CAAC ATPL Exam Study Materials (1035)

CAAC ATPL Test Questionnaire ATPL-60 1. what we wither is predicted by the term VCTS in A TAF A.TS are expected in the vicinity B. TS may occur over the station and within 50 km of the station C. Thunderstorms are expected between 5-25 km of the R/Y complex a 2. What conditions are indicated on a weather depiction chart A. Forecast ceiling & visibilities over a geographic area B. actual en route …… C. actual sky cover…… c 3． Dew point temperature is: A. the ……dry……wet bulb B. wet and dry bulb C. wet bulb…… b 3. a common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is A. impairment of VIS B. tingling hands and arms C. decreased body temperature a 4. what action should be taken when cleared for approach while…… A. descend to min vector alt B. remain at last assigned altitude until establish on published route segment C. descend to initial approach fix altitude b 5. what is the safest and most efficient take off and initial climb procedure in a light twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to A. Vmc, then…… B. An airspeed slightly above Vmc, the lift off and climb at the best rate of climb airspeed C. Best engine-out, rate of climb while the ground b 6. what is corrected altitude approximate true altitude? A. density altitude corrected for temperature variation form standard B. pressure altitude corrected for instrument error C. indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard c 7. 如果周围空气比 9600 冷，真空和压力高关系 A． 真空低于 9600 B． 压力高低于真高 a 8. a mismatch between the real world and the mental model is termed A. an illusion B. an hallucination C. a dream a 9. 121 中，近期经历为 A． 90 日， 3 次起落 B． 100 日， 3 次起落 C． 120 日， 3 次起落 a 11． 训练时间 A． 地面，飞行模拟机或飞行训练器 B． 飞行中，地面上，模拟机或…… C． 飞行中 b 12． 航线执照最低年龄 A． 18 B． 20 C． 21 c 13．温度高，在 10800M， 密度高度和压力高度 A． impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitude B． lower than 压力高 C． higher than 压力高 c 14. what procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing A. the altitude and 速度 should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach B. a 普通进近 except to not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold C. the flight path and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing c 15. by changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane A. lift, gross weight and drag B. lift, airspeed and drag C. lift and airspeed but on drag b 16. leading-edge flaps 在着陆前 A． decrease rate of sink B． increase profile drag C． prevent flow separation c 17. 气团雷暴 downdrafts and precipitation 18. which type storms are most likely to found clouds or tormals cold front or squall line thunderstorms 19. 严重雷暴定义 20．多普勒雷达 4TKM 21．最有可能形成山地波 22．Wind strength in upper air riffle are stormy and serious turbulence will occur 23.generator voltage A. is controlled by the voltage regulator B. is controlled by the PRM of the engine C. is controlled by number of magnetic poles (a) 24.in relation to accelerate stop distance certification rules allow a period of time for engine failure recognition and pilot reaction, how long is this period A. V1 plus 2 second B. 2 second C. Vef until V1 plus 2 S c 25. an ATC ‘instruction’ A. is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action providing the safety of the aircraft in not jeoparalized B. is the same as an ATC clearance C. must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective a 26. how does aroused affect performance A. affected in overload but not underload B. affected in underload but not overload C. both affected (c) 27. the surface air temperature of a running will depend on all of the following A. airfield elevation, runway length and slope, airfield latitude and wind B. airfield elevation and latitude time of the year, time of day, runway surface prevailing wind and cloud cover C. airfield elevation runway length, prevailing wind and the time of day (b) 28.the dew point temperature is higher when A. air is very warm and dry B. air is very cold and moist C. air is very moist (c) 30．What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ZLS approach A. must maintain the last assigned altitude established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes B. ma descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course C. may begin a descend to the procedure turn altitude (a) 31 provisional or modified route are displayed as A, a solid white line B, a dashed white line C, a dashed magenta line B 32.when making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot be aware of the possibility of illusion the approach may appear to be too A. shallow B. high C. low b 34.when must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach A. when the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible B. at the DH, if the visual for the intended runway are not destinaty visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost C. at the DH when the runway is not clearly visible (b) 35. when thrust reversers are not available ASDA must be increase by A. a distance equal to half of the clearway B. 10% C. 200 meters b 36. assuring that all ILS components are operating and the required visual reference are not acquired the missed approach should be initiated upon A. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach B. arrival at the DH on the glide slope C. arrival at the visual descent point b 37.which statement is correct regarding holding pattern and procedure turns that are displayed on the EHSI screen A. active holding patterns and procedure turn are shown in magenta inactive in blue and modified in white B. active holding patterns and procedure turn are displayed in white in magenta and modified in blue C. active holding patterns and procedure turn are turn in blue inactive in magenta and modified in white a 38 where is the normal location of the jet stream relative to surface lows and front? A. the jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front B. the jet stream is located north of the surface system C. the jetstream is located south of the low and warm front b 39.summer thunderstorm in the arctic region will generally move A. southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow B. directly north to south with the low level polar airflow C. northeast to southwest in polar easterlies c 40.dew point A. the temperature to which dry air must be cooled in order to just reach saturation B. the temperature at which a parcel at air reach super satruature point, irrespective of pressure C. the temperature to which saturated air must be cooled to produce condensation a 41、APROB4（PROB ability）HHhh group in an IAF indicates the probability of a. precipitation or low visibility b. Ts or high wind c. Ts or other precipitation c 42. when simultaneous ILS approach are in progress which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately A. if radar monitoring be desired to confirm lateral separation B. any inoperative of malfunction aircraft receivers C. if a simultaneous ILS approach is desired b 43. with increase altitude at a constant IAS, TEM and thrust respectively A. decrease and decrease B. increase and decrease C. decrease and increase a 44.121 部，关于起飞备降场，哪一错误 A． 对于三发，起飞备降与起飞机场的 不大于飞机以一发失效静风 2 小时 B． 对于双发，起飞备降与起飞机场的 不大于飞机正常速度静风 1 小时 C． 当起飞机场的天气条件低于航空公司为该机场规定的最低标准 45． 图 3， NO. 1 NAV. Would center the CDI and change the…… to A. 16S B. 17S C. 34S 46. 图 11 A. an ILS critical area holding position sign B. a runway boundary sign C. an ILS critical area boundary sign c 47. engine bleed air is supplied to the air gap above the fuel in the tanks primarily to A. warm the fuel B. ensure an adequate supply of fuel pressure is maintained to the APU C. prevent cavitation c 48. which type clouds maybe associated with the jetstream A. cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jet stream B. cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front C. ciro stratus cloud bland on the polar side and under the jet stream c 49. a. b. c. B a rheostat is a temperature indicator a remote automatic manual switch a temperature control device 50.when the forecast weather condition for destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a domestic air carrier’s operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take A. list at least are additional alternate airport B. list an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate C. add additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane is use A 51.CAT can occur in widely different circumstances, but there are some features which generally hold true, which of the following is generally true A. if CAT is encountered a 1000’ altitude change is likely to be sufficient to leave the CAT area B. there will be probably be a jet stream in the vicinity if CAT is encountered C. CAT occurs more frequently over weather than land (b) 52. 气象报 TMPO 53．Which of the following statements correctly describes the effect resulting from exposure over many years to aircraft engine noise A. some loss of heaving may occur but total recovery will eventually take place B. a permanent loss heaving may occur C. some loss of heaving may occur but it will last for only a few minutes after each exposure b 55. when does min temperature normally occur during a 24 hours period A. about 1 hour before sunrise B. at midnight C. after sunrise C 56.the purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with weather in nonprecipitation conditions is to A. increase the mn freezing point conset of crystallization B. decrease the freeze point C. raise the eutectic point B 58. what is the propose of the term “hold for release” when included in an IFR clearance A. when an IFR clearance is received by telephone the pilot will have time to precpave for take off prior to being release B. a procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume weather or need to issue further instructions C. gate hold procedure are in effect and the pilot receives an estimate of the time the flight will be released B 59. what is max allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the dimension of 148*125.2 inch es? Condition: floor load limit: 209 pound/sqft, pallet weight:197 pounds, tiedown device: 66pounds A. 25, 984.9 pound B. 25, 987.9 C. 25, 721.9 c 60 ..how often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment after initial training A. 6 calendar months B. 12 C. 24 b ATPL 01 1. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 2.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 3.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 4.What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 5. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.2,000 feet A X 6.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 7.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 8.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 9.. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. C X 10.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 11.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 12.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 13.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 14. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 15.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 16.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 17.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 18.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 19. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 20.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120,000 pounds gross weight? A.3,500 feet. B.2,750 feet. C.2,150 feet. A X 21.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110,000 pounds? A.136 knots. B.132 knots. C.139 knots. A X 24.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 25.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 26.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 27.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 28.. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. A X 29.．As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 31.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.124 knots. B.137 knots. C.130 knots. C X 32.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 33.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 34.. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. B.25,000 feet to the tropopause. C.The tropopause to 45,000 feet B X 35..What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence. A X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 37.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information, the expected changes in intensity of the icing is. A. Intensify B. Weaken C. No change B X 38.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 39.. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.The first holding pattern altitude. B X 40.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 41.. Which term describes the hydroplaning, which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.Dynamic hydroplaning. C.Viscous hydroplaning. A X 42. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 43.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 44.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system B X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 46.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 47.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The same. B.Two times greater. C.Four times greater. C X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 49. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. C X 50.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 51.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 52.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.VOR B.VOR and ILS C.VOR and DME A X 53. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 54. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 55.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency C. both a and b C X 56. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 130,000 pounds gross weight? A.1,000 feet. B.500 feet. C.300 feet. A X 58. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. A X 59.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. A X 60.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 61.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 62.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 63.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 64.. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 65.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. B X 66.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. B.3,050m. C.2,950m. A X 67.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. B X 68. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 69.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 70. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 71. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z. B.2015Z. C.0045Z. C X 72.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.(To be continued，engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 73.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 74.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 75. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. C X 76.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 77.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 78.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 80.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 100,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.95 EPR. C X 82.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.24,600 feet. B.23,400 feet. C.20,000 feet. A X 83.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 84.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 85.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 86.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 87.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 88.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 89.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 90.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 91. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flight conducted above A. FL200 B. FL240 C. FL250 C X 92.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48℃ B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48℃ C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48℃ A X 93.. In northern hemisphere, if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters, the wind on the course is _____. A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 94.. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 95.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 96.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 97.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 98.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 99. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.November 1988. B.December 1988. C.January 1989. B X 100. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 1. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings, as PIC, in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK, for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.DH65m，RVR600 C.DH65m，RVR550 B X 2.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 3. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 4.. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai, which description is correct A. The visibility is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The visibility is 8 kilometers, the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 5. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 6. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 7..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C X 9.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 10. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 11.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight. C X 12. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767, while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1,876 hours and 298 landings, as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. B X 13.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 14.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.PIC time 94 hours. A.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots,VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. A X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. C X 16.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 17.．The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. B X 18. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 19.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 20.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 21..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 22.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 23. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. B.ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. C.ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737. C X 24.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 26.. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1, the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 27.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.9,500 pounds. B.10,400 pounds. C.11,300 pounds. B X 28.. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 29.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 31.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 33.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 34..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 35.By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A.lift, gross weight, and drag. B.lift, airspeed, and drag. C.lift and airspeed, but not drag. B X 36. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 37.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 38.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 39. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 41.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 42.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 43. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. A X 44.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A. from left crosswind to right crosswind. A X 50.500m. C.DC-9. [Refer to Figure 4-25.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. B.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. fuel burn. the pilot in command must report it. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere. ATC and dispatcher.Over domestic or open sea.Over domestic only.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1. C.000 pounds gross weight? A.. A. B.DC-9 and DC 3.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. etC．as far as possible. B. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.Adhere to standard operating procedures.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. and DC-9.ATP . C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA.B-727 only.600m. C. C.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1.500 feet.. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.4.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.10 hours C.8 hours B.000 feet B. nearest CAAC district office. B.B-727 and DC-3.500 feet C.12 hours A X 51.500m.800 feet.750 feet. DC-3. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight..1. the wind direction usually changes.. from headwind to tailwind. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.4. B X 53. C X 49.B-727. A X 52. C. . B. B. to the A.200 feet.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 48.B.Over open sea.4.1. Commercial .ATP . as soon as practicable.1.ATP . Commercial . C. A X 46. operations manager (or director of operations). C X 47. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 54. B X 45.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. C.2.Brakes and reversers at 125. B. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity. dizziness B. C X 59.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. B.．Heavy coffee or tea. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .wrong A X 58.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. The statement is)right B. and an input of wind and variation data.. which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. A. and reversers at 135. self-contained gyros and accelerometers. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff. A X 62.. within a microburst. 40 knots B.10 EPR. C. Which term describes the hydroplaning.Viscous hydroplaning. C.. C. 90 knots B X 60. .(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time.06 EPR.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C..2.A X 55.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Leading-edge flaps C X 63.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.115 EPR.000 pounds gross weight.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.2.. embedded thunderstorms with hail C.500 pounds gross weight. the pilot should A.By signals fro. C. Upper rudder C.000 pounds gross weight. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots. B.vomiting B X 65.From information by compass. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. Fog. C X 61.. airspeed.Brakes and spoilers at 120. B. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. isolated cumulonimbus C X 64. volcanic ash B. Strong wind. spoilers.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.Dynamic hydroplaning.. Severe mountain wave. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. [Refer to Figure 4-26..．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. C X 56. B X 57.Brakes. 80 knots C. produce anxiety and A. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.prevent flow separation. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased. B.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.B X 66. C. B. C X 74." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A. approach. landing. including cruise flight. excluding cruise flight.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. takeoff. A X 72.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. takeoff.V2. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A.VOR and DME A X 67. landing.increase profile drag. what action should be taken? A.4 B X . B..ADF C.. route. and taxi operations. C X 70.V1.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A. A X 68. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. or airway specified in the vector clearance. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.. taxi.000 meters MSL. C. and all other operations conducted below 3. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. C X 69. B.2 B. landing. B. A X 73. C. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A..VEF.decrease rate of sink. C. B. C..800m. irrespective of altitudes MSL. taxi. descent. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. Fly direct to a fix.An alternate airport is required.000 meters.3 C.VOR B. and all other operations conducted below 3.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 71. 75. the max predicting wind speed is___..It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.January 1989. 6 m/s A X 83. C X 82.74.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.administer oxygen B.Eustachian tube B.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW. C.000 pounds.12. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. B X 78. C. B.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A. C.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B X 81.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Increased headwind component. the latter check is considered to have been taken in A. A X 79..the semicircular canals C X .the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A. B.DISTANCE (NM): 70. C X 77. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.093 feet. 8 m/s C.000. at ZBAA. B. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.74.give plenty of water A X 76.. B. 17 m/s B.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.December 1988...097 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-41.November 1988. (Refer to Figure 6-3.123 feet. A X 80. A. B.400 pounds.the cochlea C.180 pounds.73.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.12.13. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989.(according to figure 2). Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.000m. gear up. C. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. [Refer to Figure 4-29. gear down. B.000 feet to 1.300m.300 pounds. C. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A. C.7 days ago. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A. B.84. C. B..Alternate red and white lights from3. to flaps 0o.28 days ago.. B X ..at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.13.000 feet to the end of the runway B X 87. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A. C X 89.500 pounds.15. B.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A. C. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.Alternate red and white lights from 3. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. A X 85.Low gross weight.000 feet. B..15 days ago. continue taxiing in the landing direction.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1.. A X 90. C X 86. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. B. B.FL 6.000 feet. A X 92.High density altitude. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A. then alternate red and white lights to the end B. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.. A X 88. A X 91.FL 6. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. then red lights to the end C.FL 600m. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. C.300 pounds. C. B. A worm front and mountain waves B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.. C. C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 95. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. A X 99. C.profuse sweating B X 96. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Standing lenticular.pitching up.5KM from ILG. C.050 feet.16..153 knots and 2.quite different to those of hypoxia B.Within the previous 6 months. back to the departure airport.. B X 94. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A. Low stratus. which weather system we would encounter A. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. . B.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.5NM from ILG.16.050 feet.. A X 98. six ILS approaches. C X .0700z. B X 1.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.0600z. B. rotor cloud. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.93. A cold front and moderate icing C. B. B.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A.Within the previous 6 months. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B X 100. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B.050 feet. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are A. C.16. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. B X 97. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.pitching down.leveling off.138 knots and 3.Within the previous 12 calendar months.123 knots and 3.5SM from ILG. C.0630z.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. A X 10. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A. what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL128. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B. however. false cirrus clouds A X 5..An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A. B. C. The first D is A.496 feet.FL138. it can be condensed into six elements.wrong A X 6. B. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118.. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer.2. B X 8. B.7 hours. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds. B. C. B. C X 4. using the acronym DECIDE. C.1.FL 6. C.. . When flying over the nimbostratus clouds.000m. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.The first holding pattern altitude.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C. B.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. A.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 11.) cumulonimbus clouds B. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A..300m.. B X 9. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. C.632 feet per minute.FL118.900 feet.244 feet. The statement is A. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A X 3.．The decision-making process is quite complex. altocumulus clouds C. A X 7.right B.1.(to be continued Based on this situation. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. back to the departure airport.FL 6. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A.843 feet per minute.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.. B.Only one INS is required to be operative.8 hours.6 hours. C. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. except 20 miles from threshold. C. C. Position reports.4-51.. Turbojet aircraft.78 Mach? A.. B.22. not less than 200 knots. C X 17. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.800hours B. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.. and 4-54. unable to climb 500 ft/min. B. C. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A. stationary front. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane. C.Load manifest. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. a speed not less than 210 knots. C X 16.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. and flight plan. not less than 170 knots.900 hours C.Dispatch release. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. Vacating an altitude. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . B.] What is the total fuel required at . in any calendar year. C X 20.972 pounds. Certificate holder's manual. C. B X 21. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B. B X 15. cold front. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A.foreign international NOTAMs office. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft.Dispatch release. B. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. and weight and balance release. Not less than 250 knots B X 13.000 feet of runway. for no more than A. warm front. C X 19. a speed not less than 230 knots. C. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter .000 meters? A. vacating an altitude. flight plan. load manifest. a speed not less than 150 knots. flight plan. For scheduled airline. B. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. C.C..Identify REIL.domestic airport flight information office. B X 18. except 20 flying miles from threshold. vacating an altitude. not less than 150 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.22.4-53. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.737 feet per minute.. Airplane Flight Manual.4-52.22. B. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3.556 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-50. A. Position reports.Amber lights for the first 2. C X 12. unable to climb 500 ft/min. unable to climb 500 ft/min..140 pounds.domestic area flight information center. and flight release.1000hours C X 14. A. B. the pilot should A..A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 26.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.five meters. C.96 knots.8 minutes. B X . B. B.G.172o.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW. B.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A.A.R. C. C X 30. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.2 minutes.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.000 meters? A...90 knots. 210 knots B. B X 27. 200 knots C. A.(To be continued，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff. 170 knots B X 23.162o. C. C. C. [Refer to Figure 4-45. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A.. C.7 minutes.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. B.167o. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A. B X 24. A. B. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.infinity. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.99. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. B. C X 28. C.S.97. expected holding speed B.103. A. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A. A X 25.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.110 knots.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.. A X 29.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 22. B. it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 38. B X 39. B. For past three hours. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. A X 37.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.3.150 feet. For past three hours. B.22. During a supplemental air carrier flight.2.31.4-51.4-52.32 hours C. the air pressure have reduced 17hPa.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3.500 feet.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B X . C. B X 35.30 hours A X 36.Director of operations or flight follower.000 pounds gross weight? A.420 pounds. C. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.. C X 34.．The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A.2.556 pounds.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120.22. C. C X 33.somatogravic illusion. Lines of thunderstorms.22. the air pressure have reduced 1. A.4-53.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6. B. what should the pilot do? A. B. and 4-54.autokinesis. obscured thunderstorms C.Pilot in command.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C. B X 40. Nimbostratus.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A. If an ATC controller assigns a speed.750 feet.7hPa. C.. increase speed to the assigned speed. C.. fog and rain B. C. B.Aircraft dispatcher. [Refer to Figures 4-50.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-25. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.80 Mach? A.inversion illusion. C.836 pounds.35 hours B. B.] What is the total fuel required at . The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. Severe weather information .5 B.13. The PIC has 1.Higher than at low elevation.VIS1600m. A and B C X 50.876 hours and 298 landings. C. at their alternate aerodromes C.18. Radar vectors for traffic separation. C X 43.525 feet. B. A X 46. and altimeter settings. and vertical angle. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9. distance. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________. and vertical angle. Azimuth. B.M9000. at their destinations B.Lower than at low elevation. Which rule applies? . Guidance.22. and receipt of position reports.41. route weather advisories. [Refer to Figure 4-29.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767. and altitude B. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. A X 48. B X 42. B.000 pounds. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight. C.. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. C X 45.470 feet. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87. A.15 B X 47. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A. B. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL.MDH120m. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. C. range. B. and airplane weight? A.VIS2400m.000 pounds.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. B X 44.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140.S9000.What functions are provided by ILS? A. Azimuth..600 pounds.VIS1600m. and visual information.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m. A.700 pounds..372 feet.. C.changes in flight plans. C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A. intended route of flight. C. C.. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.The same as at low elevation. range.000 meters.MDH100m.M0900. while operating under Part 121. flaps 25o. A X 49.5 C. wind. B. with gear up. A X 53. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. B. gross weight.. B X 58.Z.. airspeed.. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. and drag.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. the pilot can control the airplane's A. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 57. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A. B. B X 55. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums.DAWANGZHUANG. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B. A X 56.contradictory data or personal conflicts.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. B. and drag.I.Outer compass locator. C.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. by means of VOR NAVIDS. C. C X 51. B. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. C. C X . pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.A. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.10hours C.Y. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. C. B X 52. B. Ambient temperature lapse rate.8hours B X 54. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. C X 59.D25 to PEK VOR/DME.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Resolve discrepancies.Inner marker. C. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.The point cleared by ATC. C. B.lift and airspeed.12hours B.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.lift.. but not drag. to a suitable airport and land.lift.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.Middle compass locator. C.By changing the angle of attack of a wing. B.Director of operations. freezing precipitation.. C.926 pounds. B. severe clear air turbulence C X 63.Same direction.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart.60. thrust increases. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. severe clear air turbulence C. B.Company meteorologist. after the conflict is resolved C X 67. B X 66. C. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu.9.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.As air density increases.As air density increases. C X 68.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600. thrust decreases. 118 NAM. C X 65. Who is responsible. and reversers at 135.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. thunderstorms B.600m and ceiling 120m.Brakes and spoilers at 120.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A. When proceeding to the alternate airport.visibility 1.Brakes. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.504 pounds. thrust increases. by regulation.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. B. B.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.. as ATS has radar contact B.000 pounds gross weight.9..Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory .Request a new ATC clearance C. which minimums apply? A. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.. rain shower. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.Brakes and reversers at 125. [Refer to Figure 4-45. Moderate turbulence.As air density decreases. A X 69. moderate icing.000 pounds gross weight.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.9. rain.490 pounds. B. C. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. C. severe icing. C. C X 64. C. spoilers. . B X 61. B.500 pounds gross weight.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A..680 pounds. B X 62. moderate icing. Moderate turbulence. C.Remains fixed for all positions.1.Aircraft dispatcher.Opposite direction.. [Refer to Figure 4-26. Severe turbulence. 1.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding.8 C. It should be reported without ATC request that A. C. C.Maintain a constant attitude.1 minute inside scanning.Maintain a constant altitude. then repeat. C.looking outside for 15 seconds. then 1 minute outside scanning. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. C.B.. B. then inside for 5 seconds. C. A X 79. B.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 77.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.400 pounds.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.Immediately after ground contact. B. B. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.-2? C.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.1. C. B.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.-4? C X 75. C X 70. A X 74. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth..2 NAV? A.Not more than 2 hours. 113 NAM. B. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C X 76.11 A X 71..1 B. then repeat.430 pounds. C. 110 NAM. If severe turbulence is encountered. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? .A and B C X 78.1? B. at an intermediate airport.More than 6 hours. C.. B X 73. A. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.Not more than 1 hour. which procedure is recommended? A. A X 72.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. 11.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B. C X 85.3 A X 88.000 pounds gross weight. [Refer to Figure 4-27. A X 83.7MHz.000 pounds gross weight.VMCG. gear down.2 C. A X 87.1Gs.1.300 pounds.2Gs..．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed.000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.240KHz.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.11. to flaps 0o.227 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-45.Use of three reversers at 113. C.1 B. C.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A.4Gs C X 82. Ground? A..114.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.9.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o.VMCA.15. B.VMC.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 86. B.754 pounds. B. [Refer to Figure 4-29. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C. A X 80.308KHz..13.A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. A X 81.000m. gear up. Headwind or tailwind increase C. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105.000 pounds gross weight. the load factor is A. C.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. B. C. C.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. B. . Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind.. B X 89.503 pounds.Use of three reversers at 115.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.11. C.500 pounds. B.. B.. B X 84. the most appropriate remedy would be A.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree .voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.300 pounds.13. B. if any. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream..F0256. C.may ultimately decide the team's actions. but not if it is "all cargo" C. knowledge. turbojet powered) is A. C. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 94.000m.Conducted IFR. if the flight will be A. A.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. but turbine temperature will be higher.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.100m.. A X 90. B.．An authoritative leader A. C. not associated with cloud formations. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.F256. What effect.3. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25.initial training. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B. C X 93. as PIC. B.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 92.12.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. should be reported as A..g. while operating under Part 121. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.transition training. A X 96. A X 91. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747.DH65m，RVR550 B X 95.600 feet. Clear air turbulence.Turbulence encountered above 15.. but seldom in other situations B. High altitude turbulence. C. and preferences. C.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings.Green yellow and white beacon light B.000 feet AGL.B. does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A. C X .upgrade training. B X 98.Thrust will remain the same. B. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e. C. convective turbulence.M256.DH65m，RVR600 C.Carrying passengers. A X 97.. 24 hours C.DK. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 3. head windshear B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. left crosswind C X 7. A.. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters. vertical windshear C X 4. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds.000 feet B.153 knots and 2. on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot).500 feet C. A.YV. B X 2.(1-1) At a waypoint . (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.．If the authority gradient is too steep.(To be continued 考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m. In northern hemisphere. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C.17 hours B. B. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.183 knots and 2.MDH120m.000 feet . C. B. reduce speed to the assigned speed. C X 1. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. C X 5. turbulence C.000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.900 feet.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute..] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.2.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. what should the pilot do? A. A.VIS1600m. C. the wind on the course is _____.99.2. it will encounter___. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.900 feet.MDH100m.VIS1600m.25 hours A X 6.138 knots and 3.3.tailwind C. A. B. C. B.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. A X 100..900 feet.WF. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed.. C.right crosswind B.VIS2400m.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.5 minutes.(according to figure 2). C. B. C. as PIC. 17 m/s B. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.DA110m. Commercial . C X 14. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.inversion illusion. C. 210 knots B. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. B. DC-3.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center.autokinesis.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC . 200 knots C..000. 150 knots B X 17.RVR550m. B.B-727. C X 16.VIS1600m B X 11.. C.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. A.．The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A. 6 m/s A X 10. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. A X 9. Airplane Flight Manual.ATP .115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.．After been in exposed to normal lighting. C X 12.somatogravic illusion.B-727 only.ATP . at ZBAA. C.B-727 and DC-3.70 percent of the actual runway available. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A... what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A. B.DC-9 and DC 3.DA93m.ATP . B.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80.1 hours C.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.. B X 15. Certificate holder's manual.30 minutes B. Commercial .VIS1600m. B X 13. for this PIC?)_DA63m. B. [Refer to Figure 4-32. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. A.000 meters? A.DC-9. and DC-9. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.C X 8. C. 8 m/s C.ATMB NOTAMs office. the max predicting wind speed is___.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25. The parcel of air resists convection.342o. C. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. B. B X 18.2 B. C X 23.4 percent.347o. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. C. TDZL. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.A.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. C. A stable layer of air.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 20.. A X .VLOF.V1. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 22. B.. to a suitable airport and land.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.77. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.352o.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.4 B X 21. C. B. 102 NAM.5 percent.1.V2.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.75. C.440 pounds. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS..Radar and RVR.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. by means of VOR NAVIDS.390 pounds. B. Air mass thunderstorms. An unstable layer of air. 92 NAM.1.79.3 percent. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A..RCLS and REIL C. and approach lights? A. B.3 C. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. As the parcel of air moves upward. A X 26. B. RCLS.. C X 24. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. and RVR.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. B X 19. B. 97 NAM. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. C.420 pounds. marker beacons. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A. Which rule applies? A.1. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. A X 25. B.HIRL.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. as the time goes on . Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.000 pounds gross weight. B X 33.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. C X 31. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A. C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 29. and reversers at 135.500 pounds gross weight.27.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3. A X 32..excessive use of carburetor heat B. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A.not change C. In summer.750 feet. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747...000 pounds gross weight. when warm air mass is unstable. C. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings.turbine inlet temperature. B.propeller thrust only. layer clouds A X 28. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B. [Refer to Figure 4-26.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.750 feet. an area of no convective turbulence C. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28.DH65m，RVR600 C.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B X 37. cumulonimbus B. C.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK.change B. .Brakes and spoilers at 120. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.2. C.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. A. the CG will A.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A. while operating under Part 121.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.. front fog C. B.may change or may not change A X 36.Brakes and reversers at 125.. the absence of clouds in the area B.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122. as PIC.Brakes. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 35. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.200 feet.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 30. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.2. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A.DH65m，RVR550 B X 34.000 pounds? A.In flight .1. spoilers.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. only pilots B.What is load factor? A.Lift divided by the total weight. then clear ice accumulates. C X 43. A X 44. navigators.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice..8 hPa A X 41. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A. B. the QNH for ZUUU is A.28 days ago..Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 47.A.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 38.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.7 days ago. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. C.998 hPa B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object...15 days ago. 90 knots C X 46.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.High RPM and high MAP.Low RPM and high MAP.What is a feature of supercooled water? A. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. C X 39.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B. Under normal operating conditions. C.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.999. 80 knots C. B. 40 knots B.pilots. B X 40.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C. but do not include flight attendants. B X 45. flight engineers and batmen.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A. C. B X 42. C.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C. C.Lift subtracted from the total weight. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe.1 NAV? .8 hPa C. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. what airspeed indication can be expected? A. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO. B.1099.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. within a microburst.High RPM and low MAP. B. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1. Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. The statement is A. B. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. .800 pounds.300 pounds.. .. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. What altitude should be used? A. or the MEA. B. B X 50. as ATC has radar contact B. B.R-345 C X 48.000 pounds. by regulation. An altitude that is at least 1. B. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.leveling off. whichever is highest. Last assigned altitude. B X 53.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110. A.pitching down. resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A. B.A. 350 knots B.Director of operations.pitching up. [Refer to Figure 4-30. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. 330 knots C.17. B.R-165 C. C. C. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. B X 55. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A.right B. 250 knots C X 52. C.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. A X 56. flaps 40o.20. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.22.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII. C.Company meteorologist. A X 49. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.R-175 B. Who is responsible.000 meters? A.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion.Aircraft dispatcher. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.000 pounds. C. with gear down. altitude ATC has advised to expect. C.wrong A X 51.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 54. B. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course.Fuel spray nozzles. C X 63. C. temperatures is -48℃ B. B X 58. temperatures is 48℃ C. B.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.13. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A. B. the wind direction. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. C. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A.. what airspeed should be maintained? A. West wind at 24 KT. 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling.Turbine inlet. West wind at 60 KT. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 64.VXSE. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so.C X 57. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. For an airport without air corridor..At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A. wind speed and temperatures is A.Compressor discharge. after advising ATC of the situation. B X 61.At least one full stop landing must be made. C. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. B X 62.40 kilometers. B.. B. Frontal fog.12.123 feet. C.12. B X 65.. B. B.097 feet. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A.50 kilometers. Northwest wind at 60 KT..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A.. B. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. Radiation fog.000 feet or less to another aircraft. (Refer to Figure 6-3.46 kilometers. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C.VMC.093 feet.. C.VYSE. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A. C. . temperatures is -48℃ A X 60. Advection fog. 500feet or less to another aircraft. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A.. B X 66. B. A X 59. C.. 1. B.. B. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR. C X 70.Dispatch Release. B X 68.VS1. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A.Lower-than-standard air density. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.12 feet. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.Z. A X 73. B. and visual information. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. pilot route certification. C X 76.Over domestic or open sea.Operating Certificate. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.26 minutes.Over domestic only. C. B.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A. 118 NAM. flight release.12 months.Y. B. 118 NAM. and vertical angle. C.. C.Over open sea. Azimuth. B. C. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. B X 74. Azimuth. The appearance of disordered low clouds . and vertical angle..C.8 feet.VSO. distance. B. B X 67. and flight plan? A. range.. 125 NAM. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A. airworthiness release.Operations Specifications. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A. C X 71. C X 75.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.VS. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.1 month.. B X 72.I. A X 69. range.10 feet. Guidance. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.Increased headwind component. C.24 minutes. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A. B.What functions are provided by ILS? A. C. C. B.3 months.. B X 77. C. C.25 minutes. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. C. B.B.500 feet. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region.1.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.2.. . B. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.Five A X 84.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered.000 feet C. during emergency C.the inner C. C. C.2.Six C. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.800 feet. B..the proprioceptive system A X 85.the eyes B.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.0600z. It begins to rain on the ground C X 78.700 feet.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.000 feet B. B X 83.. A X 81.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115.0630z. on a first-come. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm B X 79. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A.500 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-28.2.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.. first serve basis. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space.000 pounds? A.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A. B X 80. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 86. both a and b C X 82. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.0700z. visibility and low clouds B. 22. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. B X 89.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A. B X 96.4-51.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots. [Refer to Figures 4-22.22.235 B X 91. B.Of some designated point on the runway...wrong.972 pounds. A X 97. A X 93.130 knots. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 .wrong A X 95.140 pounds. The statement is A.right B.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight. occasional light chop. B.4-52. C. C. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A..78 Mach? A.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration.9.4-53.000m.556 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-50. Moderate chop.000m.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 88. C X 92.3..12.285 B. C. C.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B. C. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. and 4-54. B.right B.137 knots.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.22. Intermittent light turbulence.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B.] What is the total fuel required at . 4-23 and 4-24.B X 87.055 C. C.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.100m.124 knots.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. A X 90.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. B. The statement is A. B X 94. 500 feet.800 feet.138 knots and 3.11 B.3. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.3. C.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A..received an ATC clearance. low-red. C.2..650 meters. B.High-white. B X 1.3.250m. B.7and 11 B X 2.300 feet. A X 100.5 and 13 C.950m.050 feet. B. 210 knots B. B.123 knots and 3..3.kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2. C. 200 knots C. C. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. B X 6.climbed to the appropriate altitude. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. A X 98. 500 metres C. B X 5.000 meters? A.153 knots and 2...slowed down to the final approach IAS. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A. A X 3. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3.2. C. on glidepath-red and white. the minimum safe altitude is A. on glidepath-green. on glidepath-green.050 feet.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. 170 knots . low-red.High-white..000 feet B.050 feet.000 pounds? A. C.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B X 99. 50 metres B. B. 150 metres C X 4. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A.received an ATC clearance. low-red.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.climbed to the appropriate altitude.High-white and green. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.050m.300 feet.000 feet C.1. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28. A. B. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed.B X 7.Five C.g..VMC.the inner C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL.the eyes B.the sender and the receiver's skill. and cargo weight. A and B C X .D0.1. attitudes.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space. some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. IFR.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? .What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.Above PEK VOR.VMCG. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A. and the workload B X 10. [Refer to Figure 4-34.the sender's knowledge.460 pounds.the proprioceptive system A X 13.Type of operation (e.2. at their alternate aerodromes C. B. and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.625 pounds. personality. .2 PEK. C. C X 16. B X 8. company organization name. These conditions include A..HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. VFR).000..ENGINES OPERATING: 2.3 PEK. if still IMC? A.Passenger manifest.ALTITUDE: 35.wind speed B. A X 12. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________.055 C. C..1. C.285 B. Which information must be contained in.．In a communication process. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. knowledge. at their destinations B. Ground? A.. attitudes.D0. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.the sender's skill. trip number.air pressure B X 11. B.950 pounds. C.Three A X 15. B X 14. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.air temperature C. knowledge. B.VMCA.235 B X 9. and the social culture system C. or attached to.Seven B. 3000 metres A X 19.2.. C. B X . C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 25.Use of three reversers at 124.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A. 300 metres B. C..Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. B.17.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A. B. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. C.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4..Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A. A X 24. B. [Refer to Figure 4-27.Use of three reversers at 120. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude.03 EPR.2.000 pounds gross weight. the accuracy of the GPS derived A.2. C X 18.200 feet.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 26.01 EPR.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.An increase in breathing rate C.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 23. Position is not affected C.loss of the vertical component of lift B. A. B.000 pounds gross weight. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1. A X 21.DH 100 feet and RVR 1.500 feet.increased visual field B.04 EPR. B.An alternate airport is required.200 feet.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.500 pounds gross weight.800m.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. C.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 20. B. B. 900 metres C. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.. B X 22.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. C.reached the cruising IAS.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.097 feet. C X 29. an initial lifting force.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.12. B X 28. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 30. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. A X 36.entered VFR weather conditions.. and preferences.. C X 34.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.800 feet.may ultimately decide the team's actions. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. C.received an ATC clearance. B.27. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. .VYSE. B. B. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.12. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 33.13. knowledge. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 37.．In a decision-making process . B.2.One C. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. [Refer to Figure 4-28. an unstable lapse rate.Two B.International Notices To Airmen A X 35..What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A.000 pounds? A. and sufficient water vapor. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.. (Refer to Figure 6-3. C. C.VXSE..Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.500 feet.700 feet.123 feet. B X 31. B. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling. C. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B..VMC. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.093 feet.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115..Zero B X 32.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.Area with strong cold advection B.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. C. B. what airspeed should be maintained? A. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. a participatory leader A. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B. 000 feet to the end of the runway B X 42.6 months. A X 47. pitch.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . B.Immediately prior to touchdown.. B. B.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations. C. Altitude. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.000 feet.30 days.Plus or minus 6 B.After applying maximum wheel braking.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.Plus 6 or minus 4 C. A.both A and B C X 43.Alternate red and white lights from3. C. A. pitch.000 feet.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.fatigue C. B.000 feet to 1.from east to west B.from west to east C.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. and load manifests for at least A. and indicated airspeed decrease.Dispatch Release.. A X 46.3 months. then alternate red and white lights to the end B.12 hours.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. C X 41. A X 40. dispatch releases.24 hours. B. then red lights to the end C.Operating Certificate. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. the maximum bearing error permissible is A.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .Alternate red and white lights from 3.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1.. C. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.smoking and alcohol B.8 hours.Operations Specifications.Plus or minus4? A X . Altitude increase. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans.B X 38.Immediately after ground contact.. C X 45. C.from north to south A X 44. Altitude. and indicated airspeed increase.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A. C. A X 39. It means frequency 122.Brakes and reversers at 115.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. C.000 pounds gross weight.. C..The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B.-Lift at low speeds. [Refer to Figure 4-25.As altitude increases.500 lb.. B.. three-engine.behind a stationary front B X 52..150 feet.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.Turbulence encountered above 15. A X 49. thrust increases.750 feet. and approach must be VFR. C. B.As altitude increases. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.500 feet. C X 50. B.. . C. convective turbulence.3. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A..000 pounds gross weight? A.2.It means 122. and reversers at 125.-Drag and reduce airspeed. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large.000 pounds gross weight.-L/Dmax.Zero fuel weight: 125. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 56. spoilers. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt.20 is very important. High altitude turbulence.500 lb A.The existing and forecast weather for departure.. what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122. should be reported as A. C. C.20? A. en route. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6. [Refer to Figure 4-37. B. C X 54. B.2.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. not associated with cloud formations.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120. C. B X 57. C..] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. B. C. C X 53.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.14 minutes.ahead of a cold front C.000 feet AGL.Brakes and spoilers at 120. B X 55.000 pounds gross weight.in an occluded front B. Clear air turbulence. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle. thrust decreases. B X 51.48. thrust decreases.16 minutes.Brakes.17 minutes.As altitude decreases.20 MHz is the major communication frequency.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. A X 58.. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. B X 59.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 60.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.1,490 pounds, 118 NAM. B.1,400 pounds, 110 NAM. C.1,430 pounds, 113 NAM. C X 61.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 62.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots B X 63.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 64.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 65.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 66.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 67. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 68.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 69. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 70..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 71.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 72.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted. B. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position. C. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. C X 73.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 74.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 75. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B X 76.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 77.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 78..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 79.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 80.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 81.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 82.. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time. C.1230 Beijing Time. C X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 84.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 85.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z B X 86.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the VHF communication frequency? A.122.20MHz. B.3016MHz. C.8897MHz. A X 87. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. B X 88. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 89.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 90.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 92.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 93.．The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. B X 95.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 96.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 97.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. C.One light projector with two colors; red and white. B X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 99. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A.Airplane Flight Manual B.International Flight Information Manual C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 100.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Same direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. C X ATPL-680 Questions A.680 questions 1..Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A.Heavy,slow,gear and flaps up. B.Heavy,slow,gear and flaps down. C.Heavy,fast,gear and flaps down. A X 2..In a decision-making process,a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources. C.may ultimately decide the team's actions,but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience,knowledge,and preferences. A X 3..The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 4..Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold. B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body. C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low. C X 5..(According to Figure 4) At Shanghai,which description is correct A.The visibility is 800 meters,the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B.The visibility is 8 kilometers,the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C.The visibility is 8 kilometers,the sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa, C X 6.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 7..A plane,MH 160°,receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 8..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 9..A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. B X 10..Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that isscheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 11..If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight,who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.The second in command only. B.Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C.Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 12..(Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1,the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa A X 13..Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind. B. A clear sky, little or no wind,and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 14..If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia,the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 15..For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 16.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 17.. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. C X 18.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(接正文 encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 19.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. A X 20.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .80 Mach? A.22,836 pounds. B.22,420 pounds. C.22,556 pounds. B X 21.. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Takeoff decision speed. B.Takeoff safety speed. C.Minimum takeoff speed. B X 22.. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3℃ per 1,000 feet. B. 2℃ per 1,000 feet. C. 4℃ per 1,000 feet. A X 23. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. B X 24.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138. A X 25.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 26..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 27.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? A.Radar and RVR. B.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. C X 28.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 29.. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________. A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B C X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 31..(according to figure 2), the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time A X 32. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 33.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south A X 34.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 35. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 36.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 37. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 38. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 39.. [Refer to Figures 4-46, 4-47 and 4-48.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.2 hours 12 minutes. B.2 hours 15 minutes. C.2 hours 18 minutes. A X 40.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 41.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 42.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 43..Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 44.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 45.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. C.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 47.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting B X 48.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 49.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. C X 50.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 51.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 52.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 53.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. C X 54.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 55.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 56.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 57. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.1945Z. B.1915Z. C.1845Z. B X 58.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots C X 59.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight? A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B X 60.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. C X 61. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.6 calendar months. B.12 calendar months. C.24 calendar months. C X 62.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. B X 63.Holding position signs have A.White inscriptions on a red background B.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 64.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(续正文， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 65..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 66.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 67..During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature B X 68.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 69.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 70.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. B.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 71. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 72..If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 73.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 74.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115,000 pounds? A.500 feet. B.800 feet. C.2,700 feet. B X 75.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(续正文，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 76. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 77.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 78..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 79. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 80.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities, which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B.An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway, which is able to support the airplane, for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 81. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B737-300), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Upgrade training. B.Recurrent training. C.Initial training. A X 82.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 83.. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU. B.VMD. C.VFC. A X 84.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 85.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.9and6 B.9 only C.6 only A X 86.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight? A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. A X 87..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 88.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. A X 89.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B X 90.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 91..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 93.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 95.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density decreases, thrust increases. B.As air density increases, thrust increases. C.As air density increases, thrust decreases. B X 96. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 97. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 98.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 99.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries pitch down. A X 100.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. C X 101..Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.(续正文，efficient flight operation. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 102.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 103.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 104.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 105.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B. Original dispatch release. C. Certificate holder's manual. C X 106.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ,ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.221 knots and 1.83 EPR. B.210 knots and 1.69 EPR. C.217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B X 107.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 108..When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris A X 109..When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight, or vice versa. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. B X 110.．Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B C X 111.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1,500 feet short of the end of a 4,950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.119,000 pounds. B.136,000 pounds. C.139,000 pounds. C X 112. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 113..Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200°or NW B. 315°or NW C. 135°or SE B X 114..What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. C.Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 115..Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 116Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 117.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 118..Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month, under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C X 119..[Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77.5 percent. B.75.3 percent. C.79.4 percent. B X 120..An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. B X 121.．What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 122..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 123..Radiation fog usually appears in . A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. B X 124..What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 125..An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A.(续正文，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 126..What is load factor? A.Lift multiplied by the total weight. B.Lift subtracted from the total weight. C.Lift divided by the total weight. C X 127..What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 128..With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 129..what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.supersonic mach number B.transonic mach number C.critical mach number C X 130..Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Increase the camber of the wing. B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. A X 131..During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 132..The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 133..The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 134..What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 135..In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 136..A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C X 137..[Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .78 Mach? A.1 hours 08 minutes. B.1 hours 02 minutes. C.1 hours 05 minutes. A X 138..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 139..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 140..Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.(续正文，drastic mood swings at one time.. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 141..(according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, visibility 4 km. B. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec, light rain shower, visibility 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, visibility 4000 m B X 142..If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B X 143..(According to figure 6) At point B, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52℃ B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52℃ C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52℃ C X 144..What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C X 145..Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 146..At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. B X 147..What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C X 148..Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 149..Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. B X 150..[Refer to Figures 4-49, 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the ETE at .80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 04 minutes. C.1 hours 07 minutes. C X 151..(According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 152..When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 153..The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.any required pilot crewmember. B.any flight crewmember. C.flight engineer or navigator. C X 154..(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B.15 C.17 C X 155..(Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.285 B.055 C.235 B X 156..What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 157..[Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 158..When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 762 feet. from left crosswind to right crosswind.1. A X 160..Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere.755 feet.870 feet. the wind direction usually changes.. C. C. B. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.. B. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. C.1. C.. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 164. A X 168.45 minutes. C.2. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only.. A X 166.159. B.DISTANCE (NM): 120. C.000.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.WIND COMPONENT: 20HW.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. C X 162..The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.30 minutes.(Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.29 minutes.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts.000. B X 165. C. B X 161.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. B X 167.An increase in dynamic stability. B.[Refer to Figure 4-34. B. A X 163. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.ALTITUDE: 35.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.460 pounds. B. what height above the airport could it descend to? A.[Refer to Figure 4-41.What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A. back to the departure airport.. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control..] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? . B..] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. A.The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.625 pounds. .A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. from headwind to tailwind.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. C..be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. C.950 pounds. B. C. B. B. C. A.. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B.Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C. C.. B. the air cyclone circumfluence is A.Critical engine failure speed.G.. C X 178.The blind spot is A.000 pounds gross weight. plus 10 percent.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane. spoilers. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.Do not accept the clearance.In northern sphere. B X 174. downward and clockwise B.[Refer to Figure 4-25.The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. C. upward and clockwise C.Brakes and reversers at 115.1.Negative longitudinal static stability B. C..Rotation speed.S.Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A..244 feet.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.Accelerate-stop distance. B. upward and counterclockwise C X .-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 172.. A X 173. The fuel required to fly to the alternate... in any calendar month. C. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. A X 176. inward.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.1.(Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A. B X 170.N.80hours B.000 pounds gross weight. A X 175.Request a clarification from the ATC.Brakes.Brakes and spoilers at 125.Read the clearance back entirely. outward. B.900 feet.100hours B X 171. C X 177.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light..C X 169.90 hours C.496 feet.. for no more than A. B. outward. and reversers at 130.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. for a given runway? A. C.000 pounds gross weight. B X 182.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.000. C X 184. B X 180. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.[Refer to Figure 4-34.tailwind C.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. B. B.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. B. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.To protect science tests only. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122. C X 186. C. C.20 is very important.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C. left crosswind C X 181.20? A.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters....5.(Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt.All recorded information may be erased. .What is the purpose of a control tab? A. C.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight. C.3.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.. A X 187.To protect military activities only.It means frequency 122.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. B.In VFR conditions C.240 pounds. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle.All recorded information may be erased. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. B.In northern hemisphere.. A X 183.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. the wind on the course is _____.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.179. C...which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A..3.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts.What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.right crosswind B. B X 185.It means 122.In day VFR conditions C X 188.. A. 1.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. an airplane may be dispatched only A.000 feet or less to another aircraft. C.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A..625 pounds. .D0. B X 189.FL 600m.1. B.What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.(Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3).An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. .Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag.Maximum endurance.An alternate airport is required.Four B. C X 194.000 pounds gross weight? A..An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers.FL 6.Two B X 191. B.Same direction.. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C.2 PEK. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. continue taxiing in the landing direction. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. C.Above PEK VOR. if still IMC? A.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.000m.300m.Best angle of climb. B... B.FL 6. A X 198. A.. C. C..Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.(Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL. B.[Refer to Figure 4-25.980 pounds.000 feet. B. C.D0.. C. A X 195. C. B. B X 196.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A. A X 193.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.800m. C X 192. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B.500 feet.. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.3 PEK.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.Three C.C. C X 190. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway..Maximum range and distance glide.The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.300 feet.Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 197.2. B.. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. A X 204. C. Altocumulus B.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A.-Increase the camber of the wing.30days A X 200. B.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept...One C. cold front. Stratocumulus B X 208.Two B. C. B. C.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.Zero B X 201.. B X 205. B.Opposite direction.150 feet. C.The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is.Dutch roll C X 203.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.2...What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.. warm front.Lower than at low temperature.750 feet. C. no. and airport elevation? A. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A. in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.90days C.2. A X .Remains fixed for all positions A X 199.Porpoise.500 feet.. Cumulonimbus C. C. yes. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.000 pounds gross weight? A.60days B. B.Wingover. no.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation. A X 202. C.[Refer to Figure 4-25.. C.B..The same as at low temperature. stationary front. B X 207.3.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. A. wind. B X 206. B.Higher than at low temperature. B. Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.A and B C X 215..is not required to have a medical certificate.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. B. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. A X 216.What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A. B X 218.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A..Stop way. A X 210.9 NM point is indicated? A.What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A. B. dim lights.. and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator. A X 217.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. C.(Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.. B. B X 214.209.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 213. B. the applicant is A.White inscriptions on a black background C. B. ..Strong vibrations and loud roar. a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. B.any flight crewmember.When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate.Airport information signs.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.Clearway. used to provide destination or information. This illusion is known as A.RVR 1. B X 212. C. B. B.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. have A.ground lighting illusion.. C.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.any required pilot crewmember.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.600m and DH 120m..somatogravic illusion. C.The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.. B.In the dark.RVR 800m and DH 60m.RVR 550m and DH 60m..Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.the pilot in command only. B X 211..430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. C.Look only at far away. C.Obstruction clearance plane.If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. C X 225.. B. occasional light chop.Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.(Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines. A X 221.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A. thrust decreases.12 months.. airworthiness release. Moderate chop..International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C. Strong wind...the leans. C. C. thrust increases. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A. Intermittent light turbulence. Severe mountain wave.RVR 250m.ATMB NOTAMs office. volcanic ash B.Coriolis illusion. B X 220.While in IFR conditions. B X 227.RVR 400m. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. an abrupt head movement A. C X 219. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. embedded thunderstorms with hail C.1 month. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. pilot route certification.While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller.How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.As altitude decreases. thrust decreases. C.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.autokinesis.What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. C X 222. C. isolated cumulonimbus C X 224. Fog. flight release. B.When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi. B X 226. B.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight. C. which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. Which route should be flown in the absence A. B... . one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. This is known as )autokinesis. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. B.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. The route filed in the flight plan. C. C X 228. B. A X 223. B.C.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. and flight plan? A.As altitude increases.RVR 300m...(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. C.3 months.As altitude increases. HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. B..1.223 knots and 2. B..(Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o.83 EPR.364 feet/minute. dispatch. 4-23 and 4-24.B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A. C X 235.95 MHZ C.FL138. C X 232. B. B X 233.000 pounds gross weight. C X 231.320 feet/minute. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.10 MHZ B.221 knots and 1.108.1.Use of three reversers at 131. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A...108..10 to 111.000 pounds gross weight. when exit the runway..000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 133. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.000..900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. B. C. ATC..Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 238.A and B C X 229.217 knots and 1. B. C.How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. C.[Refer to Figures 4-22. C.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. etC． C.400 feet/minute. C X 230.130 knots. B.FL158.(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D.95 EPR. C X 237.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. maintenance.01 EPR. C. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.95 MHZ.1. C. .[Refer to Figure 4-34.108. B X 236.WEIGHT (*1000): 100.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A..10 to 118. B X 234. C.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.124 knots.Green yellow and white beacon light B.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height..FL128.137 knots. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.[Refer to Figure 4-27.10 to 117.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. a good leader should not A.DME C X 244. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. reduce angle of attack.. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. A.525 feet.300 feet.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B. C X 247. and reduce airspeed. and amber.One light projector with three colors. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.500 feet. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. C..While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace.Three glide slopes.One engine..What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A. reduce airspeed.shear line A X 245. A X 243.Reduce fuel flow.4. B. Vacating an altitude. B X 241.What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A. unable to climb 500 ft/min. A X 242. vacating an altitude.low pressure center C.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. 250 knots C. and increase angle of attack. vacating an altitude. 150 knots B. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.[Refer to Figure 4-26.Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. B. unable to climb 500 ft/min..involve the team in most decision making processes. red. each a different color. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.A X 239. C.front B.470 feet. B.Advance throttle. green.4...Reduce throttle.000 feet.(Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL. unable to climb 500 ft/min.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. green. B. green.000 pounds gross weight? A.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. red. and amber. and increase airspeed.. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C. C.4. C. on a multiengine aircraft B.372 feet.Airborne radar C. B.On the weather chart of ground. C.Three light bar. the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. lower angle of attack. 330 knots A X .000 meters.. A X 246. Position reports. Position reports.During the flight. and amber. A X 240. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. . C. SIGMETS.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A. clear ice.Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. C X 255. it will encounter___.Request a new ATC clearance C. head windshear B.the inner C. as ATS has radar contact B. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory .The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . PIREPS. PIREP'S and AIRMETS.248.the proprioceptive system A X 256.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A. A.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A. A X 251.. B. C. A.32 hours C.12hours B.10hours C.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.30 hours A X 257. B. vertical windshear C X 252. C.24 hours. turbulence C.12 hours. embedded thunderstorms C X 250. and adverse conditions. B X 249. B.person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A..SIGMETS.35 hours B.8 hours.Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A.. A X 254. clear air turbulence C. AWW's...If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds. Frost ice..8hours B X ..the absorption of ground radiation by the air.the eyes B.METARS..Convective SIGMETS.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. NOTAM'S. Rime ice. after the conflict is resolved C X 253.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.In sensing the orientation of the body in space. freezing rain B.. and AIRMETS.SPECIS. B. B X 267.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.500 feet.000 pounds gross weight? A.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. B. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.800 feet per minute. B.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A.760 feet per minute. B X 262.200 feet.. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 266. C X 261.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A..(Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.750 feet. C X 263.What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118..12 hours A X 264.12 C.8 hours B. B.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter... Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.4.4.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A..4.Area where the sea and the land meet C...258..Apply full main wheel braking only. B X 260.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. C. C.D38 to HUAIROU.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 265.. C X 268.11 C X 259.780 feet per minute.4 B. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.Area with strong cold advection B. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing . C. C.10 hours C. B.HUAILAI.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A. what was the approximate rate of descent? A.(Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.[Refer to Figure 4-25. C."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A. Over open sea.Zero fuel weight: 125.How are smoke cleared or dispersed? . Using high power settings.-Severe porpoising B X 277.15 minutes.123. but seldom in other situations B. B. B X 273..0MHz C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C.[Refer to Figure 4-37..Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A. and preferences. B. B.122.Rate of turn B. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.Over domestic or open sea.13 minutes. A X 271.. B.Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A.1MHz B..] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144. B X 278. C. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience..A severe moment or "tuck under" C.122. knowledge.True airspeed B X 276.500 lb A. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A. A X 270.B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. B X 274.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C..500 pounds? Initial weight: 180.Angle of bank C..500 lb. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. C.Below FL180.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.6MHz B X 272.may ultimately decide the team's actions.16 minutes. C.tends to make final decisions in an emergency. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.Over domestic only. Developing lift... C.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 269. B. Operating at high airspeeds.An authoritative leader A. B X 275. . A. 4-47 and 4-48. . Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C. C.(Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.. C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 280. A X 282. C. A X 281. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. B X 287.1.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.By convective mixing in cool night air.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. B.. C.In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm.weather reports and forecasts.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion..987 pounds.[Refer to Figures 4-46. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B X 284.In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 285.1. B.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments..counter clockwise outbound wind C.2 C. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.1 B.What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. B.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. clockwise inbound wind B.The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 286.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B. B. the wind of low pressure area is.(Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. C. B. moist air.A.A runway Boundary Sign C.224 pounds.. A X 279.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.454 pounds.By wind or the movement of air.names of all crewmembers.3 A X 283.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. B.. B...Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.2. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A. A worm front and mountain waves .10000 feet C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. which weather system we would encounter A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.3. C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 291.For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. This effect begins at about A..Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.2.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.C.. A X 296. B X 295.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate. B.During a supplemental air carrier flight. C.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making.Aircraft dispatcher.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision.A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.Airport flight information office.000 meters. B X 294.17 hours B..24 hours C.certificate holder's operations specifications. by the applicant.Area flight information center. B X 288. B..5000 feet B.600m.minimum fuel supply.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.trip number and weight and balance data. B X 289.What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C. C.(Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. B.8000 feet A X 293.. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.3000m.Director of operations or flight follower. B.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.800m.. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.Pilot in command. C X 290. B. It refer to A.. A X 292.. on a four-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot). if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.25 hours A X 297. C.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. C...ATMB NOTAMs office. 95 knots.000 pounds.74. B. C. how much is the intercept heading? A.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth..HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW.A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance.Passenger manifest.Only one INDS is required to be operative. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 298. to proceed direct to the regular airport.100 knots.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.233o. C.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.. B.[Refer to Figure 4-41.DISTANCE (NM): 70. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A..g.B. C.400 pounds. C. A. company organization name. B. C X 303.Type of operation (e.The minimum speed during takeoff. C.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable. VFR)..Read the clearance back entirely.143o.73. following a failure of the critical engine at VEF. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A. C X 304.53o. IFR.Do not accept the clearance.Which information must be contained in. B. C.180 pounds.90 knots. C. B. A X 300.At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A. .(Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around..000.. trip number.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.74.. A cold front and moderate icing C. B X 305.VLOF. the pilot should A.. C. due to winds.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. or attached to. B.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B.V1.. A X 299. is indicated by symbol A.. C X 301. A X 302. and cargo weight.If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation. B.V2min . B X 306. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. receive this ATC clearance: ". B.".What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A..A lower angle of attack.WEIGHT (*1000): 92.What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. B.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A. any aisle in the passenger compartment. B. upward. and around the wingtip. any exit. Inward.A plane.. or use of... or use of. C X 312.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30. C. B X 309. C. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. C. B X 310.1.Remains fixed for all positions. MH 240°.. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A...having the aircraft catered (foods. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. B. beverages..(Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. A X 314. C. B X 315.Direct only C.000. Outward.A higher angle of attack. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. upward... C X 307.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. or supplies).VOR/DME FIX B.Compass locator C X 313. and around the wingtip. Rain and fog C.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 308.440 pounds..732 pounds.5. B X 311.. if one of the two VOR receivers fails.While flying IFR in controlled airspace. B. C.Surveillance radar C.Parallel only A X . C.The same angle of attack.Teardrop only B.1. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.[Refer to Figure 4-34.023 pounds..Opposite direction.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. C. Advise ATC immediately. B.Some direction. Alternate red and white lights from 3.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline...To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence..Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.000 feet to the end of the runway B X 322.[Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. after the flight is completed. and landing.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C..000 meters. and approach must be VFR..pilots.outward and forward B X 318. 125 NAM.25 minutes. C. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. navigators.000 feet. takeoff. then alternate red and white lights to the end B. C X 319.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. B. within 10 days after the deviation. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. after returning home. C.If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums. flight engineers and batmen..The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. 118 NAM. en route.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. the pilot should submit a written report A. C X 324.only pilots B. B.. B X 317.. three-engine. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.inward and aft B.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.23 minutes. and landing. C. B.Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large.. then red lights to the end C. B.When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency. C X 320. climb and descent when below 3. taxi. climb and descent when below 3. takeoff.316.000 meters.What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A.000 feet. but do not include flight attendants. . pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. C X 321. B.000 feet to 1.The existing and forecast weather for departure.inward and forward C. A X 323.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A. C. C.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1.Alternate red and white lights from3.24 minutes.Some passengers may be carried. C. 109 NAM. Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.". HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. the accuracy of the GPS derived A..Direct only C..RVR550m. B X 332.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. Position is not affected C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 330. A.Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A.. C.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway ... Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 327.A X 325. These lines are A. B. The appearance of disordered low clouds B..Airspeed.Angle of attack.(续正文，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. MH 300°.Teardrop only B. The statement is )right B. lifesaving decision and carry it out following A. It begins to rain on the ground C X 333. C.(Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90.VIS800m.DH200'.If the authority gradient is too steep.Altitude.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased.Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C X 331. B.DH20'..Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C. receive this ATC clearance: ". The appearance of anvil clouds top C.Parallel only C X 329. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 334.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational.VIS1600m.. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. B. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude.Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A..Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. C.DH300'..A plane..wrong A X 326... What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 328.Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A. 100 feet. rain and broken clouds B X 344. B. dowdraft B X 336. B. pilot in command. Commercial . East windat 4 m/s.Inner marker.ATP . C X 337.400 feet.870 feet.plume B.000 pounds? A. B. C X 341.ATP .. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.. B.FL 8.100 feet.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. A. B X 340. A X 339.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 342.The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.B-727 only. C.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134. This phenomenon is referred to as . C. air carrier's chief pilot.FL 10..Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.The first holding pattern level...400 feet.600m AGL.B-727 and DC-3. West wind at 4 m/s.755 feet.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.DC-9 and DC 3. C. Scattered clouds. C. B.B. .There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground...[Refer to Figure 4-27..950 feet. Commercial .DC-9.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B. and DC-9. visibility 5000m and fog B.Middle compass locator.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___.(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 39. B. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. DC-3. C. C.ATP .762 feet.(Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.. B. C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 335.B-727.A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.virga C.350 feet.1. mist and broken clouds C..Final approach fix. certificate holder. A.Outer compass locator. B X 343. C X 338.The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. VMO/MMO.050m. twinengine airplane represent? A. at cruising speed.650 meters. B. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. C..000 feet.Over domestic or open sea.. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B.Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.Over domestic only.3. B. B. B.VLE.If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots. A X 347.500 feet over the airport.. an initial lifting force. A X 349.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.000 feet to 25.2.Z. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 354.The tropopause to 45. 30 minutes.000 feet B X 350. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate..Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. C. the minimum safe altitude is A. C.. at 1.. A X 352.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect.3. 30 minutes at holding speed.VLO/MLO. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2. B.Y.10. B.Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A. an unstable lapse rate. A X 348.If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR...250m.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A. C.000 feet to the tropopause.Over open sea.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.C X 345. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C X 353.500 feet.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.25. C. C. C. C. A X 351.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. especially as altitude increases. .What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light. over the airport. C. B. at 1. flashlight in good working order..The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. key to the flight deck door. C. A X 346. B.I.. and sufficient water vapor.950m. certificate holder's manual. An area. C.Does not cause illusions. B. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.(Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. the certificate holder must submit a report. if any.[Refer to Figure 4-26.. C. B X 359.What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.Higher than actual. FL 250. B.16.. to the Administrator within A. not as wide as the runway..300 feet.involve the team in most decision making processes C.. C X 356. C X 361.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.245 feet. B.100 feet.16.262 feet. C X 358..Lower than actual. the altitude of LOM is 1.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C. B.1. concerning the incident.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.In flight.Copy of the flight plan.. C..The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration.. .Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B X 364. C. C X 362..A and B C X 363. hypoxia. B.What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.What illusion. C. B X 357.(Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.Cargo and passenger distribution information. C.5NM from ILG.1. FL 200.An area.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. B.1.750 feet.360 feet. 10 days.5KM from ILG. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. C X 360. a good leader should A. at least the same width as the runway.If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. can rain on the windscreen create? A. FL 180. B. C. 24 hours. B. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. B.. 5 days.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.000 pounds? A.C X 355.360 feet.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135. A X 371.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. gear down.500 pounds.MDH120m..VS1.. B X 365.C. and altitude B.By signals fro.300 pounds. route weather advisories. B.". A.Exhaust gas temperature.Parallel only B X 366. C..[Refer to Figure 4-29. and an input of wind and variation data. Severe weather information .] What is the change of total drag for a 140.876 hours and 298 landings.VIS1600m..What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. and altimeter settings.. B.VSO. while operating under Part 121. and receipt of position reports.5SM from ILG.Improves B.(1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.VIS1600m.16.MDH100m. to flaps 0o. intended route of flight.11.From information by compass. B..In small airplanes. normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A. The PIC has 1..VIS2400m. B. C X 367.10.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767..dose not change A X 374. B X 372.changes in flight plans.. gear up.Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..As the CG is moved forward. C.. Radar vectors for traffic separation.Decrease C. B X 368. C.Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.A plane.400 pounds.Manifold pressure. LEFT TURNS.9. C. at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A. MH 300°.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis.Teardrop only B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG..At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? . receive this ATC clearance: ". B.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.Direct only C. self-contained gyros and accelerometers. B. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight.RPM. C X 369. B X 373.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. C.. airspeed.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o. C X 370. C.VS.. the stability A. 9. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. the flight must be able to A.75 to 1. flaps 30o.800 pounds.. B X 380.during the entire flight.11.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.[Refer to Figure 4-30.. and never in climbs or descents B X 377.From. mountain waves.11. C.(Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A. C X 383.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.7KM from PEK. is A.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.11...Compensate for increase in drag A X 381. C.From.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. Thunderstorm.7SM from PEK.The fuel reserve required.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. B. C. Rain shower. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified.1. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A.7NM from PEK.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.200 pounds.Below.17... B X 378. B.Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.75 Mach.. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.000 pounds.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails. C.When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. B.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B. C.. B.000 pounds.when the flight arrives.20 to 2. Mach.5.20 Mach. C. moderate clear air turbulence . C X 379. B.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C. B. A X 375.A. A X 382. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.(Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. with gear down.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release. A X 376.. B.11. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D. The statement is A.. "good". C.. as soon as practicable.114. B.900 feet. There are altostratus..(Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B.514MHz. stratocumulus. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.B.6MHz. B X 392. stratocumulus. There are altocumulus . Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 386.What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. Strong wind with sand storm C. mountain waves.(According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. C.right B. B.. C.. A cold front and a upper jet B. stratus . A X 388. C X 390.(According to figure 4) at Lanzhou.The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. A X 385. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. "fair". the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. to the A. freezing precipitation... which weather system we would encounter A.(Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. A worm front and a upper jet C. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 389. C..244 feet. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. nearest CAAC district office. operations manager (or director of operations). only use "good". C. severe icing B X 384. in the interest of safety. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 393. B.496 feet. ATC and dispatcher. There are cirrostratus . A X 391. "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.1. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C.7MHz.(Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. B.. freezing precipitation. Smoke with overcast B. Rainfall.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A.. B.If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight. B X 387. mountain waves. B. "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. the pilot in command must report it. severe clear air turbulence C.wrong.1. which description is correct A. "fair". A X . except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC.113. Rain shower.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. An abrupt change in relative wind.. whichever is later. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. A X 388. which operational requirement must be observed? A.(Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o.Sudden decrease in load factor. and approach must be VFR.When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. B... B.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.The existing and forecast weather for departure.Wet runway using brakes.. plus or minus 3minutes. B.5. . Temperature inversion. C. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA.. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 396. B..After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route. C. en route.[Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26. B. Surface radiation.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. B X 391. C.394. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time. what is the corresponding rate of descent? A. Land at the nearest airport. A X 387. what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A.5.8%. what action is required? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers.. C. C.4.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132. B. spoilers and reversers. B X 390. C.500 pounds? A.When advection fog has developed.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.2%. including military what has a crash an rescue unit.5%.How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A. Notify ATC immediately. B X 392. C. A X 389. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 395.What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Wind stronger than 15 konts. B..A decrease in angle of attack. Squawk 7600.. . which of the following applies? A.Two A X 396. C X 394.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. key to the flight deck door. B X 395.If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z..2015Z...When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. B. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. B. first serve basis. C X . because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety. B X 398. B.. and experiences a delay. C.Limiting compressor speed. flashlight in good working order..Five B. C.Limiting torque.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. B..What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Four C.1945Z.The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.. B..When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft. C..3Gs. C. B. C.Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. C X 400.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A. C. B X 402. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.. both a and b C X 397.International Aeronautical Information Manual C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation.2Gs.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. during emergency C. on a first-come. certificate holder's manual. to check the performance of the aircraft.International Notices To Airmen A X 401. B.9Gs B X 399. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. C. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.A X 393.0045Z. B. B.. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. C X 405.In average.a third-class medical certificate.a second-class medical certificate.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200.MDH120m.. Poor visibility.VIS2400m.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.28. B X 409. B. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. A X 406. C. the temperature of the air will .increase profile drag.. A X 412.decrease rate of sink.. C.VIS1600m.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots. Cold temperatures.403.3 minutes C.40 seconds B.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A.VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m.000 pounds.prevent flow separation. C X 408.What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A.jet thrust only..34.000 feet increase in the troposphere.000 pounds.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30.600 pounds. Convection currents at the surface.. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C.32.. C.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A. A X 410. descend 4℃ A X 407. for every 1.propeller thrust only. descend 2℃ B. B... C X .[Refer to Figure 4-43.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 404. C.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.descend 3℃ C.PIC time 94 hours. A X 411. B. C.What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport. A. B. C.a first-class medical certificate. C.VIS1600m.000. B. A.MDH100m..shaft horsepower and jet thrust. Six C.. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. ability. the altimeter should set on ..25 seconds B. B.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A. Nimbostratus. B X 419. fog and rain B.a too shallow authority gradient B.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.the standard air pressure of the local station C. Lines of thunderstorms.413. In a flight crew. C X 421. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. red. C.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.Row of four lights parallel to the runway. C X 418.One light projector with two colors.a steep authority gradient C. This situation could be described as A.000 feet is closest to A.the caption's power. B."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. obscured thunderstorms C. white. A.The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. A. red and white.don't read small print within one hour of flying.15 seconds C.138 knots and 3.the caption's power.the caption's power. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.[Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29. B...Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A.avoid using contact lenses B X 417. C. ability.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.35 seconds B X 415.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 420. C..Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway. . B.Five A X 422.900 feet... and green..000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.Seven B..the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 416. ability.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow).In the (AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3). which would help to enhance night vision? A. an apt arranging is A.a participatory leader A X 414. red and white.. C. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. B X 431.000 meters.RVR 700 feet. but not if it is "all cargo" C.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch.000 feet C.Conducted IFR..foreign international NOTAMs office.Carrying passengers.120 days after issue or renewal. except when in cruise flight.(Refer to Figure 6) At point A.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.entering instrument meteorology conditions.. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 430.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals. B... are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A..000 meters.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.domestic area flight information center. C.domestic airport flight information office..900 feet.. B.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B. West wind at 24 KT. C.4 B X 428. if the flight will be A. B X 423. C.Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.3 C. C.DH 50 feet and RVR 1. A X 425.183 knots and 2.RVR 1.A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. wind speed and temperatures is A.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.entering approach controlled airspace.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B. B.900 feet. West wind at 60 KT.2 B.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A. C. B.200 feet. 3. A X 429. ..(Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A. C X 427. temperatures is 48℃ C.Below that altitude. Northwest wind at 60 KT. the wind direction.153 knots and 2. A X 424.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A. C. 6.When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A..B. 3. B. temperatures is -48℃ A X 426.600 meters. temperatures is -48℃ B. The critical Mach number will increase significantly.-Negative dynamic stability A X 433. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. B X 438.-Negative static stability B..What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A..193 feet. C... thrust decreases.1. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance.To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff. B.2. C X 439.(Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL. C. 97 NAM.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.100 feet. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. B X 434.B X 432.[Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.R-345 C X 436.440 pounds. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.As temperature increases. C.1. thrust increases.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. C.000 pounds gross weight? A.03 EPR.2.2. thrust increases.As temperature increases.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. B.As air density decreases.. what should the pilot do? A. B.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.200 feet..Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.04 EPR. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path.2. the pilot should A.1.1 NAV? A. B X 437.01 EPR. B.308 feet.. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.. C..[Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.390 pounds. 102 NAM.If an ATC controller assigns a speed.R-175 B.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. A X 435. C X 440..420 pounds. C.[Refer to Figure 4-26. . B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.R-165 C.What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.-Positive static stability C. A X 441. C. B. 92 NAM.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.(Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO. and flight plan.3.Load manifest. C. B.1..5NM C.000 pounds? A. B.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.6% to 4. B. C. C X 442. C.A stressful situation causing anxiety..600m.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.0NM A X 443. A X 450.Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. B. The parcel of air resists convection.600 feet/minute. C X 449. flight plan.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.RVR 250m. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4..930 as specified on the SID? A.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. load manifest. and weight and balance release.850 feet.5. A X 448..690 feet/minute. and flight release. ZULS B. B. C X . The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. ASSS C..B.Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.1 NAV? A.000 feet.2.200 feet.400 feet. C. A X 446.7.[Refer to Figure 4-25. C. C. As the parcel of air moves upward.RVR 200m...The excessive consumption of alcohol. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air..(Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.Dispatch release. B..VIS 1. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A.644 feet/minute. C.650 feet.10.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. ZUUU A X 445. B X 444.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125. A X 447.Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A.Dispatch release. flight plan. B. C.0NM B.(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots.(Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A. 000m.(续正文考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m.000m.Decrease speed. C.(1-1) At a waypoint .MDH100m. and he can realize that the current weather may be A.[Refer to Figure 4-29.850. A. light rain. A X 455.166 B.MDH120m.000 pounds.13. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport..000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. B.9. and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A. shower and high wind B...What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A. B X 457. C.700 pounds.100m. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1.17. B X 459.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.Increase speed. B.1KHz. poor visibility A X 452.(Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34. C. A X 454.3.. B... what frequency should be tuned? A.451.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R.Maintain speed.354 C X 456.. B.stratonimbus. with gear down.12. flaps 30o.1MHz. Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower. C.VIS1600m.The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers.0850K.200 pounds. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. B.118.Just prior to takeoff. high wind. C X 458.clear.700 pounds. C.118. B X .K0850.346 C. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.5KHz.thunderstorm.0 HUR to D16.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121.VIS1600m.Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A.(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.VIS2400m..118. C. good visibility C.16. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport. B. C.(Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B727. B X 453. B. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140.. 18. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A..Normally.When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway.Zero B X 462.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.[Refer to Figures 4-22. weight. B.(Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A..What affects indicated stall speed? A. C X 470.and power C..-L/Dmax. flaps 25o..700 pounds.000 pounds. stationary front. C.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.145 knots.. six ILS approaches.140 knots. B X 464.attitude may be lower than it appears.To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization.The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . A. Angle of attack.. what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.delay stall.WF. cold front. B X 465. B X 469.13. B. with gear up. B.. C..Within the previous 12 calendar months. B. B. Weight.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 463..Within the previous 6 months. load factor. B X 466.-Lift at low speeds. A X 467.22. C.460. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A. C.YV. C. B. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.000 pounds.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A. C.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.One C.[Refer to Figure 4-29. 4-23 and 4-24. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A. B.increase the load factor.attitude may be higher than it appears. without VASI assistant. B.Two B. C. the pilot should be aware that the approach A.-Drag and reduce airspeed.increase airspeed. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140. and power B. . and airspeed A X 468...148 knots..600 pounds.Within the previous 6 months. warm front.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. B X 461. Load factor . angle of attack . and airport elevation? A.(Refer to Figure 6-3. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. A X 477.1? B.097 feet.12. A X 479.145 knots..Cargo load.144 knots. weight and balance data.Departure airport.13.-2? C.(Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO. A X 473. braking action is "zero" C.DK. wind. A X 478.....Series A and Series C.What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature.. C. braking action is "fair" B.(According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. B...-4? C X 476.Lower than at low weight. C. 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.2 NAV? A.143 knots. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B.. to achieve the desired separation. both a and b C X . Series C and Series D. A X 480.12. B. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. C. to maintain enough separation. C.C. B.Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.123 feet. C. intermediate stops. B. C.. C. and trip number. when there is almost no the braking action? A. braking action is "nil" C X 475. and identification number of the aircraft. A X 471. destinations. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. A X 472. 4-23 and 4-24.Series A. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. or attached to. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above. B X 474. B.[Refer to Figures 4-22.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. B.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. alternate airports.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A.Higher than at low weight.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC.Series A and Series D.The same as at low weight.093 feet.What information must be contained in. IDK. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B.In a communication process. Strong wind with bad visibility C.Of an intersecting taxiway only..Which of the following is the right description about CRM? . B. outside the United States. attitudes.(According to figure 4) at Shanghai.If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°. visibility and low clouds B.PEK.(Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.M070. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A..from west to east C. must be authorized by A..from south to north B. A.. B. C. A.HUR. B X 491.481. personality. The FAA Administrator only B X 482. knowledge.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .. knowledge.70 Marh. and the social culture system C. A X 490.from north to south C X 486.Of some designated point on the runway. and the ability of he/she make use of the language B. B.. and the workload B X 487. Snow shower A X 489. Low cloud and perhaps icing B.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.the sender's skill.When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region. windshear at low altitude C.Red B..18 hours A X 483. These conditions include A. A X 484.17 hours C.070M....the sender's knowledge.Amber C. C. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. C. B X 485.GPS instrument approach operations.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A. A sovereign country or government unit C. some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message.M0070.Green.the sender and the receiver's skill..16hours B. attitudes. which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. hail and rainstorm B X 488. 118.000. C. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.216 knots and 1.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B. A X 497. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. B. A X 493.Lower than pressure altitude.. What is the required fuel reserve? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance..[Refer to Figure 4-45. C.1905Z. B.01 EPR.9. C X 500.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350.. . C.Higher than pressure altitude.A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate.127.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.85MHz.35MHz.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A. B.11. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. plus 10 percent of the total flight time. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. C X 498.2005Z.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. C.8MHz.219 knots and 1.What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.. A X 496. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.81 EPR. B.. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.5.Within the previous 6 months. C. 30 minutes.11. C.504 pounds.9.Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. C X 494.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. C..] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750. B.[Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600.A. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.11. B X 499.(Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.754 pounds.[Refer to Figure 4-45. C.. B. B X 495..9.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. B.0005Z.223 knots and 2.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. C..A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z.926 pounds.503 pounds.62 EPR. A X 492.227 pounds.124.680 pounds. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.1 minutes.. B.Within the previous 6 months. C X 501. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.59. Moist.Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A... gross weight.. B X 510. B. airspeed. B X ..7 minutes.What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A.[Refer to Figure 4-45.8 feet.lift and airspeed. C X 503.Eustachian tube B.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400..wrong A X 505. B X 502. {three} of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A. little or no wind. and drag. B. A.the semicircular canals C X 504.Within the previous 12 calendar months.54.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A. C.10 feet.B. C. and high relative humidity. but not drag.9 minutes.lift.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. A clear sky. the pilot can control the airplane's A..58. C.. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.the cochlea C. and drag.. six ILS approaches..What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. B.lift. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received.By changing the angle of attack of a wing. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.(Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. A X 509. C X 506.12 feet.right B. C. B. C.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual. The statement is A. C.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. C. vestibular and postural cues. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 507.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A. C.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. B X 508. Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. A X 517. B X 520.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.. Low stratus. B.In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A.What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. high personal attention and high task orientation B. B X 513.35MHz. C. B.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.65MHz.Aircraft dispatcher. B X 515...121.VOR B. B.85MHz.(Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. C. A. B. C.VOR and DME A X 514. A X 519. Low-level wind share B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. Frontal fog.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X . B.Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions..511.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater.VOR and ILS C.(Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). Standing lenticular. Turbulence A X 518. B.. B X 512.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.124.127. Radiation fog. rotor cloud. Microburst C.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A. weather. C.. C X 516.Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. C. C..Pilot in command.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A..-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater..Director of operations or flight follower..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. B. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. C. Advection fog. .Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A. .] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.(Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. B.70 percent of the actual runway available. whichever is less.500 pounds. load manifest (or information from it).13. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 529. gear up.Four B..500 pounds.[Refer to Figure 4-29. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A..000 feet short of the end of a 4.When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board.[Refer to Figure 4-26.Dispatch release. C.Upon arriving at the most distant airport.129.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event C. C. C X 525.What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be {wet or slippery} at the ETA? A. B..5 C.500 feet B. C.900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.124.500 pounds.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A. B X 526.521. C.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o. gear down.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.300 pounds. B.13.000 pounds. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.500 feet B X 524.5 B..Two A X 523.Three C. and {flight plan}.15 B X 528.115 percent of the runway length required for a {dry} runway.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C X 522. B.(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required.. A X 527.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. to flaps 0o. 45 minutes at holding altitude. or 90 minutes at normal cruise. whichever is less.1.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.134. B.000feet C...] What is the change of total drag for a 140. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption.1. The first holding pattern altitude. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C.000 feet AGL.. Clear air turbulence..15. C. C. C X 533.If severe turbulence is encountered. C. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.When flying over the nimbostratus clouds...[Refer to Figure 4-28.VOR and DME A X 539.. B X . C X 534.Transonic index..What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.(接正文 Based on this situation.VOR B.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. false cirrus clouds A X 536." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.Critical Mach number. C.350 feet. C.Opposite direction. B X 531.ADF C.Maintain a constant {attitude}.FL 6. B X 532.Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. C. which procedure is recommended? A.Same direction. A.) cumulonimbus clouds B. B X 535.300 pounds. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.000m.750 feet.2.000 feet.Maintain a constant altitude..Initial buffet speed. B.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107. not associated with cloud formations.C.FL 6. altocumulus clouds C.2. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 537.Remains {fixed} for all positions.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. B X 538.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable {trim tab} move when the control surface is moved? A. B. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B..What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A. should be reported as A. the pilot finds that there are up towering clouds on the thick layer. B.Turbulence encountered above 15. High altitude turbulence.200 feet AGL... B.1.300m. B.100 feet AGL.150 feet AGL.500 pounds? A. convective turbulence. B. B. C. A X 530. .What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.(Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A..Lower than at low elevation.What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature.To protect military activities.The same as at low elevation. A X *544..change B.800 feet..1.000 feet B. C.500 feet C..the airplane rides on standing water.What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. 150 metres C X . C X 546. braking action is "zero" C.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.At least one hour prior to the departure time..540. C...the red blood cells B.(According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.the plasma C.as the time goes on . 50 metres B.not change C. braking action is "fair" B. A X 541.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 548.In flight . B X 549... B.1. Hazardous weather warning A X 547. 500 metres C. C. and airplane weight? A. A X 543. B.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. Wind shear warning B. the CG will A.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A. Aerodrome warning C. C.1.. wind.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B. braking action is "100%" A X 550.hemoglobin C X 545.The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.may change or may not change A X 542. B.loss of the vertical component of lift B.Higher than at low elevation. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.750 feet...] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110.000 pounds.22.Any FSS C. A X 552.VMCA.750 feet. C. C.Proximity warning C. B. B X 554.To state some important information.To require a pilot to take a specific action.VMC. B. B. B.162o.200 feet.000 pounds. C X 559. C..000} feet of runway for a caution zone C.What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A.167o. what action should be taken? A. C. C. C. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. B.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. under normal conditions. flaps 40o. A X 556. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A. route.Traffic and resolution advisories B. B X 553.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122. or airway specified in the vector clearance.ARINC B.17.551....300 pounds.(Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed.. {Ground}? A.20.{Amber} lights replace white on the last {2.000 pounds? A. B X . C X 555.2. with gear down. Descending to the surface and then outward.[Refer to Figure 4-28.If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.800 pounds.Appropriate dispatch office C X 560. B. B.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 558.1.[Refer to Figure 4-30. C.To warn the pilot..2. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.VMCG.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 557.172o..Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with.What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A. Fly direct to a fix.TCASII provides A. . 8 to 9 km B. A X 563. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B.Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. B. C.During the period of Spring Festival. C X 570..keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X *562.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A.15 minutes... no further action is necessary C. if you are assigned to an additional flight.13 minutes. C X 567. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B.X.N. is normally limited to A.M. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. or terminating a flight.A Category II ILS pilot authorization. C. C X 565.[Refer to Figure 4-37. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. A. C.000 lb A.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181.. Uneven heat on the ground C X 566.the specific duties of any required crewmember. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute..Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. the captain might not be the leader in a specific .exercising authority over initiating. Rising terrain C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind..The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A... B. C.15 to 17 km B X 571.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.561. A X 568.The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.500 lb.14 minutes. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. A X 564. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew. when originally issued.10 to 12 km C.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C. C. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A. B X 569. B.Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A. B.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B.. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.Zero fuel weight: 126.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. conducting.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B..What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. C.When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A..I.6KHz. C X 577.A.7MHz...At which location does Coriolis force have the {least} effect on wind direction? A. A X 580.. B.(续正文，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge.7 C. the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa.If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR.Y. B.(Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. C. C.6MHz.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143.[Refer to Figure 4-28. C. B X 581. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A. .12 C X 579.. B.6 B. At the equator.. C.7KHz..114.. The statement is)right B.(Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100.Z..7MHz. At the poles.when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C. For past three hours.121. Sudden decrease in a headwind component.wrong A X 572. 150 knots C. For past three hours. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A.121. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. 170 knots B. B.121. C. 130 knots B X 576.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 578.000 pounds? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component.127.(Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.9MHz. C X 575.(Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B.850 feet. B.100 feet. A X 574.400 feet.. B. B. C X 573.127.Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. B X 591. C.B X 582.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.Pilot-in-command. B... B X 586.{VYSE}. Strong wind with haze B X 587. B.Air Traffic Controller.760 feet/minute.(Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A. B. 210 knots B X .. B X 588...Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. C.DAWANGZHUANG. A X 585..The point cleared by ATC.. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 584. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. B.12 feet.leveling off.when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.pitching up. B. what airspeed should be maintained? A.930 as specified on the SID? A. A X 583.Low gross weight. C.851 feet/minute.10 feet. Strong wind with sand C. dust B.(Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. B.D25 to PEK VOR/DME.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A. 250 knots B.don't say nothing just to "{keep the peace}" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion.(Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.VXSE. North wind at 12 m/s.Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A. 230 knots C.High density altitude.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A. A X 590.. C.8 feet.VMC. C. B. at the same time.pitching down.Dispatcher..(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots. C. C. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4.If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling. A X 589..699 feet/minute. B. Fly the most direct route to the destination.30 minutes.15 minutes.. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA.. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect. Light fog C.(Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. A. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C...When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.behind a stationary front B X 599. the airplane displays A.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.. C..-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude. A X 593. A X 594. No change B X 597. Intensify B.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light. the expected changes in intensity of the icing is. whichever is higher. if clear of clouds.-positive longitudinal static stability. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.000 meters? A. A.. C X 596.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released. C.in an occluded front B. 200 knots C.FL158.592. B. If not clear of clouds.The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . B.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative..-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Fog C X 600.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. B X 601.3 minutes.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. C.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. 150 knots B X 598. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3.-neutral longitudinal static stability. Rain B. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport.(Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o. Descend to MEA and.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 595. Weaken C.. .. or to the MEA.ahead of a {cold front} C. C. which altitude could it descend to? A.In a light . 210 knots B.(Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information. Smoke B. or structural damage occurs. B.430 pounds. When distress conditions such as fire.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.At Which location dose Coriolis force have the {most effect} on wind direction? A. A.. however.[Refer to Figure 4-26.Detect the fact that a change has occured B. From 08Z to 22Z.FL148. using the acronym DECIDE. in an approved flight {simulator}. what is the valid period of time.. C X 608. diversion. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. B. At the Poles..B.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 605.required to have a first-class medical certificate. C.[Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.The persons jointly responsible for the initiation..490 pounds. B. From 14Z to 22Z B X 611. it can be condensed into six elements. B X 604. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. 170 knots C.1..] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes.The decision-making process is quite complex. continuation. 110 NAM. 200 knots B. C. B X 607..required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.400 pounds. C. is A.pilot in command and director of operations.. B. C.(According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. At the Equator.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. 118 NAM. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. A X 606.An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate.not required to have a medical certificate.. C. spoilers and reversers at 140. B. B.000 pounds gross weight? A. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. A X 603.In the (SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3). Sand storm B X 610. B X 602.. mechanical failure. C.. The first D is A.1. 150 knots C X 609. . Sand C. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). 113 NAM.1. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.FL168.650 feet.pilot in command and chief pilot.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. . two pulsing and one steady.200 feet. B. A X 621. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. C. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport.Not more than 1 hour.After been in exposed to normal lighting.decrease due to higher density altitude. steady red for slightly below glide path. B X 616. C.5 minutes.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. A X 620. B. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%.It should be reported without ATC request that A.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.cumulonimbus C.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%. whichever is greater. C.Identify REIL. C X 613.from left crosswind to right crosswind. A. A.One-light project.A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground.. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . B.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X .. B.500 feet.050 feet.from headwind to tailwind.DH 150 feet and RVR 1.200 feet.300 feet. C.nimbostratus B.. C X 619. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%. the wind direction usually changes .30 minutes B.An outside air pressure decreases.. at an intermediate airport. B. the code "VCTS" means ____.. C. B.1 hours C.More than 6 hours.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.DH 100 feet and RVR 1.If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere.In daily aeronautical weather reports. whichever is greater. There are thunderstorms over the airport. C. A X 617. C..Three-light system.Amber lights for the first 2.000 feet of runway. one pulsing and one steady.. whichever is greater.1.B. C. A X 614. B X 618.Not more than 2 hours. C. C X *615.altostratus. thrust output will A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1.1. How long before a redispatch release is required? A... pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope. steady white when on glide slope. C X 612.Two-light projectors. A. A. B. B X 626..75. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to {detonation} in high performance reciprocating engines? A.74. B. B.308KHz.several headache B.flag and commercial.07 EPR.2.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach..000.114. It is most likely to occur when A.Low RPM and high MAP.Which of the following is {not normally a} {symptom of hypoxia}? A.[Refer to Figures 4-22. B. B..2 percent.The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.High RPM and low MAP.Adjust airspeed to that {recommended for rough air}.What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90. B.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC.supplemental and domestic. C. B.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15.09 EPR.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C X 627. B X 630.the head is bowed forward rapidly during {instrument flight} .What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.[Refer to Figure 4-32.. A. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.622.. C.2.06 EPR.2. and designated pilot in command are A. or include on.Which of the following is {not} the right description about CRM? A..Extend flaps to decrease wing loading.reduced visual field C. B.. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. B X 624. C.7MHz.High RPM and high MAP.(Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. B X 631. A X 625. flight attendant..a feeling of euphoria A X 628.4 percent.The {Coriolis illusion} can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation.supplemental and {commercial}. and 4-24. C.9 percent. A X 629.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.Under normal operating conditions. C. B.. C.At least one {full stop landing} must be made. A X 623. C.240KHz.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.72..] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction..At lower levels of the atmosphere. B. 200 knots B X 635.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.A plane.. B X 637..Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.When a flight plan indicates {IFR} for the entire route."..The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. C. C. C.. which is able to support the airplane. B X 638. B.Stopway.C.Teardrop only B.Z..When proceeding to the alternate airport. 210 knots C. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3.Parallel only A X . C. B.A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A. 250 knots B. B...Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. C X 636. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 632.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. decreases windspeed and {Coriolis force}.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C..visibility 1. A. MH 60°.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A..Obstruction clearance plane. B X 639. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. A X 633.I.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. B X 640. C.Direct only C. en route. B.Clearway.600m and ceiling 120m. C X 634.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B..the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm.What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway.The existing and forecast weather for departure. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. and approach must be VFR.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. decreases pressure gradient force. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE {ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL}. C. which minimums apply? A. B.000 meters? A. three-engine. receive this ATC clearance: ". [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes..before takeoff. 300 metres B.420N.L1020.300 feet. C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 643.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. This clouds is refered as A. A X 642.000 pounds gross weight? A. B.{Minimum fuel supply and trip number}. then repeat.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from {carbon monoxide poisoning}? A.10000 feet C. B X 648.What information must be included on {a domestic air carrier dispatch release}? A....(According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. then 1 minute outside scanning.200 meters}.. B. altostratus or stratocumulus C.give plenty of water A X 646.looking outside for 15 seconds. then inside for 5 seconds. then repeat. C. {flat and gray bottoms} with {light rain}. and a statement of the type of operation.8000 feet .have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. A X 647. C. stratus or nimbostratus B. C..500 feet. B. C.If the cruising speed of an aircraft is {420 nautical miles}.1. 3000 metres A X 649.Amber C.Scanning procedures for {effective collision avoidance} should constitute A.15000 feet B.N420.administer oxygen B. pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.. B. 900 metres C. spoilers and reversers at 130.{Green} C X 650. B X 644.000 feet. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very {low and thick} clouds. supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot {in the day} if the flight is above A..F1020.If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be {10.{S}1020.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule.N0420. C X 645..As a general rule.1 minute inside scanning.. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.Red B.641. B.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "{on course}" indication? A.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. . the elevation of the highest {mountain} from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is {2..400 feet.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 659.3.2.the otolith B X 652.FL 39.100 feet. is most likely to be encountered A. C.950m. C X 655.(According to figure 2) .The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb).650 meters}.the skeletal muscles.Which of the following is considered an {auxiliary flight control}? A.250m.B X 651. {on a first-come}. C.What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous {China} upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. When piloting a large.the semicircular canals B. C X 656.500 feet C. A X 654.(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.2. continuous flow reversal stall..{Except during an emergency}. Ruddervator B. the minimum safe altitude is A. In turn. C. B.(Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. {first serve basis}.050m. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. Leading-edge flaps C X 658. B.Intermittent "backfire" stall.If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots..FL 8. C X 660.500 feet. C.3.Steady. When cleared for an IFR approach B.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A. Upper rudder C.Transient "backfire" stall. C.. joints and tendons C. B..000 feet B..000 feet C X 653.. which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A..Which type of {compressor stall} has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. ZHHH .2.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B.FL 29. heavy aircraft.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. ZUUU B. C X 657. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate.3.. Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.to fly a {higher-than -normal approach..86. and ASR.When making an approach to a {wider-than-usual runway}..3016MHz. C X 663. LEFT TURNS. B. B X 666..0 percent. B X 664..G.700 feet.400 feet.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums...Parallel only C X 667.Dry runway using brakes and {spoilers}.Teardrop only B.16. B X 662.For {scheduled airline}. spoilers and reversers. however. there is a tendency A. B..] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132.122. C.000. B.8897MHz.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.83. C. it can be condensed into six elements. B.WING ANTI-ICE: ON. A X 665. C.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A. using the acronym DECIDE.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE {ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL}.[Refer to Figure 4-32.4 percent.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35.[Refer to Figure 4-39. what is the VHF communication frequency? A. PAR.C. B.. receive this ATC clearance: ".500 pounds? A..What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.. C.20MHz. {MH 160°}. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle. C. The {first E} is A. A X .A plane..600 feet.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100. B.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A..Compass locator.Evaluate the effect of the action C.4 percent.S.ASR and PAR.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. without VASI assistant.The decision-making process is quite complex.87.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. ZSSS C X 661.to fly a normal approach.[Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.19. C.} C.".Wet runway using brakes.R.18.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. B X 668.Direct only C.Estimate the {need to counter or react to the change} C X 669.(Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt.. . B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Causes clockwise rotation around a low.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice.(续正文，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. C X 678. A X 676. A. A.five meters. C. B.M9000. C X 675. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. the commencement of initial approach A X 671... and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 674.136 knots.. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. after reaching the most distant alternate airport. the pilot should have readily available: A.. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.Five C.000 pounds? A.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger {seating capacity of 238} with only 40 passengers aboard? A.132 knots.The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous {China} . an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. B.Two B X 672.S9000. C..] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110. the commencement of {final approach} B. C. B..infinity.. B.Where provided.What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a {tailwind} is encountered? A. C..Six B. ..{Empty Field Myopia} is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view.How does {Coriolis force} affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. A X 673. whichever is less.139 knots.If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be {9. A X 677. what airspeed indication can be expected? A.M0900. A X 679.Increase speed. C.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD).[Refer to Figure 4-30. should be A.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).000 meters}. enter TMA C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A. landing performance of the aircraft.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.670. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Maintain speed.Decrease speed. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 8. "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.VLE.. the captain finds that on weather map. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.VMO/MMO.In a light .Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A. "fair".Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m.Fuel spray nozzles. B. low clouds and weak turbulent current B. plus the forecast winds. Before taking off.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. Dust. C. B. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. B.Compressor discharge. "good". B X 5.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X ATPL-988 Total 988 questions 1. thunderstorm. shower and gale .. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A.VLO/MLO. only use "good".. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A. bad visibility B. published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing.. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C.It moves with the weather system.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. C X 6. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A..How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport. C. B. "fair". B.B.Turbine inlet. "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. Strong wind.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.. A X 2.When a pilot's flight time consists of {80 hours'} pilot in command in a particular type airplane. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 4. cumulonimbus clouds. Maximum Speed for Landing Gear Operation C X 7. C.(接正文 he should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle. C. A X 680. C.. A.The landing performance of the aircraft.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. B. Low cloud with strong wind A X 3. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B. C.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. B. B.B-727 and B-747..ADF C. This situation could be described as A.. B X . B-727.DECIED B X 15. receive this ATC clearance: ".B-747. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 9. no. B.." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. C X 11. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A..a participatory leader A X 17.". or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. B X 13. MH 240°..B-727 and B-737.VOR and DME A X 16.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. flight engineer.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.. however.Parallel only A X 14.Red B.Limiting torque. no. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737.Direct only C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. A plane. A. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway.Teardrop only B.Amber C. C. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.a too shallow authority gradient B. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight.. C.B-737.ATP .Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A. clear after rain.ATP .B-747.VOR B.Green. ATP . it can be condensed into the following six elements. Commercial .Only a pilot. C.C. B X 10. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.DECIDE C.．The decision-making process is quite complex. yes.Commercial .DICIDE B. and B-737.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. C.a steep authority gradient C. B.Limiting compressor speed. B X 12. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A. The existing and forecast weather for departure. what is the corresponding rate of descent? A. B. and approach must be VFR. C..The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.13 hours C. C. B. B.5.(Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. Rain and fog C. A X 22.5. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Frontal passage..055 C.235 B X 26. A X 27.144 knots.. B X 21. C.14 hours C X 24.A stressful situation causing anxiety. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 19. B X . A X 23. The statement is A. Wind shear. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. three-engine. C.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A. 4-23 and 4-24.18.4.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.. B.wrong A X 20.8%. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large.145 knots.285 B. C. Light and variable. C X 25.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o. en route.143 knots.2%. the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.5%. [Refer to Figures 4-22.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.．During the flight..12hours B. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.right B. B. when exit the runway.. a speed not less than 150 knots. B X 29. B..050 feet. B.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums. Not less than 250 knots B X 35. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 37.153 knots and 2. B X 31. C. not less than 170 knots. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A. C. or include on. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude.supplemental and domestic. B. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to. Piston and turboprop aircraft. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3. B.. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway..VSO. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.138 knots and 3. a speed not less than 230 knots.hemoglobin C X 34.the red blood cells B. C X 36.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. except 20 flying miles from threshold. B X 33. B. C. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.VS. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. Turbojet aircraft. A X 32. C.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A.050 feet. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. a speed not less than 210 knots. except 20 miles from threshold. B.the plasma C. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft. and a statement of the type of operation. Position is not affected C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A. not less than 200 knots.flag and commercial.123 knots and 3.supplemental and commercial.050 feet. the accuracy of the GPS derived A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.28. not less than 150 knots. B. B X 30. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) . and designated pilot in command are A.VS1. C.. C. B. flight attendant.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.000 meters? A. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.. A plane. The statement is . FL200 B. B. Altocumulus B. Stratocumulus B X 42.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 44. MH 300°. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given. LEFT TURNS.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. what action is required? A.20MHz..．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it.3016MHz.Direct only C..The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.. 150 metres C X 38.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. receive this ATC clearance: ".(续正文，engine which failed..a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 46.Two B..122.Parallel only B X 41. FL240 C.Teardrop only B.expectancy producing a mental block C.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.wrong A X 45. The statement is A. Cumulonimbus C.Zero B X 40. C. only to find that it was the right A.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers.right B.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.8897MHz.A. prior to flight conducted above A. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle. A X 43. instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization.One C.".．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt. what is the VHF communication frequency? A. FL250 C X 39.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period.. C.As air density increases.. In turn. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 55. you cannot accept any undue delay.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. C X 50. Ground? A. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. C.. B X 49. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. thrust increases. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A. C. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B.As air density increases. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation. upon reaching your destination. When piloting a large. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. B.. B. thrust increases. heavy aircraft. C X . the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 52. B.jet thrust only. vestibular and postural cues. on a firs-come. C.propeller thrust only.right B. the pilot should A.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A.VMCA.processing information from the eyes. B.Seven B. . C. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. the wind speed is 120 knots C. A. C.VMCG. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. C X 56. B.processing information from the inner ear.Do not accept the clearance... first serve basis. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet..shaft horsepower and jet thrust.Read the clearance back entirely.by combining and comparing visual.Six C.A.Except during an emergency. B X 48.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. thrust decreases. C.wrong A X 47.VMC. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.Five A X 54. A X 51. the wind speed is 120 km/h B.As air density decreases. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed. C X 53. B. When cleared for an IFR approach B. ] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30.More than 6 hours...Precludes a rejected landing. stationary front.1. that the pilot accepts: A. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground.900 hours C.Does not preclude rejected landing.732 pounds. A X 61. give the wing a lower camber B. C. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. B.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A.. A X 58. C. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane. B. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.One hour and a half a time. B X 60. C.Not more than 2 hours.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. C. B. A X 67. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.57.Must be adhered to. B. increase wing sweep. warm front. C.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. B. C. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.440 pounds.. B.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. C. for no more than A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. .A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance. cold front.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. A X 66.add slats C X 64. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread..800hours B. at an intermediate airport. B X 59.023 pounds.000.5. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A.. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. C X 63.1.30 minutes a time. C.1000hours C X 65. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. B. C. C. A X 62. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. in any calendar year.Not more than 1 hour. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . B. [Refer to Figure 4-34. A.Hourly. all flight time.HUAIROU VOR/DME.Aircraft dispatcher. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. B. During a supplemental air carrier flight.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. At the Poles.120. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.Pilot in command.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A. A X 77.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30.600-foot icy runway? A.The second in command only. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. B.000 pounds.Any flight crewmember. if qualified.124. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted. [Refer to Figure 4-27.000 pounds.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 75.128. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). B X 69. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z. in any flight crewmember position. when originally issued. B. At the Equator. C X 70.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4.The descent moment on the course of 227o.40 seconds B.. B. C. B. if they have a flight engineer certificate. B. is normally limited to A. C. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.1922Z. A X 74.Director of operations or flight follower. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight.GUBEIKOU NDB. C X 71.. B. B..Either pilot.1952Z.C X 68. C.3 minutes C. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. B X 72.000 pounds.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. B X . except military. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A. C.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. C..0022Z. C. A X 76. C X 73. C. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. C. 0NM A X 81..000 pounds. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Over open sea. C X 86. C. can a pilot expect landing priority? . B. C.VOR and DME A X 83. C X 80.M0900.Area flight information center.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.Over domestic only.What is a feature of supercooled water? A.200-foot icy runway? A.5NM C. altocumulus clouds C.108..An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. C. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. During emergency. C.VOR and ILS C.. A X 79. B. B.) cumulonimbus clouds B.78.4-51.000 pounds..CCAFC. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer..1 hours 07 minutes. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe.Airport flight information office.5. then clear ice accumulates. A X 87.4-53..000 pounds. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9.1 hours 04 minutes..High density altitude. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. B.Low gross weight.M9000. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds.137.4-52.0NM B. false cirrus clouds A X 88. and 4-54. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. B. B X 84.7. 4-50.Over domestic or open sea.10.(接正文 Based on this situation. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. B X 82.124.80 Mach? A.1 NAV? A.S9000. C. C.VOR B. A.] What is the ETE at . B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. B.1 hours 02 minutes. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A. C.. [Refer to Figures 4-49. [Refer to Figure 4-27. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.. C X 85.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5.000 meters. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. yes.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A... B. C.pilot in command and the flight follower.contradictory data or personal conflicts. no. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.All recorded information may be erased. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.74. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. C X 93. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. diversion.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B. [Refer to Figure 4-41. C. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW.A. C. B X 94.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B. any exit. B. or use of.400 pounds.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. first-served" basis. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. B. any aisle in the passenger compartment. B X 97.DISTANCE (NM): 70.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.74. B X 90.000.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.000 pounds. C. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come.All recorded information may be erased. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.180 pounds.pilot in command and director of operations.73. B X 95. B. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority.Resolve discrepancies. C. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. continuation.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. .The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3).HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. You are considered clear of runway when A. C. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. A X 92. B. B. B X 91.pilot in command and chief pilot. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation. C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line.. B X 96.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. B X 89. or use of. yes. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 102. C.Any speed. C X 101. obscured thunderstorm with hail B. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A. C. 30 minutes. pilot route certification. A X 100. expected holding speed. C. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.15 B X 106. B. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety. flight release. C. B X 107.. B. B X 99. C.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. and flight plan? . embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 105. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.30 minutes. Severe mountain wave.Only one INDS is required to be operative. What is the required fuel reserve? A.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A. time. altitude/flight level.Area where the sea and the land meet C...At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. Severe turbulence. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 98.5 C.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light. A.3 minutes. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. and expected holding speed.. C X 103.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. B. C X 104. altitude/flight level. to check the performance of the aircraft.5 B.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. time.15 minutes.Low speed. embedded thunderstorms C. B.What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. airworthiness release. plus 10 percent of the total flight time.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest. C. Severe mountain wave. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.Area with strong cold advection B. B.High speed. B. and inbound leg length. C. without VASI assistant.. highest cruise speed. B.. B. C X 111. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.exercising authority over initiating.requiring a pilot to take specific action. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A. Terrestrial radiation on a clear.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time. cumulostratus C.122. The descriptive cloud should be. B X 108. C.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A. conducting.the specific duties of any required crewmember. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.. B. C.A.12 months. C X 110.308KHz.122.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. C X 114. In flight. A. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A. there is a tendency A. and least stability .exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 115. B. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. B X 117. towering clouds C X 112.114. B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach.Lowest stall speed. ． When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A.7MHz. C X 113. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.3 months.to fly a normal approach. B. cumulus congestus B. B.keeping flight status. or terminating a flight.240KHz.requiring a pilot to read back.1 month. B.0MHZ C. normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A. pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. B X 116.123. C..1MHz B.In small airplanes.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis.6MHz B X 109.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. relatively calm night. C.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A. C. C.Below FL180. C. lowest cruise speed.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.1.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. B X 121. and least stability.Red inscriptions on a white background C.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105.300 feet. B.Dispatcher.Lowest stall speed.. A X 125. C. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.Pilot-in-command. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. B.4 B. highest cruise speed. C. and highest stability.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.000 pounds? A.300 feet.Two A X 126. the altimeter should set on .800 feet.Three C.High-speed flight only.Low-speed and high-speed flight.17 C X 119. knowledge. C. B X 120. A X 124. B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 123.. A X .B.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A. It begins to rain on the ground C X 127. C. but seldom in other situations B. [Refer to Figure 4-28. The appearance of disordered low clouds B.. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.Holding position signs have A.Air Traffic Controller.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.Low-speed flight only.may ultimately decide the team's actions. B. A.15 C.White inscriptions on a red background B.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 122.．An authoritative leader A.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. A X 118.Highest stall speed.Four B.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude.. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. and preferences. and landing.All turbine powered airplanes B.000 feet AGL.the movement of the weather system B X .1.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. C. C X 132.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A.000feet C. B.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.1.128.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C. taxi. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. B.Do not accept the clearance. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A. B.Read the clearance back entirely. A X 131. B. should be reported as A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B X 135.the property change of the underlying cushion C. convective turbulence.Stop way. A..Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 129. and landing.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A. not associated with cloud formations. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. High altitude turbulence. C. C X 136.the change of sun radiation B. Notify ATC immediately. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. Clear air turbulence. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 130.500 feet B X 134.55 minutes. C. C. [Refer to Figure 4-41..What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.500 feet B.34 minutes.Obstruction clearance plane.DISTANCE (NM): 200. C.WIND COMPONENT: 30TW.Turbulence encountered above 15.. takeoff.000 meters.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71. B. climb and descent when below 3. takeoff.57 minutes. climb and descent when below 3. A X 133. B. B. Squawk 7600.000...Clearway.000 meters. B X 137. temperature rises B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. C.121. temperature reduced B X 140.. Which route should be flown in the absence A. A X 143. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. B X 147.Thrust will remain the same.(续正文，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.DH 100 feet and RVR 1. B X 146. C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. and airport elevation? A. A X 144. if any..200 feet. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3.121. B.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100. Movement of air over a colder surface.. While in IFR conditions.. B. B.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. wind.000 meters? A. C..An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.3Gs. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. The route filed in the flight plan.9MHz.Higher than at low weight. The wind speed increases.. 150 knots B X 148.DH 50 feet and RVR 1.138. B. B. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.9Gs B X 141. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. What effect. B X 142.200 feet. but turbine temperature will be higher.121. pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A. B. 210 knots B. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. temperature reduced C. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A. .Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS.DH 150 feet and RVR 1.Only one INS is required to be operative. C.-Increase the camber of the wing.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. The wind speed increases. B. B.7MHz. C X 145.. C.7KHz.2Gs. C.500 feet. 200 knots C. B X 139. Expansion of air as rises.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. As the parcel of air moves upward.400 feet. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A.16.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.Lower than actual.Higher than actual.a first-class medical certificate.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill.600 feet..WING ANTI-ICE: ON. B.B..．What illusion.". C. A X 149. rotor cloud. C X 154. the maximum bearing error permissible is A... receive this ATC clearance: ". can rain on the windscreen create? A.a second-class medical certificate. B.Plus or minus 6 B. 3℃ per 1. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. The parcel of air resists convection..If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL. C. A X 151. B.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON. C.700 feet. B.18.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. C. C X 158.000 feet.372 feet.The same as at low weight.Lower than at low weight.525 feet.. C. C. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. C. A X 152.. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.Plus 6 or minus 4 C. Standing lenticular.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. A X 153..To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A. [Refer to Figure 4-39. B. Low stratus.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A. C X 157. if any.Does not cause illusions.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Plus or minus4? A X 155.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. A plane.Direct only C. B X 156.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A.Parallel only C X 150. C.19.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100. .470 feet.Teardrop only B..a third-class medical certificate.. MH 160°. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.2.200 pounds. C. B.Lift divided by the total weight.17.972 pounds.11.000 pounds.. A X 159. C X 161. 4℃ per 1. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 165. C X 163.] What is the total fuel required at . C X 164.09 EPR. B.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.4-52. C.22.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. [Refer to Figures 4-50.8 hours.Lift multiplied by the total weight. C. B.9.. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A. flaps 30o.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. and 4-24. B X 166. 12 calendar months.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A. B.78 Mach? A.4-53. A X 162. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so.000 feet.556 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-22.. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.. A X 160. C.6 hours.140 pounds. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. B.000 pounds. B. 24 calendar months. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment. C. and 4-54. C. B..B. after initial training? A.06 EPR. C. C.000 feet.22. C. [Refer to Figure 4-30. B. C. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. B X 167. after advising ATC of the situation.07 EPR..22.What is load factor? A. 6 calendar months. 2℃ per 1.2. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. B. B X . with gear down.2. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.4-51.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.7 hours.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.800 pounds.Lift subtracted from the total weight. B. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 170.Rapid. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. C. and never in climbs or descents B X 169.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A. A hard landing.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C. B.An alternate airport is required.. 3000 metres A X 172. Smoke with overcast B..25 minutes..Dizziness. Increased landing rollout. Katabatic. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36..No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. Adiabatic.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 176.. 118 NAM. C. . the pilotin-command could descend it to A.FL158. B.. B. B. C. A X 173. 118 NAM.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B. 125 NAM..] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.24 minutes. C. which description is correct A. B. C. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o. Advection. B X 177.FL128. C X 174. C X 171.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. C X 175.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.26 minutes.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.FL138. Strong wind with sand storm C. B.168. shallow breathing.800m. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. 900 metres C. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. 113.737 feet per minute.632 feet per minute.. C.6KHz.114.. B X 185. upward. B.400 feet. Strong wind with shower B. C. Rain B.FL 39. C. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A. Light fog C. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A. Fog C X 182. B.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A. C..7MHz. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots.843 feet per minute. C X 186.FL 29. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C X 183.The existing and forecast weather for departure.1670 C X 180.. three-engine.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. C X 184. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. C. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.1620.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. and around the wingtip... B. C. Outward.C. Landing short of the runway threshold. en route.administer oxygen B.．The perception of color is a function of the A. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. B.500 feet.Some passengers may be carried. B.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A. B.113. C. Snow and rain C.FL 8.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. A X 181. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 179.give plenty of water .have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. B X 178. and around the wingtip.100 feet. and approach must be VFR.1720. upward. A X 187.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B. Inward.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting.6MHz. .What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A. A X 193.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW.000.136.100m.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27.000 pounds gross weight. B X 196. A X 198.5 hours 20 minutes. [Refer to Figure 4-25.500 pounds.The same as at low elevation.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. Ice pellets.000 feet short of the end of a 5.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. C X 191. nearest CAAC district office. ATC and dispatcher.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. and reversers at 125. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature.400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. C. B. [Refer to Figure 4-43.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. C.A X 189. B X 192.140. to the A. B.. as soon as practicable.500 pounds.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.Compensate for increase in drag A X 195. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. Freezing rain.Higher than at low elevation. C.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.000m. C.5 hours 55 minutes. C.critical mach number C X .9. B. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight. A X 194.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500. C. the pilot in command must report it. spoilers. B. B.Brakes.5 hours 3 minutes. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 190.. B.000 pounds gross weight..3.000m. C.supersonic mach number B.Brakes and spoilers at 120. B.117.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect..] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. wind.. B.Lower than at low elevation.000 pounds gross weight.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. and airplane weight? A.Brakes and reversers at 115.500 pounds.transonic mach number C.12.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. wet snow. A X 197. 000 pounds? A.156 knots. load manifest. Northwest wind at 60 KT.Load manifest.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.may change or may not change A X 205. the CG will A.199. C.as the time goes on . [Refer to Figure 4-29. Advection fog.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? . flight plan. and flight plan.In flight . B. In en route flight. It is most likely to occur when A. the wind direction. Frontal fog. as ATS has radar contact B.25 seconds B. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A. and flight release.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation.127 knots..change B. B..not change C. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. temperatures is 48℃ C. and weight and balance release.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.Request a new ATC clearance C. (According to figure 6) The position of the upper jet is A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.000 feet is closest to A.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 202.. West wind at 24 KT..Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory . (Refer to Figure 6) At point A.15 seconds C. From A to B then to C B. C X 203. C X 200. after the conflict is resolved C X 207. wind speed and temperatures is A. From A to C then to D C..35 seconds B X 206. B X 209.Dispatch release. the altimeter setting is A. C. QFE A X 204. From A to B then to D B X 208..] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140. QNE B. QNH C.Dispatch release. flight plan.149 knots. temperatures is -48℃ A X 201.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. temperatures is -48℃ B. Radiation fog. C. B. West wind at 60 KT. outward and forward B X 211.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. A X 216. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 212.By changing the angle of attack of a wing. B. B.Lower-than-standard air density. loss of.lift.000 pounds? A.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A. it is necessary for A. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.HIRL. the pilot can control the airplane's A. and drag.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. and RVR. and drag. B.1. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. RCLS..Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. B X 214.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.350 feet.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A.inward and forward C.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C. decreased takeoff distance . which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. C. C. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination.400 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-27.inward and aft B..What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A. TDZL.950 feet.．If the authority gradient is too steep. A. B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified. gross weight. or diminished. B X 215. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. airspeed performance B. B. but a certificate is not required. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi. C.RCLS and REIL C.. C.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation..A. airspeed. B.. C X 213.Increased headwind component.lift and airspeed.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.lift. C X 217. C. marker beacons. and approach lights? A. B.Radar and RVR. A X 210. but not drag. C X 50.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process-even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A..85MHz. resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A. C.90 knots.780 feet per minute. B..496 feet.8MHz. what was the approximate rate of descent? A. C..127.. C. B X 223.35MHz.. B.118.124. B X 222. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.C.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII. B. pilot in command.1.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A. C.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.900 feet.1. B. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A. B X 220. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 218. under normal conditions. certificate holder.An increase in breathing rate C.96 knots.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 219. air carrier's chief pilot.increased visual field B.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.ARINC B. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. as ATC has radar contact B.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 221. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.760 feet per minute.Any FSS C. A X 224. B.110 knots.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body.244 feet. C.800 feet per minute.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C X . C X 225.Appropriate dispatch office C X 226. B. does the first thing that comes to mind. C X 233.(续正文，health.wrong A X 234. wind speed and temperatures is A. B. Altitude.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.. temperatures is -52℃ B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1. C X 232.300 feet. pilot's A. Altitude.026 feet. C. and indicated airspeed increase. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A.227.1. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.adopt all rules. Southwest wind at 35 KT. C. C. Northeast wind at 35 KT.1. B.Read the clearance back entirely.381 feet. Altitude increase. Southwest wind at 14 KT. temperatures is -52℃ C X 230." as backfires and flow reversals take place. pilot's activity level. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. A X 229. pitch.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. (According to figure 6) At point B... and whether the pilot smoking or not. C. the wind direction. B. climbing rate. B. regulations.Intermittent "bang.000 pounds gross weight? A. pitch.Request a clarification from the ATC. such as flight altitude.Within the previous 6 months.1. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A..．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors. C X 235. . what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.. C X 231. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.. braking action is "fair" B. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B. The statement is )right B.Within the previous 12 calendar months.1. and indicated airspeed decrease.1.Do not accept the clearance.650 feet. A X 228. temperatures is 52℃ C.398 feet. spoilers and reversers at 140. B.496 feet MSL.Loud.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. [Refer to Figure 4-26. and procedures as far as possible C. B. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. braking action is "100%" A X 236. braking action is "zero" C.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes.050 feet.. C. B. Thisclouds is referred as A. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. C X 237. B. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 245.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. dust B. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. A. A X 246.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn. C.Neutral dynamic stability.Within the previous 6 months. Strong wind with sand C.. B. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A. North wind at 12 m/s. and identification number of the aircraft. C. C.C. C X 244. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. or attached to.FL 6.FL 6.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.. weight and balance data. destinations.Positive static stability. C. if one of the two VOR receivers fails.Cargo load. B. and trip number. C.Positive dynamic stability. before takeoff.Departure airport. C X 239. B.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. What information must be contained in.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. an increase in airspeed will A. intermediate stops. altostratus or stratocumulus C. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds. stratus or nimbostratus B.. Strong wind with haze B X 241. B. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.000m. alternate airports. C. A X 243. B X 242. flat and gray bottoms with light rain.FL 600m.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor .Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 238. C. Advise ATC immediately.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C..decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.300m.While flying IFR in controlled airspace. six ILS approaches. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B. B X 240. ] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80.ZUUU C. C. B X 255.500m. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.reduced visual field C.3 percent. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A. B. while operating under Part 121.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1.ahead of a cold front C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A..10000 feet C.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25.8000 feet A X 250. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. C. as PIC.. C X 254.75. C X 252.Viscous hydroplaning. B.79.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.ZSSS B.DH65m，RVR600 C. [Refer to Figure 4-32.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.behind a stationary front B X 253.600m. A cold front and moderate icing C. C.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.Reverted rubber hydroplaning.ZWWW C X 256. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 248.Dynamic hydroplaning.several headache B.B X 247.in an occluded front B. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747. B.DH65m，RVR550 B X 251.. A worm front and mountain waves B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1. A. This effect begins at about A.500m.000.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.5000 feet B.5 percent.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. . C. which weather system we would encounter A.. Which term describes the hydroplaning.4 percent.a feeling of euphoria A X 249...Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B.77. B.Three glide slopes.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 259. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. C. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway.. These lines are A. B X 264. A.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 260.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. C. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.90 knots. B X 266.. An alternate airport for departure is required A.A X 257.96 knots. C X 265. B.Impulsivity: C X 262.．"Do something quickly!".Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. and amber.Macho B. C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C. A. A X 261. green.110 knots. B.Negative longitudinal static stability B.. green.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.when destination weather is marginal IFR.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from .White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 258. red. and amber. red. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated . B. A X 263. C. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C. and amber.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A. green.Invulnerability: C. each a different color.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.One light projector with three colors.Three light bar. weather reports and forecasts. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A. C. 330 knots A X 273.each calendar week B X 268.Compressor discharge.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B X 269.Signs with increments of 1. B.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A. or vice versa. it can be condensed into six elements. B. C. B..every 7 consecutive days B.Turbine inlet.A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 270.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. B. however. A X 267.000 meters. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.000 feet distance remaining B.Middle compass locator.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Evaluate the effect of the action C. using the acronym DECIDE. B X 274.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C.minimum fuel supply. B. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 2714. 150 knots B. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right. The second E is A. C. C..Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 272. B X .000 feet from the end C.Outer compass locator. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.names of all crewmembers.Fuel spray nozzles. C X 275. 250 knots C. or vice versa.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.. upward and counterclockwise C X 277. thrust output will A. C X 282.Five C. which weather system we would encounter A.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B. upward and clockwise C. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. ability.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. B. A worm front and a upper jet C.10 feet. B X 281. inward.loss of the vertical component of lift B. A cold front and a upper jet B. C.. An outside air pressure decreases.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 283.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.the caption's power. In northern sphere.. an apt arranging is A. C.decrease due to higher density altitude.At least one full stop landing must be made. ability..the caption's power. ability.Six B.the caption's power.I.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 278. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign. the air cyclone circumfluence is A.12 feet. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 284.. A X 279. .The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. C. B. downward and clockwise B. indicates A. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A. C.8 feet.Y. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot.Z. B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C. outward. B. In a flight crew. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C X 280.Two B X 285. outward.276. C.the inner C..12. C X 292. B X 286.2Gs.12.HIALS with PAPI.G. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1. A clear sky.999. B X 294. B. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A. and high relative humidity. little or no wind.the eyes B.097 feet.HIALS. B. For scheduled airline. C. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A..8 feet. C.. (Refer to Figure 6-3. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks.123 feet.. B X 288. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A.12 feet.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.8 hPa C. Moist. the QNH for ZUUU is A. B. B.PAPI..．In sensing the orientation of the body in space. B. in the interest of safety. C X 289. B. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.the proprioceptive system A X 291.093 feet.3Gs. B X 287. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B.C. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 290.998 hPa B. C. B.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.S.13.9Gs B X 295.8 hPa A X 293. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. C. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.10 feet. C.R..1099. . Where provided. C.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). 7500. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Flaps. C X 304. C.Of some designated point on the runway. B X 299. B X 305.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.000 meters. C X 303. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. C. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane.V1. landing. C. landing. A. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. C X 300. A X 296.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. C X 297. B.Of an intersecting taxiway only. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. the commencement of final approach B. taxi.. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A.Tabs. landing. and all other operations conducted below 3.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. 7200.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration. C. excluding cruise flight. B.What is the hijack code? A. B. B.Increase speed. and all other operations conducted below 3.. C.Decrease speed. B. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A. takeoff. .Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m.VEF.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 302. B.. taxi. approach. enter TMA C.Increase in indicated airspeed.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A. irrespective of altitudes MSL.V2. takeoff....000 meters MSL. including cruise flight. B.Maintain speed.Outboard ailerons. C. both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A. B. C. the commencement of initial approach A X 298.C. 7777.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to___.Decrease in indicated airspeed. descent. and taxi operations. C X 301. C.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft..Alternate red and white lights from3. then red lights to the end C. Inertial centrifugal force C.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. A X 344...not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft.000 pounds gross weight? A. B.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.descend 3℃ C.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A. C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 306. B.. descend 4℃ A X 343. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. In average.000 feet to the end of the runway B X 308.. B X 307.Rotation speed. Friction force. C. B X 309. B. the temperature of the air will . for every 1.during the entire flight. A X 340. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release.500 feet.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. C. A.000 feet. C X 341.A.Alternate red and white lights from 3.. the heading indicator should indicate A. B.000 feet to 1.1.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114.342o.Accelerate-stop distance.150 feet. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25.when the flight arrives.Critical engine failure speed. who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. B X 342. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency. B. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation.347o. C. B.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days..352o. for a given runway? A. descend 2℃ B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG. C X . B. A.300 feet. then alternate red and white lights to the end B.000 feet increase in the troposphere.000 feet.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1. at cruising speed.1 minute B X 351. C X 347. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. at 1. C.VOR/DME FIX B. B. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA. B. B.Visibility 3..800m and MDA 180m. C. 30 minutes at holding speed.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. B. on a three-pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot). A X 349. LEFT TURNS.Direct only C. B. Fly the most direct route to the destination.Surveillance radar C.Parallel only C X 348. Descend to MEA and.-Lift at low speeds.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. at 1. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A..500 feet over the airport..000 feet is closest to A.". MH 160°.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A. C X 350.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.Compass locator C X 346. C. A plane. whichever is higher.-L/Dmax.10 hours B. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect.000m and MDA 120m.600m and MDA 240m.16 hours A X . or to the MEA. over the airport.any required pilot crewmember.000m and MDA 120m.345. If not clear of clouds. if clear of clouds. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport.500 feet.. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A..Visibility 2. C. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude.. A X 352. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.25 seconds B.14 hours C. B X 353.45 seconds C.flight engineer or navigator.any flight crewmember.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. C. 30 minutes.Teardrop only B.-Drag and reduce airspeed.. receive this ATC clearance: ".Visibility 2. A X 358.12.6 B.12. B. C. C.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A. altitude.13.Maintain a constant attitude. then inside for 5 seconds.12 C X 359. C.looking outside for 15 seconds. B. A X 357. A X 361.354.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC. Land at the nearest airport. braking action is "zero" C. C. C.. If severe turbulence is encountered. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.1 minute inside scanning. A. expected holding speed B.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications .097 feet.Heading.Heading. which procedure is recommended? A.. 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. C. then 1 minute outside scanning. B. C.. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one.15 to 17 km B X 362. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. A X 360.070M. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Heading and altitude.Maintain a constant altitude. .123 feet. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. (Refer to Figure 6-3.M070. B X 356. twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A..10 to 12 km C.7 C. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. and ability to climb 50 ft/min. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. braking action is "nil" C X 364. A X 355. B.M0070. B X 363.. 8 to 9 km B.What performance should a pilot of a light. including military what has a crash an rescue unit.70 Marh. when there is almost no the braking action? A.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. then repeat.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. braking action is "fair" B.093 feet. B. then repeat. B. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A. C. A X 372. B. to the Administrator within A.Convective SIGMETS.Director of operations or flight follower.B.114.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.A runway Boundary Sign C. PIREPS. A X 371.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.METARS.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.International Aeronautical Information Manual C. B. A X 370. SIGMETS. C X 368. and adverse conditions. B. C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X .7MHz.entering approach controlled airspace.Pilot in command. weather. and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A. concerning the incident. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. C. Temperature inversion.DME C X 366.SIGMETS.6KHz. When advection fog has developed. AWW's. C.Aircraft dispatcher.. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. 10 days. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions. B. C.entering instrument meteorology conditions.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.One engine. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. B. the certificate holder must submit a report. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. 5 days.Airborne radar C. and AIRMETS.. B. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.127.127.International Notices To Airmen A X 365.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C. on a multiengine aircraft B.6MHz. Surface radiation. PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B. NOTAM'S. Wind stronger than 15 konts. the flight must be able to A.SPECIS. A X 367. B X 373. C X 369. C. 24 hours. C X 383.VIS1600m. The PIC has 1.10 feet.000 pounds.MDH120m.. [Refer to Figure 4-25. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.13 minutes.000 lb A. B X 378.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.000 pounds.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. B. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect. C. B. B. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z.Zero fuel weight: 126.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. B.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181. A.2015Z.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A. C.MDH100m. C X 382.1945Z. and experiences a delay.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. [Refer to Figure 4-37.000 pounds.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.8 feet.15 minutes.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. no further action is necessary C.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. A X 377. B.VIS1600m. C. A X 376.500 feet short of the end of a 4. C X 375.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.14 minutes. B.119. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. especially as altitude increases.. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C.. B.VIS2400m. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 379.0045Z. while operating under Part 121. . C X 381. C. B.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.136. B X 380.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.12 feet.139.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.500 lb. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach. C.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.374.876 hours and 298 landings. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A..Higher than pressure altitude. B.. 150 knots B X 389. 200 knots B. C. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.B.VFC. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A.. C. B X 387.from headwind to tailwind. C.Adhere to standard operating procedures.. B X 385. B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 386.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. etC．as far as possible. C. the wind direction usually changes . C. A.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. A X 391. C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation..100 feet.600m AGL. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. B. 170 knots C..from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 390.A and B C X 384.from left crosswind to right crosswind.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B. fuel burn.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. A X 388. B. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. B.750 feet.VMD.Lower than pressure altitude.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. C X 392.Final approach fix. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above. [Refer to Figure 4-26.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350. what action is required? A. B X .300 feet. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMU.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.000 pounds? A.The first holding pattern level. B.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. .83 EPR. C. C. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.RVR 200m.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C. C X 398.100 knots.RVR 250m. B. B.95 EPR. A X 395. B.RVR 400m. pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. C. B X 396.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C. such as cirrus.WEIGHT (*1000): 100.000 feet of runway.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. B X 400. A.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.. C.01 EPR. B.127.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines. B. A X 394.65MHz..Amber lights for the first 2. [Refer to Figure 4-34.0600z. C.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A. C.393. C X 402.85MHz. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport.000. B.121.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35. B X 401.217 knots and 1.95 knots.in high clouds. decreases pressure gradient force. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.124. C. At lower levels of the atmosphere. B X 397.90 knots.221 knots and 1..．The blind spot is A. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction..0630z. B. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. C. B X . what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating? A.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.223 knots and 2. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.in cumliform clouds B.In altocumulus cloud.Identify REIL.. A. A.0700z.. C X 399. B. B.35MHz.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A. C. C X 405.R-175 B. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.R-165 C. C..Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A. B. C. A X 404.114.12hours B...200 feet.000 pounds gross weight? A. A X 411. B X 408.750 feet. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. if enough fuel A. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.4. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.18 hours A X 409.4.May all be erased.17 hours C.113.514MHz.R-345 C X 406. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China.500 feet. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.8hours B X 407.Over domestic only. B X 410. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. C. B. as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. C. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier.16hours B.4.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118. B X .Over domestic and open sea.6MHz.7MHz.10hours C.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B. B. B. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea.1 NAV? A.403.Rate and radius will increase. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC.RVR 550m and DH 60m. B. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.RVR 1. Select another type of navigation aid. [Refer to Figure 4-29. Fly direct to a fix. and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.200 pounds. C. B. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A.500 pounds gross weight.. the pilot should A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. C. B. C. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. B.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.700 pounds. C X 416.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. C. B..If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach . flaps 30o.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140. C X 418. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. C.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.000 pounds. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m.. B X 414.. B X 415. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. B.16. C.RVR 800m and DH 60m. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. 200 knots B. or airway specified in the vector clearance..17.412.13. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory .Use of three reversers at 124. . B X 419. C X 413. what action should be taken? A. C X 417. 150 knots C X 420. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. with gear down.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. route. B.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.700 pounds. 170 knots C. [Refer to Figure 4-27. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured .600m and DH 120m.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds.Remains fixed for all positions.Aircraft dispatcher.F1020. C. B X 427. A X 430.from north to south A X 422. C X 425. turbulence C. A X 421. and irregularities of facilities and services? A. by regulation.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. A. C. for this PIC?)_DA63m. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A. B. A.Director of operations. vertical windshear C X 429.000 pounds gross weight.VIS1600m. as PIC. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. B. A.200 meters.B. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather. C..Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A.from east to west B.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A. C. By convective mixing in cool night air.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight.VIS1600m B X 428.Company meteorologist. head windshear B. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10. C.RVR550m..from west to east C.9and6 B. Who is responsible. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A. By regulation. B X 423.6 only A X 424. B.Opposite direction.Air route traffic control center.Same direction.DA93m.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .Use of three reversers at 120. B.9 only C. B. By wind or the movement of air..000 pounds gross weight. C. it will encounter___.L1020.. C.Director of operations.S1020. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. A X 426.DA110m. one-third to two-thirds of the time? .The aircraft dispatcher. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. B. 250 knots C X 434. high wind.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C X 435. and ASR. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A. by the applicant. light rain.clear. and he can realize that the current weather may be A. C. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.17 minutes. maintenance. C.14 minutes.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. ATC.certificate holder's operations specifications. 330 knots C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.16 minutes.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin. equipment.500 lb A. C X 433.e.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. [Refer to Figure 4-37. B X 436.. which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. B.ASR and PAR. B. A X 438.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. procedures and people..FL 8.100 feet.What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A.100 feet. C. Moderate chop. B.000 meters.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.A and B C X 439. . Just prior to takeoff.Compass locator.wrong A X 432.stratonimbus.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A. A X 431. B. good visibility C.(续正文，efficient flight operation.500 lb. B. B.400 feet.. PAR. C. to achieve a safe and A. The statement is)right B. 350 knots B. C. poor visibility A X 437. i. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport. but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources.FL 10.FL 39. shower and high wind B.. Intermittent light turbulence.thunderstorm. C. B.A.Zero fuel weight: 125. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. etC． C.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. occasional light chop.. dispatch. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.3842 feet. C. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight. A X 445.600 pounds.4Gs C X 441. . C X 448. the load factor is A.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree . (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A. filling out logs B.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A.3940 feet. B X 443.127.65MHz.85.DISTANCE (NM): 370. C. B.The point cleared by ATC.124.As the CG is moved forward.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C.77. Dorsal fin B X 450.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A. C.To protect military activities only.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? . C. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. B.1Gs.900 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. making passenger announcements C. . To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A. the stability A..B X 440.dose not change A X 449.D38 to HUAIROU.80.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29. C X 447.138 knots and 3.153 knots and 2..2Gs..700 pounds. A X 446.Activities. Slats B.000. B.1360 feet.Improves B.Decrease C.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87.183 knots and 2.1. include that A. B.900 feet.WIND COMPONENT: 60HW.121. B.HUAILAI. C. [Refer to Figure 4-41. C. Elevator C. both a and b C X 442.900 feet. B.85MHz. C X 444.To protect science tests only..35MHz.850 pounds.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. 60 days. C X 452. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities____. thrust decreases.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115.700 feet.As altitude increases.23 minutes. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. 125 NAM.DH200'. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come. A. A and B C X 460. 118 NAM.000 pounds? A. at their destinations B.Immediately prior to touchdown.. B. B.1 C. during emergency C. B.A.VIS800m.As altitude increases. for what maximum time is this document valid? A. C X 456. first serve basis.DH20'. .800 feet.. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate. C.24 minutes.TCAS I provides A. A X 454. both a and b C X 453. A X 451. C. B.2.25 minutes. [Refer to Figure 4-28.120 days.After applying maximum wheel braking.RVR550m. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 457.2 B X 458. 109 NAM. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. C.90 days. B X 459. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.8 B.Traffic and resolution advisories B. C.. thrust decreases. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. B. B. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90...As altitude decreases. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 455. C. B.Immediately after ground contact..500 feet. at their alternate aerodromes C.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A. thrust increases. 1 minutes. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.59.15 days ago. B X 466.000 pounds gross weight? A..Takeoff safety speed.1. A. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.VIS1600m.. A X 468.183 knots and 2.7 days ago.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. B X 463. B X 465.7 minutes. C. [Refer to Figure 4-45. C.900 feet. C X 461. B.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW.. B.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. [Refer to Figure 4-25.54.C.000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.white.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.300 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.. B. B X 462.Takeoff decision speed.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.Increasing speed or altitude.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. C. B.decrease rate of sink.500 feet.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X . C.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.900 feet.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.000 feet..9 minutes.green.prevent flow separation.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.138 knots and 3.900 feet.25 days ago.58. B X 469.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C. C X 464. C.Minimum takeoff speed.blue. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A. C.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. B. B.DH300'.increase profile drag. B X 467. B. B. C X 470. C. B..What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.153 knots and 2.. C. C.143o. receive this ATC clearance: ".. B....both A and B C X 479. B. A plane. B.. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. A X 472. MH 300°.233o.000m.471.300m.". at the same time. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.. C.Parallel only C X 480. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 478. ..The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.53o. B X 473.FL 6.. how much is the intercept heading? A.The first holding pattern altitude. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A.fatigue C. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large. At the EFC time. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around. C.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 476. reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine... Sand storm B X 477. C.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.Direct only C. the wind of low pressure area is . four-engine. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. A.trust you personal opinion. [Refer to Figure 4-45. clockwise inbound wind B. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A. B X 475.smoking and alcohol B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW .The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. Sand C.counter clockwise outbound wind C. Smoke B. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere. B.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.Teardrop only B.FL 6.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. C X 474. . B.762 feet. the altitude of LOM is 1. B. B.360 feet.9. A X 490.1. C. C X 485..360 feet..change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C X 483.S. C.115 EPR.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. C X 484.9.926 pounds.1. B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C.680 pounds. C.9. Hazardous weather warning A X 487.504 pounds. B X 486.10 EPR. the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A.Operating Certificate.870 feet. B.2.A.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. A X 488. C X 481. 5000 m above at other time A X 489. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A.2. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24..2. B. and 3000 m at other time B. C. B. C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. B. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A. Wind shear warning B. C X .move the eyes from left to right in the socket B. C X 482..262 feet.(according to figure 2).N. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.1. Aerodrome warning C. C.. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A..G.Operations Specifications. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.755 feet.Dispatch Release. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. C.245 feet. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.06 EPR. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.000 feet B. A X 495.2.. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. Descending to the surface and then outward.430 pounds.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 492. B.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A.(1-1) At a waypoint . B. little or no wind. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A. and high relative humidity. A X 494.1 hours C. C.(续正文考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m.VIS1600m.VIS2400m.000 feet C. C. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. 118 NAM.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.VIS1600m. A. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. 110 NAM.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121.MDH100m.1.2.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet. C X 497.000 feet C. B X 493.MDH120m. B. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. 113 NAM. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. B.491. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B. B X 499. A clear sky.3. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making.1... B X .490 pounds. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.400 pounds.1. Moist.3.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.30 minutes B. C.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C. It refer to A.000 feet B. B X 500.．After been in exposed to normal lighting.2. C.5 minutes. back to the departure airport.500 feet B X 498. C X 496. 000. Rising terrain C. C.VYSE. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.VXSE.86. C.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.difference training.4 percent. B X 502. A X 503.. the most appropriate remedy would be A.VMC. [Refer to Figure 4-32.transition training.2. C X 560.750 feet.. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. B.20 to 2. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.upgrade training. B.500 feet..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. B.0 percent.83. C. B. B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.5. hypoxia. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling. FL 250. C. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. B.From. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 509. B X . one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours.Below.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100. B.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B.501. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 507. Mach. FL 180..From..87. C. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. C. FL 200.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia.500 pounds? A. an initial lifting force. [Refer to Figure 4-28.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.1.. what airspeed should be maintained? A.1.4 percent.20 Mach.2.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. and sufficient water vapor. C. C X 504. C X 508.100 feet. Uneven heat on the ground C X 506. an unstable lapse rate.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A.75 to 1.75 Mach. C X 505. When distress conditions such as fire. C.. C. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). At the poles.Five B.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.HIALS..a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C X 569. B. B.HIALS with PAPI. or structural damage occurs.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B. C. B. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. going to or from a duty.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.Two A X 567. B X 564..000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 563. (According to figure 2) . In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A.How dose deadhead transportation. A X 568.Four C. affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A. A X 565. mechanical failure.500 feet C.the airplane rides on standing water. C.2.not considered to be part of a rest period. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm. which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? .considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. B X 566.1.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. moist air.000 feet B. C X 570. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. B.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3.1.000 feet A X 562. B.561.. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A. C. At the equator.. C.PAPI. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. low-pulsing red. C.ALTITUDE: 35.460 pounds. B. route weather advisories.High-pulsing white.. low-pulsing red.1. thrust decreases. B.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? . B. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight. C X 573. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. thrust increases.RVR 300m. B. and receipt of position reports.. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. on glidepath-steady white. an airplane may be dispatched only . (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A.High-pulsing white.Instrument Control Regulation.RVR 250m.RVR 400m.changes in flight plans.Visual Flight Regulation..Approach Control Regulation. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. on glidepath-green.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A. ZUUU C. on course and on glidepath-steady white. B X 578.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. C X 575. slightly below glide slope steady red. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. Radar vectors for traffic separation. C. A X 576. ZHHH B X 571. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A. intended route of flight.A. B.As temperature increases.High-pulsing white. C. A X 572.As temperature decreases. off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red. and altitude B.2. ZSSS B.. C.625 pounds. C. C. 6 calendar months.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. C X 577.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight.. A X 574. thrust decreases. B X 579. C. C. Severe weather information . 12 calendar months. and altimeter settings. low-pulsing red. B.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. B. 24 calendar months.000.1. [Refer to Figure 4-34.950 pounds.As temperature increases. CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A. C.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. Snow shower A X 587.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C. The first E is A. C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 585.Increase speed for a headwind. must land at the nearest suitable airport. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. C.trip number and weight and balance data. . A X 583. B.In VFR conditions C.fly with a head cold B.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.Increase altitude for a headwind.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. in point of time. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. There is an inversion with colder air below. B.What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. A.A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 581.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach..．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. decrease altitude for a tailwind.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B X 588. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. B. C. A X 582. however.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 586..．Hypoxia may be caused by A.. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane. the pilot in command A. A X 584.．The decision-making process is quite complex. B. using the acronym DECIDE. Strong wind with bad visibility C. at which a safe landing can be made. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.In day VFR conditions C X 580. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C.Evaluate the effect of the action C. it can be condensed into six elements. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. B.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 594.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.6 months.81 EPR. A X .a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. C X 593.62 EPR.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed.223 knots and 2.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.5.500 pounds. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. and load manifests for at least A.000 pounds gross weight. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. A X 590.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. dispatch releases.propeller thrust only. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. A X 591. A X 596. B.turbine inlet temperature. B X 595. B X 597. B.Use of three reversers at 133.01 EPR. C X 589..ENGINES OPERATING: 2.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.000 pounds gross weight.900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. C. C.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. C. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A. B.000 pounds gross weight.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.000 pounds.Use of three reversers at 131. C. A X 592.900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. [Refer to Figure 4-26. B. C.C.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A..] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.134.30 days. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. It should be reported without ATC request that A.3 months.500 pounds. C. B..000. [Refer to Figure 4-27. B. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. [Refer to Figure 4-34.129..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A..shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C. C.000 feet short of the end of a 4.124.219 knots and 1.216 knots and 1. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B. B X 600.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C. severe icing.598. C X 603. 2 km B. spring and summer. Embedded thunderstorms.reached the cruising IAS.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C. . B.entered VFR weather conditions. without VASI assistant. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A. under which of the following conditions. External factors include A. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.high environmental noise levels B. winter and autumn.. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. C. A.0850K. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers. B X 607.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 604.received an ATC clearance. 30 degrees.5 km A X 606. 2 km C. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.attitude may be higher than it appears.the skeletal muscles.the receiver's expectancy A X 599. A. light turbulence C.. C. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.. B.850..Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A.(续正文 than _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.) 30 degrees.(接正文 encounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .the otolith B X 601.. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C.the semicircular canals B.. B X 605. surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 602. B. 40 degrees. severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds. 1. B.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway. summer and autumn. joints and tendons C.K0850. In the Northern hemisphere. C. Radiation fog usually appears in .attitude may be lower than it appears.Normally. ． Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. B.500 feet B..High-speed flight only.B X 608.2.2.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet.. then select HUR VOR. C.3. C. B X 612. and airport elevation? A.The same as at low temperature. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Intersecting runways C X 613.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. .500 pounds? A. B. B.Low-speed flight only. A X 616.Climb straight ahead to L NDB.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB. what airspeed indication can be expected? A. [Refer to Figure 4-28. if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2. spring in southern areas.1.800m. B.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B. C.2. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. wind.3000m..Lower than at low temperature. spring in northern areas.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 619.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. summer in northern areas.600m.000 feet C.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only.2.Higher than at low temperature.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.000 feet. B X 610.. B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 614. right turn. C X 609. then select HUR VOR.350 feet. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.750 feet.2..To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. right turn. C.000 meters? . B. B. C. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A. B X 617. A X 618.500 feet B X 615.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.. C.1. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation.000 meters. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport.headache and fatigue B. does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A. nimbostratus. thunderstorm ..000 pounds gross weight.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. C X 625.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. A X 624. B X 623. authoritative and participatory. 350 knots B.2. B.500 pounds gross weight.Brakes and spoilers at 120. and reversers at 135.. but turbine temperature will be higher.03 EPR.．In order to make an effective communication..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. B. B. Cirrocumulus. 250 knots C X 620.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A. C.Thrust will remain the same. B X 628.Altimeter setting. C.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. radiation fogs or strong turbulence. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A. Standing lenticular.04 EPR.a feeling of euphoria C.stratus. good visibility B. 330 knots C.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.000 pounds gross weight.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style..cirrus. light rain.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.2. A X 626.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.a participatory leader B. C. shower. [Refer to Figure 4-26. they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. if any. B X 622. .Actual pressure at field elevation.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 629.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A. What effect.What is the purpose of a control tab? A. poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cumulus. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24. C X 621. C. A. B X 627.Brakes and reversers at 125. spoilers..．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A. C. B.01 EPR. B. C. Therefore.Brakes.2. B. what type leader the captain should be? A.A. which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case.avoid using contact lenses B X 633. . C X 630.don't read small print within one hour of flying.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122.1. such as when landing over water. 315°or NW C. which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B. B. C.750 feet.. C.B. C. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. which weather system we coursed A.right B. which may lead descends too low on approach.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. A X 638.(续正文，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway. and flight plan.wear good quality sunglasses during the day... exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. It is a Cold frongt C X .Dispatch release and weight and balance release. 135°or SE B X 634. It is a warm front.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B X 636. [Refer to Figure 4-28.750 feet. load manifest (or information from it). B. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. continue taxiing in the landing direction. . A. C X 632.2.．An absence of visible ground feature.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. C. C.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow).Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A. The statement is A. B. It is a stationary front C. A X 637. B.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. C.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.2. B. C. B.Dispatch release. A X 635. darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.200 feet. Northwest wing can be presented as . B X 631.000 pounds? A..-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. which would help to enhance night vision? A.wrong. 200°or NW B. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds. what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122. C. C X 644.It means 122. A X 640..-1. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A.shear line A X 641. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds. ASSS C. A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.. Some places have CBs.2.20 mach C. the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet.75 mach B. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart. ZULS B. the base is unknown C. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet.Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.75 to .20? A.front B.1.-positive longitudinal static stability.. On the weather chart of ground.000 feet C X 648.3.20 is very important.500 feet C..50 to . (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt. Person who heard the emergency. C. CBs with little or no separation B.-. B.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released.low pressure center C. C. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.20 MHz is the major communication frequency..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is . the airplane displays A.50 mach B X 647. C X 643.-.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle.20 to 2. B.3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A. Person who found the emergency. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. B X 642 (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1. C. the base is unknown B X 645.000 feet B. Pilot in command.It means frequency 122.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.639. ZUUU A X 646.2.. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate..] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84. B. B.A.The same angle of attack. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A. B X 655.required to have a first-class medical certificate. the applicant is A.000m. intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C. B.. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual. A X 650. 150 knots C X 653. plus holding. three of which may be in a glider. A.cumulonimbus C.342o.nimbostratus B. [Refer to Figure 4-41.21hours B X 649.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B X 651. B X 654.FL 6. B X 652. .How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A. vestibular and postural cues.29 minutes.. holding. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown. C.19hours B.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations.45 minutes.. B X 657.000.347o. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time. and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator.is not required to have a medical certificate.300m. B.six instrument approaches..six instrument approaches.WIND COMPONENT: 20HW. C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. B. C.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. 170 knots C..FL 6. A X 656.20 hours C. 200 knots B.30 minutes.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.DISTANCE (NM): 120.altostratus.FL 600m. C. C.352o. C.A lower angle of attack. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Group II aircraft are A. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. Fog..Turbojet aircraft C. C. B X 660. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. C X 665. ZSSS C X 659. isolated cumulonimbus . Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. volcanic ash B.Red B.Propeller driven aircraft B.. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A. which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A.B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C.Transient "backfire" stall. B.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. continuous flow reversal stall. passengers on board B.A higher angle of attack.. The fuel reserve required. C. B. Strong wind. is A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 663. C X 666.Green C X 667.. A X 662.Steady. Severe mountain wave.Intermittent "backfire" stall. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Amber C.8 C.1 B.. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. B.3/4 engine aircraft B X 661. when an approach has been missed. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. B X 658. ZUUU B. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. (According to figure 2) .11 A X 664. C. ordering galley supplies C. embedded thunderstorms with hail C. ZHHH C. Rain shower. B.is constant C X 669. C.varies with the rate of turn.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. steady white when on glide slope. pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope. B. mountain waves. mountain waves. Rain shower. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. C X 677. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. one pulsing and one steady. freezing precipitation. Thunderstorm.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. select the situation least likely to A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis.after a period of intense concentration C.One -light project.Three-light system.(续正文， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B. freezing precipitation.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 674.. C. B.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.C X 668. severe icing . The same true airspeed and angle of attack B.. A X 673.Best angle of climb. two pulsing and one steady.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 671.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.during normal operation C X 672. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. Headwind or tailwind increase C. steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 675.ZSSS C.ZBAA B.For a given angle of bank.Maximum endurance. mountain waves. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A. B. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. From the following list. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 670.ZUUU B X 676.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C. B.Two-light projectors.. Rainfall. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. severe clear air turbulence C. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.Maximum range and distance glide. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. C.. moderate clear air turbulence B.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A. severe clear air turbulence C X 685. B X 687. Upper rudder C. rain shower. 6. B. C.B X 678.wind speed B.".120 days after issue or renewal. B. rain. receive this ATC clearance: ".. are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. moderate icing. B..．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. A X 683. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.. except when in cruise flight.. A X 680..High RPM and high MAP.. Severe turbulence. A plane.air temperature C. and feet. Sudden increase in a headwind component.600 meters..Parallel only A X 686. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. legs.air pressure B X 684.Increased vision keenness. B. 3. thunderstorms B.. 3. Moderate turbulence.. Below that altitude. A X 679. B X . Sudden decrease in a headwind component.000 meters. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A. C..When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Direct only C. C. B. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. Moderate turbulence. Under normal operating conditions. MH 60°.000 meters.High RPM and low MAP. C. moderate icing.Low RPM and high MAP.Teardrop only B. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. C. Ruddervator B..Decreased breathing rate. severe clear air turbulence C.Tingling of the hands. A X 682. freezing precipitation.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Leading-edge flaps C X 681. severe icing. 50 kilometers.. B. The first D is A.11. B.40 kilometers.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 691.pitching up.46 kilometers. In summer.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational. lifesaving decision and carry it out following A..] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750. For an airport without air corridor. it can be condensed into six elements. B.. The statement is )right B.pitching down.24. using the acronym DECIDE.400 feet. B. C. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A..23. C. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON. A X 693. front fog C.600 feet. C.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.754 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-45.(续正文，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude.11. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .Exhaust gas temperature. B.leveling off.503 pounds.688. cumulonimbus B. however. In the Northern hemisphere. . layer clouds A X 697. A X 696.8 hours. when warm air mass is unstable.20.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.RPM. C. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. B. A.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80. A X 689. B X 695.wrong A X 692. C X 690. A X 694.11.227 pounds. C. [Refer to Figure 4-39. under which of the following conditions.Manifold pressure.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A..000 feet.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.(接正文 might encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. with reference to L/DMAX.Above 12. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. C X 705. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices..RVR 200m.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.(续正文，drastic mood swings at one time. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft.M. A X 698.What affects indicated stall speed? A. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A. C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.and power C. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. B X 704.000 feet or less to another aircraft. B. angle of attack . produce anxiety and A.．Heavy coffee or tea. load factor. A X 702. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C.N. B X 699..In terminal radar service areas C.320 feet/minute. C. and power B.wrong A X 707. if you are assigned to an additional flight. Weight.500 feet MSL A X 700. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D. weight.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.. The statement is)right B. C. Angle of attack.600m.B. B. 1. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A. . C. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.24 hours. B. Load factor . can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. During the period of Spring Festival.. B. At what speed.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.12 hours.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A.VIS 1.X.2% to FL148? A. C. B..A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. and airspeed A X 706. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.RVR 250m. A X 703. B X 701...1. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.Initial training. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e..FL 6.600m.delay stall.FL 6. C.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. 6 m/s A X 713. B.. C.1. C X 708. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A. C. C X 715. B X 709. B X 714.364 feet/minute.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.Upgrade training.. C. A X 716.B. B. B. may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A. an area of no convective turbulence C. B737-300). the max predicting wind speed is___..FL158. A X 717. 17 m/s B.1230 Beijing Time. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o. C..g. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A.1330 Beijing Time. at ZBAA.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C.(according to figure 2). C.400 feet/minute.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A.Recurrent training.increase airspeed. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time. clear ice. B. B X ..FL168. B. the absence of clouds in the area B.increase the load factor.FL 6. A. 8 m/s C. pilot should file flight plan at least before A. C. B. which altitude could it descend to? A. Rime ice.300m. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 710. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A.1300 Beijing Time. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 711.. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. A X 712. Frost ice.000m. B.1. C. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A.FL148. A X 719. A X 721..the sender and the receiver's skill. B X 720..the sender's skill.Increases takeoff distance.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 725. and the workload B X 728.International Flight Information Manual C. B.CG is at the most forward allowable position.. and the social culture system C. attitudes. C.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143.. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A.Decreases takeoff speed.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.12 calendar months.500 feet.. Operating at high airspeeds. personality. knowledge. Developing lift. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.2. B. C. B.Airplane Flight Manual B. B X 727.6 calendar months.CG is at the most rearward allowable position.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.2. A X 722. These conditions include A. C.24 calendar months.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb).400 feet.000 feet C. [Refer to Figure 4-28.000 feet B.850 feet. B.000 pounds? A.100 feet. C X 724. B X 726. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.Decreases takeoff distance. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.．In a communication process. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. Using high power settings. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? . knowledge.the sender's knowledge. C. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 723. attitudes. is most likely to be encountered A. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A..The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.1. C.718. some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. B X 734.Critical Mach number. B. A X 730. B.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B. in the center of strong downdraft burst B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. which operational requirement must be observed? A. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A.With the increase of temperature. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. B.Initial buffet speed. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine. C X 733. with revenue cargo aboard.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights. the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.. and approach must be VFR. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A.. Lines of thunderstorms. If an ATC controller assigns a speed. B. C. C. C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 732. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. Nimbostratus. reduce B X 736. en route. A X 729. fog and rain B.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. obscured thunderstorms C.Transonic index.If required by the airplane's type certificate. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. C X 737. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. .. C. B X 735. increase C. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. what should the pilot do? A. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 731. A.A.If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst. A.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3. C. remain unchanged B. B X 745. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure.5times groundspeed in knots. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. C. Upon arrival at ZBAA.．In a decision-making process . on glidepath-green. C. 8times groundspeed in knots. whichever is highest. low-red. B.000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. B. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. flight engineer.a pilot.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1. B. C X 740.Outer compass locator.Opposite direction. B. a participatory leader .DH300'. B X 739. on glidepath-green. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90.C.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A. B. on glidepath-red and white. low-red. A X 746.RVR550m. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'. TNA 90 is cleared for A. B. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A. C. C.VIS1600m.12 C. B. An altitude that is at least 1. A X 747.VIS800m.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach.High-white.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time. low-red.Inner marker..Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. or the MEA. Flying in rain.4 B. C. C. flying in any clouds.High-white. A X 742. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. B.DH200'. Last assigned altitude. A X 741. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"? A. C X 743. altitude ATC has advised to expect. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A.Some direction.11 C X 744. C.Remains fixed for all positions. What altitude should be used? A. B X 738..Middle compass locator C.High-white and green.10 times groundspeed in knots. 32 hours C. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.-Severe porpoising B X 749. This illusion is known as A.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions.TCASII provides A.autokinesis..What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.800m. B. B.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z. C. B X . knowledge.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. and preferences.A. A. C. and the weather then is ____.30 hours A X 754. C. C X 756. [Refer to Figure 4-34. light rain shower. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet.980 pounds..The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.．In the dark.3.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 753.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.Traffic and resolution advisories B.35 hours B. visibility 4 km. B X 755. a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.625 pounds.somatogravic illusion.870 feet. C. C. heavy rain. B.3.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.755 feet. B. B.000.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. visibility 4 km C.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.240 pounds. B X 752. A X 751.An alternate airport is required.5..ENGINES OPERATING: 2.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 748. B.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B. Light fog.ground lighting illusion.. visibility 4000 m B X 750.Proximity warning C.2.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec. ．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as . C. C X 764. clear to land with caution..Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. . East windat 4 m/s.Within the previous 6 months.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A. C. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A.6% to 4. C X 765. 200 knots B.930 as specified on the SID? A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. A X 761. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. B. A stable layer of air.1.644 feet/minute.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. B.Conducted IFR. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. no aircraft are allowed to land. B X 760. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. A X 766. B. B.244 feet.Carrying passengers. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 763. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots. C.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. 170 knots C.600 feet/minute.757.900 feet. if the flight will be A. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4. rain and broken clouds B X 762. Air mass thunderstorms. C.Within the previous 6 months.690 feet/minute... the pilot will be informed by ATC as A.496 feet. B.1. A. B. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. C. mist and broken clouds C.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch. 150 knots C X 758. B X 759. Scattered clouds. West wind at 4 m/s.Within the previous 12 calendar months.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. visibility 5000m and fog B. six ILS approaches. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization. what recent instrument approach experience is required? A. but not if it is "all cargo" C. An unstable layer of air... C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. both a and b . i.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.Zero fuel weight: 120. C.5 hours 55 minutes.e.500 lb.A and B C X 775.1.3. which of the following is right description about it? A. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2.454 pounds. C.950m.050m.. C X 774.650 meters. [Refer to Figures 4-46.108. C. within a microburst. B X 769. B.. [Refer to Figure 4-37. reduce speed to the assigned speed.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200.108. .ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. C.. 80 knots C.2.A.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A.10 to 117.. what should the pilot do? A.108. B.. procedures and people. B. B.1. C. C.5 hours 15 minutes.2.10 MHZ B. B. 4-47 and 4-48. B. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots.8 minutes. B X 771. 90 knots C X 773. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18.9 minutes. [Refer to Figure 4-43.10 minutes.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. B. B.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. the minimum safe altitude is A.10 to 118. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. A X 770.95 MHZ. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. to maintain enough separation.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37.500 lb A. B X 967. 40 knots B.250m. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.3. A X 768.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light.CRM is a process using all available information and resources.．Effective CRM has some characteristics. A X 772.5 hours 40 minutes.95 MHZ C. to achieve the desired separation.000 pounds? Initial weight: 162.224 pounds. equipment.10 to 111. C.000..987 pounds. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. flaps 25o. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. within a microburst.HUR. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.climbed to the appropriate altitude.18. B.IDK. Position reports. Position reports. C.slowed down to the final approach IAS. C. B. unable to climb 500 ft/min. A X 785. C. [Refer to Figure 4-29.22.retina .700 pounds. B. C.600 pounds.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable. B.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. vacating an altitude. Vacating an altitude.．Night vision is enhanced by A. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. C X 784. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.. to proceed direct to the regular airport.. B X 780.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft.received an ATC clearance. unable to climb 500 ft/min. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots.. C. C.Increase the camber of the wing. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A. B.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 779. C. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B.13. or supplies). 80 knots C. which of the following applies? A. 90 knots B X 781. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. vacating an altitude.C X 776.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140.PEK. B X 778. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. A X 777. beverages. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. unable to climb 500 ft/min..having the aircraft catered (foods. 40 knots B. B X 782. due to winds.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A. C. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.000 pounds. B. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C X 783.000 pounds. with gear up. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.infinity.B.. braking action is "good" C. A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency. within 10 days after the deviation. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C. B. after returning home.72. 7200 and 7500 series.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. and 7700 series.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 791.000.7MHz.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC. B.7MHz.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. At what speed. after the flight is completed. braking action is "100%" B X 795.110.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A..Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? A. C. C X 789. C X 794. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B. 7500.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A. the pilot should submit a written report A.74. C X 788.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.iris A X 786.9 percent. A X 793. C.To require a pilot to take a specific action. C X 790. . B. A X 792.111. .114.. B.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. B.2 percent..(续正文，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters.4 percent. B.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. C. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.cornea C.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15. with reference to L/DMAX. braking action is "fair" B.five meters. [Refer to Figure 4-32. C.. 0000 through 1000. 7600.．What cause hypoxia? A. C. C. C. A.75. C X 787.3MHz. C. There are cirrostratus .13 minutes. you should plan to lift off A.500 pounds? Initial weight: 180.involve the team in most decision making processes C.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed. clear air turbulence C.500 lb A.As air density decreases.As temperature increases. B.B.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144.A and B C X 797. C X 799.300 pounds. A X 796. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 802. gear up. B X 800. B X 804.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o. C. [Refer to Figure 4-29.. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.To warn the pilot. C. [Refer to Figure 4-37. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A.. C. stratocumulus. thrust increases. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. to flaps 0o. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B.9.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 801.Zero fuel weight: 125. C. gear down.As temperature increases.500 pounds.. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. There are altocumulus . B X 805. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. embedded thunderstorms C X .15 minutes.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. There are altostratus.400 pounds.16 minutes. B..right B. C X 798. at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A.500 lb. stratus . the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. B.10.wrong A X 803.．In flight. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. freezing rain B. The statement is A.To state some important information.11.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. thrust increases.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. stratocumulus. B.. thrust decreases. a good leader should A. B. DC-3.600 pounds. B.24 calendar months. and DC-9. C.6 calendar months. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere.ATP . A X 814.B-727 only. C.Porpoise.Z. C X 812.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27. B.At approximately 2.806. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.12 calendar months. B. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. B.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.35. [Refer to Figure 4-43.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.32. A X 811. C.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. C X 808.DC-9. B.Dutch roll C X 809. must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.ATP . A. C.VREF approach speed 140 knots ) __MDH150m.. at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth. B..Wingover.ATP .Y. or when leaving an assigned holding fix.Increase speed. C.000.DC-9 and DC 3.MDH100m. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR. other than pilot in command. B X 813. C X 807.MDH120m. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.B-727 and DC-3.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. Commercial .At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. . A pilot flight crewmember.Decrease speed.VIS1600m.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500. B. Causes clockwise rotation around a low.000 pounds..Maintain speed.PIC time 94 hours.B-727. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. C. C. C. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C X 815. Commercial .. C. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.VIS2400m. wet runway? A.VIS1600m. B.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. A X 810. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. when leaving an assigned holding fix. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A.I. B. When the wheels are locked and skidding. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China . what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A. A X 817.132 knots. A X 820. company organization name. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. IFR.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110.1. at least the same width as the runway. B. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C. trip number. A sovereign country or government unit C.They are both the same 31.right crosswind B.Passenger manifest.g. B. left crosswind C X 822..C. should be .. A X 824.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.An area.000 pounds? A.When wing lift has been reduced.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A. B. B X 819. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C. after reaching the most distant alternate airport. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A. VFR).GPS instrument approach operations. 102 NAM. A X 823.390 pounds. B X 816. C.Type of operation (e. outside the United States. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters.000feet.True altitude is lower than 31.000feet. C. and cargo weight. B.200 pounds..An area. C.139 knots.136 knots.440 pounds. A. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. [Refer to Figure 4-30.1845Z. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. or attached to. In northern hemisphere.30.. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B..1. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A. the wind on the course is _____.At high ground speeds. Which information must be contained in. not as wide as the runway.tailwind C.420 pounds. C. B X 821. 92 NAM. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.1915Z. must be authorized by A.1945Z. B X 825. B.1.. 97 NAM. The FAA Administrator only B X 818. B. Cargo and passenger distribution information.300feet C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.3016KHz.En route at FL270. the altimeter is set correctly. A X 826. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.A. B.10 hours. C. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.1. B.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane.Wet runway using brakes. C.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. On descent. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B. In a 24-hour consecutive period. B.90 hours C...Motion about the longitudinal.. B X 827.Copy of the flight plan. C. for no more than A. B. in any calendar month.57. B X 828.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. excluding briefing and debriefing. B X 830. Direct tailwind. B. spoilers and reversers.122.Motion about the vertical axis. C.100hours B X 829.8897KHz. whichever is less.White inscriptions on a black background C. B X 839. a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.If the field elevation is 650feet. used to provide destination or information.and the altimeter is functioning properly. C.585feet B.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X . B.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. B X 831.8 hours. C. what is the maximum time. have A. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.Sea level C X 832. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A.6 hours.500 pounds? A. C X 838. what will it indicate upon landing? A.20MHz. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A. C.80hours B. B. Light quartering tailwind.Airport information signs. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.Motion about the lateral axis. pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A. Light quartering headwind. 840. B X 842.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 848. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. C.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.2 B.Adhere to standard operating procedures.000 pounds.137 knots. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. B.800 pounds.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. etC．as far as possible. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. C. with gear down. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. B X 841.7hPa. [Refer to Figures 4-22. B. C.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B. C.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.20. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A. For past three hours. A X 844.000 pounds.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. C. 4-23 and 4-24.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.300 pounds.. B.3 C.22.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 843. flaps 40o. B X 847. [Refer to Figure 4-30. B..70 percent of the actual runway available. C. C X . the air pressure have reduced 17hPa.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light. B.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B.124 knots. twinengine airplane represent? A.. For past three hours. C. the air pressure have reduced 1.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. fuel burn.4 B X 845..130 knots. B X 846.17. warm front clouds B X 858. B X 859. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A. layer clouds B. B. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.Area flight information center. . B X . When proceeding to the alternate airport. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.000 feet B. C.600m and ceiling 120m.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart.vomiting B X 851. A. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 850.500 feet C.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A.Airport flight information office..1.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL. C X 853. if still IMC? A.V1.1. B.a steep authority gradient C.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 855.D0.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. B. C. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground.a shallow authority gradient B.D0.800 feet. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. B.849. C.medium personal attention and high task orientation C. This situation could be described as A.3 PEK.1. dizziness B. C. it will usually produce . Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A..visibility 1.ATMB NOTAMs office.VLOF. A.Above PEK VOR.V2... smooth airflow and advection fog C.2 PEK. C.strong leadership B X 854. the wind direction usually changes. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. A X 852. B X 857.. from headwind to tailwind. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. C X 856. which minimums apply? A.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.600 feet or more.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90.Remains fixed for all positions A X 866.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.2 C. Convection currents at the surface. following a failure of the critical engine at VEF. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e. C. pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. is indicated by symbol A... B. C.1 B.When the RVR is 1.upgrade training.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF.Opposite direction. B. B. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. turbojet powered) is A. B X 865.initial training.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A. The minimum speed during takeoff.. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.3 A X 867.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.Same direction. B X 863. [Refer to Figure 4-39. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.19.V2min .When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC. B.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 869.V1.. B. C X 864.400 feet.transition training. B. C. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A.. 868. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence. C.After passing the visual descent point (VDP).VLOF.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. C X 862.g.ATMB NOTAMs office. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. C X 861. at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A. . Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A. C.. Cold temperatures. B. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. C. C. Poor visibility.860.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing..20. C.angle of attack B.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. C. B X 878.166 B.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A. increasing its A. B. B. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No. B.the cochlea C.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA. C X 873. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path.energy B X 877.. Decrease profile drag. the pilot should A.220m.B. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.23. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B.. C. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time.Eustachian tube B. C.150m. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. A X 875.camber C. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.800 feet. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B X 870.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 872. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A.000 feet.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. whichever is later. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach.160m. C. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. if the authorized MDH is 100 meters. A X 871.346 C. B.354 C X 874. plus or minus 3minutes.the semicircular canals C X 876.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A. C. B X . What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A. C.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD).99.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW. C X 883.RVR 1. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A. the pilot should have readily available: A. landing performance of the aircraft.15 days ago. B.103. C X 888. C X 886.2005Z. C. C.870 feet. A X 887. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A. B.7 minutes.000 feet C. A X 880. gear and flaps down.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.28 days ago. C. C.RVR 700 feet. slow.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 881.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).. and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.1905Z. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A. C X 885.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear.200 feet. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. B. A X 884. what height above the airport could it descend to? A.879. Heavy.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850.A decrease in angle of attack.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.. C. Heavy.DH 50 feet and RVR 1. B. B.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A.762 feet. gear and flaps down. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL..The landing performance of the aircraft. fast. B.7 days ago.755 feet. Heavy. B.8 minutes.0005Z. [Refer to Figure 4-45. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. B. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A. C. slow.97.. plus the forecast winds. A.2 minutes. B. B. gear and flaps up..An abrupt change in relative wind. A X 882.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.. C. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C X . C.Airspeed.3.November 1988.. B. A X 893.2.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. C X 898. B. aircraft pitches up.. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989. successfully completes the instrument competency check. C.. and altitude increases C.Two times greater. B X 894. B. C.January 1989. aircraft pitches down.650 feet.6 months. B. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A. [Refer to Figure 4-26.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.000 pounds gross weight? A. B. C. B.90 days. and altitude decreases B.12 months.9 NM point is indicated? A.889.. C. B. the latter check is considered to have been taken in A. and altitude decreases C X 895. indicated airspeed decreases. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A. C.December 1988.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.The same. B. B.. C. B X 891. B X 897. acting as second-in-command. C X 896.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.Four times greater.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A.Altitude..What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.000 feet. A pilot. indicated airspeed decreases.Angle of attack. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A.100 feet. C.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.2. B X 892. indicated airspeed increases.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.Sluggish in rudder control .Sluggish in aileron control. aircraft pitches down.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. C X 890 (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1. Guidance..What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A. C. Azimuth.1.C.Look only at far away. distance. B. B X 900. and visual information. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A. B. [Refer to Figure 4-25.556 pounds.200 feet. A X 909. Azimuth. C. B. B.. B. 130 knots B X 906. dim lights.850 feet. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A.2Gs.400 feet.] What is the total fuel required at . C. and 4-54.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C. C X 904. key to the flight deck door.4-53. B X 908.. B.000 pounds? A. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. flashlight in good working order. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.10 hours C.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 899.80 Mach? A.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. certificate holder's manual.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.12 hours A X 905. C. 170 knots B. [Refer to Figures 4-50. B. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.quite different to those of hypoxia B.4-51. B.1Gs.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are A..．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. C.quite similar to those of hypoxia .. C X 902 . the load factor is A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125.8 hours B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China.What functions are provided by ILS? A. range. 150 knots C.4-52.22. B X 901.4Gs B X 903.22.836 pounds. C X 907.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree .Over the open sea only. and vertical angle. and vertical angle. C.Over the territory only.420 pounds.1.22. range. 000 pounds gross weight? A. [Refer to Figure 4-34.30days A X 918.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A. whichever is less. Upon arriving at the most distant airport. A X 919. 45 minutes at holding altitude. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B. C.5. whichever is less. B X 914. or 90 minutes at normal cruise.148 knots. 4-23 and 4-24.90days C.140 knots. A X 915. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A.4.4.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.60days B.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25.83 EPR. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption. [Refer to Figure 4-26.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. A X 917. C.any required pilot crewmember.any flight crewmember.C. C. B.600 feet. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°. B.M256.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? .000.. C X 913. C X 916. A.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A. C..Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.ALTITUDE: 30. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required. B X 912.69 EPR.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. C. B.. B.from south to north .300 feet.217 knots and 1.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.F256. A X 911.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight.221 knots and 1. B.the pilot in command only.profuse sweating B X 910.500 feet.F0256..000 feet.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.81 EPR. B.145 knots.210 knots and 1. C.. C. [Refer to Figures 4-22.4. 420N. C. A X 926. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport.500 pounds. B X 921.300 pounds. A X 929.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. frequent lightning C. C X 922. [Refer to Figure 4-29. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.domestic area flight information center.. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B.YV. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A. gear down.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to.from north to south C X 920. There are thunderstorms over the airport. B.. B.15. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A. the commencement of final approach B. continuous updraft C X 928.11.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A...7KM from PEK. C. A X .from west to east C.DK.foreign international NOTAMs office. A X 925.7NM from PEK. C.B.13.N0420. B.11... gear up. .13.. pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A. C X 923.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.300 pounds. C. C. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A. to flaps 0o.7SM from PEK. (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A. C.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o..11.WF. B. A X 924. enter TMA C.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger.To protect military activities. beginning of rain at the surface B. B. A. the commencement of initial approach A X 927. C. C. B.In daily aeronautical weather reports. Where provided.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry.N420. A.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A. the code "VCTS" means ____. B.domestic airport flight information office.. V1. C.(续正文， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased. what frequency should be tuned? A. B. B X 938.. B X 932.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions .0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R.118.. B. A.VEF.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. B.An area. Turbulence A X 939.0 HUR to D16.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.1KHz. A X 931. B. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers.1MHz. Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A.5KHz. a good leader should not A. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). Certificate holder's manual.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.An area beyond the takeoff runway. A X 934. an abrupt head movement A. This is known as )autokinesis. C.930.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.Coriolis illusion. C X 936. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A. Microburst C. B.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities.Two B X 935. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.．During the flight. Airplane Flight Manual.118. Low-level wind share B. C. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34. C.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A. which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. which is able to support the airplane.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.118. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B. . how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.Three C. B.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 937．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions. C X 933.the leans. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.V2. C. at least the same width as the runway.. A X 944. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.78 Mach? A.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.100 feet AGL. 210 knots B X 948.1 hours 05 minutes.Supercharger gear ratio. C X 945.At least one hour prior to the departure time. Rain and snow B. C X 949. A X 940.138 knots and 3.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. Series C and Series D. B.150 feet AGL. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A.Angle of bank C.. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.Series A. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. 230 knots C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.. Continuous snow A X 943. B. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A. B.] What is the ETE at .] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.450 feet.850 feet. C. C.4-51. by means of VOR NAVIDS. C.1 hours 08 minutes. A X 942.. C. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.123 knots and 3. C.153 knots and 3. B.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. C. Drizzle C.4-53.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. and 4-54. 250 knots B. Which rule applies? A.involve the team in most decision making processes.Rate of turn B.. [Refer to Figures 4-49. C X 941. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A..1 hours 02 minutes. C.True airspeed B X 947.. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.4-52.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.B.200 feet AGL.Series A and Series D. to a suitable airport and land. B.Series A and Series C. B X 946. .050 feet. B. 4-50. The desired manifold pressure.24 hours C. A X 954..Exhaust gas discharge. which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3. B. A X 953. 170 knots B X 956. A X 958..If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative. C.An air carrier may schedule a pilot.372 feet.required to have a second-class medical certificate. what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A. visibility and low clouds B. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate.470 feet. C.17 hours B. B. windshear at low altitude C. C X 951. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.required to have a first-class medical certificate. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. C X 950. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL.25 hours A X 957. in an approved simulator. The fuel required to fly to the alternate. 210 knots B. 200 knots C.Three A X . An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B.Five C.not required to have a medical certificate. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. hail and rainstorm B X 955. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118..525 feet. plus 10 percent. on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot).. is A. C X 952. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.B. Original dispatch release. B. Certificate holder's manual.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.FL128. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region. B.000 meters? A. C. C.Seven B.FL138.FL118. C X . dissipating C.851 feet/minute.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.000 pounds. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots.Clearway..Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. 250 knots B.16. . what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3. C.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C. mature B X 962. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 965. B X 964..000 meters? A. cumulus B.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 967.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C. A X 961. B X 966.. which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. [Refer to Figure 4-43.. B..32.During the life cycle of a thunderstorm..760 feet/minute.699 feet/minute.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. A X 963.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.is the same as an ATC clearance.5KM from ILG. B.5SM from ILG. C.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B. B.34.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37.000 pounds. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4. An ATC "instruction" A. B. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. B. C.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW. C. C. A.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. 200 knots B X 960. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.Stopway. 210 knots C.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. which is able to support the airplane.600 pounds. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.959.5NM from ILG.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200.000.28. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC..930 as specified on the SID? A.16. B X 975.alternate airport.Level 2 ..Failure to comprehend the situation C. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.(续正文，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors.required to have a first-class medical certificate.6 hPa.From information by compass. C.8000 feet B X 971. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents.-Positive static stability C. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A.VSO.not required to have a medical certificate. supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A. The visibility is 8 kilometers.2 NAV? A. B. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate.6 hPa. B.10000 feet C.Level 3 . Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A. The adverse effects of ice. C. The visibility is 8 kilometers. Using the taxonomy. C. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A. C.-4? C X 974. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A. B. C X 972. The visibility is 800 meters. C X 977..．As a general rule. B X 976. which description is correct A.1? B. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 .Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 970.VS1.-2? C.-Negative static stability B. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. B. snow.968.15000 feet B.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.-Negative dynamic stability A X 969. is A.Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. airspeed. self-contained gyros and accelerometers.By signals fro. B X . C.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A. A decreased stall speed. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa. the sea level pressure is 999. C.VS. C X 973. in an approved flight simulator.provisional airport. An increased stall speed. and an input of wind and variation data.destination airport. increased thrust.. the QNH is 999. B. 978.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. C. B. what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A. B X 986.000 pounds gross weight.Use of three reversers at 113. C. red. and green. what is the valid period of time... white. B. This phenomenon is referred to as .2. B..The point cleared by ATC.autokinesis.One light projector with two colors. red and white.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. [Refer to Figure 4-26. B. C.500 feet.000 pounds gross weight? A. A X 981..What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A. C.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.750 feet. B X 982.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120.Row of four lights parallel to the runway.2.300 feet. A.virga C. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route. B.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway.308 feet. B. C.Use of three reversers at 115..193 feet. From 14Z to 22Z B X 988.1. spoilers and reversers at 130.000 pounds gross weight? A.. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter . (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.DAWANGZHUANG.somatogravic illusion. B X 980.. C. B. C.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5. C X 987. red and white. A X 984.200 feet.000 pounds gross weight. A.．The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A.plume B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105.000 feet.000 pounds gross weight. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL.. A X 979. [Refer to Figure 4-25.3. dowdraft B X 985. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground.150 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-27. C X 983. B. B.Apply full main wheel braking only.500 feet.000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. From 08Z to 22Z. C. C.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes.inversion illusion. wet snow. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. B X 7. B X 9.4.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.By signals fro. C X 3. B.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. B.750 feet.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118.500 feet.From information by compass. C X . Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. airspeed..To protect military activities only. B X 5.. C.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.200 feet. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. C.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. and an input of wind and variation data.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C.. PAR. B. B. C X 8. [Refer to Figure 4-25.To protect science tests only.000 pounds gross weight? A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above.ASR and PAR.. B. self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C. and ASR. B.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased. B.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.4.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. Ice pellets. B X 1. C. C. Freezing rain. C.Compass locator.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.4.Y.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 6.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.A.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. C. It is most likely to occur when A.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 2. B X 4.Z.I. equipment. C.5NM C. B.10. have A. the pilot should A.VLOF. used to provide destination or information. 50 metres B. B.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B. [Refer to Figure 4-29. to achieve a safe and A.500 pounds.. During emergency.300 pounds. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o. following a failure of the critical engine at VEF.The same angle of attack. at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance. B.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. B X 11. C..Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. gear up. i. is indicated by symbol A.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources. A X 13.Airport information signs. C X 15.V2min .7.0NM B.10.e. C. C.V1.Increases takeoff distance.Read the clearance back entirely.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 18. at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A. B.A higher angle of attack. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation.Decreases takeoff speed. B X 12.At least one full stop landing must be made. 150 metres C X 20. can a pilot expect landing priority? .10.Decreases takeoff distance.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. to flaps 0o.11. B.. 500 metres C.White inscriptions on a black background C. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. B X 17. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A. The statement is)right B.400 pounds. The minimum speed during takeoff.0NM A X 16.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.. B.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A.(To be continued，efficient flight operation. B X 19.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach.5.Do not accept the clearance.1 NAV? A. C. gear down.A lower angle of attack. procedures and people.. C.wrong A X 14.9. 3 minutes.15 minutes. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position.30 minutes.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight. C. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B.Three C. first-served" basis. B X 22. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. There are cirrostratus . stratocumulus. C X 26.In VFR conditions C. B. should be reported as A.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.Turbulence encountered above 15. a good leader should not A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B. There are altostratus.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.000 feet AGL. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. B X 21. High altitude turbulence. C. B.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. B X 25..A.. convective turbulence.All recorded information may be erased. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. B. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C.In day VFR conditions C X 29.. C X 28. C X 27. not associated with cloud formations.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A. yes.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B. .An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A. C. no. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A. Clear air turbulence.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance..Two B X 24. There are altocumulus .which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 23.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C. stratocumulus. an airplane may be dispatched only A.．During the flight.All recorded information may be erased. yes. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come. stratus .Four B.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light. WIND COMPONENT: 60HW. both a and b C X 35.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A. A.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. B. aircraft pitches up. Which rule applies? A. Position is not affected C. low-red. .involve the team in most decision making processes. C. 24 calendar months. include that A.High-white and green.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A. after initial training? A. 12 calendar months. B. C X 33.153 knots and 2.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.10 times groundspeed in knots. on glidepath-red and white. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 32. low-red. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. indicated airspeed decreases. and altitude decreases B. C.050 feet.5times groundspeed in knots.. aircraft pitches down. to a suitable airport and land. and altitude decreases C X 38. making passenger announcements C. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight.. on glidepath-green..] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.C. 8times groundspeed in knots. and altitude increases C. C. A X 31. B. B.High-white.123 knots and 3. [Refer to Figure 4-41. B. indicated airspeed decreases.050 feet.. on glidepath-green.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 . aircraft pitches down. C. by means of VOR NAVIDS. indicated airspeed increases. A X 30. C. Strong wind with bad visibility C.138 knots and 3. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.DISTANCE (NM): 370. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. by means of VOR NAVAIDS.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.High-white.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios.000. Snow shower A X 36.Activities. B X 39. filling out logs B.050 feet. C X 34. A X 37. low-red. B. 6 calendar months. the accuracy of the GPS derived A. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. 80. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport. B X 47.Outboard ailerons.Airspeed.(1-1) At a waypoint .Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. B.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII.MDH120m..To warn the pilot.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. B.VIS2400m. under normal conditions. C.600 pounds.Flaps.6MHz. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.113.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 48. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.To require a pilot to take a specific action.Proximity warning C.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C. C.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C. C..Limiting torque. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed.7MHz.77.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121.Altitude. C X 41. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.850 pounds. B.TCASII provides A. A X 40. B X 49. as ATC has radar contact B. B.(To be continued 考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m.6KHz. B.. C.Limiting compressor speed. B.Angle of attack.VIS1600m. resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.. B X 45.85. A X 44..To state some important information.MDH100m. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 43. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.Tabs.ARINC . C. B X 42. C. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. B.114. B X 46.113. A.700 pounds. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A. B.VIS1600m. C. B. . The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . Notify ATC immediately. as soon as practicable. C. nearest CAAC district office. B. Squawk 7600. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 55.the receiver's expectancy A X 54.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 59. C X 58.having the aircraft catered (foods.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. clear to land with caution. A X 56.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.plume B.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. no aircraft are allowed to land.B.. operations manager (or director of operations).. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. A. C. to proceed direct to the regular airport. runway is closed or unsafe runway. B. C X 57. This phenomenon is referred to as . C. the pilot in command must report it. A.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway.Any FSS C. due to winds. dowdraft B X 52.virga C. beverages. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization. to the A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. External factors include A. B.Appropriate dispatch office C X 50. or supplies).No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.high environmental noise levels B. what recent instrument approach experience is required? . what airspeed indication can be expected? A. ATC and dispatcher.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. C X 51. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 53. B.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A. B.354 C X 62. C. B.not required to have a medical certificate.. A X 61. B X 65. A X 68. in an approved simulator.1 minutes.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 64.Within the previous 6 months. C X 63.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C X 67.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.requiring a pilot to read back. These lines are A.59. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway.The point cleared by ATC.keeping flight status. C. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A. [Refer to Figure 4-45. B. C X 66. A X 60.Within the previous 12 calendar months. is A.requiring a pilot to take specific action.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. C. head windshear B.D38 to HUAIROU. B. C. and ability to climb 50 ft/min.Within the previous 6 months.Heading.346 C. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.. C. C.7 minutes.. it will encounter___.166 B. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C. A. six ILS approaches.What performance should a pilot of a light. B.Heading and altitude.required to have a first-class medical certificate. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate. turbulence .] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.9 minutes.54. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds..AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. B. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.Heading.58.HUAILAI.A. altitude. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No. when the flight arrives.Director of operations or flight follower. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.13. B. and procedures as far as possible C.75 to 1.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.200 pounds.during the entire flight.000.097 feet.75 Mach.ADF C.093 feet.Pilot in command. B X 71.6 only A X 78.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making.9 only C.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.12. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.C. vertical windshear C X 69.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27.VOR B.Aircraft dispatcher. regulations.123 feet.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 70.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B. (Refer to Figure 6-3. B.12..for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.35. C.Two A X 77.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B. C. [Refer to Figure 4-43.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.adopt all rules.does the first thing that comes to mind.Four C.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.600 pounds. A X 75. B.VOR and DME A X 72. C X 76.Five B.30. C X 74. B. C. B X 73.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.32..20 Mach. .000 pounds.9and6 B. During a supplemental air carrier flight.Below.From. B. C. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500..What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A. Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. C. LEFT TURNS.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding..300 feet.The existing and forecast weather for departure..smoking and alcohol B. C. A X 79. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.000 pounds gross weight? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.4.1.C.trust you personal opinion. receive this ATC clearance: "... Mach.20 to 2. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. A X 80.4. at the same time. MH 160°.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. B.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. A plane.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. and approach must be VFR. C.Increase speed.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. C X 81. en route.Decrease speed.fatigue C. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. which operational requirement must be observed? A.. B. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 87.000 feet.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 82..4. A X 83.5.Parallel only C X 84. Using the taxonomy.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.".Maintain speed. . C. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A. B.A and B C X 85. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors.From.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.Direct only C.500 feet.both A and B C X 86.. B.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. [Refer to Figure 4-26.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.Teardrop only B... a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 92. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.Normally.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.110 knots.Stop way. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.... B X 93. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.100 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A. C. B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.FL 39.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.96 knots. B. B X . A X 94. C. C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 96. A X 90.90 knots.FL 29.FL 8.400 feet. C X 91. Light and variable. C. C. B.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. Wind shear. C.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A. an abrupt head movement A. A X 95.Obstruction clearance plane.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.B. B.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B. B. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.. This is known as )autokinesis. C X 89.Clearway.excessive use of carburetor heat B. C.Coriolis illusion.500 feet. Frontal passage. C X 88.the leans. C. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. -A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B. 90 knots C X 6. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.Look only at far away. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. head windshear B. ..Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. it will encounter___.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. C.Inner marker. B X 3.A severe moment or "tuck under" C. is most likely to be encountered A. B X 99.4Gs C C 2.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 5. dim lights.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Only one INS is required to be operative.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb).VLOF. C.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units..1.V2.Outer compass locator.2Gs. A.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.1Gs.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A. turbulence C. B.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 98. within a microburst. B X 1. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A. the load factor is A..during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree . vertical windshear C X 4. B.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A. C.V1.Middle compass locator C. B. B. 80 knots C.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A. 40 knots B.97.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. B. C.-Severe porpoising B X 100. 2.Low speed. B X 13. B. C.High speed.. wet snow. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. Ice pellets. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A. Freezing rain..A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 10.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach . B. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles..B X 7. C X 9. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. At what speed.1. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.Any speed. A X 15. Select another type of navigation aid. [Refer to Figure 4-28. B. B X 14.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.500 pounds? A. C X . 170 knots B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression.To warn the pilot.To state some important information.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. relatively calm night. B. B. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. C.750 feet.. the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured .100 feet. B. C. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory . C.To require a pilot to take a specific action.. C X 12. C. At the poles. B. 150 knots C. C. B.500 feet.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. 130 knots B X 16. C. C. B. C X 8. with reference to L/DMAX. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. Terrestrial radiation on a clear.2.. At the equator. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142.. B X 11. wind. Radiation fog usually appears in .Airborne radar C. it can be condensed into six elements.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. however. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. at 1.500 feet. 30 minutes at holding speed. B X 25. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 20.-neutral longitudinal static stability. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A.One engine.Two B X .. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. A X 23. B.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. using the acronym DECIDE.0850K. the airplane displays A.DME C X 21. on a multiengine aircraft B.762 feet.17. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A. B X 26.755 feet..850.K0850. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers. over the airport.500 feet over the airport.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 19.The same as at low weight.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. A. B. A X 24. Rain and fog C. 30 minutes. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace. B. B. The first E is A. spring and summer.. B. C. B. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. A X 18.Evaluate the effect of the action C. C.Five C.. A X 22. at cruising speed.Six B. C. C.Lower than at low weight. and airport elevation? A.870 feet. summer and autumn. C. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Higher than at low weight.. winter and autumn.-positive longitudinal static stability. at 1. B.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.VOR B.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B. A X 31.000 feet is closest to A. B. Wind shear. This effect begins at about A. B. B X 29.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. A X 35.Compressor discharge. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.5000 feet B.VOR and DME A X 34.Fuel spray nozzles.involve the team in most decision making processes C.ADF C.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision.The aircraft dispatcher...Air route traffic control center. B X 33. and irregularities of facilities and services? A.35 seconds B X 30.25 seconds B. A X 28. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.10000 feet C. a good leader should A. Frontal passage.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier. C." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.Director of operations.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. B. Light and variable.Turbine inlet. C. if enough fuel A. By regulation. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1.．In flight. C. B.8000 feet A X 32.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China. C.A and B C X . Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.15 seconds C.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.27. 36.Decreases takeoff distance.000m. C.390 pounds.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.Initial buffet speed..RVR 400m. B.700 feet.2. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.Decreases takeoff speed.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. C X 41.. C. B. C. B X 39.Critical Mach number.000 pounds? A. C.As air density decreases. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines.RVR 300m. thrust increases.. C. C. A X 46. . braking action is "100%" B X 43. A X 40. braking action is "good" C. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. B X 37. 102 NAM. B. 92 NAM.1.Transonic index.RVR 250m.1.9.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. B X 42. B.500 feet. braking action is "fair" B.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A. B X 45. C X 44.000m. B. Decrease profile drag. B.. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.800 feet.12. thrust decreases. 97 NAM. B.100m. thrust increases.As temperature increases. [Refer to Figure 4-28. C.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.Increases takeoff distance. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.440 pounds.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A. C. A X 38.ZBAA . C.420 pounds.As temperature increases... what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.1. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.3. B. B. 8 to 9 km B. with gear down.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.15 to 17 km B X 49. A.17.. B X 48. B X 56. Which term describes the hydroplaning.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.received an ATC clearance.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.Over the open sea only.ZSSS C.800 pounds.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.. flaps 30o.Over the territory or open sea abut to China.10 to 12 km C. B.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. C. A X 51.Viscous hydroplaning. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 50.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude. B.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.entered VFR weather conditions. B.200 pounds.High density altitude. C. A X 52. C.ZUUU B X 47.. C. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A. C X 54. which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.. C. B.Low gross weight.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. .the standard air pressure of the local station C. B X 53. B.000 pounds. C..Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C.reached the cruising IAS.9.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.Dynamic hydroplaning.Increasing speed or altitude.B. A X 55. B.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. B..Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. A.Over the territory only.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A. the altimeter should set on .000 pounds.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.11. C. [Refer to Figure 4-27..lift. is normally limited to A.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. C X 59.lift. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. embedded thunderstorms C X 64. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A. when originally issued.Steady.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A.B X 57. C. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. but not drag. B.Teardrop only B. B.Transient "backfire" stall.. decreased takeoff distance C..". A X 66. A X 60. C. gross weight.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. C..Parallel only C X 62. airspeed.. you should plan to lift off A. only to find that it was the right A. B.. B. LEFT TURNS. airspeed performance B..Use of three reversers at 124.Intermittent "backfire" stall. receive this ATC clearance: ".000 pounds gross weight.expectancy producing a mental block ...don't read small print within one hour of flying.lift and airspeed.000 pounds gross weight.wear good quality sunglasses during the day.500 pounds gross weight.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine. and drag. A plane. loss of. MH 160°.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.By changing the angle of attack of a wing.. clear air turbulence C. C. B X 63. continuous flow reversal stall. which would help to enhance night vision? A. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.(To be continued，engine which failed. C. the pilot can control the airplane's A. B. or diminished.Use of three reversers at 120. B.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). C.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.Direct only C. freezing rain B. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 65. and drag. B X 61.avoid using contact lenses B X 58. 000 feet.2.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb). Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA.C. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. B..Over open sea.Over domestic and open sea.supplemental and domestic. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time..2. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.750 feet.. C. [Refer to Figure 4-28. The route filed in the flight plan.I. C. and designated pilot in command are A. An off-airway route to the point of departure.. B. Which route should be flown in the absence A. B. B. B. B.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X .350 feet. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 75. C. B.supplemental and commercial.flag and commercial. C.1..a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 67.Takeoff decision speed.. or include on. flight attendant. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route.Y. B X 71. the wind direction usually changes . when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. While in IFR conditions.from left crosswind to right crosswind. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. Z X 68. B X 69. B. whichever is later. C X 70.Takeoff safety speed. B X 72. A. plus or minus 3minutes. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A. C. C.Minimum takeoff speed. is most likely to be encountered A.500 pounds? A..Over domestic only. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. A X 73.from headwind to tailwind. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Z. C. A X 74. Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C.. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Holding position signs have A. 17 m/s B.(according to figure 2).. 6 m/s A X 86. 330 knots A X 77.3MHz. B. the max predicting wind speed is___.76.000 pounds? A.7 days ago.15 days ago. A.White inscriptions on a red background B.fatigue C.1.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 83.both A and B C X 80. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A..000 meters. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route. 8 m/s C. B X 84. A X 81.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 85. B.. [Refer to Figure 4-28. 250 knots C.114.7MHz.25 days ago. Upper rudder C. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter . The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B.300 feet.. C. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.smoking and alcohol B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). at ZBAA.. B.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy.800 feet. C X 82. A. Ruddervator B.7MHz.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 78. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. C.300 feet.Red inscriptions on a white background C.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Leading-edge flaps C X 79.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. 150 knots B. C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.111. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. without VASI assistant. [Refer to Figures 4-49. C. C.RCLS and REIL C. 4-50. C. and approach lights? A. and RVR. B.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A..A. increase wing sweep.attitude may be higher than it appears.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. marker beacons. TDZL. C. and highest stability. Expansion of air as rises. B. and 4-54.Limiting compressor speed. A X 90. give the wing a lower camber B..Lowest stall speed. B.attitude may be lower than it appears.Highest stall speed.80 Mach? A.1 hours 02 minutes. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.. C X 89. lowest cruise speed.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. B.I.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.4-52. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. highest cruise speed.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C. C.Radar and RVR.1 hours 07 minutes. A X 88. B.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A..Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway.Limiting torque. C.4-53. and least stability B. C. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 87.] What is the ETE at .HIRL..Limiting exhaust gas temperature. B X 95. C.VSO. B X 96.VS1. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A..1 hours 04 minutes. and least stability. C. C X 93. RCLS.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.Z. B. B X 94. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A. highest cruise speed. B.Y.4-51. Movement of air over a colder surface.Lowest stall speed.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. . B.add slats C X 91.VS. B X 92. Except during an emergency. Rain and snow B. Microburst C. B..six instrument approaches.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). C.Brakes and spoilers at 125. B. B. spoilers.six instrument approaches.000 pounds gross weight. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. holding.VEF. C. B. C X 5. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. B X 3. C. Continuous snow . A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. plus holding. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. C. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.C X 97.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.000 pounds gross weight. three of which may be in a glider. Turbulence A X 4.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A. C X 2. or vice versa.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time.V1.Brakes and reversers at 115. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. C.attitude may be higher than it appears. heavy aircraft. on a firs-come. B. Drizzle C.. Altitude increase.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. B X 100. In turn. and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude. or vice versa.attitude may be lower than it appears. and reversers at 130. without VASI assistant.000 pounds gross weight.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right.. and indicated airspeed increase. C X 99. B. . pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations.Brakes.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway. C X 1 1. Altitude..When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight. first serve basis. pitch..V2. C. pitch. When piloting a large. [Refer to Figure 4-25. A X 98. Low-level wind share B. C. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. 16 minutes.A X 6. freezing precipitation. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X . moderate icing.118..500 lb. A X 15.As temperature increases.127.As temperature increases. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.Zero fuel weight: 125. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds. C X 11. B. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. B. C. PAR.TCASII provides A. thunderstorms B.6KHz. B.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.6MHz.127. thrust increases.give plenty of water A X 13. A X 12.Proximity warning C.85MHz. Causes clockwise rotation around a low.114.Traffic and resolution advisories B. rain. C X 14.7MHz. B. C. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu.500 lb A. severe clear air turbulence C. C X 10. A. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.Compass locator. Moderate turbulence. altostratus or stratocumulus C.As air density decreases. [Refer to Figure 4-37.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. C.124. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere.127..14 minutes. Severe turbulence.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 7. C. before takeoff. B.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A. C.35MHz. B X 8. rain shower.ASR and PAR. severe clear air turbulence C X 9. moderate icing. and ASR. B..administer oxygen B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.. stratus or nimbostratus B. severe icing.8MHz. thrust increases.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.17 minutes. C. Moderate turbulence. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A. thrust decreases. Thisclouds is referred as A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. which is able to support the airplane. Moist.. A X 17. 8times groundspeed in knots. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A. B.VLE.HUAIROU VOR/DME. A clear sky.7KM from PEK.VMO/MMO.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A... B.1915Z. outside the United States. C. little or no wind.GPS instrument approach operations. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A..11. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.11. and high relative humidity. The FAA Administrator only B X 24. C. C. B. B.1945Z. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.7NM from PEK. .5times groundspeed in knots.ahead of a cold front C. B.1845Z. (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.VLO/MLO.. A sovereign country or government unit C. B.Obstruction clearance plane. B X 20.The descent moment on the course of 227o.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 23.in an occluded front B. C.Clearway.GUBEIKOU NDB. B. C.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. C. C X 19. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway.Stopway.behind a stationary front B X 25. C. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z.11.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 22. B X . must be authorized by A. C X 21. C.7SM from PEK. A X 18.16. the altitude of LOM is 1.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B. This situation could be described as A. pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z.The excessive consumption of alcohol.360 feet.3016KHz. radiation fogs or strong turbulence.. 90 knots C X 31. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot.1.8897KHz.122.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. B.245 feet. C.360 feet...．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia. good visibility B. B X 28.1. poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport.ZUUU C.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A. . the most appropriate remedy would be A.a shallow authority gradient B. Therefore.262 feet. 40 knots B.20MHz. B X 33. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign.stratus. within a microburst. light rain. C X 35.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.ZWWW C X 32. B. C.a steep authority gradient C. C X 29.cumulus. indicates A.strong leadership B X 30.ZSSS B. A X 34.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B. 80 knots C.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. C.. C.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. A.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C. B. shower.cirrus.1.. they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. B.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 27.26.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.A stressful situation causing anxiety. thunderstorm .The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. B..81 EPR. thrust decreases. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 45.As altitude increases. C X . C.As altitude increases. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. A X 43.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. C X 39. B.1. FL 200. thrust increases. 110 NAM.01 EPR. B. FL 180..216 knots and 1.223 knots and 2.62 EPR.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.transonic mach number C. C. C X 37. thrust decreases.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.. warm front. B.000. B.". MH 300°. C.As altitude decreases. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. 118 NAM.1. hypoxia.219 knots and 1..Parallel only C X 40..Direct only C. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration. FL 250. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. 113 NAM.Teardrop only B.. [Refer to Figure 4-34. A.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. C.1. A X 38..ENGINES OPERATING: 2.supersonic mach number B.. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.6 only A X 41. an area of no convective turbulence C. cold front.B X 36. B X 42.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. C.490 pounds.critical mach number C X 44.430 pounds..9 only C.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .9and6 B.5.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. the absence of clouds in the area B. B.400 pounds. receive this ATC clearance: ".What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. stationary front. A plane. .Departure airport.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C. altitude ATC has advised to expect. or the MEA. C. it is necessary for A. At the Equator. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.Cargo load. Squawk 7600.. alternate airports. B.Wingover. C. A X 48.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals. C.46. intermediate stops.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 50. destinations. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. Last assigned altitude.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.. C. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. A X 49. airspeed performance B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A. and trip number.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. What altitude should be used? A. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 52. B.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. At the Poles. decreased takeoff distance C. B. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. loss of.Porpoise.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. What information must be contained in. B.Dutch roll C X 53.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A. but a certificate is not required. whichever is highest. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified. B. C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 54. and identification number of the aircraft. weight and balance data.000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. A X 51. An altitude that is at least 1. B.Normally. or attached to. or diminished. B. C. Notify ATC immediately. C X . C. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. B X 47. Descending to the surface and then outward.000 pounds.000m..000m. LEFT TURNS. A. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. B X 62. B.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5. A X 65.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C. the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing... Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.".What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A.12.108. B. certificate holder.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A... pilot in command.Parallel only B X 57.．Hypoxia may be caused by A. air carrier's chief pilot. or supplies).having the aircraft catered (foods.100m.Teardrop only B.fly with a head cold B. A plane.55.Strong vibrations and loud roar. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. remain unchanged B. B.200-foot icy runway? A. increase C.. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. to proceed direct to the regular airport.9. [Refer to Figure 4-27. B. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.Direct only C. A. C. B X 63. warm front. B. ..137.000 pounds. A X 61. B. B.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. C. reduce B X 56. MH 300°. C. C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. A X 59. cold front.000 pounds.. stationary front.124.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 64.3. C X 58..CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. receive this ATC clearance: ".. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C. due to winds. C. beverages.With the increase of temperature.. C X 60. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. C X 73. A X 66. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. the QNH for ZUUU is A.B.1 minute B X 69.1099. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. no further action is necessary C. B. C. B.998 hPa B. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.000 feet is closest to A.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.227 pounds. B.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.upgrade training. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. C. C X 74. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X .the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A.11. C. B...754 pounds. Using high power settings.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.503 pounds. A X 68..difference training. C. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. B. B X 67. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B.8 hPa A X 71. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach.transition training.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.8 hPa C. B X 70.999. Operating at high airspeeds. [Refer to Figure 4-45.45 seconds C.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. C. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1..Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30.25 seconds B..] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750.11. C. C. after advising ATC of the situation.11. Developing lift.the airplane rides on standing water. B. A X 72. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. C.2. B X 82. B. A X 83. B.800m.8 feet.30.35.650 feet.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.11 A X 79..] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500.600m.the standard air pressure of the local station C.2..Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.3. C.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A. B. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.100 feet. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A. C. B X 84. Terrestrial radiation on a clear..000.600 pounds.3. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A.Eustachian tube B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.000 feet.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude.000 meters.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.12 feet. B. B X 77.the semicircular canals C X 76..75. It should be reported without ATC request that A.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA.. C X 81.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.200 pounds.8 C. relatively calm night.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110.32. [Refer to Figure 4-43.000 pounds gross weight? A.the cochlea C. B.3000m.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 80.1 B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.10 feet. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. B.2. the altimeter should set on . if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2. B. A. C. C.. C X .. [Refer to Figure 4-26.. C. C X 78.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.000 pounds. C. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. .What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A..HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. A X 89... C. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A. C X 87. and procedures as far as possible . B. B. C.Y.95 EPR. C. B. Which route should be flown in the absence A.01 EPR. C X 91.adopt all rules. C X 86. B.I.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. An off-airway route to the point of departure.Read the clearance back entirely.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. regulations.Lower than actual. A X 93.Do not accept the clearance.85. if any. A X 94.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. B X 92. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. C. A X 88. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. C.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. [Refer to Figure 4-34. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B. C. B. B. The route filed in the flight plan.221 knots and 1.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. B.000. B. C.217 knots and 1. C X 90.352o.83 EPR..CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route..] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35.Higher than actual. While in IFR conditions. C.．What illusion.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.342o. C.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.Z.Request a clarification from the ATC.223 knots and 2.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. can rain on the windscreen create? A. B. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.WEIGHT (*1000): 100.Does not cause illusions.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making.347o. then clear ice accumulates. B.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.4-52.78 Mach? A. B.22. and 4-54. A X 95.does the first thing that comes to mind. the max predicting wind speed is___.What is a feature of supercooled water? A.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.C. 8 m/s C.22. [Refer to Figures 4-50. .972 pounds.1.2Gs. the load factor is A.4Gs C X .4-53..．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A.2. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. C.wrong A X 2.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C X 99. A. C. B X 96.ADF C. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 1.] What is the total fuel required at .01 EPR.VOR B." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. B.04 EPR. heavy aircraft.(according to figure 2).140 pounds. at ZBAA.556 pounds. In turn. C. B. 6 m/s A X 4. Snow and rain C.right B. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you.. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe.Except during an emergency. 17 m/s B.2.03 EPR.2.. first serve basis. B X 100.4-51..22. Strong wind with shower B. When piloting a large.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree . B X 98. B. C. on a firs-come. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.1Gs. C. The statement is A. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion.VOR and DME A X 97. B X 3. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.1922Z. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. C. Hazardous weather warning A X 12.600m AGL. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.10 to 12 km C..100 feet AGL. 8 to 9 km B. Fly direct to a fix. B X 11. or airway specified in the vector clearance. Wind shear warning B.1952Z.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. 250 knots C X 6.000 meters. C..right B.Final approach fix.may ultimately decide the team's actions.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. B. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A. which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. The statement is A. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. a participatory leader A.5.0022Z. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A. C X 14.. C.150 feet AGL. B. C. B. knowledge.The first holding pattern level.200 feet AGL. B. A.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. C.．In a decision-making process . A X 13. B. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A.. C X 7. C X 8. 350 knots B. Aerodrome warning C.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes..15 to 17 km B X 9. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. B X 10. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A. what action should be taken? A. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? . If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. and preferences.wrong A X 15. 330 knots C. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z.. route. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. B. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A..000feet C. B X 17. C X 19.500m. .Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. and ASR.Over domestic and open sea. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.ASR and PAR.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. While in IFR conditions. C X 24.13 hours C. C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 25.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents.12hours B. B. it can be condensed into the following six elements. C. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1. C. An off-airway route to the point of departure.14 hours C X 20.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1..600m. B.．The decision-making process is quite complex. C. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. B X 23.755 feet. Using the taxonomy. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.DECIED B X 22.1. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.DECIDE C..870 feet. B. C. B. A.762 feet.DICIDE B.trip number and weight and balance data.1. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. B X 16. Which route should be flown in the absence A. B. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. PAR.A.. A X 21. The route filed in the flight plan. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. B.Over domestic only.Compass locator.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1.500m.500 feet B.500 feet B X 18. however.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.Over open sea. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. C. Commercial . C X 34. C.2..] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.. no. What effect.a third-class medical certificate. C X 35.B-727 only. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118.FL138. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.. heavy aircraft. When piloting a large.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A.FL128.a second-class medical certificate.3. C X 26.a first-class medical certificate. on a firs-come. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 28.2.DC-9.. C X 27. B. DC-3. B.The desired manifold pressure. C.ATP .. no.650 feet. B. C X 32. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.000 feet.. [Refer to Figure 4-26. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A. .B-727.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C. what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A. if any.DC-9 and DC 3. yes. C.tailwind C. When cleared for an IFR approach B. In northern hemisphere.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A.B. B X 31. first serve basis.Exhaust gas discharge. A. the wind on the course is _____.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. B.Supercharger gear ratio. C X 33. B. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.FL118. .Except during an emergency.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A. B X 29. Commercial . the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. C.right crosswind B.ATP . In turn.100 feet. C.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.B-727 and DC-3.ATP . C. and DC-9. B. left crosswind C X 30. B.000 pounds gross weight? A. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.7MHz. approach. and all other operations conducted below 3.7hPa.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A. thrust increases.As air density increases. Not less than 250 knots B X 39.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. B. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. a speed not less than 150 knots.Low RPM and high MAP. B X 42.the skeletal muscles.High RPM and high MAP. excluding cruise flight. B. not less than 150 knots. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.3MHz. a speed not less than 210 knots. except 20 flying miles from threshold. not less than 170 knots. B X 38. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft. irrespective of altitudes MSL. except 20 miles from threshold. and all other operations conducted below 3.the otolith B X 37.. Dorsal fin B X 44. B. joints and tendons C. and taxi operations.As air density increases.High RPM and low MAP.As air density decreases. C. taxi.000 meters? A. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. For past three hours. the air pressure have reduced 1. landing. B X 41.. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots. For past three hours.114. thrust decreases.. Turbojet aircraft.the semicircular canals B.. but turbine temperature will be higher. C. takeoff. A X 36.7MHz. taxi.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. . C.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. the air pressure have reduced 17hPa.111.. C.Low gross weight. C.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. With regard to flight crewmembers duties.. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3. B. B.Compensate for increase in drag A X 45. Slats B. B. landing. landing. a speed not less than 230 knots. Elevator C.000 meters MSL. Under normal operating conditions.Thrust will remain the same. C X 40. thrust increases. C X 43.B.000 meters.. including cruise flight. C. takeoff. descent. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. . C..C. C. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. for this PIC?)_DA63m.12. by regulation.Low-speed flight only. A X 46. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. B.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC. C. as PIC. C. braking action is "zero" .. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A.Instrument Control Regulation.DA110m.Approach Control Regulation.strong leadership B X 53.RVR550m. C X 50.Visual Flight Regulation. A. B.GUBEIKOU NDB. Who is responsible. B. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C. (Refer to Figure 6-3.13.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. Strong wind.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C. . C X 48. B. B X 54. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A. C.High density altitude. bad visibility B. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A..a steep authority gradient C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 52. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. when there is almost no the braking action? A. B. B.097 feet. Dust.12.VIS1600m.123 feet. braking action is "fair" B.High-speed flight only. B. C. A X 55. thunderstorm.a shallow authority gradient B. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.Aircraft dispatcher.093 feet.VIS1600m B X 49.The descent moment on the course of 227o. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A. This situation could be described as A.Low-speed and high-speed flight. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.Director of operations. C X 51. C X 47.Company meteorologist.DA93m.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.138 knots and 3. braking action is "nil" C X 56. A decreased stall speed. The adverse effects of ice. B. The wind speed increases. 8times groundspeed in knots..450 feet.5times groundspeed in knots. B.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes. C X 58.153 knots and 3. B. vestibular and postural cues.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. especially as altitude increases. C X 63.. front fog C.050 feet.Takeoff decision speed. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29. A X 62. C. C. what type leader the captain should be? A.1 B. temperature rises B. B X 60. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style. C.．In order to make an effective communication.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.11 A X 64.. In summer. C.a participatory leader B.123 knots and 3. C. B. increased thrust. when warm air mass is unstable.C.. An increased stall speed. temperature reduced B X 59.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.850 feet.Takeoff safety speed.10 times groundspeed in knots.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual. B X . C X 61. A X 57.Minimum takeoff speed. The wind speed increases. B. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A. layer clouds A X 65. snow. B. temperature reduced C. authoritative and participatory.8 C. C.. -rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. the wind speed is 120 km/h B.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C. Light fog. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots. and the weather then is ____. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. C. C X 72. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1. the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 71. B.843 feet per minute.632 feet per minute. B.66. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.. B.every 7 consecutive days B. C. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. C.737 feet per minute. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. the wind speed is 120 knots C. A. C. B X 69. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet.. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A.. C X 70. C. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z.3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A. visibility 4000 m B X 67.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. C X 68.each calendar week B X 73. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. light rain shower. visibility 4 km C. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. C X 74. in the interest of safety. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet. C X . At the EFC time as amended by ATC. B.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C. visibility 4 km. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. At the EFC time. B. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. heavy rain. B. ．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment.. C. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. the wind direction usually changes . C X 77.from headwind to tailwind. A. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m.the caption's power. ability. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe. B. C. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. ability.. then clear ice accumulates. C. C.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. upon reaching your destination.the caption's power. ability. C X 78.RVR 800m and DH 60m. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. A X 76. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. C X 79.Operating Certificate. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.000 feet or less to another aircraft.. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.Operations Specifications. B. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A. B. B X 83. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Dispatch Release. C. B.the caption's power.alternate airport.from left crosswind to right crosswind.RVR 1. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft.600m and DH 120m. B X 82. . B X 81. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. B. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.RVR 400m.destination airport.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 80. B.RVR 300m. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.75.RVR 250m. an apt arranging is A. A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. 1..provisional airport. C. C. In a flight crew.What is a feature of supercooled water? A.. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A. C. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. you cannot accept any undue delay. C. 000 pounds gross weight. B. B. C X 88. B.An area. spoilers.Brakes and spoilers at 120. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4.500 pounds gross weight. . may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.000 pounds gross weight.930 as specified on the SID? A.. 90 knots B X 85. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.International Aeronautical Information Manual C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.851 feet/minute. not as wide as the runway.An area.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes. must land at the nearest suitable airport.. B. 40 knots B. C. B. B X 86. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. at which a safe landing can be made. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. [Refer to Figure 4-26.. A X 87.. C.. the pilot in command A.7 hours. and reversers at 135. 80 knots C. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A. C. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.An increase in dynamic stability. It begins to rain on the ground C X 93.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.760 feet/minute. within a microburst. in point of time. The appearance of disordered low clouds B.Brakes and reversers at 125.699 feet/minute. A X 92.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B. at least the same width as the runway.. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C.Increasing speed or altitude. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A. C. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. B.International Notices To Airmen A X 90.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A. B X 91.B X 84. C X 89. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. B.4 B.22. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground.78 Mach? A. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff.6 hours.. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.Where do squall lines most often develop? A. A plane.4-53..Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.8 hours..22. A.Teardrop only B. it will usually produce . or attached to. 150 knots C. LEFT TURNS. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. What information must be contained in.Direct only C. and trip number. B X 97.. C X 94.". 130 knots B X 1..behind a stationary front B X 98.Parallel only B X 99. layer clouds B. A X 100. intermediate stops. alternate airports. [Refer to Figures 4-50. B.in an occluded front B.. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B. destinations. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A. MH 300°. B X 96. C. C.4-52.Cargo load.4-51. receive this ATC clearance: ".. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere.972 pounds.ahead of a cold front C. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path.B.] What is the total fuel required at ..22. C. C. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. and 4-54.Departure airport. warm front clouds B X 95.. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. weight and balance data. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. 170 knots B. the pilot should A. B. C. smooth airflow and advection fog C.12 C.11 C X .. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.556 pounds.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. and identification number of the aircraft.140 pounds. A X 2. Aircraft dispatcher. C. C. C. after initial training? A. B X 12. C. and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A. weather. B. A X 8. C.3.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. operations manager (or director of operations). the airplane displays A. B. B.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is .-positive longitudinal static stability. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions. C X 9. 6 calendar months. to the A.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating... C X 10. the pilot in command must report it. A X 13.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A. B. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. B. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. B. B. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A. B. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.9Gs B X 4.Middle compass locator.2Gs. C X 7. 12 calendar months. C. nearest CAAC district office.Outer compass locator. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety.Pilot in command. C.3Gs. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. ATC and dispatcher. C X 5. B. to check the performance of the aircraft..1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 24 calendar months.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. C. C. C. C X 11.Director of operations or flight follower.Inner marker.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.-neutral longitudinal static stability. A X 6. as soon as practicable. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating..If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. concerning the incident.DC-9 and DC 3. before takeoff. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. 5 days. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A..Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.B-727. B. A X 15. C.ATP .Parallel only C X 19. MH 300°. stratus or nimbostratus B.10 EPR.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. B. DC-3..Teardrop only B. Commercial . B. if one of the two VOR receivers fails. 10 days. C. altostratus or stratocumulus C.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134. to the Administrator within A. C.1.900 feet. Advise ATC immediately. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.35 seconds B X 23.". B.DC-9.Altitude. Thisclouds is referred as A. Commercial .2. the certificate holder must submit a report.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. A plane.000 feet is closest to A. C.2. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 20. 24 hours. C X 17.244 feet.. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. C. receive this ATC clearance: ".B-727 only. B.25 seconds B.. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.Direct only C.Airspeed. B X 21. C X 16..1.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. C X 22. and DC-9. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.115 EPR.496 feet.. C.000 pounds? .B-727 and DC-3.While flying IFR in controlled airspace. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds.2.Angle of attack.06 EPR. B X 14.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing.ATP .. B. B X 18..ATP . Notify the dispatcher via company frequency..A.15 seconds C. B. C. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. B.950 feet. Leading-edge flaps C X 26. B. B. C. C.. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.8 feet. B X 30.000 pounds? A. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.Two B X 28.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A. Upper rudder C.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.12 feet.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.514MHz.114.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A..2.1.Six B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only.delay stall.750 feet. A X 25.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date..Five C.retina B.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122. C.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A..6MHz.7 days ago.113. B. B. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A. .400 feet.. C. C. [Refer to Figure 4-28.7MHz. B. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. C. C.increase the load factor. A X 33.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B. B..cornea C.1. B X 32. A X 31. C X 29.2.High-speed flight only.Low-speed and high-speed flight. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A. C.200 feet.Low-speed flight only.750 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.increase airspeed.iris A X 34. A X 27.10 feet.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only.350 feet. Ruddervator B. A X 24.. . What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. with gear down. B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.96 knots.9. B... using the acronym DECIDE.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110..B.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.Reduce fuel flow.15 days ago.X. A X 35.both A and B C X 38.Reduce throttle. A X 43. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway. however. reduce angle of attack. C.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. B X 42.11. An unstable layer of air. B. lower angle of attack. and increase angle of attack. C.N. flaps 30o.000 pounds.. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A. Slats B. [Refer to Figure 4-30. The second E is A.90 knots.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. it can be condensed into six elements. C. and increase airspeed. A stable layer of air.110 knots. if you are assigned to an additional flight.．The decision-making process is quite complex. Elevator C. During the period of Spring Festival.To protect military activities. and reduce airspeed.200 pounds. C. B. reduce airspeed.M. B X 37. Air mass thunderstorms.fatigue C. . C. Dorsal fin B X 39.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 40.. C. B.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 41.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? .800 pounds.smoking and alcohol B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.000 pounds.Advance throttle.28 days ago. A X 36. A X 44.17. B. C.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. A X 45. These lines are A.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. METARS.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time.SPECIS.2 minutes. [Refer to Figure 4-45. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds. PIREP'S and AIRMETS. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C.. C. an increase in airspeed will A. to achieve the desired separation. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 49. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. PIREPS. A..The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. CBs with little or no separation B. B. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B X . plus holding. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989.six instrument approaches. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW. As the parcel of air moves upward. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. A X 51.A.. B.97.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. C X 47.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850. intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.January 1989. the base is unknown C.103.99. Some places have CBs. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown. B. B. the latter check is considered to have been taken in A. NOTAM'S.November 1988. The parcel of air resists convection.7 minutes. B. C. SIGMETS. AWW's.SIGMETS. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. C. and AIRMETS. B. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. and adverse conditions. A X 52.six instrument approaches. three of which may be in a glider.. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations. C.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A. C. B X 50. B. A X 48. to maintain enough separation. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds. the base is unknown B X 53. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. B.8 minutes.December 1988.Convective SIGMETS. holding. C. both a and b C X 46. 80 Mach? A. dust B. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. B.Initial training.Upgrade training.Air Traffic Controller.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.flag and commercial. B X 59. may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.1. C. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. From the following list..4-51. Strong wind with haze B X 58.4-52.the property change of the underlying cushion C.] What is the ETE at .000 pounds? A.200 feet. C X 62. B.g.after a period of intense concentration C. select the situation least likely to A. [Refer to Figures 4-49. North wind at 12 m/s. C. B.54. and designated pilot in command are A. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember.the change of sun radiation B.. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. Strong wind with sand C.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. C. B737-300).1 hours 07 minutes. B. A X 56. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. flight attendant.supplemental and commercial. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B.during normal operation C X 61. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.850 feet.Recurrent training.400 feet...supplemental and domestic. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. or include on.4-53. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A. and 4-54. A.. 4-50...(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.the movement of the weather system B X 57. . C X 63.1 hours 04 minutes. A X 60. C. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. B. C.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125. A X 55.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.1 hours 02 minutes. C. 5 percent. B X 68. B.3 C.4 B X 71. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80.. B X 72.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. ..No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position.000.. A X 64. B.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 70. C. B. Wind shear.420N. B X 66. B.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C. C.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.CG is at the most rearward allowable position.1. what airspeed indication can be expected? A. A X 65. B.B. C. C. C. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles.75.Dispatcher. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.5.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. A X 67.Pilot-in-command.77.000. pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A. [Refer to Figure 4-32.N0420. B.732 pounds.4 percent.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice. Light and variable. [Refer to Figure 4-34.2 B.023 pounds.N420. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.3 percent..] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30.79. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C X 69.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. Frontal passage. C.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.1. C.the airplane rides on standing water.440 pounds.WEIGHT (*1000): 92.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. B. B X 83.Green yellow and white beacon light B. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.right B. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport.. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 75. C.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. C.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C. stratocumulus. C. There are cirrostratus . C.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower.M070.Critical Mach number.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. A X 79.domestic airport flight information office.070M. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.5 and 13 C. B X 82. shower and gale C.B X 73..any required pilot crewmember. There are altostratus.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 76. low clouds and weak turbulent current B. A..(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle. B. cumulonimbus clouds. The statement is A.M0070.Transonic index.Initial buffet speed. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C.any flight crewmember. C. The statement is A.domestic area flight information center. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. clear after rain. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 74. B. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A. B. the captain finds that on weather map.A and B C X 81. B.foreign international NOTAMs office.the pilot in command only.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A. B. Before taking off. A X 80.wrong A X 77.70 Marh. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. stratocumulus..right .7and 11 B X 78.11 B. stratus .．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A. There are altocumulus . C..Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B. A. 250 knots C.B.85MHz. B. C.S1020. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. C.124.leveling off. A X 92. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. B. the expected changes in intensity of the icing is.International Aeronautical Information Manual C. clear air turbulence C.Rotation speed.200 meters.. Intensify B. for a given runway? A.International Notices To Airmen A X 86. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. Weaken C. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.127..．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A. A X 89. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A.pitching up.000 meters. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information. 150 knots B.121. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Accelerate-stop distance.Rate of turn B.Critical engine failure speed. No change B X 91.. B X 88.L1020. embedded thunderstorms C X 87. 330 knots A X 90. B.pitching down. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10..-2? C. C.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. A X 85.Angle of bank C.1? B. B..F1020. freezing rain B.35MHz.2 NAV? A.True airspeed B X 93.wrong A X 84.65MHz.-4? C X . [Refer to Figure 4-30.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.RVR 200m.15 C. B.4 B. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. C. B.94... (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. A X 96. B.by combining and comparing visual. C. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. B.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. A X 99.3 months. .30 minutes a time. vestibular and postural cues.17 C X 98. dispatch releases. C. B. B. C X 1. C.6 months.132 knots. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.600m. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.．What cause hypoxia? A.Hourly. A X 100.RVR 250m.30 days. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.One hour and a half a time. C. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.processing information from the inner ear. C X 95.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. and load manifests for at least A.VIS 1.. C X 97.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.processing information from the eyes.139 knots.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A..Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.000 pounds? A. B X 2.136 knots. B. C. B. ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. Increased landing rollout.ZWWW C X 5. B.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A. C. B X 8.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. C.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A. ability.200 feet. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 7. In a flight crew.. Landing short of the runway threshold. B.the caption's power.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27. C. A X 12..-Increase the camber of the wing. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa. B X 11. an apt arranging is A. B.750 feet.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500.ZUUU C.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. B X 6.the otolith B X 4. The visibility is 8 kilometers. B.6 hPa.4. ability. joints and tendons C.the caption's power.the semicircular canals B. The visibility is 800 meters.A X 3.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai. ability. which description is correct A. [Refer to Figure 4-43. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.. B.5 hours 20 minutes. C. C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X .000. the sea level pressure is 999. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. the QNH is 999.5 hours 55 minutes. C X 9.6 hPa.the caption's power. The visibility is 8 kilometers..WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. B.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.4.4.ZSSS B.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 10.An increase in breathing rate C.increased visual field B.000 pounds gross weight? A. C. A hard landing.5 hours 3 minutes. [Refer to Figure 4-25.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A. C.the skeletal muscles. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.500 feet. .TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC..30 minutes. B.217 knots and 1. on glidepath-green. the code "VCTS" means ____.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 14. on glidepath-green. B. A X 16. B. B. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.13. A X .Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.Operating Certificate.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. C.. There are thunderstorms over the airport.15 minutes. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route. low-red. C X 21. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A.I. B.74.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. C. C. C. [Refer to Figure 4-32.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.01 EPR. C. A.Operations Specifications. A X 18.Low-speed flight only. A X 15. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.High-speed flight only. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35. low-red.000.83 EPR.221 knots and 1.High-white. A. B. A X 19. C.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light.High-white and green..] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90.000.High-white.95 EPR. C.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. low-red. on glidepath-red and white.75. B X 20.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A. [Refer to Figure 4-34.223 knots and 2.2 percent. B.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. C. A X 22.Rate and radius will increase.4 percent.Y. B.9 percent. C X 17. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.72.In daily aeronautical weather reports.Dispatch Release. B.Z.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.3 minutes. C. red and white. red and white. C. and green.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors.Within the previous 12 calendar months.Within the previous 6 months. A stable layer of air.．In order to make an effective communication.Within the previous 6 months. B. authoritative and participatory. white. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway. An unstable layer of air. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A. B. six ILS approaches.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing.an authoritative leader C.. pilot's activity level.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.(To be continued，health.2.06 EPR. what type leader the captain should be? A.One light projector with two colors. B X 27. and 4-24. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.8 hours.. B.23.angle of attack B. increasing its A. B.5 and 13 . is A. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. A X 26. climbing rate. B X 30.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. and whether the pilot smoking or not. red.2.11 B. A X 28. B. [Refer to Figures 4-22. C. C. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. A X 29. The fuel reserve required.wrong A X 32. Air mass thunderstorms. The statement is )right B. C X 25.12 hours.camber C. C X 24.24 hours. pilot's A.2.a participatory leader B.a leader can balance act between the two types management style.09 EPR. such as flight altitude. C.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.energy B X 31. C.07 EPR.Row of four lights parallel to the runway. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. Stop way... B.VEF.1. and never in climbs or descents B X 35. A X 36.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B. B X 40. C. 24 calendar months. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. Light quartering tailwind.V2. Light quartering headwind.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. C X 34.C.G. twinengine airplane represent? A.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light.496 feet.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.V1. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Clearway. . C. 12 calendar months. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A. C. Direct tailwind. A X 39.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A. B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.R. C.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. C X 38. 6 calendar months. A X 37.. B.. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A. B X 41. C..Obstruction clearance plane. B. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. B.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.244 feet.S. B. For scheduled airline.1. B.7and 11 B X 33.900 feet. B.Only one INDS is required to be operative. C.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. B. and visual information. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A..VS.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A.. range.12 C. C X 50. C.. ZUUU A X 45. Azimuth.VMCG.VMCA..11 A X 47.VSO.behind a stationary front B X 49. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A. B. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude.1 B. Ground? A. Moderate chop. B. By wind or the movement of air.1.1. By convective mixing in cool night air. . B.1. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A.ahead of a cold front C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 51. B. C X 43. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.VMC.VS1.4 B.8 C.400 feet/minute. C.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C. ZULS B.. A X 52.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight. C. C. range. Azimuth.What functions are provided by ILS? A.B X 42.320 feet/minute. B.11 C X 44. occasional light chop.. C. distance. and vertical angle.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.in an occluded front B.364 feet/minute. and vertical angle. B X 48. ASSS C.Where do squall lines most often develop? A. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed.2% to FL148? A. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. Intermittent light turbulence. Guidance.. B X 46. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.RVR 800m and DH 60m. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A.DA110m. B X 61..RVR550m.9 NM point is indicated? .RVR 550m and DH 60m.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. braking action is "zero" C.Area with strong cold advection B.. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 59.Area where the sea and the land meet C. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 57.RVR 1. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.. A X 53. for this PIC?)_DA63m. These lines are A. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. B. C. it is necessary for A. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. but a certificate is not required.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A. or when leaving an assigned holding fix.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B. braking action is "100%" A X 60. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 55.DA93m. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified. C. when leaving an assigned holding fix.. B.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. A. as PIC.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. It is most likely to occur when A.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation.C.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS.VIS1600m. C X 58. B. C.600m and DH 120m. braking action is "fair" B.VIS1600m B X 56. C X 54. B.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. B.. C X 65.600 pounds. Upper rudder C.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.15 seconds C. A X 64. B.35 seconds B X 63. C.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. C.25 seconds B. C.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. A X 69. C. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A..The existing and forecast weather for departure. B.121.000.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.35MHz.000 pounds..International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. A X 66.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.A.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.000 pounds.17 hours C.28.ATMB NOTAMs office.127.124. and approach must be VFR. B X 62.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A.85MHz.. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.65MHz.32.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.34.. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. .710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. C X 71. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW. Ruddervator B. Leading-edge flaps C X 67.A stressful situation causing anxiety. C.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. Northwest wing can be presented as .000 feet is closest to A. which operational requirement must be observed? A. [Refer to Figure 4-43. en route.18 hours A X 68. A X 70. B.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine. C. C.16hours B.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A.12 C X 73.Pilot in command.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.22...Obstruction clearance plane. C. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3. B. During a supplemental air carrier flight. . Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. A. C.difference training. 200 knots C. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 75.6 B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C. 135°or SE B X 72. B X 77.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 81.22.22.Direct only C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.A. 170 knots B X 80. B. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.000 meters? A. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway. B X 79.Parallel only A X 74.Clearway..4-52. A plane. which is able to support the airplane.Stopway.] What is the total fuel required at .4-51... When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. Advection fog.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized..78 Mach? A. and 4-54. 200°or NW B..Director of operations or flight follower. Radiation fog. B. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B.Aircraft dispatcher.7 C... C.". B X 76. 210 knots B.4-53.556 pounds. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.Teardrop only B. B X 78. B. C.. Frontal fog.Negative longitudinal static stability B. [Refer to Figures 4-50. 315°or NW C.140 pounds.972 pounds. receive this ATC clearance: ". MH 240°. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A. gear down.when destination weather is marginal IFR..a participatory leader A X 90.upgrade training. C X 83.VIS1600m.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. the captain might not be the leader in a specific . C..1.500 pounds. C.3 months. dispatch releases. the altimeter should set on . A X 84.300 feet.30 days.000 pounds gross weight? A.800m. B.RVR550m. This situation could be described as A. [Refer to Figure 4-29. and load manifests for at least A.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.300 pounds. to flaps 0o.15..VIS800m. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. B. C. An alternate airport for departure is required A.transition training.a too shallow authority gradient B. A.13. B.150 feet.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 82. B X 88.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o.500 feet. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew. gear up.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.the standard air pressure of the local station C.DH300'. C. B.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90.B.. B.300 pounds.DH20'.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 89. C. A X 85.DH200'. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight.. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114. C.13.a steep authority gradient C. C X 87. C.6 months. A X 86.An alternate airport is required. [Refer to Figure 4-25. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.75 to 1.Opposite direction.7MHz. B. Mach.10 to 117.000 feet. A X 93.Use of three reversers at 120.000 pounds gross weight. B.108.Two A X 99. B. C X 92.Three C. braking action is "fair" B.95 MHZ.108.Use of three reversers at 124. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A.any required pilot crewmember. braking action is "zero" C.110.Some direction.10 to 111.7MHz.the pilot in command only. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. C. C.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.114. 3℃ per 1. A X 100.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. C.000 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A. braking action is "nil" C X 96. . B.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.5. B X 98.000 pounds gross weight.10 MHZ B.75 Mach..wrong A X 91.From.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC. 2℃ per 1. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.3MHz...(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. C. B.20 Mach.From.Remains fixed for all positions. C.108.111. B X 97.10 to 118.. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board. [Refer to Figure 4-27.95 MHZ C. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.1.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.A.Below. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. C. C. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A. A X 94. 4℃ per 1. The statement is)right B. . when there is almost no the braking action? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. A X 95.000 feet.Four B.any flight crewmember.500 pounds gross weight.20 to 2. B.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29. .25 minutes.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. C X 6.ATMB NOTAMs office.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.ARINC B.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.60 days.120 days.cornea C. B..850 feet. B. other than pilot in command. C. B. 118 NAM.Appropriate dispatch office C X 8.．What cause hypoxia? A. B. A pilot flight crewmember. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.24 calendar months.Opposite direction.A X 1. C. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.26 minutes.123 knots and 3. C. C.Area flight information center.050 feet. C X 4. under normal conditions.6 calendar months.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.. B X 2.Airport flight information office.retina B. C X 7.. for what maximum time is this document valid? A. 125 NAM.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. B.450 feet. B. C. must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.138 knots and 3. C X 9.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.12 calendar months..153 knots and 3. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A. B.90 days. B.Same direction.24 minutes. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate.iris A X 3. C X 10.Any FSS C. C.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A. C. with reference to L/DMAX. 118 NAM. At what speed.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A. B X 5.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.Decreased breathing rate. the certificate holder must submit a report.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 16. C. A X 12. In the Northern hemisphere..-. B.C.Remains fixed for all positions A X 11.2 percent. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. and feet. B.72. C X 19.headache and fatigue B. . under which of the following conditions..] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. to the Administrator within A.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.75.9 percent. [Refer to Figure 4-32. [Refer to Figures 4-46.-1. C.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.Tingling of the hands. A.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. legs.-. B.2 hours 12 minutes. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.a feeling of euphoria C.000..75 to . A. B X 13. C.25 seconds B. 5 days.Over domestic only. C.35 seconds B X 20. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.000 feet is closest to A.Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A. C..2 hours 18 minutes.75 mach B.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B.74.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A. C X 15.20 mach C.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A.50 to .20 to 2.15 seconds C.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15. concerning the incident. B.. 4-47 and 4-48.1.4 percent. A X 14.Increased vision keenness. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A. C.2 hours 15 minutes. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .. 24 hours.50 mach B X 18.. 10 days. A X 17. CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew. A X 21.. Rain and snow B. C.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. C. The statement is)right B..．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. C X 24.2.Teardrop only B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. A. Drizzle C. B.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6..What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. expected holding speed B.150 feet. Severe mountain wave.750 feet. embedded thunderstorms C. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. B..use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B. Convection currents at the surface.. A X 28.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. Severe turbulence.. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one.. [Refer to Figure 4-25. LEFT TURNS.500 feet. Continuous snow A X 29. embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 22.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 25. A plane. B.2. obscured thunderstorm with hail B.". C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.wrong A X 26. B. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A. C... Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. the accuracy of the GPS derived A..3. the most appropriate remedy would be A.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C. receive this ATC clearance: ". Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 30. A X 27.Direct only C. MH 160°.B. Severe mountain wave. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. Position is not affected C.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. Cold temperatures.Over domestic or open sea.000 pounds gross weight? A.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability.Over open sea.Parallel only C X 23. Poor visibility.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. . C.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia. May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. B.149 knots.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. At lower levels of the atmosphere. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.156 knots.A X 31. A X 38. to the A. 7200. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. operations manager (or director of operations).Airspeed.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.. B X 36. B.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 35. the pilot in command must report it. B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. C X . C.Limiting compressor speed.. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 32. [Refer to Figure 4-29. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. B.Altitude.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). B X 39. C X 37. A X 33. C. B. 7777.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. as soon as practicable. B. 7500. B X 34. B.Angle of attack. decreases pressure gradient force. C.What is the hijack code? A..An alternate airport is required. B. B.. A. C.Limiting torque. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight.800m.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. C.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. nearest CAAC district office. B X 40.000 pounds? A.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. C.. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force..127 knots. ATC and dispatcher. .．An authoritative leader . B. B X 51.Turbine inlet..124. A X 43. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A. indicated airspeed increases.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 47.500 pounds. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. and altitude increases C. A X 50. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. indicated airspeed decreases. C. 200 knots B X 46. aircraft pitches up. C. indicated airspeed decreases. B. A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. Snow shower A X 45. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 42.Maximum range and distance glide.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A.HUAIROU VOR/DME. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A..000 pounds..Decreases takeoff speed.Maximum endurance.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.Best angle of climb.134.Increases takeoff distance.Decreases takeoff distance. aircraft pitches down.000 feet short of the end of a 4. A. [Refer to Figure 4-26.000 meters? A.500 pounds.. C. C.Compressor discharge. 210 knots C..900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. B. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. aircraft pitches down.41. and altitude decreases B.GUBEIKOU NDB.129. A X 48. B. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C. and altitude decreases C X 44. 250 knots B.. Strong wind with bad visibility C.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3. A X 49. B. and all other operations conducted below 3. landing.13.998 hPa B. B.Heading.000 meters MSL. takeoff.Tabs. excluding cruise flight.13. B.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.. airspeed performance B. B X 52. A X 55. approach. and an input of wind and variation data. gear down. B. the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 59. A X 60. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. the wind speed is 120 km/h B.may ultimately decide the team's actions. landing. C.By signals fro.300 pounds.Heading and altitude.. and taxi operations. C. twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.A.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. decreased takeoff distance C.8 hPa A X .What performance should a pilot of a light. C X 58. C X 54.999. C. taxi.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. C. C.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A. B. C. and preferences.. the wind speed is 120 knots C. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. B. C X 56. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. takeoff.tends to make final decisions in an emergency.1099. descent.15. gear up.. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A. but seldom in other situations B. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. knowledge. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1.300 pounds.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 53. airspeed. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.Outboard ailerons. loss of. irrespective of altitudes MSL. B.000 meters. and all other operations conducted below 3. and ability to climb 50 ft/min.Flaps. altitude. including cruise flight.8 hPa C.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. to flaps 0o.From information by compass. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 57.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A.. or diminished.500 pounds. landing. taxi. the QNH for ZUUU is A.Heading. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. self-contained gyros and accelerometers. ..Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A. ...CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance.FL 6. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. C. beginning of rain at the surface B.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A. C. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. C.Series A and Series D. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Certificate holder's manual.Do not accept the clearance. frequent lightning C. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.True airspeed B X 69.000 meters? A. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.Read the clearance back entirely.Angle of bank C.FL 6. C.Series A. B X 66. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.Three A X 71.Seven B. C. A X 65. 350 knots . C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.N.61. B.G. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. C X 63.Series A and Series C.000m. B X 67. continuous updraft C X 64.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. A X 70..Request a clarification from the ATC. A X 62. B. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. B.300m.. Series C and Series D. B. B X 68.Five C.Rate of turn B. B. Airplane Flight Manual.S. B.The first holding pattern altitude. not considered to be part of a rest period. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.117.000 pounds gross weight. spoilers and reversers at 140.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes. 330 knots C.Use of three reversers at 124.800m.300 feet. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.500 pounds.500 pounds gross weight.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2. the CG will . C X 78.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.500 pounds. B.140.S.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.3.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. [Refer to Figure 4-26. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.3..050 feet.How dose deadhead transportation. B. C..000 feet short of the end of a 5. B. Position reports. unable to climb 500 ft/min. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. B. B. C. B.1. unable to climb 500 ft/min.2.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. vacating an altitude. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.500 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-25. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. C. B X 80. 250 knots C X 72. For scheduled airline.000 pounds gross weight? A. B X 75.An alternate airport is required. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A.000 pounds gross weight. C.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. B.1.Use of three reversers at 120.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.as the time goes on . Vacating an altitude.. affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A. Position reports.R.G.136.650 feet. A X 73. unable to climb 500 ft/min. C. A X 76. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. vacating an altitude. C. C X 74..400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.500 feet.In flight .] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.B. C X 77.000 feet B. B X 79. C. going to or from a duty.000 feet C. . Piton engine and turboprop aircraft. C X 83.may change or may not change A X 81. a speed not less than 150 knots.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. C.144 knots.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.500 lb.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. except 20 flying miles from threshold. C.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181. pitch.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. . A X 84. a speed not less than 210 knots.. select the situation least likely to A. Altitude. Altitude. bad visibility B. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times.5 B. Strong wind. Piston and turboprop aircraft. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou.. B. Low cloud with strong wind A X 82.143 knots.000 lb A.A. Not less than 250 knots B X 85.. 4-23 and 4-24. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.5 C. thunderstorm. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3. B. not less than 150 knots. B.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.during normal operation C X 86. except 20 miles from threshold.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. C. Turbojet aircraft. C X 88. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A. and indicated airspeed increase. pitch.ADF C.15 B X 89.Zero fuel weight: 126. B.after a period of intense concentration C. From the following list.000 meters? A. [Refer to Figure 4-37.15 minutes.14 minutes. a speed not less than 230 knots. Altitude increase.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.VOR B. C. B. not less than 170 knots.13 minutes.VOR and DME A X 87.change B.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A. not less than 200 knots. and indicated airspeed decrease.not change C. C. Dust.. [Refer to Figures 4-22. C. C.800 feet per minute. or 90 minutes at normal cruise. B. B. what was the approximate rate of descent? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required.780 feet per minute. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o. C X 97.FL158. A X 90. FL200 B.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. which altitude could it descend to? A.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. C.FL148.755 feet. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. In summer.. If an ATC controller assigns a speed. whichever is less.. 45 minutes at holding altitude.762 feet. C X 95. FL240 C. C X 91.. Friction force. Inertial centrifugal force C. B X 98. front fog C. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots.. prior to flight conducted above A.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night . instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization. layer clouds A X 93. when warm air mass is unstable. what should the pilot do? A.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb).145 knots. increase speed to the assigned speed. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance.FL168. Coriolis deflecting force C X 92. whichever is less. B. B. C. B.C. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. Upon arriving at the most distant airport. what height above the airport could it descend to? A. B X 96. B. A.870 feet.. C. is most likely to be encountered A. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. cumulonimbus B. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. FL250 C X 94. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.760 feet per minute. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.2. A. on a multiengine aircraft B.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude.Airborne radar C. C.B X 99.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 1. B.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. B. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.One engine.32 hours C. dispatch.1.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.000 feet C. B.DME C X 3.. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C. A X 100. B.35 hours B. C..1..The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.1. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace. C X 7.the standard air pressure of the local station C. the altimeter should set on . the flight must be able to A.500 feet B X 6.244 feet.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin.000 feet B.496 feet. C.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.900 feet.2.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. maintenance. etC． C.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. A X 2.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.A and B C X .move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. A X 5.30 hours A X 4. ATC.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time. B. B X 14. C.. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing..wrong A X 15.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. C. The statement is )right B. B X 13. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. C. C. lifesaving decision and carry it out following A. you cannot accept any undue delay.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time.Direct only C.(To be continued，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. can a pilot expect landing priority? A. MH 160°. B. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.Parallel only C X 10. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.Motion about the longitudinal. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B X 16. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B.Teardrop only B. B. receive this ATC clearance: ".Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.Motion about the lateral axis. upon reaching your destination..How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A. A plane.". Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control..Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. A..．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A. B X 12. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. During emergency. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 11. first-served" basis. yes.. B. .An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. C.. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. yes.Motion about the vertical axis.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. B.. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. B. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.8. B X 9. no. C.Outer compass locator.DH300'. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'. B.In altocumulus cloud. TNA 90 is cleared for A. C.CRM is a process using all available information and resources. procedures and people.137 knots. B. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. [Refer to Figures 4-22. equipment. B..A speed less than that for L/DMAX.air temperature C.. such as cirrus.Inner marker... Stratocumulus B X 24. the pilot should A.Read the clearance back entirely. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A. Altocumulus B. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. C X 18.Middle compass locator C. 4-23 and 4-24.air pressure B X 19.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.wind speed B. C X 23..Do not accept the clearance. C. At what speed.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A. i. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A. B. Cumulonimbus C. B.C X 17. A X 20. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.e.A and B C X 25. B.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. B.in high clouds.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 26.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C. C X 22. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation.in cumliform clouds B. with reference to L/DMAX.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A.DH200'.. B X 27.．Effective CRM has some characteristics.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A. Upon arrival at ZBAA. .VIS1600m. which of the following is right description about it? A. C X 21.124 knots.RVR550m.VIS800m. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.130 knots. 2. B X 34.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.A.800m and MDA 180m..285 B. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.Proximity warning C. continue taxiing in the landing direction. C X 36. C X 37. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.000m and MDA 120m.Above 12. C.TCASII provides A.Neutral dynamic stability.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142.Exhaust gas temperature.500 pounds? A.Positive static stability.600m and MDA 240m. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.Manifold pressure. [Refer to Figures 4-22. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 29. C X 30. B. C X 31. . which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.144 knots. A. B. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. B. 4-23 and 4-24.1.In terminal radar service areas C. B. B.500 feet.500 feet MSL A X 32.Visibility 2. C.Visibility 2. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.750 feet. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.Traffic and resolution advisories B.2.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A..100 feet. C. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. [Refer to Figure 4-28.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. C.Positive dynamic stability.. C. Causes clockwise rotation around a low.RPM.235 B X 33. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. A X 28. B.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. B X 35..143 knots.000m and MDA 120m.055 C.Visibility 3.. C. B. Dorsal fin B X 41.High-speed flight only. Northeast wind at 35 KT. first serve basis. B. B.. obscured thunderstorms C. (According to figure 6) At point B.7MHz.Over domestic or open sea. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Tabs. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 44.127. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.145 knots.M0070. Slats B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A. A X 39. A X 38. on a first-come. B. fog and rain B.C. C. C..70 Marh.127.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.6MHz.. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A.Outboard ailerons. C.Lower-than-standard air density.114. Elevator C. B. during emergency .6KHz. A X 43.070M.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. B. Southwest wind at 35 KT.Flaps.. A X 42.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3. Lines of thunderstorms. C X 45.Over open sea. the wind direction.Low-speed and high-speed flight.-Positive static stability C. C.-Negative static stability B. C.Increased headwind component.Low-speed flight only.M070. temperatures is -52℃ B. Nimbostratus. temperatures is 52℃ C. temperatures is -52℃ C X 47.. A.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. A X 48. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.-Negative dynamic stability A X 40. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. Southwest wind at 14 KT.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.. C X 46. B. B.Over domestic only.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. C. wind speed and temperatures is A. ADF C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.right B." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. B. 109 NAM. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. C. the heading indicator should indicate A. C. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A. A X 50. The statement is A.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A. A X 55.by combining and comparing visual. and approach must be VFR.pitching down. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A. which operational requirement must be observed? A. 125 NAM. B. C.352o. A X 56. C X 57. C.. C. both a and b C X 49.leveling off.processing information from the eyes. C..115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. A X 54. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.processing information from the inner ear.C. B.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. B. B.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. B X 52.entering approach controlled airspace. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG.24 minutes.342o. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine.Rate and radius will increase..70 percent of the actual runway available.entering instrument meteorology conditions.VOR and DME A X 51.The existing and forecast weather for departure. C X 53. . B X 58.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A. B.25 minutes.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried..Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.347o. C. en route.23 minutes. 118 NAM.. B.pitching up.VOR B.wrong. vestibular and postural cues. The tropopause to 45. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate.25. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? . B.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A. thrust increases.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C. in an approved simulator.000 feet.As altitude decreases.000 feet to the tropopause.490 pounds.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.GPS instrument approach operations.000 feet to 25.1.500 feet. B.1. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. C. A X 59.required to have a second-class medical certificate. 118 NAM.Area where the sea and the land meet C. [Refer to Figure 4-26. B.10. B.required to have a first-class medical certificate. spoilers and reversers at 130. A sovereign country or government unit C. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 68. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C.．"Do something quickly!".C. C..000 feet B X 63. C... C. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B.000 pounds gross weight? A.1.As altitude increases. outside the United States. must be authorized by A.000 feet.. C. B. 110 NAM. thrust decreases.Area with strong cold advection B.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. 113 NAM.300 feet.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B. thrust decreases. is A.not required to have a medical certificate. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. C X 65.400 pounds.. C X 67.430 pounds.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A. The FAA Administrator only B X 61.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.. A X 64.As altitude increases.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 60. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 66. A X 62.1. B. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.843 feet per minute.120 days after issue or renewal.A.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C. C.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. cold front.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.Series A and Series D.To protect science tests only..240 pounds. C X 77. B. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? .632 feet per minute.625 pounds. B X 70.980 pounds. A X 74. B. A X 73. but not drag. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is.lift. and drag. the flight must be able to A.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.000.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. C.Invulnerability: C. C.5. C.17 minutes. B. [Refer to Figure 4-37.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. gross weight.. B.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A..500 lb.. B.Macho B.By changing the angle of attack of a wing.lift and airspeed. and drag.3.Series A and Series C.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187.Series A.lift.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C. stationary front. warm front.16 minutes. C. C X 71. C.14 minutes.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C. B.737 feet per minute. [Refer to Figure 4-34. B..ENGINES OPERATING: 2. A X 76. B. C X 72. B X 75. airspeed. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots. A. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.Impulsivity: C X 69. the pilot can control the airplane's A.. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.To protect military activities only.Zero fuel weight: 125. A X 78.3. Series C and Series D.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.500 lb A.2. which of the following applies? A.An alternate airport is required. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft.VMD. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so.A.800m.Critical engine failure speed. B X 82. when warm air mass is unstable..Adhere to standard operating procedures.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. C.. B. B.5 B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. B.2 C. C.15 B X 79. cumulonimbus B.5 C. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C. etC．as far as possible. however.Rotation speed. using the acronym DECIDE. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 87.. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment..Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. In summer. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 86. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 85. The first E is A. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. C. A X 81. A X 84.3 A X 83. front fog . the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. after advising ATC of the situation.Evaluate the effect of the action C.．The decision-making process is quite complex.1 B.VFC. for a given runway? A.. C.Accelerate-stop distance. fuel burn. A X 80. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. it can be condensed into six elements. B.VMU. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. B X 96. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 92. C.1. B X 93. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. A X 91..000 pounds gross weight? A. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity.attitude may be higher than it appears..angle of attack B. without VASI assistant. C X 95. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C.camber C. It is a stationary front C. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A. stratocumulus.96 knots. the pilot should be aware that the approach A.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A. . B.Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B. A X 97. It is a warm front.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1. B. increasing its A. There are cirrostratus . B. C.000 feet. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A.110 knots. It is a Cold frongt C X 94.300 feet.attitude may be lower than it appears.C. B. Sudden increase in a headwind component.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.500 feet. stratocumulus.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. B X 90.. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. stratus .. There are altostratus. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. [Refer to Figure 4-25. C. There are altocumulus .energy B X 89. C.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.. which weather system we coursed A. B.90 knots. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. B.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A. layer clouds A X 88. .500 feet. C X 6.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.16.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. B.profuse sweating B X 5. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A. C. B.500 pounds? A. A X 4.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.-positive longitudinal static stability. B. B. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100.Increase speed for a tailwind.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained..300 feet.. C.ZBAA B. C.B. C. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.700 feet. .-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.19.750 feet.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. C X 1.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released.ZUUU B X 99.600 feet.Increase altitude for a headwind.quite different to those of hypoxia B.ZSSS C.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are A. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.400 feet. B..WING ANTI-ICE: ON.1.18.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114.1. B X 98.Increase speed for a headwind. decrease altitude for a tailwind.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 100. B. A X 2.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.000 pounds gross weight? A.. A X 3. [Refer to Figure 4-39.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. [Refer to Figure 4-28.150 feet.-neutral longitudinal static stability.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. and drag. back to the departure airport. A X 13.000 pounds. and drag. and reversers at 130. flaps 30o.000 pounds gross weight. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds. C.17.By changing the angle of attack of a wing.Traffic and resolution advisories B.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. C..2. A X 8. C. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart.TCAS I provides A. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet.. B. the base is unknown B X 14.000 pounds. but not drag.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. the pilot can control the airplane's A.000 feet. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A.lift. spoilers..Proximity warning C.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 12.2. B.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.000 pounds gross weight. C X 9. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. CBs with little or no separation B.lift and airspeed. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.trip number and weight and balance data. the base is unknown C.lift.350 feet. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 11.A decrease in angle of attack. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. C. B X 7.11. B. A X 10.B.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.9. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.Brakes. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. B.800 pounds. B X 15.Brakes and spoilers at 125. gross weight. C. airspeed. with gear down. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C. B. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater .. B.200 pounds.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.An abrupt change in relative wind. [Refer to Figure 4-30.Sudden decrease in load factor.Brakes and reversers at 115. Some places have CBs. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B X 16.000 pounds gross weight. B. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds. C. Carrying passengers. 30 degrees.. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. 40 degrees. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? . B.Decrease C. the stability A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept. 2 km B.the semicircular canals C X 18. B.5 km A X 17.000 pounds gross weight? A. A X 22.) 30 degrees. B.propeller thrust only. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. C X 23.Improves B. C.500 feet. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.Eustachian tube B.Conducted IFR.1. [Refer to Figure 4-25. but not if it is "all cargo" C.White inscriptions on a black background C.dose not change A X 26. used to provide destination or information. Notify ATC immediately. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 25. if the flight will be A. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate.As the CG is moved forward. B.. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. C. have A.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch.jet thrust only.300 feet. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 20.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.A. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B. 1.the cochlea C. C X 24. B. C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 19. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A..Airport information signs.150 feet. 2 km C.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B. C X 21. C.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. Squawk 7600.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.At least one hour prior to the departure time.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114. B-747.Four C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON. Commercial . and B-737. A X 31.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases.100 feet. C.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.B-727 and B-737. it can be condensed into six elements.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.Maximum range and distance glide.supersonic mach number B.500 lb..Rotation speed.1.B-747. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28. ATP .750 feet.Critical engine failure speed.critical mach number C X 29..Five B.20.500 pounds? A. B X 30. [Refer to Figure 4-39.A.2.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.000 lb A. A X 33.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A..500 feet.transonic mach number C.. 150 knots C X 28.14 minutes. B. C.13 minutes.Maximum endurance.B-727 and B-747. however.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. C.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. B.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. C. C X 32. B.Two A X 36. B-727. The first D is . for a given runway? A.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.15 minutes. C. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B.．The decision-making process is quite complex. [Refer to Figure 4-37. C.B-737. A X 34.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.600 feet.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.Commercial .Best angle of climb.400 feet.2. B.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142.24.ATP . B. 170 knots C.ATP .23. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. using the acronym DECIDE. C X 35.Accelerate-stop distance. C. C X 27..000 feet..Zero fuel weight: 126. A. C. C.. bad visibility B.Series A and Series C. C X 40..6 hPa.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B. C. C. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.50 kilometers. B. Which rule applies? A. B. B. C.Series A and Series D. to a suitable airport and land. Low cloud with strong wind A X 39.To require a pilot to take a specific action. C X 42. which description is correct A.6 hPa. Strong wind.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Series A. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. C. A.. B. For an airport without air corridor. The visibility is 8 kilometers. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou.Area where the sea and the land meet . B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. TDZL. decreases pressure gradient force. C X 41. C. marker beacons. C X 44. RCLS.HIRL.40 kilometers.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. A X 43.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa. B.46 kilometers. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.Amber lights for the first 2. the sea level pressure is 999.To warn the pilot. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A. A.RCLS and REIL C.000 feet of runway. by means of VOR NAVIDS. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai. Series C and Series D.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 37. and approach lights? A. Dust. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A.Area with strong cold advection B. A X 46.Identify REIL.Radar and RVR. C. The visibility is 800 meters. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. The visibility is 8 kilometers. A X 45. B..To state some important information. the QNH is 999.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. thunderstorm. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. and RVR. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A. At lower levels of the atmosphere. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios... by means of VOR NAVAIDS.. B X 38. ．Effective CRM has some characteristics. which of the following is right description about it? A. if still IMC? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources. C.Loud.C. C. . i. equipment.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C X 51. C.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C. An outside air pressure decreases.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. B. The statement is A..Intermittent "bang. B X 56. B. B. A X 50.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. B.Transonic index.e. B.Critical Mach number.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease..2 PEK." as backfires and flow reversals take place. It is most likely to occur when A.Above PEK VOR.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C. C X 52. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.By signals fro. and an input of wind and variation data. C X 53.wrong.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B. B X 48..May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 49.decrease due to higher density altitude. B. airspeed.3 PEK.A and B C X 55.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A. self-contained gyros and accelerometers.D0. B.right B. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL. procedures and people. B. thrust output will A.Initial buffet speed. C.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.D0.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 47.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.From information by compass.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. . C X 54.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.113.15 C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. C.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. C.114..17 C X 62. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.13 hours C. C. C. A X 66.DH 100 feet and RVR 1. C.200 feet.DH 50 feet and RVR 1.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 60. C X 63.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.A X 57.6MHz.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.4 B..Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. B. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.200 feet. B.514MHz.supplemental and commercial.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C. B. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.7MHz. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? .V1. and designated pilot in command are A. or include on. flight attendant. B. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B X 61.supplemental and domestic.VEF.12hours B. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.14 hours C X 65. C X 58.500 feet. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.V2. B X 64..flag and commercial. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. C. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. A X 59. VFC. how much is the intercept heading? A. C.What is the hijack code? A. and around the wingtip. climbing rate. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.. C. B. [Refer to Figures 4-22. Outward.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.VIS1600m. and whether the pilot smoking or not. C X 73.RVR550m.wrong A X 70.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. B. B X 69.Lower-than-standard air density. B..VMD. C.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF.. The statement is )right B..(To be continued，health.3.VIS800m.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.53o. C.VMU. B. .137 knots.12.9.. 7777.19.DH200'. B.Increased headwind component. B.800 feet. A X 74. C X 72.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC. A X 68.100m. C. B.A. 7500.20. pilot's activity level.. upward. [Refer to Figure 4-39. twinengine airplane represent? A.DH20'. C. A X 76.000 feet.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors.143o.23. upward.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A. C. pilot's A. and around the wingtip. A X 75.400 feet. B. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A.000m. 7200. C.DH300'.124 knots. B. C X 71. C. 4-23 and 4-24. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around. C X 67. such as flight altitude. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.130 knots.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A..233o.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF. C.000m. B.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. . Inward. C. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.Any speed. B. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A. C X 78. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B X 83. clear ice. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. C.High speed.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. Rime ice.2 hours 18 minutes.Teardrop only B. you cannot accept any undue delay. C.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A..Direct only C. C. B.. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing.Low speed. C. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. Certificate holder's manual.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative. with reference to L/DMAX..At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A. C. A. upon reaching your destination. B. LEFT TURNS.600m AGL. At what speed. 4-47 and 4-48.Over the territory only. C X 80. B. A plane.. C X 84.Parallel only B X 85.Over the open sea only.A speed less than that for L/DMAX..2 hours 12 minutes. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C..CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.B X 77.. B X 86.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. receive this ATC clearance: ". A X 82. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.2 hours 15 minutes. B.The first holding pattern level. Original dispatch release. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 81. Frost ice. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.. C..A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.". Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. C. C X 79..A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. [Refer to Figures 4-46. B. B. B. MH 300°..Final approach fix. B X . 32. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B X 90.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A. B.100 feet. B. 125 NAM. A X 88.780 feet per minute.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500. B X 95. [Refer to Figure 4-43. C X 96. B X 93.Green yellow and white beacon light B.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected..LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A. C. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW.20. .17. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.600 pounds.87.23 minutes. or structural damage occurs.35. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A. [Refer to Figure 4-30.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. 250 knots C.24 minutes. B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.000 meters. C. 118 NAM..30.000.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.200 pounds. with gear down.000 pounds.. C. 150 knots B. B X 91.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.800 pounds. C. B. mechanical failure. B.25 minutes... flaps 40o. B. what was the approximate rate of descent? A. C.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27..The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110. When distress conditions such as fire..760 feet per minute. 109 NAM.FL 29. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. 330 knots A X 89.000 pounds.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.800 feet per minute. C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 94.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.300 pounds.000 pounds.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C. B.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 92.22. B.FL 8. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A..500 feet. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. A X 98.. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.6 months. C. C.Middle compass locator.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C. C. C. turbulence C.Outer compass locator.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 5. B. B. B. B.Outer compass locator.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.1Gs.1.3 months.. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.30 days. A X 100. head windshear B. 90 knots C X .4Gs C C 2. C X 97.Opposite direction.Remains fixed for all positions. A.Same direction. C. within a microburst.400 feet.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree . C X 99. the load factor is A. B. dispatch releases. it will encounter___. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.Inner marker..entering instrument meteorology conditions. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.Inner marker.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. C X ATPL02 1. 80 knots C.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B. B.2Gs. and load manifests for at least A.C.Middle compass locator C.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A. B X 3.FL 39.entering approach controlled airspace.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A. 40 knots B. vertical windshear C X 4. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. 750 feet. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A.500 feet. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.. C X 9.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. relatively calm night.2. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. Terrestrial radiation on a clear... Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory . C.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A...Low speed. B. C X 8. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? . At the equator. C.6. Select another type of navigation aid. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A.Only one INS is required to be operative. C. wet snow. B.. B. B X 13.500 pounds? A.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach . It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. Ice pellets. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. B.Any speed. B X 7. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A. B X 11. Freezing rain. B.To warn the pilot. C. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. with reference to L/DMAX. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. 130 knots B X 16. C.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.2. At the poles. C X 10..To state some important information. the pilot should A. B. C. At what speed. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. [Refer to Figure 4-28. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. A X 15. B X 14.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. C. 150 knots C.High speed. B. C X 12. 170 knots B.100 feet.To require a pilot to take a specific action.1. B. at 1.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 18. C.. B. 30 minutes at holding speed. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. 30 minutes.Evaluate the effect of the action C. on a multiengine aircraft B.0850K.The same as at low weight.500 feet. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 20.Airborne radar C. Rain and fog C. C. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. C.-positive longitudinal static stability. A X 23.870 feet. B X 25. A X 22..500 feet over the airport.762 feet. The first E is A. at 1.-neutral longitudinal static stability.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers..DME C X 21.850. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. and airport elevation? A.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Lower than at low weight. the airplane displays A. using the acronym DECIDE. it can be condensed into six elements. B. B X 26. at cruising speed. A X 24. wind. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.Higher than at low weight. summer and autumn.K0850. B. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. B.Six . however. C.One engine.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.A. B. over the airport.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 19. B.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. Radiation fog usually appears in . spring and summer. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. A. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.. C. B. C X 17.. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.755 feet.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released. winter and autumn. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. and irregularities of facilities and services? A. C.25 seconds B.Five C. A X 28.Turbine inlet. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.Air route traffic control center. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China.VOR and DME A X 34.Compressor discharge.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance..Two B X 27. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. B. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather.The aircraft dispatcher.5000 feet B.. B. Wind shear. This effect begins at about A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance . B X 33.ADF C.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. C.10000 feet C.Fuel spray nozzles.000 feet is closest to A. B X 29.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision.8000 feet A X 32.VOR B. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier. B. if enough fuel A." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.．In flight.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. A X 31. a good leader should A. B. By regulation.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.15 seconds C.Director of operations.B. A X 35. Frontal passage. Light and variable. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1.35 seconds B X 30. As air density decreases. B.RVR 250m. B X 45. 92 NAM. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115. C.2..700 feet. . C.Critical Mach number.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A.1.. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 37. C. 102 NAM.Transonic index.Decreases takeoff distance.440 pounds. C X 41.3. C. B. braking action is "fair" B. thrust increases.12..As temperature increases. [Refer to Figure 4-28.Decreases takeoff speed. thrust decreases. A X 38. C. braking action is "100%" B X 43.9. Decrease profile drag. B. B. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.As temperature increases.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. B. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. ..000m.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.involve the team in most decision making processes C.000m. 97 NAM.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.RVR 400m. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A. C X 44. A X 40. C.500 feet. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A. B.Increases takeoff distance. B X 42.420 pounds. B.RVR 300m. braking action is "good" C.1.. B X 39. thrust increases.800 feet.100m. C.B.. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.1. B.A and B C X 36.Initial buffet speed. C.000 pounds? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.390 pounds. 800 pounds.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. C X 54. B. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C. B.17. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.9.A X 46. A X 55.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. .10 to 12 km C. which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A. A. B X 56.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.the standard air pressure of the local station C. the altimeter should set on . (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZUUU B X 47.reached the cruising IAS. C..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.11..Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.received an ATC clearance.. with gear down.ZSSS C.000 pounds..the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.. B. B.High density altitude. Which term describes the hydroplaning. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.Dynamic hydroplaning. B X 53.Increasing speed or altitude. 8 to 9 km B. C. flaps 30o. B. C. A X 51.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude..the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. A. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.15 to 17 km B X 49.. C.ZBAA B. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Viscous hydroplaning.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. B X 48.. C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 50.200 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-30.Low gross weight.000 pounds.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.. B. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.Over the territory only.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.entered VFR weather conditions. A X 52.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Over the open sea only. lift. B.Transient "backfire" stall. A X 60.. airspeed. gross weight. C. which would help to enhance night vision? A.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. airspeed performance B. B X 57. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. you should plan to lift off A. A X .Teardrop only B. is normally limited to A. when originally issued. C. and drag. C X 59. C. loss of.". B.Parallel only C X 62.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.. B X 61. continuous flow reversal stall. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. [Refer to Figure 4-27.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.Direct only C.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C. but not drag.lift. clear air turbulence C. C.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.. and drag..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A.avoid using contact lenses B X 58. C.Steady.. the pilot can control the airplane's A..don't read small print within one hour of flying.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. LEFT TURNS. MH 160°.500 pounds gross weight.000 pounds gross weight. B. embedded thunderstorms C X 64.wear good quality sunglasses during the day.lift and airspeed.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). B.Use of three reversers at 120. A plane. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway... or diminished. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 65.. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed.000 pounds gross weight.B.By changing the angle of attack of a wing. B X 63. freezing rain B.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. B. receive this ATC clearance: ". B.Use of three reversers at 124.Intermittent "backfire" stall. C.. C. or include on. Which route should be flown in the absence A.expectancy producing a mental block C. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR. B X 69..750 feet. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route. A.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 67. B.350 feet. A X 73.2. B X 71.Takeoff safety speed.(To be continued，engine which failed. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.Minimum takeoff speed. C X 70.Y. An off-airway route to the point of departure. and designated pilot in command are A.supplemental and commercial. the wind direction usually changes .2.flag and commercial. A X 74.from headwind to tailwind. B. While in IFR conditions. C. B. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time.supplemental and domestic.. B... B X 72.. The route filed in the flight plan. B.Over domestic only.1.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine.Over open sea. C. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A..Over domestic and open sea.500 pounds? A. flight attendant. C.000 feet.66. B. plus or minus 3minutes. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A. [Refer to Figure 4-28. C..Takeoff decision speed. A X 68.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA.from left crosswind to right crosswind.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X . whichever is later. only to find that it was the right A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B. C. B.I. B. C. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. C.Z. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.. is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. [Refer to Figure 4-28. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.. B.15 days ago.. C.300 feet. A.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 78.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 83.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb).7MHz. 150 knots B.800 feet. C. Using the taxonomy.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105.both A and B C X 80.. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X .300 feet..White inscriptions on a red background B.111.000 pounds? A. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A.110.3MHz. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.7MHz.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.1. B. B. Upper rudder C.7 days ago. C X 82.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. C.114. A X 81. 330 knots A X 77. Ruddervator B. 250 knots C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 76.75. Leading-edge flaps C X 79.Holding position signs have A.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents.000 meters. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. B X 84. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Red inscriptions on a white background C.25 days ago. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3).fatigue C.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A.smoking and alcohol B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. Highest stall speed. B. and highest stability.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.. and 4-54.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. and least stability.] What is the ETE at . give the wing a lower camber B. B X 94. Movement of air over a colder surface. B. C.Limiting torque.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C. B X 92.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.Limiting compressor speed.VS1. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A. C X 93.1 hours 02 minutes.1 hours 07 minutes. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A..attitude may be higher than it appears. B. B X 87.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. A X 88.85. lowest cruise speed. C. and least stability B.4-52.1 hours 04 minutes.add slats C X 91. at ZBAA.4-53.Z.. [Refer to Figures 4-49. B.. C. B X 95. C.Lowest stall speed. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. B. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A.VSO.4-51. increase wing sweep. 8 m/s C. C. highest cruise speed.Lowest stall speed. B.80 Mach? A.Y. B. 4-50. C. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A. . highest cruise speed. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.(according to figure 2).attitude may be lower than it appears. without VASI assistant. Expansion of air as rises.I. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. 17 m/s B. A X 90. the max predicting wind speed is___. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. C.VS. C X 89...．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway. A.. 6 m/s A X 86. C.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time.V2. on a firs-come. In turn. Low-level wind share B.000 pounds gross weight. . the pilot should be aware that the approach A.Brakes and spoilers at 125.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight. B. C. and reversers at 130. B. RCLS. plus holding. C X 2. heavy aircraft. Microburst C.VEF. B. C.six instrument approaches.Except during an emergency. first serve basis.000 pounds gross weight. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.RCLS and REIL C.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.C. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. A X 98.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A.. and RVR. holding.attitude may be lower than it appears. B. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. or vice versa.HIRL. When cleared for an IFR approach B. spoilers. [Refer to Figure 4-25.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3).When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right. or vice versa.000 pounds gross weight. intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. When piloting a large.Radar and RVR. C. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. Turbulence A X 4. C.Brakes and reversers at 115. B X 96. and approach lights? A. C X 97.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.. Altitude increase. B. marker beacons.V1.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.. C X 99. C.six instrument approaches. B X 3.Brakes. without VASI assistant. B X 100. C. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A. C X 1 ------------------------------------ 1. B.attitude may be higher than it appears. . TDZL. three of which may be in a glider. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. 16 minutes. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A. A. thrust increases. C. severe clear air turbulence C. C X 10. B. Altitude. C.35MHz. PAR.85MHz. [Refer to Figure 4-37.ASR and PAR.118. moderate icing. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B.7MHz. and indicated airspeed decrease.6KHz.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. C.B. C X 5.administer oxygen B. C.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. B. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu.127. pitch. Continuous snow A X 6. and ASR. Drizzle C. rain shower. moderate icing. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.500 lb.As air density decreases.17 minutes. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Rain and snow B. and indicated airspeed increase.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.124. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.500 lb A. thunderstorms B. severe icing.As temperature increases.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.127.14 minutes. pitch. C. Moderate turbulence. thrust decreases.6MHz. severe clear air turbulence C X 9..127.8MHz.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A...Compass locator.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 7. B.. freezing precipitation.. B. thrust increases. . C X 11. C X 14.114. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.Proximity warning C.Zero fuel weight: 125. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. Altitude. B X 8.give plenty of water A X 13. rain. A X 12. C. Moderate turbulence.As temperature increases. Severe turbulence.Traffic and resolution advisories B.TCASII provides A. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. HUAIROU VOR/DME. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds. A X 22. A clear sky. . B X 20.VMO/MMO.A X 15. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. B. B. B.7KM from PEK. B X 23.The descent moment on the course of 227o.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light.. little or no wind.GPS instrument approach operations.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision.7NM from PEK.Where do squall lines most often develop? A. C. B..11.in an occluded front B.5times groundspeed in knots. before takeoff. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. must be authorized by A.11. The FAA Administrator only B X 24. C.GUBEIKOU NDB. which is able to support the airplane. 8times groundspeed in knots. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway.. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A X 17. (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A. B.behind a stationary front B X . C. C.VLO/MLO. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. C X 21.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light.ahead of a cold front C. C X 19. C.7SM from PEK.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A. Moist air moves over colder ground or water... outside the United States. A X 18.VLE. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 16.Clearway. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B.Stopway. C. A sovereign country or government unit C. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.Obstruction clearance plane. C. altostratus or stratocumulus C. Moist.. B.11. and high relative humidity.10 times groundspeed in knots. The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. C.20MHz.122. B X 28.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. C X 29. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign. This situation could be described as A.262 feet.360 feet.1915Z.1945Z. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. within a microburst. C.A stressful situation causing anxiety.8897KHz. indicates A. 80 knots C. B. 40 knots B. B X 26.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.1.1. B. the most appropriate remedy would be A.strong leadership B X 30. . C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach..ZUUU C. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. B X 33. C. A X 34.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia. pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z..a steep authority gradient C. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z.The excessive consumption of alcohol.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.a shallow authority gradient B.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 27.1. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.ZWWW C X 32.25.ZSSS B. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.1845Z.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.. 90 knots C X 31.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.360 feet. the altitude of LOM is 1.. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot.245 feet. FL 250. shower. FL 180.62 EPR. B. good visibility B. [Refer to Figure 4-34.cumulus.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. radiation fogs or strong turbulence. hypoxia. thrust decreases..As altitude increases.000. C X 37.5. A plane. B.critical mach number C X 44.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A.C. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. thrust increases. they can conceive the present weather at the destination as.As altitude increases. A X 38. an area of no convective turbulence C. poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C..transonic mach number C.cirrus.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. light rain. B. cold front. receive this ATC clearance: "..Parallel only C X 40. B X 42.Direct only C. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. warm front. A..9and6 B. B.01 EPR.supersonic mach number B. A.As altitude decreases.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25..219 knots and 1. thrust decreases. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .. the absence of clouds in the area B.". Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A.6 only A X 41. C. C X 39.223 knots and 2. MH 300°.stratus. C X 35. C. thunderstorm . FL 200. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration... A X 43. C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected . stationary front.81 EPR. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. B X 36. Therefore..Teardrop only B.216 knots and 1.3016KHz.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. B.. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. C.9 only C. Squawk 7600.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. or attached to.Departure airport. A X 48. B. B.000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route.C X 45. At the Equator.1. and identification number of the aircraft. C.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. decreased takeoff distance C. C. C X 46. C. 118 NAM.. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).Normally. What information must be contained in.Cargo load.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B. B. or diminished.430 pounds. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 54. loss of. At the Poles.Dutch roll C X 53.400 pounds. A X 51. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 52. C.490 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A. B X 47. or the MEA. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. alternate airports.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A.1. B. Last assigned altitude.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. What altitude should be used? A. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure.. destinations.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 50. altitude ATC has advised to expect. 110 NAM. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.Wingover. B. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. C. intermediate stops.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.. it is necessary for . C.1. B.. Notify ATC immediately. whichever is highest. airspeed performance B. weight and balance data. B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.Porpoise. A X 49. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. and trip number. 113 NAM. An altitude that is at least 1. obtaining provisions and fuel when unable. or supplies).flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low . Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.124.having the aircraft catered (foods.A.12.000 pounds.. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B. MH 300°. due to winds. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A.Parallel only B X 57. remain unchanged B. air carrier's chief pilot. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.137.. LEFT TURNS.000 pounds. certificate holder.With the increase of temperature. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.Teardrop only B. B. B. Descending to the surface and then outward.fly with a head cold B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified.108. warm front.. pilot in command.000m. B X 63.. B.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5. cold front. C.".CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. receive this ATC clearance: ". A X 59. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is.200-foot icy runway? A.3. C X 58.. A. C.. B. but a certificate is not required. B. C.000m. C X 60.．Hypoxia may be caused by A.. reduce B X 56.000 pounds. A X 61. B. C X 55. C. to proceed direct to the regular airport. increase C.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C. stationary front. A plane.Direct only C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. C. [Refer to Figure 4-27... but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.. C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. B X 62. A. beverages.9.100m. C. no further action is necessary C. B.. C. A X 68.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. B. B. C. A X 65.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.. B X 67.Strong vibrations and loud roar.998 hPa B. C. C.. B. B. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.transition training.C X 64.the airplane rides on standing water.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.999. A X 66.difference training. the QNH for ZUUU is A. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach.000 feet is closest to A. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.8 hPa A X 71.. C.11.25 seconds B. B. C. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C..．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. A X 72. C X 73. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. Operating at high airspeeds.1 minute B X 69.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. B.upgrade training.754 pounds.8 hPa C.45 seconds C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.1099. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1. B X 70. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.227 pounds.11. C X .What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. [Refer to Figure 4-45.503 pounds.. Developing lift.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. Using high power settings.11. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. 200 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-43.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. B X 77. if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2.11 A X 79.600 pounds. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 80.1 B. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A. C.000. C X 78.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A. C.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute.. B X 82. B. the altimeter should set on .the cochlea C. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.74. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear. A X 83..12 feet.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude. It should be reported without ATC request that A. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. B.. after advising ATC of the situation.. B.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.32. .000 meters.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.8 feet.30. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C X 81.... A. B.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500.the semicircular canals C X 76.10 feet.3000m. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 75.35. C. B. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. C. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. B. C.Eustachian tube B. relatively calm night. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.8 C.000 pounds. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation.. 800m. C. B X 84. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. B.01 EPR.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. can rain on the windscreen create? A.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 93.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability..Does not cause illusions.Z.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. A X 89.221 knots and 1. C X 87. C. B. B.2. [Refer to Figure 4-34. C. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.000 feet.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading.Lower than actual. While in IFR conditions.342o.600m.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.B.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110.347o. B. C X 90.2. B.．What illusion.Read the clearance back entirely.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A..CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C X 85.217 knots and 1. if any..Higher than actual. A X 88. C.3.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35. C. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route. An off-airway route to the point of departure. B. Which route should be flown in the absence A.650 feet.3. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. C. C X 86. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. C X 91. B.Y. The route filed in the flight plan. C.000 pounds gross weight? A.100 feet.I. B X 92.95 EPR..2.000.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.352o.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? .223 knots and 2. C..83 EPR. B..WEIGHT (*1000): 100. C. on a firs-come.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making.4-51.22. The statement is A.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you.2. B. B. C.04 EPR.adopt all rules. B X 100.ADF C. C. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion.22. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A. A X 95.22. When piloting a large. first serve basis. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe. C.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A. B. B X 98. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X ----------------------------------- 1.4-53.What is a feature of supercooled water? A.VOR and DME A X 97. In turn.01 EPR. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. C.A. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A.03 EPR.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.2. regulations.right B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B. then clear ice accumulates. A X 94. Strong wind with shower B. C X 99.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways.556 pounds. B. C. and procedures as far as possible C. [Refer to Figures 4-50.4-52.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.. and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.wrong A X 2. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.does the first thing that comes to mind.78 Mach? A.. heavy aircraft. B.VOR B. Snow and rain C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.972 pounds.Except during an emergency.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B X 96. When cleared for an IFR approach B. .2..140 pounds. B X . B X 10.100 feet AGL. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. B.600m AGL. C. 8 to 9 km B. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z. C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. Aerodrome warning C.3.1Gs. C X 7. A. which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. Wind shear warning B. and preferences.(according to figure 2). A X 13. 350 knots B.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree .What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.1. Hazardous weather warning A X 12. 8 m/s C. 17 m/s B.000 meters.4Gs C X 5. 330 knots C. the max predicting wind speed is___. C. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC.2Gs. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. a participatory leader A. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. at ZBAA. Fly direct to a fix. B. B.150 feet AGL. 6 m/s A X 4. the load factor is A.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. 250 knots C X 6. C. what action should be taken? A.. or airway specified in the vector clearance.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. B X 11. B..15 to 17 km B X 9. C X 8.．In a decision-making process . A. B.10 to 12 km C. route. . knowledge.The first holding pattern level. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.. B..200 feet AGL.1922Z.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A..Final approach fix. C.may ultimately decide the team's actions. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B.DECIDE C. C X 19. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A. C.. A X 21.500m. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.. The statement is A. B.12hours B.500 feet B X 18.Over domestic and open sea.870 feet. While in IFR conditions. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1. The route filed in the flight plan.600m.13 hours C. B X 17.DECIED B X 22.755 feet.000feet C.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. it can be condensed into the following six elements. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.. C.Over domestic only. B X 16.1952Z.B..762 feet.0022Z. however.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. An off-airway route to the point of departure.1.Compass locator.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.DICIDE B.1.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.500m. C. C X .Over open sea.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A. B.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.ASR and PAR.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1. PAR.wrong A X 15.14 hours C X 20. C. A.right B. C. B X 23.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1.500 feet B.．The decision-making process is quite complex. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A. C X 14.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. and ASR. C.trip number and weight and balance data. B. B. B. B-727 and DC-3. C.. C. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A.Supercharger gear ratio.ATP . B X 29. B. Commercial .-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. In turn.DC-9 and DC 3.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.FL138.24.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 25. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. no.right crosswind B. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.FL128. C X 27. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. When cleared for an IFR approach B.a first-class medical certificate. In northern hemisphere. on a firs-come. C X . first serve basis.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. A X 28.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. C.tailwind C.B-727 only.Except during an emergency. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A. what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.ATP ..a third-class medical certificate. B. B. no.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. B X 31. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. C. B.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. C.. C X 33. left crosswind C X 30. Using the taxonomy.FL118. C.. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 32. Commercial . A.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.ATP . C. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118. B.The desired manifold pressure. B. DC-3. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 26.Exhaust gas discharge. and DC-9.DC-9. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A. .．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. B.a second-class medical certificate. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. heavy aircraft. When piloting a large. the wind on the course is _____. yes. C.B-727. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. . Not less than 250 knots B X 39.the skeletal muscles. a speed not less than 150 knots. C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. not less than 150 knots. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.7MHz. C. C. and all other operations conducted below 3.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6. landing.. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. B. B X 42. if any.7hPa.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. Turbojet aircraft. takeoff.2. Slats B. C X 40..High RPM and high MAP.2.Low RPM and high MAP. thrust increases. C.114. joints and tendons C.As air density increases. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A.111.. taxi. not less than 170 knots.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A. B. C X 43. Piston and turboprop aircraft. B.110. but turbine temperature will be higher.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. descent. What effect. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A.000 pounds gross weight? A. excluding cruise flight.000 feet.As air density increases. except 20 flying miles from threshold. except 20 miles from threshold. A X 36. Under normal operating conditions.As air density decreases.the semicircular canals B. B. landing. the air pressure have reduced 17hPa.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.7MHz. takeoff.34. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3. does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A. C. and all other operations conducted below 3.3MHz. taxi.100 feet.000 meters MSL..Thrust will remain the same. B. thrust decreases.000 meters. irrespective of altitudes MSL.the otolith B X 37. C. For past three hours. including cruise flight.650 feet. C. Dorsal fin . B.000 meters? A. thrust increases. not less than 200 knots. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. B X 38.. B X 41. and taxi operations.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. C X 35.High RPM and low MAP. For past three hours. landing.. approach. a speed not less than 210 knots. C.3. a speed not less than 230 knots. the air pressure have reduced 1. Elevator C. B. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.Company meteorologist.. A X 46. C. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121.Instrument Control Regulation.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. B.Low gross weight.DA110m. B X . Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A.High density altitude.RVR550m. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. bad visibility B.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Approach Control Regulation. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings.VIS1600m. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A. C. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C X 51. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.12.B X 44. C. for this PIC?)_DA63m. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.093 feet.Compensate for increase in drag A X 45. C.12. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou.Aircraft dispatcher..097 feet. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3.High-speed flight only.. B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. C X 48. Low cloud with strong wind A X 52. thunderstorm.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. C X 47. by regulation. Who is responsible. B.123 feet. C X 50. This situation could be described as A. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A.DA93m.a shallow authority gradient B. Strong wind.Low-speed flight only.a steep authority gradient C. C.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. C. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121..Director of operations. A.strong leadership B X 53. B. Dust.Visual Flight Regulation. C. B. C.13.Low-speed and high-speed flight. B.VIS1600m B X 49. as PIC. 5times groundspeed in knots.153 knots and 3.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.. B. B X 60.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. A decreased stall speed. The wind speed increases.138 knots and 3.11 A X 64. B. what type leader the captain should be? A.123 knots and 3.an authoritative leader C. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. snow. The wind speed increases.10 times groundspeed in knots.450 feet. braking action is "zero" C. especially as altitude increases. ..．In order to make an effective communication. C. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A.Alcohol has an adverse effect. temperature reduced B X 59. The adverse effects of ice. C. B. B. C.HUAIROU VOR/DME. temperature rises B.54. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. B. A X 55. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? .8 C.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A. temperature reduced C. A X 62.. when warm air mass is unstable. C..a participatory leader B. In summer.050 feet. B.. C X 61.1 B. 8times groundspeed in knots.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. A X 57. braking action is "nil" C X 56. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. An increased stall speed. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.a leader can balance act between the two types management style.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC.Takeoff decision speed. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A.. braking action is "fair" B.Takeoff safety speed.GUBEIKOU NDB. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.Minimum takeoff speed. increased thrust. C X 58. when there is almost no the braking action? A.850 feet. C. C X 63. authoritative and participatory. poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. visibility 4 km C. B. B.. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual.A.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C. the wind speed is 120 km/h B. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. A. vestibular and postural cues. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A. At the EFC time. Light fog. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. visibility 4 km. the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 71.. C X 68.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces. and the weather then is ____.every 7 consecutive days B. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec. A. front fog C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. visibility 4000 m B X 67. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. B. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. the wind speed is 120 knots C. cumulonimbus B.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. in the interest of safety. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. C X 70. C.each calendar week B X 73.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. . light rain shower. B X 66. B. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. C.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A. layer clouds A X 65. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B. C. B.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1. C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. heavy rain.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline..a change in the information coming from the inner ear. C. C X 72. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. B X 69. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet. C. C. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines.. B.600m and DH 120m. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.RVR 1. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe. B X 81. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing.. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least .Dispatch Release. B. C X 78. B X 82. C. A X 76. C X 77.C. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.RVR 300m..RVR 250m.RVR 800m and DH 60m.RVR 400m. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.632 feet per minute.Operations Specifications. upon reaching your destination. ability. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots. B.. B. an apt arranging is A. C. B.. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 80.Operating Certificate. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. you cannot accept any undue delay. ability. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C. C X 75. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.the caption's power. C X 74.737 feet per minute.843 feet per minute. A. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where.. C X 79. A. B. ability.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.the caption's power. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.What is a feature of supercooled water? A.the caption's power. In a flight crew.from headwind to tailwind. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. the wind direction usually changes .from left crosswind to right crosswind.RVR 550m and DH 60m. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. then clear ice accumulates. B. 699 feet/minute. 90 knots B X 85.An area. 500feet or less to another aircraft.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.A.000 pounds gross weight.930 as specified on the SID? A. C.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.Increasing speed or altitude. within a microburst.An area. [Refer to Figure 4-26. C. C.International Notices To Airmen A X 90. B X 84.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. at least the same width as the runway. the pilot in command A.760 feet/minute..Brakes and reversers at 125. at which a safe landing can be made.alternate airport.000 feet or less to another aircraft. B.Brakes and spoilers at 120.500 pounds gross weight.. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.. 40 knots B. spoilers. and reversers at 135.International Aeronautical Information Manual C. B. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots. B. C X 88. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. in point of time. B X 83. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. not as wide as the runway. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A. A X 87. B X 86. C X 89.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. . may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. B.000 pounds gross weight. C. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. B.. 1.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A. C. 80 knots C. must land at the nearest suitable airport. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A. B. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.An increase in dynamic stability.Brakes. C.destination airport.provisional airport. B.851 feet/minute. C. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A. C. B X 91. C.A X 92. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. smooth airflow and advection fog C. and 4-54.Direct only C. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. C.7 hours. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation..140 pounds. 130 knots B X -------------------------------------------- .. MH 300°.6 hours. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.22. B. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. It begins to rain on the ground C X 93.4-51.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.972 pounds. B.78 Mach? A. A X 100. alternate airports.. 170 knots B. the pilot should A. A plane. or attached to. receive this ATC clearance: ".22. C X 94. C.8 hours.22. warm front clouds B X 95...in an occluded front B. B. B X 96.".4-53..CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. [Refer to Figures 4-50. C. it will usually produce .4-52.ahead of a cold front C. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. layer clouds B. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A.... destinations.behind a stationary front B X 98. B X 97.Parallel only B X 99.Teardrop only B.556 pounds. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff. What information must be contained in. B. and identification number of the aircraft. weight and balance data. and trip number. intermediate stops. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path.Cargo load..] What is the total fuel required at .. LEFT TURNS.Departure airport. A. 150 knots C. C. C X 5. C. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight. A X 8.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. C X 9.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.1. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. to the A. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. A X 2. B.Middle compass locator. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. B. the pilot in command must report it.2Gs. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment. C. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A. B. C X 11. B. 24 calendar months. C. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours..Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.Pilot in command..If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A. to check the performance of the aircraft.. C X 7.12 C. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A..Aircraft dispatcher. C. nearest CAAC district office. C. C. C X 10. ATC and dispatcher. as soon as practicable.9Gs B X 4. C.Outer compass locator. and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A. 12 calendar months. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions. after initial training? A. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety.Director of operations or flight follower. B. . to achieve or maintain the desired separation. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C. B.4 B. B. weather. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A.11 C X 3. B.Inner marker. B. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 6.3Gs. 6 calendar months. B-727 and DC-3. B X 12.".Airspeed. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds..496 feet.2. C.1. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. DC-3.10 EPR..B-727. to the Administrator within A. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. B.Teardrop only B.ATP . B. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A. C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.2.-neutral longitudinal static stability.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. Advise ATC immediately. B.. Thisclouds is referred as A. C. Commercial .1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.Direct only C.DC-9. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 20. before takeoff.-positive longitudinal static stability... B.Altitude. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. C.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A. receive this ATC clearance: ".What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. . C. B.While flying IFR in controlled airspace. B X 18.. A plane.06 EPR. stratus or nimbostratus B..2. concerning the incident. C. C. A X 15.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. if one of the two VOR receivers fails. B X 14. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. and DC-9.ATP .If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released.B.ATP . 10 days. B X 21.115 EPR. A X 13.Angle of attack. B. C X 16. the certificate holder must submit a report.DC-9 and DC 3. MH 300°.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. Commercial .900 feet. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. B..1.Parallel only C X 19.244 feet. C X 17.. the airplane displays A.B-727 only.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. altostratus or stratocumulus C. C. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.000 pounds? A. A X 31.12 feet.000 feet is closest to A.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.15 seconds C. B.8 feet. C. B.400 feet..One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.000 pounds? A.114. C X 29. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A..increase airspeed. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. C.514MHz. C. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.113. A X 24. 5 days.Two B X 28. C X 22.7MHz.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122. 24 hours. C. B X 30. C. B.Low-speed and high-speed flight..1. . What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.350 feet. C.6MHz.. C.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134. A X 27.10 feet.delay stall.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. A X 25. B. B.1. Upper rudder C. B.35 seconds B X 23. [Refer to Figure 4-28.. B X 32.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.Low-speed flight only.200 feet.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.High-speed flight only..B.2..To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.25 seconds B.750 feet. Leading-edge flaps C X 26. [Refer to Figure 4-27.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.2. Ruddervator B.750 feet.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Five C. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.Six B.increase the load factor.950 feet. Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 41. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. and reduce airspeed. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A. [Refer to Figure 4-30. B X 42. and increase airspeed.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A.96 knots.．The decision-making process is quite complex..．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.X.000 pounds.Reduce fuel flow. A X 35. however. flaps 30o. C. using the acronym DECIDE.000 pounds.Evaluate the effect of the action C. Dorsal fin B X 39.Reduce throttle.9. A X 33. C. reduce angle of attack. with gear down. B.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. reduce airspeed.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A. B. B X 37.110 knots. C.200 pounds.cornea C.. B.both A and B C X 38.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Advance throttle.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 40. During the period of Spring Festival.11.smoking and alcohol B.28 days ago. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.. C. These lines are A. lower angle of attack. Elevator C. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A... and increase angle of attack.fatigue C. B. The second E is A.C.7 days ago. it can be condensed into six elements.800 pounds. A X 36. if you are assigned to an additional flight.N. C..At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway.90 knots.15 days ago. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? .M. Slats B. A X 43.iris A X 34. B.retina B.17. C. A. Some places have CBs.METARS.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW. [Refer to Figure 4-45. B. the base is unknown . intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn. B.November 1988. The parcel of air resists convection. Air mass thunderstorms.six instrument approaches. As the parcel of air moves upward. holding. SIGMETS. and AIRMETS.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A. C. A X 44.. C. A X 52. An unstable layer of air..97. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B. AWW's.103.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. B.January 1989. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A.To protect military activities.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 49. .. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds. A stable layer of air. to maintain enough separation. B. three of which may be in a glider.7 minutes. an increase in airspeed will A.A.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A. plus holding. C. C.SPECIS.six instrument approaches. NOTAM'S. both a and b C X 46. PIREPS. C X 47. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. PIREP'S and AIRMETS. A X 51. A X 48. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown. and adverse conditions.December 1988.Convective SIGMETS.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. B X 50.. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time. C. CBs with little or no separation B. to achieve the desired separation.2 minutes.99.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. the latter check is considered to have been taken in A. B. A X 45. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.8 minutes.SIGMETS. C. B. C. B. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989. Recurrent training.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.during normal operation C X 61. C.supplemental and domestic.Upgrade training. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet.1. A X 55.400 feet. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. Strong wind with haze B X 58. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.. B. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. C.. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.the movement of the weather system B X 57.(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.. dust B... A X 56.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e. C. B.the change of sun radiation B. may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A. From the following list.. B.g. . C.Initial training. or include on. B.C. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. [Refer to Figure 4-25. A. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds.200 feet. B X 59. Strong wind with sand C.000 pounds? A. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. C.the property change of the underlying cushion C. and designated pilot in command are A. B X 54. C. select the situation least likely to A. the base is unknown B X 53. North wind at 12 m/s.flag and commercial. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. A X 60.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. B737-300). flight attendant.850 feet.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times.after a period of intense concentration C.supplemental and commercial. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.5. [Refer to Figures 4-49.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B. A X 67. B. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. C X 63.440 pounds.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice.1 hours 02 minutes.3 C. C. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.. pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.023 pounds. C.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.2 B.4-51. C. what airspeed indication can be expected? A.732 pounds. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.the airplane rides on standing water. B. B. C X 69..N0420. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. Wind shear.420N.C X 62..80 Mach? A.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. B X 66.000..1 hours 07 minutes.4-52.1. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A. Frontal passage.4 B X . A X 64.] What is the ETE at . Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.1. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. Light and variable.WEIGHT (*1000): 92.Pilot-in-command. [Refer to Figure 4-34.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 70.N420. B. 4-50..Air Traffic Controller.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30. and 4-54.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C. C. C. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B. C.Dispatcher. B X 68...1 hours 04 minutes. A X 65. B.4-53. .77. B.3 percent.. . The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.any required pilot crewmember.domestic airport flight information office. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A. A.70 Marh.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 74.wrong A X 77.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding.4 percent. C. The statement is A. cumulonimbus clouds. B. the captain finds that on weather map. stratocumulus. shower and gale C.5 percent. stratocumulus. A X 80.79..any flight crewmember.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.7and 11 B X 78. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. C.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A..75. B X 73. Before taking off. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.5 and 13 C. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.71. low clouds and weak turbulent current B.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25. C.right B. There are altocumulus . clear after rain.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 76. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 75.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. There are cirrostratus . (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A.M0070. B. There are altostratus.Green yellow and white beacon light B..M070..070M. B X 72. B. B.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80. C. C.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A. [Refer to Figure 4-32.CG is at the most forward allowable position. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.11 B. A X 79.A and B C X 81.the pilot in command only. stratus .000. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle. leveling off. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. C. Weaken C. A. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Transonic index..121.. C. B. B X 88. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10.wrong A X 84. No change B X 91.Initial buffet speed.B.Critical engine failure speed.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. Intensify B.Critical Mach number.85MHz.right B..35MHz. B.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.L1020. C.F1020.Rotation speed.pitching down.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.000 meters. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information. A X . for a given runway? A.S1020. C.. C. C.pitching up.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A. the expected changes in intensity of the icing is. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. B X 83.200 meters.127. A X 89.124. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases.International Notices To Airmen A X 86. The statement is A.Accelerate-stop distance. 250 knots C.International Aeronautical Information Manual C. B. A X 85.. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. freezing rain B. B.65MHz. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. clear air turbulence C. 330 knots A X 90. 150 knots B.foreign international NOTAMs office.domestic area flight information center. B. embedded thunderstorms C X 87. B X 82. C X 95.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.processing information from the eyes.139 knots.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans.17 C X 98.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. C. A X 96. C X ---------------------------------------------- . C. [Refer to Figure 4-30.15 C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. A X 100. C. C.000 pounds? A. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.-4? C X 94.Angle of bank C.6 months.30 minutes a time. and load manifests for at least A. C.One hour and a half a time. B.132 knots.processing information from the inner ear. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.3 months. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.92. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate.136 knots. C X 97. C.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A. B.2 NAV? A.Rate of turn B. A X 99.30 days. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A.1? B. dispatch releases..An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.True airspeed B X 93. B.．What cause hypoxia? A. B.4 B. B. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption..-2? C. vestibular and postural cues.by combining and comparing visual.Hourly. VIS 1.-Increase the camber of the wing. Increased landing rollout. B.the caption's power. B X 10.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.the semicircular canals B. the QNH is 999. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.. B X 6.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A. C. ability. A X 3. B. B.750 feet.500 feet. The visibility is 8 kilometers.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. B X 8.4.the skeletal muscles. B.4. B X 2.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A. C. The visibility is 8 kilometers.6 hPa. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. C. the sea level pressure is 999. A hard landing. joints and tendons C. C. The visibility is 800 meters. B.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. Landing short of the runway threshold.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A. B.ZSSS B. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa. In a flight crew.the caption's power.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118. B.ZUUU C.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. ability. an apt arranging is A.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. .Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.RVR 250m. C. B..A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A.6 hPa.4.the caption's power. C X 7. which description is correct A.the otolith B X 4. C.000 pounds gross weight? A. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A. C. C X 9... [Refer to Figure 4-25. ability.200 feet.RVR 200m..ZWWW C X 5. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.600m. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.1. low-red. B X 11. C X 17.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.High-white and green. B X 20.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.15 minutes.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.An increase in breathing rate C.Operations Specifications.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A. C. on glidepath-green.I.Low-speed flight only.Y. C. [Refer to Figure 4-34.C. A X 18.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 16. A X 15. B.Z.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 13..000.High-speed flight only.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light. [Refer to Figure 4-43.High-white. C. B.5 hours 3 minutes.223 knots and 2. B. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. on glidepath-green. A X 19.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 14. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. C.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. low-red. C. C..CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27. A.5 hours 20 minutes. B. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. B.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. the code "VCTS" means ____.95 EPR. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route.Operating Certificate. C. A X 12.221 knots and 1.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.30 minutes.In daily aeronautical weather reports. on glidepath-red and white.83 EPR.increased visual field B. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. B.5 hours 55 minutes. There are thunderstorms over the airport.High-white..Dispatch Release. .000.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.217 knots and 1. B. B.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35.01 EPR. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A. low-red.3 minutes.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. is A. red.000. C. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. A X 29. B. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months. A X 23. C. C.an authoritative leader C. [Refer to Figure 4-32. six ILS approaches.Within the previous 12 calendar months. A X 22. A.4 percent.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.24 hours.One light projector with two colors. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.74. [Refer to Figures 4-22..PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A. The fuel reserve required.angle of attack .2 percent. B X 27. increasing its A. C X 24.2.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC.C X 21.Rate and radius will increase. red and white.9 percent. A stable layer of air.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing. B. B X 30.72.2.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. C. B. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A. white.07 EPR. B. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B. red and white.2.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.a leader can balance act between the two types management style.Row of four lights parallel to the runway.Within the previous 6 months.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A. C. and 4-24.. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. and green.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90.09 EPR.8 hours. An unstable layer of air.a participatory leader B.75.12 hours. B. C X 25.．In order to make an effective communication..Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway.06 EPR. A X 28. C. B. what type leader the captain should be? A. B. authoritative and participatory. A X 26. Air mass thunderstorms.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B.Clearway. C. A X 39. B.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. and never in climbs or descents B X 35. C.. C. climbing rate.VEF. pilot's activity level.V2.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B. C.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors. pilot's A.1.. twinengine airplane represent? A. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.7and 11 B X 33. For scheduled airline.11 B.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A. and whether the pilot smoking or not.. A X 36.244 feet. B.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. The statement is )right B.S.camber C. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A. A X 37. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.496 feet.Obstruction clearance plane.V1. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A. C X 38. B.1.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.5 and 13 C.Only one INDS is required to be operative. C.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light.900 feet. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. B.Stop way.. C X 34.B. .energy B X 31.G.wrong A X 32.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A.(To be continued，health.R. B. such as flight altitude. 6 calendar months.1.320 feet/minute.. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A.11 C X 44.behind a stationary front B X 49.What functions are provided by ILS? A. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed. C. B. Direct tailwind. range. Ground? A. and visual information. range. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.B X 40.VMCA. C X 50.1. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A.. B.. B. C.364 feet/minute. B X 46.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because .in an occluded front B. B..1 B. C X 43. 24 calendar months.VMCG. Light quartering headwind. ZULS B. and vertical angle.12 C.VSO. 12 calendar months. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.4 B.ahead of a cold front C. C. Azimuth. Light quartering tailwind. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D.VS1.8 C. B X 48. ZUUU A X 45. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.Where do squall lines most often develop? A. C. ASSS C. and vertical angle. C.11 A X 47. B.400 feet/minute.VMC.2% to FL148? A. B X 41...VS. Guidance. Azimuth. B X 42. B. distance. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A. C. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? .White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. B. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified. for this PIC?)_DA63m. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.RVR550m.. B.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 55. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog...Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 57.Area with strong cold advection B. or when leaving an assigned holding fix. A. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway. when leaving an assigned holding fix. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. B. C.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. it is necessary for A. By convective mixing in cool night air.VIS1600m B X 56.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B. but a certificate is not required. B. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. Moderate chop.. as PIC. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude.Area where the sea and the land meet C.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C. C.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 51. A X 53.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. Intermittent light turbulence. B. These lines are A.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight..DA110m.A.VIS1600m. By wind or the movement of air. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 59.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C. C X 54. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. C.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.DA93m. C X 58. It is most likely to occur when A. occasional light chop. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. A X 52. ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. en route. [Refer to Figure 4-43.000..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. B. A X 64.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. braking action is "zero" C. which operational requirement must be observed? A. Ruddervator B.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.9 NM point is indicated? A. braking action is "fair" B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.32.The existing and forecast weather for departure.34. C.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.RVR 1.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37.000 feet is closest to A.18 hours A X 68. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine. B. B.25 seconds B. B..16hours B.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW. Upper rudder C. C. C.RVR 800m and DH 60m. Leading-edge flaps C X 67. C.28. C. B X 62.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. braking action is "100%" A X 60.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.17 hours C. B. A X .A.000 pounds.000 pounds. and approach must be VFR..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.A stressful situation causing anxiety. C.The excessive consumption of alcohol.RVR 550m and DH 60m.. C X 65.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. B. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. A X 66.600 pounds. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.600m and DH 120m. B X 61.35 seconds B X 63.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.15 seconds C.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. 69. A X 70. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.. B X 76.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway. which is able to support the airplane.35MHz.. B. 210 knots .972 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-50. MH 240°. A plane.Obstruction clearance plane. B. Radiation fog. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A..6 B..121. C.Teardrop only B..65MHz.Stopway.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. receive this ATC clearance: ". C. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.78 Mach? A.127. 135°or SE B X 72. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A. 315°or NW C. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A.. B X 78. C X 71. and 4-54. Northwest wing can be presented as .4-52. During a supplemental air carrier flight.Pilot in command. B.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. C. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3.85MHz. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C.12 C X 73. 200°or NW B. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 75. B. Frontal fog. Advection fog.7 C. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.22.Parallel only A X 74.Clearway.Director of operations or flight follower.ATMB NOTAMs office...4-53. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B.124. C.. C. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.Direct only C. B.000 meters? A.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A.556 pounds. B X 77..Aircraft dispatcher. B X 79. A. C..22.22.".What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.140 pounds.] What is the total fuel required at . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. B.4-51. transition training.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114.15.. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. A.500 pounds.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.difference training. B. An alternate airport for departure is required A. A X 84.VIS800m.upgrade training. C. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. C.1.DH300'. to flaps 0o.VIS1600m.DH20'.B. B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.13.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude. 200 knots C. 170 knots B X 80.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o. gear down. C.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. [Refer to Figure 4-29.3 months. B. B X 88. B. gear up.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.500 feet.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.] What is the change of total drag for a 140.when destination weather is marginal IFR. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.150 feet.30 days.DH200'.300 pounds.Negative longitudinal static stability B.. and load manifests for at least A. C. B.RVR550m. A.6 months. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A. dispatch releases.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 81.800m.the standard air pressure of the local station .13.300 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-25.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. C.. C X 87. B X 82. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. the altimeter should set on .000 pounds gross weight? A. B.300 feet. C. C. A X 86. C X 83.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.. B.An alternate airport is required. A X 85. A X 94.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC.10 to 111.wrong A X 91.10 MHZ B. C.. 4℃ per 1.111.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 89. A X 95. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight.95 MHZ. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.Four B. C.Remains fixed for all positions.000 feet.000 feet. when there is almost no the braking action? A.7MHz.3MHz. C. 2℃ per 1.108.108.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. B X 98. A X 93.a steep authority gradient C.114.C.108. 3℃ per 1.any flight crewmember. B. braking action is "nil" C X 96.10 to 118. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A. The statement is)right B. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. B X 97. .10 to 117.7MHz. braking action is "zero" C.. C. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.110. B. B. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A.000 feet.the pilot in command only. B.a participatory leader A X 90.Opposite direction.Three . C X 92. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. B. C. This situation could be described as A.any required pilot crewmember. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.a too shallow authority gradient B.95 MHZ C..Some direction. braking action is "fair" B. C X 7.850 feet. B X 5.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.Airport flight information office. C. A X 100. Mach. [Refer to Figure 4-27.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.Use of three reversers at 124..000 pounds gross weight. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.Below.000 pounds gross weight. B. C. C X 6.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.cornea C.Use of three reversers at 120.retina B.138 knots and 3.123 knots and 3.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.450 feet. under normal conditions.Any FSS C.From.26 minutes.．What cause hypoxia? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.20 to 2.20 Mach.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. C. B.From.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A. 118 NAM.24 minutes.5. with reference to L/DMAX.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. C X 4. B. B X 2..ARINC B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120..Two A X 99. C.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.25 minutes.1.153 knots and 3.75 Mach. At what speed.Area flight information center. C.C. B. 118 NAM. C.75 to 1. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.Appropriate dispatch office C X . C.050 feet. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29. 125 NAM..Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with.500 pounds gross weight..iris A X 3. B. A X ----------------------------------------------- 1.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. Same direction.Opposite direction. B.75. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. A X 12.9 percent.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90. to the Administrator within A.75 to . C. A pilot flight crewmember. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate. 24 hours.72.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A. for what maximum time is this document valid? A. concerning the incident.1.. A X 14.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.6 calendar months.-1. C X 15. B. [Refer to Figures 4-46.2 hours 12 minutes. B..000.. legs. In the Northern hemisphere.headache and fatigue B.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 16.20 to 2. [Refer to Figure 4-32. the certificate holder must submit a report. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC.120 days.2 hours 18 minutes.75 mach B. 10 days.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. C. 5 days. B. C. other than pilot in command.24 calendar months. C.60 days.a feeling of euphoria C.2 percent. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft.Increased vision keenness.Tingling of the hands. under which of the following conditions.50 mach B X .20 mach C.90 days. and feet.8.-.Remains fixed for all positions A X 11.12 calendar months. A.74. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .-. must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A. B X 13. B. A X 17. B.50 to . C.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A. C. C X 10.4 percent. C. C X 9. B. C. A.2 hours 15 minutes.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.. B.Decreased breathing rate. 4-47 and 4-48. 000 pounds gross weight? A. the most appropriate remedy would be A.. Poor visibility. A X . obscured thunderstorm with hail B.wrong A X 26.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. Severe turbulence. C.2. A plane.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. A X 21.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120.15 seconds C..voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.Over open sea. C X 19. C. C.Direct only C.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.25 seconds B. C.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A... C X 24. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A. embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 22.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.Parallel only C X 23. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.35 seconds B X 20.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia. embedded thunderstorms C. LEFT TURNS.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.500 feet.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 25. B.150 feet.Over domestic only. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell..750 feet. Convection currents at the surface. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Over domestic or open sea.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. B.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. B.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. Severe mountain wave.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.000 feet is closest to A.3.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing..Teardrop only B. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. A.. receive this ATC clearance: ".18.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B.".. Cold temperatures. B. Severe mountain wave. C.2. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew. The statement is)right B. A X 27.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. MH 160°. [Refer to Figure 4-25.. A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.. as soon as practicable. Drizzle C.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.An alternate airport is required. expected holding speed B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. A X 38. B. to the A. B.Limiting torque.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. C.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. C. the accuracy of the GPS derived A. C.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. B.. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight. B X 36.Limiting compressor speed. C. B. Position is not affected C. C. Continuous snow A X 29.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.Compensate for increase in drag A X 32.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.28.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C X 35. A. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. the pilot in command must report it.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. B. B X 34. C.. B. nearest CAAC district office. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 30. At lower levels of the atmosphere. 7200. operations manager (or director of operations). B. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. ATC and dispatcher.800m. C X 37. . The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. Rain and snow B. A X 31.. C.What is the hijack code? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.. decreases pressure gradient force. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. A X 33. [Refer to Figure 4-26.127 knots. and altitude decreases C X 44.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.129.Maximum range and distance glide. [Refer to Figure 4-29.124. 210 knots C.Best angle of climb. A. indicated airspeed increases. Strong wind with bad visibility C.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140. and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed decreases. B.900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. 250 knots B. B X 40. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3.000 pounds? A.Decreases takeoff speed. A X 42.. B. C. C.. 7777.156 knots.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A.. indicated airspeed decreases. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. A X 48.B. C. C. aircraft pitches up. C.HUAIROU VOR/DME. 200 knots B X 46.GUBEIKOU NDB. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.000 meters? A. B.Maximum endurance. 7500. aircraft pitches down. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.Angle of attack.000 pounds. A. Snow shower A X 45..134. A X 43.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 47.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.. aircraft pitches down.149 knots.000 feet short of the end of a 4.Airspeed..A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B. C X 41. B.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system..Increases takeoff distance.Altitude. B. B. C.500 pounds.Decreases takeoff distance. B X 39. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.500 pounds. and altitude increases C. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. excluding cruise flight.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. and preferences. With regard to flight crewmembers duties.Flaps. C X 57. A X 55. B. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 53.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o..What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet. and all other operations conducted below 3.Tabs.. B.000 meters. and an input of wind and variation data. airspeed. landing.From information by compass.13.300 pounds. the wind speed is 120 knots .. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A. B. landing. A X 49. C. knowledge. C. gear down. B.C.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. B X 51. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. and taxi operations. approach. landing.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A.The descent moment on the course of 227o. airspeed performance B. to flaps 0o. takeoff. loss of. C X 54.Outboard ailerons.000 meters MSL..Compressor discharge.300 pounds.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. irrespective of altitudes MSL. and all other operations conducted below 3. takeoff. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A. C. including cruise flight. decreased takeoff distance C. [Refer to Figure 4-29. B.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. taxi. A X 50. or diminished.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.tends to make final decisions in an emergency. C. B. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.500 pounds.Fuel spray nozzles..13. C.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. gear up. self-contained gyros and accelerometers.Turbine inlet. descent. taxi. C. C X 58. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. C.may ultimately decide the team's actions. B X 52.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. C X 56.．An authoritative leader A. B. but seldom in other situations B.By signals fro. the wind speed is 120 km/h B.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.15. altitude.G. C. Series C and Series D.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.S.FL 6.Request a clarification from the ATC..Series A. B.Heading.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. Airplane Flight Manual. twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.What performance should a pilot of a light. A X 62. the QNH for ZUUU is A. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. A X 65. frequent lightning C.1099. C. .300m.FL 6. B X 68.The first holding pattern altitude.Angle of bank C. and ability to climb 50 ft/min. C.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. continuous updraft C X 64.True airspeed B X 69.999. B. B X 66. B X 67. C. B.998 hPa B..Series A and Series C...Heading and altitude. B. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. C X 63. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1. beginning of rain at the surface B.Series A and Series D. A X 60.Read the clearance back entirely.000m.8 hPa A X 61.N. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A.Rate of turn B.C. C. the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 59.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A. B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C.Heading.8 hPa C. Certificate holder's manual.. B.Do not accept the clearance. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A. C. B.300 feet.Three A X 71. spoilers and reversers at 140.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A..140.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared..] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. Position reports.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.136. B.500 pounds.050 feet.An alternate airport is required. [Refer to Figure 4-27. B..117.Use of three reversers at 120.000 pounds gross weight.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes.not considered to be part of a rest period.000 pounds gross weight? A. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports. [Refer to Figure 4-26. vacating an altitude.650 feet. going to or from a duty. C X 74.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. 350 knots B. C. C X 77. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C.800m. C.500 pounds gross weight.000 feet short of the end of a 5. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. .Use of three reversers at 124. affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.Five C.500 pounds. 330 knots C.000 pounds gross weight.000 meters? A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. C. .How dose deadhead transportation. 250 knots C X 72.500 pounds.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. unable to climb 500 ft/min. C. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.1. A X 76.B. B..Use of brakes and spoilers at 120.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. A X 70. unable to climb 500 ft/min.. C.Seven B. C. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. B. Vacating an altitude. B.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A. A X 73. B X 75.1.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. unable to climb 500 ft/min.400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. vacating an altitude. [Refer to Figure 4-25. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.as the time goes on .Zero fuel weight: 126.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.000 meters? A. C. not less than 200 knots.change B. Strong wind. Altitude.ADF C. thunderstorm.000 lb . except 20 flying miles from threshold. not less than 150 knots. [Refer to Figure 4-37.G. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181.500 lb.during normal operation C X 86. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. a speed not less than 210 knots. C.after a period of intense concentration C. A X 84. B.000 feet B. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou.R.000 feet C. C.may change or may not change A X 81. not less than 170 knots. C X 83. bad visibility B.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. Piston and turboprop aircraft.In flight . and indicated airspeed decrease.C X 78.2. C." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. Turbojet aircraft. B X 79. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.VOR B. B X 80. a speed not less than 150 knots. B.3. select the situation least likely to A.not change C. Altitude. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. For scheduled airline. Altitude increase.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.500 feet.. pitch. Not less than 250 knots B X 85. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times.VOR and DME A X 87. B. B. the CG will A. Dust. and indicated airspeed increase.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A.3.. a speed not less than 230 knots. except 20 miles from threshold..．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. From the following list. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. Low cloud with strong wind A X 82. C.(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B...S. pitch. B X 96. C X 95. B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A. C. what should the pilot do? A. In summer. C X 88. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption. C. B.870 feet. prior to flight conducted above A.15 minutes. 4-23 and 4-24.14 minutes.5 C. increase speed to the assigned speed. Coriolis deflecting force C X 92.144 knots. FL250 C X 94. when warm air mass is unstable. Friction force. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots. front fog C. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. cumulonimbus B. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. C. B. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given..800 feet per minute.15 B X 89. FL200 B.5 B. B..760 feet per minute. If an ATC controller assigns a speed. A X 90. C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A... 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required. B. Upon arriving at the most distant airport. layer clouds A X 93. B.A. [Refer to Figures 4-22. 45 minutes at holding altitude.145 knots.762 feet. A.13 minutes. what height above the airport could it descend to? A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. . whichever is less. whichever is less. C X 91. FL240 C. C. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.143 knots.755 feet. what was the approximate rate of descent? A.. instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. B. or 90 minutes at normal cruise.780 feet per minute. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. Inertial centrifugal force C. .FL158.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. A. B.. B.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 99. C. on a multiengine aircraft B.DME C X 3. A X 100. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.30 hours A X 4.One engine.35 hours B. the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.Airborne radar C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.900 feet. which altitude could it descend to? A. the altimeter should set on . Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.244 feet..1.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude.FL168. A X 5.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.1. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace. B.FL148.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.. B X 98. A X 2.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.1.496 feet.the standard air pressure of the local station C.000 feet . is most likely to be encountered A. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb). C X 97. B.32 hours C.C. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X --------------------------------------------- 1. C. What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.000 feet C.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement..．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. B X 14.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time.B. B. C.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational. B X 13. MH 160°.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 9.. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.500 feet B X 6. B..Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. dispatch. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. etC． C.". B..Teardrop only B. C X 7.Parallel only C X 10.2.(To be continued，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. maintenance.Motion about the longitudinal.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. A plane.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. ATC. C. B X 12. The statement is )right B. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A. lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. C. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.A and B C X 8.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.2. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 11.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.Direct only C.. C. B. B.Motion about the lateral axis. receive this ATC clearance: ". C.wrong .Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A. B. C X 22.in high clouds. the pilot should A. B. A X 20. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. During emergency. C X 23. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'. C X 21. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come.RVR550m. [Refer to Figures 4-22. B. At what speed.. yes. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. B X 16.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. B. you cannot accept any undue delay. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. no. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. C. C. C X 17.in cumliform clouds B. C. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. with reference to L/DMAX. C X 18.124 knots. C.DH300'...A X 15.DH200'.130 knots.. TNA 90 is cleared for A.air temperature C. upon reaching your destination.. first-served" basis. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority.137 knots..In altocumulus cloud. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B. which of the following is right description about it? .. B. C.VIS800m.air pressure B X 19. Altocumulus B. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA.．Effective CRM has some characteristics. Upon arrival at ZBAA.Read the clearance back entirely.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A. B..A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C. Cumulonimbus C.. Stratocumulus B X 24. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. 4-23 and 4-24. C. A. can a pilot expect landing priority? A.Do not accept the clearance. yes. such as cirrus. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90.VIS1600m. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A. C X 30.TCASII provides A.000m and MDA 120m. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.In terminal radar service areas C. B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C.A.Visibility 2. continue taxiing in the landing direction.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.Above 12. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.055 C. B. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2. C.Outer compass locator. A X 28.Traffic and resolution advisories B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A. B. B X 34.e.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.Inner marker. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.CRM is a process using all available information and resources.Proximity warning C. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. C.600m and MDA 240m. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. equipment.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 29..285 B. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.Visibility 3.Positive static stability. A.Middle compass locator C..000m and MDA 120m. C X 31.500 feet MSL A X 32. B.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. B. Causes clockwise rotation around a low.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. C. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. i.800m and MDA 180m. B X 27. .At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 26. procedures and people.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. B. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. A.A and B C X 25.235 B X 33. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.Positive dynamic stability.Visibility 2. A X 42.2.Over open sea. B.143 knots. Nimbostratus.1.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A. C. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.Neutral dynamic stability. C. C.500 feet.070M.. C. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. C X 36. Elevator C. C. B. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. B. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 44. A X 38. Lines of thunderstorms. fog and rain B. B. A X 39. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A. B. B. Dorsal fin B X 41.Manifold pressure.750 feet..100 feet.-Negative dynamic stability A X 40. Slats B.Over domestic only.Outboard ailerons.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C X 37..RPM. C X 45. A.High-speed flight only.Tabs.. B. C.145 knots.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.144 knots.Flaps. A X 43.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. obscured thunderstorms C. C.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. B.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.Increased headwind component.. C.Exhaust gas temperature.Over domestic or open sea.2..Low-speed flight only. [Refer to Figure 4-28.70 Marh.M070.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. .M0070.Lower-than-standard air density. B X 35.C.500 pounds? A. 4-23 and 4-24. [Refer to Figures 4-22. ．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up.. C.processing information from the eyes.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.. (According to figure 6) At point B. C.by combining and comparing visual. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan.Rate and radius will increase. during emergency C. B.leveling off. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. A X 55.wrong.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.127..-rate will decrease and radius will increase.70 percent of the actual runway available.C X 46.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine.7MHz.pitching down.114.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. which operational requirement must be observed? A. A X 48. first serve basis. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A. B.VOR B. the wind direction. C. . B. wind speed and temperatures is A. en route.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. Southwest wind at 35 KT.6KHz. Southwest wind at 14 KT. B. B.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.ADF C. C. temperatures is -52℃ C X 47.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.VOR and DME A X 51.6MHz.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways.right B. B. Northeast wind at 35 KT. C. temperatures is 52℃ C. and approach must be VFR. B X 52. A X 54. C. B. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.processing information from the inner ear.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.127. A X 50. vestibular and postural cues.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. The statement is A.The existing and forecast weather for departure. C X 53. on a first-come. temperatures is -52℃ B. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. both a and b C X 49. 342o. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.300 feet.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes..Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B. B.1. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. spoilers and reversers at 130. [Refer to Figure 4-26. 118 NAM.490 pounds.. B.000 pounds gross weight? A.25 minutes. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.As altitude increases. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.10.entering instrument meteorology conditions.500 feet.GPS instrument approach operations.. C.352o..The tropopause to 45. B.400 pounds.347o.As altitude increases. 109 NAM. C. C. C. C.entering approach controlled airspace. C X 65.24 minutes. B. A X 59. 113 NAM. The FAA Administrator only B X 61. A sovereign country or government unit C..000 feet to the tropopause.23 minutes. B X 58. B.1. thrust decreases.000 feet B X 63.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.000 feet.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 60.1.000 feet. C. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.A X 56. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.. thrust decreases. 110 NAM..1. 125 NAM.430 pounds. B. A X 62. C X 57. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. the heading indicator should indicate A. 118 NAM.000 feet to 25..25. A X 64.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? . must be authorized by A.As altitude decreases. C. thrust increases. outside the United States. B. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. in an approved simulator. gross weight. is A.By changing the angle of attack of a wing. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 68. B X 70.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.980 pounds.500 lb A. A.lift.3. C. C.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. the flight must be able to A. [Refer to Figure 4-34. B. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate. cold front. and drag..000.lift and airspeed.16 minutes. warm front. B.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.not required to have a medical certificate.Impulsivity: C X 69.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. B.. stationary front. A X 73. B.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.To protect science tests only.A. C X 72. B.17 minutes.Area where the sea and the land meet C. A X 74. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.14 minutes. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 66. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C.Invulnerability: C..lift. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A. C. [Refer to Figure 4-37. but not drag. C X 71.240 pounds.required to have a first-class medical certificate.required to have a second-class medical certificate. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is.Zero fuel weight: 125. C.To protect military activities only. C X 67. B X 75.．"Do something quickly!".2. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.500 lb. C.. and drag. airspeed.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.3. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. the pilot can control the airplane's A.625 pounds.Macho B.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. B.. C.Area with strong cold advection B.5. .Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. A X 76. B.5 B. using the acronym DECIDE. C.VMD.B.3 A X 83.. B.Series A and Series C. C.Series A and Series D.. C. B.5 C. C.843 feet per minute.15 B X 79. B.Evaluate the effect of the action C. A X 78.VMU. Series C and Series D. A X 84.2 C.Critical engine failure speed.1 B. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course . What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.Accelerate-stop distance. for a given runway? A.Adhere to standard operating procedures. A X 80.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. B X 82. A X 81. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA..632 feet per minute.737 feet per minute. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.VFC. C. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. which of the following applies? A.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.Rotation speed. etC．as far as possible.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 85.Series A. however.120 days after issue or renewal. The first E is A. fuel burn. C X 77. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.．The decision-making process is quite complex.. C.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft. C. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots. B. B.. it can be condensed into six elements. . There are altostratus. . the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 86. In summer. It is a warm front. It is a stationary front C.attitude may be higher than it appears.attitude may be lower than it appears.. C. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. B. C. C. cumulonimbus B. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B. B. B. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. A X 91. stratocumulus. There are altocumulus . layer clouds A X 88. which weather system we coursed A... increasing its A.energy B X 89.800m. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. after advising ATC of the situation. B X 93. when warm air mass is unstable. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. It is a Cold frongt C X 94.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. C. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. B X 87.1.000 pounds gross weight? A. front fog C.An alternate airport is required.angle of attack B.500 feet.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. without VASI assistant. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. There are cirrostratus .] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1.300 feet. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 92.000 feet. C. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. stratocumulus..camber C.. C. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.A. stratus . B X 90. [Refer to Figure 4-25.. C.Increase speed for a tailwind.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.500 feet. .AIR CONDITIONING: ON A. C X --------------------------------------------- 1.ZSSS C. C.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114. B X 96.600 feet.. B.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released.WING ANTI-ICE: ON. B. A X 3. A X 100. B. A X 2.18. the airplane displays A. A X 97. B.150 feet.19.16. decrease altitude for a tailwind.. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A. C.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.Increase altitude for a headwind.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.110 knots. B.96 knots.ZUUU B X 99. B X 98. [Refer to Figure 4-39.300 feet. B. C.Increase speed for a headwind.700 feet.-positive longitudinal static stability.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.1.90 knots.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.. C.C X 95. B.-neutral longitudinal static stability.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.ZBAA B.000 pounds gross weight? A.400 feet. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A. C.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.Brakes.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107.Traffic and resolution advisories B.quite different to those of hypoxia B.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.B.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.000 pounds gross weight.TCAS I provides A. B. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A. B. A X 10. B..000 pounds gross weight. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart. B.. spoilers. Some places have CBs. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A.2. C. C. CBs with little or no separation .A decrease in angle of attack. C X 9.750 feet.Sudden decrease in load factor..profuse sweating B X 5. B.Brakes and reversers at 115.500 pounds? A. C. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.2.000 pounds gross weight.quite similar to those of hypoxia C. C X 6. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. B. [Refer to Figure 4-25. C.An abrupt change in relative wind. [Refer to Figure 4-28. C.trip number and weight and balance data. C. A X 8.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 11.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. B X 7. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.000 feet. and reversers at 130..Brakes and spoilers at 125.1. back to the departure airport.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.350 feet.Proximity warning C. C. A X 13.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. B.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 12. A X 4. Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A. airspeed. 40 degrees. but not drag. A X 22. 2 km B. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A.1.the semicircular canals C X 18.B. B. the base is unknown B X 14.200 pounds.Carrying passengers.the cochlea C.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110.17..propeller thrust only. gross weight.lift and airspeed.150 feet.. and drag. the pilot can control the airplane's A. C X 21.lift. C.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A. B. with gear down.500 feet.5 km A X 17. used to provide destination or information.. and drag.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. have A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept. C.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 20. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.Conducted IFR. but not if it is "all cargo" C.lift.Airport information signs. B.By changing the angle of attack of a wing. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A. flaps 30o. if the flight will be A. B X 15.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.jet thrust only. B X 16. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 19. C X . C.800 pounds.. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. 30 degrees. B.White inscriptions on a black background C. C. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. 1. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds.000 pounds gross weight? A.300 feet.9. [Refer to Figure 4-25.) 30 degrees.Eustachian tube B. C.000 pounds. the base is unknown C. 2 km C. [Refer to Figure 4-30. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.000 pounds.11. C. C. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. and B-737. C X 24.B-747. B. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. C.2. C X 27.500 pounds? A. B.Maximum endurance. C. C X 32.20.000 feet.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A. A X 31.100 feet.B-727 and B-747.critical mach number C X 29. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. [Refer to Figure 4-28. [Refer to Figure 4-39.Improves B.ATP . Commercial .A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B. B X 30.Decrease C. B. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. ATP . 200 knots B.23.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.. C.24.600 feet.transonic mach number C.Commercial .750 feet.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. the stability A..dose not change A X 26..ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA.B-747.2.1..Best angle of climb. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 25. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate.supersonic mach number B..At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. Squawk 7600.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.At least one hour prior to the departure time.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. B.B-727 and B-737.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. B. B.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 28. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.ATP .500 feet. Notify ATC immediately.400 feet.As the CG is moved forward. B-727. C.B-737.Maximum range and distance glide. A X .23. thunderstorm. The first D is A.Zero fuel weight: 126. A. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. Which rule applies? A.RCLS and REIL C..．The decision-making process is quite complex. C.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope.Accelerate-stop distance.HIRL.Radar and RVR.500 lb.000 feet of runway. to a suitable airport and land. and approach lights? A. it can be condensed into six elements.6 hPa. B. C X 35. using the acronym DECIDE. A X 43. the sea level pressure is 999.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. bad visibility B. B. The visibility is 800 meters.14 minutes. At lower levels of the atmosphere. which description is correct A.46 kilometers.Amber lights for the first 2.Critical engine failure speed. however. C..Do what we must to do in the situation A X 37. TDZL. C.. A X 34. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. the QNH is 999. C.6 hPa. The visibility is 8 kilometers.Rotation speed. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa. RCLS.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.13 minutes. decreases pressure gradient force. C X 41. by means of VOR NAVIDS. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.33.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181. Low cloud with strong wind A X 39. C X 40. B X 38.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. C. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. [Refer to Figure 4-37. marker beacons.15 minutes. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. . B.40 kilometers.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.Identify REIL. Dust.50 kilometers. and RVR. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. A. Strong wind. for a given runway? A..] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. For an airport without air corridor.Four C. C. B. C. The visibility is 8 kilometers. C X 42. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. B.000 lb A.Five B.. B.Two A X 36.. C. It is most likely to occur when A.From information by compass.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A. B. and an input of wind and variation data.Series A.2 PEK.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation.To state some important information. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.Series A and Series C. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL. A X 50. airspeed.. C.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B..To require a pilot to take a specific action. . thrust output will A. C X 52. B. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.Area where the sea and the land meet C. . The statement is A.D0.right B. B.wrong. self-contained gyros and accelerometers. C. C.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C. B X 48. B. C.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios.3 PEK.Loud. C X 53. B.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A. A X 46.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.To warn the pilot. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 47.. C.. C." as backfires and flow reversals take place.Area with strong cold advection B. C X 44. C X 51.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 49. An outside air pressure decreases. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A..Series A and Series D.By signals fro.Above PEK VOR. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A. if still IMC? A. A X 45.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.decrease due to higher density altitude. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.Intermittent "bang.D0.B.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. B. Series C and Series D.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. A X 57. A X 59.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.．Effective CRM has some characteristics. C X 54.Transonic index.Critical Mach number. B X 56. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. B.e. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1. B.500 feet.7MHz.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. C.V2. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A. B.114. C. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A..CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.6MHz. B. B.15 C. C X 58.V1.. which of the following is right description about it? A.200 feet.Initial buffet speed.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A. C X 63.200 feet. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. C.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B. equipment. C.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C..Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 60. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources.514MHz. B X 61.17 C X 62.4 B. .Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. procedures and people.C. C.VEF..Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.113. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. i. B.A and B C X 55.DH 150 feet and RVR 1.DH 50 feet and RVR 1. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.143o.137 knots..12hours B. B.53o.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A. The statement is )right B.13 hours C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around. 7777.VIS800m. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90.(To be continued，health. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.DH300'. C. C.Lower-than-standard air density. 7200.124 knots. and designated pilot in command are A. C X 71.wrong A X 70.supplemental and commercial. C X 73.VIS1600m. C X 72. B X 64. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A. C X 67.What is the hijack code? A. B X 69..Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. C. [Refer to Figures 4-22. upward. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. 7500. B. . A X 68..130 knots. how much is the intercept heading? A.14 hours C X 65. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.233o. C. Outward. Inward. and around the wingtip. B. climbing rate. C. 4-23 and 4-24.. C. pilot's A. B.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors. or include on. B.VMU.Increased headwind component. B. A X 66. B. .. C.RVR550m.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. pilot's activity level. and around the wingtip.supplemental and domestic.DH20'.B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. and whether the pilot smoking or not.VMD. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A.flag and commercial.DH200'. upward. flight attendant. such as flight altitude. B. A X 76. B.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90.100m. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. twinengine airplane represent? A. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A. C. you cannot accept any undue delay.. B X 83.19..Maximum single-engine angle of climb..2 hours 18 minutes. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A.000m.000 feet. Certificate holder's manual.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative.Over the open sea only. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A.20..3. C X 80. B. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. B X 77. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 81. upon reaching your destination.23..A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A. B. At what speed.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. C. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.C. C. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A. Original dispatch release. A X 82.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China.Over the territory only.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC.400 feet. C. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. A X 75. C.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF. [Refer to Figures 4-46.VFC.2 hours 15 minutes.000m. C X 78. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C.600m AGL.800 feet. 4-47 and 4-48.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light. C X 79...AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A. .9. B. A X 74. C. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane. B.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. with reference to L/DMAX.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.12. C.2 hours 12 minutes. A. C. C X 84. mechanical failure.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.Direct only C. or structural damage occurs.780 feet per minute. C. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 92.Green yellow and white beacon light B.600 pounds...32. B.000 meters..] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500.. When distress conditions such as fire.. B. [Refer to Figure 4-43. 330 knots A X 89. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A.The first holding pattern level. 250 knots C..Any speed. C.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A. C.Final approach fix..What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. C.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. what was the approximate rate of descent? A. B X .800 feet per minute. LEFT TURNS. B.. B X 91.Teardrop only B. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A.Parallel only B X 85.760 feet per minute. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.200 pounds. Rime ice.000 pounds. A plane.35. A X 88. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots. B X 86. B.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. Frost ice. B X 87. 150 knots B. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. MH 300°. B. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.B.High speed.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. C. receive this ATC clearance: ".WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. C.Low speed. clear ice. B X 90. B. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A."...30..000. dispatch releases. [Refer to Figure 4-30.400 feet. 150 knots C X . what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 94. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. C.3 months. 118 NAM.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A. 125 NAM. B X 95. 170 knots C.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110. flaps 40o. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Same direction.93. C.. with gear down.800 pounds. B.6 months.entering approach controlled airspace. C. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight.23 minutes.FL 8.Opposite direction. C.000 pounds. B.Outer compass locator. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. C.Remains fixed for all positions.300 pounds.FL 29.17.Middle compass locator. and load manifests for at least A. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. B. C X -------------------------------------------------- 1.100 feet. B. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.. B. 200 knots B.. C X 99.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.25 minutes.FL 39. 109 NAM. C. A X 100.500 feet. A X 98. B.Inner marker.000 pounds. C. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.24 minutes. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A. B. C X 97..Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.entering instrument meteorology conditions.. B.30 days.20.22.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. C X 96. B. B.2. not less than 200 knots. a speed not less than 150 knots.000 meters? A. B. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.000 feet. C. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B. Not less than 250 knots B X 6.A decrease in angle of attack.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.. C X 10. not less than 170 knots. except 20 flying miles from threshold.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.. A X 3.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.initial training. C.100 feet. C.000 pounds gross weight? A.loss of the vertical component of lift B. a speed not less than 210 knots..000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C X 5.3. A X 8.000 feet to the tropopause.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances.Macho B. C. B. C..The tropopause to 45. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. except 20 miles from threshold. A X 11. C.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A. turbojet powered) is A.transition training. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft.000 feet. C X 9.000 feet to 25. a speed not less than 230 knots. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere.Impulsivity: C X 4.Sudden decrease in load factor. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.．"Do something quickly!". [Refer to Figure 4-26. B. C. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high..650 feet.Invulnerability: C.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 7.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. B.000 feet .Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.upgrade training.2.10..2. C. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.g. not less than 150 knots.An abrupt change in relative wind. Piston and turboprop aircraft. Turbojet aircraft.25. ATP .. C X 17. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A.. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. B. 3.A and B C X 20. B X 15. C X 16.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.B-727. Commercial . B. DC-3. with revenue cargo aboard.5 and 13 C.11 B.Opposite direction. equipment.Teardrop only B. C.. B.7and 11 . receive this ATC clearance: ".If required by the airplane's type certificate.e.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights.1945Z.B-727 and DC-3. A X 14.At least one hour prior to the departure time. C.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.．Effective CRM has some characteristics.. i.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. MH 300°. are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. B X 21.1915Z.DC-9 and DC 3. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. 3. Below that altitude.. C.DC-9.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.B X 12. A plane. C.Parallel only B X 18. B.1845Z. B. C X 13.000 meters.ATP . B. C.CRM is a process using all available information and resources. procedures and people. except when in cruise flight.Some direction. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. 6. B. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. which of the following is right description about it? A. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. C. C..600 meters.Direct only C. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B X 19.ATP .CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. and DC-9. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.000 meters. B.". LEFT TURNS. Commercial . What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.Remains fixed for all positions.B-727 only. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.. Decrease profile drag. . (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. B.50 kilometers. temperature reduced C. B X 28. C.Lift divided by the total weight.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes. which minimums apply? A... C. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.Lift subtracted from the total weight. A X 30. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.600m and ceiling 120m.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. B.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B. B. A X 31.visibility 1.. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart.propeller thrust only.Series A. C. temperature reduced B X 24. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A. C X 25. For an airport without air corridor. B X .Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A..46 kilometers. C.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A..What is load factor? A. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A. C.) cumulonimbus clouds B. reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large. A. When proceeding to the alternate airport. Series C and Series D. altocumulus clouds C. four-engine. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds.Lift multiplied by the total weight.Rate of turn B.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. B.40 kilometers. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A...B X 22. temperature rises B.True airspeed B X 23. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer.jet thrust only. B.Strong vibrations and loud roar.Series A and Series C. B X 29.Series A and Series D. A X 27. The wind speed increases.(to be continued Based on this situation. false cirrus clouds A X 26.Angle of bank C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. C. The wind speed increases. and an input of wind and variation data.732 pounds.023 pounds.000. A X 37.Stop way. spoilers and reversers at 130.300 feet.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes.1..From information by compass. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. B. B X 33.. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude.8 feet.HUAILAI. B. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. C X 34.1.Obstruction clearance plane.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30. airspeed.D38 to HUAIROU. C. C X 40. C X 38.000 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-26. B. B. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. C. A X 36.440 pounds.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight.Clearway.. Intermittent light turbulence.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.. C.12 feet.1. B. C X 35.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.10 feet.5. C. B.The point cleared by ATC.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight.500 feet..the airplane rides on standing water.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.. B. self-contained gyros and accelerometers.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. occasional light chop.32. A X 39.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A. [Refer to Figure 4-34. A X 41. C. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.000 pounds gross weight? A.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. B. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A.. . A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. B. C.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.By signals fro. C. B. Moderate chop. C X 46.Within the previous 6 months. C.ATP . B.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision.Low speed.Within the previous 6 months. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.B-727 and B-747. B. C X 49.the caption's power.VOR and DME A X 44.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment.the caption's power.118. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.35MHz.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. B X 42. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate.VOR and ILS C.8MHz. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months. ATP .B-747. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.VOR B. ability. B.127. C. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Commercial . A. C. C X 45. In a flight crew. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. vertical windshear C X 48. head windshear B.High speed. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. .C. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. six ILS approaches. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. C.. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. B-727. B. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. ability.B-727 and B-737.124.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. turbulence C.B-747. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A. C X 43.the caption's power. B. it will encounter___. ability. B X 50.Any speed.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A. an apt arranging is A. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.B-737. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds.85MHz.ATP .Commercial .. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. C. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. and B-737. B X 47. 000 pounds gross weight.HIALS.139. Moist..000 pounds. C X 57. C. affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5. little or no wind.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. C.In flight .Coriolis illusion. [Refer to Figure 4-25.not considered to be part of a rest period. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A. C.not change C..A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A.000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A. C X 56.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105.To protect military activities only. C. B X 54. Landing short of the runway threshold.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. C. B.may change or may not change A X 52. and high relative humidity.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions.000 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-27. B. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A X 55. This is known as )autokinesis.-Negative dynamic stability A X 59..the leans.. B. B.136.000 pounds. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. B. A hard landing.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators..How dose deadhead transportation.119. A clear sky. C X 58. B X .000 pounds gross weight. C. B.as the time goes on . the CG will A.Use of three reversers at 113.PAPI. B X 60.change B.-Positive static stability C. going to or from a duty. Increased landing rollout.500 feet short of the end of a 4.-Negative static stability B. an abrupt head movement A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. C.A X 51.000 pounds gross weight.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis.To protect science tests only. C. B. B X 53.Use of three reversers at 115.HIALS with PAPI. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B. B.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A..．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.0NM A X 62.Rapid. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A. ordering galley supplies C.. 80 knots C.5.1 C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 67.. however.a steep authority gradient C. using the acronym DECIDE.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. C X 63.Parallel only A X 64. when an approach has been missed. 90 knots B X 66.Teardrop only B. The first E is A..1 NAV? A. receive this ATC clearance: ". MH 60°. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.strong leadership B X 68.". within a microburst. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. 40 knots B.5NM C.Direct only C.Dizziness..．The decision-making process is quite complex.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.a shallow authority gradient B. B.61. it can be condensed into six elements.2 B X 69.8 B. C. A plane.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. . What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet..0NM B. Convection currents at the surface. C X 70. Cold temperatures.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight.. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 65. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. This situation could be described as A.10.7. shallow breathing. passengers on board B. B. C.right B. 125 NAM.DAWANGZHUANG. A X 72. C.The point cleared by ATC. Poor visibility. C.90 knots.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. 118 NAM. then repeat.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. which weather system we coursed A. B X .000 feet is closest to A.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.24 minutes. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.25 minutes.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3. It is a stationary front C.100 knots. The statement is A.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. B X 79.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.070M. B. B. B. B.looking outside for 15 seconds..35 seconds B X 78. A. A X 73. C.. A X 80. C.1 minute inside scanning.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. then repeat. fog and rain B. A X 77.95 knots. It is a warm front.wrong.26 minutes.15 seconds C. Lines of thunderstorms. then 1 minute outside scanning. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. C X 71.M0070. C. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration.25 seconds B.. Nimbostratus.70 Marh. B X 76. 118 NAM. B..C.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A. then inside for 5 seconds.. obscured thunderstorms C. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A. B. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 75. It is a Cold frongt C X 74. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary.. supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A.. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. Freezing rain. B X 83. [Refer to Figure 4-45.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B. C.9 minutes. any exit.10000 feet C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 88. B.1 minutes. any aisle in the passenger compartment.7 minutes.114.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 87. Ice pellets. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.. or use of.. B X 90.Read the clearance back entirely.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. C.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. wet snow. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.81.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.．As a general rule. B X 89.5000 feet B. A worm front and mountain waves B.. This effect begins at about A.240KHz..Request a clarification from the ATC. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. C. B X 86. or use of.10000 feet C.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz.59. B X 84.7MHz.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision.8000 feet A X .No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 85. C. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.A runway Boundary Sign C. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. C. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu.8000 feet B X 82. which weather system we would encounter A.Do not accept the clearance.54. B. A.58. A cold front and moderate icing C. B. B. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.thunderstorm. B X 97. B X 94. C. C. good visibility C. C X 100.91. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. ATC. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 95.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B. B. etC． C. air carrier's chief pilot.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin..Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.0630z. C.132 knots.000 pounds? A.clear. B.Intersecting runways C X 96.0600z.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.139 knots. A. C.. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport.. B. shower and high wind B.stratonimbus. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. poor visibility A X 98.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A. [Refer to Figure 4-30. under which of the following conditions. In the Northern hemisphere.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C. C X 92. Just prior to takeoff. pilot in command. B. high wind. light rain. C.0700z.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. and he can realize that the current weather may be A. dispatch.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time.A and B C X 93.. B. . B.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B. A X 99.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C..136 knots.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110. maintenance. certificate holder. the QNH is 999. A plane. B. which description is correct A.fly with a head cold B.．The perception of color is a function of the A..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.B.Teardrop only B. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding . B X 7.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A. and preferences..cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. A X 4. gear and flaps up.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions.may ultimately decide the team's actions.18 hours A X 9.. B. knowledge.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.High speed. slow.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. The visibility is 8 kilometers. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 2.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 5. Heavy.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C. MH 160°. receive this ATC clearance: ".Low speed. B. C. The visibility is 800 meters. Heavy. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. The visibility is 8 kilometers. A X 3.Parallel only C X 8. a participatory leader A.17 hours C.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.6 hPa.16hours B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. the sea level pressure is 999. C. A X ATPL03 1. B.．Hypoxia may be caused by A.. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. Heavy. B. gear and flaps down. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai. C.．In a decision-making process . slow.. fast. C. C X 6. C..6 hPa. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa.Direct only C.Any speed. gear and flaps down..". . Moist. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.A. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. under which of the following conditions. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.998 hPa B. B.The second in command only. A clear sky. .. Decrease profile drag.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.Any flight crewmember. little or no wind. B X 17.8 hPa A X 13. 24 calendar months. C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 15. B X 14. A.999. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. C X 18. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. B. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. if they have a flight engineer certificate. B X 11. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1. C. B..An alternate airport is required.8 hPa C. C. if qualified. the most appropriate remedy would be A.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 16. 12 calendar months. B.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.800m.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. B X 10..For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. and high relative humidity.. C. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C. B. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C.1099. A. 6 calendar months.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B. C. B X 12.Either pilot.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia. B. In the Northern hemisphere. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. the QNH for ZUUU is A. C. A X 20. B. 3℃ per 1.provisional airport.CCAFC. and RVR.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C. [Refer to Figures 4-50.000 feet. C.836 pounds.What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. A X 25. A X 23.4-52.B X 19..000 feet. C.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. C X 26. the load factor is A.4Gs . C.Minimum takeoff speed.2Gs. B.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree .22. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118. marker beacons. B X 21. B. C. C.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope.Radar and RVR.Takeoff decision speed.FL118. 2℃ per 1..22. RCLS. TDZL. A X 27... what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.Airport flight information office.when destination weather is marginal IFR.4-51. B. B.80 Mach? A.. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. C. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A. B.4-53.22.FL138..FL128. There is an inversion with colder air below.420 pounds..alternate airport.000 feet.Takeoff safety speed. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. An alternate airport for departure is required A. B X 24. and approach lights? A.Area flight information center. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.556 pounds. B.RCLS and REIL C. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. B X 22.] What is the total fuel required at . B. 4℃ per 1. and 4-54. C X 28.1Gs. B. B.1.destination airport.HIRL. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. C. What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A. C.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . B.(according to figure 2). the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A.Air route traffic control center. in point of time.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.Limiting torque.Sluggish in rudder control C. B X 36. C. must land at the nearest suitable airport.from west to east C. B X 37.Only a pilot.Limiting compressor speed.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 35. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane.Sluggish in aileron control. and irregularities of facilities and services? A. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather. the pilot in command A. A. B. A X 33. at which a safe landing can be made.. A and B C X 30. A. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. B. B. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°. C X 31. or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. flight engineer. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________.. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).Director of operations.. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C.C X 29. C. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.. at their alternate aerodromes C.The aircraft dispatcher. By regulation. 5000 m above at other time A X 32.from east to west B. pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A. C.20MHz. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z.. C X . at their destinations B. B.from north to south A X 34. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.3016KHz. C.8897KHz.122. and 3000 m at other time B. 2 hours 15 minutes. Some places have CBs.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C X 46.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.95 MHZ.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.10 to 117.10 to 111. C. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.95 MHZ C. upon reaching your destination.108. you cannot accept any undue delay.108. B. the base is unknown B X 42.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.8 hours.. excluding briefing and debriefing.10 hours. the base is unknown C. C.Limiting torque. what is the maximum time. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where.2 hours 18 minutes.It moves with the weather system. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. B X 47.. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. C.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. B. B X 39.vomiting .6 hours. C. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds. B.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart. B.. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet.Limiting compressor speed. A X 45. B. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A..38. In a 24-hour consecutive period. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.10 MHZ B. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 44. A.10 to 118. C.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A.2 hours 12 minutes.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. 4-47 and 4-48. C X 41. B. B X 43. C.Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A. [Refer to Figures 4-46. B.108. A X 40. CBs with little or no separation B.. dizziness B. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A.10 times groundspeed in knots. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. B.Intersecting runways C X 49. B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B. B. C. C. relatively calm night. . towering clouds C X 52. C. C. A. C. A hard landing. B X 57. A X !56.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. shallow breathing.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.7 hours..it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 51.Dizziness. The descriptive cloud should be. B.8 hours.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A. Terrestrial radiation on a clear.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A. cumulus congestus B. 8times groundspeed in knots.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A. Landing short of the runway threshold.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C. C. B.5times groundspeed in knots. Increased landing rollout. B.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B. B. C X 50. A X 55.B X 48. In flight.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.6 hours.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A.. C X 54.Rapid.. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. C X 53.1945Z.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A. cumulostratus C.1915Z. 600m and MDA 240m.. select the situation least likely to A. loss of.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A. B. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.Red inscriptions on a white background C.PAPI. other than pilot in command.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. within a microburst.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 64.During the life cycle of a thunderstorm. 90 knots C X 59.Visibility 3. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.C.after a period of intense concentration C.. B.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A.6 calendar months.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C. A pilot flight crewmember.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots.. B.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 67.White inscriptions on a red background B. C X 62.800m and MDA 180m. 80 knots C. B X 60.HIALS.contradictory data or personal conflicts. must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.12 calendar months.000m and MDA 120m.Resolve discrepancies. C X 61.All turbine powered airplanes B.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. C. or diminished. From the following list.. B X 58.. C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 66. C.24 calendar months.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan.Visibility 2. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? . decreased takeoff distance C.during normal operation C X 65.HIALS with PAPI.(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.Visibility 2.1845Z. C. 40 knots B. B X 63.Holding position signs have A. B. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2. airspeed performance B.000m and MDA 120m. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 71.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115.Exhaust gas discharge. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.000 feet B. C.Increasing speed or altitude. dissipating C.500 feet B X 77. B. pilot's activity level.Low-speed and high-speed flight. B. B. and whether the pilot smoking or not.(To be continued，health. C X 72.Decrease in indicated airspeed. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A. C.2.2. B. is A. A X 74. such as flight altitude. It should be reported without ATC request that A.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.The desired manifold pressure.. mature B X 68..1.If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst.000 feet C.. B. C X 70. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 69. [Refer to Figure 4-28.required to have a first-class medical certificate.000 pounds? A.500 feet. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice.A.required to have a second-class medical certificate.High-speed flight only.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.700 feet. cumulus B.Supercharger gear ratio. C.Increase in indicated airspeed. C. The statement is )right B. pilot's A.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration.. What airspeed indication can be expected? A. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. B.800 feet. where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. . in an approved simulator. in the center of strong downdraft burst B.2. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 73. C..not required to have a medical certificate. B. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate. climbing rate.wrong A X 76.Low-speed flight only. B X 75. . A X 84.An area. A X 82. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A.g.Recurrent training.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A. C X 83.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A.Initial training.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A. severe icing.. fuel burn. B737-300). C. Cumulonimbus clouds.Adhere to standard operating procedures. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 79.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. when leaving an assigned holding fix. which is able to support the airplane. which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. A X 81.VFC. B X 78.C. A X . Which rule applies? A. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.9and6 B. C. B X 85. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway. B.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.. Embedded thunderstorms. C X 80.. C.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. or when leaving an assigned holding fix. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. C.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.9 only C.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.VMD. B.VMU. light turbulence C. etC．as far as possible.Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. C. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.6 only A X 86. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. to a suitable airport and land.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. B..rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. B. at least the same width as the runway.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. severe turbulence B. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.Upgrade training. B. nimbostratus. C.. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A.PAPI.HIALS with PAPI. Standing lenticular. B X 88. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A. 8 m/s C. B X 96. A.500 feet. thrust decreases.As air density increases.climbed to the appropriate altitude.increased visual field B. Cirrocumulus..500 feet MSL A X 97.2. B.500 pounds? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.As air density decreases. C.342o. C. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.An increase in breathing rate C.25 days ago.HIALS. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.100 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A. at ZBAA.347o.As air density increases. B.slowed down to the final approach IAS.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. C.7 days ago..received an ATC clearance.1. C. A X 89. B. B. B X 90. C.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.87. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28. . A X 95. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A. 17 m/s B. 6 m/s A X 92. B.. thrust increases. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. C.2. thrust increases.Above 12.. C. the max predicting wind speed is___.15 days ago..Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. .Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 94..In terminal radar service areas C. B.352o.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. B X 91.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.(according to figure 2).750 feet. C X 93.. 600 pounds.WIND COMPONENT: 60HW. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. B. A X 3.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. C X -------------------------------------------------- 1.221 knots and 1. C.050 feet. Original dispatch release.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. [Refer to Figure 4-34.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. B X 5. C. equipment. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. B.83 EPR.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A. (Refer to Figure 6-3.050 feet. Certificate holder's manual.500 feet MSL . A X 100.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. Snow and rain C.. C. B.A X 98. The statement is)right B.ZUUU C. C. B.138 knots and 3.000. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A. B X 7.050 feet. to achieve a safe and A.69 EPR. (efficient flight operation.093 feet. C.000.153 knots and 2.12.097 feet..ENGINES OPERATING: 2.13.850 pounds.80. Strong wind with shower B..217 knots and 1. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. procedures and people.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.DISTANCE (NM): 370. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.85.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. C X 6.In terminal radar service areas C.77. [Refer to Figure 4-41.12. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 4.81 EPR.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87.ZSSS B. B.700 pounds.Above 12.123 feet.wrong A X 2.123 knots and 3.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources. B..e.ALTITUDE: 30.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.ZWWW C X 99.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? .5.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. C.210 knots and 1.. i. C. 135°or SE B X 17. B. B. B. C X 15.136.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. i. C.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A. C.Loud. C X 16.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right.500 feet short of the end of a 4. A X 9.. equipment. procedures and people. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. . to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. B X 11. 315°or NW C.Hourly. or vice versa. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Northwest wing can be presented as .CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. or vice versa. B.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A. upon reaching your destination.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.30 minutes a time. C.cornea C.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C. B.A and B C X 12. Pilot in command. Person who heard the emergency.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. 200°or NW B. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A. C. you cannot accept any undue delay.One hour and a half a time.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.iris A X 10.119.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight.000 pounds.139.A X 8. A.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 14. B. which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources.000 pounds.．Effective CRM has some characteristics. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A. Person who found the emergency.. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. A. [Refer to Figure 4-25.e. A.retina B..For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system... C X 13.000 pounds. C.75. C.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month. C X 21. spring and summer.．What cause hypoxia? A. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C. B. winter and autumn.Visual Flight Regulation.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. A.Approach Control Regulation. . C. C.is the same as an ATC clearance.3 percent.5 percent.Intermittent "bang. summer and autumn. C X 18. B X 24. B.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. [Refer to Figure 4-32." as backfires and flow reversals take place. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. B X 20.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25. An ATC "instruction" A.. C. give the wing a lower camber B. B. 150 knots C X 26.77. 200 knots B. B X 23. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 170 knots C.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C X 22.CG is at the most forward allowable position. Radiation fog usually appears in . Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A. C.B. C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C X 25. increase wing sweep..Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere..79...Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.4 percent. B.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80. C. B. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine..Instrument Control Regulation.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A.add slats C X 19.000.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. B.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. C. C. The statement is A.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case. B.．During the flight.Lift subtracted from the total weight. landing. C. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. B.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B. descent.right . B X 31. gear and flaps up. Heavy. C. and all other operations conducted below 3. C X 32.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. including cruise flight. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A. B. taxi. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A.000 meters MSL.What is load factor? A. slow. landing. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. C. approach. darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. such as when landing over water. . gear and flaps down.alternate airport.000 meters.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio..Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A. Heavy. Heavy. B. fast. A X 30.Lift divided by the total weight. B X 28. which may lead descends too low on approach. C.provisional airport.destination airport. excluding cruise flight...B X 27.transonic mach number C. C X 29. B. and taxi operations. taxi. C X 34. which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. . the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. gear and flaps down. B.supersonic mach number B. landing. C.Increase the camber of the wing. B X 33. C. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. takeoff. slow.Lift multiplied by the total weight.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case. B. irrespective of altitudes MSL.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. and all other operations conducted below 3.critical mach number C X 35. A X 36.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. takeoff.．An absence of visible ground feature. which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A.(To be continued，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case. Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 41. B X 40. C. and the weather then is ____. Using the taxonomy.. B. B.4-53. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. The adverse effects of ice. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. a speed not less than 230 knots. not less than 170 knots. a speed not less than 210 knots. it can be condensed into the following six elements. . 4-50.．Heavy coffee or tea.78 Mach? A. except 20 flying miles from threshold. C.B..May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.1 hours 05 minutes. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3. however.. and 4-54. B. beginning of rain at the surface B. The statement is)right B. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity.(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time. a speed not less than 150 knots.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. An increased stall speed. A X 43.. Frontal passage.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents.] What is the ETE at . B.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. C. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. except 20 miles from threshold.DECIDE C. C.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.000 meters? A. A decreased stall speed.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.1 hours 02 minutes.. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft. snow. produce anxiety and A.．The decision-making process is quite complex. Wind shear.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. not less than 150 knots.. C X 39. [Refer to Figures 4-49. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z. continuous updraft C X 44.1 hours 08 minutes.4-52. not less than 200 knots.4-51.DICIDE B.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. Piston and turboprop aircraft. C X 42. frequent lightning C.wrong A X 46. increased thrust. B.wrong A X 37. Not less than 250 knots B X 45. A.DECIED B X 38. Light and variable. Turbojet aircraft. C. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. B X 52. C.110 knots.80 Mach? A. C.. 4-50. . C X 50.Increased headwind component. B. Southwest wind at 35 KT. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.000feet. visibility 4000 m B X 47. and whether the pilot smoking or not.They are both the same 31.True altitude is lower than 31.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors.1 hours 02 minutes. B. wind speed and temperatures is A... Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. C.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310. B.. visibility 4 km C. climbing rate.. such as flight altitude. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual.. B X 51. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. Light fog. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. C. B X 56.Lower-than-standard air density.VS1.000feet. C X 53. Certificate holder's manual. Southwest wind at 14 KT. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. heavy rain. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec. pilot's activity level. and 4-54.VS.wrong A X 54. pilot's A.] What is the ETE at . C X 55. visibility 4 km.96 knots. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. B.(To be continued，health. temperatures is -52℃ B. Northeast wind at 35 KT. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A. flying in any clouds. what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. B. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec. [Refer to Figures 4-49. The statement is )right B. C. (According to figure 6) At point B. light rain shower. temperatures is 52℃ C.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. Flying in rain.4-51.90 knots.A. B. temperatures is -52℃ C X 49.4-53.VSO. the wind direction. B X 48.. B. C. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.4-52. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A. B. C. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.055 C.B. 210 knots B.Heading.1 hours 04 minutes. B. and ability to climb 50 ft/min. B X 64.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. A X 66.285 B. B.Heading.What performance should a pilot of a light. A X 63. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3.15 C.800 feet. C. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A. C X 59.Heading and altitude.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. The wind speed increases. temperature rises B. what should the pilot do? A.any flight crewmember. reduce speed to the assigned speed.. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. 200 knots C. twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A. C. B.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.4 B.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.flight engineer or navigator. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes. B X .235 B X 62.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only.1 hours 07 minutes.19.any required pilot crewmember.23..000 meters? A. C X 57.. 170 knots B X 65. C. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A. C.17 C X 61.20. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. B. altitude. C. B.000 feet. C. temperature reduced B X 58.. [Refer to Figure 4-39. temperature reduced C. The wind speed increases.400 feet. C X 60. B.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.. [Refer to Figure 4-34. back to the departure airport. B..What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. what height above the airport could it descend to? A.1.WIND COMPONENT: 20HW. C.90 hours . B. B. C.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.1.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 70.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A. from left crosswind to right crosswind.950 pounds. C.000.30 minutes.. C X 75.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.1.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. for no more than A.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? .ALTITUDE: 35. B. A X 74. B X 76. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere. C.762 feet.870 feet.244 feet.67. the wind direction usually changes. from headwind to tailwind. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.625 pounds. C. B X 73.29 minutes. B.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.80hours B. C. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.000. A. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.An increase in dynamic stability. C X 68.496 feet. B. B.WEIGHT (*1000): 100.755 feet.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. [Refer to Figure 4-41. B.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84. B.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.460 pounds. C.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.45 minutes.900 feet. A X 69.1. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.. in any calendar month. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots. A X 72. B X 71. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.2. C. C.DISTANCE (NM): 120. B X 86. plus 10 percent.Intersecting runways C X 84.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 78. 6 calendar months..Request a clarification from the ATC.Read the clearance back entirely.Rotation speed. B X 80.Brakes and spoilers at 125. B.000 pounds gross weight. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.000 pounds gross weight.Critical engine failure speed. C. C.Brakes and reversers at 115. B. downward and clockwise B. C. for a given runway? A. B. A X 82. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption..an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. spoilers. B.S.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A. 24 calendar months. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25.. A.000 pounds gross weight.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.. The fuel required to fly to the alternate.．The blind spot is A. outward. the air cyclone circumfluence is A. B. upward and counterclockwise C X . B. C. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. and reversers at 130. inward. A X 81.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C. upward and clockwise C.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. A X 79. C X 85.. C.Accelerate-stop distance. outward.100hours B X 77. 12 calendar months.Negative longitudinal static stability B.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.N. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B. In northern sphere.C.Do not accept the clearance. C X 83. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.Brakes.G. Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It means 122. an airplane may be dispatched only A. A X 91. the wind on the course is _____. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.right crosswind B. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces.In day VFR conditions C X .000 feet or less to another aircraft.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. 1. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces..When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters.All recorded information may be erased.. B..20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B. In northern hemisphere. A. C.To protect military activities only.20 is very important.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.. left crosswind C X 89. C X 95.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.To protect science tests only. A X 96.It moves with the weather system.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.tailwind C. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. B X 93. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 94. B. C.20? A.. B X 90. B X 88. B. B.87. C X 92. C.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C.In VFR conditions C. C.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. C. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle. 50 feet or less to another aircraft.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A. B.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.It means frequency 122. B.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts.All recorded information may be erased. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. C. . B. if still IMC? A..Maximum endurance.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL. A. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B.Two B X 100.FL 6.000 feet. C X --------------------------------------------- 1. C. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.2 PEK. B.FL 6.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.300m. A X 2.3. B.D0.1.000 pounds gross weight? A. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. B X 98.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. [Refer to Figure 4-34. [Refer to Figure 4-25.Three C.97.Four B.D0.2.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.980 pounds.625 pounds. A X 4.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A. C X 3. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. C. C.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. C. B. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.. B....000m.300 feet.3. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C.Best angle of climb.FL 600m.500 feet. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X . (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3).Above PEK VOR.000. B X 5. B. C X 99.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. continue taxiing in the landing direction. C.3 PEK.Maximum range and distance glide. C.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.240 pounds. 30days A X 9. A X 11. C.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.500 feet.Higher than at low temperature.800m. procedures and people.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. wind.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.Porpoise. C.2. B. to achieve a safe and A. A X 13. C.Dutch roll C X 12.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Same direction.2. The statement is)right B. B. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.150 feet.Wingover.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. A X 7. B.750 feet.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources.Lower than at low temperature. and airport elevation? A.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Zero B X 10.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers.(To be continued，efficient flight operation.Opposite direction.000 pounds gross weight? A. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B X 15.90days C.3.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.Two B.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.. B. B.6. C. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? . B X 16. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation..60days B.-Increase the camber of the wing.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A. C. C.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A. B.An alternate airport is required. equipment..The same as at low temperature.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.e.Remains fixed for all positions A X 8.. i.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B.wrong A X 14.One C. B X 25. C. C.A. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. C. B X 21.500 feet MSL A X 23. C.600m and DH 120m.RVR 550m and DH 60m.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. A X 19. warm front. An ATC "instruction" A.RVR 1. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A. no.In terminal radar service areas C.RVR 800m and DH 60m. Stratocumulus B X 18.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.762 feet. C. B. A X 20. B. B. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC... B. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate. Cumulonimbus C.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is. stationary front. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A.CG is at the most forward allowable position. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. A. cold front.870 feet.755 feet. what height above the airport could it descend to? A. no.Stop way.required to have a first-class medical certificate.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A. have . B. B X 24. B X 26. and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator. C.is the same as an ATC clearance.Clearway. B.. Altocumulus B. yes. B X 17.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. used to provide destination or information. C X 22.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m.is not required to have a medical certificate.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.Airport information signs..Above 12. B. the applicant is A. C. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A..Obstruction clearance plane. B.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. A X 31.9 NM point is indicated? A.．In the dark.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.Look only at far away. dim lights.any required pilot crewmember.Coriolis illusion. B X 32.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis.As altitude increases. C. C X 33. B X 34.As altitude decreases. thrust decreases. B. C. C.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 27.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. B. thrust decreases.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.autokinesis.A.the pilot in command only. C. B.somatogravic illusion. B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B. This is known as )autokinesis. A X 35. a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time..A and B C X 29. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. B. C.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. A X 30.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope.the leans. B X 28.ground lighting illusion. thrust increases.White inscriptions on a black background C. This illusion is known as A. B.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions.any flight crewmember.Intersecting runways C X .An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B. B.. C. an abrupt head movement A. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.As altitude increases.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A. . C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. Strong wind. pilot route certification. B. C X 40.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin.. B X 41. B. Which route should be flown in the absence A.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight. darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A. embedded thunderstorms with hail C.RVR 300m. Fog. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. B. isolated cumulonimbus C X 39. An off-airway route to the point of departure.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines. maintenance. . C. etC． C. dispatch.. B.RVR 250m. B X 42. airworthiness release.RVR 400m. The route filed in the flight plan. A X 38. C.. ATC. flight release.12 months. occasional light chop. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A. C X 37. Intermittent light turbulence.3 months. B X 43. C. Severe mountain wave. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.(To be continued，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case. B.．An absence of visible ground feature.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. and flight plan? A. C X 44. Moderate chop. B.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. which may lead descends too low on approach. which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. C. B.1 month. . While in IFR conditions. C.. C.. such as when landing over water.36.A and B C X .International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. volcanic ash B. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude.ATMB NOTAMs office. [Refer to Figure 4-27.108. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.Use of three reversers at 131.Use of three reversers at 133..364 feet/minute.108.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.10 to 118.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.221 knots and 1.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. C. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A. C X 46. C. C.137 knots. C.1.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115. B X 53.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C. C. C X 47.Green yellow and white beacon light B.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A..FL128.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.000 pounds gross weight. B. C. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125.000 pounds gross weight.000.95 MHZ. B..2% to FL148? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.10 to 117. B X 50. [Refer to Figures 4-22.800 feet. when exit the runway. C X 48.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.95 MHZ C. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 55...400 feet/minute.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A.83 EPR.WEIGHT (*1000): 100.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.124 knots.45.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D.10 MHZ B.2. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway.000 pounds gross weight.700 feet.95 EPR. .500 feet. 4-23 and 4-24.1. C X 51. C.130 knots. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.FL138. B. B. B. B X 49.FL158.10 to 111.. C.108. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o.223 knots and 2. [Refer to Figure 4-34. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B X 52.01 EPR.000 pounds? A..1. B. C X 54.320 feet/minute.217 knots and 1.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. [Refer to Figure 4-28. red. A X 62. C.5.Airborne radar C. each a different color.732 pounds.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. A X 61.023 pounds.. on a multiengine aircraft B. The adverse effects of ice.B. A X 56. green. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A.000. C. and amber. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.470 feet. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. C. B. B.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.DME C X 63. C..One light projector with three colors. C.．During the flight.. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. C.Three glide slopes. B. increased thrust.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather. red. flying in any clouds.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. and amber. snow. [Refer to Figure 4-34.1. A decreased stall speed.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A. and irregularities of facilities and services? A.Air route traffic control center. C. An increased stall speed. Flying in rain. C.The aircraft dispatcher.1.. B. A X 57.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. a good leader should not A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL.440 pounds.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30.Director of operations. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A.372 feet. B.One engine.000 feet.500 feet.4.525 feet. By regulation. B. [Refer to Figure 4-26. and amber. C X .involve the team in most decision making processes. C X 58. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace. green. C. A X 60. B. green. A X 64.300 feet. B X 59.4..000 pounds gross weight? A.Three light bar.4. Frost ice. B.ZWWW C X 67. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. In northern sphere. B. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.ZSSS B. B X 74.. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? A. the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is.White inscriptions on a red background B. A. 250 knots C. B.. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.. C. reduce airspeed. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. reduce angle of attack.. which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. C. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. upward and clockwise C.ZUUU C.Reduce fuel flow. lower angle of attack. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. unable to climb 500 ft/min. C. C X 71.Holding position signs have A.During the life cycle of a thunderstorm. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. the air cyclone circumfluence is A. vacating an altitude.Advance throttle. Vacating an altitude. outward. cumulus .shear line A X 66. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared..Red inscriptions on a white background C.65.front B. downward and clockwise B. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. you cannot accept any undue delay. C X 68. upon reaching your destination. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.Reduce throttle. Position reports. and reduce airspeed.low pressure center C. A. vacating an altitude. upward and counterclockwise C X 70. unable to climb 500 ft/min. On the weather chart of ground. and increase airspeed. Rime ice. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports. C. B. A X 69. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. unable to climb 500 ft/min.000 meters. inward.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 72.. and increase angle of attack.. 330 knots A X 73. outward. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes... clear ice. 150 knots B. The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is .the proprioceptive system A X 84.7 hours.the inner C. vertical windshear C X 80.24 hours. turbulence C. PIREPS.SPECIS. head windshear B. dissipating C. B. and adverse conditions.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A. C X 83.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. C.SIGMETS.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. A X 78.8 hours.. C. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A. AWW's.B.Request a new ATC clearance C. and AIRMETS. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds. NOTAM'S.the eyes B. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.alternate airport.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. C. PIREP'S and AIRMETS.destination airport. clear air turbulence C. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . B.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. B X 77. freezing rain B.6 hours. A. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. C. as ATS has radar contact B.8 hours.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.. it will encounter___. mature B X 75..12 hours.METARS. C X 79. A. B. B.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. A X 82.. after the conflict is resolved C X 81.Convective SIGMETS.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space.provisional airport.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory . SIGMETS. embedded thunderstorms C X 76. C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.780 feet per minute. B. B. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.000m and MDA 120m. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes. temperature reduced B X 91.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. gear and flaps down. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. temperature rises B.Visibility 2. fast.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.. gear and flaps up.30 hours A X 85. gear and flaps down. C.800m and MDA 180m.760 feet per minute. B X 94. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A.Visibility 2.4 B. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A..35 hours B.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Heavy. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A. B X 90.12 C. C X 92. B.HUAILAI. temperature reduced C. C.. C X 93. Heavy.Visibility 3.8hours B X 86.What is the purpose of a control tab? A. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.12hours B. . The wind speed increases.10hours C.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. B.11 C X 89.D38 to HUAIROU. Heavy.800 feet per minute. slow..600m and MDA 240m. The wind speed increases..32 hours C.. C. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A. B. C.The point cleared by ATC. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2. what was the approximate rate of descent? A. A X 88.Apply full main wheel braking only.A.000m and MDA 120m. B. slow. A X 87. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters.12 hours A X 96.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.10 hours C.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A. In northern hemisphere. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 99.200 feet. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 2.4. B. the wind on the course is _____. B X 100.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.tailwind C. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C.4. C X 95.Area where the sea and the land meet C..Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.Area with strong cold advection B.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. [Refer to Figure 4-25. A.right crosswind B.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. left crosswind C X 3..500 feet.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C. B.Over domestic or open sea.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7..All turbine powered airplanes B.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C. C.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 97.8 hours B.Over open sea.000 pounds gross weight? A. B.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 98.750 feet. C. C X ---------------------------------------------- 1.Over domestic only.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A.. C.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.4. A X .B.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B. Developing lift.13 minutes. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A.15 minutes. .True airspeed B X 10.0MHZ C. By convective mixing in cool night air. knowledge.1MHz B. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.. [Refer to Figure 4-37. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A. B. C. B X 8. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144. Operating at high airspeeds. B. B. C. B X 7.Angle of bank C.500 lb.122.Rate of turn B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.may ultimately decide the team's actions. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.Below FL180.A severe moment or "tuck under" C. B X 13.. and preferences. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. Using high power settings..123. By wind or the movement of air. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.16 minutes.4.6MHz B X 6. B. C. but seldom in other situations B. B. A X 12. C. B X 9. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A. back to the departure airport.500 lb A.Zero fuel weight: 125..tends to make final decisions in an emergency. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.．An authoritative leader A. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.122. B. A X 5. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. C. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A.500 pounds? Initial weight: 180..-Severe porpoising B X 11. B. B X 16. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A. clockwise inbound wind B. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. unable to climb 500 ft/min. the wind of low pressure area is .. B. B X 22. Vacating an altitude..454 pounds.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 15. B. C. A X 18. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. C.224 pounds. B X 21.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.counter clockwise outbound wind . and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.Only a pilot. Position reports.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.A runway Boundary Sign C. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. unable to climb 500 ft/min. B. [Refer to Figures 4-46.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.2.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions... A X 17. flight engineer. B. Position reports.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.. C X 19.3 A X 20. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A. or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.A X 14. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.1. 4-47 and 4-48. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. C.987 pounds.1 B. vacating an altitude. C. A.1. vacating an altitude. unable to climb 500 ft/min. B.2 C. C. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus.5 percent. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.79. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A..500 feet MSL A X 30. [Refer to Figure 4-28.Decrease in indicated airspeed. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. B. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.500 feet.750 feet. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration.6 hours. C.weather reports and forecasts. C.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 27. B X 26. B..minimum fuel supply. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B. B.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.. reduce speed to the assigned speed. C. B.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm.Increase in indicated airspeed.3 percent. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.] What is the ETE from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? . B. 4-47 and 4-48. C X 28. C. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80.2.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 23. C. B X 25.75. [Refer to Figure 4-32.In terminal radar service areas C. C X 31.100 feet.. what should the pilot do? A. A X 24. C. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.500 pounds? A..2.Above 12.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25. moist air. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.names of all crewmembers.77. both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. C X 32.1. B.000. [Refer to Figures 4-46. B. C.7 hours.4 percent. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.C.8 hours. B X 29. C.Brakes.3000m.Airport flight information office. B. A X 39.Area flight information center. During a supplemental air carrier flight.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making.1.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 38.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree .1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.A. B. and reversers at 130. C X 36. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.3.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. or diminished. B. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? .2Gs.000 meters.000 pounds gross weight. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.2 hours 12 minutes.2 hours 15 minutes.. It refer to A.10000 feet C. B.1Gs. spoilers.000 pounds gross weight. B X 42.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.600m..000 pounds gross weight.Brakes and reversers at 115. C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 37. B.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach.4Gs C X 41.5000 feet B.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. the load factor is A. by the applicant. loss of. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B. C. C.2. airspeed performance B. C X 34. B X 35..ATMB NOTAMs office.2 hours 18 minutes. if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 33. decreased takeoff distance C.800m.8000 feet A X 40. B.certificate holder's operations specifications.. This effect begins at about A.Brakes and spoilers at 125.. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A. C.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. A X 49.73. trip number. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. [Refer to Figure 4-41.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi. or attached to.25 hours A X 46. B. B X 45.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77.4. A X 50. [Refer to Figure 4-26.17 hours B.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.DISTANCE (NM): 70.Passenger manifest. on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot). exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller.000.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.400 pounds.000 pounds.4.trip number and weight and balance data.Type of operation (e. B. C. C.300 feet. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 47.500 feet. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A. and cargo weight. B. Cumulonimbus C. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B..180 pounds... B.24 hours C. which weather system we would encounter A. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. C. B.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. C.. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. Altocumulus B.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 43. A worm front and mountain waves B. B.An air carrier may schedule a pilot..Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.g.000 feet. A X 44.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW. C X .4.. C.Pilot in command.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7.74.000 pounds gross weight? A. A X 51.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. A cold front and moderate icing C. VFR).Only one INDS is required to be operative. Stratocumulus B X 48. C. Which information must be contained in. company organization name. IFR.A. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.74. which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. 12. (Refer to Figure 6-3.. to proceed direct to the regular airport. C.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. following a failure of the critical engine at VEF. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. flight release. due to winds. B X 58.Read the clearance back entirely. B. C.95 knots. C.V1.13. or supplies).097 feet. and flight plan? A.VLOF. C X 55. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around. B X 60. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.3 months. B. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.Do not accept the clearance. . A X 53.having the aircraft catered (foods.. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.1 month. is indicated by symbol A.12.093 feet.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable.90 knots.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately..100 knots. C. beverages. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation.52. airworthiness release. The minimum speed during takeoff.123 feet. C. A. pilot route certification. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. B. B. C X .143o. B.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. C X 56. B. C X 57. C. B. how much is the intercept heading? A..233o.12 C. the pilot should A. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance.12 months.V2min .11 C X 54.4 B. B.53o. C. B X 59. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. snow. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. Which rule applies? A. C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 62.. B X 66. C. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A. .Some direction.000m. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A.FL 6. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. upward. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. An increased stall speed.300m. if one of the two VOR receivers fails. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.. B. B.Holding position signs have A.Compass locator C X 70. increased thrust. to a suitable airport and land. B.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.. by means of VOR NAVIDS.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. and around the wingtip. A decreased stall speed. C X 71.FL 600m. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. C.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 64. and around the wingtip.Remains fixed for all positions.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Red inscriptions on a white background C.Surveillance radar C.61. C X 68. Rain and fog C. Outward. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. C.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C. B X 65.Opposite direction.A higher angle of attack. Advise ATC immediately. B.VOR/DME FIX B..White inscriptions on a red background B. B.FL 6.While flying IFR in controlled airspace.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C X 69. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B. B.A lower angle of attack.The same angle of attack. B X 63. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A. Inward.. The adverse effects of ice. upward.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. C. C X 67. Direct only C. B X 77. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence. A X 73. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. 118 NAM. A plane.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. B.24 minutes. B. receive this ATC clearance: ". The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.23 minutes. C..Teardrop only B... The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.000.Parallel only A X 75.1. B X 74. C X 79.5. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A.732 pounds. C. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.25 minutes. B. or use of.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30.. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. 125 NAM..International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. C X 72.ATMB NOTAMs office.outward and forward B X 78. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.A and B C X 76. or use of. B.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. B.. C. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.1. [Refer to Figure 4-34. 109 NAM.inward and aft B..We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C. any exit. MH 240°. pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A..What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A. C.B.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.023 pounds.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.440 pounds.. C. . any aisle in the passenger compartment.".inward and forward C. . Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Alternate red and white lights from 3. en route. navigators..000 meters.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.Alternate red and white lights from3.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.000 feet to 1. C.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C X 81..Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1. within 10 days after the deviation. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.. and landing. after the flight is completed.Some passengers may be carried. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure. and landing.All recorded information may be erased. then red lights to the end C. takeoff. flight engineers and batmen.C. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A. B. B. B. C.only pilots B. then alternate red and white lights to the end B. A X 84.pilots. B. C.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. B.000 feet to the end of the runway B X 82.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. C X 80.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. C X 86. B. takeoff.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.. and approach must be VFR.All recorded information may be erased.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A. climb and descent when below 3.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. after returning home. taxi. B X 83. A X 89. A X 88. B X 85.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. three-engine. C. C. the pilot should submit a written report A. C X 87.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.000 meters.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A. climb and descent when below 3.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. but do not include flight attendants.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.000 feet. .000 feet. Parallel only C X 94. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A. when leaving an assigned holding fix.B. the accuracy of the GPS derived A. C X 90..Teardrop only B. B. B. visibility 4000 m B X 95.DH300'. Position is not affected C.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. B X 97. B.wrong A X 91.DH200'.1.496 feet. and the weather then is ____..VIS1600m.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational.Lower-than-standard air density.900 feet. A plane.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 92.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B. or when leaving an assigned holding fix.(To be continued，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude.. A.Increased headwind component. A.. heavy rain.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C. C. light rain shower. when leaving the final approach fix outbound..". MH 300°. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. C..RVR550m. B...244 feet. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A.VIS800m.. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? .．If the authority gradient is too steep. C. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.DH20'.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec. B.1. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. visibility 4 km. C.Direct only C. visibility 4 km C. Light fog. receive this ATC clearance: ". C X 99. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z. C X 98. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 93. The statement is )right B. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 96. air carrier's chief pilot..600m AGL. which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A.Airspeed. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A..Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Teardrop only B.60days B. pilot in command.Final approach fix. C. mature B X 10. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway 3.Inner marker.Middle compass locator. This phenomenon is referred to as .. B X 9. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A.. certificate holder.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas 2. C. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. dowdraft B X 4. It begins to rain on the ground C X ---------------------------------------------- 1...350 feet.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B X C. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B X B. Rain shower and thunderstorm B.762 feet.Direct only C. B X 100. dissipating C.1.plume B. [Refer to Figure 4-27.. A.000 pounds? A. B..C. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. cumulus B. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A. These lines are A.950 feet. A X 8. C. A plane. in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.90days C. C.755 feet. MH 160°. B.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A.Altitude. receive this ATC clearance: ". Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A.. C X 7.. B..The first holding pattern level.870 feet.30days A X 5.Parallel only C X 12.virga C. C X 11. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 13.Angle of attack. B.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134. B. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou.400 feet.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. B. C.. Rain and fog C.Outer compass locator C X 6.A.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action .During the life cycle of a thunderstorm..". for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. 30 minutes at holding speed.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. Commercial . wind. Scattered clouds.Lower than at low temperature. C X 22. C. C..ATP . C. A. visibility 5000m and fog B. C. C. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.An area. B. the wind of low pressure area is .Over domestic or open sea.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A. C X 19.. at cruising speed.400 feet.The same as at low temperature.000 feet to 25.Over open sea.ATP .500 feet.000 feet to the tropopause. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere.DC-9.C. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation.Z.High speed.Higher than at low temperature. B. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. B737-300).centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.g. C.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.25.B-727 and DC-3. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR. A X 23.ATP . A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e..The tropopause to 45.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. B. Minimum specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in which altitude range? A.FL 10..DC9 and DC 3.I.An area beyond the takeoff runway.100 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.B-727 only. C.B-727.Alcohol has an adverse effect. West wind at 4 m/s. at least the same width as the runway.Any speed. B.000 feet B X 27. mist and broken clouds C. B.. B X 17.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 14.Upgrade training.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation. A X 25. A X 24. B. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A. Commercial . C. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A.Over domestic only. A X 26. clockwise inbound wind B.FL 39. especially as altitude increases. DC-3. which is able to support the airplane.000 feet. over the airport. 30 minutes. and DC-9. B X 16. A. 20. may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A. A X B..Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. and airport elevation? A. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 15. twinengine airplane represent? A.counter clockwise outbound wind C. rain and broken clouds B X 18.Recurrent training. B. B.100 feet. .Y B. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. C. A X C.10. C. C.500 feet over the airport.Low speed. at 1. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. East windat 4 m/s. B. B.FL 8. A X 21.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.Initial training. which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance.. at 1.. Pilots have a choice of glide angles B X B..360 feet. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A.Copy of the flight plan. B. C.. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%. C.3. C. FL 180. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. C.050m. an unstable lapse rate.650 meters.VLO/MLO. 39.g. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A. at least the same width as the runway. A hard landing.An area. 31. B. and sufficient water vapor.Passenger manifest. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. FL 250. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation..Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.Read the clearance back entirely. not as wide as the runway. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. and cargo weight. . A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.950m. Which information must be contained in.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A. the minimum safe altitude is A..360 feet.VMO/MMO. the altitude of LOM is 1. B.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. the pilot should A. C.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B X 33. FL 200. or attached to. C.Cargo and passenger distribution information. B X 34. C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong 29. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. sufficient water vapor and front area B.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.Do not accept the clearance.245 feet. C X 40.1. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration.262 feet. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.1. It refer to A. certificate holder's manual. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. key to the flight deck door.28. VFR)..An area.. 41. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2. B X 37. A X B.250m. company organization name. IFR. C X 35.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. B. C X 38. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots. whichever is greater. C. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force C. B. 42.2. B. C. C. It should be reported without ATC request that A X A. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? B X A. whichever is greater. whichever is greater..the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation C X B.3. flashlight in good working order. B.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. an initial lifting force. hypoxia. B. C X 32. Landing short of the runway threshold. Increased landing rollout.1.. B. C X 36. C. trip number. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.VLE B. A X 30.Type of operation (e. Higher than actual. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. B. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A. B.Lower than actual.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources A X C. C.. B. C X 47. the certificate holder must submit a report. B X 50.. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. C.An increase in dynamic stability.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.6 hours.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. receive this ATC clearance: "..rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. airspeed. and preferences.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995.10 hours. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.. C.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C X 46. B. A X 43.. concerning the incident. and an input of wind and variation data.From information by compass.．In flight.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C. 51.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation A X C. to the Administrator within A. LEFT TURNS. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. B.Parallel only B X 56. In a 24-hour consecutive period. B.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future 45.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.A and B C X 49. C. self-contained gyros and accelerometers. when leaving an assigned holding fix.By signals fro.".Does not cause illusions.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. A plane. C.Teardrop only B. B X 57.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. 5 days. B X 44..A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C. C. a participatory leader A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C X 55. C X 48. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A. B. B X 54. or when leaving an assigned holding fix.．What illusion. B.. what is the maximum time.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A. knowledge.may ultimately decide the team's actions.Direct only C. if any. 24 hours.．In a decision-making process .8 hours.involve the team in most decision making processes C. can rain on the windscreen create? A. C. B. MH 300°. a good leader should A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.B. excluding briefing and debriefing. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. 10 days. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A. C X . Using the taxonomy.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.. C.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. Decrease C. C. B.9.the leans. A. A X 70. [Refer to Figure 4-29. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A.outward and forward B X 62. In flight.VIS1600m.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A.400 pounds.Heading. B. the stability A. route weather advisories. Mach. B.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. A X 65.changes in flight plans.Improves B.From.Only a pilot. and receipt of position reports.RPM.VS.876 hours and 298 landings.. gear up.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. C. and ability to climb 50 ft/min.20 to 2. C.] What is the change of total drag for a 140.75 Mach. altitude. towering clouds C X . twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A. A X 71. normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.Coriolis illusion. pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. B X 66. at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A. B.20 Mach..From.inward and forward C. intended route of flight. C X 64. This is known as )autokinesis.Heading. B.MDH100m.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. B X 67.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A. C. C X 60.VIS1600m.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.inward and aft B. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m. to flaps 0o. cumulus congestus B. B X 68.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.10.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. C. cumulostratus C.75 to 1.. Severe weather information . C. A.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o.VSO. B. The PIC has 1.Below.Exhaust gas temperature. or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.MDH120m.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. 63. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight. The descriptive cloud should be. B. B. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.58.VS1.11. B.300 pounds. B X C.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions. and altimeter settings.1.Manifold pressure.dose not change A X 69.Heading and altitude. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation.As the CG is moved forward. while operating under Part 121.In small airplanes.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767.. gear down. an abrupt head movement A. the flight must be able to A.5.VIS2400m. B. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. A X 61.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C. flight engineer. and altitude B. C.500 pounds.What performance should a pilot of a light. B X 59. Airport flight information office. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift C.11.．Effective CRM has some characteristics.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. freezing precipitation. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.11. C X C.. B X C. C. .000 pounds. mountain waves.when the flight arrives. A X 84. flaps 30o.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C. 85. [Refer to Figure 4-30. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. C. and never in climbs or descents B X 73. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. C.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. C.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B. B.CRM is a process using all available information and resources. B. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. Rainfall.Compensate for increase in drag B.72. A X 80. severe clear air turbulence C. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. procedures and people.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component A X 77.e. B.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B. C X 75. mountain waves.17. B.11. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release. C X . B X 74.7NM from PEK. freezing precipitation.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. i. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. The fuel reserve required..Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office... C. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition.ATMB NOTAMs office.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center.200 pounds. which of the following is right description about it? A. mountain waves.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. B.wrong.ATMB NOTAMs office. Thunderstorm. B.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.11.000 pounds. B X 76. 81.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.right B..7SM from PEK. Rain shower. is A. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A. with gear down.7KM from PEK.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. equipment. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.9. severe icing B X 82.Area flight information center. The statement is A. C X 78. moderate clear air turbulence B.A and B C X 79.during the entire flight.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. B. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.800 pounds.. B. Rain shower. 86. Person who heard the emergency. only use "good".454 pounds. C.113. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. is indicated by symbol A. at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o. 100. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty 97. A X 98. C..114.8%.514MHz.500 feet. "fair". B. C. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. A X 91.V2min . C. "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.1. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. operations manager (or director of operations). C. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 96. The minimum speed during takeoff. B.5%. Person who found the emergency. 4-47 and 4-48. B X 90.. B.000 pounds? A.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115. [Refer to Figures 4-46. Pilot in command. [Refer to Figure 4-28. B. A X 99..The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A. B. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. ATC and dispatcher. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.2%. C. Squawk 7600. the pilot in command must report it. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.. C. C X 89. in the interest of safety. the percentage of the proximate braking action. B.224 pounds.6MHz B X --------------------------------------------- 1. what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours C X B.123. following a failure of the critical engine at VEF. as soon as practicable..5.122.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. what is the corresponding rate of descent? A. B.5. C.7MHz. "good".987 pounds. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. nearest CAAC district office. "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.1.VLOF.. C X 2. B X B.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period.4. . B.122. Notify ATC immediately.1MHz B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.6MHz. "fair". to the A. C. B. C.0MHZ C.Below FL180.2. A X 88.V1. B X 95.. 2. Certificate holder's manual.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. C. C. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. C X 5.Holding position signs have A. B X 3. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. the temperature of the air will .Red inscriptions on a white background C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 7. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. B. A. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Original dispatch release. B. In average. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.800 feet.4 B. B. C X 4. C. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. C. for every 1... C X 11.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.700 feet. C. A X 9.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 8. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.B. C. B. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A. B. Rain and fog C. descend 4℃ A X 10. the airplane displays .Lift subtracted from the total weight.What is load factor? A. It should be reported without ATC request that A.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.White inscriptions on a red background B. 3000 metres A X 13..12 C.Lift multiplied by the total weight.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute.．What cause hypoxia? A. 900 metres C..Lift divided by the total weight.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released. descend 2℃ B. 300 metres B. B X 6.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.11 C X 12.000 feet increase in the troposphere.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative.descend 3℃ C. Rainfall.. B. hail and rainstorm B X 21.. A X 14.the skeletal muscles.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.the semicircular canals B. supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.．As a general rule. which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A.During the life cycle of a thunderstorm.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A..10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 17.. Rain shower. Rain shower. Thunderstorm. A.-positive longitudinal static stability.Amber C. C X 23. dissipating C.90 hours C. mature B X 19.Area with strong cold advection B.-neutral longitudinal static stability. C. freezing precipitation.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. mountain waves.Red B. moderate clear air turbulence B. freezing precipitation.Area where the sea and the land meet C. cumulus B. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 22. mountain waves.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. for no more than A. mountain waves.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. joints and tendons C.100hours B X 15. which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. windshear at low altitude C. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? .the otolith B X 20.A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Green C X 16. severe clear air turbulence C. C.15000 feet B. visibility and low clouds B.80hours B. severe icing B X 18. in any calendar month. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. A X .One C. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. B.visibility 1. B. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A. C. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.2.500 feet C. B. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation.A.050m. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.000 feet C X 24. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B.3.3.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. C X 32. When proceeding to the alternate airport. the minimum safe altitude is A. A X 27.650 meters. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots. B.2. C X 28.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. the pilot should A. The FAA Administrator only B X 31. C. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. C..3. B. B.2. C. B X 29.Do not accept the clearance.950m.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. outside the United States.Increase the camber of the wing. C.250m. B X 25.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.Two B.An increase in dynamic stability.Read the clearance back entirely.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. which minimums apply? A.600m and ceiling 120m. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2. C.GPS instrument approach operations.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.Zero B X 30.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.000 feet B. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack..What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A. C. must be authorized by A. A X 26. A sovereign country or government unit C.. Fly the most direct route to the destination. C X 35.4-51.15 C.] What is the ETE at . B..Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A.FL 39. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A. .4-52. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. . A X 42. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA.1 hours 02 minutes.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.FL 8. B.78 Mach? A. Ruddervator B.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A.. Upper rudder C. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.4 B.15 to 17 km B X 36.Intermittent "backfire" stall. if clear of clouds. A. A X 38. or to the MEA. and 4-54.500 feet. If not clear of clouds. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. heavy aircraft.1 hours 08 minutes. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. whichever is higher.33. B.1 hours 05 minutes. is most likely to be encountered A. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.3 C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 41.FL 29. Leading-edge flaps C X 40. When cleared for an IFR approach B. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect. continuous flow reversal stall.17 C X 34.. Descend to MEA and. 4-50.Except during an emergency.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb).Steady. When piloting a large.400 feet. C.2 B. 8 to 9 km B. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude.100 feet. C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.4 B X 37..during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. C. B. [Refer to Figures 4-49. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A. C X 39.Transient "backfire" stall.4-53..10 to 12 km C. C. to fly a higher-than -normal approach. (According to figure 2) .PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35. C X 49. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. B. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. Strong wind with shower B. C X 43. if they have a flight engineer certificate.to fly a normal approach. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A. which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZSSS C X 46. C X 50. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. ZUUU B. there is a tendency A.．When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway. In turn. B.C. without VASI assistant.40 seconds B.Either pilot. C.. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight.000. B X 47.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. ZHHH C..TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.500 pounds? A. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 48.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.86. On the weather chart of ground. C.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.front B.. A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach.Wet runway using brakes.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30. the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. spoilers and reversers. C.low pressure center C. B. B.83.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 51. .Normally.shear line A X 45.Any flight crewmember.Dry runway using brakes and reversers.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132. if qualified..] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100..87.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.4 percent.4 percent. B X 52. C. [Refer to Figure 4-32.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 44.3 minutes C.. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.The second in command only. B. Snow and rain C.0 percent. first serve basis. on a firs-come. C. Within the previous 12 calendar months. C.18.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.At least one hour prior to the departure time.don't read small print within one hour of flying. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow).At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.. In a 24-hour consecutive period. C X 56. B. B. B. B X 58.WING ANTI-ICE: ON.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.．Heavy coffee or tea. The statement is)right B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. at the same time.6 hours. B. produce anxiety and A. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A. C.. A X 59. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time. A X 57.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C..wear good quality sunglasses during the day.8 hours.600 feet. C. C. [Refer to Figure 4-39. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 55.wrong A X 54. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. which would help to enhance night vision? A.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.trust you personal opinion. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. .19.avoid using contact lenses B X 60. what is the maximum time. C. excluding briefing and debriefing. B. B.B X 53..Within the previous 6 months.10 hours. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON. B. A X 61. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity. C.400 feet.700 feet.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.16. 1..500 pounds? A.As altitude decreases. C.".. C.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. B.ASR and PAR. thrust decreases. B. B. under normal conditions.Transonic index. C. B X 66.One hour and a half a time.C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.. B.2.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Initial buffet speed. B. thrust increases. [Refer to Figure 4-28. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.Parallel only C X 68.Within the previous 6 months.30 minutes a time.. B. The first E is A..G.As altitude increases. B X 70. six ILS approaches.15 days ago.Any FSS C. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A. C. B X 71.Appropriate dispatch office C X 67. For scheduled airline. B X 63.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. C. PAR. LEFT TURNS.As altitude increases. B. A plane. A X 65.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. C X 62.Evaluate the effect of the action .S.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. it can be condensed into six elements. C.ARINC B.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107. C.350 feet.7 days ago.750 feet..000 feet.Hourly. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.Critical Mach number.Compass locator. A X 69. using the acronym DECIDE. MH 160°.. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.Direct only C. receive this ATC clearance: "..2.25 days ago. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A. and ASR. thrust decreases.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Teardrop only B. however.R.. B X 64. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. enter TMA C.leveling off. FL 250. an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A.8897MHz. A X 81.C. 150 metres C X 80. B. 500 metres C. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt. A.20MHz. C X 77. FL 180.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A. A X 73. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A. A.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C. FL 200. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. 50 metres B.pitching down. B. the commencement of final approach B. C.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.122.Five C.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 78. A X 79.3 A X 74.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 72. B. C.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle. C. what is the VHF communication frequency? A. the commencement of initial approach A X 75.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. B.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X ...Six B.1 B. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere.Two B X 76.pitching up..Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.3016MHz. hypoxia.2 C. Where provided. C. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration. what airspeed indication can be expected? A. C. B. Just prior to takeoff.139 knots. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. C. and designated pilot in command are A. B..．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view.RVR 1. [Refer to Figure 4-30.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110. B.. good visibility C.000 feet C.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. flight attendant. A X 89. shower and high wind B. B.thunderstorm. B. and he can realize that the current weather may be A.M0900. A X 87. C.supplemental and commercial. C X 86.Within the previous 6 months. From 08Z to 22Z. A X 90. B. what is the valid period of time.clear. A.D38 to HUAIROU.S9000.M9000. high wind.HUAILAI. B. or include on. C.82.RVR 700 feet.000 meters. C.136 knots. light rain. B.132 knots. ..(To be continued，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters.supplemental and domestic. A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z.200 feet.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.flag and commercial. C X 84.Within the previous 12 calendar months. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A..Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.five meters.000 pounds? A.Within the previous 6 months. six ILS approaches. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C. C X 83. C. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.The point cleared by ATC. From 14Z to 22Z B X 88. what recent instrument approach experience is required? A. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.infinity. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.. B. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A. poor visibility A X 91. A X 85. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization.stratonimbus. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. The published Available Landing Distance (ALD). The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China . B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 94. C X 95.. C X . This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.58. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. [Refer to Figure 4-45. due to winds.Maintain speed. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . B.7 minutes.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. C. beverages.Increase speed.59. A. or supplies).Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable...54.. upon reaching your destination.nimbostratus B. B. B. to proceed direct to the regular airport. C. A X 99. A.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. whichever is less. after reaching the most distant alternate airport. C. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO). published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane. A X 98.1 minutes. C.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. C.altostratus. B.having the aircraft catered (foods. should be A. B.The landing performance of the aircraft.Decrease speed. C X 97. C.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. you cannot accept any undue delay. A. and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B X 93. plus the forecast winds. B X 96. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. the pilot should have readily available: A. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. B X 92.9 minutes. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C.cumulonimbus C. landing performance of the aircraft. B.C. 755 feet. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots..Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B X 7. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. including military what has a crash an rescue unit. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26. and approach must be VFR. B X 6. Temperature inversion.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. en route. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time. A X 3. C. C. B X 5.Sudden decrease in load factor.. B. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. what height above the airport could it descend to? A.The existing and forecast weather for departure. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA. which operational requirement must be observed? A. spoilers and reversers. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.Wet runway using brakes. A X 8. B.. B. B. C.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. A X 2. C X -------------------------------------------- 1.An abrupt change in relative wind. . C.500 pounds? A.762 feet. C. Wind stronger than 15 konts. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. plus or minus 3minutes.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. B. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine..A decrease in angle of attack. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.-Increase the camber of the wing..] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132. B. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Land at the nearest airport. C. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. When advection fog has developed. B X 4.100. whichever is later. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A..What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A. what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. C.870 feet. B. Surface radiation. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. 170 knots C. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.ZUUU C.210 knots and 1. when exit the runway. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. B..Two A X 13. C. C.ALTITUDE: 30. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.83 EPR. West wind at 4 m/s..000. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. first serve basis. visibility 5000m and fog B.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. B X 17.. Scattered clouds.Four C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Five B. mist and broken clouds .69 EPR.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. C. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? .Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. A. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A.C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. B X 9. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A.81 EPR. B. B. which of the following applies? A. B. B X 11. B. both a and b C X 14. B X 12. C.ZSSS B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A. B.ZWWW C X 16.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A. C. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A... Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. 200 knots B.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. C X 15. C X 10.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. on a first-come. 150 knots C X 18. during emergency C.217 knots and 1..5..What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.221 knots and 1. 250 knots B.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.000 pounds gross weight. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. C X 26. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. Which rule applies? A. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. C X 23. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3..C. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. B.Use of three reversers at 131. C.International Notices To Airmen A X .900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125.. 210 knots C. must land at the nearest suitable airport. the pilot in command A.000 pounds gross weight. C X 24.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. C. C. B. 200 knots B X 27. C. at which a safe landing can be made.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C X 20. C X 25.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. in point of time.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.3Gs. C X 22.000 meters? A. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. East windat 4 m/s. C.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5. to a suitable airport and land.Airport flight information office. C. B. B. by means of VOR NAVIDS.Use of three reversers at 133. rain and broken clouds B X 19.2015Z.. C.1945Z.Area flight information center.0045Z.International Aeronautical Information Manual C. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane. and experiences a delay. B.9Gs B X 21.．What cause hypoxia? A.000 pounds gross weight. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A. [Refer to Figure 4-27. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. B.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.2Gs. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z.CCAFC. 40 seconds B. These lines are A.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. C. B. C. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A. left crosswind C X 30. [Refer to Figure 4-43. B.000. Severe mountain wave.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 32. C.000 pounds. A. C. Strong wind.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. key to the flight deck door. the wind on the course is _____. embedded thunderstorms with hail C.90 knots.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.Limiting torque. B. B. A X 34. isolated cumulonimbus C X 33.any flight crewmember..600 pounds.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.000 pounds.28.Limiting exhaust gas temperature.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters. [Refer to Figure 4-27.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.000 pounds? ..3 minutes C. volcanic ash B..Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 36. C. B X 35. Fog. C X 31.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway.any required pilot crewmember. A X 38.32.right crosswind B. B.. In northern hemisphere.28. B.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag.Limiting compressor speed. flashlight in good working order.110 knots. certificate holder's manual.96 knots.tailwind C. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. B X 29.. C.the pilot in command only. C X 37.34..000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134. A X 39. C.DC-9 and DC 3.000 feet increase in the troposphere.000 feet.. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.400 feet.B-727 only. Poor visibility.350 feet. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. the temperature of the air will .A. A X 40. C. B X 41. . 4℃ per 1. C X 46. Convection currents at the surface. descend 2℃ B.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. C.RVR 400m. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.950 feet.All recorded information may be erased.descend 3℃ C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. Commercial . Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.All recorded information may be erased. B.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 47.DC-9. B.ATP . C.. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. B X 43.RVR 300m. for every 1. B. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. Cold temperatures.1. Headwind or tailwind decrease B.．Hypoxia may be caused by A. A X 44. B.RVR 250m. C. C X 48.ATP . B. C X 42..Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C. C.000 feet. In average.000 feet. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream..ATP .B-727. B. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines. B. descend 4℃ A X 45. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A.B-727 and DC-3. 2℃ per 1. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A..breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C. DC-3.. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. and DC-9. B. 3℃ per 1. C. A. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. Commercial . A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.fly with a head cold B. Nimbostratus. B. This situation could be described as A.Do not accept the clearance.PIC time 94 hours.a too shallow authority gradient B.35 seconds B X 56. C.200 feet. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.a participatory leader A X 55.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A. B.VIS2400m.MDH100m.000 pounds gross weight? A. B.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7.don't read small print within one hour of flying. C.jet thrust only.750 feet. C. B.VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m. .Read the clearance back entirely. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.000 feet is closest to A. [Refer to Figure 4-25.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). C. C X 54.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. which would help to enhance night vision? A..(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots..200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118.increase profile drag. A. C.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.4. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. A X 50. fog and rain B. A X 52.4. A. A X 51.a third-class medical certificate.a steep authority gradient C..VIS1600m.500 feet. B X 57.Request a clarification from the ATC.a second-class medical certificate. A X 53.B X 49. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 58. C..prevent flow separation.decrease rate of sink.propeller thrust only.4.VIS1600m. B.25 seconds B. Lines of thunderstorms.a first-class medical certificate.15 seconds C.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. obscured thunderstorms C.MDH120m. B. Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. red and white.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway. B.7 days ago. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. 12 calendar months.Seven B. B X 64..the standard air pressure of the local station C..the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? . B. ability.. B X 62. and green. red.Increasing speed or altitude. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 63. ability. 24 calendar months. C. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A. B. B X 68.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. an apt arranging is A. white.Five A X 67. 6 calendar months. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.25 days ago.avoid using contact lenses B X 59.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.15 days ago. C.C.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. C. Decrease profile drag.Row of four lights parallel to the runway. B. C X 60... red and white. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. C. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.Six C.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude.the caption's power. B X 61.. A.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 65.the caption's power. ability. C.the caption's power. C. In a flight crew. the altimeter should set on . B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.One light projector with two colors. B. C X 66. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. B. 200 feet. C.FL138. temperatures is -48℃ A X 75. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. West wind at 24 KT.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.153 knots and 2. C.. C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 73. 6.000 meters. wind speed and temperatures is A. temperatures is -48℃ B. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A. C.A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1.000 feet C.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. C. Northwest wind at 60 KT. temperatures is 48℃ C. A X 70.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. B. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A. except when in cruise flight.120 days after issue or renewal. West wind at 60 KT. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.900 feet. continue taxiing in the landing direction.000 meters.FL158.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C. B. B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.900 feet.RVR 700 feet.3 . 3.2 B.183 knots and 2. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o. C X 76. the wind direction.. what action is required? A. C X 71.900 feet.138 knots and 3. are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. B. C. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL128.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 72. B. B. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.RVR 1. A X 74.600 meters. 3.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A. B X 69.. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. Below that altitude.. C X 77.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A. embedded thunderstorms C X 83. the QNH is 999.domestic airport flight information office. C.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized . B X 82. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B. The visibility is 8 kilometers.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.. A X 79. within 10 days after the deviation.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.8 hours. the pilot should submit a written report A.6 hPa. B.6 hPa.Conducted IFR. B. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 81.involve the team in most decision making processes C. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A. freezing rain B.24 hours.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals. B X 84.4 B X 78.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums..domestic area flight information center. C. The visibility is 800 meters. C. C.Carrying passengers. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa.12 hours.entering approach controlled airspace.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.foreign international NOTAMs office. C X 85. which description is correct A. after the flight is completed. The visibility is 8 kilometers. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. after returning home. C. A X 87.A and B C X 80.C. clear air turbulence C. the sea level pressure is 999. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch. C.．In flight. C X 86. B. B. a good leader should A. but not if it is "all cargo" C. if the flight will be A.. 102 NAM. If an ATC controller assigns a speed. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.1.Do not accept the clearance. B. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.R-345 C X 91. B.R-165 C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. what should the pilot do? A. within a microburst.440 pounds. what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.1. B. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff. B. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.. thrust decreases.2.As temperature increases. A X 90.-Negative dynamic stability A X 88.200 feet. C X 97.03 EPR. C. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. 90 knots C X 96. 97 NAM.-Positive static stability C.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A. B. C.As air density decreases. C.As temperature increases. C X 95. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path.1 NAV? A.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.308 feet.R-175 B. B X 94.. C. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.04 EPR.Area flight information center. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. C.2. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.A.01 EPR. 80 knots C. B. thrust increases.390 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.-Negative static stability B. the pilot should A. increase speed to the assigned speed. C X 92. 40 knots B. B.Airport flight information office. thrust increases.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation. C. the pilot should A..2. C. 92 NAM. ..420 pounds. B X 89.193 feet.1. B X 93.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL..ATMB NOTAMs office.Read the clearance back entirely.. A X 5. RCLS.Coriolis illusion.0NM A X . C X 100. C.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope.000 feet.10.0NM B. A X -------------------------------------------ATPL04 1. marker beacons. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.7. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals.2.G. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions. to the A.B. the pilot in command must report it. TDZL. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.100 feet. B X 4. an abrupt head movement A. C.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. B. C. ATC and dispatcher.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.Radar and RVR. C.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A..Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. C X 2. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. and approach lights? A.the leans. C X 98. as soon as practicable. C X 3. B.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A. This is known as )autokinesis. operations manager (or director of operations). and RVR.RCLS and REIL C.HIRL. C. C.000 pounds gross weight? A.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.3.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.2.650 feet.5. B X 99.. C.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight.S. B. B.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis.5NM C.N. [Refer to Figure 4-26.1 NAV? A. nearest CAAC district office.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B. ZULS B.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.Request a new ATC clearance C. B X 15.A stressful situation causing anxiety.6% to 4. B. B.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. Convection currents at the surface.vomiting B X 7. A X 13.Maximum endurance.600 feet/minute. B. C.RVR 250m. dizziness B.. B.RVR 200m.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.VIS 1. C. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A.690 feet/minute.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC. A X 14. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A. B X 12.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C. after the conflict is resolved C X 8. B X 10.600m.000 feet.. ASSS C.19. as ATS has radar contact B.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.The excessive consumption of alcohol.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90... A X 9. C. which taxi way can an aircraft use? A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation. C..400 feet. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots. B. . [Refer to Figure 4-39.23.930 as specified on the SID? A.Maximum range and distance glide.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF. C. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZUUU A X 11. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. B.800 feet..644 feet/minute.Best angle of climb. Poor visibility.20.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory . Cold temperatures. C. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi. The parcel of air resists convection. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.400 feet.24 calendar months. good visibility C. B. C. flight plan.SPECIS.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. C. B. A X 23.C X 16. 500feet or less to another aircraft.Dispatch release. load manifest.1.364 feet/minute. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. light rain. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. poor visibility A X 25.6 calendar months. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. 1. C X 24. Just prior to takeoff.1. and flight plan. C. A X 21. B. A pilot flight crewmember.850 feet. SIGMETS. B.200 feet.clear. PIREP'S and AIRMETS. C X 17.ZSSS ..Load manifest.Convective SIGMETS. B. C X 19. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.000 pounds? A. AWW's. other than pilot in command.12 calendar months. PIREPS. B X 20. shower and high wind B.400 feet/minute. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A. C. C.1.thunderstorm.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125.. and adverse conditions.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.. C. high wind.1. and weight and balance release.2% to FL148? A. flight plan. B.. must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.SIGMETS. and AIRMETS. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. A X 18.. As the parcel of air moves upward. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. and flight release. B.000 feet or less to another aircraft.METARS. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D. [Refer to Figure 4-25. and he can realize that the current weather may be A.Dispatch release.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. C X 22. C..stratonimbus.320 feet/minute. C. NOTAM'S. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport. 166 B.850.(To be continued 考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m.. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A. B. A X 30. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.118.Increase speed.Decrease speed.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. the flight must be able to A.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R.118.346 C. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers. which weather system we would encounter A.100m.1KHz.354 C X 31.ZWWW C X 26. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.0 HUR to D16. C.000m. C.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121.MDH120m.increased visual field B.. what frequency should be tuned? A.K0850. B.118.MDH100m.000m. A X 33. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails. B.VIS2400m. B X 28. A. A X 29. (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34. C X 34.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.VIS1600m.5KHz. A worm front and mountain waves B.0850K. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 27. C.1MHz. Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower.3. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. A cold front and moderate icing C.An increase in breathing rate C. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No. B.Maintain speed.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X .VIS1600m. B X 32. B.B.9. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed.12.. . C. C.. B.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.ZUUU C.(1-1) At a waypoint . 200 pounds.-Lift at low speeds. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. C.140 knots.700 pounds.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. B X 43.attitude may be higher than it appears. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 39.18. 4-23 and 4-24. In the Northern hemisphere. B X 38. C. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west..22. B.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway.16.35.. under which of the following conditions. flaps 30o.One C. C. B X 37. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 41. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A. C. stratus .] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A. without VASI assistant. and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A. B X 42. with gear down.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. A. C. C.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1.148 knots. B. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B.000 pounds. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.13. B X 44. C. . stratocumulus.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B.attitude may be lower than it appears.600 pounds.700 pounds.Normally.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.. B. B. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.700 pounds. There are altostratus.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.Two B.17. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . [Refer to Figure 4-29.-L/Dmax.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140. [Refer to Figures 4-22..Zero B X 40. with gear up..13.000 pounds. stratocumulus. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. flaps 25o. There are altocumulus .145 knots. B X 36.000 pounds. B. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. There are cirrostratus . [Refer to Figure 4-29. however. especially as altitude increases. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization. 135°or SE B X 47.contradictory data or personal conflicts.delay stall.DECIED B X 51.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.．The decision-making process is quite complex.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A. B.74.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. A X 49.Within the previous 6 months. A. B. C.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.increase airspeed. C. B X 50.180 pounds.Within the previous 12 calendar months.increase the load factor. Angle of attack.000. [Refer to Figure 4-41.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.DISTANCE (NM): 70.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Within the previous 6 months. C. Load factor . B X 53.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW. A X 48.. B X 54.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.DECIDE C. angle of attack . 315°or NW C.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. C. B.. A. load factor. This phenomenon is referred to as . weight. it can be condensed into the following six elements. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.DICIDE B. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.000 pounds.B X 45.What affects indicated stall speed? A. 200°or NW B.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77. and airspeed A X 52.virga C. B.plume B. Weight...Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. dowdraft . C.and power C. A X 46. A.73. B.Resolve discrepancies. B. and power B.400 pounds. C. six ILS approaches. Northwest wing can be presented as .Alcohol has an adverse effect. what recent instrument approach experience is required? A. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.74. A X 60. A X 62. B X 65. B. A X 63.Series A. B. C X 58.143 knots. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.DK. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. B X 59.1099.. warm front. A.HUAILAI.VIS2400m. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1.999. By convective mixing in cool night air. the QNH for ZUUU is A.000 feet is closest to A.MDH100m.15 days ago.145 knots.144 knots. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A. C. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.35 seconds ..15 seconds C. B.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.8 hPa C. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A.Series A and Series D.. A. By wind or the movement of air. C.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.The point cleared by ATC. C.VIS1600m.. C. stationary front.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above. C.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport. B. 4-23 and 4-24.D38 to HUAIROU. A X 64. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C.7 days ago. cold front.WF.B X 55.. B. A X 57.25 seconds B.VIS1600m.PIC time 94 hours.YV. C.998 hPa B. B.VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m.MDH120m. B.. Series C and Series D..25 days ago. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.Series A and Series C. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. C X 61.8 hPa A X 56. B.. C. [Refer to Figures 4-22. 0045Z. braking action is "zero" C. .Higher than at low weight.. B. when there is almost no the braking action? A. C.Lower than at low weight.1945Z. A X 73.Cargo load. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.1? B. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A. B X 69. braking action is "nil" C X 68.slowed down to the final approach IAS.CCAFC. C X 75. B. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. alternate airports. intermediate stops. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C.Airport flight information office.-4? C X 71. A X . B. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.B X 66. B. B. What information must be contained in. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. weight and balance data.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. B. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. and identification number of the aircraft. braking action is "fair" B.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.. wind. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. C X 72. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z.. or attached to.2015Z..The same as at low weight.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. and airport elevation? A. and experiences a delay. A X 74.climbed to the appropriate altitude. destinations. C. C. C. C.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC.Area flight information center.2 NAV? A. A X 70. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. B X 67.Departure airport. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.-2? C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.received an ATC clearance. and trip number.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.76. C. A clear sky. and high relative humidity. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. both a and b C X 78. C.000. In a 24-hour consecutive period. A. A X 82.123 feet.from south to north B.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25.. Moist. C.PEK.16hours B. .5 percent. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? .12.77. B.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.79. to maintain enough separation. C.8 hours. outside the United States.13.from west to east C.. The FAA Administrator only B X 79.. what is the maximum time. B..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. little or no wind. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A X 77.. B X 83.093 feet.GPS instrument approach operations. B. excluding briefing and debriefing. B X 85. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°..Of an intersecting taxiway only. 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. C. (Refer to Figure 6-3.from north to south C X 86.12.IDK. B.18 hours A X 80.75.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80. A sovereign country or government unit C.097 feet.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.17 hours C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.6 hours.4 percent. must be authorized by A. B X 84.10 hours. B X 81.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. [Refer to Figure 4-32. to achieve the desired separation. C.3 percent. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A. B. C.Of some designated point on the runway.HUR. Wind shear.-Negative dynamic stability A X 93. and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.. . knowledge. C. Cumulonimbus C.the sender and the receiver's skill. Position reports.. B X 94. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. unable to climb 500 ft/min. unable to climb 500 ft/min. C. Position reports.. windshear at low altitude C.the sender's knowledge. B. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. A X 87. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region.000 feet. some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. and the social culture system C. Altocumulus B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C. B X 89. Light and variable.-Positive static stability C. C. visibility and low clouds B.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. and the workload B X 88. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. vacating an altitude.A. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A. hail and rainstorm B X 90. 4℃ per 1. These conditions include A. Frontal passage. B. attitudes. 2℃ per 1. Stratocumulus B X 95.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. A. knowledge.the sender's skill. C.000 feet. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. Vacating an altitude. C X 92. attitudes. which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. vacating an altitude. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A.-Negative static stability B.. when exit the runway.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 91. 3℃ per 1. unable to climb 500 ft/min.．In a communication process.000 feet. B. personality.. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B.. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.．If the authority gradient is too steep. when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.Green. B X ---------------------------------------------- 1. Snow shower A X 96. C. A X 3. FL 250.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight.Rate of turn B.M070.000 pounds. C.a too shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C..．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. Standing lenticular. B.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. FL 200.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.A. Cirrocumulus.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration..70 Marh.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. C..Amber C. B. B. C. A X 99.. Low cloud and perhaps icing B.M0070. nimbostratus. hypoxia. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. flaps 25o. and an airspeed of 172 knots? . B.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140. [Refer to Figure 4-29. An alternate airport for departure is required A. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180.True airspeed B X 100. A X 98. C X 97. Strong wind with bad visibility C. B.Angle of bank C.070M.a participatory leader A X 4. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. This situation could be described as A. B X 2. with gear up.Red B.when destination weather is marginal IFR. a third-class medical certificate. C.-Lift at low speeds.35MHz.223 knots and 2. B. B.2. [Refer to Figure 4-45.01 EPR.8MHz. the wind direction.-Drag and reduce airspeed.500 feet.11.a second-class medical certificate.750 feet. B..124.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350.HIALS. B. C X 13.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. temperatures is -48℃ B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.. West wind at 24 KT.127.5.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. . B X 10.-Negative dynamic stability A X 12.3. West wind at 60 KT. C. B X 5. C.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.a first-class medical certificate.118.000 pounds gross weight? A. temperatures is 48℃ C. C.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6. [Refer to Figure 4-34.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-Negative static stability B. B.18. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.227 pounds.503 pounds.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120.Lower than pressure altitude. B. C. C X 8. C. B X 6.000.Higher than pressure altitude..-Positive static stability C. A X 9.700 pounds..HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. Northwest wind at 60 KT. C. temperatures is -48℃ A X 14.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A. wind speed and temperatures is A. B.11.A.-L/Dmax.. A X 11. C.216 knots and 1.13.600 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-25. A X 7.150 feet. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750.22.000 pounds.754 pounds.11.81 EPR.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.85MHz.219 knots and 1. B.62 EPR..2. B.. B X 23. and sufficient water vapor. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate.FL138. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z.Three C.930 as specified on the SID? A. C. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A. What is the required fuel reserve? A.1905Z. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A.PAPI.0005Z. B.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A. C X 20. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. plus 10 percent of the total flight time.. B X 15. C X 19. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. C.B. B. C..FL128. C.. C.HIALS with PAPI. B X 22. 30 minutes. ZUUU A X 21. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o. an initial lifting force.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600.. C. A X 18.FL158. ASSS C. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.926 pounds.2005Z. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4. [Refer to Figure 4-45. B.9. C X 24. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 17. C.680 pounds.Four B.600 feet/minute. . C.Two B X 16.9.9.. an unstable lapse rate.504 pounds.690 feet/minute. ZULS B.644 feet/minute. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.6% to 4. B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. B. Within the previous 6 months.Within the previous 12 calendar months. the pilot can control the airplane's A. airspeed.DISTANCE (NM): 120. gross weight. C. A X 27. C.VOR/DME FIX B.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.Type of operation (e. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . back to the departure airport. but not drag.lift and airspeed.By changing the angle of attack of a wing. and drag. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. and high relative humidity. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west.lift. and cargo weight.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. In the Northern hemisphere. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 31.. trip number. company organization name.WIND COMPONENT: 20HW.Compass locator C X 30.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A. under which of the following conditions. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.B.45 minutes. B.. A. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.Eustachian tube B.30 minutes. C. C.29 minutes.Surveillance radar C. A X 25. C X 26. C. Moist. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. B. VFR). or attached to. B. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B.Passenger manifest. and drag..the semicircular canals C X 32.Within the previous 6 months. little or no wind. C. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.g.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A. B X 28. B X 29. C. IFR.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. Which information must be contained in. six ILS approaches.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.000. B X 33.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. A X . B. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.lift. B. A clear sky.the cochlea C. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. Read the clearance back entirely.dose not change A X 36.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. C. C. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. the stability A.Do not accept the clearance.As the CG is moved forward. certificate holder.490 pounds.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 43.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. C.1 hours 07 minutes. The statement is A. B.1. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. 118 NAM.1 hours 02 minutes. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A.34. B. pilot in command. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. A X 37.4-52.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.35 hours B. B X 44.1 hours 04 minutes. 113 NAM.right B. C.. C X 40. . C X 38. B. 4-50.32 hours C.Request a clarification from the ATC. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation..An abrupt change in relative wind. B. C X 42. C.excessive use of carburetor heat B.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A.430 pounds. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. air carrier's chief pilot.wrong A X 41.1.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. C.A decrease in angle of attack.1. [Refer to Figures 4-49.80 Mach? A.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A..4-51.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.Decrease C. B. C X 39.4-53.] What is the ETE at .fly low in a very thick smoke haze C. 110 NAM. B.400 pounds. B..30 hours A X 35. vestibular and postural cues. and 4-54.Improves B. B. good visibility C. C.. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 48. A X 47. B.stratonimbus. and he can realize that the current weather may be A. C. C.. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.8 hours.10 feet.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. C X 53. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude...000 pounds? A. shower and high wind B.8 feet.clear. B X 52.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. B X 51. poor visibility A X 49.300 feet.9 minutes. light rain.C. Just prior to takeoff.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A.750 feet.58.12 feet. C. .-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. [Refer to Figure 4-26.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. B X 54. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A.7 minutes. a good leader should not A..AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135.59.1 minutes.. A X 46. A..Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. C. B. By wind or the movement of air.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.100 feet. B. B. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. C.Sudden decrease in load factor.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.54.7 hours.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. C.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport. B X 50.．During the flight. high wind..thunderstorm. A X 45. By convective mixing in cool night air.6 hours. [Refer to Figure 4-45. C X 56.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.VOR and DME A X 57. Low stratus.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. B.VOR and ILS C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 60.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A. weather.Director of operations or flight follower. C. C X .Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. B X 63. C. B X 61.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 58.involve the team in most decision making processes. C.Red B. C. which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A X 62. A X 55. A worm front and a upper jet C. B X 64. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.Negative longitudinal static stability B.Pilot in command. and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.flight engineer or navigator. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.Aircraft dispatcher. B. A.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 59.any flight crewmember..Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.any required pilot crewmember. B. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions.C.VOR B. rotor cloud.Green. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and moderate icing C.. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A. Standing lenticular. C. B. B.. A cold front and a upper jet B.Amber C.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. 127.121. B.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable. Wind shear.having the aircraft catered (foods.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. Turbulence A X 71.35MHz.3 PEK. in the interest of safety. Low-level wind share B. B.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A.2 PEK. C X 73.65. Radiation fog. due to winds. (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL. A X 69. Advection fog.Above PEK VOR. Light and variable. to proceed direct to the regular airport. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks.. if still IMC? A. C.Five B.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. Frontal passage. B. C. B.. Microburst C. C. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3).When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. C. B X 70.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater.124. B X 66. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. B. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. high personal attention and high task orientation .Four C. B X 68. B X 75. C. Frontal fog. B. C. when exit the runway. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. beverages.65MHz. B..D0. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway.Two A X 67. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.85MHz. or supplies). C.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A. .What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A. C. B X 74. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. A X 72.D0. Two A X 78.470 feet. B.500 feet B X 79.2 NAV? A.1? B.. B X 83. load manifest (or information from it). C. C. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A.B. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway..70 percent of the actual runway available.Three C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 76. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. B.-2? C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.Dispatch release and weight and balance release.11 C X 82.Four B. whichever is less.-4? C X 84. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO. C. .12 C. or 90 minutes at normal cruise.000feet C. and flight plan. A X 80. Upon arriving at the most distant airport.4 B. C X 77.500 feet B.1.1.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A. whichever is less. B. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A. B.Dispatch release. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL.525 feet. especially as altitude increases.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.Alcohol has an adverse effect. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board. C. C X 81. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.372 feet. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. 500 pounds. Altocumulus B. B. A X . Cumulonimbus C. The statement is )right B.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. C.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. frequent lightning C.500 pounds.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.124. C.Of some designated point on the runway. B X 89.wrong A X 93.134. continuous updraft C X 91. B.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.129. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.000 pounds..A X 85.5 B.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.000 feet short of the end of a 4. beginning of rain at the surface B. [Refer to Figure 4-26.. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.. B.Hourly. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.Of an intersecting taxiway only.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.15 B X 88. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 92. B X 90.. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle..．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational. B X 94.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B. B. C.. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.5 C.900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.(To be continued，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude.One hour and a half a time. C. Stratocumulus B X 87. A X 86. C.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.30 minutes a time. B.300 pounds. B.000 feet AGL. B. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A. [Refer to Figure 4-29.. C X 4.95. C X 3. C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.the proprioceptive system A X -------------------------------------------- 1. not associated with cloud formations. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.the inner C.. operations manager (or director of operations). as soon as practicable. B. C. .13. ATC and dispatcher. C.000m.13. to the A. should be reported as A.150 feet AGL..Opposite direction.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C.The first holding pattern altitude.Maintain a constant attitude..300 pounds. B X 100. A X 96.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space.FL 6.] What is the change of total drag for a 140. Clear air turbulence. which procedure is recommended? A. gear up. C..500 pounds. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.100 feet AGL. the pilot in command must report it. C.the eyes B.15. to flaps 0o.Same direction. B X 98. B. gear down.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. If severe turbulence is encountered.．What cause hypoxia? A. C. C. High altitude turbulence.Turbulence encountered above 15.FL 6. B. B. B.Remains fixed for all positions.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. C. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o. C X 99. convective turbulence. A X 97.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. B.300m.200 feet AGL. B X 2.Maintain a constant altitude.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. nearest CAAC district office. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A. B X 9. or use of.Best angle of climb.Cargo and passenger distribution information. C.. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds.Dutch roll C X 13. C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL. C.Copy of the flight plan.Maximum endurance. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 10. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.B X 5. or use of. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds. B.193 feet.308 feet. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A.Porpoise.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. B X 11.Initial buffet speed. C. A X 7. what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A. A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. B X 6. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. any aisle in the passenger compartment. There is an inversion with colder air below. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.. any exit. A X 14. altocumulus clouds C. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. B.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. C.. B.(to be continued Based on this situation. B.Maximum range and distance glide.. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C.Transonic index.Wingover.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.Critical Mach number." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? . B X 12. B. false cirrus clouds A X 8.) cumulonimbus clouds B. B. C. C.200 feet. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. C.VOR B.ADF C. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. B. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. C. wind. C.Request a clarification from the ATC. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B X 16.Higher than at low elevation.change B. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. A X 21. C. [Refer to Figure 4-28. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger..VOR and DME A X 15. 125 NAM. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C.350 feet. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. Developing lift.. 118 NAM. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas .not change C. B X 17.-L/Dmax. C. A X 18.In flight .000 feet. B. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. B..] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107.750 feet. C.. B X 24. Using high power settings. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft.Do not accept the clearance.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. C X 20.24 minutes.2. which of the following applies? A. A X 22. the CG will A. B.as the time goes on .] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A. B. B. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. C. and airplane weight? A. 109 NAM. B. B X 23.Lower than at low elevation.Read the clearance back entirely.A. C.25 minutes. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature.23 minutes.500 pounds? A.may change or may not change A X 19. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A.The same as at low elevation.1.-Lift at low speeds.-Drag and reduce airspeed. Operating at high airspeeds.2... C. . The adverse effects of ice. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. Poor visibility. B X 34. A X 29.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry.050 feet. increased thrust.Zero fuel weight: 125. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C.500 pounds? Initial weight: 180.123 knots and 3. 12 calendar months. 6 calendar months. B. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A. C.300m.1.000 feet B. B.050 feet. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A. B X 27.wrong A X 28. B. B..FL 6.．During the flight. A decreased stall speed.1. 24 calendar months.. snow..000m. C.153 knots and 2..15 minutes. the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.1.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144.050 feet. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. C X 26.138 knots and 3. C. Convection currents at the surface.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. Cold temperatures.. The statement is A. B. C. A X 30. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. B.To protect military activities.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.500 feet C. B.. A X 32. C.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.B X 25.16 minutes. An increased stall speed.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.FL 600m.500 lb A. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.right B. C X 33. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. C.FL 6.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period..800 feet. B. [Refer to Figure 4-37. C X 31.13 minutes. B X 35. B.500 lb. C. from left crosswind to right crosswind. dowdraft B X 37.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A. A. C X 36.At least one hour prior to the departure time. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. A X 45.the plasma C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 39.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C. B.. B X 38....19. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 41.000 feet. A.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. C X 43. B. the wind direction usually changes.when destination weather is marginal IFR.. An alternate airport for departure is required A. stationary front.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.plume B. warm front.800 feet. C X 42.C. .hemoglobin C X 40.. B. A worm front and a upper jet C.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. B.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF. which weather system we would encounter A. C. B X 44. B.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.23. [Refer to Figure 4-39. This phenomenon is referred to as ..virga C. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. A. C. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.400 feet.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.20. from headwind to tailwind. A cold front and a upper jet B.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF..] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90. B.the red blood cells B. The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass is.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. 987 pounds. B X 50.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. cold front.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A. 150 metres C X 54. B..2. braking action is "zero" C.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A. [Refer to Figures 4-46.454 pounds. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration. B X 51. B. C. B. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO. braking action is "fair" B.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.increase profile drag. hypoxia.R-175 B.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. A X 48. B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning A X 47. B. braking action is "100%" A X 52. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A. C.decrease rate of sink. A X 46. FL 250. C.224 pounds.R-345 C X 53.Increasing speed or altitude..loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.1. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A..loss of the vertical component of lift B.1.C. A X 55. C.. 4-47 and 4-48. FL 180.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 49.. 50 metres B. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. FL 200.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude.. Wind shear warning B. 500 metres C.the airplane rides on standing water.prevent flow separation.1 NAV? A. C.R-165 C. C X . To state some important information. or airway specified in the vector clearance.To require a pilot to take a specific action. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A.750 feet. C.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B. B. [Refer to Figure 4-45. C.To warn the pilot.000 pounds. B. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A. C.Increase the camber of the wing. flaps 40o. what action should be taken? A. C X 62.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. A X .. Standing lenticular. Commercial .ATP . Cirrocumulus.000 pounds. B. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. nimbostratus. C X 64.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.000 pounds? A. C. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A. C X 61.DC-9 and DC 3. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. [Refer to Figure 4-28.. [Refer to Figure 4-30.9..B-727 and DC-3.56.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122.1.22. Commercial . DC-3. C.ATP . C. Fly direct to a fix.926 pounds. C. with gear down. B.DC-9. B. B.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600..9. A X 57.300 pounds.504 pounds. route.A and B C X 58.. C. C.800 pounds. Descending to the surface and then outward.B-727 only.2. C.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. A X 65. B X 60. B. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC.. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.9.750 feet.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.680 pounds.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.B-727.17. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. B X 63. B. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.2. B X 59.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A..200 feet.20.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A. B. and DC-9.ATP . ．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors.Amber lights replace white on the last 2.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 69. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.000 pounds. B. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. vacating an altitude.Within the previous 6 months. C X 74.60days B.. climbing rate. pilot's activity level.Within the previous 12 calendar months.136. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.Normally. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Position reports.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. such as flight altitude. Vacating an altitude.119.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. when leaving an assigned holding fix.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C. C X 68.. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.139. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. unable to climb 500 ft/min. unable to climb 500 ft/min.Proximity warning C. pilot's A. in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.90days C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.000 pounds. C.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3.Traffic and resolution advisories B. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. B. Position reports. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A.000 pounds. C.TCASII provides A. B.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X ..(To be continued，health. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. six ILS approaches.Within the previous 6 months.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 72. and whether the pilot smoking or not.wrong A X 71. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. vacating an altitude.30days A X 73. B. unable to climb 500 ft/min. C X 67. or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. The statement is )right B. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.500 feet short of the end of a 4.66. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. C X 70. How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. B.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. 4-23 and 4-24.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources.. C X . to achieve a safe and A.148 knots.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors..(To be continued，efficient flight operation.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. A. 135°or SE B X 78.VMCG. Using the taxonomy. 315°or NW C. C.167o.162o.172o.Appropriate dispatch office C X 79. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm.Any FSS C. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.VMCA. B. Northwest wing can be presented as . The statement is)right B. C.145 knots.. B X 80. procedures and people.VMC. C. B X 81.ARINC B. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A. C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 83. [Refer to Figures 4-22. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. Ground? A. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.140 knots. B X 76.A higher angle of attack. moist air. B. i.. B.The same angle of attack. equipment.wrong A X 84. C.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.e. C. B X 82. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. 200°or NW B. B.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. under normal conditions. C X 77.A lower angle of attack.75. B. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995.. .allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.. A X 90. C. Heavy. B. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. when originally issued. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. The fuel reserve required. A X 88. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. A X 95. gear and flaps up. load manifest (or information from it)..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. knowledge. and preferences. 250 knots B. B. C X 91. C.000 lb .rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C. C. A Category II ILS pilot authorization.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. [Refer to Figure 4-37. gear and flaps down. B. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. C.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. gear and flaps down. fast. Heavy. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A. slow.. C X 94.85. C. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. B. B X 87. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 86. is A.Dispatch release.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. Heavy. expected holding speed B. 230 knots C. a participatory leader A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. 210 knots B X 93. slow.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. Uneven heat on the ground C X 92. Rising terrain C. B. B. is normally limited to A. Headwind or tailwind increase C. and flight plan.．In a decision-making process . Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind.500 lb.Dispatch release and weight and balance release.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.. A X 89. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B.may ultimately decide the team's actions.Zero fuel weight: 126.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181. A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A.7KM from PEK. B.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew." as backfires and flow reversals take place.Intermittent "bang. C X 4. conducting.14 minutes.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140.18. if you are assigned to an additional flight.000 pounds.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A..7SM from PEK.Loud. A.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. A X 98.A. C.wrong A X . Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.13 minutes. C X 100.000 pounds.11. .N.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. B..15 to 17 km B X 3. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A. C.15 minutes. no further action is necessary C.11.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. C. B.X. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A. C X 96. C X --------------------------------------------- 1.22. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.M.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A.700 pounds. C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. B. B X 99.11.13. [Refer to Figure 4-29.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B. During the period of Spring Festival. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches..the specific duties of any required crewmember. B. C. B.600 pounds. C.exercising authority over initiating.7NM from PEK. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. A X 2.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.10 to 12 km C. with gear up. 8 to 9 km B. or terminating a flight. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering. B X 97. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A. C. flaps 25o. The statement is)right B. C. B. C X 6. B. C. .140 knots. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o).10 times groundspeed in knots. B. C X 10.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.145 knots. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. B. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release. a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. C. 150 knots C. B. A X 8. 130 knots B X 12.. Sudden increase in a headwind component. [Refer to Figure 4-28.autokinesis. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.when the flight arrives. At the equator. [Refer to Figures 4-22. B. at least the same width as the runway. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A.An area. C X 7..．In the dark. which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance.ground lighting illusion. C. C. A X 14. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A.. B. Convection currents at the surface. C.148 knots.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. Poor visibility. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A.during the entire flight. This illusion is known as A.000 pounds? A. B X 13. 4-23 and 4-24..850 feet. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. C.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities.100 feet.Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A. C. 8times groundspeed in knots..5.400 feet.. C. A X 11.. which is able to support the airplane. B. Cold temperatures. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. 170 knots B. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. B. At the poles.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143. C X 9.somatogravic illusion.An area beyond the takeoff runway. Z. B.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B.127. A X 18. C. B. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. Rain and fog C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 24.7MHz. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou.12 C X 20. C.. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.I.6MHz.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 19. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A.. B X 21.114.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A. B.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 23.C X 15. A X 17.. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. A X 25.Y. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. B.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. Standing lenticular.7 C.6KHz. This effect begins at about .．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 16. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR.excessive use of carburetor heat B. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 22.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A.3 minutes C..40 seconds B.127.6 B. Cirrocumulus. C. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A.. B. B.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. the air pressure have reduced 1. at the same time.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion.Pilot-in-command. For past three hours. B X 28. B.VXSE.5000 feet B. B... The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. B X 32. B X 35.7hPa..The point cleared by ATC.121.7MHz. C. B X 27.9MHz.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 34.High density altitude.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. C. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling.Dispatcher.. A X 29.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100.121. A X 31. B.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A.8000 feet A X 26. pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A. the air pressure have reduced 17hPa.. B. C. C. dust B. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.TCASII provides A.A. Strong wind with sand C. .Low gross weight. North wind at 12 m/s.Proximity warning C. what airspeed should be maintained? A.10000 feet C.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C...stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B. C. For past three hours. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.Air Traffic Controller.121. C. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 30..7KHz.VMC.DAWANGZHUANG.Traffic and resolution advisories B. Strong wind with haze B X 33.VYSE. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. 000 pounds. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.Look only at far away.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.pitching up. [Refer to Figure 4-43. dim lights.. B X 44.Seven B. B X 40.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. B.12. C.000m.3.leveling off.9. C X 45. C. B. B.851 feet/minute.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.pitching down. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. A X 42. During the period of Spring Festival.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. C. C..930 as specified on the SID? A.M.28.10 feet..000. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B.B X 36.X. C. A X 41. A X 43. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A. B. if you are assigned to an additional flight.12 feet.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. B X .Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.000m. C. B. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A.Five A X 38. C.34.Six C. B. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1.760 feet/minute.600 pounds.32.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 37.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.000 pounds.N.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. B. A X 39. C.100m.699 feet/minute.8 feet.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.-neutral longitudinal static stability.1MHz B. 210 knots B X 47. Descend to MEA and.FL 6..the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. A X 53.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. 250 knots B. B X 55. B X 54. C. C.12 hours A X 52. or to the MEA. the airplane displays A.800 feet per minute. C. if clear of clouds. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.Low speed. what was the approximate rate of descent? A.122. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A..High speed.. B.123. A X 51. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released.8 hours B.10 hours C. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 50.-positive longitudinal static stability.122. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A. B. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA. Smoke with overcast B. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude.0MHZ C.Below FL180. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect. 230 knots C. C. B. B.Any speed. B X . proceed to the nearest appropriate airport.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C X 49..300m. C. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.6MHz B X 48.FL 6..46. which description is correct A.760 feet per minute. B.780 feet per minute. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. If not clear of clouds.000m.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.FL 600m.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. Fly the most direct route to the destination. whichever is higher. ．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light. the expected changes in intensity of the icing is.114.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 65.7 hours.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.56. [Refer to Figure 4-28.. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A. No change B X 59. 200 knots C.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142.Red inscriptions on a white background C. cumulostratus C. cumulus congestus B. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.500 feet..30 minutes. C X 57.right B. pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds.2. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3. The descriptive cloud should be.. Intensify B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.8 hours. B.6 hours. C X 61. C. B. C X 58. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.750 feet. A X 64. A. towering clouds C X 63. (Refer to Figure 3) In the AIRMET information.15 minutes.6MHz.2.. A.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B. C.100 feet.White inscriptions on a red background B... When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C X . A.113. B.500 pounds? A. 150 knots B X 60.Holding position signs have A. The statement is A.000 meters? A. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. 210 knots B.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 62.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. C.1. In flight. B.7MHz. C.wrong.514MHz.3 minutes. Weaken C. 66. A X 74.6 calendar months. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. C.12 calendar months.9Gs B X 69.. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.Where do squall lines most often develop? A. climb and descent when below 3.. C.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. B. Rain B.．If the authority gradient is too steep. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°.3Gs.000 meters.VMCG. normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A.VMC.. C X 76. C. A pilot flight crewmember. C. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.. and landing.from east to west B.One hour and a half a time.behind a stationary front B X 68. B.Hourly. C. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . C..in an occluded front B. B X 73. A X 72.ahead of a cold front C. and landing. A. B. C X 75. B.from north to south A X 67..-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. takeoff. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative.24 calendar months. B.from west to east C.In small airplanes.VMCA. Ground? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. takeoff. climb and descent when below 3. B X 70. A. Fog C X 71. Light fog C. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. taxi.In a light . must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. . other than pilot in command.30 minutes a time.000 meters.2Gs. B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. or structural damage occurs.90 knots.".Within the previous 6 months. diversion...Direct only C.110 knots. C.. Radiation fog usually appears in .FL148.. for no more than A. C. B. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.Within the previous 6 months. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o.pilot in command and chief pilot. mechanical failure. continuation. B X 85. A. in any calendar month. An ATC "instruction" A. MH 160°.pilot in command and the flight follower. B.Teardrop only B. winter and autumn. A X 84. B X 78..80hours B.. B. six ILS approaches.pilot in command and director of operations. C.C. B.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B X 83.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A.90 hours C...FL158. When distress conditions such as fire.Within the previous 12 calendar months. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation.is the same as an ATC clearance.100hours B X 81. C. which altitude could it descend to? A.FL168. A plane.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 77. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action.96 knots. B.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane. B. C X 82. B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.. .Parallel only C X 80. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.. B X 79. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. spring and summer. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C. receive this ATC clearance: ". C. flight release. B.C. airworthiness release. pilot route certification. NOTAM'S. B. moist air.One engine..Detect the fact that a change has occurred B. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles. SIGMETS. and AIRMETS.SPECIS. C. B. C X 93. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu.70 Marh.．The decision-making process is quite complex. summer and autumn. B.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. A cold front and moderate icing C. A X 95.Airborne radar C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm.supersonic mach number B.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 89. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. using the acronym DECIDE.. which weather system we would encounter A. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A.By signals fro.SIGMETS. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest. B X 87.12 months. At the Poles. airspeed. B X 86. C. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace. A worm front and mountain waves B.transonic mach number C. and flight plan? A. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. C.1 month. The first D is A. . Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. A X 92. C. PIREP'S and AIRMETS.From information by compass.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C..METARS. At the Equator.3 months.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. on a multiengine aircraft B.M070.070M..critical mach number C X 90. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.M0070. B X 91. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 94. B.DME C X 88. and an input of wind and variation data. it can be condensed into six elements. however. C. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. self-contained gyros and accelerometers. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. 700 feet. B X 2.138 knots and 3.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. B. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A. B.430 pounds. B. C.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.050 feet.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. 118 NAM.. the temperature of the air will . A X 96. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate.1.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.16.C. AWW's. an airplane may be dispatched only A. C. [Refer to Figure 4-39.. B X 99.123 knots and 3. descend 4℃ A X 100. PIREPS.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.not required to have a medical certificate. In average.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Convective SIGMETS.climbed to the appropriate altitude. C.400 feet.18.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.19.400 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.In day VFR conditions C X 3. 200 knots B. descend 2℃ B. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.490 pounds.1.Remains fixed for all positions.000 feet increase in the troposphere. 113 NAM.WING ANTI-ICE: ON.In VFR conditions C.Opposite direction.. B. is A. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate.1. in an approved flight simulator. A. 110 NAM. C. A X 97. 150 knots C X 4. for every 1. B. B. C..600 feet. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A. and adverse conditions.received an ATC clearance.. B X 98. .050 feet.Same direction.descend 3℃ C.153 knots and 2.slowed down to the final approach IAS. 170 knots C.050 feet. C X --------------------------------------------- 1.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100. 650 feet. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A.. B. good visibility C. A X 11. B.. and he can realize that the current weather may be A..outward and forward B X 8.clear. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.The desired manifold pressure. Sand C.1.the plasma C. C X 12.Identify REIL. [Refer to Figure 4-26.Supercharger gear ratio. B.C X 5.inward and aft B. poor visibility A X 7.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. what is the valid period of time. Sand storm B X 6. C.hemoglobin C X . C. spoilers and reversers at 140.Exhaust gas discharge. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z.inward and forward C. high wind.050 feet.000 pounds gross weight? A. C X 14.stratonimbus.medium personal attention and high task orientation C. high personal attention and high task orientation B. light rain. C X 13. From 14Z to 22Z B X 9.300 feet.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 10. shower and high wind B.the red blood cells B.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.Amber lights for the first 2.. C.. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport. C. A.thunderstorm. From 08Z to 22Z.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A. C.1. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A. Smoke B.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes. Just prior to takeoff.000 feet of runway. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. upward.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A. B. B X 24. C. B.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. C X 18.Three-light system. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. A X 17.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). Outward. Person who found the emergency.15. C. C. and around the wingtip. A X 21. one pulsing and one steady.200 feet. A X 16. C.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails. B. steady white when on glide slope.. pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope. B. the flight must be able to A.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.Exhaust gas temperature.One –light project. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 2 hours. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.Manifold pressure. B. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A. C X 20.500 feet. steady red for slightly below glide path.More than 6 hours. B. C. at an intermediate airport.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach..When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. C. two pulsing and one steady. A X .RPM. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1.DH 150 feet and RVR 1. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who heard the emergency. C X 23.120 days after issue or renewal. upward. C. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. and around the wingtip. B. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.200 feet.DH 50 feet and RVR 1.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.Not more than 1 hour.Two-light projectors.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.avoid using contact lenses B X 22. Inward. Pilot in command.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A. which would help to enhance night vision? A. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground. C. C X 19. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity. C.124. Certificate holder's manual. and landing. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. C.000 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-26.In daily aeronautical weather reports.nimbostratus B. with gear down.000 pounds.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A..900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. A..800 pounds. B.Where do squall lines most often develop? A. and landing.．Heavy coffee or tea.(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time..Parallel only A X 33.wrong A X 29. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.20. B. MH 240°. C.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A. the code "VCTS" means ____. B X 26. flaps 40o. dizziness B. B X 31.in an occluded front B.129. B. Airplane Flight Manual. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.000 meters. C. C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.To protect military activities only. produce anxiety and A. receive this ATC clearance: ".134. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A.To protect science tests only. taxi.Teardrop only B..22.". climb and descent when below 3... There are thunderstorms over the airport.000 meters. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are .vomiting B X 34.000 pounds.cumulonimbus C. A plane. A.17.. C.000 feet short of the end of a 4. takeoff..Direct only C...] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110..altostratus. A X 32.300 pounds.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.ahead of a cold front . A X 27. The statement is)right B.25. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A. B. C X 35.500 pounds.. A X 28. takeoff. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. climb and descent when below 3. B.. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. [Refer to Figure 4-30.500 pounds.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. B X 30. at cruising speed. B. A. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A.. 30 minutes.. whichever is greater. B. A. at 1. A X 41.77. B X 42.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90.PIC time 94 hours.from left crosswind to right crosswind.4 percent. B. A. A X 39. An outside air pressure decreases.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC. the wind direction usually changes . A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%.VIS1600m. C.3 percent. B X 40.VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m.C. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.MDH100m.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C X 38..remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. C. [Refer to Figure 4-32. at 1.000.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25..] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. C X 37. C. over the airport. rotor cloud.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.4 percent. Standing lenticular. 30 minutes at holding speed. B. whichever is greater. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%.MDH120m.75. whichever is greater. Low stratus.VIS2400m.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere.500 feet. thrust output will A. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%.from headwind to tailwind. . C.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B. A X 44.1 hours C. B. C. A X 43.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots.5 minutes.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.75.000..behind a stationary front B X 36.decrease due to higher density altitude.500 feet over the airport. B.79. C.30 minutes B. B.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 45. [Refer to Figure 4-32. It should be reported without ATC request that A. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.5 percent.VIS1600m.．After been in exposed to normal lighting. C. other than pilot in command. B. B. B X 48. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.supplemental and domestic.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading.24 calendar months. C.. A X 49. A.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A. Radiation fog usually appears in .High RPM and high MAP.Low RPM and high MAP. A X 52.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 51.. C.flag and commercial.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A. B.Strong vibrations and loud roar.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.2 percent. A X 53. B. A pilot flight crewmember..loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.74. must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A. B X 54. C. When distress conditions such as fire. C.several headache B. C X 50.12 calendar months.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. C. or include on.loss of the vertical component of lift B. B. B X 47. C.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. B.6 calendar months.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A. mechanical failure. flight attendant. C. A X 46.reduced visual field C. summer and autumn. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to. spring and summer. or structural damage occurs.a feeling of euphoria .. winter and autumn. B. Under normal operating conditions.High RPM and low MAP. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C. B.supplemental and commercial..CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. C X 55. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember.9 percent.B. C. and designated pilot in command are A.72. 240KHz. [Refer to Figures 4-22. C. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A. B.．What cause hypoxia? A. no further action is necessary C.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.308KHz. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. . B.09 EPR. It is most likely to occur when A.What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. especially as altitude increases. B. B.07 EPR. C.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A. There is an inversion with colder air below.7MHz. B. C X 64.Alcohol has an adverse effect. C. A X 58.2.A X 56. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A. A X 61. B X 60.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft..an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 65.2..11 C X 62. B X 63.12 C.. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. C.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation.114. and 4-24.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. C.06 EPR. C. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. C X 57.4 B. which of the following applies? A. A X 59.2. towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route. B. B X 72. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. B.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. Weight....Y. thrust decreases... Angle of attack. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A. angle of attack .As altitude decreases. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. thrust increases. At lower levels of the atmosphere. three-engine.Z. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A. During a supplemental air carrier flight.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. Load factor .What affects indicated stall speed? A.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.B. C. load factor. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 74. B X 69.As altitude increases. B X 66. weight. 200 knots B X 70. C. C.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. A X 67. and power B.Pilot in command. C X 71. C. B. 250 knots B.I. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A. 210 knots C.The existing and forecast weather for departure. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. B. C X 68. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.As altitude increases.Director of operations or flight follower.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.Aircraft dispatcher. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3. A. B. C. decreases pressure gradient force. and approach must be VFR. B.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. A X 73.and power C. en route.000 meters? A. and airspeed A X . turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. thrust decreases. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu.Stopway. B.000 pounds gross weight? A. B. C X 76. [Refer to Figure 4-39. and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. braking action is "fair" B.600m and ceiling 120m.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100. B X 77. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. braking action is "zero" C. which weather system we would encounter A. C. the applicant is A. air carrier's chief pilot. which is able to support the airplane.16. A worm front and mountain waves B.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart.300 feet.. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway. .Limiting torque.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 79..Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).500 feet. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 82.. braking action is "100%" A X 81. C. C. B.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.Obstruction clearance plane.. pilot in command. certificate holder. A cold front and moderate icing C.Limiting compressor speed.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.Clearway.. [Refer to Figure 4-25..400 feet.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. which minimums apply? A. or diminished. C.1. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 78. When proceeding to the alternate airport.000 feet. C X 83. B. C. decreased takeoff distance C.is not required to have a medical certificate. B X 84.75. airspeed performance B. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. B.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A.WING ANTI-ICE: ON. loss of. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. B X 80..visibility 1.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate. ．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.Teardrop only B. C.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles. altostratus or stratocumulus C. A X 85.. C.looking outside for 15 seconds. A. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. . (Refer to Figure 6-3.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A X 92. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10. B. receive this ATC clearance: ".12.HIALS. Strong wind. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.1.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.19. B.PAPI.123 feet..F1020.440 pounds. C. B X 91. B.1 minute inside scanning.13..".. pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. B.700 feet. A X 93. then repeat. MH 60°.B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A. before takeoff.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds.. then inside for 5 seconds.Parallel only A X 87. 92 NAM. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°.from north to south A X 86.1. C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 89. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. embedded thunderstorms with hail .600 feet. 102 NAM.S1020. stratus or nimbostratus B.390 pounds. C.18.200 meters.N0420.1. 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.from east to west B.Direct only C. then 1 minute outside scanning. A plane.N420.420N. C. A X 88.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. C..from west to east C..093 feet. Fog. volcanic ash B.HIALS with PAPI.097 feet.12. 97 NAM. B. C X 94. B..420 pounds.. then repeat..L1020. Thisclouds is referred as A.. A X 90. Dust.administer oxygen B..000 pounds gross weight? A. "good".C.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A. isolated cumulonimbus C X 95. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere. Strong wind. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? . [Refer to Figure 4-26. only use "good". from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 99. B X 98.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 4. C. the percentage of the proximate braking action.1. bad visibility B. A X 97. A X 2.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule.Minimum fuel supply and trip number.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A..500 feet. B. "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. "fair". B. B. B. A.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. Low cloud with strong wind A X 3. B.000 feet. thunderstorm. and a statement of the type of operation. C.a change in the information coming from the inner ear.give plenty of water A X 96.. vestibular and postural cues. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual. C. B.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. from left crosswind to right crosswind.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. from headwind to tailwind.In a light . (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. A X 1 1.300 feet.Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. B. "fair". spoilers and reversers at 130..Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. C. C.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. the wind direction usually changes.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A.It moves with the weather system.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. Severe mountain wave. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A. "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. B X 100.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C. C. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 8.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.. C X 11. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.Green.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. flight engineer. shower and gale C. however. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate.B-747.Limiting torque.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle.Fuel spray nozzles. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport.VLO/MLO.. receive this ATC clearance: ". and B-737. C.VMO/MMO. C X 6. C. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A. C.. B.B-727 and B-737. Commercial .How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A. it can be condensed into the following six elements. B. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.B-737.Compressor discharge.VLE. clear after rain.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. C.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Amber C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.. .A. low clouds and weak turbulent current B.Turbine inlet.". A.Commercial .Teardrop only B. B.B-747.Red B.. MH 240°. B. ATP . C X 7.Green yellow and white beacon light B.. C.. cumulonimbus clouds. B.Limiting compressor speed. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 9. B X 5.ATP .Parallel only A X 14.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Direct only C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A. C. B X 10. B X 12.Only a pilot.ATP . Before taking off. B X 13. the captain finds that on weather map. A plane. B-727.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.B-727 and B-747. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A. B X 18.13 hours C..4.VOR B. C. C.5%.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.ADF C. C. Frontal passage.DECIDE C. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.A stressful situation causing anxiety. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 19. B. B. B X 21.．During the flight.5. Rain and fog C. B. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. The statement is A.The excessive consumption of alcohol." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.A..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.right B. Light and variable.. This situation could be described as A.DECIED B X 15.a steep authority gradient C.a too shallow authority gradient B.DICIDE B. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou.wrong A X 20. no.5.8%. yes. A X 22.a participatory leader A X 17.14 hours C X 24. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.2%.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o. no.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.VOR and DME A X 16. B. C. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. . what is the corresponding rate of descent? A. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. Wind shear. A X 23. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.12hours B. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. B... B X 30. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. flight attendant. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.050 feet.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. C X 25. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. A X 32. C.flag and commercial. B X 29. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.supplemental and commercial.VSO.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A. B X 28. when exit the runway. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure. C.153 knots and 2.050 feet. or include on.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.235 B X 26. C. three-engine. B. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A. B.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A. C.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.145 knots. B.hemoglobin .. C.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.138 knots and 3. B.123 knots and 3.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. C..143 knots. and approach must be VFR.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.VS1. en route. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.144 knots. B.VS. B.B.050 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29. and designated pilot in command are A.the red blood cells B.. B X 31. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A. A X 27. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. and a statement of the type of operation.supplemental and domestic. [Refer to Figures 4-22. C.285 B. B X 33.055 C.the plasma C. Stratocumulus B X 42. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 37. Position is not affected C. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft.Zero B X 40. B. except 20 miles from threshold.One C. C. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle. a speed not less than 210 knots. Cumulonimbus C. Altocumulus B.20MHz. not less than 150 knots..Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. (According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A.". receive this ATC clearance: ". instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization..Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.122. A X .. MH 300°. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3.Parallel only B X 41. B.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. the accuracy of the GPS derived A.Two B. Piston and turboprop aircraft.8897MHz. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given. Not less than 250 knots B X 35.. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A. C..C X 34. what is the VHF communication frequency? A.. C X 36. 150 metres C X 38. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude... FL240 C. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.Direct only C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C.3016MHz. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. prior to flight conducted above A.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers.000 meters? A. except 20 flying miles from threshold.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. LEFT TURNS..Teardrop only B. a speed not less than 230 knots. not less than 170 knots. FL200 B. not less than 200 knots. FL250 C X 39. a speed not less than 150 knots. 50 metres B. B. Turbojet aircraft. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums. A plane.. 500 metres C. B. . In turn.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed.Except during an emergency..right B.(To be continued，engine which failed. B.As air density decreases.expectancy producing a mental block C.VMC. B.wrong A X 47. C. C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B. heavy aircraft. The statement is A.. B X 48. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. C.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.right B. the wind speed is 120 km/h B. the wind speed is 120 knots C. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 52.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 46. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. you cannot accept any undue delay. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 44.propeller thrust only.As air density increases. thrust increases. Ground? A.wrong A X 45.. first serve basis.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. on a firs-come.VMCG. . What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C. A X 51.jet thrust only. thrust increases.43. C X 50. what action is required? A. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. upon reaching your destination. B X 49. thrust decreases.As air density increases. C.. The statement is A. only to find that it was the right A. A. B. When piloting a large.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. When cleared for an IFR approach B.VMCA. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.Not more than 1 hour. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.1.Not more than 2 hours.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. B X 60.440 pounds. C. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.Five A X 54. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. vestibular and postural cues. at an intermediate airport. C X 56.023 pounds.. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. B.Precludes a rejected landing. B.Must be adhered to.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. C X . A X 58.Seven B.Read the clearance back entirely.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. [Refer to Figure 4-34.1. C.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. B X 59. B.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30. B.Does not preclude rejected landing. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground.by combining and comparing visual. B. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 55...Six C. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. C. C. B.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.Do not accept the clearance. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.5. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate.732 pounds. C. the pilot should A.processing information from the inner ear.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance.C. C X 53.More than 6 hours.processing information from the eyes. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. that the pilot accepts: A.. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. A X 62.WEIGHT (*1000): 92.000. C. B.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. C X 57. B. A X 61. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. 800hours B.30 minutes a time. C. C.1952Z. . in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.1922Z.000 pounds. C. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted. C.One hour and a half a time. warm front.600-foot icy runway? A. in any calendar year. all flight time.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. A X 66. stationary front.000 pounds. C. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B.124. B. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . B. A. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.. in any flight crewmember position. B. C. B X 69.Hourly. C X 73.128. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Aircraft dispatcher.0022Z. B. C X 70.900 hours C.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z. give the wing a lower camber B.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.120. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.000 pounds. C X 71.1000hours C X 65. except military. C. [Refer to Figure 4-27.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A..63. B. During a supplemental air carrier flight.. B..add slats C X 64. increase wing sweep. B. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position..Pilot in command.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.GUBEIKOU NDB. cold front. A X 67. C X 68. C. for no more than A. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. B X 72. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.Any flight crewmember. A X 77.HUAIROU VOR/DME..108.VOR B. B.80 Mach? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. C. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. B.VOR and DME A X 83.137.1 NAV? A..B. C.Low gross weight.000 pounds.. C. At the Equator.High density altitude.0NM B. A X 76. B X 78. B. is normally limited to A. C.10.4-52.200-foot icy runway? A.] What is the ETE at . C.5.VOR and ILS C. C. when originally issued. [Refer to Figures 4-49.1 hours 07 minutes.124.1 hours 04 minutes. A X 74. B X . Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.7.4-51. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).Either pilot. At the Poles.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.. if qualified. B.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. and 4-54. B.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.3 minutes C.000 pounds. if they have a flight engineer certificate. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. [Refer to Figure 4-27.000 pounds.5NM C. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. 4-50. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. B. then clear ice accumulates.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. A X 79.What is a feature of supercooled water? A.40 seconds B.The second in command only. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. C.1 hours 02 minutes. B X 82.4-53. C X 80.The descent moment on the course of 227o.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5. C.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 75.0NM A X 81.. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C X 85. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A.pilot in command and director of operations. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. A X 92. B.. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.400 pounds. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. no.pilot in command and the flight follower.Area flight information center.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77. any exit..pilot in command and chief pilot. B X 89..The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds. A X 87. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. yes.) cumulonimbus clouds B. You are considered clear of runway when A. C. yes.84... B.Over open sea. B.. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.000 meters. C. C.74. During emergency.M0900.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come.000 pounds. false cirrus clouds A X 88..Airport flight information office.M9000. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW. continuation. C X 86. C. C. . B X 91. A.Over domestic only. B. diversion. C.CCAFC.DISTANCE (NM): 70. B X 90.180 pounds. can a pilot expect landing priority? A.(to be continued Based on this situation. or use of. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.73. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation.S9000. C X 93. C. first-served" basis. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. B.000. [Refer to Figure 4-41.Over domestic or open sea.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.74. altocumulus clouds C. All recorded information may be erased. B X 94. C. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. any aisle in the passenger compartment.What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. C.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. B X 96.. C. C. B. What is the required fuel reserve? A. C X 2 1. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). expected holding speed. cold front. and expected holding speed. C. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. warm front. C X 2. B X 99.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. A. 30 minutes.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.B. time. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. A X 100. plus 10 percent of the total flight time. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . B. A. C...which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? . B.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. stationary front. B X 97. altitude/flight level. C. B. or use of.Resolve discrepancies. altitude/flight level. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. and inbound leg length. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. B X 95. time. B.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan.Only one INDS is required to be operative. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 98. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.contradictory data or personal conflicts. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS..A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.All recorded information may be erased.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. B. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Severe mountain wave.give plenty of water A X 10.High speed. airworthiness release.Impulsivity: C X 5. C X 6. Severe mountain wave..15 minutes. flight release.Low speed. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 3. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. B. and flight plan? . Rain B. C X 4. embedded thunderstorms C.5 C. C.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A. B.Area with strong cold advection B. A. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety. embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 8.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. B.Any speed. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot.Invulnerability: C.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B. indicates A. Severe turbulence. to check the performance of the aircraft.15 B X 9.administer oxygen B. Fog C X 7.5 B.30 minutes. B X 11. C. pilot route certification. Light fog C. obscured thunderstorm with hail B.A. B X 12.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.．"Do something quickly!".At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.. C.Macho B.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign.3 minutes. . The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression.0MHZ C.1MHz B. C X 20. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A. In flight.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. relatively calm night.requiring a pilot to read back.．When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway. B. The descriptive cloud should be. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet. A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet.3 months. B. B. A X 17. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.In small airplanes.A. C X 22. At the Equator.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.123.requiring a pilot to take specific action. cumulus congestus B. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A.6MHz B X 15. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A.Below FL180.. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). B.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. C X 16. cumulostratus C. B X 13. C. the wind speed is 120 km/h B. there is a tendency A.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time. .move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. C.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A. towering clouds C X 19. pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 21. C..122. C.to fly a normal approach. C. the wind speed is 120 knots C. C.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A.. At the Poles. B. B. C X 18. Terrestrial radiation on a clear. without VASI assistant.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C.keeping flight status. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.12 months. B.122.Compensate for increase in drag A X 14.1 month. B X 29. A X 33. and least stability.15 C. lowest cruise speed..1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. and highest stability. [Refer to Figure 4-28.1. C. C.exercising authority over initiating. B. B.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 31. A X 26. B X 24.308KHz.17 C X 27..Highest stall speed. highest cruise speed.7MHz. B. 900 metres C.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude. C.800 feet.114.300 feet. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. and preferences. but seldom in other situations B.White inscriptions on a red background B. conducting. B X 25.tends to make final decisions in an emergency..1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.Red inscriptions on a white background C. C. highest cruise speed. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.may ultimately decide the team's actions.Lowest stall speed. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.Lowest stall speed.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A. .．An authoritative leader A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. C.300 feet. B X 28.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 32. B. A..tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. or terminating a flight. the altimeter should set on . knowledge. 3000 metres A X 30. and least stability B.240KHz.B X 23.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105.Holding position signs have A.Air Traffic Controller.4 B.000 pounds? A.the standard air pressure of the local station C.. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.the specific duties of any required crewmember. Fuel spray nozzles. Notify ATC immediately. [Refer to Figure 4-41. B. A X 43.800m and MDA 180m.Pilot-in-command.Turbine inlet.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C.All turbine powered airplanes B.. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 42. C.000m and MDA 120m. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2. It begins to rain on the ground C X 36..Low-speed flight only.Two A X 35.000.B. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR.DISTANCE (NM): 200. A X 38.I..WIND COMPONENT: 30TW. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A. B. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Dispatcher. B.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. C. C X 41.Low-speed and high-speed flight.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.Stop way. C. C.Obstruction clearance plane. C. .Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 40. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A.34 minutes.. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Z.Visibility 2. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A. B.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A. Squawk 7600.High-speed flight only..What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A.600m and MDA 240m. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. C. A X 37. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board. C X 39. B.Compressor discharge.Visibility 3.Three C. B.Y.Four B.Clearway. A X 34.000m and MDA 120m. C.Visibility 2.. .What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B. A X 45. B X 51.. 30 minutes.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. A X 46. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C. should be reported as A. not associated with cloud formations. B. B. C X 53.Do not accept the clearance. B.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.000 pounds gross weight.Brakes and reversers at 115. B X 52. C X 47.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.500 feet B. C. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate.Turbulence encountered above 15. C. What is the required fuel reserve? A. B.1.. B..55 minutes. B.Brakes.500 feet B X 49.Brakes and spoilers at 120. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. and landing. C. C X 44.Either pilot.5 and 13 C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.57 minutes.7and 11 B X 48.1. if they have a flight engineer certificate.000 meters. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. Clear air turbulence. B X .1. C. convective turbulence.900 feet.000 feet AGL. and reversers at 125.11 B. taxi. High altitude turbulence. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.000 pounds gross weight. B. spoilers. takeoff. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. B X 50. if qualified..Any flight crewmember. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. C.The second in command only.Request a clarification from the ATC.000 pounds gross weight.1. C. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. C.000 meters.496 feet.Read the clearance back entirely. climb and descent when below 3. and landing. C. plus 10 percent of the total flight time. climb and descent when below 3. [Refer to Figure 4-25. takeoff.B.244 feet.000feet C. B X 61. B. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.843 feet per minute. C. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A. C. B X 56. C. using the acronym DECIDE.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units.3Gs.737 feet per minute.632 feet per minute. C. temperature reduced C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. temperature rises B. B. A.Only one INS is required to be operative. B.9Gs B X 63.2Gs. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums. Landing short of the runway threshold..If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A. B X .000 feet is closest to A. temperature reduced B X 57. A hard landing.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. C X 62. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.54. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.the movement of the weather system B X 55.Evaluate the effect of the action C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots.35 seconds B X 59.the change of sun radiation B.-Increase the camber of the wing.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 58.. however. B. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A.. The wind speed increases.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. it can be condensed into six elements. C X 60.15 seconds C..25 seconds B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to.．The decision-making process is quite complex. C. The wind speed increases. B.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. Increased landing rollout. . A X 74...Lower than at low weight. 125 NAM.12 feet.64. A plane. B X 73. C. C.DH 100 feet and RVR 1.200 feet.. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. 210 knots B. B. Inward. C X 66.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.". and around the wingtip. C X 67..121.Teardrop only ..10 feet.. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. B.. C. An off-airway route to the point of departure. A X 65. What effect. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100. MH 160°. A X 68.The same as at low weight.121.000 meters? A. 200 knots C. B.DH 50 feet and RVR 1.9MHz.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C. B X 71. Expansion of air as rises. 118 NAM.. wind. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.. upward. receive this ATC clearance: ".7KHz. While in IFR conditions.. B. Movement of air over a colder surface.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A. C.8 feet. C X 69.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport.. Outward. B. B. but turbine temperature will be higher. and around the wingtip. B. if any. C.24 minutes. does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. C. The route filed in the flight plan.Thrust will remain the same.500 feet.25 minutes. 150 knots B X 72. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3. Which route should be flown in the absence A. B.Higher than at low weight.200 feet. B X 70. upward.26 minutes.DH 150 feet and RVR 1. C. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A... What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. and airport elevation? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.121. 118 NAM. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. B. pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.7MHz. 19. The statement is )right B. braking action is "nil" C X 78.Parallel only C X 75.Direct only C.16. C. B. such as flight altitude. As the parcel of air moves upward.372 feet. pilot's A. C. B.Plus or minus 6 B.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.(To be continued，health. can rain on the windscreen create? A..．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors.Limiting torque. braking action is "zero" C.. B.Plus or minus4? A X . [Refer to Figure 4-39.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations. the maximum bearing error permissible is A. C.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.400 feet. .B.200 feet.470 feet.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. B X 76. C X 83. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. and whether the pilot smoking or not.525 feet.308 feet. C.. B.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC.wrong A X 82. B.Higher than actual. climbing rate.700 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL. A X 77. The parcel of air resists convection..Limiting compressor speed.Lower than actual. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. braking action is "fair" B. A X 80..18.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100. pilot's activity level. C.193 feet. when there is almost no the braking action? A. C.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).Does not cause illusions. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL. if any.．What illusion. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.600 feet. B X 81.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A. A X 79.WING ANTI-ICE: ON. what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A. B. 24 calendar months.84.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.2.a second-class medical certificate. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. after initial training? A. B. Standing lenticular. B.000 feet. C X 87. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. C. B. B. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A.. . C.06 EPR.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. rotor cloud.07 EPR.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C. B. 6 calendar months..Lift multiplied by the total weight. C. B. C X 92.6 hours. C.What is load factor? A.000 feet. 12 calendar months. after advising ATC of the situation.Lift subtracted from the total weight.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. 2℃ per 1.09 EPR. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment. B. C X 93. B. 3℃ per 1. B.000 feet. A X 88. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so.7 hours. B X 85.a first-class medical certificate. C X 90.2.. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. A X 89.Lift divided by the total weight. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. C. C.2.8 hours. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. Low stratus. and 4-24. C X 86. C.. 4℃ per 1. [Refer to Figures 4-22.a third-class medical certificate. A X 91. B.. 4-52. A.17. B. flaps 30o.22.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.000 pounds. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 94. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou.. 900 metres C. 300 metres B.. C. [Refer to Figures 4-50.78 Mach? A.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. C X 3 1. B. with gear down. C.556 pounds.．If the authority gradient is too steep.000 pounds.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.11.] What is the total fuel required at ..cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.9. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. B X 97. The statement is .22.200 pounds.C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. C. [Refer to Figure 4-30. B.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it.800 pounds..22.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. C..the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 96.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B. B X 98.4-51.972 pounds..140 pounds. B X 95. and never in climbs or descents B X 99.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.4-53. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 100. and 4-54.. 3000 metres A X 2. which description is correct A. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 11. C.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o. Landing short of the runway threshold. A X 4.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A.Rapid..167o. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A. . "fair". B X 10.800m.FL158.. C X 12. A X 6. "good".172o. Adiabatic.162o. C. B. shallow breathing.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. C. C. C. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. 125 NAM...Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C X 8. C X 7. "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.26 minutes.Dizziness. B.25 minutes. B.An alternate airport is required. C. B X 9. C. Snow and rain C. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. 118 NAM. B. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. B. C X 5.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. Increased landing rollout. B.right B. three-engine. Katabatic.FL128. Strong wind with shower B. "fair".24 minutes. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.wrong A X 3. Advection. only use "good".The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. A hard landing.. B.FL138. 118 NAM. "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.A. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. [Refer to Figure 4-25. A X 13.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. Light fog C. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. C X 18. C.6MHz.Brakes. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots.500 feet. B.B. A X 21. B..have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. and around the wingtip.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. C.400 feet.Brakes and spoilers at 120. C.FL 29. spoilers. C. Rain B.Brakes and reversers at 115.FL 39.114. en route. Freezing rain.Some passengers may be carried.000 pounds gross weight. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.6KHz. upward. B.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. B.administer oxygen B.113.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.．The perception of color is a function of the A.000 pounds gross weight.000 pounds gross weight.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.113.The existing and forecast weather for departure. B. C X 15.100 feet. Outward. C X 16.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.FL 8. upward. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A. B. and reversers at 125.. B X 17. C.. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. wet snow. A X 19. and approach must be VFR. . B..843 feet per minute. Inward. B..632 feet per minute. and around the wingtip. Fog C X 14.give plenty of water A X 20. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A.7MHz.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.737 feet per minute.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. C X 22. C... B X 32.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. B. C X 31.000. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight.3.. wind.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27.Higher than at low elevation. [Refer to Figure 4-25. and expected holding speed.. B.. C.500 pounds.500 pounds.5 hours 3 minutes.117.127 knots. and inbound leg length. time.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA.Lower than at low elevation.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2. C. thrust increases.100m.400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. B.What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. C.5 hours 55 minutes. thrust increases.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A..156 knots.C. and airplane weight? A.000m.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.140. [Refer to Figure 4-43. A X . A X 25..] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500.As air density increases.As air density increases.Compensate for increase in drag A X 26. nearest CAAC district office. C.149 knots. B X 27. operations manager (or director of operations). B X 23. the pilot in command must report it.5 hours 20 minutes.The same as at low elevation.. C.supersonic mach number B. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140. A X 28. as soon as practicable.9.. B.12. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. A X 24.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. expected holding speed.000 pounds? A. to the A. time. altitude/flight level. thrust decreases. ATC and dispatcher.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. [Refer to Figure 4-29.000 feet short of the end of a 5.000m. C.critical mach number C X 30. B. B. C.transonic mach number C. B. altitude/flight level. Ice pellets. B.500 pounds. A X 29. C.As air density decreases.136. In en route flight. temperatures is -48℃ A X 34.35 seconds B X 39. QFE A X 37. flight plan. From A to C then to D C. From A to B then to D B X 41.Request a new ATC clearance C. A.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. B. flight plan.change B. the wind direction. . Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A. B. West wind at 60 KT.Low gross weight.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. the CG will A. and weight and balance release. West wind at 24 KT... after the conflict is resolved C X 40. QNE B. C.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . QNH C. Advection fog. load manifest.Dispatch release.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation..not change C. It is most likely to occur when A.Dispatch release.Load manifest. temperatures is 48℃ C. Northwest wind at 60 KT.. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A.25 seconds B. C. the altimeter setting is A..may change or may not change A X 38. From A to B then to C B. C X 36. wind speed and temperatures is A. C. B. stationary front. A X 43.In flight .000 feet is closest to A. B X 42.33.as the time goes on . In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A.15 seconds C. Frontal fog. as ATS has radar contact B. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A. temperatures is -48℃ B. warm front.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 35. and flight plan.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.High density altitude. Radiation fog. B.. and flight release. (According to figure 6) The position of the upper jet is A.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory . C.153 knots and 2.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134.lift. [Refer to Figure 4-27.outward and forward B X 46.050 feet. RCLS.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.Radar and RVR. B X 51. and approach lights? A. C.VOR B.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.050 feet. C. and RVR. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi. C. B. the pilot can control the airplane's A.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.．If the authority gradient is too steep.400 feet.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.lift.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.C. marker beacons. B.123 knots and 3. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.138 knots and 3.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A. C.lift and airspeed. A X 52. B X 49.VOR and DME A X . airspeed.Lower-than-standard air density. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. B. C. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller.ADF C. B.950 feet.inward and aft B.. B. which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. C.Increased headwind component.RCLS and REIL C..the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 47. B X 53. and drag.By changing the angle of attack of a wing.inward and forward C.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. gross weight.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B..350 feet. but not drag.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A. TDZL.000 pounds? A..HIRL.1. and drag.050 feet. A X 45. cold front. C X 44. C X 48. B.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. A. C X 50. loss of.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C. C. it is necessary for A. C. C.244 feet.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B. B X 58.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. what was the approximate rate of descent? A.800 feet per minute. as ATC has radar contact B. C X 55.96 knots.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 57. or diminished.An increase in breathing rate C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 56. resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.900 feet.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII. B. B X 60.1. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C. B..110 knots.90 knots. A X 62. C. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. airspeed performance B. B. B.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A.780 feet per minute. pilot in command.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A. decreased takeoff distance C.increased visual field B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. air carrier's chief pilot.760 feet per minute.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 59. but a certificate is not required. B. C X . certificate holder.. B X 61.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.54.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A. C.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.496 feet.1. 1. Southwest wind at 14 KT. temperatures is -52℃ B. temperatures is -52℃ C X 68. B. The statement is )right B. spoilers and reversers at 140. B. pilot's activity level. Altitude. pitch. and whether the pilot smoking or not. climbing rate. regulations.Appropriate dispatch office C X 64. B.000 pounds gross weight? A.050 feet.Loud.1. pilot's A. C X 70.. Southwest wind at 35 KT.. pitch. B.. C X 65. C X 71.496 feet MSL. A X 66.63.Do not accept the clearance..85MHz. what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A. temperatures is 52℃ C. C. Altitude increase. (According to figure 6) At point B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.35MHz. B.. under normal conditions.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B. C. Northeast wind at 35 KT.124. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.Request a clarification from the ATC.1. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A. the wind direction.381 feet.Any FSS C.wrong A X 72. C. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A. Altitude..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.Read the clearance back entirely.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors. A X 67.398 feet.1.does the first thing that comes to mind. ..8MHz. and indicated airspeed decrease.127. and indicated airspeed increase.300 feet. and procedures as far as possible C.ARINC B.650 feet.1.026 feet.adopt all rules.118.(To be continued，health. B. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A. wind speed and temperatures is A. C. C X 69. [Refer to Figure 4-26. such as flight altitude. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1. C.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. Strong wind with haze B X 80. B. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative..May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.Neutral dynamic stability. B. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.Within the previous 12 calendar months.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. B X 78. C.800hours B. C.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A. for no more than A.In a light . B. braking action is "fair" B. B. braking action is "zero" C. Strong wind with sand C. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.. braking action is "100%" A X 74. B X 79.Positive dynamic stability.While flying IFR in controlled airspace. B X 76. C. in any calendar year. A. C X 73. North wind at 12 m/s.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Intermittent "bang.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.. if one of the two VOR receivers fails.900 hours C. B X 81. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. B. Advise ATC immediately." as backfires and flow reversals take place. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B.Within the previous 6 months.1000hours C X .Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. dust B. six ILS approaches. C. C. C X 77.Positive static stability.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. C X 75.Within the previous 6 months.C. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. . A X 83.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 86. B.reduced visual field C.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. C.FL 6.Departure airport. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. and identification number of the aircraft. . and trip number. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. altostratus or stratocumulus C. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. C X 85..300m. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. Thisclouds is referred as A. or attached to. B. which weather system we would encounter A. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings.10000 feet C. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 88. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.5000 feet B. A cold front and moderate icing C. intermediate stops. B.8000 feet A X 92. A X 87. before takeoff. C. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. C. weight and balance data.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A. B.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn. as PIC..FL 6.a feeling of euphoria A X 90. alternate airports. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 89.FL 600m. What information must be contained in.82. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. B. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C.Cargo load.000m. A X 84. B X 91. destinations.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C. A worm front and mountain waves B.several headache B. stratus or nimbostratus B. while operating under Part 121. an increase in airspeed will A. This effect begins at about A.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.000. B X 97.5 percent.Viscous hydroplaning.4 percent.500m.Reverted rubber hydroplaning.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. B..] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80.DH65m，RVR600 C. C X 96.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25. C.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.in an occluded front B..77.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1. and there is enough fuel remaining B X . which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A. B.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1.3 percent.Negative longitudinal static stability B.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C. C.behind a stationary front B X 95.Dynamic hydroplaning. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A. A X 99.500m.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 100.. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK. [Refer to Figure 4-32.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.A.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1. C X 94. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZUUU C.75. B.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion..ZSSS B.DH65m，RVR550 B X 93.600m.ahead of a cold front C.. B.79. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B. Which term describes the hydroplaning. A.ZWWW C X 98. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. VS. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation. B. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone .White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. continuation. diversion.Below FL180. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. Light fog C. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway. C. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.122.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 3. A X 9.4 1. These lines are A. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and director of operations.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. An alternate airport for departure is required A.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. Rain B.123.Invulnerability: C.0MHZ C.96 knots. C. C. B X 2. C. A.VSO.1MHz B. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from .the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.90 knots. B X 10.. A X 5. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.. B. Fog C X 8..Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C.6MHz B X 4.VS1. B X 6. B..Macho B..Impulsivity: C X 7.．"Do something quickly!".pilot in command and the flight follower.110 knots.pilot in command and chief pilot. C. B.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.122. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A. B..when destination weather is marginal IFR. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.. C X 11.Turbine inlet. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. each a different color. cumulostratus C.minimum fuel supply. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B.weather reports and forecasts.every 7 consecutive days B. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. B. C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. pitch. The descriptive cloud should be. green. C. C. Altitude. C. pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. B.each calendar week B X 18. C. red.C.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A. . red. B. Altitude.White inscriptions on a red background B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C. B X 19..Three light bar. and indicated airspeed decrease.. and amber.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 12.Three glide slopes.names of all crewmembers. B. A. C X 13.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. pitch. C. cumulus congestus B. A X 17. green. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.Red inscriptions on a white background C.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. and indicated airspeed increase. green. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B X 14. A X 16. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In flight. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.Fuel spray nozzles.Compressor discharge. and amber. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.Holding position signs have A. towering clouds C X 15. B.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. and amber.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. B.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 20.One light projector with three colors. Altitude increase. Middle compass locator. RCLS.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 25. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. B. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A.000 feet distance remaining B. and approach lights? A..The second in command only. 300 metres B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. B X 28.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3. A X 29.RCLS and REIL C.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. C.Inner marker. B.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 23. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 330 knots A X 27. and RVR. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. it can be condensed into six elements. The second E is A.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. using the acronym DECIDE.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control..000 meters.Request a clarification from the ATC. 900 metres C. B.Do not accept the clearance.Outer compass locator.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A. B X 24. B.Either pilot.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A. C X 30. . 3000 metres A X 26. marker beacons.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Read the clearance back entirely.000 feet from the end C. if they have a flight engineer certificate. 250 knots C. C.Signs with increments of 1.Any flight crewmember. if qualified.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. 150 knots B.. B.Radar and RVR.C X 21.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. C X 22.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. however. C. C.HIRL. TDZL. When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. downward and clockwise B. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot..decrease due to higher density altitude.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B. . ability.the caption's power. An outside air pressure decreases.. B. In northern sphere.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C. C X 38. or vice versa. inward. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 34. B X 32. C. or vice versa. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. upward and counterclockwise C X 33.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A. outward. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.496 feet MSL. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1.C X 31.8 feet.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 39. In a flight crew. upward and clockwise C. B. what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.. outward. C.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C.1. C. indicates A. ability. which weather system we would encounter A. C. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short..remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.I. C X 36. ability. C X 40.. B X 37.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.. B.398 feet.10 feet. thrust output will A. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign. A cold front and a upper jet B.Z. C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. the air cyclone circumfluence is A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.the caption's power. an apt arranging is A.loss of the vertical component of lift B.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight.Y. A X 35.12 feet.the caption's power. A worm front and a upper jet C. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. A worm front and mountain waves B.HIALS with PAPI.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. which weather system we would encounter A. pilot in command. B.026 feet. B X 46.12. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. B. B..4-51. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A..22.4-52.78 Mach? A.4-53. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. in the interest of safety. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. C. C X 41. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 44. B.Six B. C.HIALS. B. C X 49.G.093 feet.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. B X 48.VOR and DME A X 47.22.] What is the total fuel required at .An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions.1. C.123 feet. C.097 feet. .12..At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. C.381 feet. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. A cold front and moderate icing C. C. [Refer to Figures 4-50.972 pounds. B X 45. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3..At least one full stop landing must be made.Five C.. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.13.VOR B.R.PAPI. and 4-54. C.140 pounds.VOR and ILS C. B X 43. B X 50.Two B X 42. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. For scheduled airline.22.1.B. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A.556 pounds.S. lowest cruise speed. air carrier's chief pilot. C X .It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.DH65m，RVR600 C. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.the eyes B.9Gs B X 58. C X 51. A. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.VEF..It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. and least stability.Highest stall speed. B. B.V2. while operating under Part 121. highest cruise speed.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A. little or no wind.8 feet. as PIC.the proprioceptive system A X 52.1099.8 hPa A X 55.Lowest stall speed.998 hPa B. highest cruise speed..B. and highest stability.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.Lowest stall speed. A clear sky. and high relative humidity. C. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A.. the QNH for ZUUU is A. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.V1. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747. C.8 hPa C.10 feet.3Gs. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A. C. A X 59. B. A X 54. and least stability B.12 feet.999. certificate holder.. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. B X 57.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space. B.the inner C. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. C X 53.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. Moist. C. C. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.DH65m，RVR550 B X 56. C. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C.2Gs. .Increase in indicated airspeed. and all other operations conducted below 3. the altimeter should set on . irrespective of altitudes MSL. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.Increase speed. the commencement of initial approach A X 62.Decrease in indicated airspeed. C. enter TMA C. C X 69. B. B X 63. landing.the standard air pressure of the local station C. landing.Flaps. B. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A. C. descent. C. B X 68. .Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Of some designated point on the runway.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 61.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. approach. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. B X 64. B.Tabs.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 67.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.Decrease speed.60. C. the commencement of final approach B... takeoff.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B. both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A. an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. C X 66. and taxi operations. including cruise flight. Where provided. A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. taxi.. B.. C..During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B. B.000 meters MSL. B.Outboard ailerons.Maintain speed. A.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. C X 65.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency. C X 76. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. B X 79. B... vestibular and postural cues..What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.. C X 70. C. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. then alternate red and white lights to the end B. 7777. Coriolis deflecting force C X 72.processing information from the eyes. A X 74. 7500. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .the absorption of ground radiation by the air.FL 29. landing.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft.000 meters..Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.000 feet to 1.Alternate red and white lights from 3.100 feet.000 feet. taxi.C. B. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. C. C X 73. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.. C X 77. B. C.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.400 feet.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. Friction force. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.000 feet. Inertial centrifugal force C. takeoff. who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. B X 71. B. A.500 feet.Alternate red and white lights from3. B. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.FL 8. A. B X 75. C. excluding cruise flight. for a given runway? . B.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1.FL 39. B.by combining and comparing visual. C..What is the hijack code? A. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. and all other operations conducted below 3. C. then red lights to the end C.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A.processing information from the inner ear..000 feet to the end of the runway B X 78. 7200.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A. 600m and MDA 240m. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. B.342o.. MH 160°. C X 81.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.VOR/DME FIX B.000 pounds gross weight? A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.347o. C.descend 3℃ C. B. B. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. A plane.. for every 1..add slats C X 88. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG.".352o. C. A.. descend 2℃ B.. A X 84.Compass locator C X 86.Visibility 3. B.Visibility 2.000 feet increase in the troposphere.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. In average.800m and MDA 180m.Rotation speed.during the entire flight. descend 4℃ A X 83.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. LEFT TURNS... C X 85. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Parallel only C X .Surveillance radar C.. C. B. C.Teardrop only B.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.when the flight arrives. B X 82..500 feet. B.Accelerate-stop distance.Direct only C.150 feet. C. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2. give the wing a lower camber B. C.1.000m and MDA 120m. increase wing sweep.A. C. A X 80. C X 87.000m and MDA 120m.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114..not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.Critical engine failure speed.Visibility 2. the temperature of the air will . receive this ATC clearance: ".300 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-25.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. the heading indicator should indicate A. B. over the airport. A. Ice pellets. C.500 feet over the airport. 30 minutes at holding speed.Stop way. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 93.25 seconds B.89. C. Freezing rain. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude. Descend to MEA and.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30. B.45 seconds C.Clearway.-Drag and reduce airspeed. what action is required? A.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. B.flight engineer or navigator. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A. at 1. A X . proceed to the nearest appropriate airport.1 minute B X 92. C. B. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. if clear of clouds. From 08Z to 22Z. C. B X 95. From 14Z to 22Z B X 97. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. what is the valid period of time. at cruising speed.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period.any flight crewmember. C X 91. B. C. A X 90.-L/Dmax.Obstruction clearance plane. If not clear of clouds. C. or to the MEA. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA.000 feet is closest to A.-Lift at low speeds. wet snow. 30 minutes. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. B. whichever is higher.. B X 96.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A. Fly the most direct route to the destination.. at 1. C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C..500 feet.any required pilot crewmember. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. B. A X 94. C.10 hours B. C. and ability to climb 50 ft/min.6 .Heading.Except during an emergency. B.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. B. B.98. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. A X 6. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A. When cleared for an IFR approach B. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. A X 100. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation. C. B. C. C X 5. B X 2.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. then repeat. When piloting a large. .Do not accept the clearance.16 hours A X 99.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.14 hours C. C.Heading. first serve basis. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. C X 5 1. on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot). on a firs-come. twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A. then 1 minute outside scanning.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. including military what has a crash an rescue unit.Read the clearance back entirely. altitude.1 minute inside scanning. then inside for 5 seconds.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. A X 4.Heading and altitude. heavy aircraft. B. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A..What performance should a pilot of a light. the pilot should A. In turn. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.In a light . Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. Land at the nearest airport..looking outside for 15 seconds. then repeat. C. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. B X 3. Three C. any exit. C. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.12. B.SPECIS. C. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. A X 10.DME C X 15..International Notices To Airmen A X 14. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.097 feet. A.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.Maintain a constant attitude.093 feet. braking action is "nil" C X 13. If severe turbulence is encountered. B. SIGMETS. . or use of. 8 to 9 km B. B.SIGMETS. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.12 C X 7.7 C.70 Marh. on a multiengine aircraft B. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. C..123 feet. PIREP'S and AIRMETS. braking action is "zero" C. B X 12.METARS. B.13.Two A X 16.M0070. C. NOTAM'S.Airborne radar C.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace.15 to 17 km B X 11. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. A X 8.M070. (Refer to Figure 6-3.070M..Maintain a constant altitude. 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. which procedure is recommended? A. any aisle in the passenger compartment. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. braking action is "fair" B.One engine.. and AIRMETS. B X 9.Four B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. .12. when there is almost no the braking action? A.10 to 12 km C. or use of.B. B. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. Pilot in command. to the Administrator within A. LEFT TURNS. lowest cruise speed.C. B. C..114. AWW's.DH 50 feet and RVR 1. 10 days. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A. B. and least stability B. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C X 20. A X 17.Convective SIGMETS. B.Director of operations or flight follower.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.Highest stall speed.DH 150 feet and RVR 1. flight engineer. C. MH 300°. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions.Parallel only B X 19. weather. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails. B. and highest stability.Only a pilot. 24 hours. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. the certificate holder must submit a report.Aircraft dispatcher.Lowest stall speed. B X 25.200 feet.". and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A. B. highest cruise speed. B. C. highest cruise speed. B X 23.Lowest stall speed.200 feet. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. PIREPS. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A. 5 days. and least stability.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.. A X 22.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A. B.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. C X 18. C.. C.7MHz. and adverse conditions. concerning the incident.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.DH 100 feet and RVR 1. A X 21. C.entering approach controlled airspace.127.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.Direct only C..A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. A X 26. or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. the flight must be able to .Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.. A plane.Teardrop only B.6KHz.. C..127.500 feet. C. receive this ATC clearance: ". B X 24.6MHz.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A. . Increased landing rollout. B X 28. B. B.000 pounds.A runway Boundary Sign C.10 feet. B. The PIC has 1.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.876 hours and 298 landings. B. B X 34. B. A X 35.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.A. while operating under Part 121. When advection fog has developed. what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. A X 32.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C. C.An increase in dynamic stability. B.MDH120m.VIS1600m.500 feet short of the end of a 4.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 29. C.000 pounds. B. B X 31.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. Temperature inversion. A.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.VIS1600m. A X 27.139..VIS2400m. Wind stronger than 15 konts. Landing short of the runway threshold.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B. C.. C. C X 30. Surface radiation. B..Alcohol has an adverse effect. B.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.119.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.136. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. C. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.000 pounds. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87. A hard landing. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.8 feet. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.MDH100m. especially as altitude increases. A X 33.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. A. C X 40. B.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.Surveillance radar C.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. but not drag. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C. B X 44.2015Z. B.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 45. spoilers and reversers at 140.Zero fuel weight: 126. [Refer to Figure 4-37. gross weight. airspeed. and drag.1. C. B.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.Compass locator C X 42. A X 36.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 38. C X 41. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. [Refer to Figure 4-26.By changing the angle of attack of a wing.S9000.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? . what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. B.14 minutes.000 lb A. C.1. C.lift.500 lb.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. the pilot can control the airplane's A. and drag.Negative longitudinal static stability B...lift and airspeed.000 meters. B X 37. C X 39. C.VOR/DME FIX B.050 feet.000 pounds gross weight? A.C. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer..] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes. C. B.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181.12 feet.15 minutes. C. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z.13 minutes.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B. and experiences a delay.1945Z.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.0045Z.lift.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. C X 43.650 feet. B.300 feet. C. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.M0900. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C..300 feet. no further action is necessary C. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.A.VFC.VMU.750 feet. B. [Refer to Figure 4-26. B. A X 53. B. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period..] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach.000 pounds? A. 150 knots B X 54. Squawk 7600. C. B. Notify ATC immediately. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. is normally limited to A. B.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C. B X 52. C. 170 knots C. B. 200 knots B. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.A and B C X 47. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. the wind direction usually changes . A Category II ILS pilot authorization. . when originally issued.from left crosswind to right crosswind. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 48.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. A X 50. B. C X 46.VMD. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. C.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A. B X 49.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. what action is required? A. C.. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above.100 feet.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 51... C.from headwind to tailwind. A. Snow and rain C. such as cirrus. pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A. B X 61. B... (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL. what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A. B. B.1.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350.193 feet. A X 56. B. C. B X 60. At lower levels of the atmosphere.35MHz.496 feet. decreases pressure gradient force.C.780 feet per minute. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. C. B X 58. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport.In altocumulus cloud.121. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.in high clouds.308 feet..127.85MHz. A X 62..Final approach fix.. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 57.Higher than pressure altitude.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 55.244 feet. A X 63. fuel burn.900 feet. C. C.65MHz.124. A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.1. C. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. C. B.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA..．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. A X 64.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.. . B. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.Adhere to standard operating procedures. B.The first holding pattern level.760 feet per minute. B. C. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction.600m AGL. what was the approximate rate of descent? A. etC．as far as possible.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.800 feet per minute.200 feet. C X 59. C.in cumliform clouds B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots. Strong wind with shower B. Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A. C.WEIGHT (*1000): 100.01 EPR. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0630z. A.223 knots and 2. B. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. C X 68.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C. B X 69.83 EPR.114. C X 71. C.95 knots. C.7MHz.100 knots.R-175 . B.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.B X 65.. C X 67. B.514MHz. A X 73.113. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines. B X 66.217 knots and 1.Amber lights for the first 2. C. B.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. C.1 NAV? A. as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B...] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.000 feet of runway..HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.May all be erased. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO. B. B X 72. C X 74.0600z. B.000. C.．The blind spot is A..6MHz.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A. B.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.RVR 200m. [Refer to Figure 4-34. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.RVR 250m. B. B X 70. C.95 EPR.RVR 400m.90 knots.221 knots and 1. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating? A. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.Identify REIL.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.0700z.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. if enough fuel A.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. B X .-rate will decrease and radius will increase.18 hours A X 80. A X 79. C X 82. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea.000 pounds gross weight? A. C.R-165 C.Over domestic and open sea. C.200 feet. B X 76. B X 78.Over domestic only.4.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1. B X 81.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. B.8hours B X 77. B..Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.Increase speed. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.17 hours C. A X 83.. C.750 feet.10hours C.500 feet. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China...Maintain speed. [Refer to Figure 4-25. C.I. C. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust..4. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A. B.Z.R-345 C X 75.12hours B. B.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B.Decrease speed.Rate and radius will increase.16hours B. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A. C. B.4. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier. C.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.B. RVR 800m and DH 60m. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A.700 pounds.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. the pilot should A. B. B.RVR 1.700 pounds. B.. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. C X 85.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.500 pounds gross weight. C X 90. B. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. Select another type of navigation aid. C. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A. C..If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach . B.13. flaps 30o.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C.. C. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A. [Refer to Figure 4-27.. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. 150 knots C X 92. B X 86.Use of three reversers at 124. B.600m and DH 120m.000 pounds.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory .10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month. with gear down.17. C. .Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A. B X 91.16. C. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. or airway specified in the vector clearance. what action should be taken? A.84. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B X 87.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. route. B. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. C X 88. C. [Refer to Figure 4-29..200 pounds.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C X 89. Fly direct to a fix. Air route traffic control center. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. [Refer to Figure 4-27. C. C. A X 99. A.from east to west B.Aircraft dispatcher.180 pounds.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. B X 95.74. C. B. B X 6 . B.350 feet.000 pounds gross weight.200 meters.400 pounds.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.950 feet.S1020.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .. B.74..Use of three reversers at 120. C X 98.from west to east C.000.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77.000 pounds? A. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°.Opposite direction. Who is responsible. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A. C.9 only C.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134. By regulation.L1020. A X 100.Remains fixed for all positions. C.000 pounds gross weight. B.9and6 B.DISTANCE (NM): 70. and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher.Director of operations..6 only A X 96.F1020.1.400 feet.B. A X 93.from north to south A X 94.73.Company meteorologist. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.. B. C. [Refer to Figure 4-41. A X 97.Director of operations.000 pounds.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.Same direction. by regulation. C. Limiting compressor speed.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. B. C...(To be continued，efficient flight operation.150 feet. occasional light chop. stationary front. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude.. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. as PIC. C X . A X 5.VIS1600m. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. head windshear B.wrong A X 9.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight. i. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. C. By convective mixing in cool night air. B. procedures and people. C X 8. B.. the accuracy of the GPS derived A. C. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.. B. A. equipment. If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds. C.DA110m.000 pounds gross weight? A.VIS1600m B X 2. A. B. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. it will encounter___. Moderate chop. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. C. C. Intermittent light turbulence. vertical windshear C X 3. [Refer to Figure 4-25. A.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources.1. B. B. The statement is)right B. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .Limiting torque.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. for this PIC?)_DA63m. turbulence C. C X 10.. By wind or the movement of air... B. warm front.1.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). B X 7. cold front.RVR550m.e. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. Position is not affected C.300 feet.DA93m.500 feet.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. C. A X 6. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 4. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. to achieve a safe and A. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 13.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. C X 18.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating.500 lb A.clear. Just prior to takeoff.. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.stratonimbus. B X 17.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A. and he can realize that the current weather may be A. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.FL 10. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. thrust decreases. B.14 minutes.11.. but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. 350 knots B. thrust increases. B. C. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. light rain. B. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A. C. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport. C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. 250 knots C X 16.. C. [Refer to Figure 4-37.000 meters..The critical Mach number will increase significantly. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.FL 8. A X 12. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. A X 14. thrust increases.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. C.thunderstorm.As air density increases.16 minutes. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.As air density decreases.FL 39. B.100 feet.17 minutes.400 feet. poor visibility A X 20.. good visibility C. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the .Zero fuel weight: 125.What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. C.As air density increases. B X 19. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.100 feet.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C. high wind.500 lb.. shower and high wind B. B. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. 330 knots C. B. C X 15.. which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A.. Dizziness. C. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29. B X 30.2Gs. C. B. B X 25. C. . shallow breathing. A X 21.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A. by the applicant. B. what was the approximate rate of descent? A.To protect military activities only. making passenger announcements C.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin. include that A.1Gs.4Gs C X 26.Rapid.To protect science tests only.900 feet. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10. and ASR.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.900 feet. B. B. B.800 feet per minute. C. B.F1020. B X 23. the load factor is A.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.200 meters. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A. C.certificate holder's operations specifications. . maintenance.L1020.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C. C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.ASR and PAR. B. PAR. C.138 knots and 3.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.153 knots and 2. C X 29.S1020. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. which taxi way can an aircraft use? A.Compass locator..760 feet per minute..900 feet.1.A.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree .183 knots and 2. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight..The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.Activities. B. dispatch. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.A and B C X 22. B X 28...780 feet per minute.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate. ATC. C X 24.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. etC． C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. both a and b C X 27. filling out logs B. 80. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane.90 knots.700 pounds. Dorsal fin B X 40.96 knots.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. Elevator C. Slats B.3.WIND COMPONENT: 60HW. C X 39.. B. [Refer to Figure 4-41.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). B X 31.600 pounds.dose not change A X 38. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.3940 feet.850 pounds.. C.85.1360 feet. C.The point cleared by ATC. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).85MHz.D38 to HUAIROU.B.121..000. C. C. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A. C. B X 35.000m. A X 32.Decrease C. B.9.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.A runway Boundary Sign . B.Improves B.000m. B. the stability A. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller.124. C.12. C. A X 33.110 knots.127.65MHz.HUAILAI.77. C.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87.As the CG is moved forward. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.35MHz.100m. C X 34.. . A X 36.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.3842 feet. B. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. B.DISTANCE (NM): 370. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. C X 37.. B. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A. flight plan.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. B. thrust increases....pilots. C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 41. but do not include flight attendants.As altitude increases. A X 49.Dispatch release.As altitude increases. B..Dispatch release.25 minutes. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. flight plan..1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 109 NAM.Tabs. and flight release. C.As altitude decreases.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. thrust decreases.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.TCAS I provides A.only pilots B. C X 46.Parallel only C X 44. C X 50. thrust decreases.Immediately after ground contact. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X .Outboard ailerons.24 minutes. C X 45. B. receive this ATC clearance: ". load manifest. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.Immediately prior to touchdown.After applying maximum wheel braking. C. B X 47.Proximity warning C. and weight and balance release...Flaps.. C.". B.C..all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.Traffic and resolution advisories B. both a and b C X 48. C. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. and flight plan. first serve basis. 125 NAM. B. during emergency C.Teardrop only B. C X 43. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. A plane.Load manifest.23 minutes. 118 NAM. B. C.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. flight engineers and batmen. navigators. on a first-come.Direct only C.. MH 160°. B.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. A X 42. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. . C X 53. . (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90.500 feet.Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.VIS800m. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C.DH200'. B.7 minutes. A. B.Takeoff decision speed.9 minutes. C.000 pounds? A.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 115. C. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B.54.59.Positive static stability. C X 60. for what maximum time is this document valid? A. B.DH20'. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 55. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate.Pilot in command. B.Neutral dynamic stability.1 C.2. B.58.1 minutes. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.. A.120 days. C. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.Director of operations or flight follower. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.Positive dynamic stability.90 days.. C. During a supplemental air carrier flight.51.60 days. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. at their alternate aerodromes C. at their destinations B. C.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. B X 57. The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities_______________. B X 54.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A.2 B X 56. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 58.800 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-28.DH300'. A and B C X 59. [Refer to Figure 4-45.700 feet.VIS1600m.It moves with the weather system.. A.. B..Aircraft dispatcher. B X 61.RVR550m. B X 52.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. C.8 B. with gear down. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A.white. dust B. B X 66.4-52.900 feet.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.. Strong wind with haze B X 70.15 days ago.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.000 pounds.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.700 pounds. B X 69.25 days ago.. B.Minimum takeoff speed.increase profile drag. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A. C.000 pounds if flaps are not used? A. flaps 30o. B.16.green. C.blue. [Refer to Figure 4-29. C.decrease rate of sink. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A. North wind at 12 m/s. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.900 feet. and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A. B X 62.13. B.1.22. B X 68.. B. B X 65.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. C X 63.prevent flow separation. B.7 days ago. B X 71.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29. A X 67.. C. B.700 pounds.153 knots and 2.900 feet. B. B. C.B.000 feet. B X 64.17.972 pounds.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.138 knots and 3.] What is the total fuel required at . . C. C.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.Increasing speed or altitude. and 4-54.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140.556 pounds.140 pounds.4-51.22. Strong wind with sand C.000 pounds gross weight? A. C.78 Mach? A.200 pounds.183 knots and 2. [Refer to Figures 4-50.22...4-53. C.Takeoff safety speed. 1.FL 6. C X 81. [Refer to Figure 4-26..1.050 feet.VOR and ILS C. B X 80.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.300m.300 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around.VOR B. how much is the intercept heading? A.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. B. C X 72.000 pounds gross weight? A. [Refer to Figure 4-27. B. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A..000 pounds? A. no further action is necessary C. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure.1.The first holding pattern altitude. B. C X 79. C.500 feet. . C.40 seconds B.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. C.3 minutes C.950 feet.53o. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A.. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.300 feet.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 76.FL 6. C X 77.VOR and DME A X 73. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? . C.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C. A X 78. B.000m. B.233o.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C..400 feet. spoilers and reversers at 140.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions.. A X 75.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 74.350 feet.B. B. At the EFC time.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.143o.650 feet. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A. Zero fuel weight: 126.Fuel spray nozzles.500 lb. B X 88.A. C. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A. B X 83. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). B. flight release.jet thrust only. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.1 month.15 minutes. C.240KHz. B X 84. B.. clockwise inbound wind B. B.3 months.counter clockwise outbound wind C. B. . B. C.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.-Lift at low speeds.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight.114.propeller thrust only. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.13 minutes.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. At the Poles. C. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A. A X 82.-L/Dmax.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. the wind of low pressure area is .. A X 85. A X 90. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere. four-engine. C. B. [Refer to Figure 4-37. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A..The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. airworthiness release. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large. and flight plan? A. C.12 months. C X 87.7MHz.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181.Turbine inlet. A. B.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 86.000 lb A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A. At the Equator.Compressor discharge. B X 89. B. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest. C. pilot route certification..14 minutes.308KHz... 9.2..-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.. C. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A..Parallel only C X 95.smoking and alcohol B. temperatures is 52℃ C.680 pounds.Teardrop only B. C X . C X 96. Southwest wind at 35 KT.Direct only C.504 pounds.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. A plane.926 pounds..C. C. B. temperatures is -52℃ C X 99. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 93.9.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A. wind speed and temperatures is A. The statement is)right B.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.trust you personal opinion.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. (According to figure 6) At point B. Northeast wind at 35 KT. at the same time.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24. [Refer to Figure 4-45. C X 91.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B. B.06 EPR.fatigue C. C.. B.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.10 EPR..". Smoke B.9. Southwest wind at 14 KT.2. C X 98. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600.both A and B C X 94. Sand C. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew..115 EPR...．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A. the wind direction. Sand storm B X 92.wrong A X 97. receive this ATC clearance: ".2. MH 300°.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. temperatures is -52℃ B. C. .-Lift at low speeds. B X 6.360 feet.Read the clearance back entirely. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. C X 7 1.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A. C. C. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.245 feet. B.100. C.. B.11 B. stratus or nimbostratus B. flat and gray bottoms with light rain.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.5 and 13 C. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. Sand C. Wind shear warning B.-Drag and reduce airspeed. Aerodrome warning C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A. before takeoff. B..Request a clarification from the ATC. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.762 feet. the altitude of LOM is 1. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.1. B.360 feet.. B. Smoke B.262 feet.Do not accept the clearance.1.870 feet.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye..．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B X 2.-L/Dmax.. Sand storm B X 4. B X 7. C X 5.1.7and 11 B X 9. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 3. Hazardous weather warning A X 8.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. altostratus or stratocumulus C. C.. Thisclouds is referred as A. A X 12.N.3. C X . You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. B. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR.500 feet. A X 17. B X 18. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available. B.755 feet. B X 11.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 15.Dispatch Release. A X 14. It refer to A.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Z. B.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. wind.Higher than at low elevation. and 3000 m at other time B... C. C.Operations Specifications.Lower than at low elevation.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature.Y.000 feet B. B. A. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C. back to the departure airport.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C.000 feet C.The same as at low elevation. C.Operating Certificate. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. and airplane weight? A. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 10. You are considered clear of runway when A..S.G.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making.. C.2.(according to figure 2). the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. B. 5000 m above at other time A X 13.3. A X 19. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. C. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .C.I.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 16. B X 29.1952Z.1MHz B. A X 28. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A. and 4-24.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. it is necessary for A. B X 23. Advise ATC immediately. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. At lower levels of the atmosphere. A X 27.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A. C.6MHz B X 26.. B. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B. C. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.1922Z.06 EPR. if they have a flight engineer certificate.122.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.09 EPR. B. B. A X 24.Either pilot. if qualified.While flying IFR in controlled airspace.Any flight crewmember. A.The second in command only. C X 21. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. [Refer to Figures 4-22.．After been in exposed to normal lighting.Below FL180.5 minutes.122. if one of the two VOR receivers fails. C X 25.2. C.20.0022Z. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A.. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. C.123.2.30 minutes B. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. B. A X 22. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.07 EPR. C.2. C.1 hours C.0MHZ C. C. decreases pressure gradient force.. . 430 pounds.．What illusion. 118 NAM. if any. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. C. B X 38.2.Does not cause illusions. and high relative humidity. B X 39.2.1.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. vestibular and postural cues. can rain on the windscreen create? A. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. C.400 pounds. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B.processing information from the eyes. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport. B.C. C X 30.(To be continued 考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m.(1-1) At a waypoint . C. C X 31. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.VIS1600m.All turbine powered airplanes B.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 32. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. 113 NAM. 110 NAM.VIS1600m.processing information from the inner ear.000 feet C. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. C. B. C.490 pounds. C X 36.500 feet B X 37. A..Higher than actual.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. C X 34. B.Lower than actual. B.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B.. C. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.MDH120m. C X 33.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B. B.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A. but a certificate is not required.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C...by combining and comparing visual. little or no wind. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. A X 35. Moist.000 feet B. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A.. C X .Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. C.1.MDH100m.1. A clear sky.VIS2400m.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed.1. .Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. is normally limited to A. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.From. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A..Below. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. C.10 hours B.16 hours A X 47. A X 46. C X 45.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. what airspeed should be maintained? A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. FL 200.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A. B.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. Mach. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. C..75 Mach. C. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling.20 Mach.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. B.Alcohol has an adverse effect.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A. C. B. on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot).5.20 to 2. C. A X 49. A X 44.VYSE. FL 180. A X 48. C. B X 43.40. B. C X . hypoxia. Descending to the surface and then outward. especially as altitude increases. A Category II ILS pilot authorization.75 to 1.VXSE.Dispatcher.Air Traffic Controller.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration. B X 41. B.Pilot-in-command.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. B. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time. B X 42.VMC. B.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. FL 250.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.1. C.From.14 hours C. when originally issued. B. Uneven heat on the ground C X 59.000 meters? A.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. B.Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Rising terrain C. C X 55.One light projector with three colors. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A. an unstable lapse rate.(To be continued，engine which failed.139. and sufficient water vapor. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C.000 pounds. each a different color.136. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. red. B. C.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A. B.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 51. 210 knots C..What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine. and amber. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. B.119. an initial lifting force. B X 56..expectancy producing a mental block C. B X 58.50.Three glide slopes..ZWWW C X 54. and amber. 250 knots B. green. C. C X 52. sufficient water vapor and front area B X . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.. green.increased visual field B.ZUUU C.. C.. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.. green. [Refer to Figure 4-25.000 pounds. only to find that it was the right A.ZSSS B.000 pounds.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 57. and amber. 200 knots B X 53.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A.500 feet short of the end of a 4.An increase in breathing rate C. red.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.Three light bar. use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.000 feet B. B. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA.1. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A. C X 66..TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.100 feet. C X 61. B. Descend to MEA and.000 feet A X 68.4 percent.difference training.86. B. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport.500 feet C. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? .1.F1020. and landing.000 meters.200 meters..1. B.2. whichever is higher.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142.0 percent. takeoff.S1020. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. Fly the most direct route to the destination. climb and descent when below 3. C..transition training.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.750 feet. If not clear of clouds.60.2.000 meters. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. A X 63... Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude. climb and descent when below 3. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia. takeoff. B.87. B. [Refer to Figure 4-32. the most appropriate remedy would be A.000.83.L1020. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35. C. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. B X 64. C.500 feet. A X 65. C.upgrade training..500 pounds? A. or to the MEA. and landing. if clear of clouds. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 69. taxi.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 62. [Refer to Figure 4-28. Rain and fog C.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100. B X 67. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. C. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10.2.4 percent. C.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. HIALS with PAPI.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. A.Five B. A. B.ADF C.VOR and DME A X 73.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. A X 72. C. moist air. .the airplane rides on standing water. or structural damage occurs. B. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. C. B. Coriolis deflecting force C X 75. B X 71. C.R-165 C. Friction force.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction.R-175 B.Two A X 78..．If the authority gradient is too steep. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 76.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.Four C.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. . Inertial centrifugal force C. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3. B." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm. When distress conditions such as fire..What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A..A. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. C.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. B X 77.Amber lights replace white on the last 2.1 NAV? A.VOR B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus.R-345 C X 74. mechanical failure.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 70. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B. 10 to 12 km C. C. going to or from a duty. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines. braking action is "fair" B. C. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. 8 to 9 km B. ZHHH B X 83. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere.15 to 17 km B X 81. B. braking action is "100%" A X 84. ..considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.Limiting exhaust gas temperature.. C X 80. which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. C.RVR 300m. B. B.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. braking action is "zero" C. B. little or no wind. and high relative humidity. ZUUU C. Moist. A clear sky.HIALS.. A X 86. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A.not considered to be part of a rest period.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.PAPI. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low.RVR 400m.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals.How dose deadhead transportation. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A. At the poles. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. C X 87.. A X 79.Limiting torque. C. At the equator. B X 88.B. A. C. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A.. B. ZSSS B. (According to figure 2) . B..An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. C X 82.. B X 85. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.. C.Limiting compressor speed. Five C. thrust decreases.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.Instrument Control Regulation. off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A. thrust decreases. an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. . enter TMA C. C X 95. C. low-pulsing red. low-pulsing red. on glidepath-steady white.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A. low-pulsing red. route weather advisories.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? .Visual Flight Regulation. B. C.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. and altitude B.C. [Refer to Figure 4-34.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A. 6 calendar months.Six B. thrust increases.000.High-pulsing white. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. Radar vectors for traffic separation. B. B X 96.950 pounds.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A.1. C.High-pulsing white. A X 90. B.High-pulsing white. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. and receipt of position reports. Where provided. B. B. B.625 pounds.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. A. on glidepath-green.1.ALTITUDE: 35. the commencement of final approach B...Approach Control Regulation. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight. 12 calendar months.Two B X 93.As temperature decreases.As temperature increases.460 pounds..HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. C. C. A X 92. C X 97. on course and on glidepath-steady white.2. the commencement of initial approach A X 94.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.As temperature increases. Severe weather information .RVR 250m.changes in flight plans. intended route of flight.. C. C X 91. and altimeter settings. C X 89.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. slightly below glide slope steady red. 4-53. B.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.1 hours 02 minutes. FL250 C X 2.] What is the ETE at . . C. B X 3. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. prior to flight conducted above A. by the applicant.0600z. an airplane may be dispatched only A. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.0700z.In VFR conditions C.400 feet. C. A X 6. C. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given. FL200 B.0630z.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight..FL 10.What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A.12 feet. 4-50.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B. FL240 C.certificate holder's operations specifications. B. B X 4. C. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A. C. [Refer to Figures 4-49. B.FL 39.4-51.FL 8. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B X 5. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. A X 100. A X 8 1.8 feet.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. and 4-54.4-52.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.In day VFR conditions C X 99. B. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.C.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate. B X 98. There is an inversion with colder air below.100 feet. 24 calendar months.trip number and weight and balance data. C.. instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization.100 feet.10 feet.. B..80 Mach? A. B. however. C X 7. C.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C. A X 8.Increase altitude for a headwind. decrease altitude for a tailwind.Increase speed for a tailwind.a steep authority gradient C. B. C.．Hypoxia may be caused by A.1 hours 04 minutes. Advise ATC immediately.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. the air cyclone circumfluence is A.In a light .flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X . B.hemoglobin C X 15.. outward. upward and clockwise C.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. In northern sphere.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A. The first E is A.the red blood cells B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance.. B. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A. A X 10.1 hours 07 minutes. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A. inward.B.a too shallow authority gradient B. it can be condensed into six elements. C.Evaluate the effect of the action C. B X 14.While flying IFR in controlled airspace. upward and counterclockwise C X 13.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. B X 12.the plasma C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance.Increase speed for a headwind. if one of the two VOR receivers fails. outward.fly with a head cold B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. B. C. downward and clockwise B.a participatory leader A X 9. using the acronym DECIDE.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 11. increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. B.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A. in point of time.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24. B. C. B X 21.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. A. B. C. C X 19.Area flight information center. C X 25.16.Airport flight information office. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. 150 knots B X 23. 170 knots C.10 EPR. thrust output will A. C. Low cloud and perhaps icing B.CCAFC.prevent flow separation. Snow shower A X 17..2. Strong wind with bad visibility C. C X 20.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B.decrease rate of sink. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.2. B X 18. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? .06 EPR.115 EPR.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. C X 22. at which a safe landing can be made.. C. C..2.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. C.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.increase profile drag.decrease due to higher density altitude. 200 knots B.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. An outside air pressure decreases. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A. C. B. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. B.. B. must land at the nearest suitable airport. A X 24. the pilot in command A. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. B. what action is required? A. fuel burn.000 pounds gross weight. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. and a statement of the type of operation.5. C.000 pounds? A. C.000 pounds.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. B.600-foot icy runway? A.000.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.000 pounds gross weight. C.400 feet.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125. At the Equator.120.000 pounds. B.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. C X 35. At the Poles.850 feet. C. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. B....The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours . [Refer to Figure 4-27. C..128.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A.01 EPR. B.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule. A X 29. B X 26. C X 31. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. A X 33.TCAS I provides A. [Refer to Figure 4-34.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.Adhere to standard operating procedures. It should be reported without ATC request that A. B.000 pounds.81 EPR. C. C X 34. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B.62 EPR. etC．as far as possible. C. C. A X 30.A.223 knots and 2. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute.Minimum fuel supply and trip number.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Use of three reversers at 133..] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.Use of three reversers at 131.1.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4.200 feet. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).219 knots and 1. A X 28. [Refer to Figure 4-25.000 pounds gross weight. B..Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 32.124.216 knots and 1. B.900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. C.Proximity warning C. [Refer to Figure 4-27. A X 27. B.129. which procedure is recommended? A. B. B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 36.. A X 43.FL 6.B. A X 40.000 feet short of the end of a 4.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust..134..000 pounds. . If severe turbulence is encountered.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C..a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃.propeller thrust only.FL 6.124.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C. and load manifests for at least A.Sleepiness or frequent yawning A X 38.500 pounds.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.10 feet. C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 37. C.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.Maintain a constant altitude.6 months. B. B.30 days.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.300m. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A. B.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. B. B X 39.900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. B X 42.12 feet.The first holding pattern altitude.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.increased visual field B. [Refer to Figure 4-26.An increase in breathing rate C. C. C. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. C.. A X 44.8 feet. B X 41. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. A X 45.turbine inlet temperature.000m. C.500 pounds.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B. dispatch releases.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.3 months. 10 feet.Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Moist.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.12 feet.Aircraft dispatcher. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and .the receiver's expectancy A X 48.Maintain a constant attitude. B X 51. without VASI assistant. Who is responsible. B X 46.FL158. C. C X 47.high environmental noise levels B. C X 52. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A. B. B. C.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.FL128. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o.Same direction. Embedded thunderstorms.Director of operations. B X 49..8 feet. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A. B.. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 50. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. A clear sky.attitude may be lower than it appears.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.B.Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the otolith B X 53. light turbulence C.Do not accept the clearance. C X 55.FL138. Cumulonimbus clouds. by regulation.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. B X 56. surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 54. C.Company meteorologist. severe turbulence B.Opposite direction.. B.. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B.. joints and tendons C. little or no wind. and high relative humidity. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.. C. External factors include A. C. C.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal.Remains fixed for all positions.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway.Read the clearance back entirely.the semicircular canals B. B.the skeletal muscles. C. severe icing. C.Request a clarification from the ATC. Normally.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. wet snow.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept... 30 degrees. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track.6MHz.114. A X 62. and least stability. 40 degrees.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.. B X 65.. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A. C X 61. and sufficient water vapor. B.5 km A X 66. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A. winter and autumn. A. summer and autumn..reached the cruising IAS. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.adopt all rules. 2 km C. C.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C. C.. B X 63.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory . after the conflict is resolved C X 64. and procedures as far as possible C. B. an unstable lapse rate.received an ATC clearance.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.) 30 degrees. 1. Ice pellets.113. highest cruise speed.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 58.does the first thing that comes to mind. C. an initial lifting force.Lowest stall speed.514MHz. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.Highest stall speed.A. and highest stability.Lowest stall speed. C X 57. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A. and least stability B. regulations.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation. B. C. 2 km B. C.entered VFR weather conditions. Radiation fog usually appears in . spring and summer. lowest cruise speed.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. highest cruise speed.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B. Freezing rain.Request a new ATC clearance C. C.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. A X 59. as ATS has radar contact B. B. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than .7MHz. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 60.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A. 732 pounds.6 hours.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. C.1.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.138 knots and 3. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A.1.High-speed flight only. C. C. four-engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. B. B. C. B X 68.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers.Low-speed and high-speed flight.White inscriptions on a red background B.900 feet.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. B X 70. A. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A..153 knots and 2..023 pounds. C. B. B.. B. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.Low-speed flight only.K0850. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C.Holding position signs have A. B. B. In the Northern hemisphere.440 pounds. B X 75. under which of the following conditions. spring in northern areas. A X 73. C X 74.850.0850K. summer in northern areas. C. B. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.183 knots and 2. C. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west.A.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. A X 69.000. B X 72. spring in southern areas. C X .900 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-34.8 hours.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140..ENGINES OPERATING: 2..5. C.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. B.Red inscriptions on a white background C. C X 67.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 71.7 hours.900 feet. Lower than at low temperature. C.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A. right turn. C. A X 80.Intersecting runways C X 82. B. B X 78.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100. A X 83..Climb straight ahead to 990 feet.3000m.500 feet B X 85.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C... For an airport with only one set of VOR approach.5%. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation.76.1. what is the corresponding rate of descent? A. C.000 meters.2%.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB. and airport elevation? A.16. B. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.3. right turn.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.800m. Strong wind with sand C.500 feet B.000 feet C. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A.700 feet. C. Strong wind with haze B X 77.5.Climb straight ahead to L NDB. B.18.. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.8%. North wind at 12 m/s.4.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B. B.Higher than at low temperature..Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 81. C X 84..WING ANTI-ICE: ON.600 feet. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. B.5.19. Sand C. dust B. then select HUR VOR.2. [Refer to Figure 4-39. wind. if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2. C.2.. A X .2.The same as at low temperature.400 feet.600m. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A. Sand storm B X 79.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B. then select HUR VOR. Smoke B. 86.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 87.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,000 feet. C.2,350 feet. B X 88.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 89.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected? A.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 90.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 91. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 93.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 94.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 95.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2.01 EPR. B.2.03 EPR. C.2.04 EPR. B X 96.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 97.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. A X 98.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 99.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 100.. What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine? A.Thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density. B.Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher. C.Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air. A X 9 1.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 2.. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B X 3..Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus. B X 4. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. A X 5.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 6.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 7. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B X 8.. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As temperature increases, thrust decreases. B.As temperature increases, thrust increases. C.As temperature decreases, thrust decreases. A X 9.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases, for a given runway? A.Critical engine failure speed. B.Rotation speed. C.Accelerate-stop distance. A X 10.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 11.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 12.. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B X 13.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105,000 pounds? A.800 feet. B.300 feet. C.1,300 feet. A X 14. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C.Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan. C X 15.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 16. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 17.．An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A.(To be continued，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case, which may lead descends too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B X 18.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 19.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 20.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is)right B.wrong A X 21. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. A X 22.. Northwest wing can be presented as . A. 200°or NW B. 315°or NW C. 135°or SE B X 23.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122,000 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,200 feet. C.2,750 feet. A X 24.. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. C.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 26.. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.Request a clarification from the ATC. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Do not accept the clearance. A X 27.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 28.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 29.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. C X 31.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. A X 32.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes, spoilers and reversers at 140,000 pounds gross weight? A.650 feet. B.1,300 feet. C.1,050 feet. C X 33.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 34..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 35.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 36.. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear. C. Frontal passage. B X 37.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 38.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A.-neutral longitudinal static stability. B.-positive longitudinal static stability. C.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A X 39.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW, A.58.1 minutes. B.59.9 minutes. C.54.7 minutes. B X 40.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 41.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 42.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 43.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 46. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C X 47.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. B.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. C.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect. A X 48. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 49.. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. B.Lower-than-standard air density. C.Increased headwind component. C X 50.. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown B X 51.. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU A X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 53.. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C X 54.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. C X 55. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A.The aircraft dispatcher. B.Air route traffic control center. C.Director of operations. A X 56..Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A.-.50 to .75 mach B.-.75 to .1.20 mach C.-1.20 to 2.50 mach B X 57.. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. B X 58.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 59. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.2,500 feet C.3,000 feet C X 60.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 61.. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. B X 62.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.ASR and PAR. B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C.Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. B X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. C X 64.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.19hours B.20 hours C.21hours B X 65.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 66.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77,000,DISTANCE (NM): 70,WIND COMPONENT: 25TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.74,000 pounds. B.74,180 pounds. C.73,400 pounds. A X 67.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 68.. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. B X 69.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B X 70..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 71.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 72..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 73.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 74.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 75.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. C.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. B X 76.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 77.. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. B X 78.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 80.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 81.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 82. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 83.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. C X 84.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 85. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is A.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B.is not required to have a medical certificate. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B X 86.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 87..To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude, the altimeter should set on . A.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.the standard air pressure of the local station C.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 88.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. A X 89..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 90. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 91.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 92.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4,600-foot icy runway? A.128,000 pounds. B.124,000 pounds. C.120,000 pounds. C X 93. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. C. Land at the nearest airport, including military what has a crash an rescue unit. B X 94.. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW C X 95.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. C. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B X 96.. [Refer to Figures 4-22, 4-23 and 4-24.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A.143 knots. B.144 knots. C.145 knots. A X 97.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS C X 98. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 99. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 100.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 10 1.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. A X 2.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A X 3.．During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 4.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.12hours B.13 hours C.14 hours C X 5.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C X 6.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 7.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C.outward and forward B X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A.Brakes and spoilers at 120,500 pounds gross weight. B.Brakes and reversers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. C.Brakes, spoilers, and reversers at 135,000 pounds gross weight. C X 9.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.VOR/DME FIX B.Surveillance radar C.Compass locator C X 10.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters MSL, including cruise flight. B. descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 3,000 meters, excluding cruise flight. C X 11. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.1 B.8 C.11 A X 12.. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 13.. (Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. A X 14.. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110,000 pounds gross weight? A.2,100 feet. B.2,650 feet. C.3,000 feet. C X 15.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 16.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 17.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 18..Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus C X 19. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 20.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. A X 21.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. B X 22.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 23.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, the pilot should be aware that the approach A.attitude may be higher than it appears. B.attitude may be lower than it appears. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. B X 24.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B X 25.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134,000 pounds? A.400 feet. B.950 feet. C.1,350 feet. A X 26.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. B X 27.. While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence A.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. C X 28..Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. C X 29.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. B X 30.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 31.For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. B.varies with the rate of turn. C.is constant C X 32.. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C X 33.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 34.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 35. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B.trip number and weight and balance data. C.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. A X 36.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 37.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 38.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. A X 39.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 40.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 41.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 42.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation C X 43.. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 44.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. B X 45.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 46.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 47.. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. B.Low gross weight. C.High density altitude. A X 48.. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C X 49.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. C X 50. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 51.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X 52.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 53.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 54.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etC．as far as possible. A X 55.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 56.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. B.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. C.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. A X 57. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A.Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C.Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft. A X 58.. In northern sphere, the air cyclone circumfluence is A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise C X 59..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 60.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 61.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the caption's power, ability, longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 62.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 63.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Thunderstorm, Rain shower, mountain waves, moderate clear air turbulence B. Rain shower, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe clear air turbulence C. Rainfall, freezing precipitation, mountain waves, severe icing B X 64. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. B.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 65.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness. C.Decreased breathing rate. A X 66.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet A X 67.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 68..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 69.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 70.. Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. 3,600 meters. C. 6,000 meters. A X 71.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 72.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 73.. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature C.air pressure B X 74.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude B. Severe weather information ,changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. C. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings. A X 75.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith B X 76.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Seven B.Six C.Five A X 77.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.90 knots. B.95 knots. C.100 knots. B X 78.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 79. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B X 80. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. ATC and dispatcher. B. nearest CAAC district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations). A X 81.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd ．An authoritative leader A. Moderate turbulence. C. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A. B. rain.. B X 83.White inscriptions on a red background B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. Severe turbulence.The descent moment on the course of 227o. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency.372 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL. freezing precipitation. knowledge..the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 85. thunderstorms B..may ultimately decide the team's actions.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. C.352o. A X 87.Red inscriptions on a white background C. C. rain shower. Moderate turbulence.342o... A X 88. B X 90. receive this ATC clearance: ".What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.．If the authority gradient is too steep.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.470 feet.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 86. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.A. moderate icing.". moderate icing.525 feet. MH 60°.Holding position signs have A.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. B. and preferences..there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger . but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.Teardrop only B.. B. severe clear air turbulence C.Parallel only A X 89.. C. C.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. A.347o. A plane. A X 84.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.Direct only C. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. severe icing. but seldom in other situations B.. severe clear air turbulence C X 82. Strong wind with haze B X 99.VMCG. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A.000 pounds gross weight. C..virga C. C. C X 95. B. C. B.3 minutes. Under normal operating conditions. C.Actual pressure at field elevation.VMC.000 pounds gross weight. B.High RPM and high MAP. Strong wind with sand C. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A. B. [Refer to Figure 4-27. B X 97.30 minutes.Low RPM and high MAP. and never in climbs or descents B X 91.One light projector with three colors. dowdraft B X 100. green. B X 96.. each a different color.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A. Snow and rain C. North wind at 12 m/s.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A. B. C X 92.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A. B X 98. Ground? A.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only..Three light bar. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed. A.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. red.C.plume B.000 pounds gross weight.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B X 93.Use of three reversers at 131.Three glide slopes. Strong wind with shower B. B.VMCA.15 minutes. This phenomenon is referred to as . B.High RPM and low MAP. and amber.Altimeter setting. green. green. B X 94. C.. C..What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A.900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X . dust B.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. and amber.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125. red. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. and amber. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.Use of three reversers at 133. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. C X 9. C.800hours B.. during emergency C... under which of the following conditions.processing information from the eyes..124.128. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.600-foot icy runway? A. A. B. B. In the Northern hemisphere. C X 7.ATPL05 1. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). B. both a and b C X 8. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. B. on a first-come.processing information from the inner ear.Manifold pressure. 900 metres C. first serve basis. for no more than A. C. 300 metres B. vestibular and postural cues.900 hours C. in any calendar year. 3000 metres A X 4. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B.000 pounds.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. C X . C X 3.1000hours C X 5.by combining and comparing visual. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane.000 pounds. A X 2. C.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4.120.. B.Exhaust gas temperature. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 6. B.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. A. C. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.000 pounds. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. [Refer to Figure 4-27.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. C.RPM. B.Direct only C.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time. B. [Refer to Figure 4-37.Rate and radius will increase. receive this ATC clearance: ".11.Teardrop only B.500 lb. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot. The statement is )right B.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A. C X 12. summer and autumn.11. A.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. MH 160°.(To be continued，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude.. B X 19..503 pounds.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational.". MH 160°.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.14 minutes.10. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.wrong A X 17. C. lifesaving decision and carry it out following A..What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. LEFT TURNS. The first D is A. B. B. A plane. spring and summer.. B.. C. indicates A. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.".500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. receive this ATC clearance: ".] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. C.Parallel only C X 18. using the acronym DECIDE. A plane.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.. C X 11. C..] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B. however..Do what we must to do in the situation A X 15.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway..．The decision-making process is quite complex. [Refer to Figure 4-45. winter and autumn..Parallel only C X 13..Teardrop only B.16 minutes..227 pounds..AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. Radiation fog usually appears in .Direct only C. B X 14.17 minutes.Zero fuel weight: 125. . it can be condensed into six elements.500 lb A. A X 16. cumulonimbus . B...the specific duties of any required crewmember. A X 23.supersonic mach number B.trip number and weight and balance data.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.23.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. B. B. and flight plan? A.46 kilometers. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots..HUAIROU VOR/DME. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A. A. C. B. A X 29. B X 22.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. A X 20.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.600 feet. B.pitching up. airworthiness release.pitching down. C.3 months. A X 28. A X 25. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.. B X 24.000 feet.1 month.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80. B. or terminating a flight.754 pounds. pilot route certification. C. B X 27.400 feet.C.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. C. [Refer to Figure 4-39.40 kilometers. flight release.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.GUBEIKOU NDB. For an airport without air corridor.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.50 kilometers. C.20.The descent moment on the course of 227o.exercising authority over initiating. C. C. In summer.24.transonic mach number C. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A. when warm air mass is unstable.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON. C.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.12 months. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A.leveling off. B. C X 21.11.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. B. conducting.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.critical mach number C X 26. you cannot accept any undue delay. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. A X 33. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC..24 hours.8 hours. B.119.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET . Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.000 pounds..Dispatch Release.One hour and a half a time.. B. layer clouds A X 30. 150 knots C X 32. front fog C.DICIDE B.B. C X 35..500 feet short of the end of a 4. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. it can be condensed into the following six elements. however. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.DECIED B X 39. The statement is A.. At what speed. 200 knots B. A X 31. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. A X 38. C. C. B.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.DECIDE C. 170 knots C. A.Operating Certificate.139. with reference to L/DMAX. B. [Refer to Figure 4-25.Hourly.A speed less than that for L/DMAX.136. C.12 hours.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.000 pounds. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A.000 pounds.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.wrong A X 34. C X 36.right B. A.．The decision-making process is quite complex.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where.Operations Specifications. C.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. B X 37. C. C. upon reaching your destination. B.30 minutes a time. C.90 knots. C. there is a tendency A.Lower than at low temperature. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. C. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. embedded thunderstorms with hail C.. B.95 knots.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. B.000 feet or less to another aircraft.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. C X 41.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A. A X 43.. the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. C.Higher than at low temperature.. 5000 m above at other time A X 44.By changing the angle of attack of a wing. and 3000 m at other time B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. A X 42.800m. C.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.The same as at low temperature. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. and airport elevation? A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. C. without VASI assistant. B X 47.An alternate airport is required. The fuel reserve required. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.．When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway..100 knots. B. C. B X 49.500 feet MSL A X 48. Severe mountain wave.Only one INDS is required to be operative. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. isolated cumulonimbus C X 40. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C.to fly a normal approach. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft.Above 12.A. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B. is A.(according to figure 2). Fog. Strong wind. B. wind. volcanic ash B.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A. B X 46.In terminal radar service areas C. 1. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation. the pilot can control the airplane's . B X 45. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. B. X. and drag. C. C. and reversers at 130. gross weight.Turbojet aircraft C. C X 52.. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. but not drag. A X 59. if you are assigned to an additional flight. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.381 feet.1. spoilers. A X 51. A X 58.000 pounds gross weight.600m. B..496 feet MSL.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. B.. what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A. C.1. C. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is .RVR 250m.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.turbine inlet temperature.113.propeller thrust only.3/4 engine aircraft B X 54.N.. C X 55.lift and airspeed.Brakes. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. B.114. C X 56.000 pounds gross weight. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A. B. airspeed.lift. The statement is A.6MHz.. B X 50.. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1.1. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A. C.M. C. B.wrong A X 57.right B.lift. and drag. B X 53. B.VIS 1.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.398 feet. C. C.．During the flight.514MHz. the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.RVR 200m.Brakes and reversers at 115..Propeller driven aircraft B. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B.026 feet. Group II aircraft are A.7MHz.000 pounds gross weight. B. During the period of Spring Festival.Brakes and spoilers at 125.A. Low-speed flight only. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A.. temperatures is -48℃ B.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A. B. C.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight . as PIC. temperatures is 48℃ C. C. flight engineer..Limiting torque. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.DH65m，RVR600 C. B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. West wind at 24 KT.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. C X 62.7MHz. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B. A X 68.113.High-speed flight only. West wind at 60 KT.A. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. A X 64.High-speed flight only. C.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. B. C. wind speed and temperatures is A. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. B. the wind direction. temperatures is -48℃ A X 66. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747. while operating under Part 121. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A.113.. A. B.Low-speed and high-speed flight. C. B X 67.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.6KHz. B X 60.DH65m，RVR550 B X 65.6MHz.114.Low-speed flight only.Low-speed and high-speed flight.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A. B.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A. B X 61.Only a pilot. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. C. or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. Northwest wind at 60 KT. C. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. B X 63.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.Limiting compressor speed. As altitude increases.As altitude decreases. A clear sky.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. QFE A X 74.What affects indicated stall speed? A.85MHz. . angle of attack . B. B. Angle of attack. B X 77. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. B.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. C X 78.As altitude increases.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. In en route flight.wrong A X 73. QNH C.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals. B. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. C.. weight. C X 70.400 feet/minute. C. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6. C.and power C.1. produce anxiety and A. The statement is)right B.names of all crewmembers. B X 76.124. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.1. the altimeter setting is A. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D. thrust decreases.. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C. C X 69. Moist. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.B.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. B. and airspeed A X 71. Load factor . C. and power B.weather reports and forecasts.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C. thrust decreases. thrust increases.364 feet/minute. little or no wind.127. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.2% to FL148? A. B.1. and high relative humidity. C X 72.35MHz. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity.320 feet/minute. A X 75. Weight.minimum fuel supply.. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A..．Heavy coffee or tea. load factor...(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time. QNE B. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. A X 83. C. B.Zero B X 87. normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.FL158.20 to 2. C X . Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C.-. which altitude could it descend to? A.. altitude.Heading.C.3 minutes C. B X 80. C X 86. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 81. B.75 to . and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.What performance should a pilot of a light.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30. C.-1.50 mach B X 84.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 82. an area of no convective turbulence C.20 mach C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation.-.Heading and altitude.118.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o.pilot in command and director of operations.FL148.. C X 79. diversion.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.75 mach B.40 seconds B.pilot in command and chief pilot.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. and ability to climb 50 ft/min. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.1.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG..Two B.. the absence of clouds in the area B.pilot in command and the flight follower. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. C.Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A. C.FL168.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.In small airplanes. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A. B. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. continuation. B.Heading.8MHz.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.50 to . C. B X 88. B.One C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 85. not less than 170 knots.5000 feet B. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. C.R-165 C.Limiting compressor speed. B.440 pounds.000m. B X 94.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30. a speed not less than 210 knots.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. C. C.1 NAV? A.300m. Piston and turboprop aircraft. 6 m/s A X 98. B..89. B. This effect begins at about A. C. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO. B.500 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-34.. A X 93.. Smoke B.600m.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.R-175 B. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.FL 6.. except 20 flying miles from threshold.000 meters? A.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B. Sand C. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A. C.WEIGHT (*1000): 92.(according to figure 2). not less than 200 knots. 8 m/s C.FL 6. A X 97.10000 feet C.8000 feet .. C. a speed not less than 230 knots.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. not less than 150 knots.1.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed..124. Sand storm B X 91. a speed not less than 150 knots.1.000 feet short of the end of a 4.Increasing speed or altitude. [Refer to Figure 4-26.FL 6.732 pounds. except 20 miles from threshold.023 pounds. 17 m/s B. Not less than 250 knots B X 92. at ZBAA.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.Limiting torque.R-345 C X 95.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. A X 90. A.. B. the max predicting wind speed is___.5. B X 96.134. Turbojet aircraft.129.500 pounds.900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.000 pounds.000. What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A. spring in northern areas. B. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Who is responsible. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Plus or minus 6 B. thrust increases. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. B X 5. red. Rime ice. each a different color.M070. C.70 Marh. thrust decreases.1300 Beijing Time. Low cloud with strong wind A X 4. C. B. B X 8. pilot should file flight plan at least before A. C. bad visibility B. and amber. green.. thunderstorm.A X 99. A X 1.Three glide slopes. spring in southern areas. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.As temperature increases. C X 7.CCAFC.Three light bar.M0070.1330 Beijing Time.Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Plus or minus4? A X 2.Aircraft dispatcher. B.070M.. red.Company meteorologist. the maximum bearing error permissible is A.. B.If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations. B. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time. B.As temperature increases. Dust. C. Frost ice..Airport flight information office.. by regulation. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A.. and amber.1230 Beijing Time. B X 6.. Strong wind. B.Director of operations. clear ice. C. green. C.Area flight information center.One light projector with three colors. summer in northern areas. C. and amber. B X 3. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A. C. . C X 100. green. B. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. spoilers. may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? A..As temperature decreases.Brakes and reversers at 125.increase airspeed. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.. 5000 m above at other time A X 11. The statement is)right B. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew.Takeoff safety speed.C. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A. B. whichever is higher. if clear of clouds.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.Initial training. A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e. no. C.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan..All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments..000 pounds gross weight. B. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. or to the MEA. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. B.Takeoff decision speed..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. C. and 3000 m at other time B. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. A X 17.000 pounds gross weight.Brakes and spoilers at 120. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A. [Refer to Figure 4-26. C. B. thrust decreases. no.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. B X 15.delay stall. .Brakes. B. C.(according to figure 2).Recurrent training. A X 9.Upgrade training. yes. C. C X 12. C.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. A X 13.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A. and reversers at 135. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect. A X 14. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. B X 16..wrong A X 10.. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude. B.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A. If not clear of clouds.500 pounds gross weight.g. the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. Descend to MEA and. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA. B. Fly the most direct route to the destination.increase the load factor. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B737-300). A X 21. C X 20.. B X 18. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. B. Using high power settings. B.9.from left crosswind to right crosswind. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere.from headwind to tailwind. C. B.Increases takeoff distance. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A. C.504 pounds.000 feet.. B.in cumliform clouds B. such as cirrus. Developing lift. the wind direction usually changes ..3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.9.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.Same direction.000 pounds gross weight? A.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 25. C.Remains fixed for all positions.. C X 23. A X 22. B X 26.S9000.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600.680 pounds. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.In altocumulus cloud. B. C. B.in high clouds.C. C X 27.9. C.. .M9000. Operating at high airspeeds.CG is at the most rearward allowable position.M0900. B. C X 24. C..Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A.Decreases takeoff speed.000 meters. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9.1.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value.Minimum takeoff speed. C.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.Opposite direction. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. C X 19.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.926 pounds. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1. C.300 feet.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. A.CG is at the most forward allowable position.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.. [Refer to Figure 4-45. B.500 feet. B. C. which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.24 calendar months.Airplane Flight Manual B.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143. C. C. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions. and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A..000 pounds? A. A X 28. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.Pilot in command.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B. B.400 feet. B X 32. 330 knots C.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb).Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 34. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A. weather. 350 knots B..12 feet.850 feet.5000 feet B.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making.6 calendar months.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 30.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night .C. 250 knots C X 37. C.International Flight Information Manual C.. B. C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 35. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. is most likely to be encountered A.10 feet. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.8000 feet A X 33.Aircraft dispatcher. It refer to A. The appearance of anvil clouds top C.10000 feet C. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A.8 feet. B. C X 36.100 feet. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. [Refer to Figure 4-28..during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. B. This effect begins at about A.Director of operations or flight follower. C X 29. A X 31.12 calendar months.000 meters.Decreases takeoff distance. C. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. knowledge. personality. when warm air mass is unstable.. In summer. B. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. and inbound leg length. attitudes. B.the sender's knowledge. C. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. temperature rises B.. and expected holding speed. C.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. C X 41. B X 39.2. and the social culture system C. The wind speed increases.000 feet B.2. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.. knowledge. B X 40.the sender and the receiver's skill.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.000 feet C. B.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 44.What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time.. The wind speed increases. altitude/flight level. C. time. These conditions include A.500 feet. time. and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.12 C X 47. A X 46.7 C. attitudes. temperature reduced B X 42. layer clouds A X 48.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway.attitude may be lower than it appears. without VASI assistant.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.．In a communication process.6 B.attitude may be higher than it appears. front fog C. expected holding speed. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A. what airspeed indication can be expected? . altitude/flight level.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A.. B. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes. B X 45. cumulonimbus B. temperature reduced C.B X 38. and the workload B X 43.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.1.the sender's skill. only to find that it was the right A. C X 52.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine. A.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 51. Original dispatch release..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure.. A. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. B. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.A. .No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B. A X 53. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. and approach must be VFR. C. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C.(To be continued，engine which failed. C. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A.expectancy producing a mental block C. en route. A X 54.15 to 17 km B X 50. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate.If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst. fog and rain B. B. which operational requirement must be observed? A. Lines of thunderstorms..certificate holder's operations specifications. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 56. by the applicant. obscured thunderstorms C.. A X 55. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds. C.10 to 12 km C. Nimbostratus. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine. 8 to 9 km B.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 49. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 57. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. Certificate holder's manual.. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. B.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. The statement is)right B. C. B. spoilers. From 08Z to 22Z. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground. C X 59. A X 65. C.Critical Mach number. B.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. C. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A..The second in command only. to achieve a safe and A. (Refer to Figure 6-3. B.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. A X 67. A. C.. false cirrus clouds A X 58.13. [Refer to Figure 4-25. vestibular and postural cues.Any flight crewmember. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance.12.FL 6.093 feet.Initial buffet speed. at an intermediate airport.. i.123 feet.. C X 66. what should the pilot do? A. C.000 pounds gross weight.600m. C. if they have a flight engineer certificate. if qualified. B. equipment.12. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.(to be continued Based on this situation.Not more than 2 hours. C X 61. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed.A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.processing information from the inner ear. B.Not more than 1 hour.processing information from the eyes.by combining and comparing visual.wrong A X 60.Brakes.Brakes and reversers at 115. How long before a redispatch release is required? A. altocumulus clouds C. B. C. and reversers at 130. what is the valid period of time.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A. C X 62. B X 63.FL 6.Transonic index. If an ATC controller assigns a speed.000m.000 pounds gross weight.Brakes and spoilers at 125.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources.(To be continued，efficient flight operation.) cumulonimbus clouds B.300m.FL 6. B X . From 14Z to 22Z B X 64. procedures and people. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z.000 pounds gross weight.097 feet.Either pilot.e. C. B. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C.More than 6 hours. B. B. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. concerning the incident.. C. the certificate holder must submit a report.300 feet. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.With the increase of temperature. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. B.600m.500m. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.150 feet. C X 70. C.1.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114. 10 days.Do not accept the clearance. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A.500m. B X 74. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. 315°or NW . (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A. B X 69. remain unchanged B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. C X 71.68. 24 hours.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A.500 feet. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. A.. C X 77..MDA 470 feet and VIS 1. C. A. C. B.from east to west B.000 pounds gross weight? A. A. reduce B X 76.. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1.. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. [Refer to Figure 4-25..the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .from north to south A X 72. B. C. to the Administrator within A.. A X 75. 5 days. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. 200°or NW B. Northwest wing can be presented as .Read the clearance back entirely. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°. increase C.from west to east C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 73.. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1. . B. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. 135°or SE B X 78. B.C.750 feet.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.The "runway hold position" sign denotes . What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. with revenue cargo aboard. C. 12 calendar months. B. 24 calendar months.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.000 pounds.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.Middle compass locator C..Outer compass locator. MH 160°. B. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1..Teardrop only B. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A... C X 86.136. B X 82.Direct only C. C X 79..". Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.If required by the airplane's type certificate. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. C X 85. Flying in rain. [Refer to Figure 4-25. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.4. flying in any clouds.500 feet short of the end of a 4.200 feet. B..000 pounds.4.. 6 calendar months.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.500 feet. C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.Parallel only C X 87. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. C.000 pounds gross weight? A.000 pounds. C.Inner marker. B X 80. B X 83.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7.119. C. A X 84. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. B.4. receive this ATC clearance: ". [Refer to Figure 4-25. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. A plane. B.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights.. B. LEFT TURNS.139. B X 81. C. VIS1600m.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. A X 93. C.503 pounds.12 ..227 pounds. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'.754 pounds. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A..Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.A.4 B. C X 94.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. B. B X 92.VIS800m.10 times groundspeed in knots. Upon arrival at ZBAA. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"? A. C. B. A X 91. B.760 feet per minute.800 feet per minute.DH200'.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. TNA 90 is cleared for A.Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.11.. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots. C.Tabs.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. what was the approximate rate of descent? A.11.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.5times groundspeed in knots. C. flight engineer. B. or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time. [Refer to Figure 4-45.May all be erased. B. C. A X 89. C. B. as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.780 feet per minute.Outboard ailerons.RVR550m.11. B X 90. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA.Flaps. A X 95.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.a pilot.DH300'.Intersecting runways C X 88. C X 96. C. HIALS. B X 5.entering instrument meteorology conditions.smoking and alcohol B.HIALS with PAPI. low-red.11 C X 97. C X 6. B. PAR.. C.increase the load factor.. .increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.increase airspeed. thrust output will A. C.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A. and ASR.Opposite direction.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A. B X 2. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.ASR and PAR. on glidepath-red and white. B X 4. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. C.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A.240KHz. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.C.Compass locator.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A. C. B X 3.High-white.fatigue C.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.. B. B.114. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. C.delay stall. when originally issued. A X 100.PAPI. A X 98.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.Remains fixed for all positions.entering approach controlled airspace. B. C. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.308KHz.both A and B C X 1..Some direction.decrease due to higher density altitude.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. B. B.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. An outside air pressure decreases. C.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.7MHz. B X 99. B.. whichever is highest.．In a decision-making process . knowledge. B X 10.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B. low-red.000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. Last assigned altitude. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure.-Severe porpoising B X 15. C X 16. A. B.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.. B.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. A X 9..may ultimately decide the team's actions. altitude ATC has advised to expect.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. regulations. and preferences. low-red.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C. A X 12. A X 8.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.35MHz.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. C. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec. visibility 4 km.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3. C.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.High-white and green. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B. An altitude that is at least 1. C.121. visibility 4 km . What altitude should be used? A. on glidepath-green.127. a participatory leader A.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.An increase in dynamic stability. B. A X 13. and the weather then is ____. light rain shower. C.does the first thing that comes to mind. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. Light fog.A severe moment or "tuck under" C. B. A X 7.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. on glidepath-green. and procedures as far as possible C. C. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A.B. B. A X 11.124. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.High-white.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 14.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.85MHz. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.adopt all rules.65MHz. or the MEA..The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. Headwind or tailwind increase C. The first D is A.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. under which of the following conditions.500 feet MSL A X 25. continuation.5. and reversers at 125. B.625 pounds.a pilot. heavy rain. C.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.. Which is a definition of the term "flight crewmember"? A. B. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec.Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. A X 18.Brakes and spoilers at 120. however. B.000.. C X 20.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.2.000 pounds gross weight.. B...Above 12. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. B X 24. B X 23. LEFT TURNS.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. receive this ATC clearance: ".In terminal radar service areas C.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. A plane.Teardrop only B. it can be condensed into six elements. C. spoilers.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. visibility 4000 m B X 17.pilot in command and chief pilot..At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. A.．The decision-making process is quite complex. using the acronym DECIDE. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.3. [Refer to Figure 4-25. or flight navigator assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight time.".000 pounds gross weight. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 22. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.000 pounds gross weight. C. C.240 pounds... B. . [Refer to Figure 4-34.pilot in command and director of operations. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation.3. A X 19.pilot in command and the flight follower. diversion. C. B. In the Northern hemisphere.Brakes.Any person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B. C.Brakes and reversers at 115.980 pounds.C.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .Parallel only C X 21. MH 160°.Direct only C. flight engineer. .high environmental noise levels B.．An absence of visible ground feature.TCASII provides A. C. B. C. . the certificate holder must submit a report.30 hours A X 33. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case. not associated with cloud formations. B X 28.What is an important characteristic of wind shear? .Traffic and resolution advisories B. External factors include A.(To be continued，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.B X 26.. B. B X 35.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. High altitude turbulence.Minimum takeoff speed. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. such as when landing over water. 24 hours. C. C X 32.Proximity warning C. B..No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 31. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 29.An alternate airport is required.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal.Takeoff decision speed. B.000 feet AGL.800m.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C..35 hours B.Turbulence encountered above 15. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. concerning the incident.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B. B X 27. 5 days.. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach.32 hours C. Clear air turbulence. to the Administrator within A. C. darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A. which may lead descends too low on approach.the receiver's expectancy A X 34. C X 30. B.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.Takeoff safety speed. which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. 10 days. should be reported as A.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased. convective turbulence. supersonic mach number B. A X 43.autokinesis. a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time.17 minutes. C X 37. B. C.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. B.Three C.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.500 lb A. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.500 lb.1922Z. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. C. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. B.transonic mach number C.870 feet. B.750 feet. but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.Two A X 44. C.000 pounds? A.14 minutes. This illusion is known as A.A.16 minutes.somatogravic illusion.critical mach number C X 42.300 feet.1952Z. [Refer to Figure 4-26. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.. B X 40.762 feet. C.0022Z.755 feet. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. C.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135. C. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).Four B. At the Poles. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.. B.100 feet.．In the dark..ground lighting illusion. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 41.Zero fuel weight: 125.. C X 39.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. C. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board. C X . B. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms. C X 36. [Refer to Figure 4-37.. B X 38. At the Equator. 7MHz. passengers on board B.9and6 B.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B.0045Z. A.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. North wind at 12 m/s.2015Z.6KHz. Strong wind with haze B X 52.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A... FL240 .the property change of the underlying cushion C. A X 51. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 50.127. ordering galley supplies C. 150 knots C X 53. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). dust B. and experiences a delay.45. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. FL200 B..6 only A X 49. when an approach has been missed.1945Z.. 170 knots C.114. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. B. prior to flight conducted above A. C. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.6MHz.the change of sun radiation B. Strong wind with sand C. C X 46.9 only C. B. B X 47. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to. A. C.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.127. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. C.. 200 knots B. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z.the movement of the weather system B X 48. instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization. C X 54. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. C. A clear sky.644 feet/minute.1. C.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. C X 56. B. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time. [Refer to Figures 4-50..244 feet.. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4. little or no wind.80 Mach? A. B. Moist.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. B X 62. and 4-54.900 feet. and high relative humidity. C.22.4-52.．During the flight. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A.4-51. produce anxiety and A.496 feet. B. B X 57. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.930 as specified on the SID? A.600 feet/minute.4-53..the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X .22.9Gs B X 59.22.wrong A X 61. C..836 pounds. A.wrong A X 58.. B. The statement is A. B X 64. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. FL250 C X 55. B. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots.6% to 4.1..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A.7 hours.420 pounds. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A. C.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.3Gs.6 hours. The statement is)right B.C.] What is the total fuel required at .2Gs. C. B..690 feet/minute. B X 63. C.right B.556 pounds. C X 60..8 hours. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity.．Heavy coffee or tea. B.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). before takeoff. A X 71. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. rain and broken clouds B X 72. upward. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds. A.. mist and broken clouds C.65. West wind at 4 m/s.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 73.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. B X 68. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least .Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. Inward.. flat and gray bottoms with light rain.. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C X 67. B.from east to west B.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude.the standard air pressure of the local station C. The statement is A.. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 70. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. A. C.Any FSS C.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . C. C. An unstable layer of air. no. altostratus or stratocumulus C. upward. and around the wingtip.avoid using contact lenses B X 66. Thisclouds is referred as A. stratus or nimbostratus B. under normal conditions. B. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A..Appropriate dispatch office C X 69. A stable layer of air. the altimeter should set on . Air mass thunderstorms. visibility 5000m and fog B.don't read small print within one hour of flying.ARINC B. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°. A.. yes. East windat 4 m/s.from north to south A X 74. no.from west to east C.wrong A X 75. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft. and around the wingtip. which would help to enhance night vision? A. Outward. Scattered clouds.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.right B.. C. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations. three of which may be in a glider. B. C.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces.RCLS and REIL C. C X 82. C X 81. Original dispatch release..．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A. Certificate holder's manual.V2.Carrying passengers. B. B. marker beacons. B.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time.six instrument approaches.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A. C X 80.Conducted IFR. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B. C. B. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.Radar and RVR. C. if the flight will be A.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.A. holding. FL 200. but not if it is "all cargo" C.six instrument approaches. FL 250. and RVR.V1.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. indicates A. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot. A X 76. C. B.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. C X 83. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 77. C X 79.VEF.HIRL.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown. plus holding. RCLS. FL 180.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. C. B X 78. C X . The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch. intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. TDZL. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. and approach lights? A. hypoxia. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. B.Within the previous 6 months.5. C. A X 91. the pilot will be informed by ATC as A.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. B.1. A X 85.25 days ago. NOTAM'S. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. no aircraft are allowed to land. AWW's. clear to land with caution.From.20 Mach. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization.SPECIS. C.Convective SIGMETS.Limiting compressor speed.15 days ago.SIGMETS.20 to 2. C X 87. B X 93.Within the previous 6 months. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A.Limiting torque.From. B. six ILS approaches. Mach. Elevator C. B. C.7 days ago.900 feet.. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane.Maintain speed. A X 92.METARS. PIREP'S and AIRMETS. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A. and adverse conditions.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. B X 89. C.1. B.84.496 feet. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A. Dorsal fin B X 90. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. B.Increase speed.. B.75 to 1.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A. and AIRMETS.1.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). C X 88. B.75 Mach. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A. PIREPS. .Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT).Below.Decrease speed.. B. what recent instrument approach experience is required? A. C X 86. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.244 feet. SIGMETS. Slats B. C. .. wrong. [Refer to Figure 4-43. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer.Remains fixed for all positions..rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. C.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600. C.1.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. B X 100.5 hours 40 minutes.504 pounds.9.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A. B X 95.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.Opposite direction.9. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.500 feet. C. [Refer to Figures 4-46. C.200 feet.right B.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. The statement is A. C.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. .one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.2. 4-47 and 4-48.5 hours 55 minutes.5 hours 15 minutes. B.DH 50 feet and RVR 1.926 pounds. C X 96.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.right B. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH. B X 97. B X 2.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.1. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. A X 1.9.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. A X 98.987 pounds.200 feet..ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.wrong A X 99.C.DH 100 feet and RVR 1.680 pounds.Within the previous 12 calendar months. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1.000.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.454 pounds. B.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.. B. B. The statement is A. A X 94. B. B.224 pounds.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. B. C.Some direction. thrust decreases.D38 to HUAIROU.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 12. A X 6.HUAILAI.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. C. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 7.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. C. C. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. B X 10. B. B. B.A X 3.As altitude increases.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails. A X 11. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. Rain and fog C.. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? . C X 4. wet snow. thrust decreases. the flight must be able to A. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. Freezing rain. C.Of an intersecting taxiway only.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. C. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. A X 9.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A. B X 5. thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases. B..Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3..It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.The point cleared by ATC.As altitude increases. B X 8.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. B.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A. B.Of some designated point on the runway. Ice pellets..It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.050m. C.950m. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.required to have a first-class medical certificate.An alternate airport is required. B.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.15 C.10 to 111.Invulnerability: C.95 MHZ . C.250m.required to have a second-class medical certificate.．"Do something quickly!".400 pounds. in an approved simulator.74. B X 18..] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77.3940 feet.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.4 B.108. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots.3. C X 20. C. . the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2.000. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A..Macho B.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.10 to 118.180 pounds.17 C X 13.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B. the minimum safe altitude is A.108. B. C.-Lift at low speeds. A X 15.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.800m. B. A X 16.Impulsivity: C X 17. A X 21.-L/Dmax.3842 feet.A. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. is A.650 meters. B X 19. B.not required to have a medical certificate.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.1360 feet. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate. C.2. C.10 MHZ B.73.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW.. B. C.3.-Drag and reduce airspeed.74. B.DISTANCE (NM): 70. C X 14.000 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-41. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. altocumulus clouds C.VOR/DME FIX B.3000m.) cumulonimbus clouds B. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A. 24 calendar months. if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2..(to be continued Based on this situation. C X 29.Zero fuel weight: 120.000 meters. 12 calendar months.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18.500 lb.Increase speed for a tailwind. B.95 MHZ. At what speed.9 minutes.10 minutes. C.600m. A. [Refer to Figure 4-37.C.Surveillance radar C. At the EFC time.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.10 to 117. B. B X 30..000 pounds? Initial weight: 162. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. decrease altitude for a tailwind. 6 calendar months. B.800m. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.000 feet distance remaining B..Signs with increments of 1.3. A X 28. C.Compass locator C X 26.Increase altitude for a headwind.000 feet from the end C. false cirrus clouds A X 27. C.Increase speed for a headwind.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 24. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.2.. .Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. B. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.500 lb A. B X 23. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.108. B X 22. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX... Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. C. with reference to L/DMAX. B.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3. B X 25. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. moist air. B. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight. B X 35. intended route of flight.changes in flight plans. C.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A. B.. B. 40 knots B. route weather advisories. Radar vectors for traffic separation. and altitude B. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.smoking and alcohol B. A X 31. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm. C.attitude may be higher than it appears.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. airworthiness release. the pilot should be aware that the approach A.both A and B C X 37.attitude may be lower than it appears.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 33. flight release. Severe weather information . In the Northern hemisphere.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A. and receipt of position reports. under which of the following conditions.fatigue C. A. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 36. A X 32. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. C. and altimeter settings.C. B X 38. expected holding speed B. C.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway. 80 knots .All turbine powered airplanes B.1 month.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. B.12 months.8 minutes. C.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B X 34. and flight plan? A. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. In which condition is possible to present very serious icing conditions for protracted fligh? A. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds.3 months. pilot route certification. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. A X 39. within a microburst. without VASI assistant.. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.. 245 feet. C X 49. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.262 feet.Two-light projectors.1.500 feet B X 47. two pulsing and one steady.1 minute and 15 seconds . one pulsing and one steady. B X 42.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources. C X 48. reduce speed to the assigned speed. C. B. the wind speed is 120 km/h B. B. steady white when on glide slope. C.000 feet of runway.. C. pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope. procedures and people.．Effective CRM has some characteristics. The height of the upper jet is 3500 feet.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.24 hours. B. the wind speed is 48 km/h B X 43. B.Identify REIL.Three-light system.e.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. A.3 minutes C.8 hours.000feet C. i. the altitude of LOM is 1. (Refer to Figure 7) The height and speed of the upper jet is A.360 feet. what should the pilot do? A. C X 44. B.1.. A X 41. equipment.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.360 feet.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30.12 hours. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. 90 knots C X 40.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.1. which of the following is right description about it? A. the wind speed is 120 knots C. C X 45.1. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A. C. steady red for slightly below glide path. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. C.500 feet B..1.One –light project.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C. B.40 seconds B.A and B C X 46.C.Amber lights for the first 2. C. The height of the upper jet is 35000 feet. CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety..change B..124.7MHz.300 feet.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A. C X 54.8MHz.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A.2.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect. B.delay stall.increase airspeed. C. Southwest wind at 35 KT.000 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.000 pounds? A. both a and b C X 53. B..100 feet. . B.In flight .240KHz.increase the load factor.650 feet. temperatures is -52℃ B. C.118. B. C X 57. C.300 feet.as the time goes on .Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.114.C X 50.127. C.. B X 51. the wind direction. [Refer to Figure 4-28.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. B. A X 56. the CG will A.85MHz. especially as altitude increases. C.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.308KHz. C. to maintain enough separation. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6. B. temperatures is 52℃ C.000 pounds gross weight? A. B X 59.2.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. A X . B.35MHz.not change C. wind speed and temperatures is A.1. C.800 feet. C.may change or may not change A X 58. to achieve the desired separation.3.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. [Refer to Figure 4-26. temperatures is -52℃ C X 52.. Northeast wind at 35 KT.. B X 55.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105. (According to figure 6) At point B. Southwest wind at 14 KT. B. If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight.Must be adhered to.1. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A. C. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH..Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A.500 feet C.Within the previous 6 months.Within the previous 6 months. B X 67. six ILS approaches. C. that the pilot accepts: A.000 feet A X 62.Does not preclude rejected landing. C X 69.60. what recent instrument approach experience is required? A.000 feet B. C..received an ATC clearance.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 68. B X 65.Within the previous 12 calendar months. an airplane may be dispatched only A.Increase the camber of the wing..10 feet.12 feet. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization.slowed down to the final approach IAS. C. B. B.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B. C. B. C.Precludes a rejected landing. C. A X .When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. A X 66. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.1. B.jet thrust only. B.8 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A.In day VFR conditions C X 61.2.0850K.．Night vision is enhanced by A. B.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.K0850. C.. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers.propeller thrust only.climbed to the appropriate altitude. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.In VFR conditions C.850. A X 64. B X 63. 90 knots B X 80. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway. low-red.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Sluggish in aileron control.2. B.22. B..500 feet. Headwind or tailwind increase C.600 pounds. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A. continuous flow reversal stall. C X 74. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 73.000 pounds. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. 40 knots B.the airplane rides on standing water.. C.. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B X 76.High-white. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A.18. B. within a microburst. C.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A.. on glidepath-green.Intermittent "backfire" stall. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.000 pounds.Steady.3.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 77. B X 78. C X 79. with gear up.. low-red. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. C. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.70. C. C X 71. B. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots.000 feet B. on glidepath-green. C.13. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A. on glidepath-red and white.Transient "backfire" stall.3. B. B X 75.Sluggish in rudder control C.700 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-29. 80 knots C.000 feet C. continue taxiing in the landing direction. low-red.High-white and green.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140.. B. which of the following applies? . B.High-white. flaps 25o. A X 72. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. and never in climbs or descents B X 82. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C.000 feet B. unable to climb 500 ft/min. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. unable to climb 500 ft/min.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C.having the aircraft catered (foods.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions.. due to winds.Lower than pressure altitude.PEK. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. B.VOR and ILS C. B. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. B X 83. B X .VOR and DME A X 86.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. Position reports.VOR B.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable.IDK. C X 85. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2. unable to climb 500 ft/min.HUR. to proceed direct to the regular airport.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. B. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.2.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.1. beverages. C. vacating an altitude.VOR and DME A X 84.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. vacating an altitude.A.000 feet C. B X 81. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350. C X 87. B. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.500 feet." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.ADF C. Position reports. A X 88.VOR B. Vacating an altitude. or supplies). reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B.11 B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.retina B.5 and 13 C. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A.7and 11 B X 90.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C. A X 91.prevent flow separation. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 94.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. C X 96.cornea C.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 98.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. B.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 92.. the pilot should A. what action is required? A.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. C.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A. an increase in airspeed will A.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. B. C.decrease rate of sink.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. B. an area of no convective turbulence C. C. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation.increase profile drag.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn..The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.89.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. .An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B. B. A X 95.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.Do not accept the clearance. the absence of clouds in the area B. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.iris A X 97.A runway Boundary Sign C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 93.Read the clearance back entirely. B. i.MDH120m.Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? A. C. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. after returning home. the pilot in command A. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.wrong A X 5. C.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes. C X 4.requiring a pilot to take specific action.050 feet. spoilers and reversers at 140.1. B.VIS1600m. C.000 pounds gross weight? A. C X 99. B. The PIC has 1. C X .. 0000 through 1000. while operating under Part 121.300 feet. B.VIS1600m. in point of time. B. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.e. 7500.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources. and 7700 series.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. equipment. within 10 days after the deviation.MDH100m. C.650 feet. after the flight is completed. C.keeping flight status. 7200 and 7500 series. C X 1. must land at the nearest suitable airport..C. the pilot should submit a written report A.1. to achieve a safe and A. C X 100.876 hours and 298 landings. 7600.(To be continued，efficient flight operation. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency. C. B X 3.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. A. B. procedures and people. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane.VIS2400m. [Refer to Figure 4-26.requiring a pilot to read back. at which a safe landing can be made. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C X 2. The statement is)right B.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C. B.. A X 6. ．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A. B. Freezing rain.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. C.111. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. This situation could be described as A.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. marker beacons. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A.HIRL. and approach lights? A. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. TDZL. B. C X 14. Vacating an altitude. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.a too shallow authority gradient B.If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released.. vacating an altitude. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125.000 pounds? A. C X 10. Position reports.110.a steep authority gradient C.-positive longitudinal static stability.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. the airplane displays A. C. unable to climb 500 ft/min.200 feet. C. B. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. vacating an altitude. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots..Radar and RVR. C X 12. C.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight .114.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. B.excessive use of carburetor heat B. C X 13. with reference to L/DMAX. At what speed.a participatory leader A X 11.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. [Refer to Figure 4-25.1.850 feet. C.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 15. Position reports. wet snow. It is most likely to occur when A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. RCLS.3MHz. C. B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.400 feet.RCLS and REIL C. Ice pellets. and RVR.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. B X 16.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. unable to climb 500 ft/min. C X 8.. unable to climb 500 ft/min...7.7MHz. B.-neutral longitudinal static stability. A X 9.7MHz. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B. B. A.1922Z.Within the previous 12 calendar months.What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. The statement is )right B. over the airport.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 18. A X 25.Takeoff decision speed. C X 21. A X 23.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A. what recent instrument approach experience is required? A. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A. obscured thunderstorm with hail B..B. time. at 1. C X 22. climbing rate.1952Z. six ILS approaches. C. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.0022Z. 30 minutes. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. embedded thunderstorms C. at cruising speed.. and whether the pilot smoking or not.Takeoff safety speed. C. B.wrong A X 20.. expected holding speed. pilot's activity level. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Severe mountain wave. A X 24. such as flight altitude.Minimum takeoff speed. continuous flow reversal stall. altitude/flight level. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. B. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization.(To be continued，health.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors. at 1. 30 minutes at holding speed. B.500 feet. B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. time. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z. B. . C. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. Severe turbulence. altitude/flight level.Intermittent "backfire" stall.Within the previous 6 months. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C.Transient "backfire" stall. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 19. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Within the previous 6 months. C. Severe mountain wave. and expected holding speed. and inbound leg length. pilot's A. C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 17.500 feet over the airport. C.Steady. five meters. B.(To be continued，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.10 hours B..B X 26.Low gross weight.". C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. C X 35.000.High density altitude. braking action is "zero" C. receive this ATC clearance: ".. A X 32.9 percent.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC. B X 27.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. B.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A.. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.72.. on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot).. C..] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90. MH 60°. B..．What cause hypoxia? A.. braking action is "nil" C X 33.2 percent.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B. . A plane. A X 30. B.74. braking action is "fair" B.16 hours A X 29. A. plus 10 percent of the total flight time.Teardrop only B.infinity. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. A X 31. C X 34.Direct only C. C. [Refer to Figure 4-32.14 hours C. 30 minutes. braking action is "fair" B. when there is almost no the braking action? A.4 percent. braking action is "good" . C. . 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. What is the required fuel reserve? A. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. A. B. C.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.75.Parallel only A X 28. Adiabatic. B..093 feet. B.To warn the pilot.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. B. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA.To state some important information.1 month. (Refer to Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report on figure 1. C.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? . A. (Refer to Figure 6-3.8 hPa C. while operating under Part 121.12. the QNH for ZUUU is A.CCAFC.Area flight information center. B.. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747. and flight plan? A. TNA 90 is cleared for A.097 feet.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. Katabatic. Advection. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'.. C X 37. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.DH300'. C.DH65m，RVR550 B X 39. airworthiness release. C X 41.12 months. braking action is "100%" B X 36. pilot route certification. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C X 38.DH65m，RVR600 C. C.3 months. C.DH200'. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90.1099. flight release.VIS800m. B.To require a pilot to take a specific action..N.8 hPa A X 45.S.12. B. C X 43.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK. B X 42.998 hPa B. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. A X 40.G.999.13.VIS1600m. Upon arrival at ZBAA. B. C. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.Airport flight information office.RVR550m.C. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.. C. C. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A. as PIC. C X 44. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.123 feet. A X 48. A X 47. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.. C.Obstruction clearance plane. mechanical failure. A X 49. C.An entrance to runway from a taxiway .The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.Air Traffic Controller. B.RVR 800m and DH 60m.Clearway..Stop way.involve the team in most decision making processes C. B. C. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month.Hourly. B. B.600m and DH 120m. C.RVR 1. A X 53.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.Dispatcher.A and B C X 52.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. or structural damage occurs. a good leader should A..One hour and a half a time. B. B.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m.Pilot-in-command. B. C.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. C X 46.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack.RVR 550m and DH 60m. When distress conditions such as fire.An increase in dynamic stability. A X 51.30 minutes a time. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B X 50. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C X 54.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A. B. C.．In flight.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A. C.A.. C. Advise ATC immediately. When cleared for an IFR approach B. Therefore.Propeller driven aircraft B.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°.3/4 engine aircraft B X 62. they can conceive the present weather at the destination as.13.22. C. B X 57.decrease rate of sink. B.prevent flow separation. B.700 pounds. shower. C X 61.D38 to HUAIROU..C.cirrus.308 feet. good visibility B.While flying IFR in controlled airspace.. B X 56.Intersecting runways C X 55.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.. poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C. A. A.HUAILAI.from west to east C.18. B. C.any required pilot crewmember. Group II aircraft are A.cumulus. radiation fogs or strong turbulence. B. C. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A. B X 60. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.000 pounds. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL. what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.000 pounds. When piloting a large. C. C. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. with gear up. C.from east to west B. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. C X 65...from north to south A X 59. if one of the two VOR receivers fails.increase profile drag. on a firs-come. first serve basis.The point cleared by ATC.Except during an emergency. .600 pounds. In turn. thunderstorm . C. A X 63.flight engineer or navigator. B. flaps 25o. B. C X 64.193 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-29. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? . when can a pilot expect landing priority? A.200 feet.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140. B X 58.Turbojet aircraft C. heavy aircraft.any flight crewmember. light rain.stratus. B X 69. B.the red blood cells .ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C. The first D is A. Hazardous weather warning A X 67. B X 73.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B. B. C. B. 300 metres B. 7200.FL 6.Maximum range and distance glide.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL..18. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. 7777.An alternate airport is required.WING ANTI-ICE: ON.What is the hijack code? A.16.. B. C.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. Aerodrome warning C. A X 68.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.A. 900 metres C.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A. 3000 metres A X 70.19.800 feet. B.The first holding pattern altitude.700 feet..000 pounds? A.000m. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A.. A X 74.FL 6.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30. C. B.1.300 feet..40 seconds B.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105. 7500.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A. [Refer to Figure 4-28. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A. C.Best angle of climb.400 feet. using the acronym DECIDE.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON..600 feet.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 72.. A X 75.．The decision-making process is quite complex.800m. C.Maximum endurance.300m.Do what we must to do in the situation A X 71. Wind shear warning B. however.300 feet. C.3 minutes C. [Refer to Figure 4-39. it can be condensed into six elements. B X 66. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 80.400 feet/minute. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A. steady white when on glide slope.six instrument approaches.six instrument approaches. C.the plasma C. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations. two pulsing and one steady. or vice versa.000 feet is closest to A. steady red for slightly below glide path.364 feet/minute.To make all the route aircraft have the same zero altitude.25 seconds B. C. three of which may be in a glider. C. A.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time. or vice versa. C X 82. plus holding. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.35 seconds B X 78. B. C. C. one pulsing and one steady.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6. the altimeter should set on . (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D.1. Strong wind with shower B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.hemoglobin C X 76. intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.Two-light projectors.One –light project. A X 84.. B. holding.the standard air pressure of the local station C.2% to FL148? A.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.1..When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A. C X 79. pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope. B.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. . C.15 seconds C.B.the standard air pressure of the mean sea level B.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B. C X 81.Three-light system.1. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A. B.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight.320 feet/minute. Snow and rain C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. A X 77.the standard air pressure of the calibrated sea level A X 83. CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. The statement is)right B.4 percent. A X 92.3 percent. C. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C.. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. B.77. A X 93.5 percent.M0900.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A. B X 87.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25..The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. C. etC．as far as possible.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.A stressful situation causing anxiety.79.. B. C. fuel burn.wrong A X 88.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118. B. C X 90.The excessive consumption of alcohol. B.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X .M9000. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9.B X 85. B X 89.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 86.000.FL128.75. C. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.FL138. [Refer to Figure 4-32. C.Adhere to standard operating procedures. B. C.S9000.000 meters.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.FL118. B.. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A. what action is required? A. A X 91. A. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. C.138 knots and 3. Wind stronger than 15 konts. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.000 meters.17 C X 2. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A. B. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. B X 96. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A.153 knots and 2. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. upon reaching your destination.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C. C X 98.183 knots and 2. C X 97. B.900 feet.15 C. 330 knots A X 100... In the Northern hemisphere.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B. A X 99.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.. C. 250 knots C. C. C X 95.4 B. When advection fog has developed. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system..900 feet.900 feet. Surface radiation. C. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A. At the equator.. B. B X 1.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. 150 knots B. A. At the poles. you cannot accept any undue delay. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29. B.Loud. under which of the following conditions. . Temperature inversion.94. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A.. Lowest stall speed. and least stability. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative.As temperature increases. C.16 minutes. pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A..-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. C. C.7KHz. lowest cruise speed. B. .40 kilometers. thrust decreases. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.Lowest stall speed.85.Highest stall speed. at which a safe landing can be made. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A.15 minutes.7MHz. [Refer to Figure 4-41. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane. A X 4.77.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144.850 pounds. A X 8. C.WIND COMPONENT: 60HW..700 pounds. highest cruise speed. C.Zero fuel weight: 125.Intermittent "bang.. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A.121.In a light . B. must land at the nearest suitable airport.B. B.As air density decreases. A X 6. B X 10.000. C.50 kilometers.46 kilometers. thrust increases.80..Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.As temperature increases. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. or structural damage occurs.500 lb..500 pounds? Initial weight: 180.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A. For an airport without air corridor. C X 9.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. B.13 minutes.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. and least stability B. in point of time. thrust increases. C. and highest stability. B. the pilot in command A. B. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.121. C. B X 11. When distress conditions such as fire. B. C.121.600 pounds.DISTANCE (NM): 370. B X 5. B." as backfires and flow reversals take place. C X 3.500 lb A. highest cruise speed. B X 7.9MHz. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100. mechanical failure.. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. -Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension.Improves B. B. stratus .224 pounds.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.supplemental and domestic.VOR and DME A X 15.supplemental and commercial.The aircraft dispatcher. C. B. and irregularities of facilities and services? A. A X 13. By regulation.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight.1. A X 21.1. stratocumulus. 4-47 and 4-48. C X 18.varies with the rate of turn. There are cirrostratus . C. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 14.As the CG is moved forward.is constant .. There are altocumulus . stratocumulus.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A. B.FL 6.For a given angle of bank. B X 17. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. B. C.454 pounds." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.ADF C. the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.dose not change A X 19. C. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. B. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A.2.FL 600m.flag and commercial. B.FL 6.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. C.Director of operations. B. C. or include on. and designated pilot in command are A.C X 12. flight attendant. There are altostratus.987 pounds.Decrease C.300m. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather.VOR B. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B.．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. A X 20.000m.Alcohol has an adverse effect. [Refer to Figures 4-46. C.Air route traffic control center.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. the stability A.. especially as altitude increases.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.. A X 16. Use of three reversers at 124.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A. [Refer to Figure 4-32. B. C X 30. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C..5 percent.000. B.77.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.Only one INDS is required to be operative.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80. C. B.. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the altitude of LOM while executing ILS/DME approach? A.C X 22. C X 29.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B X 25.000 pounds gross weight.200 meters.755 feet. Which route should be flown in the absence A.FL158. B. The statement is A.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you.762 feet. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A. C. C. C.L1020. B X 31. B X 27. .FL168.75. While in IFR conditions.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120.3 percent. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure.. C.Aircraft dispatcher.870 feet.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 23.wrong A X 28.F1020. During a supplemental air carrier flight.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A. B X 24.000 pounds gross weight. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A.4 percent.500 pounds gross weight. B. B.FL148. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o.Use of three reversers at 120. A X 26..Pilot in command. [Refer to Figure 4-27. C. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. An off-airway route to the point of departure. which altitude could it descend to? A.79. C. Headwind or tailwind decrease B.S1020.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.right B.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10. B. B... C. The route filed in the flight plan. C. affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A.74.not considered to be part of a rest period.G.2. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans.000 feet C X 37.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.000 feet B. dispatch releases.000 pounds.DISTANCE (NM): 70.6 months. B. B. C. A X 39.2Gs. C X 40.cumulonimbus C.400 pounds.3 months. B X 36. B. going to or from a duty.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.3Gs.74. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. C.180 pounds.. C X 35. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A. C X 38. B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 33. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are .9Gs B X 34. [Refer to Figure 4-41. B.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77. what action is required? A.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.N. C.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.3.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A. A.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots.S.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW.30 days. A X .an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B..How dose deadhead transportation.2.B X 32.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period.000.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.nimbostratus B.73.altostratus..500 feet C. and load manifests for at least A. C. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC..Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.. reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine.DH65m，RVR600 C. while operating under Part 121. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.000 feet distance remaining B. upward and clockwise C. B X 49. B. [Refer to Figure 4-29.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A. upward and counterclockwise C X 47. as PIC.DH65m，RVR550 B X 42.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight...The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. Fly direct to a fix.10.41. outward. B..wrong A X 45. gear up.] What is the change of total drag for a 140.right B. inward.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower.9. C. B X 44. B. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large. C.400 pounds.Signs with increments of 1. Prior to the point where the jet touched down.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o. C. at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A. The statement is A. to flaps 0o. C X 48. gear down. C. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.500 pounds. four-engine. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.. route. what action should be taken? A. downward and clockwise B. A. clear air turbulence C. B. or airway specified in the vector clearance. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. In northern sphere.300 pounds. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A. outward.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 46. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. the air cyclone circumfluence is A. embedded thunderstorms C X .000 feet from the end C. you should plan to lift off A.11. freezing rain B.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. B X 43. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.Turbine inlet. . filling out logs B. C.ATP . Rain shower. A X 58.B-727 only. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.DC-9 and DC 3. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight... Rainfall. Commercial .DC-9.Visual Flight Regulation.ATP .B-737..100 knots. mountain waves. B.B-727 and DC-3. B. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate.Commercial . Rain shower. severe clear air turbulence C. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. freezing precipitation. Commercial . What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.12 calendar months. other than pilot in command. C X 54. B. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A. must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A. C. mountain waves. severe icing B X 59.95 knots. moderate clear air turbulence B. mountain waves.B-747. C.24 calendar months. ATP . MH 300°.B-727 and B-747. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Activities..Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 52.90 knots.Instrument Control Regulation. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.Approach Control Regulation.6 calendar months. C.. C X 55. making passenger announcements C. and B-737.Compressor discharge.ATP . both a and b C X 56. A pilot flight crewmember. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. B-727. .. B. C X 53. B X 51.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.".B-727 and B-737. B. receive this ATC clearance: ".trip number and weight and balance data. freezing precipitation.B-747. B. C. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. include that A.Fuel spray nozzles...50.ATP . C X 57.. C. Thunderstorm. Commercial .weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A. A plane. B. the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. B X 70. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.Two A X 61. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.-Severe porpoising B X 69.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. Person who heard the emergency.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C X 64. C.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A. C X 60. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from .-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A. FL250 C X 66. instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization.ATP .C. A. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A..The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.It moves with the weather system. FL240 C. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.the eyes B. B. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to . It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 63. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. B. prior to flight conducted above A. C. FL200 B.A severe moment or "tuck under" C. and DC-9. C X 68. B.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A.. B.the inner C. DC-3.All turbine powered airplanes B.B-727.the proprioceptive system A X 67. C X 62..Four B. C. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A..Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 65. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.Three C.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given..It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. Person who found the emergency. Pilot in command. A. B X 78.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. A worm front and a upper jet C.the airplane rides on standing water.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree .．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30. A X 72. C X 79..What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A..A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.4Gs B X 77. braking action is "fair" B. B X 76.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. B.Dutch roll C X 73.2. braking action is "zero" C. A X 71. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 74. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.000 feet is closest to A. A cold front and a upper jet B.500 feet. C. C.Must be adhered to. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A...Wingover.750 feet. C.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.1 minute B X 75.2Gs.1. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.Does not preclude rejected landing.1Gs.Porpoise. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.500 pounds? A.25 seconds B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. . Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. the load factor is A.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. B.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.2. C. that the pilot accepts: A.1. B. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.100 feet. C. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28.Precludes a rejected landing. B.35MHz. braking action is "100%" A X 80.. which weather system we would encounter A. C. C.45 seconds C. B.124. A X 88.75 Mach.．Effective CRM has some characteristics.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.From.requiring a pilot to read back.M070.1. A. C. Temperature inversion. C. B. C.20 to 2. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. Wind stronger than 15 konts. B. procedures and people.070M. equipment. C. B. When advection fog has developed.From. i.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere. C X 85. B. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. Mach.CRM is a process using all available information and resources. C. C. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.may ultimately decide the team's actions.．An authoritative leader A.e. B. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.70 Marh.85MHz. C. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. Surface radiation.tends to make final decisions in an emergency. A X 90... B X 82. which of the following is right description about it? A.keeping flight status.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A. C X 81. to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A.20 Mach. and preferences. no further action is necessary C. when exit the runway.5. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. B.118.requiring a pilot to take specific action. B X . but seldom in other situations B.A and B C X 87. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.B.M0070.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. knowledge.Below. A X 86.8MHz. A X 89. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn. B... Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.75 to 1. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. C.127. B. C X 83. B X 84. . C.VIS2400m.VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m. an abrupt head movement A. C. The appearance of disordered low clouds B..(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis.the leans. B.Supercharger gear ratio. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots...Coriolis illusion. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A. This is known as )autokinesis. C. B.MDH100m.14 minutes. A X 96.VIS1600m. Light fog C. [Refer to Figure 4-37. the pilot should A..(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.The descent moment on the course of 227o. B. C.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. within a microburst.500 lb. 80 knots C. Fog C X 99.. B.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions.VIS1600m. C.HUAIROU VOR/DME.13 minutes. The appearance of anvil clouds top C.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A.15 minutes. A X 93.000 lb A. It begins to rain on the ground C X 94.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. C X 95. C X 100. A. B. B. C X 98. B X 92.MDH120m. C X 97.GUBEIKOU NDB.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A.Zero fuel weight: 126. C. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory .If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach . may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.The desired manifold pressure. 90 knots .Exhaust gas discharge.PIC time 94 hours.91. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. 40 knots B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Rain B. B. Select another type of navigation aid. Area flight information center.GUBEIKOU NDB. then select HUR VOR.B X 1. wind speed and temperatures is A.CCAFC.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. C X 3. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. going to or from a duty. then select HUR VOR. B. C. right turn. B.600m AGL. B... right turn. the wind direction. C. C X 4. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A. C X 5. B.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A. which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. C X 10.The descent moment on the course of 227o.. At what speed. Fog C X 2.Final approach fix. ZHHH B X 6. A X 7. B X 9.. C X 8. Light fog C. C. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A. with reference to L/DMAX.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators.How dose deadhead transportation. ZSSS B. C.by combining and comparing visual.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A. ZUUU C.Airport flight information office.The first holding pattern level..processing information from the eyes. (According to figure 2) .processing information from the inner ear. B. C.Climb straight ahead to L NDB. temperatures is -48℃ . affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A. B.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB. Rain B. C. vestibular and postural cues. C.not considered to be part of a rest period. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A. West wind at 60 KT.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX..A speed greater than that for L/DMAX..HUAIROU VOR/DME. B.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A. West wind at 24 KT. B. C..Conducted IFR.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions.Carrying passengers.000 pounds gross weight.000 pounds gross weight. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A.keeping flight status.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.VOR and DME A X 18. B. B.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top..Intermittent "backfire" stall. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace.VOR and ILS C.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.VOR B.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. Rain and fog C.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. route.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C X 19. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.Amber lights for the first 2.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5. if the flight will be A. on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 15. C X 13. Rain shower and thunderstorm B..Identify REIL.requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.B.. Adiabatic. C X 17. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 12. B.Use of three reversers at 124. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.DME C X 20. C. temperatures is 48℃ C. Northwest wind at 60 KT.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. C.. Katabatic.000 feet of runway. temperatures is -48℃ A X 11.requiring a pilot to read back. A X 14.500 pounds gross weight.Use of three reversers at 120. what action should be taken? A. B. or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 16. A. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. but not if it is "all cargo" C. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. [Refer to Figure 4-27. Advection. . Fly direct to a fix. C.One engine. 750 feet. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. C X 30. B. B X 24..Increase speed. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A.200 feet. wet runway? A.1.000 pounds? A. C. B. B X 28. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.pitching up. .7 days ago. B X 27. B.25 days ago. continuous flow reversal stall.. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.. A X 25. B.600m and DH 120m..0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.Steady.High RPM and low MAP.. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.Maintain speed. C.Y. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Decrease speed. B. Under normal operating conditions. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122. C..Z.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth. C X 21.B. C. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning.pitching down. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A. C.2.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. C. A X 26. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A. C. or when leaving an assigned holding fix..RVR 550m and DH 60m.2. C X 22.leveling off.At approximately 2. C.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.750 feet. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. C..Transient "backfire" stall. A X 23. when leaving an assigned holding fix. B.I. B X 29. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.RVR 1.15 days ago. 40 knots B.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C. within a microburst. C X 34.30.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500. with revenue cargo aboard.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A. 135°or SE B X 37.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. A.. Altitude.FL 8. . The statement is)right B. and indicated airspeed increase. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots.If required by the airplane's type certificate. Altitude. 200°or NW B.Low RPM and high MAP. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.35.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.400 feet. B. C..At high ground speeds.High RPM and high MAP.100 feet. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A. B X 39.wrong A X 38. C X 40.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights. pitch. A X 35. 80 knots C. Northwest wing can be presented as .(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge.FL 10. C.When wing lift has been reduced.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. B. [Refer to Figure 4-43.. C.32.. C. pitch.000 pounds. Altitude increase. B.Read the clearance back entirely. B X 33.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A.To protect science tests only. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. 315°or NW C. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A. B. B.Do not accept the clearance. and indicated airspeed decrease.600 pounds.. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. C. 90 knots C X 32..To protect military activities only. C X 36.B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines..ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. B X 31.200 pounds. B.000. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew.. C.FL 39.100 feet. It moves with the weather system. FL 250. B. C..153 knots and 2. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29. and approach must be VFR. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A.The existing and forecast weather for departure.C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land B X 49.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.When the wheels are locked and skidding. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84. outside the United States.Seven B.050 feet. C.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.1915Z.5 and 13 C. C X 45. B X 43..050 feet..WIND COMPONENT: 20HW.Five A X 42.11 B. The FAA Administrator only B X 46..30 minutes. FL 180.7and 11 B X 44.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. [Refer to Figure 4-41. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A. FL 200. hypoxia. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z.Six C. A sovereign country or government unit C. B X 47.GPS instrument approach operations.1945Z. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. three-engine. B.138 knots and 3. C. B. B X .050 feet. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration. B.29 minutes. B. C.123 knots and 3.45 minutes.1845Z.DISTANCE (NM): 120. C.Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A. B X 48.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. A X 41. must be authorized by A. en route. B.000. B X .(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. Expansion of air as rises.13 hours C.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. A X 55. B X 57.25 seconds B. The route filed in the flight plan.．The decision-making process is quite complex.a leader can balance act between the two types management style. C X 52. Radiation fog usually appears in . Movement of air over a colder surface.12hours B.000feet. While in IFR conditions.DECIED B X 51.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310.000 feet is closest to A.tailwind C. C. C.a participatory leader B. spring and summer.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. [Refer to Figure 4-30.. C.. An off-airway route to the point of departure.an authoritative leader C. B.50.DICIDE B.. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure.000 pounds? A.15 seconds C.139 knots. C X 56. the wind on the course is _____.. B. B. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters.132 knots. what type leader the captain should be? A. left crosswind C X 58.right crosswind B..．In order to make an effective communication.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110. Which route should be flown in the absence A.000feet. however. A. A X 59. winter and autumn. In northern hemisphere. C. C. authoritative and participatory.136 knots. summer and autumn. A.35 seconds B X 53. it can be condensed into the following six elements. what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.True altitude is lower than 31. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. B.They are both the same 31. A. B.DECIDE C.14 hours C X 54. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Upon arrival at ZBAA. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. C X 68. B X 63.RVR550m.Parallel only A X 67. A plane.retina B. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.16 hours A X 61.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. MH 240°. B X 64.. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. B. B.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.A severe moment or "tuck under" C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety.What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.cornea C. Ice pellets..Teardrop only B. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90.4 B.. Moist.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. little or no wind.12 C. on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot).".. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'.DH300'. B.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. C.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A.iris A X 65.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.VIS800m. TNA 90 is cleared for A. C..-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. Freezing rain.VIS1600m. .14 hours C.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. C. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. wet snow.DH200'. C.60. and high relative humidity.11 C X 69.-Severe porpoising B X 66. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. C X 62. A clear sky.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.10 hours B. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A. receive this ATC clearance: ". HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..Direct only C.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. trip number.300 pounds. B. C. Which information must be contained in. cold front. A X 73.000 feet. C.400 pounds.000 feet.9. descend 4℃ A X 74.g. 92 NAM. A. B. for every 1.May all be erased. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. or attached to. A X 72. 3℃ per 1.Type of operation (e. 97 NAM.A and B C X 77.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A.000 feet.1.] What is the change of total drag for a 140.1. C.10.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 25o. [Refer to Figure 4-29.000 feet increase in the troposphere. A.420 pounds. B.120 days after issue or renewal. A X 70. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force... C X 76. stationary front.1.descend 3℃ C. In average. A X 78.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. C. A. 102 NAM.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A. C.. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. C. decreases pressure gradient force.. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. B. company organization name. 2℃ per 1. At lower levels of the atmosphere.500 pounds. A X . descend 2℃ B. IFR. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. 4℃ per 1. A X 75. at a constant airspeed of 165 knots? A. and cargo weight.440 pounds. as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines..Passenger manifest. C.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. VFR). warm front.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C..390 pounds. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. the temperature of the air will . B.11.C. to flaps 0o.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A. B. B. gear up..May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. gear down. B X 71. B. intermediate stops.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. the flight must be able to A. at least the same width as the runway.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A. A X 81.11 A X 80. not as wide as the runway.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C. C.8 C.Departure airport.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.0045Z. B. A X 87. C. B. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.Cargo load.An area. B. and experiences a delay. on glidepath-green. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A. alternate airports. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.24 calendar months. low-red. A X 86.1 B. B X 84.High-white and green.. What information must be contained in.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A. A X 83. on glidepath-green. on glidepath-red and white. B. and trip number.6 calendar months.An area. low-red. C.. A X 82.1945Z. destinations. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. low-red. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.2015Z.Rate and radius will increase. .High-white.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C. weight and balance data. B.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.79. C. C X 88.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 85. B.12 calendar months.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A. and identification number of the aircraft.An alternate airport is required. or attached to. C.High-white. and approach must be VFR. B.6 hours. Strong wind with bad visibility C.. three-engine. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.B.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A. C. A. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to.The existing and forecast weather for departure.Some passengers may be carried. C. Low cloud and perhaps icing B.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle. however. B. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport. In a 24-hour consecutive period.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A.110. B.the change of sun radiation B. B. B X 94.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 91. it can be condensed into six elements. A. cumulonimbus clouds. en route.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China . what is the maximum time. low clouds and weak turbulent current B. shower and gale C. The first E is A.8 hours. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. excluding briefing and debriefing. after reaching the most distant alternate airport. A X 95.the property change of the underlying cushion C. B X 97. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.3MHz. clear after rain. Before taking off. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A. C.10 hours.the movement of the weather system B X 96. should be A.．The decision-making process is quite complex.. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. . A. whichever is less.. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 92..800m.. Cirrocumulus. C. the captain finds that on weather map. A X 89. nimbostratus. C. Snow shower A X 90..Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. using the acronym DECIDE. Standing lenticular. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai. A X 93.Evaluate the effect of the action C. left crosswind C X 3. C. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. Microburst C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe.. C X 98.is constant C X 1.90 hours .111.varies with the rate of turn.RVR 1.7MHz.RVR 550m and DH 60m. B X 100.750 feet. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3).. the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.B. Turbulence A X 2.What is a feature of supercooled water? A..300 feet.tailwind C.80hours B. C. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. [Refer to Figure 4-26. C.Motion about the vertical axis. Low-level wind share B.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. B.Motion about the longitudinal. B X 5. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135.114..600m and DH 120m. the wind on the course is _____. for no more than A. C. C..100 feet. A. then clear ice accumulates.7MHz. in any calendar month. B.RVR 800m and DH 60m. C.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters.For a given angle of bank.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.right crosswind B.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A. In northern hemisphere. A. B X 99. B. B X 6.000 pounds? A.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. C X 4. B. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. include that A..] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30. . good visibility C. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26. poor visibility A X 15.clear. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight. If an ATC controller assigns a speed. A X 14.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. .5times groundspeed in knots.Increase speed. C.100hours B X 7. making passenger announcements C.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance..thunderstorm. Direct tailwind.Maintain speed. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Dry runway using brakes and reversers.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A. increase speed to the assigned speed.Within the previous 12 calendar months. C.1.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132. B. C.5.. Light quartering tailwind. B. C. C..Wet runway using brakes. shower and high wind B. what should the pilot do? A. and he can realize that the current weather may be A. C. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH.440 pounds.Within the previous 6 months.10 times groundspeed in knots.stratonimbus. B. A X 13.023 pounds.Activities.000. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A. Just prior to takeoff. Light quartering headwind.732 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-34. C X 9. both a and b C X 10.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport. B.1. spoilers and reversers. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. B. filling out logs B. B. light rain.500 pounds? A.C. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. C.. A X 11. six ILS approaches. B X 12. C X 8. 8times groundspeed in knots. B. high wind. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed.Decrease speed. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.Within the previous 6 months. En route at FL270. what will it indicate upon landing? A.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 18. The parcel of air resists convection.Pilot in command. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. On descent. B.Not more than 1 hour. C.500 feet B. at an intermediate airport.If the field elevation is 650feet.000feet C.300feet C.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. B. the altimeter is set correctly.1. a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A..1.Director of operations or flight follower. C. How long before a redispatch release is required? A. weather. A X 24. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.Aircraft dispatcher. B X 17.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory .and the altimeter is functioning properly. and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.More than 6 hours. B. A X 22.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground. as ATS has radar contact B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? . C X 20.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A.Request a new ATC clearance C. B.B X 16. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B.500 feet B X 23. A X 19. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.Not more than 2 hours. As the parcel of air moves upward.585feet B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. C. C.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.1.Sea level C X 21.. after the conflict is resolved C X 25.57. C. may change or may not change A X 33.876 hours and 298 landings.3016KHz. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.12 feet.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.113. B.MDH100m. ability. B. ability.not change C. B.113.the caption's power.8897KHz.8 feet.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A. C X 26. B.A.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767. C.000 meters.VIS1600m. to the A. C.2. The PIC has 1. the pilot in command must report it. C X 34. B.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources .In flight . B.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.．In a decision-making process . it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A. C. C. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. the CG will A. vestibular and postural cues. pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122. A.3000m. B X 32. a participatory leader A.3. an apt arranging is A.600m.. if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2. In a flight crew.114. B.MDH120m. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z. nearest CAAC district office.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. ability.as the time goes on . A X 30. as soon as practicable. B. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87. operations manager (or director of operations).a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. C. C X 27.. C. B X 29.the caption's power.800m.7MHz. ATC and dispatcher.6MHz. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight.the caption's power. while operating under Part 121. C. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach.. B X 28. C.20MHz.VIS1600m. B X 31. B. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.VIS2400m.change B.10 feet.6KHz. A X 35.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK.MDH120m. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings.DH65m，RVR550 B X 38. B X 39. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A. while operating under Part 121. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A. used to provide destination or information. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. have A. B. wind speed and temperatures is A. C. and preferences.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.Airport information signs. A.Copy of the flight plan. temperatures is -48℃ A X 37. A. When distress conditions such as fire.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. B X 36. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.MDH100m. C.Cargo and passenger distribution information. West wind at 60 KT. B. A. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. temperatures is -48℃ B. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.VIS1600m.when the flight arrives.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. as PIC.the red blood cells B. or structural damage occurs..the plasma C.VIS1600m. temperatures is 48℃ C. A X 41.during the entire flight.VIS2400m.(To be continued 考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway .may ultimately decide the team's actions.hemoglobin C X 43.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 42. Northwest wind at 60 KT. C X 40.White inscriptions on a black background C.DH65m，RVR600 C. the wind direction. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. mechanical failure. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. C. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.C.. B.. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.(1-1) At a waypoint . West wind at 24 KT. B. knowledge.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121.. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots.Y. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A. B.Zero fuel weight: 125. C.. By convective mixing in cool night air. B X 46..Red B.. B X 51. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. C X 48. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.15 minutes.16 minutes.737 feet per minute. C.500 pounds? Initial weight: 180.Green.C. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. B X 49.500 lb A. B. C X 53. [Refer to Figure 4-37.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.Limiting torque. B.843 feet per minute. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A.. C X 50. C. C. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 44. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A..] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144. B.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. B.70 percent of the actual runway available.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.Z. B.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. A X 52. . B X 45. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.Limiting compressor speed.632 feet per minute.Amber C..What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. By wind or the movement of air.I. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A.. B X 47.500 lb.13 minutes. B. C. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B.12hours B.9 only C. B. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 56. A.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions.514MHz. B. warm front. B.113. B.contradictory data or personal conflicts. C X 61.Coriolis illusion.. Person who heard the emergency. Person who found the emergency. C.FL128.6 only A X 55. cold front. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.7MHz. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A. C.114. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C.Resolve discrepancies. B.9and6 B.8 B. C. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. This is known as )autokinesis.. B X 58.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.. C X 63.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. C. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A. B X 57. C.6MHz.. stationary front.2 B X 60. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .10hours C. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Pilot in command.FL138.8hours B X . C. C X 62.FL158. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. B.B X 54.1 C.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. an abrupt head movement A. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. C X 59.the leans. 6 hours.inward and aft B.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C X 66. C.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.As temperature decreases. thrust decreases.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C. B. C X 70. the maximum bearing error permissible is A.As temperature increases. the air pressure have reduced 1. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B.7 hours. a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as A. For past three hours.8 hours. 80 knots C.Plus 6 or minus 4 C. thrust increases.64. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. B. C..If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations. C. the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. thrust decreases.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces.. 40 knots B.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A. B.autokinesis.. B X 68.Plus or minus 6 B. For past three hours.As temperature increases. C. within a microburst. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. C X 65. B. 90 knots C X 71.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A.outward and forward B X 72. C.. You are considered clear of runway when A.．In the dark. A X 69.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 73.7hPa.ground lighting illusion. C X 67.somatogravic illusion.Plus or minus4? A X . You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces.inward and forward C. 360 feet. B. is A.0600z.. The fuel reserve required. B. A X 76. etC．as far as possible. C. A. fuel burn. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A.245 feet. . B X 77.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A..70 Marh. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. B X 83. C.1. obscured thunderstorm with hail B. C X 80.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.3 C. Severe mountain wave. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B.0700z. B.1.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.262 feet. A X 81.M070.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA.070M..Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption..change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. B. embedded thunderstorms C. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. the altitude of LOM is 1.4 B X 78.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.1.. C.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.2 B. C.360 feet.M0070.0630z. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. B. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.Maximum single-engine rate of climb. twinengine airplane represent? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. Severe mountain wave. Severe turbulence. embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 82.74.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light. C. A X 79. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. B X 75. C. Some places have CBs. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. B. [Refer to Figure 4-27.45 minutes. ... C. B. C.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.DISTANCE (NM): 120.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Z. the base is unknown B X 93. B.000 pounds? A.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84.. C X 90.] What is the transition distance when landing on an icy runway at a gross weight of 134. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. B X 85. [Refer to Figure 4-26. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet.WIND COMPONENT: 20HW.1. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A. B.400 feet.Intermittent "backfire" stall. C.Y.350 feet.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.300 feet.30 minutes.. B X 88..950 feet.1. C.7 days ago.111.000 pounds gross weight? A. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A.7MHz.Transient "backfire" stall. C.114. B. B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds.I. spoilers and reversers at 140.25 days ago. Expansion of air as rises..3MHz. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. C X 92.110.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances.7MHz.050 feet..1.29 minutes. B X 87. continuous flow reversal stall.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart. B X 86.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C X 84. CBs with little or no separation B.Steady.650 feet. the base is unknown C. C X 89. C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A. A X 91.. C.15 days ago. C. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route.000. B.C. B.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes. flaps 40o.127 knots. Movement of air over a colder surface.149 knots.17. C. A X 100..] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 140. C. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere.130 knots. B X 96. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 2.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.000 pounds. from left crosswind to right crosswind. and load manifests for at least A.. B.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. At the poles.. [Refer to Figures 4-22. A X 94.000 pounds? A. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B X 98. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. B.300 pounds.800 pounds. C. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A.3 months. dispatch releases. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.20. C.. B.. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A. B. what should the pilot do? . from headwind to tailwind. A. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). B. A X 95.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A. C X 97. C. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. C X 99.6 months. C.000 pounds.30 days. B. B. [Refer to Figure 4-30. the wind direction usually changes. C.137 knots. At the equator. with gear down.B. 4-23 and 4-24. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110. C X 1. C. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A. C.156 knots.124 knots.22. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. B. 2. C. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. Northwest wing can be presented as . reduce speed to the assigned speed. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.FL118.M. B.X. A X 4. Commercial . reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. B. C. B X 7. C X 6. B. ATP .If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released.B-747. B. the airplane displays A.2.A. Intermittent light turbulence. 7777.RVR 1. B. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. 7200. Moderate chop.B-737. 315°or NW C. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737.. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C X 12. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. 7500.-positive longitudinal static stability. B X 5. C. . Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.01 EPR. C.N.. A X 8..Commercial . B-727. B.2. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.B-727 and B-737.ATP .B-747.03 EPR. 135°or SE B X 11. B.. B. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.What is the hijack code? A. B.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118.FL128. 200°or NW B. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. C. if you are assigned to an additional flight.B-727 and B-747. B. B X 9. During the period of Spring Festival. occasional light chop. C. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m.ATP .600m and DH 120m.. C. A X 10.-neutral longitudinal static stability. C. and B-737. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. C. A.04 EPR.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.. what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL138. C X 3. then alternate red and white lights to the end B. then red lights to the end . load manifest. C X 15. C. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A. A X 13. C.2 B X 21.000 feet.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. C X 22.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107. C. and flight release.GPS instrument approach operations. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. A X 18.. outside the United States.-neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. [Refer to Figure 4-28.110 knots. C.Dispatch release.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 16.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1. and weight and balance release.1.Load manifest.1 C.000 feet. must be authorized by A.350 feet.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. B.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B. B.750 feet. B. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A.C. C.90 knots.96 knots.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. C.. flight plan.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. and flight plan.000 feet. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A.2. B. C X 20.Alternate red and white lights from 3.Low-speed flight only. B.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B.. flight plan. B X 19. The FAA Administrator only B X 17. A sovereign country or government unit C.2. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.000 feet to 1.500 pounds? A. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.High-speed flight only.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.8 B.Dispatch release. and never in climbs or descents B X 14. B.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. . intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.during normal operation C X 28.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time. low clouds and weak turbulent current B. select the situation least likely to A. clear after rain. C X 26. A X 24. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. spoilers. B. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 31. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport.C. 3000 metres . A. the stability A.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A.000 pounds gross weight. and airport elevation? A.. three of which may be in a glider.Decrease C. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A. holding.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. C.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle.six instrument approaches.. and reversers at 130.Higher than at low temperature.The same as at low temperature.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. B. plus holding.Brakes and reversers at 115.Improves B.dose not change A X 25.. cumulonimbus clouds. A X 27.when destination weather is marginal IFR. B. C.000 feet to the end of the runway B X 23.Alternate red and white lights from3. C. A X 30.000 pounds gross weight.(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.six instrument approaches. An alternate airport for departure is required A. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.As the CG is moved forward. shower and gale C. 900 metres C.000 pounds gross weight. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times. From the following list.Brakes. B. [Refer to Figure 4-25. Before taking off.Lower than at low temperature. dizziness B. wind.vomiting B X 29.Brakes and spoilers at 125. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.. 300 metres B. the captain finds that on weather map.after a period of intense concentration C. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°. B X 33. C.M0070.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. C. C.70 Marh.. A X 34.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing.070M.Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. A. embedded thunderstorms C.M070. Severe mountain wave.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0..from north to south A X 39.1.000 feet B.from west to east C. B. C.800 feet. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . B. Aerodrome warning C.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B. the most appropriate remedy would be A. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia. C X 36. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. Flying in rain. Hazardous weather warning A X 41. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A. A X 35..1. obscured thunderstorm with hail B. B.from east to west B. C. embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 40.A X 32. A.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.propeller thrust only.. flying in any clouds.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.. Severe turbulence. B. Severe mountain wave. and flight plan. A X 38. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A.500 feet C. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. Wind shear warning B.Dispatch release. C X 42. B.1. load manifest (or information from it).voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 37.turbine inlet temperature. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing . Thisclouds is referred as A..What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A. C.. stratus or nimbostratus B. flaps 40o. [Refer to Figure 4-28.800 pounds.100 feet. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 51. altostratus or stratocumulus C.strong leadership B X 49. B.a shallow authority gradient B.000 pounds.a steep authority gradient C. B. CBs with little or no separation B..ATMB NOTAMs office. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. the base is unknown B X 44. with gear down. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.20. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 43.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.At approximately 2. B X 47. C X . C.Area flight information center.. at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth. C. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root.. B.17.Airport flight information office.Rate and radius will increase. C.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.300 pounds. A X 45. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed C. C. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143. the base is unknown C. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet.850 feet. B X 50.22.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A. B X 46.B. C.400 feet. wet runway? A. B.-rate will decrease and radius will increase. [Refer to Figure 4-30. B..] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. Some places have CBs. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A. before takeoff. This situation could be described as A.000 pounds? A.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. C X 48. B.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.000 pounds. . 80 knots C. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A. A plane. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? A. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the . C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 62. C X 55. At the EFC time. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.52. A X 61. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. B. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.Opposite direction. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots. C.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. C X 60.Direct only C. 40 knots B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C. C. B X 58..How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A. after initial training? A. C. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. 24 calendar months. B. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. C X 56. C..Z.I. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.Teardrop only B. high personal attention and high task orientation B. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.". B.Remains fixed for all positions.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment. 12 calendar months. 90 knots B X 57. 6 calendar months. B.Two A X 59.Parallel only A X 53. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. MH 240°.Four C.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green yellow and white beacon light B..Five B.. receive this ATC clearance: ".medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 54.... B. within a microburst. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure.Some direction. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.Y. B X 66. affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A. A X 63.A. B X 69.Intermittent "backfire" stall. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A. smooth airflow and advection fog C. B.V1. what action is required? A.96 knots. by the applicant. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 65. B. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period.6MHz. C. layer clouds B. rotor cloud.How dose deadhead transportation.113. C. going to or from a duty. B. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.114. A.not considered to be part of a rest period.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C. warm front clouds B X . Descending to the surface and then outward.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. C.7MHz.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B. Low stratus. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. it will usually produce .VLOF. Standing lenticular. C. B X 71.V2. B.. B. B. C X 70.. C.. continuous flow reversal stall.Steady..110 knots.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. C. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes..certificate holder's operations specifications..90 knots. C X 68. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.Transient "backfire" stall. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A.. B. B. B X 67. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate.6KHz. B X 64. C.113. B X 76.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.3 PEK. unable to climb 500 ft/min. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A. C X 78.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767.D0. if still IMC? A. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A.72.As air density decreases. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.000 meters.. B. A. C. Vacating an altitude.MDH120m. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. B. C.876 hours and 298 landings. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87..D0. Position reports.Immediately after ground contact. (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL.. are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. Position reports.Above PEK VOR. 200 knots B.1 B. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. thrust decreases. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A. B.As temperature increases. B. B. C. B. Below that altitude.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X . B.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.600 meters..Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. C.8 C. .000 meters. A X 73.VIS1600m. thrust increases.Immediately prior to touchdown.. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. unable to climb 500 ft/min. except when in cruise flight. 170 knots C. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. 3. C X 79. while operating under Part 121. The PIC has 1.. 150 knots B X 77.VIS1600m. vacating an altitude. unable to climb 500 ft/min.11 A X 80. B X 74. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C.VIS2400m. C.MDH100m. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. 6. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C.2 PEK.As temperature increases. 3. thrust increases. vacating an altitude. B X 75. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. e. braking action is "100%" A X 85. turbojet powered) is A.123 feet.6 months. i.12.(To be continued，efficient flight operation. B..The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e. braking action is "zero" C. A X 86. braking action is "fair" B.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources..097 feet. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.wrong A X 88. B.13.0630z.0700z..cornea C. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. equipment. B.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A.visibility 1.12.600m and ceiling 120m. C X 91.Outer compass locator. C. C. and load manifests for at least A. which minimums apply? A.81.initial training.Middle compass locator. C. A X 87. C X 89. B. B. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. procedures and people. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. C.. B X 82. to achieve a safe and A. The statement is)right B. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A.3 months. 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A..transition training. . dispatch releases. (Refer to Figure 6-3. When proceeding to the alternate airport.g. B.Inner marker.retina B.093 feet.0600z.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. C. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 84.30 days.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A. Convection currents at the surface.. B X 83.upgrade training.iris A X 90. C. . Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B. B.A lower angle of attack. B X 93. C. B.A higher angle of attack. C.Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach. B X 97. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. B.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B X 95. Cold temperatures.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.The same angle of attack.Higher than pressure altitude.B. A X 96.．The blind spot is A.HUAILAI. C..the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.137 knots. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B. B X 94.130 knots. B. 4-23 and 4-24. C X 98.] What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A.D38 to HUAIROU.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A. C. C X 92. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 100.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.Lower than pressure altitude. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A.The point cleared by ATC. Poor visibility.124 knots. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.. B. C.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350. C X 99. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. C. the absence of clouds in the area B..What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A.. C. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. an area of no convective turbulence C. [Refer to Figures 4-22. B. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. C. B X . may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. B.When wing lift has been reduced.When the wheels are locked and skidding.N. C. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.S.V1. B.. C X 4. 125 NAM. B.G. B. B.Same direction.A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.26 minutes. at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance.1.At high ground speeds.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.. B X 3. in point of time. following a failure of the critical engine at VEF.each calendar week B X 8.25 minutes. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A. the pilot in command A. B. The minimum speed during takeoff. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment. B X 5.Opposite direction... 6 calendar months. C. C. must land at the nearest suitable airport.V2min . at which a safe landing can be made.ATMB NOTAMs office. C. C. B.What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect? A. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. 118 NAM.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C. after initial training? A. A X 9. B. .An increase in dynamic stability. C X 2. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane. A X 7.24 minutes.Remains fixed for all positions A X 6. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A. B. C. 12 calendar months. C. C X 10. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A. 24 calendar months.. 118 NAM. C.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.every 7 consecutive days B.VLOF. is indicated by symbol A. 762 feet. receive this ATC clearance: ". A X .What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A.ADF C. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.3 A X 15. C.755 feet... C X 14.. MH 300°..A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.01 EPR.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.600 feet or more.VOR B. A.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A. C X 19. B.000 pounds..000 pounds.. C.Teardrop only B.After passing the visual descent point (VDP).04 EPR.124. C.Direct only C.from east to west B..VOR and DME A X 20. B X 13.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°.137. B X 12.03 EPR. C.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height.".When the RVR is 1.Parallel only C X 18.000 pounds.2.2.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.2. B.from north to south A X 16. B. [Refer to Figure 4-27.870 feet.200-foot icy runway? A.C X 11.108..At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time.2 C.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B.1 B. C. C. B X 17.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways. A plane. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.from west to east C.At least one hour prior to the departure time. B.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. braking action is "100%" B X 26. C. to maintain enough separation. and irregularities of facilities and services? A. temperatures is 48℃ C. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A.. wind speed and temperatures is A. C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 29.Director of operations. C. C. to achieve the desired separation. B. A X 24. B.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 22. B. C. braking action is "fair" B.500 feet. temperatures is -48℃ B.from headwind to tailwind.VMD. A X 28. . B. West wind at 24 KT.000 pounds gross weight? A. both a and b C X 25. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A. if enough fuel A. B. temperatures is -48℃ A X 30. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1. Northwest wind at 60 KT.from left crosswind to right crosswind. By regulation. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. the wind direction usually changes . B X 27. [Refer to Figure 4-25.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.21. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere.. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather..An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 23.000 feet.. West wind at 60 KT. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China. B.1.VFC.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.The aircraft dispatcher. A. B.VMU.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.Air route traffic control center.A runway Boundary Sign C. . . When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. the wind direction.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110. braking action is "good" C. WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.Any flight crewmember. any exit. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 34.19. B X 35.20. B X 36. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A. [Refer to Figure 4-39. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. C. B.C. C.800 feet. whichever is less. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.Either pilot.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90.propeller thrust only. after reaching the most distant alternate airport. B.1945Z. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. if qualified. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. which of the following applies? A.. B.400 feet. B.300 feet. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. C. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. C. any aisle in the passenger compartment. B. B X 33. B X 32.1845Z. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.jet thrust only.23. A X 37. or use of. C. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.1915Z. C X 31.000 feet. B. C. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC. or use of. back to the departure airport. A X .The second in command only. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. should be A. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. B. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China . For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.. A X 38. C. if they have a flight engineer certificate. flaps 30o...4-51. with gear down. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route. 8 to 9 km B.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. and 4-54.1 hours 04 minutes.11.15 to 17 km B X 46.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation. C.9.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.11. B.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation. A X 40. B. as ATS has radar contact B.80 Mach? A. A. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A.. B X 42.11. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA..it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 41.11. plus or minus 3minutes.1 hours 02 minutes.200 pounds.800 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-49. [Refer to Figure 4-30. B.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750. C X 45..503 pounds.4-52. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches.Read the clearance back entirely. [Refer to Figure 4-45. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time. C. B.754 pounds.reduced visual field C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory . What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly .several headache B.. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A. 4-50. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. A X 47. C. whichever is later.227 pounds. C.a feeling of euphoria A X 44. the pilot should A.000 pounds. C X 48.Do not accept the clearance.1 hours 07 minutes.Request a new ATC clearance C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately.39. after the conflict is resolved C X 43.4-53. C.] What is the ETE at .．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. B.10 to 12 km C.17.000 pounds. 75.Over domestic only. C X 49...Steepen the bank and increase airspeed.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80. B X 55.5 percent. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. B X 57.000 feet C.... B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.As altitude increases.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25.2.. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.Over domestic and open sea. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. B. B X 50. [Refer to Figure 4-32. Cirrocumulus..79.propeller thrust only.What is a feature of supercooled water? A.turbine inlet temperature. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe. C..000. B. B. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. thrust decreases. then clear ice accumulates. C. C. .1. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. nimbostratus.500 feet.Over open sea. B X 54. B X 53. B. B.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.3 percent. B X 51. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.77.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. Standing lenticular. B X 56.2.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.4 percent. B. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. B X 52.000 feet B. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. C.A. C X 58. HIALS with PAPI. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. C. A.12 feet. B. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.As altitude decreases.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B. C.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.As altitude increases. both a and b C X 64. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. C.9. A X 61.Activities. A X 66.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. . An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 67.8 feet. A X 63. B..one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.000m.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the ..000m. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3).White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C. A X 60. filling out logs B.100m.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 68. C. include that A.B..12.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.10 feet. C. B X 62. .HIALS. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. B.Green yellow and white beacon light B.PAPI. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. C. A X 65.. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight. thrust decreases. C.the airplane rides on standing water. B. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A. making passenger announcements C. thrust increases. B. A X 59.3. 000.wrong A X 76. equipment..What is the hijack code? A. which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A.. The statement is A.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. the wind direction. B. B X 69. 1. B. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.25 seconds B.e. 7200.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.15 seconds C. to achieve a safe and A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. B X 73.wrong A X 72.DISTANCE (NM): 70.. [Refer to Figure 4-41. 7777..right B. . temperatures is -52℃ C X 70.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.A.000 feet or less to another aircraft. 500feet or less to another aircraft. Northeast wind at 35 KT.000 feet is closest to A.346 C. 50 feet or less to another aircraft.354 C X 78. C. Southwest wind at 14 KT.74..rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. 330 knots C.166 B.000 meters.-Drag and reduce airspeed. C.-Lift at low speeds. Southwest wind at 35 KT. procedures and people.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW. 250 knots C X 74. i.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. B X 75. C. wind speed and temperatures is A.(To be continued，efficient flight operation. B X 77.000 pounds. 7500.-L/Dmax.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. (According to figure 6) At point B. The statement is)right B. C.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources. temperatures is -52℃ B. B. B. 350 knots B.35 seconds B X 71. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. temperatures is 52℃ C.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. B X 80.delay stall.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 88.5 hours 20 minutes.000m.093 feet.increase the load factor. B. A X 86. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. B X 84.300m.87.220m. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B.000. B.3. C X 85. B.500 feet....13.400 pounds. (Refer to Figure 6-3. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.12.One purpose of high-lift devices is to A. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed.Eustachian tube B.TCAS I provides A. C..TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.000 feet B.160m.the cochlea C. C. [Refer to Figure 4-43.74.FL 6. B. C.000.0 percent.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100... C. C. C X 81. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.097 feet.FL 600m.12.increase airspeed.83. C.000 feet C.FL 6.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.4 percent.86.73. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. B. if the authorized MDH is 100 meters.180 pounds.5 hours 3 minutes.the semicircular canals C X . C. [Refer to Figure 4-32.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. C X 87. C.Traffic and resolution advisories B.4 percent.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27. A X 79.Proximity warning C. A X 82.2.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. B.B.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35.123 feet.5 hours 55 minutes. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.3.150m. A X 83. 89.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. B X 90.. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. B. Descending to the surface and then outward. C. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface. B X 91. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 92..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 93.. Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A. Katabatic. B. Advection. C. Adiabatic. C X 94.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots A X 95.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 96. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A.ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. B.ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. C.ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9. C X 97.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. B X 98.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 99.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 100.．Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. A X ATPL06 1.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B C X 2.. A plane, MH 300°, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only B X 3.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Motion about the longitudinal. B.Motion about the lateral axis. C.Motion about the vertical axis. B X 4. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A.1 month. B.3 months. C.12 months. B X 5. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. C.Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. C X 6. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. B X 7. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C.International Notices To Airmen A X 8.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140,000 pounds, with gear up, flaps 25o, and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.13,700 pounds. B.18,600 pounds. C.22,000 pounds. B X 9.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Inner marker. B.Middle compass locator. C.Outer compass locator. C X 10.. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A.Maximum range and distance glide. B.Best angle of climb. C.Maximum endurance. A X 11.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 12.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. C X 13.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 14. .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C X 15.. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. A X 16.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 17.．What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 18.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. B X 19. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 20.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. A X 21.. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds if flaps are not used? A.138 knots and 3,900 feet. B.153 knots and 2,900 feet. C.183 knots and 2,900 feet. C X 22.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 23. . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. A X 24. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. A X 25.. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 26.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 27.．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin C X 28. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 29..Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. C. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. A X 30.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7,200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118,000 pounds gross weight? A.4,200 feet. B.4,500 feet. C.4,750 feet. B X 31.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. A hard landing. B. Increased landing rollout. C. Landing short of the runway threshold. B X 32.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 33.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. C X 34.. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force C X 35.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. B.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. C.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward. B X 36.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach, if the authorized MDH is 100 meters, it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. B.150m. C.160m. A X 37..(according to figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s A X 38.. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. B X 39.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 40.．In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload B X 41.．When making an approach to a wider-than-usual runway, without VASI assistant, there is a tendency A.to fly a lower-than -normal approach. B.to fly a higher-than -normal approach. C.to fly a normal approach. B X 42.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 43.. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. C X 44. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A.3 months. B.6 months. C.30 days. A X 45.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground C X 46. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Pilot in command. C.Director of operations or flight follower. B X 47.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.- Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. B X 48.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 49.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 50.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). B.When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. C.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. C X 51.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 52.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 53.. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A.High RPM and low MAP. B.Low RPM and high MAP. C.High RPM and high MAP. B X 54.. For an airport without air corridor, the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.40 kilometers. B.50 kilometers. C.46 kilometers. B X 55.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 56.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. B X 57.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.11,227 pounds. B.11,503 pounds. C.11,754 pounds. A X 58.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.each calendar week B X 59. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 60.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 61.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. B X 62.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. C X 63.. In flight, pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. The descriptive cloud should be. A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 64.．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. B X 65. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 66.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach , the pilot should A. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory , C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 67.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 68.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 69.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 70.. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced B X 71.. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction. B. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway, or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. C X 72. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B.In terminal radar service areas C.Above 12,500 feet MSL A X 73.. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. B X 74.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 75. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 76.. Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. B X 77.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. C.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C X 78..Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground C X 79.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 80.TCASII provides A.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 81.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs B X 82.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. A X 83.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A.Negative longitudinal static stability B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 84.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 85.. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 86.．What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. C X 87.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. C X 88.. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply full main wheel braking only. B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C X 89.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 90.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Two B.One C.Zero B X 91.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 92.. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. A X 93. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 94.．In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. C X 95. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 96.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight: 181,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 126,000 lb A.15 minutes. B.14 minutes. C.13 minutes. C X 97.. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation, wind, and airport elevation? A.Higher than at low temperature. B.Lower than at low temperature. C.The same as at low temperature. A X 98.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 99.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. B.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. C.The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds. A X 100.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84,000,DISTANCE (NM): 120,WIND COMPONENT: 20HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. B.45 minutes. C.29 minutes. B X 1.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. A X 2. Group II aircraft are A.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 3.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only, and never in climbs or descents B X 4.. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed, Ground? A.VMC. B.VMCG. C.VMCA. B X 5.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps C X 6. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 7.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 8.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 9.. (According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH B X 10. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.11 B.5 and 13 C.7and 11 B X 11.. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 12.What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain at Vmc ? A.Heading. B.Heading and altitude. C.Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min. A X 13.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. give the wing a lower camber B. increase wing sweep. C.add slats C X 14. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. Upon arrival at ZBAA, TNA 90 is cleared for A.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20',VIS800m. B.DH200',RVR550m. C.DH300',VIS1600m. C X 15. .The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both a and b C X 16.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 17.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. C X 18.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . A X 19. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 10 days. B. 24 hours. C. 5 days. C X 20.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B C X 21. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.1922Z. B.1952Z. C.0022Z. C X 22.. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. A X 23.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 24.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.16hours B.17 hours C.18 hours A X 25.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. C.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel. B X 26..Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance B. decreased takeoff distance C. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 27.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. B X 28.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 29.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 30.. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. At the Poles. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. At the Equator. A X 31.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.(To be continued，health, and whether the pilot smoking or not. The statement is )right B.wrong A X 32.. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4,800m. B.An alternate airport is required. C.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B X 33.. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.V2. B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 34. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A.certificate holder's operations specifications. B.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. C.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. A X 35.．Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals C X 36.. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140,000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A.123 knots and 3,050 feet. B.138 knots and 3,050 feet. C.153 knots and 2,050 feet. B X 37.. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. A X 38.. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. A X 39..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. C X 40. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. C X 41.. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. A X 42. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.2005Z. B.1905Z. C.0005Z. C X 43.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Low-speed flight only. B.High-speed flight only. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 44.. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. A X 45.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing, increasing its A.angle of attack B.camber C.energy B X 46.. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. A X 47.. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. B X 48.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would encounter A. A worm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 49. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 50.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 51.. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. C X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90,ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF,WING ANTI-ICE: OFF,ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC,AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.19,400 feet. B.20,000 feet. C.23,800 feet. B X 53.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 54.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW, A.97.2 minutes. B.99.8 minutes. C.103.7 minutes. C X 55.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18,000 pounds? Initial weight: 162,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 120,500 lb A.10 minutes. B.9 minutes. C.8 minutes. A X 56..Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. C X 57.. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C X 58.. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.When wing lift has been reduced. B.At high ground speeds. C.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 59.. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft weight reduces? A.Increasing speed or altitude. B.Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. C.Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. B X 60.. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.turbine inlet temperature. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C.propeller thrust only. B X 61.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.5 hours 15 minutes. B.5 hours 40 minutes. C.5 hours 55 minutes. B X 62. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. C X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. C X 64.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 65.. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position. C.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B X 66.. [Refer to Figure 4-25.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125,000 pounds? A.1,200 feet. B.850 feet. C.400 feet. C X 67.In a light ,twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. B X 68.En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57.If the field elevation is 650feet,and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing? A.585feet B.1.300feet C.Sea level C X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71,000,DISTANCE (NM): 200,WIND COMPONENT: 30TW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.34 minutes. B.55 minutes. C.57 minutes. C X 70. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 71.. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. A X 72.. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. B X 73..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 74. .Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. braking action is "fair" B. braking action is "good" C. braking action is "100%" B X 75..What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. B X 76. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 77.. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. A X 78.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.RVR 1,000 feet C.RVR 700 feet. C X 79.. [Refer to Figure 4-41.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87,000,DISTANCE (NM): 370,WIND COMPONENT: 60HW,HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.80,850 pounds. B.85,700 pounds. C.77,600 pounds. A X 80.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 81.. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A.Immediately after ground contact. B.Immediately prior to touchdown. C.After applying maximum wheel braking. A X 82.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.108.10 to 118.10 MHZ B.108.10 to 111.95 MHZ C.108.10 to 117.95 MHZ. B X 83.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 84.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? A.autokinesis. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.14 minutes. B. C.don't read small print within one hour of flying. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.In altocumulus cloud. C X 91.Zero fuel weight: 125. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed . B. C. C X 90.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. C. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.Adhere to standard operating procedures.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.Two A X 93. A X 89. etC．as far as possible.High speed. A X 92.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A.ground lighting illusion.500 lb.500 lb A. B. B X 88. B.Four C. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing B.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. C.17 minutes. This illusion is known as A.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. such as cirrus.Any speed..85. [Refer to Figure 4-37. a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.16 minutes.Five B. B X 86.Low speed. C. C.somatogravic illusion. B. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.in high clouds.．In the dark. C..wear good quality sunglasses during the day. B..What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A. C X 87. B.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. which would help to enhance night vision? A.avoid using contact lenses B X 94. fuel burn.in cumliform clouds B. B.. A. whichever is greater. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle. A X 98. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 5%. layer clouds B. poor visibility A X 3.Four times greater. good visibility C. RCLS. whichever is greater. it will usually produce .C. warm front clouds B X 1.thunderstorm.The same.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A. TDZL.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope.Two times greater. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt. Angle of attack. C X 4. and power B. A change in cruising true airspeed of 5 knots or 10%.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A. and RVR.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.Radar and RVR. marker beacons. angle of attack . high wind. and approach lights? A.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.20 MHz is the major communication frequency.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. a participatory leader A.It means frequency 122. and airspeed A X 2.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear.20? A.and power C.stratonimbus. C X 96.RCLS and REIL C. shower and high wind B. B X 97.clear. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport. Load factor . B.. B. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing A X 95. C X 100. Weight. C. what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.It means 122..Amber C.．In a decision-making process . C. . It should be reported without ATC request that A. C.Green C X 99. Just prior to takeoff.20 is very important. and he can realize that the current weather may be A.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground. B. weight. light rain. whichever is greater.HIRL. smooth airflow and advection fog C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.What affects indicated stall speed? A. B. A change in cruising true airspeed of 10 knots or 10%. C..Red B. load factor. the pilot should A. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path.000 meters..tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. knowledge. C. 3.1.Outer compass locator.364 feet/minute. C. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival .9 NM point is indicated? A. B X 8. B. C X 14. C. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.400 feet/minute. C.. C X 11. B X 7. B X 13.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. Below that altitude.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower.Inner marker. B. C. 3.1.1. B.000 meters.To warn the pilot. B X 10.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.Airspeed.Middle compass locator.To state some important information. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D. 6..430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope. B. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff. A X 6.2% to FL148? A.Altitude.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A..right B.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope.wrong A X 12. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. and preferences.. C.-Increase the camber of the wing. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. A X 9. B. A X 5. B. C.320 feet/minute. B. C. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A. The statement is A.600 meters. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1. are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.Angle of attack. except when in cruise flight.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.may ultimately decide the team's actions. select the situation least likely to A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate.(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B.. stationary front. C.Best angle of climb. A X 18.Dispatch release. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 17. .at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. C X 22.127. C. AWW's. and weight and balance release. A X 20. A. etC．as far as possible.127. A X 21.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.Brakes. B.6KHz. B.Brakes and spoilers at 120.. B.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. airspeed performance B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. cold front.6MHz. B. PIREP'S and AIRMETS.000 pounds gross weight.Maximum range and distance glide.SIGMETS. and flight release. C.Dispatch release.000 pounds gross weight.. flight plan. C X 15.after a period of intense concentration C. [Refer to Figure 4-26. B. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.7MHz. NOTAM'S.METARS.114. PIREPS. and adverse conditions.Brakes and reversers at 125.SPECIS. C X 23. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . C. C. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times.Load manifest.Maximum endurance. fuel burn. or diminished. warm front.Convective SIGMETS.. C. and reversers at 135. From the following list. C. SIGMETS. C X 16. flight plan. and flight plan.during normal operation C X 19.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. load manifest.Adhere to standard operating procedures. loss of. C. and AIRMETS.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A. spoilers. B.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A. decreased takeoff distance C.500 pounds gross weight. B. 118 NAM. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.Lower than actual.any required pilot crewmember. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? . C.17 hours C. C.Higher than actual.. A X 30. B. C. if any. C.any flight crewmember.．What illusion.16hours B. C X 34. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed.Manifold pressure.flight engineer or navigator.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 33.Six C.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C. B X 27.24 minutes.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. 118 NAM.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.Does not cause illusions. . Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.26 minutes.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. B. C..Seven B.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation.RPM.Exhaust gas temperature. B.. B. A X 28. B.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B.25 minutes. C. 125 NAM. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.. C X 25.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A. B. C.A X 24. C X 26.Five A X 29. can rain on the windscreen create? A. It is most likely to occur when A. B X 32. Ambient temperature lapse rate. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.18 hours A X 31.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.Increase the camber of the wing. . C.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 38.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII. A X 39.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release.4 percent. C. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport . C. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A. C X 35. C X 43. The statement is)right B.the caption's power.1360 feet.5 percent. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B. C. i.680 pounds.the caption's power..3940 feet. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. ability. ability. B. equipment.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C. In a flight crew.000. an apt arranging is A.(To be continued，efficient flight operation. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. A X 37. [Refer to Figure 4-32.3 percent.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A. to achieve a safe and A. procedures and people.After applying maximum wheel braking.Immediately after ground contact. B.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600. B..79.A.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A.77. B.75. B.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer..926 pounds. C. C X 41..wrong A X 40. B. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment.9. ability. C. B X 42.Immediately prior to touchdown. resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A.504 pounds. C.9.the caption's power.3842 feet. A X 36. as ATC has radar contact B.e. [Refer to Figure 4-45.9. when the flight arrives.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. B.59. C. B. . the latter check is considered to have been taken in A.adopt all rules. C. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. however. and procedures as far as possible C. C. Severe turbulence. Coriolis deflecting force C X 48..the airplane rides on standing water.12 feet. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A. A.A. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.during the entire flight.January 1989. Severe mountain wave. [Refer to Figure 4-45.DECIED B X 51. A. C. embedded thunderstorms C. embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 45. A.. B X 46. obscured thunderstorm with hail B.does the first thing that comes to mind.．The decision-making process is quite complex. C X 44.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400.DICIDE B. B. A. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. C.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.December 1988.Turbojet aircraft C.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C X 53. it can be condensed into the following six elements. Severe mountain wave. B X 49. If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989. regulations.. A X 52.8 feet.7 minutes.November 1988..54.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making.10 feet.9 minutes..1 minutes.3/4 engine aircraft B X 50. Group II aircraft are A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.58.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.DECIDE C. B X 47.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.Propeller driven aircraft B. B. Friction force. C.95 EPR. A X 57. dispatch. only to find that it was the right A.Dispatcher.Only one INDS is required to be operative. C.Air Traffic Controller.Only one INS is required to be operative. at the same time. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. A X 58. Southwest wind at 14 KT. temperatures is 52℃ C.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. Intermittent light turbulence.223 knots and 2.83 EPR. the wind direction.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A. etC． C.. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. Moderate chop. C. C X 59. temperatures is -52℃ B. B. maintenance.trust you personal opinion.Pilot-in-command.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35.. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 60.(To be continued，engine which failed.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.A and B C X 54.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.000.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin. Southwest wind at 35 KT.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X . temperatures is -52℃ C X 56.B.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B. C. occasional light chop. B. B.. ATC.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. (According to figure 6) At point B.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS.221 knots and 1. B.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.217 knots and 1. Northeast wind at 35 KT.. wind speed and temperatures is A.01 EPR. C.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A. C X 61. [Refer to Figure 4-34.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? A.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight. B X 55. the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C. A X 64.Wingover. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport. and flight plan? A.85MHz. pilot route certification.. for no more than A. C.PEK. C.pilot in command and the flight follower.HUR.Porpoise. B. B X 70..124. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight.entering approach controlled airspace. B. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. C.pilot in command and director of operations.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light.．The blind spot is A.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.Takeoff safety speed. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest.35MHz.entering instrument meteorology conditions. B. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B. C. B. in any calendar month.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A. continuation. B X .IDK.12 months. B X 67. C. B. C. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation. B.121. B.80hours B. B X 65. pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.65MHz.90 hours C.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane.Takeoff decision speed. is A.. B X 63. flight release.1 month.127.3 months. diversion. airworthiness release. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. B.100hours B X 71. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.pilot in command and chief pilot. The fuel reserve required. A X 69. B X 68. C. C. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.Dutch roll C X 66.62.. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.Minimum takeoff speed. C X 74. low clouds and weak turbulent current B. and altitude decreases B. the captain finds that on weather map. .(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 82.Z. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR. A. indicated airspeed decreases. both a and b C X 80. shower and gale C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.Compass locator. B X 76. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A. include that A. C.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A. filling out logs B.ASR and PAR. indicated airspeed decreases.. A pilot. A X 78. B.90 days. C. and ASR. aircraft pitches down.I. C X 75. B X 77. cumulonimbus clouds. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o.12 months.Activities.. B.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. successfully completes the instrument competency check. A X 79.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C X 81..Y.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.6 months. clear after rain. aircraft pitches down. Before taking off. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. C. aircraft pitches up.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. C.72.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. C. acting as second-in-command. making passenger announcements C. C. the pilot-incommand could descend it to .an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight. B. indicated airspeed increases.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport. B. B.Of an intersecting taxiway only.Of some designated point on the runway.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A. PAR. and altitude decreases C X 73.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.. and altitude increases C. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.-forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. B X 88.1.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. B. C X 83. B X 92. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A. B.. C.-rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forces.Decrease speed. C. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft.525 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL.360 feet. B. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. C..An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. B. C X 87.470 feet. C. C.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more.．What cause hypoxia? A.Maintain speed.1.FL128. C.245 feet.. B.11 B. which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 86. Snow and rain . When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. C X 89.372 feet. B. B.262 feet. Strong wind with shower B.-upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. C.1.7and 11 B X 84. C X 90.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A.FL158.Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach.A. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. the altitude of LOM is 1.FL138. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.5 and 13 C. B.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. A X 85. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C X 91. C..Increase speed.360 feet. B. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. route. C. B. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 99. B. 30 minutes. C X 94.C. A worm front and a upper jet C. In the Northern hemisphere. B X 100. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate.000 meters. and all other operations conducted below 3. Fly direct to a fix. and taxi operations. including cruise flight. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. takeoff.. C X 98. landing. Strong west wind and blowing snow C X 93. B. what action should be taken? A.DH20'. takeoff. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. C.DH300'. C.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. C.000 meters MSL. approach. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. B X 97. which weather system we would encounter A. C X 95. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC.At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. B.At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. under which of the following conditions. taxi. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. descent. or airway specified in the vector clearance. landing.VIS800m.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C.Compensate for increase in drag A X . irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. B. plus 10 percent of the total flight time... When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B.VIS1600m.DH200'. A cold front and a upper jet B. B X 96.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. excluding cruise flight. and all other operations conducted below 3. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? A. landing.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.RVR550m. taxi. A. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. What is the required fuel reserve? A. With regard to flight crewmembers duties..At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. C X 7.108. B. B. C.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121.400 feet. B. [Refer to Figure 4-27. B X 8. [Refer to Figure 4-25.N. C.3.420 pounds. B. C X 9.556 pounds.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125. B.the otolith .Sluggish in aileron control.VIS2400m.(1-1) At a waypoint . B X 6..000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.000 pounds gross weight? A.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. [Refer to Figure 4-26. B.200 feet.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 4.Sluggish in rudder control C.124.2.4-53.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.1.Look only at far away.4Gs B X 10.000 pounds? A.MDH120m. C.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. C X 2.VIS1600m.] What is the total fuel required at .. C..850 feet. B X 3.the semicircular canals B. B.22.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.000 pounds. A. C..200-foot icy runway? A.80 Mach? A.1.2.VIS1600m.4-51.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. and 4-54.000 pounds. B X 5..MDH100m. B.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5.2Gs. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.22.4-52. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A. the load factor is A. C.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree . joints and tendons C.000 feet.the skeletal muscles. C.000 pounds.836 pounds.S. dim lights. C. B.1Gs.137.G. [Refer to Figures 4-50.(To be continued 考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m.22.650 feet.100 feet.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.1. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. with revenue cargo aboard. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. what recent instrument approach experience is required? . B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.85MHz.8 hours B. C X 14.000.127.12 hours A X 18.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. B. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. B.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. B. C X 13.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII. B X 17.625 pounds. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 15.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A. certificate holder's manual. [Refer to Figure 4-34. C. C.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A. B. key to the flight deck door.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C. C.1.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? .Pilot-in-command.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation. as ATC has radar contact B.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. C. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A..460 pounds..If required by the airplane's type certificate.. C.10 hours C.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.. C X 12. C.124. A X 16.1.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. C X 19.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Air Traffic Controller. B.Dispatcher. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.ALTITUDE: 35. resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A. C.B X 11.8MHz. A X 20. flashlight in good working order.35MHz.950 pounds.118.2. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. A X 21. .DECIDE C.50 mach B X 22. The statement is)right B.-1.20 to 2.Within the previous 12 calendar months. six ILS approaches.May all be erased. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.Within what mach range dose transonic fight regimes usually occur? A. C. A. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew.wrong A X 26..A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. C.50 to . B X 27. as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. B.8 B. C.Within the previous 6 months. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.DICIDE B. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.Within the previous 6 months.496 feet. B X 23.．The decision-making process is quite complex.1 C.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. A hard landing.75 to .A.75 mach B.DECIED B X 29. B.. however. A X 25. Increased landing rollout.1.2 B X 24.20 mach C. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A. on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot).-.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.1.10 hours B. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.14 hours C.16 hours A X 28.-.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B. B. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. it can be condensed into the following six elements. Landing short of the runway threshold. in the interest of safety. 4-51..900 feet. C. embedded thunderstorms with hail C.In terminal radar service areas C. C X 35.80 Mach? A.760 feet per minute.320 feet/minute. B. C.. what was the approximate rate of descent? A. 4-50. C X 34. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D.1.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2. [Refer to Figure 4-25.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. 170 knots B.1. C. C.Above 12. 150 knots C.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? .An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 36.A runway Boundary Sign C. C. Severe mountain wave..2% to FL148? A..780 feet per minute.500 pounds.. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A. B X 37.800 feet per minute.1 hours 07 minutes. A X 30.B.500 pounds.] What is the ETE at .1.4-52.244 feet. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.4-53. volcanic ash B. B.000 feet short of the end of a 5.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. B.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.. 130 knots B X 33. and 4-54.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.. Strong wind. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots.500 feet MSL A X 38.400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.140. B. B X 39.1 hours 02 minutes.117. isolated cumulonimbus C X 32. C.70 percent of the actual runway available. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. B.400 feet/minute. Fog.1.136. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A.364 feet/minute.500 pounds.1 hours 04 minutes. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. [Refer to Figures 4-49.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. B X 31. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6. range. A X 46.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. B X 42. B X 43. and vertical angle.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.. C.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A.．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A. C. C. Low stratus. Guidance. and vertical angle. B.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.wrong A X 49. Standing lenticular. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. C X 48. spring in northern areas. the flight must be able to A. Azimuth.Compass locator.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 45.S9000..Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C. C.000 meters.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 44.M9000. B. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9. The statement is A. and visual information. spring in southern areas. B. summer in northern areas.excessive use of carburetor heat B. PAR. Sudden increase in a headwind component. B. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.What functions are provided by ILS? A. the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. B.．During the flight. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.A. B. A X 41. range.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. B X 40.M0900. distance. Azimuth. B. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A.ASR and PAR. B.right B. C. C.. .fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. rotor cloud.. C X 47. and ASR. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o.. Wind shear warning B.000 pounds? A.8%.. Aerodrome warning C. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.Motion about the longitudinal.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C. B X 57. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.An alternate airport is required. B.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. A X 56. C. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.4.2%. C. During a supplemental air carrier flight.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. [Refer to Figure 4-30. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4.". C.Aircraft dispatcher. B.. A plane..An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.136 knots.when the flight arrives.Director of operations or flight follower. C..139 knots.Motion about the lateral axis.5. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release. B.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.. MH 300°.during the entire flight.800m. C. B. B. B.132 knots.5.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.Teardrop only B.5%.Motion about the vertical axis. Ground? A.VMC.Pilot in command. B X 52. A X 51. B.VMCA..Parallel only B X . B X 55..A X 50.. C. Hazardous weather warning A X 58. receive this ATC clearance: ". A X 53.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. A X 54. C X 59. LEFT TURNS.Direct only C. what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.. C.VMCG.. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A. C.. B. and airport elevation? A. B X 68.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A. within 10 days after the deviation. wind. Rising terrain C.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B.Over the open sea only. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. remain unchanged B.Aircraft dispatcher.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater.. A.. the pilot should submit a written report A. C. . When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency..Over the territory only. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere.Lower than at low weight.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater.The same as at low weight. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Uneven heat on the ground C X 67. B X 69.Higher than at low weight. B. after the flight is completed. C. A X 64. C X 62. increase C.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. C.Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. reduce B X 61. the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. A X 70. Who is responsible.Director of operations. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A. C. after returning home. Flying in rain. C. B. B. B. B.60.VOR and DME A X 65. A X 63.. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.Over the territory or open sea abut to China.With the increase of temperature. by regulation.. B X 66. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist.VOR B.VOR and ILS C. Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.900 feet. A. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops.Direct only C..Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 72.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.Direct only C. C.138 knots and 3. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. A plane.900 feet. Friction force.C.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.000 feet distance remaining B... C.Teardrop only B.". MH 160°.Teardrop only B.". cold front.Wet runway using brakes. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A. Coriolis deflecting force C X 78. stationary front.153 knots and 2. C X 71.. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A..Dry runway using brakes and reversers. C X 80. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . receive this ATC clearance: ". B.Parallel only A X 79.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. B X 77.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A..] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers.Signs with increments of 1. B.183 knots and 2.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132. C X 74... B. C X 75.. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route.900 feet..．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. MH 60°.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing.. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. A X 76. B. C. . warm front. C.500 pounds? A. Inertial centrifugal force C. B..What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. A.. receive this ATC clearance: ".Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.Parallel only C X 73. C. A plane.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. spoilers and reversers.000 pounds if flaps are not used? A..000 feet from the end C. B. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. 000. A X 87.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn.looking outside for 15 seconds. you should plan to lift off A.57 minutes. B. an increase in airspeed will A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.VSO.. C. A X 88. C.S. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C. B. C X 84. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time.G. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. [Refer to Figure 4-41.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are A..55 minutes.R. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C X 83. braking action is "zero" C. braking action is "100%" A X 82. B X 90. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.B.DISTANCE (NM): 200. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.profuse sweating B X 86. .looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. For scheduled airline.quite different to those of hypoxia B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA. B. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. B.. plus or minus 3minutes. B. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A. then repeat. C. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. C..the pilot in command only.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A. B.34 minutes. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. C. A X 81. then repeat. C.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. B X 85.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 89. C. then inside for 5 seconds.. then 1 minute outside scanning.. braking action is "fair" B.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.any required pilot crewmember. whichever is later. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. B.WIND COMPONENT: 30TW.1 minute inside scanning.any flight crewmember. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. B. Altitude. pitch. When advection fog has developed. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. B X 93.1905Z..5.ALTITUDE: 30. Temperature inversion.81 EPR..987 pounds.VS.224 pounds. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.221 knots and 1.000 lb A.15 minutes. pitch.Either pilot.Any flight crewmember.500 lb. B X 99.83 EPR.The second in command only.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A. B.2005Z. B. [Refer to Figures 4-46. B.13 minutes. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A. C.In a light .0600z.14 minutes. B.2.69 EPR.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.Zero fuel weight: 126.454 pounds.VS1. Surface radiation. Wind stronger than 15 konts.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181. B..0700z. C.217 knots and 1.0005Z.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? . C X 96. 4-47 and 4-48.B. C. C.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air . The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A.. B. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A. C X 95. B X 98.1.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. C. B X 97. if they have a flight engineer certificate.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. C.1. [Refer to Figure 4-37. what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. Altitude increase. B X 91.0630z. C. Altitude. [Refer to Figure 4-34. C. B. and indicated airspeed increase.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.. A X 94. if qualified. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A. and indicated airspeed decrease. C.210 knots and 1. B. C. B X 100. C X 92.000. Nimbostratus.1? B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.．The blind spot is A. C X 1.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. aircraft pitches down.. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. B X . indicated airspeed increases. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. fog and rain B.6 calendar months. A. C. Lines of thunderstorms.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.. C X 7. and altitude increases C.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. indicated airspeed decreases. indicated airspeed decreases.-4? C X 5.24 calendar months. A X 8. B. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. A X 4.B.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light. and altitude decreases B. and altitude decreases C X 3.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 6.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. obscured thunderstorms C. B.-2? C.2 NAV? A.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A. B X 2. B.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. C. B. C.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time.12 calendar months. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. aircraft pitches down. aircraft pitches up. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A. B.. Five B.Loud.Critical Mach number.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.. C.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.plume B. B.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. C..Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.9.Four C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. on a multiengine aircraft B.Initial buffet speed.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. B.Intermittent "bang.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag..Two A X 11.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. B.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.virga C. C.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. B. B X 15. dowdraft B X 16. This phenomenon is referred to as . C.One engine. B X 12.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. C.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. A X ." as backfires and flow reversals take place. C. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A. At what speed.Transonic index. A X 18. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.Airborne radar C.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B X 13.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A. A.DME C X 10. with reference to L/DMAX. A X 17. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A. C X 14. B. C. B. authoritative and participatory.1. C.300 feet.Within the previous 6 months. B. Cold temperatures.4 B.000 pounds? A.．In order to make an effective communication. then select HUR VOR.. B X 28. six ILS approaches. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.Within the previous 6 months. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. A X 22.. C X 25. what type leader the captain should be? A.. B.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135. what recent instrument approach experience is required? A. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C.a too shallow authority gradient B. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 21.000 feet B. C. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). B. This situation could be described as A. then select HUR VOR. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. C X 26.000 feet A X 27.19. right turn. C. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.11 C X 23.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.a steep authority gradient C. .100 feet. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. A. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A. C.VMC..Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. Convection currents at the surface.750 feet.Climb straight ahead to L NDB.Within the previous 12 calendar months. [Refer to Figure 4-26. right turn. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed.12 C. B. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.a participatory leader B. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization.1.2. Poor visibility.a leader can balance act between the two types management style. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A. C X 24.500 feet C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB. Ground? A.an authoritative leader C.a participatory leader A X 20.. B X 34.in high clouds. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport. B X 30.In altocumulus cloud.13 minutes. Rime ice.VMCG. such as cirrus.500 pounds? Initial weight: 181. C. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. C.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication? A.500 lb. B.. B. Moderate chop.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line .15 minutes. Intermittent light turbulence. C. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway.Operating Certificate. A X 31.14 minutes. outside the United States.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight.Green.VMCA. A X 32.. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. A X 36. You are considered clear of runway when A.. PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed.. B X 38.VIS1600m. A sovereign country or government unit C. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. B X 29. The FAA Administrator only B X 33. B. A. B.(To be continued 考题，What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach)__MDH150m.Dispatch Release.VIS1600m. occasional light chop. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727.MDH100m. where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B.B.GPS instrument approach operations. C.Zero fuel weight: 126.If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst.Red B.MDH120m.(1-1) At a waypoint . Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. when leaves the strong downdraft burst A X 37.000 lb A.. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A. C X 35. clear ice.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B. Frost ice. C.VIS2400m. B. C.Amber C.Operations Specifications. C.in cumliform clouds B. [Refer to Figure 4-37.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. must be authorized by A. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. C. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. B. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. B. under which of the following conditions.. C. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. C X 46.International Flight Information Manual C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 42.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A. B X 40. Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A. Original dispatch release. C. no. stratocumulus. C X 45. In the Northern hemisphere.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.12 feet.Airplane Flight Manual B. stratocumulus. There are altostratus..If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative. no. C. B. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.. B. There are altocumulus . There are cirrostratus . which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. A X 43. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land..Air Carrier's Operations Specifications C X 41. C X 39. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. B X 47.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C. stratus .All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. mechanical failure. A. Certificate holder's manual. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. When distress conditions such as fire.10 feet.C. B.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. at the same time. yes. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially .trust you personal opinion.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. A X 44. C.8 feet. C. B. or structural damage occurs. C X 49. B. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. C.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. Frontal passage. and experiences a delay.500 pounds.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. 24 calendar months.0045Z. Light and variable. C. B X 53. Decrease profile drag. B X 52.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. C X 54. C. B X 50. B X 55. C.. C.140.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C.500 pounds. B. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A. B. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier. A X 51. B. 12 calendar months.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A.000 feet short of the end of a 5.B X 48. C. B. B.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A.500 pounds.136.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2. if enough fuel A.. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. During the period of Spring Festival. C. Wind shear.. A. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle.117.1945Z.N. 6 calendar months. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z. B X . [Refer to Figure 4-25. if you are assigned to an additional flight.M. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1.X.2015Z. B X 56. ] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A. C. B. B X 60.Exhaust gas temperature.. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. 4-23 and 4-24. B X 64.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. C X 63. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 58.57.. C X 59. C..000.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -28oC A. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown. B.10 EPR. . B X 66... B X 61. C. braking action is "100%" A X 67. 350 knots B. C. B. 250 knots C X 62.145 knots. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A. B.4 percent.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A. braking action is "fair" B.06 EPR. 330 knots C. C. [Refer to Figures 4-22.2. when exit the runway.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 80.77. [Refer to Figure 4-26. B. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A. braking action is "zero" C.115 EPR.140 knots...79. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110.148 knots.Manifold pressure. A X 65. B. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.2. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 25. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7.2. C.3 percent.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A. [Refer to Figure 4-32. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B.75. C.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.5 percent.RPM.000 meters? A..000 pounds gross weight? .Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. 000. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A..ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots.0630z. B X 71..4. 90 knots C X 70. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above. C.5 hours 40 minutes.85MHz... 40 knots B.4.124.Higher than at low temperature..．Night vision is enhanced by A. B X 72.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.000 feet.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view.0600z.0700z.4. B.121. B.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport. within a microburst. B X 69. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. A X 68.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 74.183 knots and 2. .] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW. B X 76. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29.000. C. B X 77.127.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.000 pounds.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.65MHz. C. B.35MHz.900 feet. A X 75. C.500 feet. pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.5 hours 55 minutes.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. C..138 knots and 3. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A. C. [Refer to Figure 4-43.The same as at low temperature. wind.Lower than at low temperature.. B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. [Refer to Figure 4-43.153 knots and 2. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.34. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. B.300 feet. 80 knots C.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.900 feet.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z. and airport elevation? A.A. C. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation.28.900 feet. B...000 pounds. B X 73.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37.5 hours 15 minutes. A X 87. front fog C.Lower than at low weight.600 pounds. B. and airport elevation? A. C.FL 8. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.16hours B.. In summer. A X 85. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A.Of some designated point on the runway. B.Conducted IFR. layer clouds A X 86.. B. .233o. C X 78. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 82.FL 29. B. C X 84.Of an intersecting taxiway only. if the flight will be A.17 hours C.000 feet of runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. A. B.18 hours A X 80..300m.FL 6.500 feet. when warm air mass is unstable.143o.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.FL 10. C X 83. how much is the intercept heading? A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.32. C.FL 39. wind.C. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A. C. C. B.FL 6.. C. C.400 feet.FL 600m.53o.Carrying passengers.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B.000m.Amber lights for the first 2.Identify REIL. B X 81..100 feet.100 feet.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. cumulonimbus B.400 feet.FL 39.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch.100 feet.Higher than at low weight.FL 8.The same as at low weight. . but not if it is "all cargo" C. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A. C X 79. B X 88.. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Increase speed. B.Maintain speed. C.Decrease speed. C X 89.. [Refer to Figures 4-50,4-51,4-52,4-53, and 4-54.] What is the total fuel required at .78 Mach? A.22,140 pounds. B.22,556 pounds. C.22,972 pounds. B X 90. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 91.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 92. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. C X 93.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. B.Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. C.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. B X 94.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.5times groundspeed in knots. B. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.10 times groundspeed in knots. A X 95.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute B X 96.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 97.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 98.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 99..What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. C X 100.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.60days B.90days C.30days A X 1.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.-Increase the camber of the wing. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B X 2. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.2,000 feet B.3,000 feet C.3,500 feet. B X 3.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. A.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. C X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. C X 5.. It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. A X 6.. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. B.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B X 7..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. B X 8.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 9.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Supercharger gear ratio. B.Exhaust gas discharge. C.The desired manifold pressure. C X 10.. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25,600 feet, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F256. B.F0256. C.M256. A X 11.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED B X 12.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved C X 13.. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south C X 14..What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. A X 15.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.As altitude increases, thrust decreases. B.As altitude increases, thrust increases. C.As altitude decreases, thrust decreases. A X 16..With the increase of temperature, the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. A. remain unchanged B. increase C. reduce B X 17.. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-2? A.2.115 EPR. B.2.10 EPR. C.2.06 EPR. C X 18.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system A X 19..What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. B X 20. . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots C X 21. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B.A runway Boundary Sign C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 22.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. A.Positive dynamic stability. B.Positive static stability. C.Neutral dynamic stability. B X 23.. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. B X 24..Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell. C X 25. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.8 B.1 C.2 B X 26. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings, as PIC, in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS, for this PIC?)_DA63m,RVR550m. B.DA93m,VIS1600m. C.DA110m,VIS1600m B X 27.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. C X 28.At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb? A.Low speed. B.High speed. C.Any speed. B X 29. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.4 B.12 C.11 C X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. C X 31.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.-Negative static stability B.-Positive static stability C.-Negative dynamic stability A X 32.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating? A.RVR 250m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 200m. B X 33.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways C X 34.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.83.4 percent. B.86.0 percent. C.87.4 percent. C X 35.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A.Some direction. B.Opposite direction. C.Remains fixed for all positions. B X 36.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 37.. In the Northern hemisphere, if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west, under which of the following conditions, A.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . B X 38. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. B X 39.. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. A X 40.. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.Turbine inlet. B.Compressor discharge. C.Fuel spray nozzles. A X 41..Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B X 42.. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C X 43.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. B X 44. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A.six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. B.six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. C.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider. A X 45.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600,AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A.9,926 pounds. B.9,680 pounds. C.9,504 pounds. C X 46.. [Refer to Figure 4-32.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90,PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15,000,TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC, A.75.4 percent. B.74.2 percent. C.72.9 percent. A X 47..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. B X 48. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. B X 49. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command. B. air carrier's chief pilot. C. certificate holder. C X 50.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 51.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.The same angle of attack. B.A lower angle of attack. C.A higher angle of attack. B X 52.. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind A X 53.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 54.What is the purpose of a servo tab? A.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. B X 55.What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown? A.prevent flow separation. B.decrease rate of sink. C.increase profile drag. A X 56.Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication? A.Red B.Amber C.Green C X 57.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 58.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A.-L/Dmax. B.-Lift at low speeds. C.-Drag and reduce airspeed. B X 59.. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A.VSO. B.VS. C.VS1. B X 60.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. A X 61.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 62. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A.Company meteorologist. B.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Director of operations. B X 63..When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. B X 64.. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 65.. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained? A.VMC. B.VYSE. C.VXSE. B X 66.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A.Initial buffet speed. B.Critical Mach number. C.Transonic index. B X 67.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. A X 68.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. A X 69.. [Refer to Figure 4-29.] What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o, gear down, to flaps 0o, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.13,500 pounds. B.13,300 pounds. C.15,300 pounds. A X 70.. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system we coursed A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold frongt C X 71.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. A X 72. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 73.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. B X 74..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. A X 75.. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. C X 76.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. B.Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. A X 77.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong A X 78.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water A X 79.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.Some passengers may be carried. A X 80.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 92.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.732 pounds. B.1,023 pounds. C.1,440 pounds. A X 81.. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. C X 82.. The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. C X 83.. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. A X 84.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin B X 85.If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to A.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. B.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation C.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land. A X 86.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS.SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS. B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and adverse conditions. A X 87.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. A X 88.. The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance, is indicated by symbol A.V2min . B.V1. C.VLOF. B X 89.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 90.．Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 91.. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. B X 92..In daily aeronautical weather reports, the code "VCTS" means ____. A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. A X 93.．If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake A X 94.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25,000,WEIGHT (*1000): 102.5,ENGINES OPERATING: 2,HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.216 knots and 1.62 EPR. B.223 knots and 2.01 EPR. C.219 knots and 1.81 EPR. A X 95.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. C X 96.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze B X 97.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A.Tabs. B.Flaps. C.Outboard ailerons. C X 98.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from . A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B X 99. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.Four B.Three C.Two A X 100. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.weather reports and forecasts. B.names of all crewmembers. C.minimum fuel supply. B X 1.. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, thunderstorms B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe clear air turbulence C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe clear air turbulence C X 2.．As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet B X 3.. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. B.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. C.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent. B X 4.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B X 5.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.the airplane rides on standing water. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. B X 6.. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. A X 7. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? A.60 days. B.90 days. C.120 days. C X 8..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases C X 9..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 10.. At what speed, with reference to L/DMAX, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. C X 11.. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. C X 12.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots B X 13.. On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is. A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line A X 14.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C X 15.. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. A X 16.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 17. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. B.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. C X 18. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C X 19.. [Refer to Figure 4-43.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500,WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW,CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27,000,ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA,LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.35,000 pounds. B.32,600 pounds. C.30,200 pounds. B X 20.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. C X 21.. Where provided, an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A. the commencement of final approach B. enter TMA C. the commencement of initial approach A X 22.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. C X 23.．The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The second E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 24.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.90 knots. B.96 knots. C.110 knots. A X 25.. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex. B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex. A X 26.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. B X 27. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 B.5 C.15 B X 28.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, in any calendar month, for no more than A.80hours B.90 hours C.100hours B X 29.. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Limiting compressor speed. B.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). C.Limiting torque. B X 30.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. C X 31. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.1 B.2 C.3 A X 32.. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km B X 33. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A.Operations Specifications. B.Operating Certificate. C.Dispatch Release. A X 34. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. C X 35.. Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. C X 36.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. B.Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. C.One –light project, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 37.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 38.. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. B.jet thrust only. C.propeller thrust only. A X 39.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. Decrease profile drag. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. C. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. B X 40.. [Refer to Figure 4-37.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight: 180,500 lb,Zero fuel weight: 125,500 lb A.13 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.16 minutes. B X 41..In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured thunderstorm with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded thunderstorms C. Severe mountain wave, embedded thunderstorm with hail C X 42.. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. C X 43. . (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. B X 44. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.500 feet B.1,000feet C.1,500 feet B X 45.. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. B X 46.. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.Compressor discharge. B.Fuel spray nozzles. C.Turbine inlet. C X 47. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hours. B.8 hours. C.10 hours. B X 48. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign, which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot, indicates A.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B X 49.. A plane, MH 160°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only C X 50. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. B X 51.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz. C X 52.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142,500 pounds? A.1,750 feet. B.2,100 feet. C.2,500 feet. C X 53.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy A X 54.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. A X 55.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. A X 56.. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres A X 57. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,500 feet B.2,000 feet C.2,500 feet B X 58.. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.Use of three reversers at 124,500 pounds gross weight. B.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. C.Use of three reversers at 120,000 pounds gross weight. A X 59. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A X 60. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. back to the departure airport. A X 61..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 62.. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm B X 63.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. A X 64.. A plane, MH 240°, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 65.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree , the load factor is A.1Gs. B.2Gs. C.1.4Gs C X 66. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.1,000 feet B.1,500 feet C.1,800 feet. A X 67.. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. B. 500feet or less to another aircraft. C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft. B X 68. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. B. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. A X 69. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. B X 70.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. Turbojet aircraft, a speed not less than 230 knots. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft, a speed not less than 150 knots. B. a speed not less than 210 knots; except 20 miles from threshold, not less than 170 knots. Piston and turboprop aircraft. not less than 200 knots; except 20 flying miles from threshold, not less than 150 knots. C. Not less than 250 knots B X 71.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.Altimeter setting. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. B X 72.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU B X 73.. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A.Intermittent "backfire" stall. B.Transient "backfire" stall. C.Steady, continuous flow reversal stall. C X 74.．An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. B X 75.. During emergency, can a pilot expect landing priority? A.. yes. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B. yes. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C. no. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come, first-served" basis. B X 76.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. A X 77.. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. A X 78. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is A.required to have a first-class medical certificate. B.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C.not required to have a medical certificate. C X 79..What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft C X 80.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.15 seconds C.35 seconds B X (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A..The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which CCAR 121 operations are conducted.. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. from left crosswind to right crosswind. B. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A. B.11. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations.30 hours A X 82.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.Exhaust gas temperature. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 88.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only.7KM from PEK. B. C X 84.35 hours B.7SM from PEK.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. B. and never in climbs or descents B X 87. B.. all flight time. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 86.11. C.7NM from PEK. C X 90. in any flight crewmember position. . What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. C. B X 85.Manifold pressure. Rain shower and thunderstorm B.81. B.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A. C.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. A. B.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A..the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. Rain and fog C.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 83. C.RPM. . except military. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere.32 hours C. C. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. the wind direction usually changes.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.11. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.70 percent of the actual runway available. from headwind to tailwind. C X 89. C X 98.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight.A X 91.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision.Some passengers may be carried.10000 feet C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. This effect begins at about A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.Brakes and reversers at 115.100 feet.Brakes and spoilers at 125.000 pounds gross weight. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.000 pounds gross weight.. B.12 hours A X 95. air carrier's chief pilot. C. rain and broken clouds B X 93. C. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. pilot in command.8000 feet A X 96. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure. C X 97. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed. B X 92.8 hours B.000 pounds? A.400 feet. three-engine.. [Refer to Figure 4-28.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143. B X 94. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft.. mist and broken clouds C.850 feet. B. and approach must be VFR. C. East windat 4 m/s. and reversers at 130. A X 100.The highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.000 pounds gross weight. West wind at 4 m/s. C.5000 feet B. en route.Brakes. visibility 5000m and fog B. A. B. B. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. The critical altitude of a supercharged reciprocating engine is A.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A... C X 99. Scattered clouds.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. [Refer to Figure 4-25.. C.10 hours C. .The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. B. B. certificate holder. spoilers.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. for a given runway? A.2. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. fuel burn. C.. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters. [Refer to Figure 4-28.Adhere to standard operating procedures. B.V2.high environmental noise levels B. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.Critical engine failure speed.right crosswind B.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122.750 feet. A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.1.. A X 3. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 8.. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. C.13.Accelerate-stop distance.000 pounds? A..22.propeller thrust only.700 pounds.750 feet.Rotation speed. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.B.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.600 pounds.200 feet. A X 2. B. C. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. . B X 5.18.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C. B. with gear up. B X 9. C.2. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. A X 1.. B. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.the receiver's expectancy A X 6.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. [Refer to Figure 4-29. C.. In northern hemisphere.VEF.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal. B X 4. flaps 25o. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA.. External factors include A. the wind on the course is _____. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. B.turbine inlet temperature.000 pounds. etC．as far as possible. B.tailwind C. left crosswind C X 7.000 pounds. 20 Mach.Below. C.0600z.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C. C X 17. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z. at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance. B. following a failure of the critical engine at VEF.1 minute B X 18.300 pounds. is indicated by symbol A.75 Mach.VLOF.12 feet. B. B. B. B. A X 11.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals.5.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. C X 10. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C.0700z. at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A.10 feet.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.] What is the change of total drag for a 140.. etC．as far as possible.20 to 2.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30o.V2min .Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. to flaps 0o..At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A. Mach. B X 13.000 feet is closest to A. [Refer to Figure 4-29.45 seconds C.0630z.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. C.15.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. B X 16.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B. B. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else..From. A.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased .V1. C.V1. gear down.13. B X 15.25 seconds B.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30. fuel burn. C.8 feet. C.C. B X 12. gear up.. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.75 to 1.From.13. The minimum speed during takeoff.500 pounds. A X 14.1. B.300 pounds. 000.. A X 24. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight.looking outside for 15 seconds.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A. The statement is)right B.Traffic and resolution advisories B. then 1 minute outside scanning.Proximity warning C.000 pounds.ZWWW . If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather. B.wrong A X 27. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.B X 19. vestibular and postural cues.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200.Air route traffic control center. C X 23. C.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A. but a certificate is not required. B. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.28. the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.ZUUU C. By regulation. no further action is necessary C. then repeat. C X 22.32. it is necessary for A. B.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received.1 minute inside scanning.The aircraft dispatcher. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B. C. B X 21. C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.. A X 26. and irregularities of facilities and services? A. C.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual. B.TCASII provides A. then repeat.000 pounds.(To be continued，circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge.Director of operations.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 20.34. C X 25. B.600 pounds.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. then inside for 5 seconds.．The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. [Refer to Figure 4-43. B.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. B X 33.000. A X 34. B. C. whichever is later. etC．as far as possible.000 pounds. C. which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. B X 31. which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach.the sender's knowledge.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.Higher than pressure altitude. C.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.73.．In a communication process. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time. knowledge.. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1.(To be continued，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case. attitudes.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A.74.. B X 32.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77. darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A.Adhere to standard operating procedures.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.DISTANCE (NM): 70. attitudes.180 pounds. some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. A X 30. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route. [Refer to Figure 4-41.the sender and the receiver's skill.. B. B. B. . Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. fuel burn.400 pounds. personality.the sender's skill. C. C. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. . such as when landing over water.Lower than pressure altitude. B. These conditions include A. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. knowledge. C. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. A X 35. plus or minus 3minutes. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 29.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA.．An absence of visible ground feature.74. and the social culture system C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.What is the purpose of a control tab? A. and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.C X 28. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. which may lead descends too low on approach.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A. . and the workload B X 36.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. A X 37.any flight crewmember. B.000 pounds gross weight. C. B X 38. dizziness B. Notify ATC immediately.the airplane rides on standing water. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B. and reversers at 130. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A.What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. C. A X 39. which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance.Brakes.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A. C. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A.Brakes and spoilers at 125. A X 43. Dorsal fin B X 45.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. C. B.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 42.Over domestic or open sea. Elevator C. What is the purpose of the danger airspace? A.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.Over domestic only. [Refer to Figure 4-25. C. B. C. Slats B.Over open sea. pilot in command. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. B. certificate holder. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.the pilot in command only.An area. C.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. C. at least the same width as the runway..B. . A X 44. C X 41.any required pilot crewmember. spoilers.To protect military activities.... B.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.000 pounds gross weight. air carrier's chief pilot. B.vomiting B X 40.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger.Brakes and reversers at 115.000 pounds gross weight.. B.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities. C X 46. Squawk 7600.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. [Refer to Figure 4-26.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A..] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.Decrease speed.000 pounds gross weight.Brakes.. and reversers at 135. C X 51. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A..140. B. C X 56. Fog C X 54.Brakes and spoilers at 120.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. B.RVR 800m and DH 60m.000.600m and DH 120m. spoilers. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. B X 49.ATMB NOTAMs office.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.4 percent.83.. hypoxia.000 feet short of the end of a 5.. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff..Increase speed. C.An area beyond the takeoff runway.Airport flight information office. C. A X 52. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.4 percent. B. B. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. B. C X 50.RVR 1..Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. [Refer to Figure 4-32. A X 47. C.500 pounds. FL 180. C.Brakes and reversers at 125.300 feet. A X 55.RVR 550m and DH 60m. which is able to support the airplane. Rain B. B. C X 53. C.000 pounds gross weight.300 feet. C. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration.Area flight information center. B. C.87.136. Light fog C.1.Maintain speed.C. .400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.500 pounds.500 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-25. C. B. C. [Refer to Figure 4-28. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.800 feet..500 pounds gross weight.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.117.0 percent.000 pounds? A.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35. B X 48. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105. B. FL 250.86. FL 200. severe icing. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A. stratus .. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C.. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. Cumulonimbus clouds....right B. C.from headwind to tailwind. then clear ice accumulates. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. stratocumulus. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m . dispatch releases. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B. not associated with cloud formations. should be reported as A. C X 62.Turbulence encountered above 15. surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 67. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. The statement is A.air temperature C.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. convective turbulence.wrong A X 58.. B.wind speed B.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A. There are cirrostratus . two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe. B. C. There are altocumulus . severe turbulence B. and load manifests for at least A.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 64.(according to figure 2).What is a feature of supercooled water? A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. Clear air turbulence.3 months.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z.. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. light turbulence C. C.30 days. A X 66. C. the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. B X 60. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans.. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A.. There are altostratus. B. and 3000 m at other time B. stratocumulus. Embedded thunderstorms.air pressure B X 59.000 feet AGL. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. B. 5000 m above at other time A X 65. A.Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A.6 months. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. High altitude turbulence. B. the wind direction usually changes . C X 63.C X 57. B X 61. C. When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight.Increased vision keenness.In flight .097 feet. B X 77.Decreased breathing rate. A X 71.The descent moment on the course of 227o. B.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A.12.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Green yellow and white beacon light B. (Refer to Figure 6-3.0045Z. C.B X 68. B...980 pounds.240 pounds. C.123 feet. wet snow.3.3.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. 4-23 and 4-24.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.as the time goes on .the property change of the underlying cushion C. C.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A. B. B.. A. [Refer to Figure 4-34. B X 76. and feet. C. B. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to.HUAIROU VOR/DME. [Refer to Figures 4-22. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A.1945Z.. C. Freezing rain.change . B. C X 78.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.148 knots.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. C. or vice versa.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.the movement of the weather system B X 73.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right. legs.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A. C.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.5. B..the change of sun radiation B. B X 75. C X 72.145 knots.Tingling of the hands.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 70.2. or vice versa.140 knots. A X 69.000. B X 74. and experiences a delay.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.13. C.2015Z..When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. the CG will A.625 pounds. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z. Ice pellets.093 feet.12. 7MHz.Direct only C. dowdraft B X 80.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO). C X 84. LEFT TURNS. C.514MHz... A X 81.Airspeed.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL..CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. MH 160°.23. such as cirrus. A X 87.114.400 feet.attitude may be higher than it appears. C. and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.in cumliform clouds B.113. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as . B.6MHz.Altitude.Angle of attack.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. the pilot should have readily available: A. B. plus the forecast winds. Which maximum range factor increases as weight decreases? A. B. without VASI assistant..B.600 feet.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. receive this ATC clearance: "...Teardrop only B.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A. C..".At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway.24. C...20. C. C. B X 83.in high clouds.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.000 feet.The landing performance of the aircraft. C. landing performance of the aircraft. A. published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. [Refer to Figure 4-39.Parallel only C X 85.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. B.not change C..attitude may be lower than it appears.In altocumulus cloud. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A. B X 86.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF. B. A X .plume B. A plane. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. B.virga C. A X 82.may change or may not change A X 79.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD). (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? .3842 feet.. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A.000. outside the United States.DK.217 knots and 1.3940 feet. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A. B. . A sovereign country or government unit C. C. 200 knots B.. B X 95.69 EPR.．Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.210 knots and 1..PEK. 170 knots C.221 knots and 1.HUR. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation.81 EPR. Strong wind with haze B X 94. North wind at 12 m/s. and high relative humidity.pilot in command and chief pilot. C... C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart.WF. A clear sky. 150 knots C X 90. C X 93. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. A X 91.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. The FAA Administrator only B X . C.1360 feet. A X 97.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. B.83 EPR. B. must be authorized by A.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A.5.88. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A. B. Strong wind with sand C.pilot in command and director of operations. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. [Refer to Figure 4-34. dust B.YV.IDK. B X 92. Moist air moves over colder ground or water.pilot in command and the flight follower. C. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A. diversion. C. B X 89.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. little or no wind.ALTITUDE: 30. continuation. Moist.GPS instrument approach operations. B. B X 96. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. B. C. Airplane Flight Manual.Sea level C X 4. C. mountain waves.2. severe clear air turbulence C. C.585feet B. certificate holder.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. The appearance of disordered low clouds B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. C X 3.000 pounds? A.1. B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.750 feet. mountain waves. air carrier's chief pilot. B X 99. It begins to rain on the ground C X . Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A..98.2.750 feet.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. Rainfall. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. severe icing B X 100.Identify REIL. B.and the altimeter is functioning properly. On descent. B. A X 2.N0420. Thunderstorm. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.420N. C.. moderate clear air turbulence B. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. freezing precipitation. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. what will it indicate upon landing? A. the altimeter is set correctly. A.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122.200 feet. C X 5. Rain shower. Rain shower.57.If the field elevation is 650feet. Certificate holder's manual. C.N420. pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A. C.En route at FL270. B.Amber lights for the first 2. C X 6. C.1. pilot in command. mountain waves..300feet C..-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. [Refer to Figure 4-28. freezing precipitation. C X 1. a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30. B. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles. B. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A.000 feet of runway. C X 15.If required by the airplane's type certificate. B.14 hours . 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. C. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A.What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. Thisclouds is referred as A..If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.470 feet. but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. with revenue cargo aboard.12hours B. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. when an approach has been missed. 24 hours. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds. B. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.525 feet. passengers on board B. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. C. 10 days.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights. concerning the incident.372 feet.7.the eyes B..(according to figure 2). ordering galley supplies C.the inner C. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. C X 10. to the Administrator within A. B. the certificate holder must submit a report. Certificate holder's manual. the forcasting visibility at ZSSS is____ A. A X 8.the proprioceptive system A X 9. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms. B. C X 13. C X 12..．In sensing the orientation of the body in space. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL. B X 14.. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Airplane Flight Manual. C. 5000 m above at other time A X 16.. C. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z. and 3000 m at other time B. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.13 hours C. before takeoff. altostratus or stratocumulus C. stratus or nimbostratus B. B. 5 days. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 11. . maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye... snow. .Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.245 feet. An increased stall speed. Fly the most direct route to the destination. B. B. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude. B X 23. B.360 feet. or terminating a flight.What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)? A. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A. Descend to MEA and. B. A X 18.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B. or to the MEA.C X 17. C X 21. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.the specific duties of any required crewmember. C.1.Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. C.262 feet. C X 26. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect. C.114. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A. C. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. C. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A. If not clear of clouds. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.35MHz.. C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. increased thrust. The adverse effects of ice. C X 19.. B. A X 24.. if clear of clouds.7MHz.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. B.1.exercising authority over initiating.Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short.6MHz.514MHz. C.113.. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. conducting.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. A decreased stall speed. C X 22. the altitude of LOM is 1. B.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. C. C X 25. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. B.127.360 feet. Headwind or tailwind increase C.1.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. whichever is higher. B X 20. B.124.85MHz. 65MHz.R-175 B.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. C.118. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO. Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower.C. with reference to L/DMAX. At what speed.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A. what frequency should be tuned? A. C.1 NAV? A.vomiting B X 29.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.118.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.5KHz. B X 31.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.R-165 C.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. B. fuel burn.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. B X 35. B.. .Motion about the vertical axis.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. C. C..70 percent of the actual runway available.1KHz. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. B X 32.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.Propeller driven aircraft B.Turbojet aircraft C.1MHz. etC．as far as possible. A X 27. B. C.3/4 engine aircraft B X 28.0 HUR to D16. (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34. Group II aircraft are A.118.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B X 33. C X 30.Motion about the longitudinal.121.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA.R-345 C X 34.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C. dizziness B. B.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R. B. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.Motion about the lateral axis. B X . 4 percent.behind a stationary front B X 45.74..80 Mach? A. B X 43. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. then clear ice accumulates.15 days ago. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe. B. C.22. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.1 NAV? A. C.. B. C X 41.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.000. and 4-54. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. C.7 days ago. B.836 pounds. B X 38. C.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A.10 feet.in an occluded front B. [Refer to Figure 4-32.10. expected holding speed B.12 feet. C.72.352o.4-52.What is a feature of supercooled water? A. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A. Prior to the point where the jet touched down.0NM B. the heading indicator should indicate A.4-51.7. B. A X 46. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one.] What is the total fuel required at . B X 42. An outside air pressure decreases..347o.25 days ago. C.5NM C. C... thrust output will A.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90.0NM A X 44.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC.. B. A X 37. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG.342o.5.decrease due to higher density altitude..4-53. B.8 feet. .75. [Refer to Figures 4-50.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.ahead of a cold front C.Where do squall lines most often develop? A. C..36. A. A X 40. B. you should plan to lift off A. B X 39.2 percent..9 percent.. and amber.22. red. B X 52. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. C.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. B X 47.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight. as PIC.One light projector with three colors. B.22.DA93m. C. A X 51.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. each a different color. a good leader should A. B. The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. and amber. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 49.The aircraft dispatcher. B X 54.556 pounds.．In flight. and sufficient water vapor. and amber.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X .set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.. an initial lifting force. 12 calendar months. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. 8 to 9 km B.VIS1600m. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. green. 24 calendar months. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.involve the team in most decision making processes C.10 to 12 km C.DA110m. C.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. red. 6 calendar months.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A. for this PIC?)_DA63m. C. B. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large. green. and irregularities of facilities and services? A. B. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A. A.Air route traffic control center. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather. B.B.Three light bar. reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. A. By regulation.A and B C X 55. B X 50.. C. C.420 pounds. green.VIS1600m B X 48.. four-engine.Director of operations.RVR550m. C. A.Three glide slopes.15 to 17 km B X 53.Negative longitudinal static stability B. C.The existing and forecast weather for departure. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large.700 pounds. B.right crosswind B. C.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. C X 62. B.Two B X 63.Lower than actual.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. flaps 30o. A X 57.13.700 pounds.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length. B X 65.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.. both a and b C X 64.．What illusion.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A..An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag.. B. In northern hemisphere.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas. B. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Look only at far away. C. and approach must be VFR. dim lights. three-engine.16. B X 59..Increase speed. C. if any. making passenger announcements C. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.] What is the thrust required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 140. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight. C X 58. Strong wind. C.Three C. bad visibility B. with gear down.Higher than actual.. B.56.200 pounds. thunderstorm. Dust. B. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters. left crosswind C X 60. and an airspeed of VREF + 30 knots? A.Decrease speed.Four B.Does not cause illusions. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. . C. can rain on the windscreen create? A. [Refer to Figure 4-29. en route.Activities. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. C.Maintain speed.tailwind C. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. Low cloud with strong wind A X . B X 61. A. the wind on the course is _____.17.000 pounds. include that A. filling out logs B. 330 knots A X 72. C. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A. taxi. An altitude that is at least 1.What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. excluding cruise flight.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71. B..HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.000.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 68. B.1. What altitude should be used? A. A X 69. C. C X 71.000 pounds? A. approach.120 days after issue or renewal. takeoff.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. whichever is highest.. and taxi operations. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes.. irrespective of altitudes MSL.000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. B. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. 250 knots C. C X 70. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.000 meters MSL. landing. descent.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower.wrong A X 74. C.55 minutes. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. [Refer to Figure 4-41. B. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. landing.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C.. A X . altitude ATC has advised to expect.850 feet. landing. and all other operations conducted below 3.400 feet.WIND COMPONENT: 30TW. There is an inversion with colder air below.right B.000 meters.. taxi. 150 knots B. A X 73. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. C. or the MEA.000 meters. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. C. Using the taxonomy. B. takeoff. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.66. and all other operations conducted below 3.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. including cruise flight.DISTANCE (NM): 200. B. C. The statement is A. C X 67.57 minutes.34 minutes. [Refer to Figure 4-25. Last assigned altitude..200 feet. Cumulonimbus C. 90 knots B X 81.Airport flight information office.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B. A X 76. A X 78.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. is normally limited to A. 4-23 and 4-24.PEK. within a microburst.3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.. C. B. Altocumulus B. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1. 80 knots C.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice. B.75. [Refer to Figures 4-22..A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 79. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.IDK.0850K.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.. B X 83.HUR.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 80.145 knots. C. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers.Area flight information center. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.K0850. A.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A. C. C X 82.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C. C.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.143 knots. C. C X 77. A X 84..pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.144 knots. 40 knots B. B. B. C. Stratocumulus .A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.CCAFC. when originally issued.. B. what airspeed indication can be expected? A.850. B. an abrupt head movement .Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly. B. C.000 pounds. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. [Refer to Figure 4-27... B. C X 87.any flight crewmember.foreign international NOTAMs office. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A. B X 94. B. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87. B X 86.VIS1600m.flight engineer or navigator. C. B X 91. C. C.137.MDH100m.108. B. The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C.V2.. C.V1.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. A. B.. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A.124.Apply full main wheel braking only. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface.000 pounds.domestic airport flight information office.VIS1600m.minimum fuel supply.any required pilot crewmember. B. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.MDH120m. B X 92. B X 90. C. C. C. B X 93. C X 88. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.. B.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. The PIC has 1.B X 85. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A..876 hours and 298 landings. while operating under Part 121. B.names of all crewmembers.200-foot icy runway? A. Descending to the surface and then outward.VIS2400m.weather reports and forecasts.domestic area flight information center.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767.000 pounds. C X 89.VEF. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 700 feet short of the end of a 5.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions. 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. B X 95.78 Mach? A.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.000 feet short of the end of a 4. A X 96.12. only use "good".Coriolis illusion. B X 3.] What is the total fuel required at .12.124. C.the leans. B.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.. B. C. C X 100.Lift subtracted from the total weight.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C.Lift multiplied by the total weight...093 feet. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.129. C. Low-level wind share .500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. an abrupt head movement A.A.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis.500 pounds.4-52. B.What is load factor? A.000 pounds.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions. C.22.123 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-26.500 lb A. (Refer to Figure 6-3. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. C.17 minutes..140 pounds. C. B. "fair". C. C X 97. B.the leans. A.500 pounds.134.16 minutes. "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.13.500 lb.972 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-37.. A X 98. C.556 pounds. "good". (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). A X 1. This is known as )autokinesis. "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.Zero fuel weight: 125.900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. B.Lift divided by the total weight.097 feet. "fair".14 minutes.Coriolis illusion.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.22. B X 99.4-51. This is known as )autokinesis. B.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 2. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.. the percentage of the proximate braking action. [Refer to Figures 4-50.4-53.22. B. and 4-54. Climb straight ahead to LG NDB. you cannot accept any undue delay. C X 7.346 C.Climb straight ahead to L NDB.Rotation speed. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.354 C X 11.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B. A X 5. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency..2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C..can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance.Accelerate-stop distance. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. C. upon reaching your destination.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. B. What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A. C X 10. A X 8. C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty . a good leader should not A. C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B. for a given runway? A.Final approach fix. right turn.involve the team in most decision making processes. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. C X 6. C. Turbulence A X 4. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.166 B. B. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where.The first holding pattern level.At least one hour prior to the departure time. then select HUR VOR. Microburst C.Critical engine failure speed. C. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. B. B X 9. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing.．During the flight.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. right turn.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. what action is required? A. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.... C X 12. B. then select HUR VOR.. C. A.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. B.B. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.600m AGL. [Refer to Figure 4-37. the CG will A. .145 knots. B.descend 3℃ C.C X 13. B.8 hours B.500 lb A. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A.Not more than 2 hours.More than 6 hours.as the time goes on . A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground. C.16hours B..The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.500 lb.17 C X 18.148 knots.000 pounds? Initial weight: 162. descend 2℃ B. B.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.10 hours C. Sand storm B X 17. the temperature of the air will . C. A.may change or may not change A X 21.change B.9 minutes.. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. [Refer to Figures 4-22. In average.. A X 15. How long before a redispatch release is required? A. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway. continue taxiing in the landing direction.18 hours A X 19. Smoke B.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. B.not change C. C.4 B. for every 1..15 C. at an intermediate airport.000 feet increase in the troposphere.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18.12 hours A X 16.Not more than 1 hour. C X 14. descend 4℃ A X 20.8 minutes.In flight . What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.17 hours C.. Sand C. C. A X 22.140 knots.Zero fuel weight: 120.10 minutes. 4-23 and 4-24. what action is required? A. C.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. and 4-54.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. Rain and snow B.4-51.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C..B X 23.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual. B.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month.3842 feet.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. B. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. B. C X 24. B X 28.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 31. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. C X 25.. A X 26.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.4-52. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A.. 4-50.] What is the ETE at .a change in the information coming from the inner ear. C. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A. B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. .poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. B X 27. [Refer to Figures 4-49. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. A X .4-53.3940 feet.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 30.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.78 Mach? A. vestibular and postural cues.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.1 hours 08 minutes.1 hours 05 minutes.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. C. Drizzle C. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. B.1360 feet. Continuous snow A X 29. C. B.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. C. B. C.1 hours 02 minutes.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. C. B.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.the pilot in command only. plus the forecast winds.121. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.000.In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO). C. B..WIND COMPONENT: 60HW.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87. the pilot should have readily available: A.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. A X 39. pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.. and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.The landing performance of the aircraft. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 33. [Refer to Figure 4-41. C.95 MHZ.9MHz. in the interest of safety. A X 35.Intersecting runways C X 36.80.ZBAA B. B.108.108.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A.108. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. B. A X 37.850 pounds.32. C.ZUUU B X 40.10 to 111. B X .85. published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing.ZSSS C.DISTANCE (NM): 370.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD).700 pounds. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C.any flight crewmember. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100.121. B X 38.95 MHZ C.10 MHZ B. C. B. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A.The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing.121. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A.77.600 pounds. A X 34..10 to 118. landing performance of the aircraft. B X 41..7KHz. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC.7MHz.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.any required pilot crewmember.10 to 117. B. any exit. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 43. A X 50. A stable layer of air.. C. the captain finds that on weather map. B X 44.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A. C. A X 46.Turbine inlet.propeller thrust only. low clouds and weak turbulent current B.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A. B..turbine inlet temperature. B. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. B. C X 45. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.pilot in command and chief pilot. B X 47.5%. or use of. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.4. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation..10hours C. Air mass thunderstorms. C. any aisle in the passenger compartment.12hours B.06 EPR.Fuel spray nozzles. C.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. . An unstable layer of air. shower and gale C. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. B. [Refer to Figures 4-22. A X 49. diversion. what is the corresponding rate of descent? A. C.07 EPR.8%. C. A.. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 51..42..2%. clear after rain.2. or use of.pilot in command and the flight follower.pilot in command and director of operations. B. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. C. cumulonimbus clouds. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.8hours B X 48.5.09 EPR.Compressor discharge.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A. and 4-24. Before taking off.2.. B. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.2.5. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. B. continuation. refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B. B. C.V2. C X . when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 56. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A.does the first thing that comes to mind.Intermittent "backfire" stall. A X 55.Positive static stability. C. A X 58.. B.Series A and Series D.) 30 degrees. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A. regulations.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A. C.V1. continuous flow reversal stall.342o. C.352o.. A. B X 57. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A.Transient "backfire" stall. expected holding speed B. A X 54. no further action is necessary C. C X 59.adopt all rules.Series A.Steady.Positive dynamic stability.．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. 2 km C.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized.Series A and Series C.347o.VEF. and procedures as far as possible C. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.Neutral dynamic stability. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. B. 40 degrees. 30 degrees. C X 60.B X 52. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A. 1.. A X 61... C. B. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A. Series C and Series D. 2 km B.White inscriptions on a red background B.5 km A X 53.Holding position signs have A.Red inscriptions on a white background C. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. B. C. 30 hours A X 65. B. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given. severe icing B X 63.22.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. prior to flight conducted above A. Group II aircraft are A.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A. C. Rain shower. and altitude decreases C X 64.22..32 hours C. and 4-54. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. mountain waves.80 Mach? A. mountain waves. freezing precipitation.Loud. and altitude increases C.Intermittent "bang. produce anxiety and A.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. A X 70.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.．Heavy coffee or tea. FL240 C. and altitude decreases B." as backfires and flow reversals take place. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.22. aircraft pitches up.420 pounds.556 pounds.wrong A X 69... Thunderstorm. [Refer to Figures 4-50. indicated airspeed increases.Turbojet aircraft C. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity. B.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.4-52. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.. C.Pilot-in-command. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? . B X 71. The statement is)right B. C. mountain waves. instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization. FL200 B. aircraft pitches down. C X 66. Rainfall. FL250 C X 67.836 pounds.4-53.(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time.] What is the total fuel required at .All recorded information may be erased. B.. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. indicated airspeed decreases. Rain shower.3/4 engine aircraft B X 72. severe clear air turbulence C.. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Dispatcher. B X 68.35 hours B..Propeller driven aircraft B.4-51.All recorded information may be erased. moderate clear air turbulence B.62. indicated airspeed decreases. aircraft pitches down. Who is responsible of arranging the separation of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A. freezing precipitation.Air Traffic Controller. B. A.398 feet.1. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. braking action is "100%" A X 75.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF . B. C X 80. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 77.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF. B.1.contradictory data or personal conflicts. B. braking action is "zero" C.VLE.381 feet.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. C. C. C X 73. B X 79. C.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90.Motion about the lateral axis. B. Upon arriving at the most distant airport.Motion about the vertical axis. B. or 90 minutes at normal cruise.026 feet. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. after reaching the most distant alternate airport. C. B. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A.. whichever is less. C. B X 81.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC. A X 76. 45 minutes at holding altitude. what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A. whichever is less.Lower-than-standard air density.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.496 feet MSL. C X 74. C. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1. braking action is "fair" B.. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A..Motion about the longitudinal.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. whichever is less. C X 78. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China .Increased headwind component.1.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A.Resolve discrepancies.Amber lights replace white on the last 2.VMO/MMO. [Refer to Figure 4-39. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.VLO/MLO.. should be A.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF. Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B.VIS1600m. .16.400 feet. B X 90. company organization name. B.PIC time 94 hours.23. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C.the eyes B.g.000 feet. C.54. B. Which information must be contained in.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.600 feet.400 feet.VIS1600m. Position is not affected C.5KM from ILG.24.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA.A.800 feet. C.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 87.Passenger manifest. VFR). A X 89. trip number. .5NM from ILG.VIS2400m.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 88.Negative longitudinal static stability B. [Refer to Figure 4-45. [Refer to Figure 4-39.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized. B X 82.VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m. and cargo weight. A.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400.. C.16. A X 86.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW.7 minutes. A.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space. B.16.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A.Type of operation (e.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.5SM from ILG.the inner C.58. B.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON. C.1 minutes. B. IFR.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane..9 minutes.the proprioceptive system A X 85.. the accuracy of the GPS derived A. B.19. B.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80. or attached to.20.MDH100m.59. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 84. C. A.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.MDH120m.23. B X 83. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A. C.2 PEK. B X 100. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight. B. B. C. legs. (Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL. C X 95.. and altimeter settings. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. Standing lenticular. At the EFC time. C X 93. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative.D0. C. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A. and receipt of position reports. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. Original dispatch release.000 feet. little or no wind. Radar vectors for traffic separation. Which condition will for the formation of radiation fog? A.3 PEK. A clear sky. and a statement of the type of operation.96 knots.110 knots. B X 99.Decreased breathing rate. B. C. A X 96. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. and high relative humidity. B X 92. route weather advisories.Above PEK VOR. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. C. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.D0. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Moist. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. rotor cloud. C.. Low stratus. and feet.Increased vision keenness. B. and altitude B. Certificate holder's manual.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. Severe weather information .C. C.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.90 knots. A X 94. B. intended route of flight. B.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.20. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? . . A X 91. if still IMC? A..What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule.. A X 98.Minimum fuel supply and trip number. B. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 100 PSI? A.Tingling of the hands.changes in flight plans. B X 97. logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. C.. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path.7 hours. [Refer to Figure 4-28.add slats C X 6.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. increase wing sweep. C X 2.the otolith B X 4.Macho B. C. C X . under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.000 pounds? A.To protect military activities only.the skeletal muscles.To protect science tests only. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. B X 3.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105. joints and tendons C.1.300 feet.1 C. C. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Impulsivity: C X 8. B. C.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month. B. the pilot should A.8 hours. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. C. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.．"Do something quickly!".Invulnerability: C. B.300 feet.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A. give the wing a lower camber B. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A.800 feet. C X 5. B...6 hours. A X 7.2 B X ATPL07 1. C.A. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane..8 B. B.the semicircular canals B. B X 17. C. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.TCAS I provides A.4 B. B X 15. A X 12. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A.8 feet.. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. or the MEA. whichever is highest. C X .5NM from ILG.5SM from ILG. Certificate holder's manual. the commencement of final approach B. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. B. C.30 minutes B. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn. Airplane Flight Manual.1 hours C.. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A.5KM from ILG.16.Traffic and resolution advisories B.17 C X 13. enter TMA C. A. B. A X 10. Where provided. B. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.16. B. A X 11.．After been in exposed to normal lighting. . B. An altitude that is at least 1.15 C.000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. B. C. What altitude should be used? A.. the commencement of initial approach A X 18. Last assigned altitude.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 16. C. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 14. an increase in airspeed will A.5 minutes. altitude ATC has advised to expect.12 feet.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.10 feet. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.Proximity warning C.16.9.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C. 950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.) 30 degrees. B. B.VEF.5 km A X 23. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. C X 24. A X 26. A hard landing. B.2.500 feet short of the end of a 4. C.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. by means of VOR NAVIDS. 2 km C. C. A.750 feet. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C X 25.．The perception of color is a function of the A. Landing short of the runway threshold. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.19.V1.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. 30 degrees. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west.500 feet.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. C.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. In the Northern hemisphere. the minimum safe altitude is .The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. B.1. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2. [Refer to Figure 4-25.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.500 pounds? A..cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. to a suitable airport and land. B.2. B X 27.000 pounds. C. under which of the following conditions. A X 20. C X 21. 2 km B. B. C. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.. Which rule applies? A. C.000 pounds. 1. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system..(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.100 feet.. Increased landing rollout. [Refer to Figure 4-28.119.136. C.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting...000 pounds.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. 40 degrees.V2. B. C X 22.650 meters.139. .If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route. what airspeed indication can be expected? A. B.A.3. B X 33.. This pilot has been a victim of)expectancy producing a false hypothesis B. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time.. C. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA. A pilot flight crewmember.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. B X 32. A X 28.050m. C.(To be continued，engine which failed. must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A.. C. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers.Stopway. A X 29.．A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twinengine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine.0850K.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 34.6 calendar months. B.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B.Clearway.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.expectancy producing a mental block C. B.Obstruction clearance plane. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 31. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.ZSSS . B. B.250m. C X 35.Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 36.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. plus or minus 3minutes. C. only to find that it was the right A.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C.850.950m.12 calendar months.24 calendar months.K0850. other than pilot in command.3.a motor program producing a false hypothesis A X 30. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. which is able to support the airplane. whichever is later. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway. C.2. Adhere to standard operating procedures.. light turbulence C.．Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK.12 hours. A. A X 46. severe turbulence B.High-speed flight only.DH65m，RVR600 C.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A.DH65m，RVR550 B X 39.right .8 hours. stationary front. B. warm front.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. B.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. B. cold front.ZWWW C X 37. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. C X 44. with reference to L/DMAX. Embedded thunderstorms. C.Low-speed flight only. C. etC．as far as possible.ZUUU C. Cumulonimbus clouds..Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 38.24 hours. fuel burn. A.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you. C. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is .cornea C. C.Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. The statement is A. C.Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Rising terrain C. C X 42. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747. while operating under Part 121. B. B..retina B. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.iris A X 41. severe icing. At what speed. Uneven heat on the ground C X 40. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. C X 45.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. as PIC. B X 43.Low-speed and high-speed flight.. SIGMETS. B. in an approved simulator. steady red for slightly below glide path.METARS. NOTAM'S.118.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. PIREPS. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. C X 51.124. B.8MHz.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. C. A X 52..127. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. .. C. B.SPECIS. C.What is the purpose of a control tab? A.B. B.SIGMETS. A X 56. A X 53. B. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A.wrong A X 47.. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.received an ATC clearance. C X 50.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.not required to have a medical certificate. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. and AIRMETS.required to have a first-class medical certificate. PIREP'S and AIRMETS.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.reached the cruising IAS. C. C X 49. C. C X 48. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A. one pulsing and one steady. B.One –light project.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. AWW's.35MHz. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. B. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. C X 54.Two-light projectors. B.85MHz. pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope. steady white when on glide slope.Convective SIGMETS. C. C. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. B X 55. two pulsing and one steady..required to have a second-class medical certificate.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. is A. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate. C. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A.Three-light system.entered VFR weather conditions. and adverse conditions. B.. C.Obstruction clearance plane.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A. C X 60. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment. C.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. dispatch releases. twinengine airplane represent? A.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A. B X 64.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A. after initial training? A. B..．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.fatigue C. A X 65. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans.3 months. B. 6 calendar months.-Negative dynamic stability A X 59. 12 calendar months. A X 66.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. A X 58. and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator. C. C.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. B.B X 57.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.Inner marker.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.Stop way. C X 63.6 months. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate.smoking and alcohol B. C. . the applicant is A.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. C. C..Clearway.-Positive static stability C.both A and B C X 61.Maximum single-engine angle of climb. 24 calendar months. B.30 days.-Negative static stability B. B. and load manifests for at least A. A X 62. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A.Middle compass locator.Outer compass locator. B. B.381 feet. B X 67.1.Director of operations or flight follower. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.B. what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A... Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A.. C X 75. lifesaving decision and carry it out following A. The statement is )right B. C.. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B.1.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. C. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. B. pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence.200 meters.Series A and Series C. Frontal fog. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate.L1020.1. B X 68. C.. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.Series A. C. C X 70. During a supplemental air carrier flight. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.．The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational.Pilot in command.398 feet. B. C. B X 74.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A..(To be continued，a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. B X 71. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10. Series C and Series D. A. B. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from .Aircraft dispatcher.required to have a first-class medical certificate. Radiation fog.Series A and Series D.S1020.wrong A X 69. A X . Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. B X 73.496 feet MSL.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. C X 72. Advection fog.F1020. B. B.026 feet.is not required to have a medical certificate. 127. B.65MHz. B. Fly the most direct route to the destination. From 08Z to 22Z. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. C.attitude may be higher than it appears. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport. Descend to MEA and.. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. B.85MHz.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. A X 80. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. A. If not clear of clouds.150 feet AGL.pilots. without VASI assistant. C. B. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A. C. the base is unknown B X 81. flight engineers and batmen. B.121. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. Some places have CBs.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 78. CBs with little or no separation B. or to the MEA. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. what is the valid period of time. C.200 feet AGL. whichever is higher. B X 77. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds.100 feet AGL. pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway.124.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 83.76. B X 82.Increase in indicated airspeed. both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration.Decrease in indicated airspeed.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. the base is unknown C.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. B. C.. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds. if clear of clouds.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. navigators.only pilots B. From 14Z to 22Z B X 79.attitude may be lower than it appears. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA.. B X .The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. C. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect. C X 84. C. but do not include flight attendants.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. B..35MHz. 25 minutes.95 knots. C.Increases takeoff distance. Air mass thunderstorms.. C.85.. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority. A X 95. ZUUU A X 94. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.90days C. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. ASSS C. What effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance? A. B. 118 NAM. C X 87. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. 125 NAM. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. B.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept.turbine inlet temperature. . low-red. 109 NAM. low-red. on glidepath-green. B. C.High-white and green.Decreases takeoff distance. C. 6 calendar months.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.. B.propeller thrust only.100 knots.24 minutes. C. C.30days A X 86...Decreases takeoff speed.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C. C. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A. B X 89. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A. A X 93..90 knots.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.. A X 91.60days B. B. low-red.High-white. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B. B X 90. B. An unstable layer of air.High-white. B.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. B X 88. 12 calendar months. A stable layer of air. B. on glidepath-red and white.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. 24 calendar months.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 92. on glidepath-green. ZULS B.23 minutes.Normally. pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A. Cold temperatures.True airspeed B X 2. A. B. and altimeter settings.15 seconds C. West wind at 4 m/s. Severe weather information . in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. East windat 4 m/s. A X 99.VIS1600m. as PIC. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. B. C. B.9MHz.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. C. [Refer to Figure 4-26. intended route of flight.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135.121.000 pounds? A. Radar vectors for traffic separation. mechanical failure. Scattered clouds.. C X 100.Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend? A.300 feet. C.DA110m.7MHz.. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight.750 feet.121.35 seconds B X . A X 96.000 feet is closest to A. B X 98. mist and broken clouds C.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.VIS1600m B X 1.RVR550m. Poor visibility.Rate of turn B. and receipt of position reports. A. visibility 5000m and fog B.25 seconds B.121. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings.Angle of bank C.DA93m. or structural damage occurs. C.C. route weather advisories.. B..changes in flight plans. Convection currents at the surface.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A.7KHz.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. and altitude B. B X 97.100 feet. C. When distress conditions such as fire. for this PIC?)_DA63m. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100. rain and broken clouds B X 3. from headwind to tailwind.. and altitude decreases C X 6. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. aircraft pitches down.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. B.4.24 calendar months.. aircraft pitches down. C. B.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. A. C.000 pounds gross weight? .Four C.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 7.DH65m，RVR550 B X 9. the wind direction usually changes .Over the territory only.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. B. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.VOR/DME FIX B. and altitude decreases B. B X 11.Five B.12 calendar months. C.Two A X 10. C. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. [Refer to Figure 4-25. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747.Over the open sea only. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o).from left crosswind to right crosswind. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A. indicated airspeed decreases. C.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK. A X 8. while operating under Part 121. indicated airspeed increases. At the Equator.6 calendar months. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. B..What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A..DH65m，RVR600 C. aircraft pitches up..Surveillance radar C. after advising ATC of the situation. A X 13. and altitude increases C. B. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. A. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. as PIC. At the Poles. indicated airspeed decreases. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 12.Compass locator C X 5.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110. 250 knots B..WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.White inscriptions on a red background . as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. C X 14. VFR).Activities.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.500 feet. A X 17. and cargo weight. company organization name.May all be erased. Which information must be contained in. B. [Refer to Figure 4-39. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. .at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF. A X 22. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90.800 feet.. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. B.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.Passenger manifest. B X 19. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.outward and forward B X 21. IFR.300 feet.1. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.VS1. B.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A. A X 18. or attached to. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A.VS.400 feet. 210 knots B X 15. C.000 feet. include that A. B. B.19.inward and aft B.Type of operation (e.A. both a and b C X 16.g. B X 20..May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.20. C.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC. trip number. 230 knots C.Holding position signs have A.inward and forward C.VSO. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C.000 feet.23. C. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. C. 80 knots C. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA. taxi.. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. Light quartering headwind. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. landing. C.Red inscriptions on a white background C. C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. C. B.Low-speed flight only. B. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. Descend to MEA and. B. descent. B X 27. During the period of Spring Festival. C. A X 31. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. irrespective of altitudes MSL. B. takeoff. If not clear of clouds. B. C X 29. B.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. whichever is higher. within a microburst.Yellow inscriptions on a red background A X 23. Direct tailwind. A X 30. 40 knots B. excluding cruise flight.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. and taxi operations.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A.Wingover. if you are assigned to an additional flight.High-speed flight only. .-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude. and all other operations conducted below 3.M.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.B. C. and all other operations conducted below 3.X. B. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect.Porpoise. 90 knots C X 24.. C.. B. takeoff.. Light quartering tailwind. A X 25.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. approach. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. Fly the most direct route to the destination. C.Low-speed and high-speed flight.N. or to the MEA. landing. if clear of clouds. A X 26. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport.000 meters. including cruise flight.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A. taxi. landing.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. C.Dutch roll C X 28. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A..000 meters MSL. What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. landing performance of the aircraft. B.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing.Plus or minus 6 B. what airspeed should be maintained? A.A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeperthan-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in A. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.The same. C.10 feet. A hard landing.changes in flight plans. A X 38. and receipt of position reports.The published Available Landing Distance (ALD). B X 36. B X 39. C X 34.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C.. route weather advisories.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A. B. the pilot should have readily available: A..If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A. Landing short of the runway threshold.. C X 40.VYSE. and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling. the maximum bearing error permissible is A.Two times greater. receive this ATC clearance: ". plus the forecast winds..The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing.Four times greater. Radar vectors for traffic separation.8 feet. C.Direct only C.Parallel only A X 35.".The landing performance of the aircraft..Plus 6 or minus 4 C.Teardrop only B..12 feet. Increased landing rollout.VXSE. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. and altitude B. Severe weather information .In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO). B. C. B.C X 32. A X 37. B. C. A plane. C.VMC. C. and altimeter settings.. intended route of flight.Plus or minus4? . C X 33. MH 240°. 2.Visibility 3.22.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C. [Refer to Figures 4-22.600 feet.23. C. . C. C X 48.4-53. first serve basis.09 EPR.750 feet. B. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway.556 pounds.] What is the total fuel required at .140 pounds.. These lines are A.800m and MDA 180m. C.22.25 days ago. [Refer to Figures 4-50.4-51. C X 46. B. C. A X 44. When piloting a large. heavy aircraft.A X 41. and 4-24.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. B.Visibility 2.06 EPR.2.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 43.20.972 pounds.. B. B. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A.Visibility 2. C.7 days ago.000 pounds? A. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway.000 feet.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A. and 4-54. C.400 feet..78 Mach? A.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF.200 feet.2.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 80.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. C X 45. on a firs-come. A X 42.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON. You are considered clear of runway when A. B X 50.2.000m and MDA 120m.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122. [Refer to Figure 4-28. C.2.1.600m and MDA 240m.To protect science tests only.24.. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.. A X 47. B. [Refer to Figure 4-39.22.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B.15 days ago. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.Except during an emergency.. When cleared for an IFR approach B. B. B X 49.4-52.000m and MDA 120m.To protect military activities only. In turn.. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2. .07 EPR.750 feet. HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. B X 59. B. [Refer to Figures 4-22. if enough fuel A. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. C. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. [Refer to Figure 4-34.113.HIALS with PAPI. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.240 pounds. B X 58. B. B X 56. C X 51. The appearance of anvil clouds top C.625 pounds.2. B..000 feet B.. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A.Six C. C.Seven B. 4-23 and 4-24. It begins to rain on the ground C X . B.5.980 pounds.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.3.2.PAPI.6MHz.6KHz..VLE. C.VMO/MMO.148 knots. C.C.000 feet C X 52.000.. C. B. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier.VLO/MLO. C.3.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts.500 feet C.] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A..ENGINES OPERATING: 2.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.2. C X 57.145 knots. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.HIALS.113. B X 55.114.Five A X 53.. B X 54.140 knots.7MHz.3. B. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.An area. thrust increases.An area. B.8 feet. at which a safe landing can be made. the pilot in command A. B. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. .centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities. must land at the nearest suitable airport. B. it can be condensed into six elements. C X 63. at least the same width as the runway.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. B. B.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking.In a light .10 feet.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B X 62.12 feet. at least the same width as the runway. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.Evaluate the effect of the action C. B X 65.. C.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals. The second E is A. however.As air density decreases.The critical Mach number will increase significantly. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 64.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. C X 61. What effect would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gasturbine-engine performance? A. C. C. not as wide as the runway.. in point of time. A X 67. thrust decreases.．The decision-making process is quite complex.An area. using the acronym DECIDE. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A. C. C. C.60. C.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude..As temperature increases. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. B.. thrust increases.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A. B X 66.As temperature increases. which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance. B X 68. which is able to support the airplane. B. C.Over open sea.When the wheels are locked and skidding.C. takeoff. A X 71. an abrupt head movement A. Decrease profile drag.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35. ZUUU B. ZSSS C X 78.4 percent. taxi. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air. the pilot will be informed by ATC as . C. This is known as )autokinesis.0 percent. B X 76. ZHHH C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).000 meters.Over domestic only. A X 77. B X 70. 170 knots C. C X 73. climb and descent when below 3. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A.At high ground speeds.86. 150 knots C X 75. B. and landing.83..An area beyond the takeoff runway.4 percent. C.. C. B.. B. .000 meters.000. B. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. B. Changes the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. C.When wing lift has been reduced. [Refer to Figure 4-32. takeoff.Over domestic or open sea. A X 72. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A. and landing. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. A X 69. (According to figure 2) .If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. C. C X 74.．While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation..TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.87..the leans.What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance? A. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane. which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).Coriolis illusion. B. C..Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. 200 knots B.(To be continued， can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. climb and descent when below 3. attitude may be lower than it appears. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A. As the parcel of air moves upward. clear to land with caution.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. B. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 85.not change C.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. C.．After been in exposed to normal lighting.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. B. B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" ..as the time goes on .change B.1 hours C. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. the pilot should be aware that the approach A. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C.may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.In flight . the CG will A. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. The parcel of air resists convection. B X 86. A.5 minutes.may change or may not change A X 80. without VASI assistant. B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.．If the authority gradient is too steep.attitude may be higher than it appears. C. no aircraft are allowed to land. by the applicant. B. A X 81.30 minutes B. C X 83. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. C. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate.A.certificate holder's operations specifications.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B. C. A X 84. C.．When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway. A X 87. C X 79. Ambient temperature lapse rate. It refer to A. A X 82. runway is closed or unsafe runway.. B. C. A.. 200 knots C. thrust decreases..123 knots and 3. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. A X 95. C..000 meters? A.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132.850 feet. B.450 feet.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. 210 knots B.C..500 pounds? A.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. B.As temperature decreases. no. A. B. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121.DA110m. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS.Wet runway using brakes.050 feet..Two B X 89.. yes. C X 91. B. from headwind to tailwind. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 94.As temperature increases. C. thrust increases.Four B.DA93m. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B X 90. for this PIC?)_DA63m. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Dry runway using brakes and reversers.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 88.Three C. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 93.VIS1600m B X . C. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. no. thrust decreases.As temperature increases.138 knots and 3.153 knots and 3. C. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A. as PIC.VIS1600m.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A. C. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C. the wind direction usually changes. an increase in airspeed will A.RVR550m.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. B. 150 knots B X 96. B X 92. from left crosswind to right crosswind. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. B. spoilers and reversers. C. B.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. C X 1. B. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours.300 feet. C.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? A.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. B. A X 99.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate.. C.．Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.B-747. C..B-747. B. C X 2. . an unstable lapse rate.Supercharger gear ratio.B-727 and B-737. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 6. B-727. B.8 feet.Commercial .Rely on the kinesthetic sense. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. 109 NAM. an initial lifting force. and sufficient water vapor.B-737.Green yellow and white beacon light B. C X 4.ATP .RVR 400m. C. B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines. C. 118 NAM.Exhaust gas discharge.000 feet.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A. B. A X 98.500 feet.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white A X 100.000 pounds gross weight? A. B. [Refer to Figure 4-26. Commercial .97. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m.B-727 and B-747. C. and B-737. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. C.4..12 feet.RVR 250m.4. B. C..25 minutes.23 minutes.8 hours.4. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. C X 3. 125 NAM. ATP ..24 minutes.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. C X 5. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.6 hours.How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.The desired manifold pressure.ATP .10 feet. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.．The blind spot is A. C..525 feet..12hours B. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.VFC.372 feet.. C X 12.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A. Certificate holder's manual.pilots...required to have a second-class medical certificate.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.Dispatch release. A X . flight engineers and batmen.required to have a first-class medical certificate. A X 14.13 hours C.VMD.Parallel only C X 9.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL. B. C X 16.not required to have a medical certificate.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. is A.". C X 15.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. Original dispatch release.14 hours C X 10.470 feet. B.VMU.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.only pilots B. C X 7. in an approved simulator. but do not include flight attendants.C. B. C. and flight plan.If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. which document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light.. navigators. B.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. B. C. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A. receive this ATC clearance: ". MH 300°. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate. An approved Minimum Equipment list for the airplane.Altimeter setting.Direct only C. B.Dispatch release and weight and balance release. B X 13.Actual pressure at field elevation. load manifest (or information from it).Teardrop only B.. C. C. B X 8. C. B. C. C X 11.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. A plane. 17. A X 23. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. A X 20.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you. B. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118.352o. Movement of air over a colder surface.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. A.347o. at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A. B.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.3. The statement is A. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots.Over the open sea only.(To be continued，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A. B X 26. B..FL128. B X 27.VXSE. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. C.At approximately 2. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A.wrong A X 25.infinity. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.. C.FL138. C. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling. what airspeed should be maintained? A. the minimum safe altitude is A..At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.650 meters.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. A X 24.342o. B.. wet runway? A.250m.. B X 22.VMC. Expansion of air as rises. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C.. C. B X 21.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A. C. B.FL118.VYSE.right B.Over the territory only. C. B.five meters. C. A X 18. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning.. B. .. C. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A. A X 19. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2. first-served" basis. FL 200.2. yes. B X 36..754 pounds. B.11. The appearance of disordered low clouds B.2. A X 31.2.000 pounds? A. B.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. B X 33. C. can a pilot expect landing priority? A. C. A X 28. A X 29.200 feet.Only one INS is required to be operative.-Increased surface area provides greater controllability with flap extension. It begins to rain on the ground .minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.050m. B. FL 250. no.An air carrier that elects to use an inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight? A. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. What is the required fuel reserve? A.750 feet.. B. [Refer to Figure 4-45. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come.B. C X 30.-Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.-Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds.750 feet.950m. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. B X 35.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.3. yes. C.trip number and weight and balance data. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for other INS. During emergency. C. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A. C.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. C.Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only? A.. B. plus 10 percent of the total flight time. B.503 pounds.. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration. A X 32. C. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate.1. C. C. B X 34. B. B. [Refer to Figure 4-28. 30 minutes.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750.11.The INS system must consist of two operative INS units.227 pounds..11. FL 180. hypoxia. 000 pounds gross weight.12. severe icing. light turbulence C.000m. increase speed to the assigned speed.360 feet. Advection fog. the altitude of LOM is 1.000 pounds gross weight..000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.360 feet. A X .3. C X 39.TCASII provides A.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. B. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. C. C. A X 45. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. [Refer to Figure 4-25. C X 44.262 feet. B X 42.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 38.000 pounds gross weight. severe turbulence B..100m. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. B. B X 40. B.1.245 feet. B. 150 knots C. 170 knots B. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. An altitude that is at least 1. C.000m.. whichever is highest. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach.C X 37. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A.Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. what should the pilot do? A. B.. Embedded thunderstorms. C X 43. and reversers at 125.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light.. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A.1. spoilers.Brakes. C. 130 knots B X 41. C.Traffic and resolution advisories B..．The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A. or the MEA. B.9.1. C. B.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. Frontal fog. C. If an ATC controller assigns a speed. surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 46. Last assigned altitude.Brakes and reversers at 115. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. altitude ATC has advised to expect. Radiation fog. Cumulonimbus clouds.Proximity warning C.Brakes and spoilers at 120.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. Outer compass locator. B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. B X 51.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. C.4-53. Slats .reached the cruising IAS. A..An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.47.78 Mach? A.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.120 days after issue or renewal. and 4-54.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A.Amber lights for the first 2. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. C X 53.972 pounds. C X 56.entered VFR weather conditions. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe. A X 57. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A. [Refer to Figures 4-50.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. C.. A X 49. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B. B. B.4-51. A X 52.4-52.Inner marker. B.Identify REIL. false cirrus clouds A X 55. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer.. C.What is a feature of supercooled water? A. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.received an ATC clearance. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. B X 48.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.. C. B. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.000 feet of runway. C. C X 50.22.(to be continued Based on this situation.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. altocumulus clouds C.22.．What cause hypoxia? A.] What is the total fuel required at .) cumulonimbus clouds B. C.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.140 pounds. C X 54.22.. C. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A.Middle compass locator. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A. C. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds. C. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. A. then clear ice accumulates.556 pounds.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. B. . C. B.. C. thrust decreases. thrust increases. Elevator C. C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. thrust increases. one pulsing and one steady. C. C.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A.As air density decreases. Light quartering tailwind.Three-light system.140 knots. [Refer to Figures 4-22.148 knots. pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope. B X 59.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A. Light quartering headwind. B.145 knots.As air density increases. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. B X 62. B.add slats C X 66. B X 65. increase wing sweep. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. steady white when on glide slope..21hours B X 63. 4-23 and 4-24. C X 64. give the wing a lower camber B. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? .there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C. B.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A. steady red for slightly below glide path. and never in climbs or descents B X 61.Two-light projectors. A X 60.19hours B.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. Dorsal fin B X 58.20 hours C.B. B.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight..] What is the reference speed for Operating Conditions L-2? A.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. C.One –light project.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. Direct tailwind.As air density increases. two pulsing and one steady.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. Dutch roll C X 71. There are altostratus. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B.In terminal radar service areas C. Developing lift.1915Z.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased.After applying maximum wheel braking. it can be condensed into the following six elements.．The decision-making process is quite complex. B X 74.DECIDE C.Of an intersecting taxiway only.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C. .iris A X 76.cornea C.DICIDE B. A. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A.Above 12.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. C.Immediately prior to touchdown.DECIED B X 68. C.500 feet MSL A X 69.1945Z..Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 75.Immediately after ground contact. B.A. stratus .Wingover. Using high power settings. There are altocumulus . stratocumulus. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. C. B. C. There are cirrostratus . is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. C.Porpoise. Operating at high airspeeds. A X 67.1845Z.. stratocumulus. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 72. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A.Of some designated point on the runway. B. A X 70. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. B. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. B X 73.retina B.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A. if enough fuel A. however. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A. WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. For past three hours.000 pounds? A. In a flight crew.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. maintenance..] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. B X 77. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1. fuel burn.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.136 knots.1. ability. the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. B X 78.000 pounds.] What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3o glide slope at a weight of 110. C. ability. B.the caption's power. B.B. A X 81.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.32. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C.Adhere to standard operating procedures.132 knots.000. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. C.In altocumulus cloud. B. A X 83. [Refer to Figure 4-43. For past three hours.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.800 feet. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. the air pressure have reduced 1.A and B C X 79.1. C.in cumliform clouds B. B. ability.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A. B. such as cirrus.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.the caption's power.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA.. A X . C X 85.500 feet C.600 pounds.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34. B X 80. etC．as far as possible.the caption's power.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. C X 84. an apt arranging is A.. C. A X 82.7hPa.in high clouds.Focus on the details and scan the big picture..000 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-30. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B. C. etC． C.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment.1. C.139 knots. ATC.28. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. dispatch.000 feet B. (Refer to Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area arrow K pointed A. 000 meters? A. B. B. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. C. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A. C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.15 C.．Night vision is enhanced by A. B X 87.17 C X 94. . 250 knots C X 95. .70 percent of the actual runway available. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. runway is closed or unsafe runway. C. 350 knots B.4 B. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C X 91. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A. . A X 93. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. clear to land with caution. B X 92.VSO. A X 88. C.86.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway.VS1..The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. B.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. 330 knots C. no aircraft are allowed to land.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 89.Apply full main wheel braking only.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. is normally limited to A.. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A. the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. C.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view.VS.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B. C X 90.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350.. B.Lower than pressure altitude.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B. B. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. when originally issued. it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B. with gear down. C.. C.Supercharger gear ratio. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. C.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A. Fog C X 2. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A.climbed to the appropriate altitude.B.The desired manifold pressure. C.1 hours 05 minutes. [Refer to Figures 4-49.800 pounds.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 1. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. B. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.4-52.Dry runway using brakes and reversers.To protect military activities only. [Refer to Figure 4-30.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. C X 97.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A. C.17.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes..300 pounds. B. 4-50. B. A X 3.. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C..500 pounds? A.4-51. C X 4. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.Exhaust gas discharge. B X 100. Rain B. Light fog C. and 4-54. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A..received an ATC clearance. B.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. C.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.1 hours 02 minutes. B.1 hours 08 minutes. . flaps 40o. B X 5.000 pounds. B X 96. C. spoilers and reversers. C.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110.Wet runway using brakes.20.78 Mach? A.Higher than pressure altitude.000 pounds.To protect science tests only. C X 98.22.4-53.] What is the ETE at . B.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft... B X 99. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. severe icing B X 8. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A. mountain waves. Rainfall. the applicant is A.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C. A X 6. C X 12.Two B.(To be continued，efficient flight operation.Radar and RVR.An airplane has seats for 49 passengers and two crewmembers. B.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.HIRL. equipment. procedures and people. C X . C.B. TDZL. continuous flow reversal stall. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. freezing precipitation. East windat 4 m/s. B X 11.Intermittent "backfire" stall.wrong A X 10. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___.. rain and broken clouds B X 9. marker beacons. mist and broken clouds C. mountain waves. B. visibility 5000m and fog B.e. freezing precipitation.One C. C. The statement is)right B. A. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate.RCLS and REIL C. altocumulus clouds C. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds.required to have a first-class medical certificate. Scattered clouds. and approach lights? A.Zero B X 7. C. i.. A. C X 14.Transient "backfire" stall.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. moderate clear air turbulence B. to achieve a safe and A. mountain waves. B. RCLS. West wind at 4 m/s. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. You are considered clear of runway when A. What is the number of flight attendants required with only 1 passenger aboard? A.Steady.) cumulonimbus clouds B. and RVR.. Rain shower. Thunderstorm. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.is not required to have a medical certificate.(to be continued Based on this situation. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. severe clear air turbulence C. Rain shower. and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.. false cirrus clouds A X 13. the inner C. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. . A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. ZUUU B.Highest stall speed.220m.8 hours. B.160m. C.16hours B. B. C.136.17 hours C. At the EFC time. highest cruise speed. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.. C.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A..000 pounds. A X 16.18 hours A X 22.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.15.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space. lowest cruise speed.139.500 feet short of the end of a 4.the eyes B.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.Lowest stall speed. and highest stability. ZHHH C.the proprioceptive system A X 21. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.. A X 19. and least stability. and least stability B.000 pounds. which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A..950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. ZSSS C X 23. B.119. B.150m.Lowest stall speed. C X 18.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. highest cruise speed. [Refer to Figure 4-25. C X 17. if the authorized MDH is 100 meters. C. C. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. C X 20. (According to figure 2) . At the EFC time as amended by ATC. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.000 pounds. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month. A X 29.Read the clearance back entirely.500 feet B X 28.What is a feature of supercooled water? A. B. The wind speed increases.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. temperature reduced C. A X 32..12 hours. 6 m/s A X 34.24 hours..the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B...2.2. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.83. C. if you are assigned to an additional flight.86. B. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe.Airport flight information office.M.CCAFC. An unstable layer of air.Area flight information center. C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes.. 8 m/s C. A. Embedded thunderstorms.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. A. C X 31.Do not accept the clearance. temperature rises B. 17 m/s B.4 percent. B.B.1.000 feet C.. then clear ice accumulates. A X 25. B.Request a clarification from the ATC. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A. C.000.. C X 30.N.(according to figure 2).4 percent. Air mass thunderstorms. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. B. the max predicting wind speed is___. A X 24. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35. C. B X 33.87. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A. severe turbulence .] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100. The wind speed increases.Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. B X 27. [Refer to Figure 4-32.000 feet B. A stable layer of air. at ZBAA. temperature reduced B X 26.. C. C.X. B. C.. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from .. During the period of Spring Festival.0 percent. Using the taxonomy. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. B X 38. B. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 36.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. surface visibility lower than 5000 meters A X 35. clear air turbulence C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1. Cumulonimbus clouds. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. freezing rain B. 12 calendar months. light turbulence C.. Low cloud with strong wind A X 39. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A X 40.. embedded thunderstorms C X 43.. what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A. C X 44. B. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.398 feet.Airborne radar C. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. C X 37.496 feet MSL.026 feet.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. 6 calendar months.DME C X 42. C. B X 41. Dust.381 feet.One engine.1. on a multiengine aircraft B. C. thunderstorm. C.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. severe icing.1. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. bad visibility B. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace. B.. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.B.. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. C. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. Strong wind.1. Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight? A.Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? . 24 calendar months.. B. C. 9MHz.The dual system must consist of two operative INS units.114..121.7MHz. C X 45. B.from west to east C. A X 46. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Shanghai is A. visibility and low clouds B. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A...If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.Maintain speed.A.121.from north to south A X 52. Which of the following cases illustrates airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. B. windshear at low altitude C. C. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. C. Drizzle C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. B.Decrease speed. Continuous snow . A X 47.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.Only one INDS is required to be operative. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A.6MHz.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . C. Rain and snow B. B.113... pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A. C X 54. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270°.121. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100. hail and rainstorm B X 48. which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A. A X 50.. B X 51. C.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.from east to west B.7MHz.Increase speed.7KHz.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.514MHz. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas B X 49. A. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region. B. B.. C.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 53.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. 200 knots C.Lift subtracted from the total weight.. B X 63. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. the wind of low pressure area is .1. C. B. C.Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation . C X 59. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3.Lift multiplied by the total weight..If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails.1. A X 62. B. B. 170 knots B X 65.Over the open sea only.What is load factor? A. C.2Gs.Motion about the lateral axis. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. A.. B. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. A.Lift divided by the total weight. B. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere. A X 61.counter clockwise outbound wind C.supersonic mach number B. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.4Gs C X 56. B X 64.Over the territory only.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 57. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A..1. B.critical mach number C X 60.Motion about the vertical axis. C.transonic mach number C.Motion about the longitudinal.Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane system. the load factor is A.454 pounds. the flight must be able to A. 210 knots B. From 08Z to 22Z.1Gs.A X 55.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 30 degree . Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability A. C.. 4-47 and 4-48.224 pounds. [Refer to Figures 4-46.. B. From 14Z to 22Z B X 58.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.987 pounds. what is the valid period of time.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A.000 meters? A. B. C.2. clockwise inbound wind B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. 000.470 feet.1 hours 04 minutes.216 knots and 1. .4-51.Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids complete an instrument approach and land.involve the team in most decision making processes C.．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? .A and B C X 75. [Refer to Figures 4-49. A X 66.2. B.372 feet.The same as at low temperature.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.3.000 feet C X 72. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. C.HIALS with PAPI.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.1 hours 02 minutes. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.HIALS.Higher than at low temperature. A X 70. A X 74.81 EPR. a good leader should A. B.223 knots and 2.. and airport elevation? A.C.4-52. C.219 knots and 1. C. Lines of thunderstorms.2.500 feet C. B.. C X 71. wind.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.000 feet B.] What is the ETE at ..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3.4-53. A X 73.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C.525 feet. A. A X 67.1 hours 07 minutes. Nimbostratus.01 EPR.. [Refer to Figure 4-34.PAPI. (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.62 EPR. B.. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. 4-50. C. B.5..．In flight. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. fog and rain B.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.Lower than at low temperature. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 69. and 4-54. C.80 Mach? A. obscured thunderstorms C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 68. May all be erased. B X 80.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. B. B X 78. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A. A X 77..Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. C.800m.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.600m. C..Plus or minus 6 B. C.from headwind to tailwind.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust..If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2.000 meters.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach.2.. the wind direction usually changes .Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.Plus 6 or minus 4 C. B.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X . A plane.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.3.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. B X 76. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. receive this ATC clearance: ". it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A.25 hours A X 82.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected.800m.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. C.Teardrop only B.24 hours C. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A..Parallel only A X 79.17 hours B.What is the purpose of a control tab? A. on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot). the maximum bearing error permissible is A.A.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. MH 240°.Direct only C.3000m.". A X 83. A.Plus or minus4? A X 81.An alternate airport is required..May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C. C. B.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. B. . C.Decrease speed.The first holding pattern level. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25. ability.000 pounds gross weight? A. B X 88. C.. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is . When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. ability.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114. B.．What cause hypoxia? A.A severe moment or "tuck under" C. C X 86. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.VS.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. an apt arranging is A.the caption's power. B. C.-A high-speed stall and sudden pitch up B.84. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B. A..What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft? A.150 feet. C X 93. C X 91.Final approach fix.500 feet.-Severe porpoising B X 92. under which of the following conditions.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B X 89.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. In a flight crew.600m AGL. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. In the Northern hemisphere.Proximity warning C.VSO.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.Traffic and resolution advisories B. C X 85. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A.TCASII provides A..VS1. ability. C.Increase speed.the caption's power.1. C. B.Maintain speed. B. C X 90.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 87.the caption's power. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short.300 feet. alternate airports. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A. the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. B. C X 96.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200.Five B.7and 11 B X 1. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.. C. destinations. and trip number. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. A X 95.360 feet..1. intermediate stops. What information must be contained in. C.. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. B.5 hours 40 minutes.11 A X 98. B X 100.11 B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. B. Prior to the point where the jet touched down.PAPI. B.360 feet.Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. or attached to..245 feet. . The fuel required to fly to the alternate. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed.Departure airport.1.1 B.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.HIALS.Cargo load. C.262 feet. If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere. [Refer to Figure 4-43. B X 99. C. B.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. weight and balance data.5 hours 55 minutes. the altitude of LOM is 1. C.Two A X 2.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC..WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.5 and 13 C. B. plus 10 percent. and identification number of the aircraft. A X 94.Four C.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. (Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A. C. you should plan to lift off A. the wind direction usually changes.1.A. B X 97.HIALS with PAPI.8 C.5 hours 15 minutes.000. 11. at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth. after returning home. B. C X 5. Upper rudder C. layer clouds B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.227 pounds.A.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.000m. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. B. Leading-edge flaps C X 11. A X 4.At approximately 2.FL 6.300m. B. C X 10. A X 7. B. from right crosswind to left crosswind C X 3. from headwind to tailwind. warm front clouds B X 12. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.Same direction..0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B. C.754 pounds.Opposite direction.. wet runway? A. C.FL 6. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A. [Refer to Figure 4-45.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available. C.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750. C. Ruddervator B.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A. within 10 days after the deviation. .AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.Remains fixed for all positions A X 8. A X 9.600m. C. B. back to the departure airport. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate.11. smooth airflow and advection fog C.503 pounds. B. C.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 6. A..11. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. the pilot should submit a written report A.Green yellow and white beacon light B. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocatingengine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C. it will usually produce . after the flight is completed. B.FL 6. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning. C.. from left crosswind to right crosswind.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground. C. Strong wind with sand C.093 feet. C. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.. B X 18. if you are assigned to an additional flight. B. continue taxiing in the landing direction. A X 20. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B.. A X 14.B X 13... Which points should be report to ATC without request? A. A X 16. C.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. when leaving an assigned holding fix. when leaving the final approach fix outbound.. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. North wind at 12 m/s. C. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.The existing and forecast weather for departure. B.097 feet. B. C.Limiting torque. B.N.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. three-engine. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large..12. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Strong wind with haze B X 22. C. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway. 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C X 17.M. B.13. C.X.. (Refer to Figure 6-3. C X 15.12. B. or when leaving an assigned holding fix. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. C X 19... and approach must be VFR.Limiting exhaust gas temperature. en route. During the period of Spring Festival.Limiting compressor speed. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. C. dust B. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. The appearance of disordered low clouds . (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A. B X 21. C.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A.Some passengers may be carried.123 feet. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing. C. MH 160°. receive this ATC clearance: ". A plane.18.GUBEIKOU NDB. plus 10 percent of the total flight time.Direct only C. B X 31. What is the required fuel reserve? A. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate.400 feet. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. C. C..0600z.800m.a participatory leader A X 26. A X 27. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. C.a steep authority gradient C. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. 30 minutes.B.. A X 30.Teardrop only B.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A.. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z.Parallel only . Light quartering tailwind.The descent moment on the course of 227o. Light quartering headwind.0700z. increasing its A. [Refer to Figure 4-39. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.camber C. This situation could be described as A.An alternate airport is required.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. B. It begins to rain on the ground C X 23.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.600 feet.19..energy B X 28. B. B X 24. C.WING ANTI-ICE: ON. B. Direct tailwind. B. C.0630z. B X 25... B.a too shallow authority gradient B.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100..ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.HUAIROU VOR/DME.. B..".16. A X 29.700 feet.angle of attack B.. C.53o.496 feet.. C. B.FL 39.. B X 40.FL 8. B X 36. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.12 feet. C X . what action should be taken? A. B X 39. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.Over the territory only.30 hours A X 41.400 feet.100 feet. B..233o. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.Over the open sea only. how much is the intercept heading? A.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized.FL158.FL168.244 feet.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A.32 hours C. B. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.1. B X 38. B X 37.900 feet.Positive static stability.500 feet C. C.800 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around..Neutral dynamic stability.1. or airway specified in the vector clearance. C. B. which altitude could it descend to? A. A X 35.C X 32.10 feet. route. . C X 33.143o. C.. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.100 feet. A X 34.FL 10. C. A. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o. Fly direct to a fix. B. B.1.1.000 feet B. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. C.Positive dynamic stability. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.. B.35 hours B.8 feet.Over the territory or open sea abut to China.1. B.FL148. ．During the flight. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. A. C. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 45.500 feet short of the end of a 4.42.139.involve the team in most decision making processes.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140. B. braking action is "fair" B. the wind on the course is _____.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance.000 pounds with 15o of flaps? A. In northern hemisphere. A X 47.000 pounds..Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. left crosswind C X 44.136. C.tailwind C.. B. braking action is "good" C.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A. B X 43.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. C X 49. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. At the EFC time. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A.000 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters.138 knots and 3. C X 48.123 knots and 3. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B.headache and fatigue B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport..119. C.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B. .050 feet.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. The statement is . [Refer to Figure 4-25. C X 51.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.000 pounds. B. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure.153 knots and 2. braking action is "100%" B X 46.a feeling of euphoria C..050 feet. B X 50.．The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. C. C. a good leader should not A. B. C.050 feet.right crosswind B. B.．As a general rule. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3.15000 feet B. C. B X . B.Rate and radius will increase.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A.initial training. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C X 60..Area flight information center. supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.Rate will decrease and radius will decrease.wrong.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 46 passengers are aboard? A.transition training. and never in climbs or descents B X 59. C X 54.-rate will decrease and radius will increase.Airport flight information office. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e. A X 58.What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed? A. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.CCAFC..Seven B. C..10000 feet C. C.8000 feet B X 55. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers. B. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.K0850. 250 knots B.right B. turbojet powered) is A. A X 52.g. Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.000 meters? A.upgrade training. C.0850K.Five C. 210 knots C. 200 knots B X 57.A. 230 knots C.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C.850.Three A X 53.. 210 knots B X 56. 250 knots B. B. B. Friction force.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.Brakes.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. B.000 pounds gross weight.Increase speed for a tailwind.. C X 64. C.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. C X 65.Increase speed for a headwind. A. C. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.Brakes.2015Z.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A..entering instrument meteorology conditions. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction.000 pounds gross weight.000 pounds gross weight. A X 66. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. C. B.1945Z. [Refer to Figure 4-25. B. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.Brakes and spoilers at 125.61. [Refer to Figure 4-25. C. C. and experiences a delay. B X 62.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Brakes and spoilers at 120..Increase altitude for a headwind.000 pounds gross weight.000 pounds gross weight. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A. Coriolis deflecting force C X .Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A. B.Brakes and reversers at 115. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. B.000 pounds gross weight.Hourly.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.. B X 67.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. spoilers. B. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B. A X 68. Inertial centrifugal force C. and reversers at 130.30 minutes a time. decrease altitude for a tailwind. C. spoilers. A X 63.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.Brakes and reversers at 115. C.entering approach controlled airspace. B..] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.One hour and a half a time. and reversers at 125.0045Z. A X 70. C X 69.. fuel burn.150m. [Refer to Figure 4-32. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. .8 hours B.2.2 percent. under which of the following conditions.172o.．The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. B. B.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. B.Maintain speed.9 percent.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C X 76.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C. C. etC．as far as possible.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA. C. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. .000 feet C. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight B X 75.000. A X 74.75.. A X 72.10 hours C.1.Decrease speed. clear to land with caution.. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.12 hours A X 78.. A X 73. A. A X 79. B.162o.167o.160m.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. runway is closed or unsafe runway.. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A.220m. C. B. if the authorized MDH is 100 meters.Increase speed.72. the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. It is most likely to occur when A. C.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B. C.000 feet B.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC.74. no aircraft are allowed to land. C. B. In the Northern hemisphere.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C X 80.2.71.. A.4 percent.500 feet B X 77. A.plume B.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A. B. A plane.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it.Teardrop only B. B.. hail and rainstorm B X 82.High-white and green.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. on glidepath-red and white. A.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 84. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. windshear at low altitude C. dowdraft B X 89.wrong A X 90. which of the following descriptive weather should be watchouted particularly? A.000 feet or less to another aircraft. C..2Gs. C. on glidepath-green. visibility and low clouds B. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL. C X 86.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.High-white. The statement is A. certificate holder's manual. When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region. low-red.". What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A.9Gs B X 83. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.. C. MH 240°. A X 87. low-red. This phenomenon is referred to as ....What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. . C.. B.3Gs. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. C.. flashlight in good working order.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.High-white.virga C. B X 81. 1. B. B X 88.Direct only C. receive this ATC clearance: ".B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . key to the flight deck door.right B. on glidepath-green.Parallel only A X 85. low-red. 500feet or less to another aircraft.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. C X 95.ARINC B. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS.600m and ceiling 120m.. C.Any FSS C. B X 100. C.14 hours C X 96.FL158.Strong vibrations and loud roar. B. When proceeding to the alternate airport. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B X 91.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). Advise ATC immediately. by means of VOR NAVIDS. under normal conditions.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.While flying IFR in controlled airspace.don't read small print within one hour of flying.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. B.Appropriate dispatch office C X 92. Smoke .The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed.. B. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A. C. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A. B X 98.. Which rule applies? A.B. C.12hours B. to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. to a suitable airport and land. by means of VOR NAVAIDS. C.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.FL128. if one of the two VOR receivers fails. B. C.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. C. B. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o.13 hours C. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.. C. which minimums apply? A.visibility 1. A X 93.avoid using contact lenses B X 94.At least one full stop landing must be made.FL138. C X 97.. which would help to enhance night vision? A. B. A X 99.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. B. Sand storm B X 1. B. B. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___.354 C X 4.. B X 6..．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A. East windat 4 m/s. C X 5.FL 6. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A.RVR 300m.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.B.166 B. (Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines. Sand C. what is the valid period of time.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise . B X 2.FL 6. B X 9. A.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C.The first holding pattern altitude.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. visibility 5000m and fog B. B. mist and broken clouds C.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No. what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.. From 08Z to 22Z. A. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 3. C.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber.300m.. B.346 C.All recorded information may be erased.All recorded information may be erased. From 14Z to 22Z B X 7.RVR 400m. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.the airplane rides on standing water.. West wind at 4 m/s. Scattered clouds.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A. C. rain and broken clouds B X 8.. C. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. B.RVR 250m.000m. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 19.143o.750 feet.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. .In day VFR conditions C X 14. B.000 pounds.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.R-175 B.350 feet. B X 15.900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. B. B. an airplane may be dispatched only A.74.DISTANCE (NM): 70.Over domestic only. [Refer to Figure 4-41.25 days ago. C. B X 11.400 pounds. C.Over open sea. .73. Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.2. B X 18.15 days ago. [Refer to Figure 4-27. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.180 pounds.53o..500 pounds? A.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B. B. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.R-345 C X 16.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW.Over domestic and open sea.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107.Use of three reversers at 131.In VFR conditions C.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around.1. A X 17. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A. B X 12.2.. B X 10. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.. A worm front and a upper jet C. [Refer to Figure 4-28. C.000 feet.000.7 days ago. which weather system we would encounter A.000 pounds gross weight. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.1 NAV? A. C...74.233o.C. C. C.. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.R-165 C. how much is the intercept heading? A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A X 13.. 150 knots B X 28. C. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker? A. C. C.B. what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A. B.000feet.. C X 20. 170 knots C. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. B.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.000 pounds gross weight. B. B X 25. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. .000feet. Ice pellets.Within the previous 12 calendar months.100 feet.. 200 knots B.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.S1020. B X 22. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10.. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. B X 24.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. C.200 meters. B. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135.300 feet. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Within the previous 6 months. B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125. B.. A X 26. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. C.L1020. B X 23.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.F1020. A X 29.Use of three reversers at 133. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.750 feet. B. C.000 pounds? A.. B. B X 27. C.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310. C. or terminating a flight. Freezing rain.They are both the same 31. [Refer to Figure 4-26.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.True altitude is lower than 31.000 pounds gross weight.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. wet snow. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.exercising authority over initiating. A X 21. conducting.the specific duties of any required crewmember. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C. When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.15 days ago. C. C. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. . B. Heavy. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.. A X 39. six ILS approaches. At lower levels of the atmosphere. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. C X 31.120 days after issue or renewal.TCASII provides A.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A.. A.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. B. gear and flaps down. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. Position reports. C. slow.when destination weather is marginal IFR.Flaps. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. decreases pressure gradient force. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. C.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME.Within the previous 6 months.Proximity warning C. C. B. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.28 days ago.. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. B. A X 37. slow. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.C. Heavy. A X 33. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A. A X 36. B X 35. A X 32. unable to climb 500 ft/min.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. C X 30. gear and flaps up. A X 34. Heavy.Traffic and resolution advisories B. C.. B.. fast.7 days ago. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. C. C. gear and flaps down. An alternate airport for departure is required A.Tabs. vacating an altitude.. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second.The descent moment on the course of 227o.Outboard ailerons. B.GUBEIKOU NDB.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 38. .Compressor discharge. (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A. Vacating an altitude. B. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL..Area where the sea and the land meet C.Three-light system. C. C. one pulsing and one steady.critical mach number C X 43. C X 42. B.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.Area with strong cold advection B. B.10hours C.514MHz. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.7MHz.Fuel spray nozzles.HIALS. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.Turbine inlet. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. .12hours B.One –light project.supersonic mach number B.B.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.8hours B X . C.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. two pulsing and one steady. Position reports. unable to climb 500 ft/min. Where will the highest temperature in a turbojet engine occur? A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. steady red for slightly below glide path. C X 45. C X 41.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. C. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A. C X 40. Poor visibility. Convection currents at the surface. A X 48. C. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time.114.113. Cold temperatures. A X 44. C. B.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A.6MHz.PAPI.transonic mach number C. pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope.HIALS with PAPI. unable to climb 500 ft/min. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 47. vacating an altitude. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots.Two-light projectors. B. steady white when on glide slope.. C X 46. C. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. B. 000 pounds gross weight? A.200 feet.6 months. B.49. ZUUU A X 54. (According to figure 6) The position of the upper jet is A. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18. C X 56. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect.. Descend to MEA and. ASSS C. If not clear of clouds.4. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.10 minutes.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118.Six B. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board. shallow breathing..8 minutes. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. C.12 months.9Gs B X 53.Five C. B.Zero fuel weight: 120. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. From A to B then to D B X 58.500 feet.9 minutes. B. From A to B then to C B. ZULS B..Two B X 51. whichever is higher. [Refer to Figure 4-37. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA. C.3Gs.4.Rapid. successfully completes the instrument competency check. A X 57. acting as second-in-command. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude. A X 50. B. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? . B X 52. A pilot. C.．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A. if clear of clouds..90 days.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A. C.500 lb A. From A to C then to D C. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A. [Refer to Figure 4-25.000 pounds? Initial weight: 162.2Gs.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.4. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. B.500 lb.750 feet. C.Dizziness.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. C X 55. B. or to the MEA.If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000 pounds in flight the load factor would be A.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A.. C.20 hours C.Manifold pressure. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather. B. C. C X 66. [Refer to Figure 4-45.124.Director of operations. C. B X 64..Three C.. B X 61. A X 67.58. B.19hours B. 150 knots C X 63.1 minutes. 200 knots B.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A. A.fatigue C.minimum fuel supply.The aircraft dispatcher.both A and B C X 62.smoking and alcohol B. 5 days.65MHz.59.85MHz. B. B. C. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A.RPM. concerning the incident. to the Administrator within A. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A. Which parameter is used to measure the power output of a reciprocating engine? A.127.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. 10 days.35MHz.A. and irregularities of facilities and services? A.54. A X . (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.7 minutes.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.Exhaust gas temperature. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. B. C X 65.Four B. C.weather reports and forecasts.21hours B X 60..9 minutes. 24 hours. the certificate holder must submit a report. C.Air route traffic control center. 170 knots C.Two A X 59.121.. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft. By regulation. B.names of all crewmembers. B X 76.644 feet/minute.from south to north B.600 feet/minute. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. B. C.500 pounds? A.every 7 consecutive days B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C.2. which taxi way can an aircraft use? A.As temperature increases. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. A X 72.04 EPR. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. C. C X 77.930 as specified on the SID? A.from west to east C.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is .6% to 4. the code "VCTS" means ____. C.2. A.01 EPR.2. thrust decreases. When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi. C.. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. thrust increases. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.ZBAA B.100 feet.2. B.750 feet.transition training...As temperature increases. C. B.ZSSS C.each calendar week B X 69.1. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. B. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots. B. C. [Refer to Figure 4-28.. A X 75...500 feet.ZUUU B X 71. B.from north to south C X 70.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.03 EPR.As temperature decreases.. B X .2. A. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. There are thunderstorms over the airport.. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.difference training.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? A.68. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.690 feet/minute.upgrade training. C. B X 73. thrust decreases. B X 74.In daily aeronautical weather reports. C.000 feet is closest to A. Light fog. B. B X 86.454 pounds.1. [Refer to Figures 4-46. 4-47 and 4-48. B. B. to check the performance of the aircraft. C.25 seconds B. . A. It begins to rain on the ground C X 84. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft? A. visibility 4 km.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion.What is the purpose of a control tab? A. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices. heavy rain.Traffic and resolution advisories B.35 seconds B X 79. and the weather then is ____. B.1.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42.224 pounds.Increase the camber of the wing.] What are the fuel requirements from Chicago Midway Airport to Greater Buffalo Intl? A. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. C.Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.15 seconds C.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic B X 85. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec.TCAS I provides A.. visibility 4 km C. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z. light rain shower.. A X 87..The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C.2. to achieve or maintain the desired separation.78. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. C. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 83.Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. what action is required? A.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period.987 pounds. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety.Proximity warning C. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flight path of the generating aircraft. B.Which is a purpose of the leading-edge flaps? A. C X 82. A X 81.. visibility 4000 m B X 80. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. B. C X 92. and experiences a delay. A X 93.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B. C.172o.167o.100m.9.VIS2400m. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z.0022Z.VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m. In en route flight.VIS1600m. the altimeter setting is A. B. C. A X 88. A. C X 91.received an ATC clearance.0045Z..MDH120m.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.Decrease speed.1952Z.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots.climbed to the appropriate altitude. B.Maintain speed..162o..PIC time 94 hours. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A..VIS1600m.12. Upper rudder C. C X 90. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.MDH100m. B X 94. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. QNE B.C. Leading-edge flaps C X 96. C.Increase speed.. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? . Ruddervator B. C. B.2015Z.Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control? A. C. A X 97.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport. QNH C. QFE A X 89. C X 95.3..000m. C. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. three-engine. B. B.000m.1945Z.1922Z. C. C. B.83 EPR.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.minimum fuel supply.names of all crewmembers.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.ALTITUDE: 30.3 minutes C. A X 98. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure. The adverse effects of ice.weather reports and forecasts.VS. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A. B X 2. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. C.210 knots and 1.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C. increased thrust.40 seconds B.VSO. C. An increased stall speed. snow. C X 99. C. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A.221 knots and 1. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C.81 EPR. B.000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.5. B X 3.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. and approach must be VFR..WEIGHT (*1000): 92. B..HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. B X 4.．Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A. A decreased stall speed.1 minute and 15 seconds C X 5.VS1. en route...The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. B X 100.Some passengers may be carried.69 EPR.000. braking action is "fair" . B. [Refer to Figure 4-34. B.．The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30.A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. A X 1.217 knots and 1.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? . The same as at low weight.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122.. C. A X 14. C X 9.2. which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots.760 feet/minute. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A.851 feet/minute. C.. When proceeding to the alternate airport. [Refer to Figure 4-28. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4.1. a good leader should A.METARS.699 feet/minute. C. 130 knots B X 12.930 as specified on the SID? A. B.. braking action is "100%" A X 6.B. braking action is "zero" C. . which minimums apply? A.Convective SIGMETS. NOTAM'S.V2. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A.. and adverse conditions.200 feet.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B. B. 150 knots C.Lower than at low weight.000 pounds? A..V1. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. B X 10. A X 7. and airport elevation? A. B.750 feet. wind. PIREP'S and AIRMETS.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.．In flight. C.visibility 1.750 feet..Higher than at low weight. Smoke B. dissipating C.SIGMETS. PIREPS. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart.SPECIS. 170 knots B. B. C. AWW's. and AIRMETS. SIGMETS.VEF.A and B C X 11.600m and ceiling 120m.2. A X 15. mature B X 13. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A.involve the team in most decision making processes C.During the life cycle of a thunderstorm.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. cumulus B. Sand storm B X 8. B.. Sand C. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear.) 30 degrees.5 km A X 23. C X 21. 2 km C.vomiting B X 24.. C. Aid in rolling an airplane into turn.Which is a purpose of ground spoilers? A.. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. relatively calm night.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. C X 18. you should plan to lift off A. C. Reduce the wings lift upon landing B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. C. C. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A. B. B. C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A. 40 degrees. C X 17. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. B X 22.entered VFR weather conditions. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed. C. B X 20. B.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.A X 16. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. 30 degrees..(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept. dizziness B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. Beyond the point where the jet touched down. Increase the rate of descent with out gaining airspeed. 1. 2 km B. A X 19.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C X . B.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.having the aircraft catered (foods. or supplies)..obtaining provisions and fuel when unable. beverages. B. to proceed direct to the regular airport.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B.reached the cruising IAS. due to winds.received an ATC clearance. Lower-than-standard air density.500 lb.16 minutes.1915Z. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.1945Z.10 hours C. C X 28.14 minutes.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. C X 27. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? A.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. A X 29. B. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.Increased headwind component. B.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). . How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187.500 lb A.12 hours A X 32. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. [Refer to Figure 4-37.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. C X 30.843 feet per minute. B..When the wheels are locked and skidding.Zero fuel weight: 125. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.1845Z. C.8 hours B. C.17 minutes.25. B.At high ground speeds. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A. C..285 B. B X 26. B X 31.235 B X 34. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots.632 feet per minute. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.When wing lift has been reduced.055 C. C. B.. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 33. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A. A. C.. C. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C.737 feet per minute. B.When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A. R-165 C.．Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A. (Refer to Figure 2-3) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the NO.One hour and a half a time.90days C.DH 50 feet and RVR 1. B.No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made B. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. 200 knots B. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1. C. in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A. B X 43. B. B X 37.500 feet. C.DH 100 feet and RVR 1.When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. 170 knots C. C. what airspeed indication can be expected? A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. C.If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice.30days A X 36.200 feet. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second..200 feet. B X 41. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A. 150 knots C X 42. C. A X 35.430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals.60days B. B. B X .Constant indicated airspeed during a descent A X 39. which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities.Hourly.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. C.120 days after issue or renewal.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.30 minutes a time.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A.R-175 B.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. A X 38.B.R-345 C X 40.DH 150 feet and RVR 1. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A.Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C.9 NM point is indicated? A.1 NAV? A. highest cruise speed. B. 8times groundspeed in knots.0 HUR to D16.10 times groundspeed in knots. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG. an increase in airspeed will A. spring and summer. A X 48. C. The fuel reserve required. B X 46.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor . and highest stability. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. and least stability B. C. steady red for slightly below glide path. B X 45. C. and approach must be VFR. en route.347o. C.What does the pulsating VASI consist of? A. When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine. one pulsing and one steady...118.1MHz.Three-light system. . A.Highest stall speed.Two-light projectors.342o. Radiation fog usually appears in . summer and autumn. B. the heading indicator should indicate A.Lowest stall speed. A X 50. (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.The existing and forecast weather for departure.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn. highest cruise speed.Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope. B X 51. C X 47..118. steady white when on glide slope.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R. B.44. lowest cruise speed.No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. C. B.352o.For flights at or above FL 180 B X 49. winter and autumn. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. B. B. and least stability. which operational requirement must be observed? A.One –light project.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.5times groundspeed in knots. two pulsing and one steady. what frequency should be tuned? A. C.5KHz. C X 53. B.Lowest stall speed. is A. B.Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A.118. C. B.1KHz. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. A X 52.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A. C. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. layer clouds A X .WING ANTI-ICE: OFF..800 feet. enter TMA C. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. C. B. ability.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.000 feet.the caption's power. B.23. In a flight crew. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short..AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A. the commencement of final approach B. an apt arranging is A.. C. A.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90. 6 calendar months. How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. cumulonimbus B. B.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.An alternate airport is required. when warm air mass is unstable. after initial training? A. 12 calendar months. C. the commencement of initial approach A X 59. C X 60. B. B X 61. C X 57. continue taxiing in the landing direction.. In summer. B.19. front fog C. an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. A X 56. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A.20. C. ability. B. ability. C X 58. C. 24 calendar months. Where provided.B X 54. [Refer to Figure 4-39.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF.800m.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL.the caption's power.400 feet.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.the caption's power.. B X 55. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. C. C X 68.Outboard ailerons. B. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.1. reduce speed to the assigned speed.strong leadership B X 66.VLE.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. C X 64.wrong A X 69. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.VLO/MLO.. on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot).．Heavy coffee or tea. An alternate airport for departure is required A. B.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight.VMO/MMO. C. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only.1. what should the pilot do? A.17 hours B.364 feet/minute.25 hours A X 63. . The statement is)right B. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. Which speed symbol indicates the maximum speed for operating the landing gear of an airplane? A.62.1..Tabs. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. B. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity. This situation could be described as A. C. C.400 feet/minute. C X 71.. produce anxiety and A. C X 70.24 hours C. both a and b C X 65. .2% to FL148? A. B. B.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.An air carrier may schedule a pilot.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A.Flaps. to achieve the desired separation. B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. C.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. C X 67.320 feet/minute. C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D..The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B. You are considered clear of runway when A. to maintain enough separation. A X 72. [Refer to Figure 4-27.HUAILAI. The statement is A.The point cleared by ATC.000 pounds gross weight.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 76.right B. the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. C.All turbine powered airplanes B..] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.．During the flight.．Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. It is a warm front. A X 74.. B. C. C.Maintain speed. and feet.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A.Decreased breathing rate. B.jet thrust only.wrong A X 73. It is a Cold frongt C X 78.D38 to HUAIROU.Increase speed. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A. B. C..Use of three reversers at 133.1300 Beijing Time. legs. C X 81.Middle compass locator. C.Use of three reversers at 131. A X 79. A X 77.Tingling of the hands. A X 75. It is a stationary front C. C.. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A. B.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.000 pounds gross weight.900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. B. C X 82.Increased vision keenness.000 pounds gross weight. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.Outer compass locator.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C. B. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.Inner marker. C X 80.propeller thrust only. B. C.1330 Beijing Time. B.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group? A.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125.Decrease speed. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou..What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time... B. . pilot should file flight plan at least before A. which weather system we coursed A. darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow， A.15 minutes. wind. A.C.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light. B. C.Lower than at low elevation.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case. B. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A. C. A.Identigy the runway distance remaining markers A.An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers.VIS2400m. A X 88. C.MDH120m. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . such as cirrus. C X 92.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.(To be continued，can create the illusion that)the aircraft is at a lower altitude than is the case. B. C. B.30 minutes. C X 86.MDH100m.In altocumulus cloud. which may lead descends too low on approach. What is the number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A.Four B. warm front.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting.Signs with increments of 1. C. C X 83.1230 Beijing Time. which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach.(续考题正文，Airplane Vso maximum certificated weight 105 knots.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature.VIS1600m. .PIC time 94 hours.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A. C X 87.Two B X 84. and airplane weight? A..Higher than at low elevation.Three C. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A. B X 91..the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case.3 minutes.VREF approach speed 140 knots )__MDH150m.The same as at low elevation. B. cold front. C. C.000 feet distance remaining . such as when landing over water.in high clouds.VIS1600m. A X 85...Apply full main wheel braking only. which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. B. B.in cumliform clouds B.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. . stationary front. A X 89.．An absence of visible ground feature. A X 90.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.(1-1) Determine the CCAR Part 121 landing minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport.．The perception of color is a function of the A. B. Angle of attack. Monitor the VOR receiver A X 100. C.99. A X 96.Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end A X 93..entering approach controlled airspace. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. C. pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3.97. thrust increases. C X 1.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. and power B. B X 97.070M.What affects indicated stall speed? A.entering instrument meteorology conditions.As altitude decreases.1. Load factor .. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. angle of attack . C.70 Marh. Weight.As altitude increases. [Refer to Figure 4-45. Squawk 7600.2 minutes.500 feet .8 minutes.In a light . A.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW. B. B.7 minutes..What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. B. (Refer to Figure 2-11) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff in runway 9? A. C. thrust decreases..As altitude increases. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. load factor.and power C. A X 99. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. weight. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.M070. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. C.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you.1. C. B.wrong A X 94. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc.right B.000 feet B.M0070. B.B. Notify ATC immediately.103. thrust decreases. A X 98.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. and airspeed A X 95. The statement is A.000 feet from the end C. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"? A.Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. thrust decreases.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. During emergency.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. C.As altitude increases. B. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority.. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.Two A X 8.Fuel spray nozzles. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.wrong .. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. C X 3.An area. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A.An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. yes. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. A X 7. B X 4.. The statement is A. can a pilot expect landing priority? A. B.As altitude decreases. B X 6. no.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor..right B.2.Four B. B. Heavy thunderstorm with shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come.．(Refer to Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. first-served" basis. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. B.As altitude increases. thrust decreases. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.. not as wide as the runway. at least the same width as the runway. Bad visibility and strong wind B X 11.000 feet A X 2. C X 9. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board. Uneven heat on the ground C X 5. Heavy thunderstorm with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. B.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower.. yes. thrust increases. C. C. C.An area. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.Compressor discharge.Three C. C X 10.Turbine inlet. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. B.C.. Rising terrain C. C. B X 20. . which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.turbine inlet temperature. B. Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of A.69 EPR. include that A. filling out logs B.A X 12.050m.high environmental noise levels B.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. [Refer to Figure 4-34.RVR 1. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A. B. Under normal operating conditions.8 B. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C.950m.High RPM and low MAP..210 knots and 1. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal.000.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? .a busy work environment or mental discomfort C. C. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A..650 meters.. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots. B X 21.83 EPR.the receiver's expectancy A X 16. B.3. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B.81 EPR. A X 13.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.2 B X 14. . External factors include A.055 C..600m and DH 120m. both a and b C X 18. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2. B X 17.3. Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A.High RPM and high MAP.shaft horsepower and jet thrust. C. B.250m. the minimum safe altitude is A. C.. C.Low RPM and high MAP.221 knots and 1.RVR 550m and DH 60m. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus A X 15. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m.2.propeller thrust only.285 B.235 B X 19.WEIGHT (*1000): 92. B. making passenger announcements C.Activities.1 C.5. C.ALTITUDE: 30.217 knots and 1..RVR 800m and DH 60m. . 80 knots C. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots. [Refer to Figure 4-26.124. A X 28. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. B. .Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A.virga C.reached the cruising IAS.Over the open sea only. 40 knots B. within a microburst.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.000 feet short of the end of a 4. B.500 pounds.entered VFR weather conditions. C... B. B.200 feet. No one may operate in Class A airspace unless he has filed an IFR flight plan and A. C X 32.129.200 feet. C. give the wing a lower camber B.000 pounds.134.Which of the following is not the way of increasing MCRIT in jet transport designs A. C.received an ATC clearance. warm front. B.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. This phenomenon is referred to as .not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A. dowdraft B X 23. A. B. cold front..500 pounds.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1.500 feet. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass is . C.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.B X 22. A.15 B X 25.DH 150 feet and RVR 1.5 B.Over the territory only.. C X 31.900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 29. 90 knots C X 24. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A. C.DH 100 feet and RVR 1.Over the territory or open sea abut to China.plume B. stationary front.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C. B X 27..DH 50 feet and RVR 1. C. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "E "or respond? A.5 C. increase wing sweep. A X 26. B X 30. .the sender and the receiver's skill. C X . company organization name. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. at an intermediate airport. Terrestrial radiation on a clear. the heading indicator should indicate A. and cargo weight. B.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.Green yellow and white beacon light B.121. attitudes. B X 35. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A. under which of the following conditions. VFR).342o. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport.Not more than 1 hour.. C. relatively calm night. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. (Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG. and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's knowledge.35MHz. personality.347o.Not more than 2 hours. C.85MHz. These conditions include A.More than 6 hours.(to be continuedencounter against the wind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. C.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A. B.65MHz. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . IFR.Type of operation (e.add slats C X 33. C. B.the sender's skill. A X 38. certificate holder. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. C. A. air carrier's chief pilot..C. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. or attached to.352o. How long before a redispatch release is required? A. knowledge. C. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression.124.. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. pilot in command. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A. B X 41. and the workload B X 40. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground. attitudes. knowledge. Which information must be contained in.Passenger manifest. and the social culture system C. C. some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message..Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 39. B.127.．In a communication process.g. trip number. B. B. C X 36. B X 37. A X 34. In the Northern hemisphere. 16..the proprioceptive system A X 47. C X 43. B.000m.16. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. B. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A.16. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.5KM from ILG. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. C.．What illusion.FL 6. 12 calendar months.entering instrument meteorology conditions. At the poles.5SM from ILG.870 feet. B. . and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. C. the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.FL 6. 24 calendar months.762 feet.Does not cause illusions. C. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot. A X 51.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.5NM from ILG.Higher than actual. indicates A. B X 50. C. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign.42. B X 44. At the equator. B. B.300m. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. B. A X 48.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B. 6 calendar months.. C. .The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.the eyes B. B X 46. can rain on the windscreen create? A. C X 49.600m.. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A. what height above the airport could it descend to? A.the inner C.FL 6. B.．In sensing the orientation of the body in space. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.Lower than actual.. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. B X 45. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A. if any.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C. C.entering approach controlled airspace. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.. C X 52.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you.requiring a pilot to take specific action. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A. flaps 40o. It is a Cold frongt C X 60.B-727. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. B X 56. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. 200 knots B X 53.22.B-727 and DC-3. B.000 pounds. C.17.. 210 knots C.B-727 only.300 pounds. with gear up.Five B. B. with reference to L/DMAX. DC-3. C. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110.ATP .800 pounds. An ATC "instruction" A.700 pounds.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A.right B. C X 59.. C.DC-9 and DC 3.600 pounds. does maximum range for a jet airplane occur? A.DC-9.000 pounds.22.000 meters? A. C X 55. B. C.000 pounds. B X 54. 250 knots B.13. The statement is A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.20. which weather system we coursed A.wrong A X 61. flaps 25o. and DC-9. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3..18.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. B.755 feet..ATP .. At what speed.000 pounds. C X 57. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140.is the same as an ATC clearance. B. It is a stationary front C.Two A X 58.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. [Refer to Figure 4-29. It is a warm front.Four C. [Refer to Figure 4-30..C. Commercial .keeping flight status. C. .. B.requiring a pilot to read back. with gear down. Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of A. B. C. Commercial .ATP . The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown.. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A. A X 70.. B X 68. C.11 C X 66.30 hours A X 71. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters. with reference to L/DMAX. C.32 hours C. B. what should the pilot do? A. If an ATC controller assigns a speed. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.12 C. B.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. on a multiengine aircraft B. C. B. As the parcel of air moves upward. cumulonimbus B. the wind on the course is _____.tailwind C. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX.right crosswind B. A.One engine. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. B.. C.The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. In summer. .ATMB NOTAMs office.35 hours B. B. At what speed. left crosswind C X 64.. C X 67. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance.4 B. layer clouds A X 65.Airborne radar C..B X 62. when warm air mass is unstable. In northern hemisphere. The parcel of air resists convection. A X 63. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace.DME C X 69.The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days without any rest is A. front fog C.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier? A.The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. increase speed to the assigned speed. Stopway.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A. Altitude. C X 74. an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________. B. C. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway. and indicated airspeed decrease. Altitude.90 days. A. C. [Refer to Figure 4-43.To protect science tests only. which is able to support the airplane.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. C X 81.1. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere.C.from headwind to tailwind.Obstruction clearance plane.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. .120 days.2. B X 79.2..from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 77.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW. Where provided. A. the commencement of initial approach A X 76. and indicated airspeed increase.5 hours 40 minutes.. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's certificate.. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A. C.000 feet C. B. Altitude increase. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. A X 73. pitch.Clearway.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.weather reports and forecasts. C. B.To protect military activities only.342o. C. the wind direction usually changes .5 hours 55 minutes. B X 75. for what maximum time is this document valid? A.. C.60 days. C X 72. B. the commencement of final approach B.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. enter TMA C.347o. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A.5 hours 15 minutes. C X 78.000 feet B. B. C.. B.from left crosswind to right crosswind. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.000.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed.352o.500 feet B X 80. B... pitch. Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. and irregularities of facilities and services? A.minimum fuel supply. you cannot accept any undue delay. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. B. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 83. A X 89. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.B.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C.The aircraft dispatcher.74. C.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A. B.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability? A. C. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. By regulation..Proximity warning . upon reaching your destination. B X 82.. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A.000..DISTANCE (NM): 70.Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. C X 87. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. an area of no convective turbulence C. C. A.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 85. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 90. A X 84.000 pounds. B. A X 88.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW. C X 86. B.. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where. A.Air route traffic control center. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. C.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.names of all crewmembers. the absence of clouds in the area B.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77.74. C.TCASII provides A. B. [Refer to Figure 4-41.180 pounds.Director of operations.Traffic and resolution advisories B.Apply full main wheel braking only. C. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.400 pounds.73. 11. holding. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown. [Refer to Figure 4-45. A X 97.85MHz.121. hypoxia.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A. decrease altitude for a tailwind. B X 98. B. A stable layer of air.503 pounds. C... B. A X 96. FL 250. A X 92.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750.Aircraft dispatcher. C. a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least A. B.11. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. three of which may be in a glider.754 pounds.11.9and6 B. A X 99. C X 95. intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time. C.Director of operations. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration.Increase speed for a headwind. FL 180. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. B. FL 200.Increase speed for a tailwind. Air mass thunderstorms..6 only A X 93.C.9 only C. by regulation. C.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.S.N. B.. intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A. B. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. C.227 pounds.124.Increase altitude for a headwind.G. B. Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.six instrument approaches. Who is responsible.six instrument approaches.127. B. plus holding. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations.Company meteorologist.65MHz.35MHz. A X 94. C.. An unstable layer of air. C X . C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 91. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A. C. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. A. A X 2..Teardrop only B. Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. C.．The decision-making process is quite complex.3 minutes. MH 60°.．In a decision-making process .virga C..As altitude decreases.Teardrop only B.Parallel only A X 5. A plane. A X 7. however. knowledge.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change B X 6.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. B. HOLD WESTT OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.. thrust decreases.As altitude increases. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. it can be condensed into six elements.jet thrust only. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. C.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. a participatory leader A.Direct only C.15 minutes. B..Evaluate the effect of the action C..Direct only C.100. A X 3.. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground..may ultimately decide the team's actions.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light.30 minutes.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.". B. and preferences.As altitude increases. receive this ATC clearance: ". dowdraft . The second E is A.. using the acronym DECIDE. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A... What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.".What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. It begins to rain on the ground C X 8. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. MH 240°. thrust increases. thrust decreases.. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A.. This phenomenon is referred to as . receive this ATC clearance: ".propeller thrust only.. C. A plane.Parallel only A X 1. B. C X 4.plume B.. Request a clarification from the ATC. At the equator. C. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25..1.625 pounds.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. B. C. C. C X 13. B.5.. C. C.3. ZSSS C X 10. B X 14. At the poles.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. (According to figure 2) . B. [Refer to Figure 4-43.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. C X 17.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.32.000 pounds. ZUUU B. B.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.Copy of the flight plan. Inertial centrifugal force C.B X 9.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. Friction force. A. B. 110 NAM. A X 12. 113 NAM. B.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A.400 pounds..000. [Refer to Figure 4-34. thrust decreases.3.As temperature increases.28. ZHHH C. .34. thrust decreases. B..000. C. B X 11.1.Do not accept the clearance. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A..1. 118 NAM. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Read the clearance back entirely.. C X 15.240 pounds. B X 16.70 percent of the actual runway available. thrust increases.490 pounds.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.000 pounds.... Middle latitudes(30o to 60o).As temperature decreases.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.Cargo and passenger distribution information.600 pounds. which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. C.As temperature increases. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.2.980 pounds. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.430 pounds. B. Coriolis deflecting force C X 18. stratus . (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A.65MHz. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. indicated airspeed decreases. indicated airspeed increases. and altitude decreases C X 23. C.124. B.when the flight arrives. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.. C. There are altocumulus . B..Precludes a rejected landing. B X 24. C.every 7 consecutive days B. C X 25.127. C. aircraft pitches down.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. stratocumulus. (Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport. C X 20. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots..at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.B. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release. pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.Does not preclude rejected landing. C. .. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified.Must be adhered to.each calendar week B X 26. C.121. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. B X 22.35MHz. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. C. stratocumulus.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance. to achieve the desired separation. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 21. There are cirrostratus .Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B.85MHz. B. to maintain enough separation..An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A. There are altostratus.762 feet. that the pilot accepts: A. aircraft pitches down.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. B.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C. indicated airspeed decreases. but a certificate is not required. aircraft pitches up.755 feet.during the entire flight. and altitude decreases B. B X 19.870 feet. and altitude increases C. it is necessary for A. both a and b C X . B. C X 27. what height above the airport could it descend to? A. B X 29.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. B. B.9 minutes.Same direction. C X 37. 24 hours.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. C..(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. B. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). B. ..V1. While in IFR conditions. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. The route filed in the flight plan. B. C X 36.7 minutes.45 minutes. C.. C X 34.. At the Equator.-Negative static stability B. A.VEF. B.-Negative dynamic stability A X 30. to the Administrator within A. An off-airway route to the point of departure. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. Which route should be flown in the absence A.58. C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 33.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. C. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized A.28. B. [Refer to Figure 4-41..000.1 minutes. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A. B. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. C.V2.29 minutes. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. C.30 minutes. At the Poles.59. C X 32.. B X 35.Opposite direction. [Refer to Figure 4-45. C. concerning the incident. C.DISTANCE (NM): 120. sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. 5 days.What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. 10 days. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard and air carrier aircraft.Remains fixed for all positions.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84.WIND COMPONENT: 20HW.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved? A. the certificate holder must submit a report.54.-Positive static stability C. B X 31. A X 46. however.white. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. C.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 39. B X 43. B.Lower than at low temperature.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. wind.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A. C.Evaluate the effect of the action C. using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A. Using the taxonomy.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 40.．The decision-making process is quite complex.blue. pilot in command. B. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. during emergency C.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. B. certificate holder. C. and airport elevation? A.The existing and forecast weather for departure. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the A.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. first serve basis. on a first-come.. B. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. A X 44.Aircraft dispatcher.A X 38. B X 45.. C X 47. air carrier's chief pilot.．As a general rule. supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.Pilot in command. and approach must be VFR.15000 feet . A X 42. C. B. During a supplemental air carrier flight.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.The same as at low temperature. B.Director of operations or flight follower.Higher than at low temperature. Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. both a and b C X 41. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. it can be condensed into six elements. What effect does landing at high temperature have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to airport elevation. en route. three-engine.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A. C.green. B. (Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A..Some passengers may be carried. C.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. pilot's A.000m. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.12. snow.. C. B.8000 feet B X 48.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.wrong A X 54. such as flight altitude. A. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west. which altitude could it descend to? A. B.．The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). A X 49. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.Of an intersecting taxiway only. C X 52. The adverse effects of ice. An increased stall speed. C. B. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. In the Northern hemisphere. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.. under which of the following conditions. A decreased stall speed.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.(To be continued，health. C.. B.Compensate for increase in drag A X 51. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o.3.100m. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.B..FL148. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C.000m.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. climbing rate. C. The statement is )right B. no further action is necessary C. B X 56. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A.9. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach. A. B. A X 55.FL158. C X 50.10000 feet C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X .Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. increased thrust.Of some designated point on the runway. C. B X 53. B. and whether the pilot smoking or not..FL168. pilot's activity level.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. 5 hours 40 minutes.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.2 . C X 61. A pilot.500 feet over the airport. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning. over the airport.000 meters MSL.5 hours 15 minutes. B.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C. thunderstorm . 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. descent. poor visibility cause by low clouds or fog C. irrespective of altitudes MSL. C.57. excluding cruise flight. Therefore.500 feet. B. B.. B. C. B X 65.. successfully completes the instrument competency check.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. C..90 days.6 months.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A.At approximately 2.000 meters.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW. acting as second-in-command. The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. 30 minutes. wet runway? A. taxi. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? A. radiation fogs or strong turbulence. at cruising speed.right B. good visibility B.cumulus. light rain. landing. B X 66.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37.stratus. A. The statement is A. taxi. B X 64. including cruise flight.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. at 1.000. at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth.VLOF. With regard to flight crewmembers duties. A X 62. C X 58. B X 63. they can conceive the present weather at the destination as. which of the following operations are considered to be in the "critical phases of flight"? A. approach.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B. takeoff.V2. 30 minutes at holding speed. and taxi operations. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. [Refer to Figure 4-43. C.．A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. takeoff.V1.5 hours 55 minutes.12 months. and all other operations conducted below 3. at 1..cirrus..LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. C. landing.wrong A X 59. and all other operations conducted below 3. C X 60.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. B. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235 FROM the station ?(wind050 at 20 knots) A. landing. B. shower. C. 109 NAM. Strong wind with sand storm C. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. Strong wind and total sky obscuration . which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A.FL138.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A. It is a stationary front C.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 68. It is a Cold frongt C X 73.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.VXSE. C. B. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou.. 150 knots B..3 C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. B. which weather system we coursed A. B.. B. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. [Refer to Figure 4-28.. C. 330 knots A X 72. 125 NAM. 250 knots C. It is a warm front. C.entering instrument meteorology conditions.24 minutes.000 meters. which description is correct A. the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.ZUUU B X 75. C.850 feet. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling...ZSSS C. B.VYSE. C X 71. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.400 feet. C..25 minutes. what airspeed should be maintained? A. B X 69. Smoke with overcast B. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.entering approach controlled airspace.FL128. C X 74.100 feet.000 pounds? A..FL158.ZBAA B.4 B X 67.B. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o. 118 NAM.A runway Boundary Sign C. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A..] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 143. B.VMC.23 minutes. A X 76. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. C X 70. critical mach number C X .000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.Transonic index. the applicant is A.000 feet. altostratus or stratocumulus C. airspeed performance B.Initial buffet speed.. B X 84.required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. B X 78. loss of. 4℃ per 1. B.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. 2℃ per 1.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. decreased takeoff distance C.required to have a first-class medical certificate.. C. A X 83. stratus or nimbostratus B.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.is not required to have a medical certificate. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. B. C.000 feet. and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. 3℃ per 1.transonic mach number C. B.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. C.000 feet. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 80.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.C X 77.At least one full stop landing must be made. B X 79.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. C. before takeoff.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 82.the airplane rides on standing water. C.supersonic mach number B.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B.. or diminished.Critical Mach number. B X 85. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. C X 86. B.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3. C.. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 81. Thisclouds is referred as A.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A. B. 7 C. B. C X 95. time.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected. and expected holding speed. B. B X 90. B.22.. C. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A. B. B.000m.300m.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 140.The excessive consumption of alcohol. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A.Five C. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. and an airspeed of 172 knots? A.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.000 pounds. B. C.wind speed B. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A. C.87.700 pounds.. A X 88..18.6 B.Six B.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere.600 pounds. C. [Refer to Figure 4-29. is A. B X 96.. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.FL 6. altitude/flight level. B X 97. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.air temperature C..What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety.12 . A X 94. A X 89. and inbound leg length.. A. B X 92. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition.FL 600m.13. C. Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.90 knots.Two B X 93. C. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.air pressure B X 91. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. The fuel reserve required. altitude/flight level. with gear up.95 knots.000 pounds.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 40 passengers aboard? A.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A. flaps 25o.FL 6. B. B. time.100 knots. for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified. expected holding speed. C. Scattered clouds. 330 knots A X 6.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___.Negative longitudinal static stability B. 250 knots C.000 meters. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.8 C.g. however.. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A. The first E is A... West wind at 4 m/s. B.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change C X 5.24 calendar months. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began. A.C X 98. B. C. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. A. 150 knots B. visibility 5000m and fog B.Evaluate the effect of the action C. using the acronym DECIDE. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 4.1 B. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. East windat 4 m/s. it can be condensed into six elements.．Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A. C.11 A X 99. A X 2.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation A X 3.upgrade training. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B. turbojet powered) is A. C X .．The decision-making process is quite complex.initial training.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.6 calendar months. A X 1. rain and broken clouds B X 100. B. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. C.transition training..it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. mist and broken clouds C.12 calendar months.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C. B. C. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4. B X 14. C. [Refer to Figure 4-41.Within the previous 6 months.644 feet/minute.2 C.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 9.930 as specified on the SID? A.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.Within the previous 6 months. When distress conditions such as fire.74. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. if one of the two VOR receivers fails.74.21hours B X 13. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority..6% to 4. A X 8. Operating at high airspeeds. B. B X 10. C.400 pounds.3 A X 11. mechanical failure.WIND COMPONENT: 25TW. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months.While flying IFR in controlled airspace.DISTANCE (NM): 70. B.. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. an increase in airspeed will A.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 77. B. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. Developing lift.19hours B. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.73. Using high power settings.000.1 B. C.. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A. B.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots.20 hours C. B. C X 12.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn.. B.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A.690 feet/minute. or structural damage occurs. A X .HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.000 pounds. C. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. six ILS approaches. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. A X 15.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C. Advise ATC immediately.180 pounds.7.600 feet/minute. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A.843 feet per minute.632 feet per minute. and an input of wind and variation data.M0900.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9..127. C. airspeed.. What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A.65MHz. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots.By signals fro. 135°or SE B X 25. [Refer to Figure 4-25. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. B. self-contained gyros and accelerometers.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule.000 pounds? A. B.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A.85MHz. B. B. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. 315°or NW C. . B. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B.From information by compass. C X 18. B X 23. C X 24.121.S9000.000 meters. C.737 feet per minute. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. A.124.Minimum fuel supply and trip number.. C X 17. C X 19. C.1. expected holding speed B.16.850 feet. A X 21. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A.400 feet... C X 22. C.. A X 26.. C X 20..35MHz.M9000. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A. B. Northwest wing can be presented as . 200°or NW B. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A. C. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. C. C.200 feet. and a statement of the type of operation. B. -4? C X 30.30 minutes B. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A. A. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure. An off-airway route to the point of departure.-2? C.. At the EFC time. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . B X 27. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. C X 31.Three C.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C. obscured thunderstorms C.5 minutes.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. Nimbostratus. C.the receiver's expectancy A X 35. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. fog and rain B. Strong wind and thunderstorm A X 29. C X 36.C. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A.2 NAV? A. Which route should be flown in the absence A. which weather phenomenon that may be meet A. C. While in IFR conditions. A.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3.. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.1? B. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the NO.. Rain and fog C. External factors include A.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. A X 28.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.．After been in exposed to normal lighting. B.. Lines of thunderstorms. what recent instrument approach experience is required? . Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 32. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. The route filed in the flight plan.1 hours C. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board.Four B.Two A X 33.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal.high environmental noise levels B. C X 34..Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122. the stability A.It means 122.244 feet. ability.The three-bar VASI is mush more visible and can be used at a greater height. (Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt.1. C.. B. In a flight crew.Within the previous 12 calendar months.It means frequency 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Improves B. before takeoff. B. C. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.Decrease C.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. the pilots find the clouds have the following: very low and thick clouds. A X 37. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew.235 B X 38.the caption's power. A X 45. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.the caption's power.As the CG is moved forward. six ILS approaches.. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. C. B X 41. C X 43.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. flat and gray bottoms with light rain. three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.dose not change .900 feet. cumulonimbus or altocumulus A X 42.20? A. an apt arranging is A.A.Within the previous 6 months. B.1. Thisclouds is referred as A.Within the previous 6 months.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating.What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI? A. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C. B X 40.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. stratus or nimbostratus B. B X 39.055 C. ability.20 is very important.A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft.It means VHF communication is available on a part-time basis.285 B. A X 44. B. B.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.496 feet.Pilots have a choice of glide angles B. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.. C..the caption's power. C. altostratus or stratocumulus C. C. ability.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle. 500 feet B.(To be continued，drastic mood swings at one time. C X 55.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 42. [Refer to Figure 4-37.200 pounds.As temperature decreases. thrust decreases.As temperature increases.any flight crewmember.4.not required to have a medical certificate.. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A.any required pilot crewmember.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18. can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity.500 lb A.500 feet B X .17. with revenue cargo aboard.wrong A X 48. B. What effect would a change in ambient temperature have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. [Refer to Figure 4-30. [Refer to Figure 4-26.000 pounds? Initial weight: 162. A X 53.A X 46. thrust decreases. B.4.2.If required by the airplane's type certificate. flaps 30o.15 seconds C. thrust increases.8 minutes.000 feet is closest to A.required to have a second-class medical certificate. C..] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110.9. B. B. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.. C. B X 50. in an approved simulator. C X 47. A X 52.000 feet.Zero fuel weight: 120.500 lb. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A. B.10 minutes.500 feet.000 pounds. with gear down.1. C X 54.9 minutes.25 seconds B. A X 49. C.000foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 110.As temperature increases. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7. is A..11. The statement is)right B.. produce anxiety and A.．Heavy coffee or tea. C. B.800 pounds.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.4.2.000 feet C. C.flight engineer or navigator.000 pounds.000 pounds gross weight? A. C.required to have a first-class medical certificate.35 seconds B X 51.300 feet.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. C. B. ．What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.5.An alternate airport is required.. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. B. the base is unknown B X 65.3.a feeling of euphoria C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. B. (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart.. B.Lower than actual. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. if any.Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.2. C X 62.. B X 64. B.8 hours. C. B X 63.VSO. C. B X 61.Higher than actual. C. can rain on the windscreen create? A. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. .ENGINES OPERATING: 2..HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. B.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. C X 60. the base is unknown C.56.Does not cause illusions. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. Some places have CBs.Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility.980 pounds. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. A X 57. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds.625 pounds. C.000.3.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A. B.．What illusion.Dizziness.240 pounds.. C.The critical Mach number will increase significantly.VS1.What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straight wing design? A.. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A. shallow breathing.headache and fatigue B.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 59. C. CBs with little or no separation B.7 hours. B.VS. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-34.Rapid. B. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. C.800m. B X 58.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. 150 knots C X 71. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C.rely absolutely on the aircraft instrument C. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.. A X 75. downward and clockwise B.8 feet.15 days ago. C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power B X 70.12 feet.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.Viscous hydroplaning.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B. back to the departure airport.6 hours. 200 knots C. In northern sphere. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. A X 68.C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.7 days ago. C X 74. upward and counterclockwise C X 72. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. 170 knots C.. Which term describes the hydroplaning.10 feet. outward. inward.28 days ago. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. C.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.Dynamic hydroplaning.Reverted rubber hydroplaning. . B. 210 knots B. the air cyclone circumfluence is A. C X 66. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3. 150 knots B X 67. B. outward. B. C. B. How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A. B.000 meters? A. upward and clockwise C. C X 69. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A.. A X 73.. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available. 200 knots B. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A..．The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A. 8MHz.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A.from south to north B. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m. A X 80.Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . B X 78.Over the open sea only.35MHz.WIND COMPONENT: 60HW. B. B. B.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.DISTANCE (NM): 370. B X 82..85MHz. C.. A worm front and mountain waves .RVR 1. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. (Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A..from north to south C X 83. [Refer to Figure 4-41.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. A.RVR 800m and DH 60m.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. C X 77. A. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C. B X 79.] What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 87. C. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots. Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.118.127. C. vestibular and postural cues. braking action is "zero" C.Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.B.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received.Over the territory only.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.000. B.Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. braking action is "fair" B.77.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual. C. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. B X 84. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°.700 pounds. B.from west to east C. braking action is "100%" A X 81. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. C. Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action to ATC? A..85.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.. C..80. A X 76.850 pounds.RVR 550m and DH 60m..124.600 pounds. C. which weather system we would encounter A. C X 85.600m and DH 120m.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China .from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 90.Low-speed and high-speed flight. certificate holder's manual. after reaching the most distant alternate airport.. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation. A. C. two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.from headwind to tailwind. The fuel required to fly to the alternate. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.High-speed flight only.000 meters? A.. B. A. There are altocumulus . When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. C. B. C. A stationary front and a upper jet C X 86.When are inboard ailerons normally used? A. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. (Refer to Figure 3) In the telegram (3). 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. A X 94. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters C X 95.. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Cumulonimbus C.B. . the wind direction usually changes . (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. B. flashlight in good working order. whichever is less. key to the flight deck door. Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. A X 91. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. A cold front and moderate icing C. C. Altocumulus B.. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m .Low-speed flight only. C. 330 knots C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. stratocumulus. should be A. B. C X 93. B. 250 knots C X 89. 350 knots B. C X 92.from left crosswind to right crosswind. C X 87. B. plus 10 percent. Stratocumulus B X 88. 754 pounds.An area.. A.11.227 pounds. C.3 months.97.18 hours A X 100. C. stratocumulus. B. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate.503 pounds. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850.required to have a first-class medical certificate.6 months.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. There are cirrostratus .eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.8 minutes. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C.centrally located about the extended centerline and under airport authorities.7MHz. C X 98. and load manifests for at least A.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C. C.11. which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A.. What is an area identified by the term "clearway"? A.B. C.99. A X 4. stratus .Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 99. There are altostratus. B. B. dispatch releases.103..AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW. in an approved flight simulator. B..body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750. [Refer to Figure 4-45.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. .not required to have a medical certificate.16hours B. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 96.An area beyond the takeoff runway. pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A. which is able to support the airplane. B X 2.17 hours C.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. B. C X ATPL08 1. is A.30 days. capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.11.Green yellow and white beacon light B.2 minutes.7 minutes. B.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A. C. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. at least the same width as the runway. A X 97. C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100. A X 3.121. [Refer to Figure 4-45. 108. the commencement of final approach . A. B.. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance.Over domestic or open sea. A X 11.100 feet. C. C..9MHz.10 to 111.95 MHZ C. B.10 to 117. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. upon reaching your destination.. B X 5.10 MHZ B. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A. what should the pilot do? A.95 MHZ. You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where.750 feet. B X 14.Over domestic only. Where provided. [Refer to Figure 4-26.When the wheels are locked and skidding. A X 9. C. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A.. A X 10. B. A. B. C..1. B. The parcel of air resists convection. C. C.. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed.B. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing.1.When wing lift has been reduced. As the parcel of air moves upward. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A.121. declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill.7KHz.108.Over open sea. you cannot accept any undue delay. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C.300 feet. Advection fog. increase speed to the assigned speed.026 feet.At high ground speeds.108.496 feet MSL. what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. If an ATC controller assigns a speed. C.381 feet.121. B X 12. Radiation fog. B X 13.. C X 7.1. C X 6. C X 8. Where does a prohibited airspace be set up? A. an automatic terminal information service (ATIS) will assist operations prior to_______________________.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A. which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. Frontal fog.10 to 118..398 feet. B.000 pounds? A. B.] What is the transition distance when landing on a wet runway at a gross weight of 135. B. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters. A X 18. A X 20.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. ability. if enough fuel A.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.after a period of intense concentration C. A. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. with reference to L/DMAX.the caption's power. an apt arranging is A. B X 16. the commencement of initial approach A X 15. C... is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. ability.500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX.the caption's power. Under certain conditions this is more or less likely than at other times.Do not accept the clearance.during normal operation C X 23. C. C. B X 22.Read the clearance back entirely. In a flight crew. longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. longevity and status is higher than the other members of the flight crew in some short. C X 19. B.．"Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. the wind on the course is _____. the accuracy of the GPS derived . B.Without Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew.tailwind C.(To be continued， result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis)when expectancy of an event is high B. is normally limited to A. C. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. C. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.B.Request a clarification from the ATC. when originally issued. At what speed. left crosswind C X 17... enter TMA C.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above.right crosswind B. B.．A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1. B. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier. In northern hemisphere. select the situation least likely to A. B X 21.the caption's power.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. From the following list. ability. while operating under Part 121.138 knots and 3.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A. Velocity information should be relied upon to determine aircraft groundspeed A X 24.183 knots and 2.. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A. excluding briefing and debriefing. pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A. as PIC.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A. what is the maximum time.900 feet. the sea level pressure is 999. C. which description is correct A. B X 28. C X 25. C..8897KHz.Copy of the flight plan. C. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. B. B. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.20MHz. B X 29. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.6 hPa.The first holding pattern level.supersonic mach number B. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A.900 feet. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B. C. B.] What approach speed and ground roll will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.600m AGL. C X 27. The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.A.6 hours.critical mach number C X 30. B X 33. B X 31. (Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.transonic mach number C.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B. B. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. B. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa...(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK. In a 24-hour consecutive period. Altitude information should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude. The visibility is 8 kilometers.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications . C.900 feet.Final approach fix. The visibility is 800 meters. C X 26. A. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai. C. Position is not affected C. [Refer to Figures 4-28 and 4-29. the QNH is 999.Cargo and passenger distribution information.3016KHz.DH65m，RVR550 B X 32. B.153 knots and 2.6 hPa. B.DH65m，RVR600 C.122. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747. The visibility is 8 kilometers.8 hours.10 hours. Weight.220m. load factor. Which information must be contained in.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A. C.Altimeter setting.supplemental and commercial. for this PIC?)_DA63m. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. or include on. B X 35. VFR). B.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B. Wind shear warning B.International Aeronautical Information Manual C. C. Aerodrome warning C. IFR. marker beacons.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank an altitude? A.flag and commercial. C. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A. C X 39.International Notices To Airmen A X 34. B.VIS1600m B X 40. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. RCLS.g.150m. Hazardous weather warning A X 41.DA93m. A.Radar and RVR. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.. company organization name.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. A X 37. and cargo weight. if the authorized MDH is 100 meters.supplemental and domestic.DA110m.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope.160m. and designated pilot in command are A.B.The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. B. C. or attached to. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. and RVR.Type of operation (e. TDZL. C. flight attendant.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS.RVR550m.-The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121.RCLS and REIL C.The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. and power . trip number. B.Actual pressure at field elevation. B.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.VIS1600m. C.What affects indicated stall speed? A. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. A X 36. C X 43. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.. and approach lights? A. as PIC. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember. B. C. C X 42. B. A X 38.Passenger manifest..HIRL. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C. when warm air mass is unstable.B.transition training. green.One light projector with three colors. C. the pilot in command A. in point of time. B X 49. each a different color. Headwind or tailwind decrease B.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A. C. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. A.ZSSS C. green. weight. C X 45.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. and amber.(according to figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is ___. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? . B.difference training. C. B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. B X 47. Angle of attack.upgrade training.Area with strong cold advection B.How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? A.Three light bar. Scattered clouds. at which a safe landing can be made. green. rain and broken clouds B X 52..What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.What does the tri-color VASI consist of? A. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane.Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C.and power C. angle of attack . B. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed.. and amber.ZBAA B.ZUUU B X 53. and amber. must land at the nearest suitable airport.Shallow the bank and increase airspeed. red. mist and broken clouds C.Three glide slopes. Load factor . West wind at 4 m/s. and airspeed A X 44. C.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. In summer. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 51.. visibility 5000m and fog B. red. B X 46. B.... B X 50. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. Area near the front with thunderstorms C X 48. East windat 4 m/s. (续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. continuous updraft C X 60. when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines? A.VIS2400m...Exhaust gas discharge.A. beginning of rain at the surface B.600m and DH 120m. B. C. freezing precipitation. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m.RVR 800m and DH 60m. Thunderstorm. remain unchanged B. C.twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative. severe icing B X 58.MDH120m. Rain shower. reduce B X .With the increase of temperature. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87.-While maneuvering at minimum controllable air-speed to avoid over banking. severe clear air turbulence C. B.The desired manifold pressure. the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing.FL 6. C X 62. The PIC has 1.the pilot in command only..In a light . as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121.-When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. C. increase C.VIS1600m. B. mountain waves.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767. B X 59. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A. mountain waves.RVR 550m and DH 60m.VIS1600m. C. moderate clear air turbulence B.-When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. B. Rainfall.300m.600m. C. B.. What does the throttle opening of a turbo-charged-reciprocating engine control? A.any flight crewmember. B. while operating under Part 121. mountain waves.RVR 1. A X 56. layer clouds A X 54.000m.Supercharger gear ratio. Rain shower.any required pilot crewmember.MDH100m. A.876 hours and 298 landings.. A.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. B X 57.FL 6. C. A X 61.FL 6. cumulonimbus B. B X 55. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. freezing precipitation.. frequent lightning C. front fog C. cumulus congestus B. In flight.Some passengers may be carried. resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A. C. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA.foreign international NOTAMs office.90 knots.propeller thrust only. B..domestic airport flight information office.63. C.DH200'. A X . A.As altitude decreases.domestic area flight information center.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.As altitude increases. cumulostratus C. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. thrust increases. towering clouds C X 68. B.The existing and forecast weather for departure..As altitude increases. en route. thrust decreases..Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.. Upon arrival at ZBAA.. The descriptive cloud should be. B X 66. C X 67.DH300'. B X 65..The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. TNA 90 is cleared for A.RVR550m. C. B.VIS1600m.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII. Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A. B. C.a shallow authority gradient B. C.VIS800m. B. A X 69.jet thrust only. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.a steep authority gradient C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 70.strong leadership B X 64. thrust decreases. as ATC has radar contact B. A X 71.95 knots. This situation could be described as A.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. and approach must be VFR. three-engine.100 knots. B. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'. pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 110 PSI? A. C. B..-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds.. C. or use of. B.12 feet. thrust output will . (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A. 102 NAM. 92 NAM. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet..from west to east C. C X 76.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual.72.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. A X 73.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. An outside air pressure decreases. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A. or use of. any exit.the optimum takeoff and landing direction is . C.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-5? A. CBs with little or no separation B.1.. B X 77.Zero fuel weight: 125.from north to south C X 81.172o. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. B. the base is unknown B X 75. C. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. A. If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180°..a change in the information coming from the inner ear.1. B. B.10 feet. B X 78.-Increase the camber of the wing.500 lb. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. C. vestibular and postural cues.1. B. 97 NAM. C.390 pounds.14 minutes. C X 82..16 minutes.420 pounds. B.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C.162o. any aisle in the passenger compartment. C X 80. C.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.17 minutes. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.440 pounds. C. the base is unknown C.8 feet.167o. B X 79.from south to north B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. [Refer to Figure 4-37.500 lb A. A X 74. Some places have CBs.. 750 feet. the stability A. B.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 7.926 pounds. Light and variable.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. Frontal passage. B X 91.9.9. [Refer to Figure 4-25.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A.4.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A. C X 83. [Refer to Figure 4-45.4.As the CG is moved forward.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right. B X 85. Standing lenticular. B X 90.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A. C.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air.. B.a wind direction difference of at least 30℃ between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. B.. C.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B. C X 89. rotor cloud. B X 87.680 pounds.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10℃... C.500 feet. or vice versa..Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. C. Which dispatch requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.A.9.Improves B. B X 84. B..When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. .remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure. B. C.504 pounds.decrease due to higher density altitude. C.800m.4. B.000 pounds gross weight? A. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.dose not change A X 86. or vice versa.An alternate airport is required. C.Compensate for increase in drag A X 88. Wind shear.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B.200 feet. B.200foot dry runway with spoilers inoperative at 118.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600. Low stratus.Decrease C. C. 1. C. C.DECIED B X . A X 98.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. B. downward and clockwise B. can a pilot expect landing priority? A. C X 100. B. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time. upward and clockwise C. B X 95. upward and counterclockwise C X 94.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. first-served" basis.The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section.several headache B.2% to FL148? A. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6. yes.Limiting torque..Limiting compressor speed. yes. however. B.reduced visual field C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.400 feet/minute. A X 97. C.What is one disadvantage of a swept wing design? A. the air cyclone circumfluence is A. C. C.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come.. no. it can be condensed into the following six elements.A decrease in angle of attack. B X 99.Sudden decrease in load factor. During emergency.1.a feeling of euphoria A X 96. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A. C... B. A. inward.An abrupt change in relative wind.. B.320 feet/minute.1.Severe pitch down moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. B.Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. B X 93.What is the purpose of a control tab? A. outward.DECIDE C.364 feet/minute. outward. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D.DICIDE B.．The decision-making process is quite complex.B X 92. In northern sphere.. 221 knots and 1. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. and receipt of position reports. Radar vectors for traffic separation. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity. C.235 B X 4.received an ATC clearance. Under normal operating conditions.changes in flight plans.223 knots and 2. Severe weather information .. and altimeter settings. A X 3. B. B X 9.055 C. [Refer to Figure 4-34.Low RPM and high MAP.. C. C.slowed down to the final approach IAS.95 EPR. route weather advisories. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory .285 B. B. C. and altitude B.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A.Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.83 EPR.Maximum single-engine angle of climb.High RPM and low MAP. B.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds.What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.217 knots and 1. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A. Select another type of navigation aid. Sudden decrease in a headwind component..] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35.Maximum single-engine rate of climb.1. C. B. A X 7.climbed to the appropriate altitude.High RPM and high MAP.Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A. C X . twin-engine airplane represent? A. B. B X 6. C X 8. C.01 EPR.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service? A. B.If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach .-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. C X 2.. C. the pilot should A.000.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. which combination of MAP and RPM most likely lead to detonation in high performance reciprocating engines? A. C.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. intended route of flight. Sudden increase in a headwind component. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight. A X 5. B X 11.VOR/DME FIX B. As the parcel of air moves upward. C. During emergency.provisional airport.. yes.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.354 C X 12.. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill.6 hours. Give the priority to this emergency aircraft only when have conflict with other aircraft or proximate the same expect landing time.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A..alternate airport. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. A X 14. B. C. B X 19. C.Compass locator C X 13.346 C..2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C. The parcel of air resists convection. B.8 hours. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.visibility 1.600m and ceiling 120m.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. C. A X 17. C. B. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.Surveillance radar C.10. no. B.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B. first-served" basis. B X 16. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 18. C X 15..Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. B.Certificate holder's Operations Specifications B. Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. because the landing priority of aircraft arriving at a tower-controlled airport is on "first-come. delay all aircraft in the air and give this emergency aircraft landing priority. When proceeding to the alternate airport.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.destination airport. yes.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered.International Aeronautical Information Manual . Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. C.7 hours. can a pilot expect landing priority? A.166 B. which minimums apply? A. B.. Descending to the surface and then outward. B X 29. Advise ATC immediately.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. A X 22.Read the clearance back entirely. B.One engine.jet thrust only.angle of attack B. What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area? A. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer. Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A. B. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane.. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A.(to be continued Based on this situation. if one of the two VOR receivers fails. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. What action should a pilot take when he is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance? A.) cumulonimbus clouds B.Do not accept the clearance. altocumulus clouds C.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.International Notices To Airmen A X 20. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.ARINC B. By convective mixing in cool night air.While flying IFR in controlled airspace. C. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace. B X 27. false cirrus clouds A X 26. C.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. A. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.camber C. increasing its A.Appropriate dispatch office C X 25. under normal conditions. B X 24. . C.. B.Airborne radar C. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.propeller thrust only..energy B X 21.Request a clarification from the ATC.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing.Any FSS C. on a multiengine aircraft B.DME C X 23. B X 28. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds. B. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. B. Moving outward from the center at high altitudes and into the center at the surface..C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. By wind or the movement of air. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A.. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. C. 11 B.7 C.5 and 13 C.V1. The FAA-approved aircraft flight manual (AFM) or flight manual supplement B. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.9. C.000m.100m. B.Six C.Series A.Seven B. A X 31. outside the United States..a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. A X 30. The FAA Administrator only B X 32. .Macho B.Impulsivity: C X 37.GPS instrument approach operations.the airplane rides on standing water. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A. B.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A.Series A and Series D. C..6 B.12. Series C and Series D.Five A X 34.Series A and Series C.000m.C. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. B.. C X 35. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A. A X 38. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. B. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.12 C X 33. C. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach. A sovereign country or government unit C.7and 11 B X 36.Invulnerability: C.．"Do something quickly!".What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A.VEF.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. C. no further action is necessary C.. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. C X 39.V2. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.3. must be authorized by A. B. ．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. C. C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 45.28. C X 49. [Refer to Figure 4-43. A X 41.000 pounds.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. plus 10 percent of the total flight time. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA. A X 42.．Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb). slow. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance.B X 40. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.. whichever is later. Heavy. What is the required fuel reserve? A. gear and flaps down. . 250 knots C X 46.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW. gear and flaps down. A turbojet-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. C X 44. B. Heavy. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. then repeat. 350 knots B. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance. B.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. C. is most likely to be encountered A.122. reduce speed to the assigned speed. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. B.000. fast. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.123. advise ATC of the speed that will be used.600 pounds. then 1 minute outside scanning.122. B.6MHz B X 48. plus or minus 3minutes.. what should the pilot do? A. then repeat.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A.34..looking outside for 15 seconds.1 minute inside scanning. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. C. A X 47.1MHz B.000 meters? A. Heavy. C. .0MHZ C. 330 knots C.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. then inside for 5 seconds. when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. 30 minutes. gear and flaps up.000 pounds. B X 43.Below FL180. slow. After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route. C.32. B. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.. then clear ice accumulates. C.What is a feature of supercooled water? A. B X 56. B.The point cleared by ATC. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe.An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A.five meters.a steep authority gradient C. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks.infinity. C. B..If required by the airplane's type certificate.12 hours A X 57. B X 54. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A. C X .(To be continued，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. B.Viscous hydroplaning. B. with revenue cargo aboard.HUAILAI. C. C X 58.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.Reverted rubber hydroplaning.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.. C. in the interest of safety. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A. C. B.every 7 consecutive days B.A.Dynamic hydroplaning. A X 50.8 hours B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.strong leadership B X 52. C.D38 to HUAIROU.any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month C. B. A X 53. B.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.．The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. C X 55. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact.a shallow authority gradient B. Which term describes the hydroplaning.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights.600 feet or more. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC.10 hours C.When the RVR is 1. This situation could be described as A. C.After passing the visual descent point (VDP).each calendar week B X 51. . at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.Do not accept the clearance. B. B X 60. C. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? A. [Refer to Figure 4-37..Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required C. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? A. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway.500 lb A.. C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. C.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C. C. B. C X 67. and ASR.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month. little or no wind. B X 64.VS1.Request a clarification from the ATC.VS. sufficient water vapor and front area B X 68. B. B.. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A.Fuel spray nozzles. and high relative humidity.500 pounds? Initial weight: 180.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. In class e airspace for all IFR or VFR on top operations. C X 61.59.Turbine inlet.16 minutes.Zero fuel weight: 125. B. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. C. an initial lifting force. C.Read the clearance back entirely.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144.ASR and PAR.For flights at or above FL 180 B X .Compressor discharge. C. A clear sky. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. B X 65. PAR. A X 63. an unstable lapse rate. What action should a pilot take when a clearance appears to be contrary to a regulation? A.VSO. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. You are considered clear of runway when A.15 minutes.Compass locator. C X 62. C X 66.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B. Moist. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A. B.13 minutes. C. and sufficient water vapor.500 lb.. B.. C X 76. A X 78. B. [Refer to Figures 4-49.90 knots.504 pounds.. Lines of thunderstorms. and 4-54.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.9. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A..430 pounds.Decrease speed. altitude/flight level.Increase speed. 118 NAM.In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3.75 to 1.4-51.4-53.9.96 knots. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. C. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. 110 NAM.926 pounds.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X . A X 72. C.20 Mach.490 pounds. and inbound leg length. B.From. and expected holding speed. B.．If the authority gradient is too steep. C.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 600. C.Maintain speed. B.78 Mach? A. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.. Nimbostratus. 113 NAM.1 hours 02 minutes.110 knots. Mach.1.From. time. C X 70. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.680 pounds.What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 40HW A. 4-50..The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute.1 hours 08 minutes..20 to 2. B.69. time.Below. C. altitude/flight level.400 pounds.1 hours 05 minutes. A.] What is the ETE at .1. C. C X 75.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. B. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.1. A X 71.9. C. fog and rain B. C. A. obscured thunderstorms C...4-52. B X 77.5. B. [Refer to Figure 4-45.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time. C.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A. expected holding speed. B.75 Mach.1. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 73.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A. C X 74. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.in high clouds.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.right B.. C X . 2 km C. What is the purpose of a restricted airspace? A. B.．During the flight. C.6 only A X 83. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. B X 88. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A. B.In altocumulus cloud.High density altitude. the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. C.transition training. such as cirrus. The statement is A.To protect science tests only.K0850.850. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed? A. C.To protect military activities only. 1.difference training. C.) 30 degrees.79. back to the departure airport.. C.Low gross weight.9 only C. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B.. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A. 40 degrees. .9and6 B. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. 2 km B..1360 feet. C.3940 feet.upgrade training. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart..3842 feet. A X 85. B.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A. B. A X 82.5 km A X 84. C X 87.wrong A X 80. A X 81. C. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available.To restrict the entry of civil aircrafts. B X 86.Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. 30 degrees. B. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers.in cumliform clouds B.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A.0850K. The excessive consumption of alcohol. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'.A stressful situation causing anxiety. Upon arrival at ZBAA. 80 knots C.. 90 knots C X 98.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach.．A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when A. 40 knots B. C. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. A X 94. C.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C. B. C.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.For a given angle of bank.varies with the rate of turn. and never in climbs or descents B X 96.VIS800m.trip number and weight and balance data.30days A X 93. B.Turbojet aircraft C. Group II aircraft are A. C.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. B. TNA 90 is cleared for A. B. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA. C X 91. C.Propeller driven aircraft B.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.3/4 engine aircraft B X 95.DH200'. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90.60days B. C X 92. B. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.89.How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept. within a microburst.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only.ATMB NOTAMs office..is constant C X 97.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.DH300'.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A. A X 90.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.90days C.RVR550m. B. in the event of accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear.VIS1600m. C. . with gear down. C X 100. C. spring in southern areas. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A..500 pounds gross weight. B. C. C..17.244 feet.. Sand storm B X 5. B. if the applicable instrument visibility minimum is 2.000 pounds.. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. B. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A.C X 99.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350.Brakes and spoilers at 120. A X 1. C. B. At the poles.1.may ultimately decide the team's actions.．An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency. C. B.3.200 pounds. At the equator. B X 7.800m. summer in northern areas.not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the visibility is forecast to be at least A. but seldom in other situations B.be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.11. flaps 30o. knowledge.Brakes. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.Brakes and reversers at 125. Sand C.000 pounds. C. and reversers at 135.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A. spoilers.1.. B. B X 6. [Refer to Figure 4-30.800 pounds. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A.900 feet.3000m. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o).] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110.Duty and rest period rules require that a flight crewmember A. C. B X 8. spring in northern areas. C X 3.000 meters.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C. B X 2. [Refer to Figure 4-26.000 pounds gross weight. and preferences.not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period. Smoke B.. B.. A X 4.000 pounds gross weight.9.2.600m. what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? .496 feet. 3. 80 knots C.000 feet B.. West wind at 24 KT.500 feet.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.000 feet. the wind direction.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights .000 feet.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways.3. temperatures is -48℃ B. (Refer to Figure 6) At point A. B X 9.2.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. temperatures is -48℃ A X 13.Alternate red and white lights from3. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A.000 feet C. B. Northwest wind at 60 KT.Amber lights from 3000 feet to 1. then red lights to the end C.Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems A.rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn A X 14.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.VOR and DME A X 12. temperatures is 48℃ C.loss of the vertical component of lift B. then alternate red and white lights to the end B.Higher than pressure altitude.loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force C." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots.VOR B.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours C. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. It refer to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B. within a microburst. C.Lower than pressure altitude.ADF C. 40 knots B.Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making..Alternate red and white lights from 3.000 feet to 1. wind speed and temperatures is A. what action is required? A. B X 17. 90 knots C X 16.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C X 10.000 feet to the end of the runway B X 11. West wind at 60 KT.A.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 15. 100 feet.600 feet/minute.2. B. C.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 18. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A. B.Low-speed and high-speed flight. B. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4..2. ISOL EMBD CB 340/XXX means A. B.One hour and a half a time.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.30 minutes a time. C.300m. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds. C. C X 20. [Refer to Figure 4-28. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds.FL 6. CBs with little or no separation B. B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. B X 21. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots.High-speed flight only..000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.I.500 feet. A.1. C.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.930 as specified on the SID? A. the base is unknown C. the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR. A X 25. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. the base is unknown B X 23.Hourly. A X 22. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival . (Refer to Figure 7) In this chart. Some places have CBs.The first holding pattern altitude.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3. B.500 pounds? A.644 feet/minute.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 142.. C.000m.Low-speed flight only.B. C. B X 27. B. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A. B X 24.6% to 4.Y.Z.750 feet..Actual pressure at field elevation.Altimeter setting. C.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. C...690 feet/minute.．If the authority gradient is too steep. C X 19.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.FL 6.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 26. .．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb). 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate.5times groundspeed in knots. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. Inertial centrifugal force C.Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered. the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. or airway specified in the vector clearance. C X 32. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? . over the airport. C X 35. C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 36. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway.What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A. no aircraft are allowed to land. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. C. B. what action should be taken? A. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. Which condition is present when a local of air is stable? A. 30 minutes. B. B. A X 31. at 1. A X 33. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. 8times groundspeed in knots. 30 minutes at holding speed. C.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A. C. A X 30. and there is enough fuel remaining B X 29..If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. B.. its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. Coriolis deflecting force C X 34.. is most likely to be encountered A. As the parcel of air moves upward.10 times groundspeed in knots. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. B. clear to land with caution. at cruising speed. C X 28. A.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.. B. Friction force. The parcel of air resists convection. at 1. route. B.Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land B.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. Fly direct to a fix.Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operationsmanual for such an event C.500 feet over the airport.500 feet. C.10000 feet C.outward and forward B X 43.2.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-3? A. C.If required by the airplane's type certificate. This effect begins at about A.Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.57.the otolith B X 45. [Refer to Figures 4-22. B. C X 42.En route at FL270. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.If the field elevation is 650feet.difference training.not required to have a medical certificate. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall A. B X 44. A X 40. the altimeter is set correctly. C X 41.If the airplane is being flown on proving flights. joints and tendons C. B.8000 feet A X 38.the semicircular canals B. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. B.07 EPR. "good". "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.transition training. and 4-24. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. the percentage of the proximate braking action. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate.and the altimeter is functioning properly.2. On descent. B X 46. B. Certificate holder's manual. B. C.09 EPR. "fair". only use "good". is A. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in CCAR Part 121 operations? A. C. C. B. what will it indicate upon landing? . in an approved flight simulator.the skeletal muscles.Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C. C.Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. B X 39.A.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. with revenue cargo aboard.If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.2.06 EPR.required to have a first-class medical certificate. Airplane Flight Manual.5000 feet B. "fair". A X 37.What is movement of the center pressure when the wingtips of a swept wing airplane are stalled first? A.inward and aft B.inward and forward C. B. "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.upgrade training.. north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current A X 48. and sufficient water vapor. SIGMETS. C. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decisionmaking abilities. B. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A. C. which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? . For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available. an initial lifting force.SPECIS. cumulonimbus clouds..585feet B. especially as altitude increases.Limiting Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT). sufficient water vapor and front area B X 56. back to the departure airport. and adverse conditions. a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure.755 feet.METARS.(To be continued，of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?) The most direct route to the filed alternate airport..The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A. Before taking off. clear after rain. B.300feet C. an unstable lapse rate.Sea level C X 47. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. A X 55....A runway Boundary Sign C. A. C..．What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A. and AIRMETS. a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. shower and gale C.A.Convective SIGMETS. (Refer to Figure 2-10) This is an example of A. B. (According to figure 2) .SIGMETS.Limiting compressor speed.Alcohol has an adverse effect.(to be continuedhe should predict that the weather at the arrival airport might be) cloudy with drizzle. a stable cold front is slowly moving towards his arrival airport. A X 51. C X 52. NOTAM'S. A X 50. B.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. the captain finds that on weather map. The route filed in the flight plan.Limiting torque.762 feet. B. C. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Which route should be flown in the absence A. C. B X 53. B. PIREP'S and AIRMETS.870 feet.An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign C X 49. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.1. An off-airway route to the point of departure. While in IFR conditions. A X 54. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A. low clouds and weak turbulent current B. AWW's.An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign B. PIREPS. C. . Flying in rain. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. Rain shower. C X 64.227 pounds. B. B.000m and MDA 120m. C. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. C X 61. ZSSS C X 57.A. mountain waves. temperature reduced C. which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A... A X 63. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. moderate clear air turbulence B. B X 62. C. Rain shower. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes. C. mountain waves.Visibility 2. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.600m and MDA 240m. [Refer to Figure 4-45. C. freezing precipitation.Visibility 3. severe clear air turbulence C.. A X . A X 58. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A. C.Y.114..the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. C..the airplane rides on standing water. B.800m and MDA 180m.. severe icing B X 65.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. B.754 pounds. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4..a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.11. B. freezing precipitation. B. Thunderstorm.11.800m.7MHz. mountain waves.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A.An alternate airport is required. ZHHH C. C X 59. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR. temperature reduced B X 60.503 pounds. What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. The wind speed increases.514MHz..I.Visibility 2.6MHz.113. B. (According to figure 6) What changes take place from point B fly to point D A.11. ZUUU B.000m and MDA 120m. If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2. The wind speed increases. temperature rises B.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750. C. flying in any clouds. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.Z. Rainfall. Use of three reversers at 113. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition.14 minutes. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.infinity. C.300m.. B.17 minutes.FL 6.500 lb. A X 69. Cold temperatures. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. B. Poor visibility.000m. A X . for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified.(To be continued，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters. C.. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. A X 74. C. B. C.000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.. C X 72.FL 600m.16 minutes. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. B. C.FL 6. The statement is A. [Refer to Figure 4-27. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.1. B.900 feet. What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.1. B X 70.wrong A X 71.66. The fuel reserve required. B.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.500 lb A. is A.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151.244 feet.. reduce speed to the assigned speed.．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption.Use of three reversers at 115.000 pounds gross weight. C X 73. B X 68. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A. Convection currents at the surface.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease. B.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187..000 pounds gross weight.000 pounds gross weight. [Refer to Figure 4-37. When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view.five meters. C. C. B X 75. C. what should the pilot do? A.Zero fuel weight: 125..496 feet. C. A.right B.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. C X 67. 76. flight release.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B X 79. C X 84. both the ram air input and drain hole of the pilot system become completely blocked by ice. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A. B. A X 80.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing B X 81.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. B. B.600m.Decrease in indicated airspeed. B.59. B. C.any required pilot crewmember..any flight crewmember. C.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline..flight engineer or navigator.1 minutes. B. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A.Increase in indicated airspeed. and flight plan? A. [Refer to Figure 4-45.RVR 200m. C. Light fog C. C...21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B. B X 86. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. A X 82.9 minutes.. C.Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.7 minutes.54. A.58.1 month.12 months. C. B. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1. C X 85. C.．Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.3 months.VIS 1. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather area is there in the east of zhengzhou A.Strong vibrations and loud roar.RVR 250m. Fog C X 78. Rain B. What airspeed indication can be expected? A.. B.During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration.3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A. C. pilot route certification. A X 77. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at . How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A. A X 83. airworthiness release. C. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.pilot in command and chief pilot. Operating at high airspeeds.wear good quality sunglasses during the day.24 hours C.The point cleared by ATC. on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot). [Refer to Figures 4-49. Standing lenticular. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.. A. C..Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.4-53.. A X 91. fog and rain B. Lines of thunderstorms. C.4-51. and 4-54.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. C. C. C.avoid using contact lenses B X 89.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. B. diversion. continuation.80 Mach? A.An air carrier may schedule a pilot.. nimbostratus. C X 95.4-52.25 hours A X 96. B X 88. C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing C X 93.don't read small print within one hour of flying. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation. B. Nimbostratus. B.1 hours 07 minutes. C. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A. B.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. C.A. B X 87. A X 94.trip number and weight and balance data.DAWANGZHUANG. which would help to enhance night vision? A.17 hours B.] What is the ETE at .1 hours 02 minutes. B. 4-50. B X 92. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A. which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. ..In the AIRMET 6 of the Figure 3.pilot in command and the flight follower. Developing lift. Using high power settings.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.pilot in command and director of operations.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. A X 90.1 hours 04 minutes. obscured thunderstorms C.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). Cirrocumulus. B. B. snow. C.. C. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex..MDA 470 feet and VIS 1.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1. A.A lower angle of attack. C. trip number. or attached to..The same angle of attack. B. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex..descend 3℃ C..600-foot icy runway? A. what action should be taken? . what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. the temperature of the air will . A X 2. B. descend 2℃ B. C.000 feet increase in the troposphere. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices. and cargo weight. A X 1.B.. A decreased stall speed.000 pounds.128. descend 4℃ A X 3.Passenger manifest. increased thrust. B.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.124. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off? A.600m. B. An increased stall speed.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.A higher angle of attack. B. [Refer to Figure 4-27. for every 1. B X 5. B. When advection fog has developed. B X 97.g. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines.500m. or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A.500m.. C. Which information must be contained in.120.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A. IFR.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 600 feet short of the end of a 4. Temperature inversion. The adverse effects of ice. Wind stronger than 15 konts.000 pounds. C X 100. company organization name. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. Surface radiation.000 pounds. C X 99. B X 98.. C.Type of operation (e. C X 4. C. C. In average. VFR). B. ] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2200. range. C X 10. (According to figure 6) At point B. B. B. what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? . C. C.tends to make final decisions in an emergency.000 pounds. and vertical angle.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. Northeast wind at 35 KT. C. Azimuth.15 minutes.may ultimately decide the team's actions.Clearway.30 minutes. Azimuth. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience. temperatures is -52℃ C X 14. Southwest wind at 35 KT. The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers..34. but seldom in other situations B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise C. temperatures is -52℃ B. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A. or airway specified in the vector clearance. Southwest wind at 14 KT. Fly direct to a fix.28. and preferences. B. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.000. route. C X 9.How dose deadhead transportation. [Refer to Figure 4-43. knowledge. going to or from a duty. B. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A. the wind direction.000 pounds. C.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50HW.32. and visual information.600 pounds.．An authoritative leader A. B.not considered to be part of a rest period. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.. temperatures is 52℃ C. B. C X 12.. Guidance.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 37. B X 8.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.Stop way. and vertical angle.Obstruction clearance plane. distance. range.considered part of the rest period if the flight crew includes more than two pilots. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. C X 6. B.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 75 A. C X 7.. continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency. affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmember? It is A. B X 11. A X 13.3 minutes.What functions are provided by ILS? A. C.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light.A. wind speed and temperatures is A. C.. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.considered part of the rest period for the flight engineers and navigators. visibility 4000 m B X 18.70 percent of the actual runway available..．If the authority gradient is too steep. A. B X 15.not change C.. A. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z. C.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. A X 21. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec. if the authorized MDH is 100 meters. light rain shower.8 feet. and the weather then is ____. C.Wet runway using brakes. heavy rain.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making process—even when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B. dust B. visibility 4 km C..The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. Strong wind with sand C.850. it may be listed as an alternate airport only when the ceiling is forecast to be at least A. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec. visibility 4 km. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A.8 B. C. C.Dry runway using brakes and reversers. C.2 B X 19.may change or may not change A X 17. B.1 C.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. C X 16. B X 20.10 feet.] Which conditions will result in the shortest landing distance at a weight of 132. B.160m.as the time goes on .150m. B.12 feet. B.In flight . (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A. Light fog.change B.K0850. B. B. North wind at 12 m/s. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.500 pounds? A.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process A X 23. the CG will A. For an airport with only one set of VOR approach. B X 22.Dry runway using brakes and spoilers. (Refer to Figure 5) what weather phenomenon is there in the north of zhengzhou A.220m.0850K... spoilers and reversers. C. [Refer to Figures 4-25 and 4-26.A.. Strong wind with haze B X . C.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS).Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m. A. B X 28. poor visibility A X 27.2.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule. Just prior to takeoff. C.thunderstorm..000 feet C. 40 knots B. C. C. high wind..Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. 80 knots C.. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots.24. A X 25.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A.90 knots.clear.. good visibility C.99.97. shower and high wind B. B X 30.What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer maker? A. B. B. . B X 31. B.110 knots. and a statement of the type of operation. B.2. B. C X 33.500 feet B X 26. light rain. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B. 90 knots C X 29. B. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight.．Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight？ A. within a microburst.1. C X 32.Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.500 feet B..stratonimbus. [Refer to Figure 4-45. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second.entering approach controlled airspace.7 minutes.103. the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport.entering instrument meteorology conditions.Adhere to standard operating procedures. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A. and he can realize that the current weather may be A.96 knots. C.8 minutes. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. may expect a total shear across the microburst of A.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW.2 minutes. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane.RVR550m. C X 37.Five B.. A X 36. Headwind or tailwind increase C.VIS1600m.0022Z.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 18. the pilot should A.000 pounds? Initial weight: 162.10 minutes.Four C.3.C.250m. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. C.WEIGHT (*1000): 100.000. [Refer to Figure 4-34. C. B.1952Z.950m.1.1.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? . A. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path. Middle latitudes(30 oto 60o). C. for this PIC?)_DA63m. C X 39. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A. B.DA93m.. C X 38. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. C.950 pounds. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff. B.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.8 minutes..650 meters. B.ALTITUDE: 35.500 lb A.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. At Which location dose Coriolis force have the most effect on wind direction? A.2. etC．as far as possible.Two . Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. B.. as PIC.DA110m. B X 35.500 lb.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A.Zero fuel weight: 120. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.1922Z.050m. the minimum safe altitude is A. At the Equator. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.2. fuel burn..625 pounds. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA.3. A X 41. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z. A X 34. C. B.. A X 40.VIS1600m B X 42.460 pounds. C. At the Poles. B. The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. B.9 minutes.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. [Refer to Figure 4-37. C. C. 0000 through 1000.Direct only C.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.wind speed B..Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag.Large turbine-powered airplanes only A X 49. B.. pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL. A plane.Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system? A. which would help to enhance night vision? A.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A. 8times groundspeed in knots. B.. C X 50. if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D.headache and fatigue B. LEFT TURNS.. . B. B. A X 51.. 7500.. 7600.Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes? A. B.Teardrop only B. and 7700 series. nimbostratus.．who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow). C X 44.A X 43.don't read small print within one hour of flying.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.wear good quality sunglasses during the day.. receive this ATC clearance: ". B.113.5times groundspeed in knots. MH 160°. B..air pressure B X 53. C.114.7MHz.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. C.Parallel only C X 52.．What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Passenger -carrying turbine-powered airplanes only C. B X 45. C. Standing lenticular. C.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A. Cirrocumulus.．Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.air temperature C.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing.6MHz.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A.All turbine powered airplanes B.impairment of vision and mental confusion B X 48. A X 46.10 times groundspeed in knots.. 7200 and 7500 series.avoid using contact lenses B X 47.".514MHz. C.a feeling of euphoria C. (Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL. Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. B X 59..VOR/DME FIX B.2% to FL148? A.Airport flight information office.000 pounds gross weight.Use of three reversers at 120.Surveillance radar C. B X 64.Except during an emergency. A X 63.C.V1. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.500 pounds gross weight. .. When cleared for an IFR approach B.800 pounds. C..Area flight information center.000 pounds..] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.100m.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. C.000m. reduce B X 56. first serve basis. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. A X 54..000m. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.Compass locator C X 60. with gear down. B.Use of three reversers at 124. when exit the runway.320 feet/minute. [Refer to Figure 4-30. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.3.000 pounds. [Refer to Figure 4-27. B. C. B. B.1. increase C. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. on a firs-come. what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6. remain unchanged B.364 feet/minute.VLOF. C.12. B.400 feet/minute.11.9. C X 62.V2. C. C X 61.ATMB NOTAMs office. heavy aircraft. C... C.. A X 55. In turn.1.200 pounds.Describe dynamic longitudinal stability . B X 58. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.000 pounds gross weight. B. flaps 30o. A.17.9.1. B.With the increase of temperature. C.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. when can a pilot expect landing priority? A. the airplane's rolling distance will ____when takeoff and landing. When piloting a large. C X 57. B.ZUUU B X 74. but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience.Motion about the vertical axis. C X 72.108..113.may ultimately decide the team's actions..Motion about the longitudinal.10 MHZ B. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot.tends to make all team decisions and controls all resources C.．In a decision-making process . but a certificate is not required.High-speed flight only. B. it is necessary for A.10 to 111. B.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. A X 67. B X 65.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway..the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified. a participatory leader A. (Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. and preferences. C.ZBAA B. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A.A.Motion about the lateral axis.Low-speed flight only.10 to 117.To require a pilot to take a specific action. knowledge.Low-speed and high-speed flight. A X 70. B.Within what frequency range dies the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? A.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. C. What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A. ordering galley supplies C. C. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A. C.95 MHZ.To warn the pilot.To state some important information.95 MHZ C. B X 68. B..108. B X 73.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. C. B X 69. passengers on board B. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A.. beginning of rain at the surface . when an approach has been missed.ZSSS C. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight.10 to 118.7MHz.113.6KHz.108.6MHz. A X 71. B.114.A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C. indicates A. C X 66.A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. 750 feet. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is A.Dispatch Release. or use of.300 feet. Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A. A X 76. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. cumulonimbus B.2. B.Limiting exhaust gas temperature.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date... How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A.Limiting torque. B. front fog C. B.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date.500 feet. what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. C.1. B X 77.] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.Operating Certificate.1 month. B.12 months..000 feet. pilot route certification. C X 79.3 months.Limiting compressor speed. C. or use of. C X 78. C. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B.. C.500 feet. What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A. B. B X . Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. A X 80. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. airworthiness release. C.Operations Specifications.2. any aisle in the passenger compartment. any exit.B. C. B X 81. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.000 pounds gross weight? A.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.000 pounds gross weight? A. layer clouds A X 83.3. [Refer to Figure 4-25. continuous updraft C X 75. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. B.. when warm air mass is unstable. In summer. and flight plan? A. A X 82..000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A.150 feet. frequent lightning C. flight release. [Refer to Figure 4-25. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. B X 86.Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? A. B.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.Black inscriptions on a yellow background C X 85. B.CG is at the most rearward allowable position.10 hours.Yellow inscriptions on a black background B.RVR 700 feet. B X 88.What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A. In a 24-hour consecutive period.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A.8 hours. B X 90.. C X 89. B.At least one full stop landing must be made. C. What is the definition of the critical altitude of a superchargedreciprocating engine? A.6 hours. used to provide destination or information. Under what condition is VMC the highest? A. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift B.200 feet.. continuation.RVR 1. have A.CG is at the most forward allowable position. B.84. C.000 feet C. B X 93. B. B. C.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.pilot in command and the flight follower.pilot in command and director of operations. B.At least one landing must be made from a circling approach.Compensate for increase in drag A X . B X 87.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. At the EFC time. diversion.DH 50 feet and RVR 1. B. C.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. what is the maximum time. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. B X 91. C. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to reestablish recency of experience? A. C.Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value..The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. excluding briefing and debriefing. C X 92. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation.White inscriptions on a black background C.Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component C. C.Airport information signs. C. B X 97.13 minutes. B.Brakes and reversers at 125.16 minutes.500 pounds? Initial weight: 187. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption.500 pounds gross weight. B. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required. ASSS C. C. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3.The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the A. B X . Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. B.15 minutes. C.14 minutes.-Lift at low speeds. [Refer to Figure 4-37. ZUUU A X 95. C.Brakes. How dose Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.Brakes and spoilers at 120. C X 2. Has exactly the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A.500 pounds? Initial weight: 180. [Refer to Figure 4-26. whichever is less.500 lb. B.-Drag and reduce airspeed.. B.Zero fuel weight: 125.000 pounds gross weight. C. and reversers at 135.1 B. [Refer to Figure 4-37. ZULS B.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144. If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z. or 90 minutes at normal cruise.0630z.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "A" respond? A. C X 99.8 C.94. the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.. A X 98.17 minutes. 45 minutes at holding altitude.. whichever is less. spoilers.11 A X 96..Zero fuel weight: 125. C X 1. B. B. C..500 lb A. C.500 lb.16 minutes.500 lb A.0700z.0600z. B X 100.-L/Dmax. Upon arriving at the most distant airport..000 pounds gross weight.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a wet runway? A. Y. red. HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL.".Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway. and green. B X 6.15 minutes.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.500 lb A. C X 5. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 12. .Z.13 minutes..5SM from ILG.16. C X 11. red and white.16. B.Zero fuel weight: 125.16 minutes. C. Strong wind with sand storm C. which description is correct A. A X 4.. (Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A. MH 300°. A plane.] How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144. B.. B.16.5NM from ILG.3.One light projector with two colors. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A. [Refer to Figure 4-37.critical mach number C X 10. white.I. receive this ATC clearance: ". B X .Direct only C..transonic mach number C. Smoke with overcast B. C. C.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? lift will be A.Four times greater.Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 100m(MDH/DH) and VIS1600m.500 lb. C.Row of four lights parallel to the runway. C..Parallel only C X 8. C. B. C. B.Minimums are increased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS). B X 7. B. B X 9.The same.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.Two times greater.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.Minimums are decreased by 30m(MDH/DH) and 800m(VIS)..5KM from ILG.500 pounds? Initial weight: 180.What does the precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of? A.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route. red and white.. B.supersonic mach number B.Teardrop only B. how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. FL 6.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. C.153 knots and 3. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A. (Refer to Figures 2-7b and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1.710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. [Refer to Figure 4-28 and 4-29..138 knots and 3..000 pounds with 5o of flaps? A. B X 16. B X 19..nimbostratus B.The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be A. B. (Refer to Figures 2-7a and 2-8) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1. C X 20. B. B X 14.3000-foot point from the runway is indicated? A.15 minutes.850 feet. C X 21. C X 18.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. PAR.21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. C. C.3 minutes.9 NM point is indicated? A. B.050 feet.altostratus.123 knots and 3. C. B.710 fee to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. B.What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.30 minutes.Compass locator.21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline. C. B.．Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.300m. The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are . C. C. C X 17.FL 600m.450 feet.cumulonimbus C. B. B. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.．If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light. B X 15.13.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected..430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.FL 6. A.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding.] What approach speed and landing distance will be needed when landing at a weight of 140.000m. and ASR. C.A and B C X .ASR and PAR. B X 32.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. B.. the bass of the stratocumulus is 1 200m C.HIALS. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground..PAPI. C. expected holding speed B.．In flight. B. There are cirrostratus . stratocumulus. B.. 125 NAM. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36. B.25 minutes.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.. the bass of the stratus is 1 200m B X 27.More than 6 hours. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B. C X 25. C.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-2? A.23 minutes. (According to figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A. stratus . 109 NAM. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A. a good leader should A. A X 23. C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 28. A X 31. A X 26. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A.A and B C X . There are altostratus.propeller thrust only. C.22.The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained.Not more than 1 hour.HIALS with PAPI.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. B. How long before a redispatch release is required? A. Cirrocumulus. A.jet thrust only. C. the bass of the stratocumulus is 600m B.Not more than 2 hours. . What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A. There are altocumulus . (Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A. 118 NAM. C X 29. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.24 minutes.. A X 24. nimbostratus. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from . at an intermediate airport. B.involve the team in most decision making processes C. stratocumulus. Standing lenticular... C.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. A X 30. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A. three-engine. A X 37.18. C X 38.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.12 hours A X 36.69 EPR. spoilers.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.150 feet AGL.16.400 feet.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.WEIGHT (*1000): 92.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA..000 pounds gross weight.] Which of the following configurations will result in the shortest landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle to a dry runway? A.during the entire flight. B. C. [Refer to Figure 4-34.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 35. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A.when the flight arrives.Brakes and reversers at 115.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. B X 39..000 pounds gross weight.Brakes and spoilers at 125. and reversers at 130.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release.. B. B X 40. C. and approach must be VFR. C X 34.ALTITUDE: 30.. en route.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.10 hours C.000 pounds gross weight. C.217 knots and 1. B.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. [Refer to Figure 4-39.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100.700 feet.The initial climb cannot be over thickly-populated areas.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Elevator C. C. B. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. B.200 feet AGL.221 knots and 1. Dorsal fin B X .600 feet.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? . [Refer to Figure 4-25.210 knots and 1.33. Slats B.5. B X 41. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.83 EPR.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.WING ANTI-ICE: ON.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.000.8 hours B.The existing and forecast weather for departure.81 EPR. C.100 feet AGL. B..Brakes. C.19. B.17 hours C. 7777. The statement is)right B.26 minutes. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec. C X 46. B. light rain shower. hypoxia. to achieve a safe and A. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec.42. heavy rain.000. 125 NAM. A. visibility 4000 m B X 49..Higher than actual.16hours B.6KHz. C. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.．What illusion. FL 250. B. B X 45..What is the hijack code? A. B.6MHz. B X .The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration. FL 180. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z.. Light fog. B.5 hours 55 minutes.7MHz.7and 11 B X 48. A X 43.11 B.. and the weather then is ____.Does not cause illusions.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A.5 hours 3 minutes.5 hours 20 minutes.5 and 13 C. B. C.wrong A X 51.24 minutes. can rain on the windscreen create? A.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500. procedures and people.127. 7500. if any. visibility 4 km C. 118 NAM.18 hours A X 50.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27. C. equipment. C.127. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.e.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW. A X 44. B.25 minutes. C X 47. i.．Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources. visibility 4 km. C. [Refer to Figure 4-43.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA. 118 NAM. and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 200. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A.(To be continued，efficient flight operation. 7200.Lower than actual. C.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.114. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121.52. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A. 30 degrees. Rime ice.. This situation could be described as A. Who is responsible. B X 54.CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.420 pounds. C.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept.22. C.air temperature C. by regulation. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747..Director of operations. A plane..22. MH 300°.required to have a first-class medical certificate.4-51.Company meteorologist. as PIC. in an approved flight simulator. Frost ice. B X 60.Direct only C.4-53.a participatory leader A X 56.5 km A X 59..DH65m，RVR600 C. C.4-52.wind speed B. while operating under Part 121.air pressure B X 55. 1. and 4-54.) 30 degrees.required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.．The caption of a multi-crew aircraft may consult the first officer on every issue and may never take command in the course of a flight. B. B. 2 km B. B. B X . receive this ATC clearance: ". is A.. [Refer to Figures 4-50. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track..Aircraft dispatcher. LEFT TURNS. B X 58. for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A..] What is the total fuel required at . Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. 2 km C. A..DH65m，RVR550 B X 53.a too shallow authority gradient B. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B. C.. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate. Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.a steep authority gradient C. 40 degrees.22.".Parallel only B X 57.556 pounds.80 Mach? A. B.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK.Teardrop only B.836 pounds.not required to have a medical certificate. clear ice. C X 63. and flight release.000 feet.. B. B X 68.the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam and melted rubber. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A. including military what has a crash an rescue unit.Dispatch release. flight plan. Advise ATC immediately.000 pounds.At high ground speeds.. C. B. .the airplane rides on standing water.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 110.000 pounds.When the wheels are locked and skidding. B. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A. B.139. C.000 pounds gross weight? A.Load manifest. A X 67.When wing lift has been reduced. B. in the interest of safety.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. C. B. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.500 feet short of the end of a 4. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. if one of the two VOR receivers fails. decreases pressure gradient force. flight plan. C.1. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B.While flying IFR in controlled airspace. A. B.000 pounds. C X 69. B. B X 70.a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway. vestibular and postural cues.500 feet. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.61. C.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual. [Refer to Figure 4-25. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A..136.300 feet. C. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the nearest airport. A X 66. friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where A. B X 65..．Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A. B. B X 64. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. C. and weight and balance release.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. C. C. which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. B X 62.119.. [Refer to Figure 4-25. At lower levels of the atmosphere. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.000 feet B.Dispatch release. and flight plan.transition training. are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion.No alternate airport is required if the visibility at the destination airport is desired to be at least 4. A X 72... B. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums. B. C. The statement is A.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.VOR and ILS C. A X 75. B.166 B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C.VOR B.2.800m.wrong A X 78.1.Are required to operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. load manifest.An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. (Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL.A function of the Minimum Equipment List is to indicate required items which A. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. C.372 feet.An alternate airport is required.500 feet B X 73.upgrade training.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation? A.An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling at the destination airport is at least 600m AGL. C X 71. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A. what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.VOR and DME A X .．Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you. B. Which flight plan requirement applies to an international air carrier that is scheduled for a 10 hours IFR flight? A.2.May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.difference training.346 C.525 feet. C X 74.000 feet C.470 feet.354 C X 79.right B. B. C X 76. B X 77. C.May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. C. C.A lower angle of attack. A.VIS1600m.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. while operating under Part 121. B.7 minutes. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. B. C. (1-1) The PIC of PIL 10 has 87. B.in cumliform clouds B.MDH120m.VIS2400m.8 minutes. when an approach has been missed.．The blind spot is A.2 minutes.000 feet B. Altitude.. C. C X 83.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A. B X 82.MDH100m.500 feet.99.The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A.. B. passengers on board B. B.-Increase the camber of the wing. [Refer to Figure 4-45. ordering galley supplies C..1.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed..an area on the cornea which does not respond to light.876 hours and 298 landings.in high clouds. B X 87. C.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A. C X 85.000 feet C.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C. C.. Altitude. pitch.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shares to a calm wind? A.2.5 hours and 26 landings as PIC in the B-767.VIS1600m.The same angle of attack.103. A. and indicated airspeed decrease.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 65TW.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. pitch. B X 84. B X 89. as PIC in the L-1011 under Part 121. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? .2.8hours B X 86. B X 90.10hours C.97. B.How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect? A.A higher angle of attack. A X 88.In altocumulus cloud.(续考题正文，What are the minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach at Chengdu Inti Airport for the PIC?)__MDH150m. such as cirrus. pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.12hours B.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 850. Altitude increase.80. and indicated airspeed increase. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. The PIC has 1. C X 81. C. left crosswind C X 99.162o. B. 315°or NW C. B X 100.. C X 98.tailwind C. B.As altitude increases.As altitude decreases.Which direction from the primary control surface dose an anti-servo tab move? A.. A.the semicircular canals B. (According to figure 6) At point B. C. B. Southwest wind at 35 KT.172o. In northern hemisphere. wind speed and temperatures is A. B.What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency? A. C.After passing the visual descent point (VDP). temperatures is -52℃ C X 94. 135°or SE . A.. C X 96. Northwest wing can be presented as . thrust decreases.. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.As altitude increases. high personal attention and high task orientation B. joints and tendons C. thrust increases.When the RVR is 1. C.．The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the skeletal muscles. the wind direction. temperatures is 52℃ C. thrust decreases. When distress conditions such as fire.. mechanical failure. B. or structural damage occurs. 200°or NW B. C. C.right crosswind B.A.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 97.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight. Northeast wind at 35 KT. A X 91. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.Remains fixed for all positions A X 93. C. A X 92. when exit the runway. Southwest wind at 14 KT.the otolith B X 95. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise.. if fly from high pressure area to low pressure area at 6000 meters.600 feet or more.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. temperatures is -52℃ B. the wind on the course is _____.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by A.Same direction.Opposite direction.167o. what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A.070M.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C... When advection fog has developed. A X 2. C. (Refer to Figures 1-3) The PIC of TNA 90 has 49 hours and 102 landings as PIC in the MD90 while operating under Part 121. C X 3. C.DA93m.B X 1. Moist.M070. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.inversion illusion. and high relative humidity.53o.M0070. dizziness B. little or no wind. (Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around.．The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A. B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.233o. If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0. C.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. C X 7. B. . pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A. Which condition will for the formation of advection fog? A. continue taxiing in the landing direction.DA110m. for this PIC?)_DA63m.VIS1600m B X 8. A clear sky. how much is the intercept heading? A.vomiting B X 4.RVR550m. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.. Surface radiation. in the B-737 while operating under Part 121. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. A X 5.143o. as PIC. B. B.VIS1600m. Wind stronger than 15 konts.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. C. B.. C.. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. . The PIC also has 959 hours and 246 landings. what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A.70 Marh. C. stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B. Temperature inversion. A. C X 9. B.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums. B X 6.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS/DME RWY 18 approach at ZSSS. B. A person whose duties include the handing or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding A.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. C. if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.Carrying passengers. Ice pellets.500 pounds. B. C. What effect does high relative humidity have upon the maximum power output of modern aircraft engines? A. C..750 feet. C.124.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch.somatogravic illusion. [Refer to Figure 4-28.. C. B X 16.Turbojet engines will experience a significant loss of thrust. B.autokinesis. 6 calendar months. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B. B. C.000 pounds. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.VEF.1.000 feet short of the end of a 4.2..900-foot wet runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122. At the EFC time.. C.. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP.2.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances.129. B. C X 10. B. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 15. A X 14. . B.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A. C. wet snow.750 feet.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B. [Refer to Figure 4-26. Freezing rain.Neither turbojet nor reciprocating engines are affected..000 pounds? A.134. C X 13. C X 11.500 pounds. B X 12. A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced twoway radio communications failure.V1. if the flight will be A. C.Conducted IFR.200 feet. but not if it is "all cargo" C. B X 17. The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. B. C X 18.V2. diversion. Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.600m and DH 120m.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B. the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A.For a given angle of bank. How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. is most likely to be encountered A.000m. B. C.VS1. Ambient temperature lapse rate.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C. Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. C.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels.. B X 25.1.FL 6. B.is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation. beverages. B. B X 24. (Refer to Figure 2-13) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. C. B. A X 21.VS.300m. C.. B.FL 600m.Best angle of climb. to proceed direct to the regular airport. due to winds.varies with the rate of turn.pilot in command and the flight follower.A X 19. C.. B X 23.000 feet C.having the aircraft catered (foods.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night B X 27.Maximum endurance.is constant C X .during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C. Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace? A.VSO. C..RVR 550m and DH 60m.500 feet.2.RVR 1.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B. C.000 feet B. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propellerdriven airplane? A. continuation.．The somatogravic illusion (falsly identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb). which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A. C X 28. B. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. or supplies).. B X 26. B X 20.pilot in command and chief pilot. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.FL 6. A X 22.pilot in command and director of operations. If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m.Maximum range and distance glide.2. 3000 metres A X 38.Not more than 1 hour. which description is correct A.medium personal attention and high task orientation C. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A. the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is.000m.. B. A. This effect begins at about A. at an intermediate airport. On the weather chart of ground.87. (According to figure 4) at Shanghai.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100. an increase in airspeed will A.while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground. 900 metres C. C.only pilots B.decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.100m.9. B. The visibility is 8 kilometers. but do not include flight attendants. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A.4 percent.increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor B X 37. Person who heard the emergency. [Refer to Figure 4-32. navigators.. C X 31.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35. C X 36. A X 39. C X 30. (According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Pilot in command. The visibility is 800 meters.6 hPa.83..6 hPa. C.shear line A X 32. B. B. How long before a redispatch release is required? A.8000 feet A X 35.0 percent.10000 feet C.decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor C.3. the sea level pressure is 996 hPa. C.4 percent. C X 34.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A.low pressure center C. high personal attention and high task orientation B. the QNH is 999.29. C. flight engineers and batmen.5000 feet B.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.86.pilots. Person who found the emergency. 300 metres B. the sea level pressure is 999. B.medium personal attention and medium task orientation A X 33.12.000.000m.．Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. C..front B.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. The visibility is 8 kilometers.. .．One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. ] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107. C. 110 NAM.. pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. B X 45.. B X 43. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing..400 pounds.Radar and RVR.. C.1.. RCLS. A X 41.HIRL.Direct only C. B. A plane. C.490 pounds.".500 pounds? A.1. A X 40. 113 NAM. marker beacons. B.2. C X 44.350 feet. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. C X 47. B.308KHz. A. receive this ATC clearance: ".430 pounds. C.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A. B.(to be continuedmight encounter tailwind forming by air pressure system?) when the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system.More than 6 hours..Not more than 2 hours.. B.1. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence. if a pilot makes a long-distance flight from east to west.. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system.B.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? . B X 48.All recorded information may be erased. C.7MHz.] What are descent fuel and distance under Operating Conditions S-4? A.All recorded information may be erased. and RVR. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC glide slope. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems .240KHz. In the Northern hemisphere. 118 NAM.Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. under which of the following conditions.RCLS and REIL C. TDZL. and approach lights? A. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.Teardrop only B.. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. [Refer to Figure 4-28.2. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.. B.000 feet.750 feet. MH 160°..1.Parallel only C X 42. C.114. B X 46. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. upward and counterclockwise C X 56.ISA TEMPERATURE: +10oC. outward. wet runway? A. B.AIR CONDITIONING: ON A..Decrease speed. on glidepath-steady white. C.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: ON.High-pulsing white. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight. Fly direct to a fix. the air cyclone circumfluence is A.19. B. A X .16. B X 50. when an approach has been missed.347o... [Refer to Figure 4-39. C.400 feet.At approximately 2. B. C.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A. A X 57.entering approach controlled airspace..Maintain speed.WING ANTI-ICE: ON. on course and on glidepath-steady white. low-pulsing red.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below? WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 100.342o. B X 54.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs. B. on glidepath-green. (Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.Approach Control Regulation.At the same speed as dynamic hydroplaning.352o.High-pulsing white. route. ordering galley supplies C. or airway specified in the vector clearance. upward and clockwise C.High-pulsing white. Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. C X 49. downward and clockwise B.18. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. C X 52. B... A X 55. C. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. what action should be taken? A. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning. passengers on board B.Increase speed. In northern sphere.Visual Flight Regulation.At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning. B. B.700 feet. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered? A. low-pulsing red. low-pulsing red. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. C.. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. B. C. inward. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. C X 53.Instrument Control Regulation. C X 51. C. off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red.. C.entering instrument meteorology conditions.600 feet. outward. slightly below glide slope steady red.A. at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth. VOR B. .Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.somatogravic illusion." which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light.WEIGHT (*1000): 100.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. B. This illusion is known as A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B.83 EPR. C.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways.35. C. Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A.behind a stationary front B X 61.58.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B. A X 62..95 EPR. C X 67.] What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500.．In the dark.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.223 knots and 2.．Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good term problem solving performance? A.ADF C. but a certificate is not required.01 EPR.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. B X 65. C. adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially B X 66.600 pounds.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27.000. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight.217 knots and 1. B. [Refer to Figure 4-43.．The blind spot is A.221 knots and 1. C X 59. B X 64. B.trust you personal opinion. C.ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA.30.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified. B.200 pounds.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C. expected holding speed B.000 pounds.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A. C. at the same time. a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time.ground lighting illusion.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW.ahead of a cold front C... C X 60.32.in an occluded front B.VOR and DME A X 63.000.. it is necessary for A. [Refer to Figure 4-34.autokinesis. -Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 68.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.Impulsivity: C X 77..processing information from the eyes. C.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C. convective turbulence. C. 200 knots C. B. A X 75. 330 knots A X 76.Low-speed flight only.000 meters? A.000 meters. It refer to A. 150 knots B.Invulnerability: C. 250 knots C. A X 70. normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.000 feet AGL.Turbulence encountered above 15. B.In small airplanes..．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.High-speed flight only.．"Do something quickly!".．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making.One hour and a half a time.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.Macho B. . Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.. 210 knots B.Negative longitudinal static stability B.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 74..-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A. B.30 minutes a time.give plenty of water A X 69.processing information from the inner ear.Low-speed and high-speed flight. B. Clear air turbulence. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.administer oxygen B. High altitude turbulence. C. 150 knots B X 72.When are outboard ailerons normally used? A. C X 71. B. C X 73.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis.Hourly.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.A. should be reported as A. not associated with cloud formations. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab? A.can not recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement.contradictory data or personal conflicts.communicate with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B. B. C.24 hours. B.2 percent. a good leader should not A. C. [Refer to Figure 4-32.Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces.. A worm front and a upper jet C. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. B. C.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 90.75. B. For scheduled airline. vestibular and postural cues.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. an airplane may be dispatched only A. C.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): 11oC.9 percent.000..move the head in a continuous arc from side to side.S.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 15. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 79.C. C.74. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu.If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight.．During the flight. C X 80.R. C. A. A X 86..．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. C X 78.72.Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures. A cold front and a upper jet B.In day VFR conditions C X 84.by combining and comparing visual. B X 81.Resolve discrepancies. . B. which weather system we would encounter A. A X 83. B.4 percent.．The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.G.involve the team in most decision making processes.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement.Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. C.In VFR conditions C.When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route B.12 hours.move the head about 200 or 300 at a time.8 hours. B X 82. C X 85. 6 hours.10 hours. what is the maximum time. B X 89. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather.Accelerate-stop distance.involve the team in most decision making processes C.300 feet.．In flight.. C. . and irregularities of facilities and services? A.] What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A. In a 24-hour consecutive period. B. By regulation.8 hours. A X 93. excluding briefing and debriefing.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. C.flag and commercial. B. B.2 B X 96.24 minutes.500 feet. C. B X 88. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A.1.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.VLOF. C. B.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.Drag increases because of increased induced drag. a good leader should A.supplemental and domestic.A X 87. and designated pilot in command are A. C X 91. B.V1. A X 92.. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to.V2. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember.000 pounds gross weight? A.supplemental and commercial. [Refer to Figure 4-25.Director of operations. A X 95.Critical engine failure speed. for a given runway? A.1 C. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A.] How much longer is the dry runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes and reversers at 114. or include on. Which performance factor decreases as airplane gross weight increases. B.The aircraft dispatcher. C. B.. C.150 feet. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A. flight attendant.Air route traffic control center.A and B C X 90. [Refer to Figures 4-35 and 4-36.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag. C. 118 NAM.8 B.Rotation speed. A X 94.. moderate icing. 125 NAM.Inner marker. C. B X 97. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency. Moderate turbulence. severe icing.25 minutes. B. vacating an altitude. C. unable to climb 500 ft/min. and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots..59. B. Position reports. who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. severe clear air turbulence C X 3. [Refer to Figure 4-39.1. Position reports. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A. B X 98.400 feet.B...] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. B. B X 2. Severe turbulence.58.000 feet.7 minutes. vacating an altitude. the load factor is A. Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. B.19. moderate icing.ISA TEMPERATURE: +20oC. B X 99.] What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions below?WT AT ENG FAIL (*1000): 90.Increased headwind component.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.WING ANTI-ICE: OFF. A.. B. C. rain shower.If an aircraft level turns at an angle of bank of 60 degree . C.2Gs. rain. B. B X 100. C.4Gs B X 4. thunderstorms B. severe clear air turbulence C.. which significant weather phenomenon may be encounterd A. [Refer to Figure 4-45.1 minutes.9 minutes.26 minutes. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. C. B.Lower-than-standard air density.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW.54.AIR CONDITIONING: OFF A. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation. C X 1.ENGINE ANTI-ICE: OFF.. unable to climb 500 ft/min.Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group? A. 118 NAM.20.23. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. .1Gs.800 feet. and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.Middle compass locator C.Outer compass locator. freezing precipitation. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu. Moderate turbulence. C.5. which are prohibited during critical phases of flight.050m.C. .650 meters. A X 10. Mach. C X 5.PEK.HUR. B. and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. unable to climb 500 ft/min..Two A X 9. C. a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A. both a and b C X 6. A X 14. A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A.2. A X 8..Invulnerability: C.From. C. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of .From.IDK.Below.Lower than at low weight.Five B.Impulsivity: C X 12.weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.3.Activities. C.Higher than at low weight. wind.3.250m. B.21hours B X 13. B. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots. A X 7.. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A. C. reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.1.75 Mach. include that A. B.Four C.20 Mach.19hours B.．"Do something quickly!".The same as at low weight. filling out logs B.Macho B. making passenger announcements C.What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 238 with only 200 passengers aboard? A. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature. the minimum safe altitude is A. Vacating an altitude. For an airport without air corridor.20 to 2.. A X 11. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2.950m.20 hours C.75 to 1. and airport elevation? A.At what Mach range does de subsonic flight range normally occur? A. B.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a four pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A.trip number and weight and balance data.minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B. C X 19.The aircraft dispatcher.A.Compass locator C X 18.000 feet B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots. C.YV.any flight crewmember. and load manifests for at least A. 250 knots C. C. C. dispatch releases.737 feet per minute. Below that altitude.1.500 feet B X 20. (Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.DK.632 feet per minute.flight engineer or navigator. B.000 meters. 330 knots A X 22. which normal cruising speed is 150 knots? A.2.Director of operations. who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather.Surveillance radar C.055 C.. and irregularities of facilities and services? A. C.30 days. A X 21. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. B X 15..Air route traffic control center.VOR/DME FIX B.3 months. C X 24. C. B. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A.any required pilot crewmember.2.285 B.. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 not applies to A.WF. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A. B. except when in cruise flight. B.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A. are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? . A X 16. C.000 feet C. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. A X 23.6 months.50 kilometers.843 feet per minute.40 kilometers. 150 knots B.46 kilometers. By regulation.235 B X 17. what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.. B. B X 31. C. A X 28.Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. C. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power.Series A and Series D. B.ATP . C. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A.G.B-727 only. C. does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur? A.000 meters. A X 29.. C.000. ZHHH B X 26.Aid in longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn. B. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into A.WIND COMPONENT: 20HW. B. B X 34.Reduce the wings' lift upon landing.DC-9 and DC 3.. C. and DC-9. Series C and Series D. DC-3..ATP .Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. C..Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.DISTANCE (NM): 120. .Minimum fuel supply and trip number. B. ZUUU C. B.8 feet. 6. B X 32.Series A and Series C.A speed equal to that for L/DMAX. B X 30.S.600 meters.A speed greater than that for L/DMAX. Commercial . (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A. 3.. pilots should fill in the box of TYPE OF FLIGHT with letter A. For scheduled airline. B. C. (According to figure 2) . A X 25. with reference to L/DMAX.DC-9. [Refer to Figure 4-41.For which purpose may flight spoilers be used? A.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84. A X 27. Commercial .12 feet. which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A.B-727 and DC-3.A speed less than that for L/DMAX. and a statement of the type of operation. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A.A. B.Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.30 minutes. C X 33.R. 3.. C. ZSSS B. B.000 meters.10 feet.ATP ..B-727. B.Series A. At what speed. .245 feet.which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A. and altitude decreases C X 37. beginning of rain at the surface B. C.262 feet.1330 Beijing Time.360 feet. and never in climbs or descents B X 39. B X 43.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C. indicated airspeed decreases. and altitude increases C. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. C.. Frontal fog. and altitude decreases B.1.the use of full cabin heat during take-off can degrade the aircrafts take-off performance B.All recorded information may be erased.All recorded information may be erased. aircraft pitches down. C. frequent lightning C. pilot should file flight plan at least before A. In stable air associated with a high pressure system usually occurs? A.．When using cabin heat in light single-engined aircraft it should be remembered that A. B X 35. B. [Refer to Figures 4-22 and 4-24.Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C X 44..Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased C. B.B.45 minutes.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A.29 minutes.there is a possibility that carbon monoxide can be introduced directly into the cockpit through exhaust leaks in the heart exchanger C. indicated airspeed decreases.1300 Beijing Time..Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A.cabin heat should be used in cruising flight only. unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.1. B. except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. the altitude of LOM is 1. aircraft pitches down... continuous updraft C X 41. indicated airspeed increases.Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. C.1230 Beijing Time.1. B. aircraft pitches up.] What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1? .What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)? A. B X 42.Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. C X 36.administer oxygen B.．Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.give plenty of water A X 40. C. B. Advection fog. If the estimated time of departure is 1400 Beijing Time. Radiation fog. B X 38.360 feet. Cargo and passenger distribution information.2.RVR 1. B X .A.Precludes a rejected landing.503 pounds.2. B X 45.000 meters.200 feet.0MHZ C. B.000 meters.DH 50 feet and RVR 1..Must be adhered to. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B.600m.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A.Copy of the flight plan. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? A.Does not preclude rejected landing. climb and descent when below 3.1MHz B. B. B X 54.What are the lowest Category IIIA minimum? A. taxi. C.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 30HW A. C.01 EPR. A X 48. B. that the pilot accepts: A.ahead of a cold front C.in an occluded front B.A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance. B. B.122.behind a stationary front B X 53.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1.122.Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone C.500m.11. takeoff.Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B.754 pounds.Below FL180.Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) A. B X 51.500m..11.Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline B. takeoff. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C. A X 52. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. C X 46. [Refer to Figure 4-45.. B.11. en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.RVR 700 feet.04 EPR.123. climb and descent when below 3. C. C. and landing.Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone A X 49.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1.] What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 750.227 pounds.2..03 EPR.6MHz B X 50. and landing. C X 47.000 feet C. C. the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember.VMD.HUAIROU VOR/DME.Initial buffet speed. C X 60. cumulostratus C. towering clouds C X 63. C. C X 61. that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A.GUBEIKOU NDB.The descent moment on the course of 227o. B. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.Intermittent "bang. 4-23 and 4-24. B. B.] What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A. B. What characterizes a transient compressor stall? A.Critical Mach number. C.. B.VMU.What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? A. steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.144 knots. B.. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.. excluding briefing and debriefing. C.flag and commercial. B X 62. A X 58. or include on. what is the maximum time.Transonic index. A X 56. B.. In a 24-hour consecutive period.145 knots. 8times groundspeed in knots. C.Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine. B. and designated pilot in command are A. continue taxiing in the landing direction.supplemental and commercial. [Refer to Figures 4-22. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay.10 hours. C. (Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A. B X .8 hours.supplemental and domestic. A.Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3 glide path? A. The descriptive cloud should be.Loud. In flight.. B.10 times groundspeed in knots. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway. C. A X 64. C.55. pilots find forane clouds consisting of cloud bar and cloud band with flat floor and piled clouds on the top of some clouds. flight attendant. cumulus congestus B. A X 59.143 knots. A X 57. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to. C..5times groundspeed in knots.6 hours.VFC." as backfires and flow reversals take place. What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A. C. 750 feet.] What is the ground roll when landing with 15o of flaps at a landing weight of 122.．As a general rule. B. convective turbulence.2.. whichever is higher.000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.750 feet.. altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect.Turbulence encountered above 15.000 pounds? A. B X 67. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. B. C. Radiation fog usually appears in . A X 72. B. A X 68. winter and autumn. C. if clear of clouds. C. C. supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude..What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. B. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B X 69. If not clear of clouds. B.8000 feet B X 71.ZSSS B. C. B. .15000 feet B. spring and summer.000 feet AGL. maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C.. C X 66. Clear air turbulence. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for trubojet aircraft? A..Immediately after ground contact.200 feet. B.ZWWW C X 74. should be reported as A. C. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. summer and autumn.10000 feet C. or to the MEA.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. Keep satety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.．The perception of color is a function of the A. [Refer to Figure 4-28.ZUUU C. A. maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA.1. Descend to MEA and. (According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.2.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. Fly the most direct route to the destination. proceed to the nearest appropriate airport.65. not associated with cloud formations. A X 73. High altitude turbulence. B X 70. C.Increased headwind component.136. VFR).B. C.Load manifest.950-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. B. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A.As air density increases. and weight and balance release.139. B.g. C X . Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.After applying maximum wheel braking.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3.000 pounds. IFR.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C.000 pounds.. or attached to. C X 78. C. A X 76. trip number. turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.Lower-than-standard air density.The Airplane Flight Manual must include procedures and performance data which allow for the safe operation of such a flight. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.12 hours. 350 knots B.As air density decreases.119. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A. A X 81..000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 79. thrust increases.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation. 330 knots C. C.Type of operation (e. B. load manifest.500 feet short of the end of a 4.. and cargo weight. Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large. thrust decreases. and flight release.Immediately prior to touchdown. and flight plan.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 1. B. Which information must be contained in. flight plan.As air density increases. B X 77.．person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. A X 75.The existing and forecast weather for departure. 250 knots C X 83. C. and approach must be VFR. en route.Dispatch release. B. flight plan. C. three-engine.. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.8 hours. B. C X 82. B.000 meters.000 pounds.Some passengers may be carried. C. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A.Passenger manifest.. which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A.24 hours. C. [Refer to Figure 4-25. A X 80.. company organization name. thrust increases.Dispatch release.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. What type navigation system is inertial Navigation System (INS)? A navigation computer which provides position A. 1.TCASII provides A.10.Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.1 NAV? A.transonic mach number C.Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings? A. B.-Improve aileron control during low angles of attack.By signals fro.-Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. B X 92. dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A. 500feet or less to another aircraft. (Refer to Figure 2-1and 2-2) To which aircraft position dose HSI presentation "C" respond? A.From radar-type sensors that measure ground speed and drift angles.critical mach number C X 93. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. B.7 C. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine airplane fails? A. C.5NM C.-Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing. A X 85. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.84. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A.Proximity warning C.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 90. C.From information by compass.000 feet or less to another aircraft. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.what is the free stream mach number which produce first of local sonic flow? A.7.0NM B. B. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A.12 C X 91.30 minutes B.5. C X .0NM A X 87. B X 89.supersonic mach number B. airspeed.6 B..．After been in exposed to normal lighting. and an input of wind and variation data.Traffic and resolution advisories B. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. self-contained gyros and accelerometers. 50 feet or less to another aircraft. C X 86.5 minutes. C..1 hours C. C. B. B X 88. B.Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent.Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway. A X 98. C. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.1KHz.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R. C X 2..94.Obstruction clearance plane... A X 100. B. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL.As altitude increases.As altitude decreases.What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab? A.000foot dry runway with reversers inoperative at 120. C. thrust increases. thrust decreases. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A. If a B-747(400) airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums. A plane. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control.150 feet.000 pounds gross weight? A..Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine operating. thrust decreases.118. .Area flight information center. MH 160°.Stopway.5KHz. C X 1.What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? .1MHz.". what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A. which is able to support the airplane.. receive this ATC clearance: ".Pilot in command. B.2. what frequency should be tuned? A. B.118.. B. What effect would a change in altitude have on the thrust output of gasturbine-engine? A. B X 96. C. C. B.118.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.As altitude increases. B. Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower..500 feet..2..] How many feet will remain after landing on a 6.750 feet.0 HUR to D16.Not more than 2 hours at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative. (Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34. B. C X 99.Aircraft dispatcher. C.Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces. [Refer to Figure 4-25. During a supplemental air carrier flight.Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. C.Director of operations or flight follower. C X 95.3. Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A. C.Clearway. B X 97. C.Airport flight information office.. counter clockwise outbound wind C. B.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A.VMCA.High-white. Standing lenticular. low-red.DH200'. C..High-white and green.VIS800m. authoritative and participatory.．In order to make an effective communication. what type leader the captain should be? A.If an air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 12 hours of duty in a 24consecutive-hour period. C.A.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty C. C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style.DH300'.. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90.When wing lift has been reduced.DH20'.an authoritative leader C.. the wind of low pressure area is . A X . B.At high ground speeds.a participatory leader B.Do not accept the clearance.RVR550m. the pilot should A. clockwise inbound wind B. C.Teardrop only B.When the wheels are locked and skidding. C. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)? A.Direct only C. on glidepath-green. C.VMC.Parallel only C X 3. A X 11. on glidepath-green.The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13hours as the CCAR part 121 limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours B X 10. In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere. C X 9. Cirrocumulus. If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation. What is the correct symbol for the Minimum Control Speed.High-white. Under which condition during the landing roll are the main wheel brakes at maximum effectiveness? A. low-red. B. what action is required? A.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. C X 7. C X 6. Ground? A. B.VMCG. B.counter clockwise inbound wind C X 5.. nimbostratus.The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours B.. low-red. A. B X 4. B. on glidepath-red and white. B X 8.VIS1600m.Read the clearance back entirely. . what was the approximate rate of descent? A. (Refer to Figure 2-6) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B. A. B X 16. C X 17. 4-50.9 minutes. flight engineer.One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.AVG WIND COMP (KTS): 15TW. B X 13.3 . The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons form admittance to the flight deck A.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. C. and 4-54.780 feet per minute. C.ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.80 Mach? A. C.4-53.1 minutes.propeller thrust only.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.shaft horsepower and jet thrust.2 C. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. [Refer to Figures 4-49.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.7 minutes. C.. A X 18.1 hours 02 minutes.54. B.800 feet per minute.] What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 400. (Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots. B.12.59.jet thrust only. What does the term of Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine describe? A.. [Refer to Figure 4-45.All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. B. C. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? A. A X 20. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"? A.1 hours 07 minutes. B X 15. or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.58. C X 21.1 hours 04 minutes. B X 14.1 B.a leak in the engine exhaust system C X 19. B..．Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.Only a pilot. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC.760 feet per minute.4-52. B. in the interest of safety..Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. C.] What is the ETE at . B. B. C.4-51. . What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A.. Elevator C.A X 22. B. Dorsal fin B X 26. ____prevents air flowing directly from the high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction.. A X 29.. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady? A. C. nearest CAAC district office. C X 25.5 hours 55 minutes. to the A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.CRUISE PRESS ALTITUDE: 27.FL 6.In terminal radar service areas C. C. as soon as practicable. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C X 31. B. ATC and dispatcher. Person who found the emergency.Above 12.processing information from the inner ear. A X 32.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Pilot in command. C. Person who heard the emergency. Inertial centrifugal force C.600m. When is DME required for an instrument flight? A. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. which of the following applies? A. B X 30.] What is the trip time for Operating Conditions below? DISTANCE (NM): 2500. Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace? A. C.FL 6.000m. C.．The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A..ISA TEMPERATURE: ISA..Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed. B. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. operations manager (or director of operations).300m. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.processing information from the eyes. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft.by combining and comparing visual. vestibular and postural cues.Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal. B. Coriolis deflecting force C X 23. Friction force.5 hours 20 minutes.Strong vibrations and loud roar.500 feet MSL A X 28. C.LANDING WEIGHT (*1000): 70 A.FL 6. B.5 hours 3 minutes.000. C. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. A.WIND COMPONENT (KTS): 50TW.At or above 24000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. B. B. A X 27. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight. Slats B. [Refer to Figure 4-43. the pilot in command must report it. B. A X 24. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.055 C. C X 40. C. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.86. (Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach. C. A X 38.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. B.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B. Which term describes the hydroplaning..87.46 kilometers.360 feet.8000 feet B X 39. B.235 B X 35.Y. C. B.83.1. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.000. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. .Reverted rubber hydroplaning. after reaching the most distant alternate airport..4 percent. C. C X 33. For an airport without air corridor. B. the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A. B X 36.．As a general rule.．Night vision is enhanced by A. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur.360 feet. [Refer to Figure 4-32. C.0 percent. (Refer to Figure 2-6) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A.15000 feet B. C X 42. which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction? A.40 kilometers.10000 feet C..285 B.Dynamic hydroplaning.Z. the approach controlled airspace may extends laterally from the edge of Class D airspace to radius of A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR. A X 34. the altitude of LOM is 1. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China . whichever is less. C.C.PRESSURE ALTITUDE: 35.I. B.] What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (*1000): 100. C X 41.4 percent. C. supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. should be A..50 kilometers.TOTAL AIR TEMP (TAT): -11oC A.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 37. B.Viscous hydroplaning. the pilot finds that there are uptowering clouds on the thick layer.166 B.during the entire flight. 350 knots B.When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible? A.When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.1. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A. C. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane. C.. B.600 feet or more.. and the workload B X 51.(to be continued Based on this situation. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. A.346 C.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A. altocumulus clouds C.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a headwind is encountered? A.1. 200 knots B. and the ability of he/she make use of the language B. A X 44. knowledge.．In a communication process. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. 250 knots C X 50.Maintain speed. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. personality. C.When the RVR is 1. false cirrus clouds A X 46. occasional light chop.354 . C X 45. attitudes. C X 43. and the social culture system C.245 feet. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. . These conditions include A. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. A X 48. C.. attitudes. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3.B. B.000 meters? A. Intermittent light turbulence.Decrease speed.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight.the sender's knowledge.262 feet.when the flight arrives.the sender and the receiver's skill. he predicts that there must be__in the sheet clouds.Increase speed. C X 47. When flying over the nimbostratus clouds.After passing the visual descent point (VDP).. knowledge. C. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No. Moderate chop. B. 330 knots C. some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release.the sender's skill. 170 knots C. 150 knots C X 49. B.) cumulonimbus clouds B. Over open sea. C..950m... A X 55.25 hours A X 58..050m. A X 59. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. B. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC.650 meters.C X 52.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.250m.Over domestic only. no. A X 54. The heat of the troposphere air is chiefly from .To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. C. B. B.Highest altitude where the mixture can be leaned to best power ratio. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. B..exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased C. yes.3. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. .exercising authority over initiating. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. C. B. the minimum safe altitude is A. If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots. the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the route is 2. Where is the critical altitude of a supercharged-reciprocating engine? A. C.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. C. A.Over domestic and open sea.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. B.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. A X 60. Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system. C. conducting. C X 53. Sudden decrease in a headwind component. B X 56. on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot). C..The highest altitude at which a desired manifold pressure can be obtained. A.Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and sink rate to decrease? A.24 hours C.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B X 61.The altitude at which maximum allowable BMEP can be obtained.3.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only.A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased B X 57.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. Sudden increase in a headwind component. or terminating a flight..2. Tailwind which suddenly increase in velocity.A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test B.17 hours B.An air carrier may schedule a pilot. highest cruise speed. under normal conditions.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A. B.Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with. C.I.Highest stall speed. B.Appropriate dispatch office C X 68. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.. which description is correct A. B X 63..at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.Any FSS C. along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A.B X 62. C. and highest stability. but a certificate is not required. spring in southern areas. C.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. C X 70. spring in northern areas. highest cruise speed. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway. B X 64. B.Lowest stall speed.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified.2005Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. A X 69. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A. C. B.Lowest stall speed. C. it is necessary for A. C.1905Z. (According to figure 4) at Lanzhou. C. and least stability B.What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A. Strong wind with sand storm C. Prior to the point where the jet touched down. The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. If the first portion of the flight is under VFR and the latter portion is under IFR. Smoke with overcast B.. summer in northern areas. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. B X 71. you should plan to lift off A. Strong wind and total sky obscuration C X 66.. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise..one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency.0005Z. lowest cruise speed. A X 67.Opposite direction. B.ARINC B. C X 65.Y. when exit the runway.Z.Some direction. B. . and least stability. 25 seconds B.C. B.000 meters? A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B. 200 knots B X 81. C.True altitude is lower than 31.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance.14 hours C.000feet. and airport elevation? A.Normally. C. It is a warm front.. wind.. The minimum speed during takeoff. following a failure of the critical engine at VEF. a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A. The persons jointly responsible for the initiation. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou.pilot in command and the flight follower.They are both the same 31. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature.Remains fixed for all positions.Higher than at low weight.Lower than at low weight. which weather system we coursed A. what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A. B X 78.The same as at low weight.pilot in command and director of operations.V2min . for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.10 consecutive hours of duty C X 80.pilot in command and chief pilot. and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A. It is a stationary front C.IDK.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C. B.．The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30. .An air carrier may schedule a pilot. B X 72.16 hours A X 74.HUR. B. 250 knots B.. continuation. is indicated by symbol A.1 minute B X 75. on a three-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot).PEK. C.45 seconds C. (Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A...If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310. It is a Cold frongt C X 76. diversion. C. B. B X 79.10 hours B. 210 knots C. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating below 3.000feet.000 feet is closest to A. A X 77. A X 73. B. B.100 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A. what action should be taken? .VLOF.．"The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs when A. (Refer to Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu. Mountain waves and severe turbulence A X 84.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B. Lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flight path. which weather system we would encounter A.5NM C..providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. C. how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected? A. maintenance. B X 85.. due to winds..10.Lift increases and the sink rate increases B. ATC.If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased.Lift decreases and the sink rate increases C X 91.5. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC. beverages. to proceed direct to the regular airport.400 feet.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C. It refer to A. C. A worm front and a upper jet C.B.Focus on the details and scan the big picture.500 feet.0NM A X 89.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight C. etC． C. Remain below the flight path of the jet airplane. or supplies).V1.0NM B.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 83.having the aircraft catered (foods. C. B. dispatch.．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable.FL 8. (Refer to Figure 2-3) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in nautical miles from the radial selected on the No.FL 39.1 NAV? A. B.an abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight B. B. B X 82. the pilot should A. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flight path.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.7. C X 88.Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases C. C. C X 86. A cold front and a upper jet B. C X 87.A and B C X 90.FL 29.. 1. B.The point cleared by ATC.WEIGHT (*1000): 92.HUAILAI.2.000. B. B. or airway specified in the vector clearance. A X 94. winter and autumn.732 pounds. B. summer and autumn. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft.0022Z.625 pounds. When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z.Unstable about the lateral axis C X 98.980 pounds. A.5. [Refer to Figure 4-34. who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. spring and summer. B..WEIGHT (*1000): 102. A stable layer of air.1.One hour and a half a time.3. B X 99. [Refer to Figure 4-34. B X 96.D38 to HUAIROU.1922Z.5. A X 100. Radiation fog usually appears in .Sluggish in rudder control C.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. no one have the responsibility during emergency situation.30 minutes a time. An unstable layer of air. C. If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency.. C X 93. C. B.. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. A X 97.3.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.023 pounds. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. route. (Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A. what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A.. C X 92. B. B X 95.Sluggish in aileron control.000.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.. Fly direct to a fix. C.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A. B.. How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.ENGINES OPERATING: 2.A.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A. C.Hourly. C. C.1952Z. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.440 pounds. C. C X . Air mass thunderstorms. C..240 pounds. 1.visibility 1. C. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The PIC on TNA 90 (CAT C aircraft operated under CCAR Part 121) has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the MD90. B X 8.．The decision-making process is quite complex.Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR. B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye. C. B.VIS800m. What are the minimums while flying the ILS RWY 36R to land at ZBAA? A.The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.Negative longitudinal static stability B. How are smoke cleared or dispersed? A. it can be condensed into the following six elements. four-engine.VIS1600m.DH20'.．The function of the ciliary muscles in the eyes is to A. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight? A.DECIED B X 3.-Neutral longitudinal static stability C X 7. may be the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart.．Hypoxia is always accompanied by A..move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.RVR550m..600m and ceiling 120m.The gross weight at takeoff may not exceed 75 percent of the maximum certificated gross weight.Impulsivity: C X 5. dizziness B. When proceeding to the alternate airport. which minimums apply? A.DH200'.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. By convective mixing in cool night air.DECIDE C.Macho B. A. however. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability C. C. B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. A.Invulnerability: C.. reciprocatingengine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. A commercial operator plans to ferry a large.DH300'. C X 4. C. B X 2. B.DICIDE B. . C.vomiting B X 9. A X 6. By wind or the movement of air.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in new position after the controls have been neutralized.．"Do something quickly!". A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A. is A.800hours B..12 calendar months.440 pounds. when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. if they have a flight engineer certificate. 170 knots B.1.6 calendar months.. C X 12. C. A X 14. The "age 60 rule" of CCAR Part 121 applies to A. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight. who may perform the flight engineer's duties? A.1000hours C X 15.24 calendar months. [Refer to Figure 4-34.any flight crewmember. what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A.1. B. increasing its A.any required pilot crewmember.732 pounds.camber C. in any calendar year.WEIGHT (*1000): 92.900 hours C. if qualified.Any flight crewmember. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate. B.not required to have a medical certificate..5. in an approved simulator. C.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 10 A. C.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. 150 knots C.C X 10.angle of attack B.Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach? A.The Krueger flap extends from the leading edge of the wing. wet snow.The second in command only. B. B. B. B.Compass locator C X 17. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? . 130 knots B X 18. A X 20. C.VOR/DME FIX B.required to have a first-class medical certificate. for no more than A.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 30.the pilot in command only.000. C.required to have a second-class medical certificate.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. C. Ice pellets.energy B X 19. Freezing rain. B X 16.An air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane. B X 13.Either pilot. A X 11.023 pounds.Surveillance radar C. A X 27. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A.When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale tight.8 feet. Light quartering tailwind. (Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.Porpoise. which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.244 feet.What is the condition known as when gusts cause a swept wing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other? A. or vice versa. Direct tailwind. is normally limited to A. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right.pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program.2. first serve basis.12 feet. B..10 feet. C. Light quartering headwind. B.Wingover. C. B.3.496 feet. C. B. B X 29.A. C. C X 28.When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection? A. when originally issued. B X 25.Identify REIL. 170 knots C. C.000 feet of runway. both a and b C X 24. during emergency C. or vice versa. B.1. 150 knots C X 23.Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold. B. (Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.2.000 feet B. B X 21.500 feet C.Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. A Category II ILS pilot authorization. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A. B. 200 knots B.Dutch roll C X 30. A.Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan.Amber lights for the first 2.000 feet C X 26.1. what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop aircraft departing an airport? A.. C X 22.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. B. C X .ground rain means that the hailstone disappears in the air B.Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway.. on a first-come.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C. C. C.When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right..900 feet. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? A.DH300'.600m.RVR 250m.X. (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No.N.346 C.17 hours B. Cumulonimbus C. and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A. the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. C.166 B.. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions.Aircraft dispatcher.Director of operations or flight follower. (Refer to Figures 1-4) The weather at ZBTJ goes below the PICs minimums and TNA 90 (a CAT C aircraft operating under FAR Part 121 ) diverts to the alternate ZBAA.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.does the first thing that comes to mind. load manifest (or information from it). Stratocumulus B X 40.31. QNH C.DH200'. . One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A. B.354 C X 35. for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. QFE A X 37. Upon arrival at ZBAA. B.VIS800m. C. C.25 hours A X 39.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.. and procedures as far as possible C.VIS 1..．Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making.Dispatch release.Pilot in command.RVR 200m.adopt all rules. on a four-pilot crew (including a secondin-commander pilot). During the period of Spring Festival. A X 33. if you are assigned to an additional flight. The PIC has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the MD 90. weather. C. C. B.Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.Dispatch release and weight and balance release.24 hours C. B. regulations. TNA 90 is cleared for A. In en route flight. A X 36. (Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines? A. A X 32. C X 38.VIS1600m. What are the landing minimums?)_DH20'. and flight plan.M.(续考题正文 an ILS/DME RWY 36R approach.An air carrier may schedule a pilot.RVR550m.. C X 34. Altocumulus B. B. you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up for GPS approach .16hours . it is necessary for A. Proceed as to cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is satisfactory . Smoke B. C. Continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured . B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.] What is the transition distance when landing on a dry runway at a gross weight of 125. C. A X 48.application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate.Propeller driven aircraft B. [Refer to Figure 4-25.The maximum duty time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a three pilot crew (including a second-in-commander pilot) without a rest period is A. C X 46.one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B.certificate holder's operations specifications. or use of.at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A.Turbojet aircraft C. any aisle in the passenger compartment. A X 43. B.3/4 engine aircraft B X 45.850 feet. C. plus 10 percent.Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. C. Select another type of navigation aid. C X 42.1. C.400 feet. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C X 49. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A. Group II aircraft are A. The fuel required to fly to the alternate. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. Sand storm B X 47..000 pounds? A.C X 41. any exit. but a certificate is not required. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to. B.200 feet.. or use of. the pilot should A. B X 44. Sand C. but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. B. C. by the applicant.the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified. B. 100m. B.Resolve discrepancies. A X 55.It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.. what minimum speed may ATC request of a arrival aircraft operating below 3. thrust increases.What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade? A. C X 57. thrust increases. relatively calm night. C X 56.000 meters? A. B. Not less than 250 knots B X 54. B. B. A X 53. B X 52. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. except 20 flying miles from threshold. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board.3.. C.Two A X 51. a speed not less than 210 knots. not less than 150 knots.As air density increases. C. C. Piston and turboprop aircraft. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.contradictory data or personal conflicts. C.As air density decreases. Piton engine and turboprop aircraft. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121.9. Terrestrial radiation on a clear. a speed not less than 150 knots. (Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.000m. except 20 miles from threshold.B. not less than 200 knots.000m. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation.17 hours C.Three C.It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. B.As air density increases.It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. B.Four B.．Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A. thrust decreases. not less than 170 knots. .12.. What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month.. a speed not less than 230 knots. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.18 hours A X 50. Turbojet aircraft. C. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else.Actual pressure at field elevation. C. B.ATMB NOTAMs office.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. including military what has a crash an rescue unit.one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C.one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties. B.2. B. 350 knots B. B. what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3. C X 65. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A..11 C X 64. C. . C. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time.. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated A. (Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.980 pounds. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "I" correspond? A.000.at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. B X 63.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. B.240 pounds. B X 61. C. B X 60. B X 62.3. Land at the nearest airport.000 meters.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.Altimeter setting.what is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? A. B. C. Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B X 58.3.] What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25.240KHz.114.Which pressure is defined as station pressure? A.parasite drag increases more than induced drag B..308KHz. When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation. which normal cruising speed is 350 knots? A. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.B.5.Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan.7MHz. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer.625 pounds. 250 knots C X 59. both parasite and induced drag are equally increased. B X 66.4 B. 330 knots C. induced drag increases more than parasite drag C.12 C.WEIGHT (*1000): 102.. C. [Refer to Figure 4-34. (according to figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z.Aircraft dispatcher.．In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents. who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A.ATP .DC-9.300m.FL 6.FL 6.Level 2 — Failure to comprehend the situation C. .B-727.ATP .Clearway.ATP .. C. visibility 4 km. C. visibility 4 km C.Director of operations or flight follower.Obstruction clearance plane.12 hours A X 71. DC-3. Light fog.8 hours B.a third-class medical certificate.. B.V1.To exercise ATP privileges a pilot must hold A.. C X 74. light rain shower. B..Stopway.Pilot in command.B-727 only. During a supplemental air carrier flight. A. B X 73.Level 3 — Failure to comprehend the situation into the future A X 76.a first-class medical certificate. B. visibility 4000 m B X 69.Lights are closer together and easily distinguished from surrounding lights B. What is the name of a plane beyond the takeoff runway. C. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway? A. Commercial . Most Of them were classified as)Level 1 — Failure to correctly perceive the situation B. which is able to support the airplane.000 feet of runway for a caution zone C. B. B X 75. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec.(To be continued，incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. heavy rain.The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a carrier may schedule a pilot in a two pilot crew without a rest period is A. Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff? A. B.VLOF. B.V2.000m. What is the correct symbol for takeoff decision speed? A. B X 70. Southwest wind at 6 m/sec.10 hours C. C.B-727 and DC-3.A X 67. Commercial .a second-class medical certificate.000 feet of runway for caution zone B X 72. C X 68. Using the taxonomy.The first holding pattern altitude. and the weather then is ____. C.Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3. C. and DC-9. Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.Amber lights replace white on the last 2. B. What pilot privileges may be exercised? A. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.DC-9 and DC 3. -Increase the camber of the wing.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A.M0900. C X 78. C X 81. Elevator C.Within the previous 6 months.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A.000 meters.High-pulsing white. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence. B. C. B X 85. 45 minutes at holding altitude.White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white C.1945Z. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? A.High-pulsing white.S9000.1915Z.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B. six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. C X 84..．Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. on course and on glidepath-steady white. B. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. low-pulsing red.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. C. slightly below glide slope steady red.M9000. Upon arriving at the most distant airport. B. A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. It refer to A. six ILS approaches.Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white C X 79. .1845Z. B. Dorsal fin B X 83. B X 86. B. low-pulsing red. C. whichever is less. off course but on glidepath-pulsing white and red.High-pulsing white. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption. on glidepath-green.Green yellow and white beacon light B. C.. B.How can a pilot identify a military airport at night? A. pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.What are the indications of the pulsating VASI? A.B X 77. low-pulsing red. B X 80. C. or 90 minutes at normal cruise. Slats B. If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9. whichever is less.Within the previous 6 months. on glidepath-steady white. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong C X 82. C.Within the previous 12 calendar months. C.7SM from PEK..Visual Flight Regulation. B.11. What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using? A. "fair". "good". the pilot-incommand could descend it to A.1.800 feet..FL138.7NM from PEK.. C X 94. B. A plane.] How much longer is the wet runway landing distance using brakes only compared to using brakes.000 pounds? A.7KM from PEK. B.FL128.Approach Control Regulation. A X 96..One engine. continuous flow reversal stall. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began..Transient "backfire" stall.. "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms.the movement of the weather system B X 90. C.DME C X 92. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL. A. B.000 pounds gross weight? A.the property change of the underlying cushion C..1. C. B.. the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to.Airborne radar C.11.Teardrop only B.300 feet. C. . A X 91. MH 160°. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage? A. [Refer to Figure 4-26. on a multiengine aircraft B.11.Intermittent "backfire" stall. C X 95. (Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o. [Refer to Figure 4-28. A X 87.. C.".What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Steady.Direct only C.] How much will landing distance be reduced by using 15o of flaps rather than 0o flaps at a landing weight of 105.000 feet. Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Instrument Control Regulation.300 feet. C X 93.300 feet. (Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.. B. receive this ATC clearance: ". C. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.FL158... While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace.the change of sun radiation B. C. . spoilers and reversers at 130.B.500 feet. A X 88.Parallel only C X 89. 750 feet. A X 97.500 pounds? A.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.As air density increases.As air density decreases. B. C. C. B X 100.. C.pilots. C.900 feet. B. (Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A. C..244 feet. navigators. first serve basis. "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms.from headwind to tailwind. What taxi action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport? A.only pilots B. during emergency C.. B.Minimum takeoff speed. B. "fair". B X 99.350 feet.from right crosswind to left crosswind A X 2. thrust decreases.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. C.Takeoff decision speed. A X 3. flight engineers and batmen. because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. on a first-come. B X 4. exit the runway at the any suitable taxiway.1. thrust increases.from left crosswind to right crosswind. Which is a definition of V2 speed? A. or make a 180 degrees turn on the runway if overshot a expect taxiway.2.. A. [Refer to Figure 4-28. both a and b C X .1.. C X 1.. What effect would a change in air density have on gas-turbine-engine performance? A. C X 98.496 feet. the wind direction usually changes .Takeoff safety speed.B.. but do not include flight attendants. When can a pilot expect landing priority? A.2. continue taxiing in the landing direction. C. the percentage of the proximate braking action.As air density increases. thrust increases.] What is the ground roll when landing with 5o of flaps at a landing weight of 107.1. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere. only use "good". C. B.000 feet. B. C.logged 100 hours' in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A. from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. C X 9... B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. A X 7. occasional light chop.VS.115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway B X 6. C.Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. decrease altitude for a tailwind.Increased headwind component. one-third to two-thirds of the time? A.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight. Holding line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of tour lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of taxiway.entering approach controlled airspace. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A.5.．Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A. under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. B.VSO. erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. C.Higher-than-recommended airspeed before rotation.VS1. A X 11. A pilot is operating in Class G airspace... B X 13. Moderate chop. B.a feeling of euphoria A X 10. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.reduced visual field C.70 percent of the actual runway available. C. B.Increase altitude for a headwind.Lower-than-standard air density. C X 12. B.several headache B. B X . B. B.. These lines are A. Intermittent light turbulence. Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in a specific configuration? A. A X 8. C. C. C.White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight.10 takeoffs and landings in make and model and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of preceding month.Increase speed for a headwind. an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. Which condition reduces the required runway for takeoff? A.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums..Increase speed for a tailwind. at least six Category II approaches in IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. ZSSS C. B. upward. can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic A X 19. Inward.climbed to the appropriate altitude. C.500 feet B X 20. B X 21. C X 24. and around the wingtip.000 feet B.. .000 feet C.ZUUU B X 17. B.000 pounds gross weight.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. Outward.2. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. and around the wingtip.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. C. Wind shear.．When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.the red blood cells B. B.2.000 pounds gross weight.retina B. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. (Refer to Figure 2-12) what is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A. You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A..ZBAA B. Light and variable.Use of three reversers at 131.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.Proximity warning C.Use of brakes and spoilers at 125.Use of three reversers at 133. B X 22. C. C.iris A X 16. ． Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A.cornea C. C.Traffic and resolution advisories B.. yes.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. B.the plasma C..．The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A. B.TCASII provides A. [Refer to Figure 4-27.received an ATC clearance.14.1.000 pounds gross weight. Frontal passage.. C X 23. (Refer to Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.slowed down to the final approach IAS.hemoglobin C X 15. upward. C X 18.900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.. C.] What thrust is required to maintain level flight at 110.136. C. C X 31. flaps 40o. no.400-foot dry runway with reversers and spoilers inoperative? A. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. B X 25. [Refer to Figure 4-25. with gear down.2015Z.6 only A X 30.17.-Increase the camber of the wing.4-53.556 pounds.．Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. and experiences a delay.500 pounds.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. C.500 pounds.] What is the total fuel required at .4-52.infinity.000 pounds.(To be continued，This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately)one to two meters.Outboard ailerons.9and6 B. B.1945Z. C X 29. and 4-54.Tabs.. and an airspeed of 118 knots? A. no.80 Mach? A.500 pounds. B X 26. B.-Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. B. B X 28.Flaps. C.836 pounds. B. [Refer to Figure 4-30.Which of the following are considered primary flight controls? A. B X . [Refer to Figures 4-50.Possible causes of accidents or incidents C X 33.9 only C.300 pounds. B X 27. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z.B.4-51.(Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5)To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A... C.0045Z.140.] What is the maximum landing weight which will permit stopping 2.22.000 pounds.What is a purpose of flight spoilers? A. A.22. A X 32. C.420 pounds.-Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land.five meters.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.800 pounds. C.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.000 feet short of the end of a 5. C. B.22.117. B.22. B.20. A point at which the aircraft will be clear of runway C. braking action is "good" C.．Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight？ A.Use of three reversers at 113. which weather system we coursed A. B.000 pounds gross weight.Which of the following phraseology is suitable for a pilot reporting a braking action on well condition to ATC? A.500 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A. or diminished. airspeed performance B. .A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by tower B. C.. .] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5.Use of three reversers at 115.Use of brakes and spoilers at 120. It is a Cold frongt C X 42.Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move? A. decreased takeoff distance C.Some direction. dispatch. braking action is "fair" B. which faces the runways and is visible to the pilot. What effect does landing with increased weight have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. C. etC． C. maintenance.. B. should be A.Use of brakes and spoilers at 105. B. A X 38.The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.500 pounds gross weight. wind.A and B C X 36.000 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A.. (Refer to Figure 2-9) This sign.000 pounds gross weight. A X 39. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.34.Lower than at low weight.Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity? A. and airport elevation? A. C.Higher than at low weight. B. increased climb performance immediately after takeoff A X 43.Use of three reversers at 124. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. whichever is less. It is a warm front..Opposite direction. A X 35. ATC. braking action is "100%" B X 37. indicates A. (Refer to Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou. B.The same as at low weight.000 pounds gross weight. B. after reaching the most distant alternate airport. It is a stationary front C.Use of three reversers at 120.000 pounds gross weight. C. B.Remains fixed for all positions. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.000 pounds gross weight. B X 40. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China ..Solicit input from all crew members including cabin. [Refer to Figure 4-27. loss of. A X 41. [Refer to Figure 4-27.] Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A.the receiver's expectancy A X 48.high environmental noise levels B.when the flight arrives. isolated cumulonimbus C X 47.. flaps 30o.．Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal.fatigue C.The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C. B X 45.．Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.both A and B C X 52.Neutral dynamic stability. C X 50. B X 46.Positive dynamic stability. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.800 pounds. C.Positive static stability. the water drop sublimates to an ice particle upon impact. volcanic ash B.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCASII.000 pounds.. C. and an airspeed of VREF + 20 knots? A. embedded thunderstorms with hail C. as ATC has radar contact B.B X 44. Fog. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.000 pounds.during the entire flight.Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original after the controls have been neutralized. . B X 49.smoking and alcohol B. Strong wind..What is a feature of supercooled water? A. B. B. What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. or use of. External factors include A.The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. B.Request ATC clearance for the deviation C.17. weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. any exit.11. B. C.Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable C X 53. [Refer to Figure 4-30. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to.] What thrust is required to maintain a 3o glide slope at 110. resolution advisory (RA) is expected to A. A.No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents A X 51. B.What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice? A. or use of. Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation. any aisle in the passenger compartment. Severe mountain wave. C. with gear down.200 pounds.9. Three C.57 minutes. runway is closed or unsafe runway.Lower air density and engine mass flow will cause a decrease in power. B. takeoff. A X 55. clear to land with caution. B X 58. B.55 minutes.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 71.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 25. What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A.destination airport. C. which altitude could it descend to? A. C. C X 61.FL168.81 EPR.Two A X 59.WIND COMPONENT: 30TW.alternate airport.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A. and landing.Four B.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway. . then clear ice accumulates.5. C. flight engineers and batmen.only pilots B. navigators. C X 56.216 knots and 1.223 knots and 2.62 EPR.219 knots and 1. no aircraft are allowed to land.WEIGHT (*1000): 102. C.000. [Refer to Figure 4-41.the absorption of ground radiation by the air.DISTANCE (NM): 200. The heat of the stratophere air is chiefly from ..000 meters. B X 54.provisional airport.34 minutes.FL148. and landing. climb and descent when below 3.the absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B. taxi.000. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 67 passengers on board...FL158. (Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o. C.. C X 63. A X 62. B X 60. C. the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. takeoff. B. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: A.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. B. B.. What effect will an increase in altitude have upon the available equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine? A. what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. .. [Refer to Figure 4-34.000 meters.C. C. but do not include flight attendants.all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position. B X 57.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 40 A.The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include A. B. climb and descent when below 3. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0℃ until it impacts a part of the airframe.pilots.01 EPR.the absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C. A. FL 6. 40 degrees. 1. . B.transition training. When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. C X 71. B..FL 6.762 feet. the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater A.. C. the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course.DH65m，RVR550 B X 69.. The PIC has 759 hours and 312 landings. B.7 hours.difference training. C. what height above the airport could it descend to? A.(To be continuedthan _____and to provide at least _____straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept. C. but not if it is "all cargo" C. in the B-777 while operating under Part 121. and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots.300m. for the PIC?)_DH95m，VIS1600 B.Conducted IFR. B.B. 30 degrees. B. An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A. if the flight will be A. B X 66.6 hours. C X 68. C.870 feet. The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A. A X 64.upgrade training. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation.Carrying passengers.5 km A X 67.. (Refer to Figure 1-2) The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747.DH65m，RVR600 C. 2 km C. C.(续考题正文 What are the minimums for the ILS RWY 02 approach at ZUCK. 2 km B. while operating under Part 121.8 hours.000m. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. the pilot may make a chance between A and B A X 70.FL 600m. A.) 30 degrees.Higher propeller efficiency will cause an increase in usable power (ESHP) and thrust. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A.Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route B. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL.. If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. as PIC. and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather A X 65. after advising ATC of the situation.Power will remain the same but propeller efficiency will decrease.An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch. A X 81. C.quite different to those of hypoxia B..profuse sweating B X . (Refer to Figure 2-3) Which OBS selection on the No. gear and flaps up.quite similar to those of hypoxia C.2. Heavy. Sand C.000. gear and flaps down. Person who heard the emergency. (According to figure 4) The weather phenomenon at Lanzhou is A.3. C.346 C.. [Refer to Figure 4-41. slow. gear and flaps down. C.HOLDING TIME AT ALT (MIN): 15 A.．The symptoms of hyperventilation are A.Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.C. C X 79.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C. B. Smoke B.．Night vision is enhanced by A.30 minutes.DISTANCE (NM): 120.29 minutes. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping? A.looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view B. Sand storm B X 76. B X 75.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO ? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. Heavy. B.166 B.354 C X 80.. Person who found the emergency.000 feet B.Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases. (Refer to Figure 2-12) What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9? A.2.WIND COMPONENT: 20HW.Select reverse-pitch after landing and use idle power setting of the engines. slow. B. C. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated A X 77. B. Heavy..500 feet C.] What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions below? WEIGHT (START TO ALT): 84.．Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A.000 feet C X 73.755 feet. A X 78. Pilot in command.45 minutes.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. fast.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C X 72. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? A. B. B X 74. breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C. The same true airspeed and angle of attack B.．A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. C X 83.fly with a head cold B.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light.increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. Hazardous weather warning A X 90.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low C X 87.What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? A.. B.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris.decrease due to higher density altitude. C. C. A X 91. C.110 knots. B.000.. At what minimum speed (rounded off) could dynamic hydroplaning occur on main tires having a pressure of 121 PSI? A. Aerodrome warning C.Drag increases because of increased induced drag.90 knots. B. B. The statement is A.HOLDING TIME (MIN): 30 A..7and 11 B X 86.217 knots and 1.ENGINES OPERATING: 2. . An unstable layer of air. Air mass thunderstorms.remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease in air pressure.Drag decreases because of lower induced drag..96 knots. B. thrust output will A..right B.] What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions below? ALTITUDE: 35. A X 92.．The blind spot is A. An outside air pressure decreases.What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased? A. Wind shear warning B. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack C. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack B X 85. C. A stable layer of air.223 knots and 2.11 B. The abbreviated plain language " WS WRNG " expressing A.83 EPR.82.01 EPR. [Refer to Figure 4-34.．Hypoxia may be caused by A.221 knots and 1. (Refer to Figures 2-4 and 2-5) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. C X 89. C.wrong A X 84. B X 88.95 EPR.WEIGHT (*1000): 100. B.Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A.5 and 13 C. 45 minutes at holding altitude.193 feet. A. B X . B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. B..308 feet. C X 98. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption. B X 97..B X 93. C X 94. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required. or 90 minutes at normal cruise. Upon arriving at the most distant airport. What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing? A.Z.. B.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage. C. QNE B. This phenomenon is referred to as .Y. (Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL. QNH C. what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? A. what is the valid period of time.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route. dowdraft B X 96. B. There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. B. From 08Z to 22Z... the absence of clouds in the area B. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. C. A.I. From 14Z to 22Z B X 100. pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.plume B. QFE A X 99.Apply full main wheel braking only. C. C.virga C. the altimeter setting is A. whichever is less. an area where precipitation drops are not detected C X 95. In en route flight.200 feet. C. In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3. what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A. an area of no convective turbulence C. whichever is less..