kHz x 8-bit code words Answer: D QUESTION 79 When designing the infrastructure protection portion for the enterprise edge. which IGP does Cisco recommend that you use? A. OSPFv3 B. Which interior gateway protocol should they implement? A. EIGRP B. BGP D. 8 kHz x 8-bit code words C. BGP Answer: B QUESTION 76 Which routing protocol classification should you use when full topology information is needed? A. OSPF C. RIPng D. link-state B. and fast convergence. EIGRP for IPv6 C. high scalability. efficient subnetting. 2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz D. clustered D. 802. local Answer: ABC QUESTION 83 Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer switches? . out-of-line C. loose C. global E. decentralized Answer: A QUESTION 82 What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three. Cisco Security MARS D. AAA Answer: D QUESTION 80 Which two design approaches provide management of enterprise network devices? (Choose two. out-of-band D. Which IP telephony design model should you implement to fulfill these requirements? A. distributed C. in-line Answer: AC QUESTION 81 Refer to the list of requirements.A.1X B.) A. in-band B. strict B. ACLs in the core layer C. centralized B.) A. PIM F. VRF D. client endpoints B. peer groups Answer: C QUESTION 85 Which IP telephony component supports VoIP. goals B. mobility groups D. locations .1x C. IOE Answer: B QUESTION 87 What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? (Choose three. 802. and QoS? A.11n Answer: B QUESTION 84 Which technology enables WLCs to peer with each other to enable roaming support? A. SAN D.3af D. voice-enabled infrastructure C. 802. WAP profiles B. 802. 802. 802. PoE.3q E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Answer: B QUESTION 86 What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and systems? A.) A. user needs D. ISE B. roaming profiles C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager D. BYOD C.1q B. budget C.A. while remaining on the same VLAN . routed B. hardware C. presentation B. informational E. policies F. virtual . tunneled D. What severity level are these messages? A. show processes cpu B. tasks Answer: ABC QUESTION 88 An engineer receives a resource utilization alert on a router. switched C. transport Answer: D QUESTION 90 An engineer has configured a router to send level 7 messages to a syslog server. show version Answer: A QUESTION 89 What part of the network does a top-down network design focus on for solution development? A. error B. data link F. show memory C.E. notice Answer: C QUESTION 91 A network engineer must implement a design where LAN clients are to connect to various access layer devices. application E. debug D. warning C. show running-config D. What command should be used to investigate the issue? A. What type of design would support this requirement? A. session D. core B. backbone D. SP Edge WAN/internet Answer: A QUESTION 96 . distribution C. Enterprise Edge C. Remote Module Answer: D QUESTION 94 A network engineer is following the three tiered Network Hierarchical Model. SP Edge Premise D. Remote Modules D. follows best practices C. easy to deploy Answer: A QUESTION 93 A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. Enterprise Campus B. Enterprise Edge C. what indicator demonstrates that the modular approach was followed? A. In what module do network management servers reside? A. access Answer: B QUESTION 95 A network engineer is using the Cisco enterprise architecture model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private WAN? A. ability to scale B. At which tier is route summarization implemented? A. Enterprise Campus B. redundant connectivity D.Answer: B QUESTION 92 When evaluating network designs. VRF B. IPS Answer: B QUESTION 98 To what Layer 2 technology does VRF closely compare? A. traffic filtering D. VLANs C. VTP Answer: C QUESTION 99 What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices? A. access control C. VLAN D.What three design requirements are key to designing a campus core? (Choose three. QoS tagging Answer: ADE QUESTION 97 What type of device can be installed to increase a broadcast domain? A. VLANs B. VPLS C. router B. redundant links F. VPC C. VSS . VSS B.) A. high speed E. VSS Answer: C QUESTION 100 During the design of a new campus network. What technology can be leveraged to meet this request? A. low latency B. VDC D. IDS D. the customer requests the ability to route overlapping IP addresses. switch C. VPC Answer: A QUESTION 101 A network engineer is attempting to separate routing domains using a virtualization technology. VDC D. campus data center B. VSAN C. VRF D. ACE B. VPC Answer: C QUESTION 102 What device virtualization technology allows for a single point of management and a centralized routing instance? A. port density C. internet D.D.) A. throughput capacity D. What protocol can be configured to perform this task? A. packet size E. VLAN B. VM Answer: B QUESTION 103 What two performance considerations must be taken into account when designing a remote worker access solution? (Choose two. latency Answer: AC QUESTION 104 In which network location should an external DNS server be placed? A. remote access Answer: C . VSS C. simultaneous VPN connections B. enterprise branch C. IKE B. ZX D. remote branch C. HIPS D. PIX C. SX C. NIDS E. HMAC Answer: D . What solution should be selected? A. MPLS C. LX Answer: C QUESTION 108 Which Cisco security mechanism has the attributes listed below? A. enterprise WAN B. FR Answer: C QUESTION 107 A circuit order has been placed for Gigabit Ethernet and is 80KM from the carrier equipment. building distribution Answer: A QUESTION 106 A company requires a managed WAN solution that supports Layer 2 adjacency across remote offices for applications and services.QUESTION 105 What submodule is found within the Enterprise Edge module? A. VPLS D. TX B. What type of SFP will be required? A. DMVPN B. campus IPS D. extra large Answer: C QUESTION 111 A network engineer is designing an enterprise managed VPN solution for a large number of remote offices that do not have on-site IT support and communicate only with the home office. AnyConnect E. EVPN E. Standard IPsec B. large D. DMVPN D. The client requests WAN redundancy to headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types satisfy this requirement? (Choose two. POTS Line T1 WAN . VPLS B.) A. DMVPN F. P2P GRE over IPsec C. Secondary T1 WAN circuit B.QUESTION 109 A secure WAN design requires dynamic routing and IP multicast. medium C. What two VPN protocols meet these requirements? (Choose two. IPSec Tunnel over the Internet D. PPTP F. Easy VPN G. GRE C. small B. SSL client Answer: D QUESTION 112 A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1 Internet connection. SSL/TLS Answer: BC QUESTION 110 What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls? A.) A. What type of VPN solution should be implemented? A. ISDN BRI C. DWDM l E. IPsec D. What two design requirements are unique to this scenario? (Choose two.) A.) A. GRE Tunnel Answer: A QUESTION 115 A client wants to consolidate applications that are currently housed at multiple sites to a remote data center. VLSM B. reduces capital and operational costs D. bandwidth B. NAT Answer: A . CIDR D. virtual private network B. distributes traffic proactively based on link utilization Answer: AB QUESTION 114 What technology can secure data over an insecure medium and provide WAN redundancy in the event of a primary connection failure? A. latency D. acts as a backup link in event the primary link fails C. RIR C. shadow PVC C.Answer: AC QUESTION 113 What two features are advantages of adding a secondary WAN link at the enterprise edge? (Choose two. provides additional bandwidth and load balancing capabilities B. storage E. improves security and prevents against denial of service attacks E. security C. availability Answer: AC QUESTION 116 What IPv4 addressing technique allows for the division of addresses into subnets of different sizes? A. dial-up ISDN D. Top-Down D. OSPF B. Broadcast D. Multicast Answer: A QUESTION 119 What significant advantage does EIGRP have over OSPF? A. Tunneled F. shorter convergence times C. BGP D. low processor utilization Answer: B QUESTION 120 What routing protocol requires full mesh between internal peers in an enterprise network? A. What three migration models would accomplish the organization's goal? (Choose three. Hybrid E. Dual Stack B. EIGRP C.QUESTION 117 An organization is conducting an evaluation on the migration to IPv6 within the enterprise network and has requested clarification on recommended migration strategies.) A. How can the application communicate using IPv6? A. Service Block C. Anycast B. Fork-Lift Answer: ABD QUESTION 118 An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. RIP Answer: C QUESTION 121 What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three. Unicast C. easy summarization B. ISIS E. single area operation D.) . cost C. does not scale well for large networks D. constantly shares link state updates throughout the topology Answer: A QUESTION 124 A company must deploy an IGP routing protocol on an Enterprise Network. auto summarization D. link load balancing F. distribution B. default route origination D. hops B. bandwidth D. path calculation utilizes a more granular metric C. route filters B. how does EIGRP's metric differ from OSPF? A. Where should route summarization be implemented? A.A. classful routing B. access D. hop count Answer: BDE QUESTION 122 By default. core C. scalability C. route reflectors C. backbone Answer: A QUESTION 125 What routing configuration can prevent routing loops between IGPs? A. delay Answer: D QUESTION 123 What characteristic separates link state routing protocols from a distance vector? A. virtual links . creates a topological view of the entire network B. multi vendor support E. What two products allow for posture assessment? (Choose two. IDS Answer: BD QUESTION 129 What two CoS values are used by voice traffic? (Choose two. COS3 D. What solution meets these requirements? A. hire a security firm to perform penetration tests Answer: A QUESTION 127 A customer requests a filtering design based on the need to scan all internet traffic. COS2 C. investigate how likely an attack is to occur C.) A.Answer: A QUESTION 126 What is the first step when creating a network security policy? A. Cisco Network Admission Control C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance Answer: A QUESTION 128 A customer wants to support a BYOD environment. Cisco Cloud Web Security B. implement measures to protect assets D. COS4 E. WAAS F. ACS B. COS1 B. ASA D. including remote workers. Cisco Identity Services Engine D. ISE E. NAC C. COS5 Answer: CE .) A. define what should be protected B. accelerated data transfer Answer: C QUESTION 134 A wireless LAN client is sending traffic to the wired LAN client. rogue detector D.) A. buffer sizes on the routers C. sniffer F. LEAP D. RADIUS user authentication C. EAP-TLS B. monitor E. local B. CODECs supported by the video units B. radio resource management D.QUESTION 130 A client wants to deploy a video conferencing platform in a multisite WAN environment. number of current calls E. PEAP C. POE capabilities of the switches D. What path will the packet take to reach the destination endpoint in a lightweight wireless deployment? . EAP-FAST Answer: A QUESTION 132 What two access point modes support the transmission of user traffic over a LWAPP/CAPWAP tunnel? (Choose two. number of hops between sites Answer: AD QUESTION 131 What wireless authentication option requires a Public Key Infrastructure? A. roaming between APs B.) A. What two design considerations need to be evaluated? (Choose two. standalone Answer: AB QUESTION 133 What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN design? A. H-REAP C. circular Answer: B QUESTION 137 Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center? A. which are listed here: The variance 4 command was issued on Router A.1. It removes STP dependency. C.168. Wide Area Application Services C. Cisco Prime Network Services Controller Answer: B QUESTION 136 Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies? A. It increases scalability. Application Control Engine B.0/24 network. switch > ap > controller > client Answer: C QUESTION 135 What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange services in remote data centers? A. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller D.1. rectangular D.A. Answer: A QUESTION 138 Router A has three feasible successors to the 192.168. ap > controller > switch > client D. B. It decreases convergence. triangular C. linear B. How many active entries does Router A have in its routing table for the 192.0/24 network? . It enables NIC teaming. switch > controller > ap > client B. D. controller > ap > switch > client C. PIM F. RIP B. tuned timers Answer: AC QUESTION 140 Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default? A.) A. 1 C. strict B. physical B. global E. network . route summarization C. 3 Answer: C QUESTION 139 Which two mechanisms are used by distance vector protocols to prevent routing loops? (Choose two. local Answer: ABC QUESTION 142 A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. IS-IS Answer: C QUESTION 141 What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three. OSPF C.) A. BGP E. 2 D. EIGRP D.A. What layer of the OSI model is used to start the design? A. 0 B. VRF D. loose C. route poisoning D. split horizon B. mode has been enabled on all VLANs. transport D. Multicast boundary filter C. access D. IGMP snooping B. distribution Answer: C QUESTION 144 What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose two. Dynamic ARP inspection . and PIM Sparse. enable VSS at the distribution layer C. PIM dense-mode D. investment protection D. What feature is required to stop multicast traffic from being broadcasted on the access layer switches? A. increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces D. improved fault tolerance Answer: DE QUESTION 145 A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. application Answer: D QUESTION 143 Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed? A. core C.C.) A. enable spanning-tree portfast B. reduces operational cost B. higher port density C. ensure the root bridge priority is equal on both distribution switches Answer: B QUESTION 146 Multicast has been enabled and configured in the Enterprise. The client has asked to increase uplink utilization from the access layer to the distribution. backbone B. How can the engineer attain this new requirement without adding new physical connections? A. consistent operation E. X. FCoE C. wireless E. access lists B. D.25 C. E. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer. analog modem . Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.) A. ISDN D.) A.Answer: A QUESTION 147 What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two. SATA D. Answer: CE QUESTION 150 An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria: Which technology should the organization use? A. intrusion prevention system Answer: B QUESTION 149 Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two. What technology can be used to encrypt this communication channel? A. ISCSI B. C. IP security C. B. DSL B. context based access D. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer. AoE Answer: AB QUESTION 148 A routing protocol neighbor relationship has been established between two routers across the public Internet using GRE. Fiber Channel E. E. CQ. CiscoWorks C. traffic analysis D. or WFQ. NBAR B. customer information B. external feedback E. existing documentation C.) A. SNMP collector D. user feedback Answer: C . GLBP C. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ.Answer: A QUESTION 151 Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers? A. HSRP B. IBGP Answer: B QUESTION 153 A network engineer must collect application-level information passing through a router. What two tools can provide this information? (Choose two. Syslog Answer: AD QUESTION 154 What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing network infrastructure? A. D. NetFlow collector E. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols. B. VRRP D. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface. Answer: B QUESTION 152 Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes traffic across multiple gateways? A. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed. C. SNMP v3 B.) A. IP SLA Answer: B QUESTION 157 A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. Where are aggregation switches found? A. SNMP v2 Answer: A QUESTION 156 A network engineer is designing a solution that will monitor IP traffic through corporate routers with the ability to export the flows to a collection engine without using network probes. What solution provides a secure and encrypted method for passing these messages? A. NetFlow C. RMON B. Secure Shell v2 E. Syslog Traps D. SNMP D. Syslog E. Trunk mode Answer: BD QUESTION 159 . Remote Module Answer: A QUESTION 158 What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose two. Enterprise Edge C. SP Edge WAN D.QUESTION 155 A design engineer must send management information messages across the public internet. BPDUguard C. What technology meets this requirement? A. Enterprise Campus B. Portfast E. VTP transparent mode B. Root Guard D. NetFlow v9 C. What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange services in remote data centers? A. Application Control Engine B. Wide Area Application Services C. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller D. Cisco Prime Network Services Controller Answer: B QUESTION 160 What design feature should be considered when accessing resources from a remote data center over a WAN connection? A. security B. bandwidth C. reliability D. management Answer: B QUESTION 161 What two addresses are defined under RFC 1918? (Choose two.) A. 19.22.37.1 B. 10.1.7.19 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 172.31.1.1 E. 239.15.12.1 Answer: BD QUESTION 162 What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table? A. filtering B. tunneling C. summarization D. translation E. supernetting Answer: C QUESTION 163 What two components are used when creating an endpoint's modified EUI-64 format IPv6 address? (Choose two.) A. IPv6 Prefix B. 64-bit MAC address C. 48-bit MAC address D. IPv4 Address E. Link Local Suffix Answer: AC QUESTION 164 A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured? A. Backbone Area B. Totally Stub Area C. Not So Stubby Area D. Stub Area Answer: C QUESTION 165 What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.) A. employees B. geography C. applications D. administration E. throughput Answer: BC QUESTION 166 The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology in the distribution and access layer? A. VDC B. vPC C. Rapid PVST+ D. VSS E. Flex Links Answer: B QUESTION 167 What network technology consolidates network and storage traffic in the data center? A. virtual storage-area network B. unified fabric C. unified computing system D. virtual switching system Answer: B QUESTION 168 What type of topology supports WAN redundancy when a balance is required between cost, high availability, and performance? A. partial meshed B. full meshed C. star D. ring E. hub-and-spoke F. bus G. point-to-point Answer: A QUESTION 169 What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN? A. circuit bandwidth B. prioritization C. security D. operational expense Answer: B QUESTION 170 A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment. What protocol allows for this? A. EIGRP B. OSPF C. RIP D. BGP E. IS-IS Answer: A QUESTION 171 What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.) A. allows a quick response to a design request B. facilitates design that is based on previous experience C. requires little or no notation of actual organizational requirements for implementation D. incorporates organizational requirements E. provides a broader overview to the organization and the designer distribution D. enterprise edge C. core B. campus core B. network Answer: B QUESTION 174 Refer to the exhibit.Answer: AB QUESTION 172 Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping? A. application C. campus access Answer: F QUESTION 173 Directory services and electronic messaging are performed at which layer of the network? A. R1 Interface Ethernet0 . Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time? A. campus distribution D. remote-access VPN E. enterprise data center F. 6.200 standby 2 track serial 0 standby 2 priority 95 ! ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6 255.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.6.6.6 255.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.6.255.255.255.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.255.200 standby 2 track serial 0 B.6.16.255.16. ip address 171.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 C. R1 Interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.6.16.6.6.16.100 standby 1 track Serial0 .255.255.5 255.200 standby 2 track serial 0 standby 2 priority 95 ! ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.16.16.6.6.16.255. R1 Interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.6.5 255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.255.255.255.5 255.16.255.16.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 ! ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.16.16.6 255.16.6.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171. 16.16.100 Answer: A QUESTION 175 Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments. R1 Interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.5 255.6.6 255.200 standby 2 track serial 0 D.255.6. The AP sends a discovery request to the first controller on the list and then goes down the list . optimized OSPF LSA timers E.) A.16. What are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection C. In this design. optimized OSPF SPF timers B.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6. Answer: AB QUESTION 176 A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. which solution ensures that interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP? A. C. Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame. Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 ! ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171. Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning. There is an OSPF adjacency between the routers. E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring Answer: B QUESTION 177 Which statement is true about using a DNS server to discover a controller IP? A.16.6. standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.255. Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches. automatic protection switching D. D. which allows load balancing between redundant paths.255.6. Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy Ethernet in all campus networks.255. B. D. Multiple controller IP addresses in a DNS response are not supported. C. Answer: C QUESTION 178 Refer to the exhibit. The wrong CIR is configured. The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface. The AP sends a discovery request to all controllers on the list simultaneously. The BECN configuration is causing this issue. B. The AP sends a discovery request to the last controller on the list and then goes up the list chronologically until it receives a discovery response. A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. D. What is causing this issue to occur? A. chronologically until it receives a discovery response. Answer: C . The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface. B. weighted fair queuing B. header compression Answer: A QUESTION 180 Which option is an example of physical device virtualization? A. data center bridging D. VSS B. OTV D. VLAN Answer: A QUESTION 181 A data center is being deployed. L2TPv3 C. and the new design should use the existing WAN. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement? A. VPLS B. Cisco FabricPath C.QUESTION 179 Which option is an advanced congestion management mechanism? A. VRF D. Cisco Unified Fabric Answer: A QUESTION 182 A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs between sites. building distribution .) A. and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server virtualization. payload compression D. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links B. VPN C. AToM Answer: C QUESTION 183 In which two places is redundancy recommended in an enterprise campus network design? (Choose two. policing C. The connectivity between data centers is IP only. Which Layer 2 tunneling technology should be used? A. save network costs Answer: AB QUESTION 185 Which two statements are true regarding a hierarchical network? (Choose two.) A. what is the main limitation that must be addressed? .) A. building access D. campus core C. minimize the effect of link failures B. complicates manageability because of the added security Answer: BC QUESTION 186 Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two. minimize the convergence time of STP D. minimize the effect of internetworking device failures C. Internet connectivity Answer: AB QUESTION 184 What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two. provides scalability without affecting other layers and functionality C. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches B.) A.B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches C. limits redundancy at the distribution layer E. provides better performance as network resources are efficiently utilized D. Assuming that a network will grow exponentially for the next 24 months. load balance across redundant paths E. facilitates choosing the type of routing protocols to be used in the network B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches D. e-commerce E. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors Answer: AC QUESTION 187 Refer to the exhibit. redundancy D. ip route 192.1.0 10.255.168.100.1. ip route 192.168.1.168.0 255.168.0 255.255.101.0/24 networks across the corporate WAN? A.1.255.168.0/24 and 192.0 255.252.254.1 Answer: B QUESTION 189 Refer to the exhibit.255. ip route 192. Where should routes in the routing table be aggregated or summarized? .100.1.0 10.1. What is the optimal route statement to connect to the 192.A. scalability B.1 D. serviceability C.101.1.100.0 10.0 10. resiliency Answer: A QUESTION 188 A network engineer is tasked with summarizing the routes to a remote site.102.1.254.1 C.168.1 B. ip route 192.255.0 255. in the distribution toward the access C. hello packets B. in the distribution toward the core Answer: D QUESTION 190 Which option is used by OSPF to reduce the flooding domain of database updates in a network? A. Which three OSPF routers are the only routers that may perform summarization with the current network layout? (Choose three. in the core toward the data center B. areas Answer: D QUESTION 191 Refer to the exhibit. interface cost D. in the core toward the distribution D.) .A. virtual links C. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection B. Router 5 E.A. LSA group pacing Answer: AB QUESTION 193 . fast hellos C. Router 3 C. SPF throttle timers E. LSA retransmission interval D.) A. Router 2 B. Router 8 Answer: ACE QUESTION 192 Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two. Router 4 D. Router 7 F. 254. Router 2 B. PVST+ . which version of spanning tree provides the fastest convergence? A.3? A. Router 1 C. Interface 0 D.48.Refer to the exhibit. Interface 1 Answer: A QUESTION 194 Refer to the exhibit. In this suboptimal design of a homogeneous Cisco network. Which next hop will the router select if given an IP packet with the destination address 19. and the STP root remains on the left distribution? A. The organization is migrating away from FHRP. The interaccess link is used for transit. VSTP E. CST C. The interdistribution link is used for transit. VSS has been implemented on a pair of Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches. RPVST D. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active. The red lines refer to STP blocked ports.B. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution. PVST Answer: C QUESTION 195 Refer to the exhibit. Answer: B QUESTION 196 Refer to the exhibit. Why does the implementation plan require a four-hour wait after removing the FHRP configuration? . E. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway. C. In order to avoid changes to end hosts. B. The STP root becomes the gateway. the default gateway is carried over to the SVI on the VSS. D. config interface address D. The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. Cisco 5700 Series Wireless Controllers D. The SVI IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. untag interface Answer: C QUESTION 198 Which three series of Cisco wireless controllers support wireless Bidirectional Rate Limiting? (Choose three. Cisco 8500 Series Wireless Controllers . It takes four hours for the VLAN interface to come up. It takes four hours for the VLAN interface to come up. Answer: C QUESTION 197 Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on a Cisco wireless controller? A. E. tag interface C. The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC address are different. D. The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address are different. Cisco 7500 Series Wireless Controllers E. B. It takes four hours for the SVI to come up. config create interface B. Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controllers B. The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC address are different.) A. C. It takes four hours for the ARP cache to time out. It takes four hours for the ARP cache to time out. Cisco 5500 Series Wireless Controllers C.A. F. NetFlow collector C. network IPS B. inline before the firewall B. passive off the internal switch Answer: D QUESTION 201 A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the company network to access internal resources using a company laptop with software that was preinstalled by the IT department. Which location is best for placing a monitor-only IPS that has visibility into the most data center traffic? A. syslog server Answer: A QUESTION 200 Refer to the exhibit. Which VPN method is used for connectivity? A. stateful firewall D. DMVPN . passive off the firewall D. Cisco 7200 Series Wireless Controllers Answer: BDE QUESTION 199 Which option can use deep-packet examination to determine the specific nature of an attack? A. inline after the firewall C. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switches Answer: BC QUESTION 204 Which IETF standard technology can be used with data center design to readily scale server virtualization? A. GET VPN Answer: C QUESTION 202 Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance? A. FCoE Answer: A QUESTION 205 Which three options are examples of network logical virtualization? (Choose three. virtual PortChannel B. must be placed inline with other network devices D. virtual device driver Answer: ACD . Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches B. does not offer audit and reporting features C. and their roles in the network B. recognizes users. Cisco ASR 9000 Series Routers E.) A. SSL VPN C. Virtual Device Context D. Virtual Switching System E.) A. vPC D. OTV C. IPsec VPN D.B. virtual machine C. does not recognize guest users Answer: A QUESTION 203 Which two Cisco products can be used in a data center to support OTV technology? (Choose two. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches C. Cisco ASR 1000 Series Routers D. their devices. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links B. large branch design B. Optimize C. Typically. two 2921 or 2951 routers are used to support the . logical B. small branch design Answer: B Explanation: Medium Branch Design The medium branch design is recommended for branch offices of 50 to 100 users. and security components? A. virtual Answer: A QUESTION 207 What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO is the final test of the appropriateness of the design? A.QUESTION 206 Which type of structure consists of the addressing. layered D. Which of the branch design profiles should be implemented? A. teleworker design D. Optimize B. physical C. Design D. which is similar to the small branch but with an additional access router in the WAN edge (slightly larger) allowing for redundancy services. routing protocols. Operate C. QoS. Implementation D. Design Answer: A QUESTION 209 You are tasked with designing a new branch office that will support 75 users with possible expansion in the future and will need a highly available network. Operate B. Implement Answer: A QUESTION 208 What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO includes the identification and resolution of issues prior to moving the entire network to production? A. medium branch design C. Access services provide identity of end devices. security services G. Those services are access services. forwarding services E. Transport services provide QoS for reliable packet delivery. storage servers. transport services. and recording services of media streams. Storage services provide capture and storage of media streams and content management and distribution. transport services C.) A.WAN. filtering services H. the network provides service to video media in the Media Services Framework. session control services F. Session control services provide session signaling and control and gateway services. VSS: Virtual Switching System . As shown in Figure 14-13. Bridging services provide transcoding. access services B. conferencing. and separate access switches are used to provide LAN connectivity. bridging services. QUESTION 211 Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two. remote access services Answer: ABCE Explanation: An architecture framework for media services supports different models of video models. storage services D. mobility. and session control services. which arc provided to endpoints. QUESTION 210 Which four services does the architecture for Media Services contain? (Choose four. and location services.) A. independent set of policies. Each network segment appears with its own privacy. QoS levels.B. VMP: Virtual Memory Pool Answer: AB Explanation: Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same physical infrastructure. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements? A. NetFlow D. Each segment operates independently and is logically separate from the other segments. security. Here are some examples of network virtualization technologies: VLAN: Virtual local-area network VSAN: Virtual storage-area network VRF: Virtual routing and forwarding VPN: Virtual private network VPC: Virtual Port Channel QUESTION 212 You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit. VLSM: variable length subnet masking E. The Table shows a description of the fields for NetFlow output. customized according to interface. VRF: virtual routing and forwarding C. SNMPv3 C. to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces. VM: virtual machine F. Table. Cisco Discovery Protocol Answer: C Explanation: NetFlow provides extremely granular and accurate traffic measurements and a high-level collection of aggregated traffic. Netflow Output escription . and independent routing paths. RMON B. VCI: virtual channel identifier D. with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. The output of netflow information is displayed via the show ip cache flow command on routers. 3G USB modems Answer: BC Explanation: Frame relay is old 'shared' technology today's sites use some flavor or Metro E or MPLS/VPN QUESTION 214 Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server? A. Link-local B.QUESTION 213 Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose two. Metro Ethernet D. Global aggregatable Answer: C Explanation: Any cast is a network addressing and routing methodology in which data grams from a single .) A. frame relay B. Site-local C. Multicast E. Anycast D. GPRS E. MPLS C. dial-up modem F. QUESTION 216 Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the 802. Figure 13-4 illustrates the communication flow of two hosts using 802. With an IBNS solution. The 802. The RADIUS ACS performs a lookup on the username and password to determine the credentials' validity. cRTP B. IBNS supports identity authentication.1P C. RADIUS B.1X and KAPoL with the switch. an accept message is sent to the switch or AP to allow access to the client host. In 802. AP. If the username and password are incorrect. TACACS E. IPsec D. Which other authentication solution is used hand-in-hand with 802. LFI E.1 X protocol operates between the end- user client seeking access and an Ethernet switch or wireless access point (AP) providing the connection to the network. RSVP D. the server sends a message to the switch or AP to block the host port. The 802.1X protocol. clients are called supplicants. QUESTION 215 Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network? A. The client host then sends the credentials to the switch.1 X protocol is a standards-based protocol for authenticating network clients by permitting or denying access to the network. Auto QOS Answer: C Explanation: RSVP Signaling protocol that enables end stations or applications to obtain guaranteed bandwidth and low delays for their data flows.1X to authenticate users for network access? A.1 X terminology.sender are routed to the topologically nearest node in a group of potential receivers all identified by the same destination address.IX and Extensible Authentication Protocol over LANs (EAPoL) to send the credentials and initiate a session to the network. and back-end RADIUS server. guest VLANs. and switches and APs are called authenticates. . A back-end RADIUS server such as a Cisco Access Control Server (ACS) provides the user account database used to apply authentication and authorization. LEAP C. ISAKMP Answer: A Explanation: Cisco Identity-Based Network Services The Cisco Identity-Based Network Services solution is a way to authenticate host access based on policy for admission to the network. username and password credentials are requested. the host uses 802. which forwards them to the RADIUS ACS. IEEE 802. and 802. If the username and password are correct.1X with port security. After the host and switch establish LAN connectivity. dynamic provisioning of VLANs on a per-user basis. Prepare D. Which layer is the distribution layer? A. Design B. Layer C D. Plan C. Layer A B. Layer B C. Implement E. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer Answer: B QUESTION 218 In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified? A. Optimize Answer: B Explanation: . Operate F.QUESTION 217 Refer to the exhibit. responsible parties.Plan Phase The Plan phase identifies the network requirements based on goals. including those that are not capable of authenticating. performs a gap analysis against best- practice architectures. Automates discovery and inventory of all LAN attached devices B. A database used to map user VPN accounts Answer: A Explanation: Cisco NAC Profiler: Enables network administrators to keep a real-time. QUESTION 220 Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO? A. The project plan aligns with the scope. Obtain site contact information B. Generates a profile based on username and group C. milestones. QUESTION 219 Which is the purpose of the Cisco NAC Profiler? A. This phase characterizes sites and assesses the network. Identify customer requirements D. It also uses the information about the device to determine the correct policies for NAC to apply. and looks at the operational environment. contextual inventory of all devices in a network. facilities. Learns and creates a database of virus definitions based on LAN traffic D. It greatly facilitates the deployment and management of Cisco Network Admission Control (NAC) systems by discovering and tracking the location and type of all LAN- attached endpoints. This project plan is followed (and updated) during all phases of the cycle. and resource parameters established with the original business requirements. and user needs. Perform gap analysis Answer: C Explanation: . Perform network audit C. and resources to do the design and implementation. A project plan is developed to manage the tasks. cost. Prepare Phase The Prepare phase establishes organization and business requirements. MISTP E. PVST D. Rapid PVST + Answer: E QUESTION 222 Drag and Drop Question Answer: . This phase creates a business case to establish a financial justification for a network strategy. QUESTION 221 What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch office environment? A. CST B. Technologies that support the architecture are identified. RSPT C. and proposes a high-level conceptual architecture to support the strategy. develops a network strategy. QUESTION 223 Drag and Drop Question Answer: QUESTION 224 Drag and Drop Question . physical C. protocols .Answer: QUESTION 225 Drag and Drop Question Answer: QUESTION 226 What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design methodology? (Choose three.) A. technological F. layered D. logical B. network components E. Answer: A QUESTION 230 Which two options are benefits of using a modular network architecture? (Choose two. B. hardware failures B.) A. high performance Answer: C QUESTION 228 Which two issues are typical challenges to network stability and reliability? (Choose two.G.) A. which effect do they have on the routing table? A. and a loop is formed. Neither route is added. high scalability D. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added. core layer failures E. consistent documentation D. layer 1 link failures C. accurate monitoring C. high availability C. C. high cost per port B. distribution layer failures Answer: AB QUESTION 229 If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix. virtual Answer: ABC QUESTION 227 What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching? A. facilitates troubleshooting B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added. application failures D. Both routes are added. increased flexibility E. D. reduced cabling requirements Answer: AD QUESTION 231 . Place the DHCP server in the enterprise campus core layer and remote access and VPN module. and place the DNS server in the Internet connectivity module. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the enterprise campus access layer and enterprise branch. Answer: QUESTION 233 Which statement describes the recommended deployment of DNS and DHCP servers in the Cisco Network Architecture for the Enterprise? A. C. shorter addresses B. faster IGP convergence Answer: C QUESTION 232 Drag and Drop Question Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right. automatic summarization C. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the enterprise campus server farm layer and enterprise branch. .What is a benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 addresses? A. hierarchal global address space D. B. 0/26 C.1/8 B.17.31. 192. Place the DHCP server in the enterprise campus distribution layer.1.D. 192.168.15. which subnet is the most efficient? A.0. and place the DNS server in the Internet connectivity module. 172.0.0/24 Answer: C QUESTION 235 Drag and Drop Question Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right. Answer: .0/25 D.168. 10. Answer: B QUESTION 234 For a VLAN that requires 70 hosts. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. a VRF instance B. D. a GRE tunnel D. Answer: D QUESTION 238 In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion detection services? . Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation? A. C. B. redundant hardware Answer: A QUESTION 237 Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. a MIB database C. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal routing. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB. E. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.QUESTION 236 Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network? A. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF. 192.168. Answer: A . distribution Answer: A QUESTION 241 Which benefit is an advantage of route summarization? A.171. monitor mode B.0/3 E.0/16 Answer: C QUESTION 240 A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier should be free of physically connected hosts? A.168. D.168.A.0.128/3 C.175. aggregation D. It causes routes to be updated more frequently. access C. 192. discovery mode D.0/24 B. It lowers the cost metric. 192. promiscuous mode C.0. B. sniffer mode Answer: A QUESTION 239 You design a network with the following network addresses: Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses? A.168. 192. It reduces the size of the routing table.0/21 D. 192. core B. It enables neighbor discovery.168.168. C. software C. across the public Internet. CBAC D. SSL VPN Answer: A QUESTION 243 GRE has been used to establish a routing-protocol neighbor relationship between two routers. GRE D. GRE over IPsec B. IPsec C. Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private . hardware B. access lists B.QUESTION 242 Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office to headquarters via an Internet connection while maintaining confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between the two locations? A. Which technology can you use to encrypt this communication channel? A. Cisco 3900 Series Integrated Services Routers running IOS software D. IPsec C. IPS Answer: B QUESTION 244 According to fundamental design principles. WAN routers running IOS software Answer: A QUESTION 245 Refer to the exhibit. which location is best for implementing Cisco QoS policies? A. address summarization F.addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis? A. PPP Answer: A QUESTION 246 In which two modes can you deploy Cisco IPS appliances? (Choose two.) . threat detection Answer: AB QUESTION 247 What three design best practices are key functions of the distribution layer? (Choose three. From the IOS CLI. SNMP B. inline B. high-density RF design.) A. IP SLA C. Which two factors determine the cell size? (Choose two. QoS tagging E.) A. threat mitigation E. promiscuous C. admission control C. Traceroute Answer: DE QUESTION 249 A network engineer needs to create a controller-based. end user and application isolation Answer: ACE QUESTION 248 A network engineer is tasked to upgrade and expand a large existing production network. what two protocols can be used to build a topology map of the existing network? (Choose two. GARP D. VTP group D.) A. VLAN C. access switch aggregation D. fault domain isolation B. NAT B. ICMP Echo D. LLDP E. TPC threshold setting D. The link serialization delay should be set to less than 100 ms. Answer: A QUESTION 251 Drag and Drop Question Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right. Bandwidth should be limited to 768 kbps. antenna type B. which traffic control should you apply to the strict priority queue? A. ClientLink support C. Limits should be applied to non-real-time traffic and all real-time traffic should be permitted. Bandwidth should be limited to one-third of the link capacity.A. D. free space path loss Answer: AC QUESTION 250 According to Cisco best practices. Answer: . B. C. QoS setting E. Configuration Answer: AB QUESTION 254 Which three QoS levels should VoIP clients be set to on a Cisco WLC? (Choose three. Migration B. Silver E. Design E. disabled Answer: AB QUESTION 253 What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design Lifecycle? (Choose two. Bronze C. Critical Answer: ACD . blocking D. listening E. discarding B. learning C.) A. Platinum B.) A.QUESTION 252 Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two. Premier F. Deployment C.) A. Optimization D. Gold D. IPS inline inside the firewall C. ICMP Echo D. What design issue is a primary concern per Cisco best practices? A.) A. What two protocols would they use to gain insight into the network and determine the components that require optimization? (Choose two. VM C. passive IPS connected to a SPAN port outside of the firewall E. IPS inline outside of the firewall B. routers E. CDP B.QUESTION 255 What is the optimal device and location to fulfill these requirements? A. Cisco IOS IPS on the border router D. SNMP Answer: BE QUESTION 257 Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose two. NetFlow C. feature availability D. resource utilization . NMAP E. ESX host B.) A. passive IPS connected to a SPAN port inside the firewall Answer: A QUESTION 256 A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. services delineation B. switches D. Hyper-V host Answer: CD QUESTION 258 An organization is redesigning a 3-tier hierarchical network into a collapsed core. port density C. when each remote site has its own wireless controller C. VNET tags Answer: A QUESTION 262 When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended? A.1X B. ACLs in the core layer C. facilitates a quick response to client requests D.Answer: D QUESTION 259 Which option is an advantage of the bottom-up design model? A. VRF-Lite B. which of these solutions would be the most appropriate solution to consider? A. MPLS D. when the remote sites use WAN optimization Answer: A QUESTION 263 Which DHCP option do you need to configure to ensure that an LWAP can communicate with the Cisco WLC in a different subnet? . produces a "big-picture" of the desired outcome Answer: C QUESTION 260 When designing the identity and access control portions for the enterprise campus network. focuses on the needs of user communities B. includes a thorough analysis of customer requirements C. EVN C. Cisco Security MARS D. when each remote site runs VSS D. 802. NetFlow Answer: A QUESTION 261 Which network virtualization technique can you implement without disrupting the existing network design and infrastructure? A. when remote-site APs are centrally managed B. 150 Answer: C QUESTION 264 Drag and Drop Question Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right. 19 C. Answer: QUESTION 265 Which design enables easy and flexible scaling in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model? A. modular B. bottom-up D. full-mesh Answer: A QUESTION 266 Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet? . 43 D. top-down C.A. 7 B. provides greater detail about collected data. 10. combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector D.1 C.31.1 Answer: C QUESTION 267 Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol? A.1.32. provides information about directly connected Cisco devices B.168. part of the IEEE 802. including time stamping C.1. 192.1 B.1ab standard Answer: A QUESTION 268 Drag and Drop Question Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.1 D. 169.32.A. Answer: . 172.32.254. allows for address translation to be performed D.) A. increases high availability Answer: AD QUESTION 270 What are two reasons discontinuous IPv4 networks hinder scalability? (Choose two.) A. reduces routing table size B. slowed packet forwarding E. insufficient IP addresses D. routing table bloat B. delayed interface queuing Answer: AB QUESTION 271 . inability to utilize automatic summarization C. improves manageability and troubleshooting E.QUESTION 269 What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two. provides increased security C. QUESTION 272 QUESTION 273 QUESTION 274 . QUESTION 275 QUESTION 276 AB QUESTION 277 QUESTION 278 A network architect working for a large financial institution is designing a VPN solution that must . the wlc is offline D. Why is the consultant unable to access the MGMT VLAN? A. mpls vpn D. which protocol must be running to enable link redundance? A. Ap is offline C. getvpn B. l3vpn Answer: D QUESTION 279 Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (Choose two) A. implement redundant links B. reduce network size E. implement serial device connection D. LACP D.other users can connect to the mgmt vlan without any issues. Which VPN type meets this requirement? A. Type of dynamic routing protocol . l2vpn C. the MGMT VLAN is down Answer: A QUESTION 281 In an enterprise Layer 2 switched network. STP Answer: D QUESTION 282 What are two important aspects to Consider when looking at backup circuit options for a branch location? A. CDP B.include encryption. increase data plane bandwidth C. PAGP C. implement redundant topology Answer: AE QUESTION 280 A consultant at company XYZ connects to the guest wireless network but cannot reach the mgmt vlan to complete an audit. the access is not permitted B. Validation in build D. Internet service provider diversity D. stackwize B. 6 D. Backup MPLS Connection C. 4 C. Assessment in plan B. 8 Answer: A QUESTION 284 What is the technology that allows you to combine more than two switches? A. etherchannel Answer: A QUESTION 285 Which phase of cisco design life cycle the validation of network infrastructure happened? A. Session) Specify infrastructure for lower OSI layers (transport. local exchange carrier diversity E.B. network. physical) Gather additional data on the network Answer: Analysis of application and organization requirements Design from the top of the OSI reference model . type of core switch Answer: AB QUESTION 283 What is the maximum switch in VSS? A. data link. vss C. 2 B. vpc D. optimization in operate Answer: C QUESTION 286 Drag and drop the top-down approach process Analysis of application and organization requirements Design from the top of the OSI reference model Define requirements for upper layers (Application. deployment in build C. Presentation. data link. /26 Answer: D QUESTION 291 A network engineer must collect application-level information of deep attack? A. Presentation. FTP C. DHCP D. Session) Specify infrastructure for lower OSI layers (transport. WWW B. It redistribute the traffic between links Answer: B QUESTION 290 What is the vlan subnet that can handle 60 host? A. network.Define requirements for upper layers (Application. DNS E. To expand a subnet Answer: A QUESTION 289 In layer 2 design approach. Only one link is active per time C. CiscoWorks C. physical) Gather additional data on the network QUESTION 287 Which two network services should you host on the DMZ? (Choose two) A. To save a wested ip address B. TACACS+ Answer: AB QUESTION 288 What is the benefit of using VLSM? A. SNMP collector . /25 D. It use the most efficiency of redundant link B. how you can describe STP redundancy? A. /21 B. NBAR B. /24 C. D. NetFlow collector E. Syslog Answer: D QUESTION 292 When you make change on Network, what the consideration of environment Data center network network? A. Location B. Air condition and cooling C. storage and rack D. Floor & Answer: B QUESTION 293 Which in build stage? A. assesetment B. vlidation C. deployment Answer: BC QUESTION 294 What is the important in access layer? A. Port secutity B. Spaning tree Answer: AB QUESTION 295 Which QOS level should VOIPset on WLC? A. Platinium B. Gold C. premier D. critical Answer: A QUESTION 296 Which cisco technology can connect more than two switches so that they behave as one switch? A. Etherchannel B. Trunking C. VSS D. Stackwise Answer: D QUESTION 297 Which two processes are included in the Build phase of the Cisco Design Life Cycle? (Choose two.) A. Design B. Validation C. Analysis D. Deployment E. Assessment Answer: BD QUESTION 298 What two benefits of Top Down approach? (Choose two.) A. Incorporate organizational requirements B. Design will follow application C. Based on previous experience and quick response. Answer: AB QUESTION 299 When designing changes to an existing network, which two options are documented to understand environmental constraint? (Choose two.) A. Utilization of network resources B. Floor and rack space availability C. Host naming conventions D. Heating and Air conditioning E. Location of existing documentation Answer: BD QUESTION 300 In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.) A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network B. It uses Layer 2 switching only C. It aggregates data from the access layer D. Policy is implemented at this layer Answer: D QUESTION 301 Which level needed to be set on Cisco WLC for VolP traffic: A. PLATINUM B. GOLD C. SILVER D. BRONZE Answer: A QUESTION 302 Choose considerations for access layer design? (Choose two.) A. QOS B. Routing C. Port security D. Load balance E. HSRP Answer: AC QUESTION 303 For a VLAN that requires 60 hosts, which subnet is the most efficient? A. 10.0.0.1/20 B. 172.31.17.0/27 C. 10.10.10.0/26 D. 192.168.15.0/24 Answer: C QUESTION 304 Which option is an advantage of a Layer 3 access model over the traditional Layer 2 access model? A. Increased neighbor adjacencies B. Faster convergence C. Reduced resources on the router D. Reduced size of routing table Answer: B QUESTION 305 Which data center connection supports QoS , full mesh deployment and typically offers SLAs? A. Internet VPN B. MPLS C. DMVPN D.distribution and core layers. Python B. APIC D. Class C. which option is the unified point of automation . management .management and troubleshooting D.simplifiying configuration C. EIGRP Answer: C QUESTION 308 Which statement about modular network design is true? A. OSPF B. eBGP D. iBGP C. It is flexible architecture that simplify design. Answer: C QUESTION 309 Which option is an object instance than an API identifies using information model-based architecture? A. Method D. Postman Answer: C QUESTION 307 An engineer is designing a solution for multiple multihomed to establish router between one another which design must be ? A. REST C. Each module include access. Frame Relay Answer: B QUESTION 306 In Cisco ACI. It is complex and should be used only in specialized situations B. monitoring and programmable? A. MO Answer: A QUESTION 310 . DN B. Each deployed module is identical to the others. Full-Mesh connectivity and QoS? A. Internet VPN D. Building access D. independent of router location or role . Metro Access B.) A. It uses only one redundant link at any one time D.The Company hires a network consultant to help implement QoS in its network. It bonds the two links and treats them as one link C.A Consulting engineer is tasked with designing a company LAN Network Infrastrue. RIP C. Frame Relay B. MPLS C. Building distribution E.Two requirements are the ability for fast convergence summarization anywhere in the network . the DMZ exists between which two locations? (Choose two. Point-to-Point Answer: B QUESTION 313 which statement about using STP in a redundant-link scenario is true? A. Internet Answer: BE QUESTION 312 What branch connection type supports SLAs. BGP D. NBAR .Which routing protocol support this effort? A.Which technique should the consultant use to identify traffic and applications that traverse the network? A. Corporate Network C. EIGRP Answer: D QUESTION 311 Traditionally. It balances traffic by transmitting packets on alternating links Answer: C QUESTION 314 Company ABC has intermittent problems registering remote-site IP phones over the WAN with Cisco Unified CallManager at headquartes. It provides the most efficient use of redundant links B. OSPF B. Local preference D. 120.78.20. Atomic aggregate Answer: BD QUESTION 317 Which address is the broadcast address of subnet 120. Policing D.20. Route reflectors C. Community B.) A.12 C. It can maintain the topology independently of STP D. 120. It requires STP for link redundancy C. ATM D. Confederations E.20.1 D. Priority queuing Answer: A QUESTION 315 Which statement about VSS is true? A. Internet VPN Answer: D . 120. 120.20. It has two control planes Answer: C QUESTION 316 Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.20.78.11 Answer: D QUESTION 318 Which connection provides cost effective backup connectivity for a branch network? A.78.8 B. Frame Relay B. MPLS C.78.B.8/30? A.78. It requires HSRP B. RSVP C. IP SLA B. To make a subnet public B. PPP B. Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two network for translating private address into "Legal" public addresses on a onefor-one basis? A. Bonded T1s D. To make a subnet its own VLAN . VLAN C. To prevent wasting IP addresses C. TACACS+ D. The solution support synchronous bandwidth and allow for future growth? Which solution is best suited to meet these requirements? A. MPLS over Ethernet Answer: A QUESTION 320 Refer to the exhibit . DMVPN over business class modem B.QUESTION 319 A network engineer is implementing a new mesh WAN topology. Cisco FirePOWER Answer: C QUESTION 322 Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks? A. SSL VPN over business class cable modem C. Cisco TrustSec C. PAT Answer: C QUESTION 321 Which application can provide AAA services for Cisco Devices? A. NAT D. which QoS profile should be configured on the WLAN of the WLC for wireless VoIP communications? A. Silver Answer: A QUESTION 326 How many switches can be combined into a single network element using VSS? . 10GB Ethernet must be confirmed Answer: A QUESTION 325 Based on best practices . Gold C. The switches have not been restarted after the VSS configuration application C. Baseline C. Platinum B. When a VSS configuration is reviewed. To expand an existing subnet Answer: B QUESTION 323 Which option characterizes normal traffic flow and performance of a network? A.D. Availability D. Additional port-channel links are required D. Bandwidth Answer: A QUESTION 324 Refer to the exhibit. Utilization B. Bronze D. Which option is the issue with the switches? A.it is determined that the nodes are not detecting each other. The Switch virtual domains incorrect B. A. 6 D. 8 C. 2 Answer: D . 4 B.