Biology test bank

Chapter 01 Exploring Life and ScienceMultiple Choice Questions 1. The scientific study of life is called: A. biology B. ecology C. anatomy D. biochemistry E. limnology 2. A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a/an A. community. B. population. C. organism. D. tissue. E. species. 3. All of the ecosystems on the planet together are called the A. atmosphere. B. hydrosphere. C. biosphere. D. lithosphere. E. stratosphere. 4. In a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an A. organism. B. population. C. community. D. ecosystem. E. biosphere. True / False Questions 5. Organisms are composed of multiple cells. True False Multiple Choice Questions 6. The region in which populations interact with each other and with the physical environment is called A. an entity. B. an ecosystem. C. a biosystem. D. a community. E. a biosphere. 7. All of the changes that occur from the time an egg is fertilized through childhood, adolescence and adulthood are called A. metabolism. B. evolution. C. homeostasis. D. reproduction. E. development. 8. Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis? A. All living organisms are alike. B. Living organisms do not change much over time. C. Human beings and other animals acquire materials and energy when they eat food. D. It takes energy to maintain the organization of the cell. E. Cells and organisms must be able to maintain a fairly constant internal environment. 9. Viruses are not considered alive. Which of the following characteristics of living things do they lack? A. Living things reproduce. B. Living things have an evolutionary history. C. Living things grow and develop. 10. Four million years ago, horses were rather small compared to today's horses and had relatively stocky bodies with a straight shoulder and thick neck. This statement is an example of which biological concept? A. metabolism B. evolution C. development D. homeostasis E. reproduction 11. Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of all living things? A. Living things are organized. B. Living things acquire materials and energy. C. Living things contain a nucleus and organelles. D. Living things reproduce. E. Living things grow and develop. 12. The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky. This is an example of A. metabolism. B. homeostasis. C. response to stimuli. D. development. E. reproduction. 13. Choose the CORRECT order (1-5) of increasing complexity/organization. A. (1) tissues, (2) organ systems, (3) cells, (4) organs, (5) organism B. (1) cells, (2) organ systems, (3) tissues, (4) organs, (5) organism C. (1) tissues, (2) organs, (3) organ systems, (4) cells, (5) organism D. (1) cells, (2) tissues, (3) organs, (4) organ systems, (5) organism E. (1) organism, (2) organ systems, (3) organs, (4) tissues, (5) cells 14. The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called A. evolution. B. homeostasis. C. levels of organization. D. biological classification. E. molecular diversification. 15. The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of A. homeostasis. B. metabolism. C. evolution. D. reproduction. E. organization. 16. Fish have scales that enable them to live in a water environment. This is an example of A. homeostasis. B. adaptation. C. metabolism. D. development. E. cellular organization. 17. The Domain Eukarya contain(s) ______ kingdom(s). A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five 18. Traditions, beliefs, and values are considered what aspect of human life? A. communicative B. cultural C. instructional D. biological E. chemical 19. The cell you are examining under the microscope appears to contain a nucleus. This organism belongs to the domain A. Bacteria. B. Archaea. C. Eukarya. 20. Which organisms are most closely related to humans? A. spiders B. earthworms C. parakeets D. meerkats E. snakes 21. A species has been discovered that is able to live in boiling hot springs. This organism most likely belongs to the domain A. Archaea. B. Bacteria. C. Eukarya. True / False Questions 22. Humans evolved from apes. True False 23. Only humans have a language that allows us to communicate information and experiences symbolically. True False Multiple Choice Questions 24. Humans clear forests to grow crops, and they build houses and cities. What are these an example of? A. how humans modify the biosphere B. how humans preserve ecosystems C. the high value humans place on biodiversity D. the positive impact of humans on life on Earth E. how humans do not need the rest of life on Earth True / False Questions 25. Humans are part of the biosphere and must live in harmony with it if we are to survive as a species. True False 26. Humans have identified and named almost all of the almost 15 million species on Earth. True False Multiple Choice Questions 27. ________ observations are supported by factual information while _______ observations involve personal judgment. A. Subjective/analytical B. Objective/analytical C. Objective/subjective D. Objective/hypothetical E. Subjective/theoretical 28. Which of the following statements is an objective observation? A. This milk tastes funny. B. This package is larger than that one. C. I like this picture. D. This mattress feels hard to me. E. I think I am going to be sick. 29. What is the unifying principle of the biological sciences? A. Technology B. Anatomy C. Biochemistry D. Taxonomy E. Evolution 30. The tentative explanation to be tested is called A. a theory. B. a hunch. C. a hypothesis. D. the data. E. the conclusion. 31. The information collected during the experiment or observation is called A. a theory. B. a hunch. C. the hypothesis. D. the data. E. the conclusion. 32. Which of the following is not a basic theory of biology? A. Theory of ecosystems B. Cell theory C. Gene theory D. Theory of evolution E. Theory of gravity 33. The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be A. excess stomach acid. B. the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. C. drinking too much coffee. D. extreme stress. E. diets rich in meat products. 34. Which of the following statements is a hypothesis? A. If students buy the university meal plan, then they will eat more vegetables. B. Ginny gained 5 lbs her freshman year. C. Blake failed the test. D. There are more calories in french fries than in colas. E. I like my biology class better than my other classes. 35. A controlled study when neither the patient nor the examiner is aware of whether the patient is receiving a treatment, is called a/an A. statistical study. B. double-blind study. C. variable study. D. adaptive study. E. blind study. 36. In an experiment designed to test the effect of temperature on goldfish respiration, the temperatures that were changed represent what type of variable? A. control B. responding C. experimental D. correlative E. placebo 37. The purpose of informed consent is A. to determine whether a patient is acceptable for a particular study. B. to ensure that the doctor does not know which patient is receiving the treatment. C. to decide whether a patient goes into the test group or the control group. D. to ensure the patient knows the risks and is volunteering. E. to determine whether the treatment works. True / False Questions 38. If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group, the treatment was successful. True False 39. To make all subjects think they are receiving the same treatment, patients in the control group can receive a placebo. True False Multiple Choice Questions 40. One of the difficulties with publication of research in scientific journals is that it A. is technical and may be difficult for a layperson to read. B. is often out of context or misunderstood. C. is unverified and usually not referenced. D. displays bias. E. is designed to convince readers to purchase a product. 41. Which of the following URLs would you perhaps distrust in writing a scientific paper? A. .com B. .gov C. .edu D. .org True / False Questions 42. An important part of scientific research is repeatability. True False Multiple Choice Questions 43. The standard error tells A. how often the examiner made an error. B. how often the experimental variable was tested. C. the relationship between the control and test groups. D. whether or not the research has been published in a scientific journal. E. how uncertain a particular value is. True / False Questions 44. A probability value of less than 5% in a scientific study is acceptable. True False Multiple Choice Questions 45. Which of the following is an example of correlation without causation? A. HPV can cause cervical cancer. B. Illegal drug use causes an increase in crime. C. Helicobacter pylori can cause ulcers. D. People who commit crimes also consume bread. E. Parents have children. 46. In a graph, the experimental variable is plotted on the A. x axis. B. y axis. Yes / No Questions 47. Jessica is interested in a new vitamin pill her friend recommended. Her friend told her that it really helped her. Should Jessica accept this type of evidence? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 48. Choose the following interest group that should be held most responsible for the future roles of new scientific technologies. A. Scientists B. Politicians C. Clergy D. Professionals E. Everyone 49. In conducting a review of the literature on the Internet, which of the following sources would be the least reliable? A. The Centers of Disease Control B. The Cystic Fibrosis Foundation C. The National Institute of Health D. The Pasteur Institute E. Astrology and Medicine 50. After studying biology, it is hoped that you A. will become an animal rights activist. B. will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own well being and the Earth's. C. will get a high paying job as a biologist. D. will understand all there is to know about humans and biology. E. will dislike anything to do with biology. True / False Questions 51. Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to the interests of humans. True False Multiple Choice Questions 52. Scientists who have a financial stake in a company are now required to state that when they do research. This is an example of A. ethics in science. B. financial planning. C. a new business model. D. a biotechnology revolution. E. statistical significance. 53. Which of the following statements explains the atomic bomb and the benefit of nuclear physics to cancer therapy? A. Science and technology are not risk free. B. Science and technology are wrong. C. Science and technology are good for mankind. D. Science and technology are value-neutral. Chapter 01 Exploring Life and Science Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. The scientific study of life is called: A. biology B. ecology C. anatomy D. biochemistry E. limnology Biology is the study of life. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General 2. A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a/an A. community. B. population. C. organism. D. tissue. E. species. A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as an organism. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General 3. All of the ecosystems on the planet together are called the A. atmosphere. B. hydrosphere. C. biosphere. D. lithosphere. E. stratosphere. The biosphere is the sphere that contains all life, made up of all Earth's ecosystems. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 4. In a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an A. organism. B. population. C. community. D. ecosystem. E. biosphere. The alligators in a swamp are all members of one species and belong to a population. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General True / False Questions 5. Organisms are composed of multiple cells. FALSE Some organisms are single cells. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General Multiple Choice Questions 6. The region in which populations interact with each other and with the physical environment is called A. an entity. B. an ecosystem. C. a biosystem. D. a community. E. a biosphere. An ecosystem includes populations of organisms interacting with each other and the physical environment. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 7. All of the changes that occur from the time an egg is fertilized through childhood, adolescence and adulthood are called A. metabolism. B. evolution. C. homeostasis. D. reproduction. E. development. Development includes the changes that occur in an organism throughout a lifetime. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01.03 Summarize how the terms homeostasis, metabolism, development, and adaptation all relate to living organisms. Section: 01.01 Topic: General 8. Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis? A. All living organisms are alike. B. Living organisms do not change much over time. C. Human beings and other animals acquire materials and energy when they eat food. D. It takes energy to maintain the organization of the cell. E. Cells and organisms must be able to maintain a fairly constant internal environment. Homeostasis is the ability of living things to maintain an internal environment that operates under specific conditions. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.01.03 Summarize how the terms homeostasis, metabolism, development, and adaptation all relate to living organisms. Section: 01.01 Topic: General 9. Viruses are not considered alive. Which of the following characteristics of living things do they lack? A. Living things reproduce. B. Living things have an evolutionary history. C. Living things grow and develop. Viruses can reproduce in that they make copies of themselves and they do have an evolutionary history. Viruses do not grow and develop. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.01.01 Explain the basic characteristics that are common to all living things. Section: 01.01 Topic: General 10. Four million years ago, horses were rather small compared to today's horses and had relatively stocky bodies with a straight shoulder and thick neck. This statement is an example of which biological concept? A. metabolism B. evolution C. development D. homeostasis E. reproduction Evolution is the process by which a species changes through time. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.01.04 Recognize the special relationship between life and evolution. Section: 01.01 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 11. Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of all living things? A. Living things are organized. B. Living things acquire materials and energy. C. Living things contain a nucleus and organelles. D. Living things reproduce. E. Living things grow and develop. Not all living things have a nucleus and organelles. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.01 Explain the basic characteristics that are common to all living things. Section: 01.01 Topic: General 12. The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky. This is an example of A. metabolism. B. homeostasis. C. response to stimuli. D. development. E. reproduction. Movement in response to sunlight is an example of response to an external stimulus. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.01.03 Summarize how the terms homeostasis, metabolism, development, and adaptation all relate to living organisms. Section: 01.01 Topic: General 13. Choose the CORRECT order (1-5) of increasing complexity/organization. A. (1) tissues, (2) organ systems, (3) cells, (4) organs, (5) organism B. (1) cells, (2) organ systems, (3) tissues, (4) organs, (5) organism C. (1) tissues, (2) organs, (3) organ systems, (4) cells, (5) organism D. (1) cells, (2) tissues, (3) organs, (4) organ systems, (5) organism E. (1) organism, (2) organ systems, (3) organs, (4) tissues, (5) cells The levels of organization include: (1) cells, (2) tissues, (3) organs, (4) organ systems, (5) organism. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. Section: 01.01 Topic: General 14. The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called A. evolution. B. homeostasis. C. levels of organization. D. biological classification. E. molecular diversification. Evolution is the process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.01.04 Recognize the special relationship between life and evolution. Section: 01.01 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 15. The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of A. homeostasis. B. metabolism. C. evolution. D. reproduction. E. organization. Resistance in MRSA is an example of adaptation and evolution. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.01.04 Recognize the special relationship between life and evolution. Section: 01.01 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 16. Fish have scales that enable them to live in a water environment. This is an example of A. homeostasis. B. adaptation. C. metabolism. D. development. E. cellular organization. Adaptation provides members of a population with a better chance for survival. Fish scales are an adaptation to their environment. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.01.01 Explain the basic characteristics that are common to all living things. Section: 01.01 Topic: General beliefs.17.02. Traditions. fungi. Understand Learning Outcome: 01. A.02 Topic: General .02 Topic: General 18.02. and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. communicative B. animals. two C. The Domain Eukarya contain(s) ______ kingdom(s). four E. and values are considered what aspect of human life? A. chemical Cultural activities of humans include traditions. instructional D. biological E. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. five The four kingdoms in Domain Eukarya include: plants. cultural C. one B. Section: 01. and protists. three D. Section: 01. beliefs. and values. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere. 02 Topic: General 20.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. The cell you are examining under the microscope appears to contain a nucleus. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01.02 Topic: General .02. parakeets. Which organisms are most closely related to humans? A. therefore meerkats are the most closely related to humans.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. parakeets D. earthworms C. snakes All of these are animals.19. This organism belongs to the domain A. Archaea. spiders B. Only meerkats are mammals. Only domain Eukarya contains organisms that contain a nucleus.02. B. and meerkats are vertebrates. Eukarya. Bacteria. meerkats E. Only snakes. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 01. C. Section: 01. Bloom's Level: 4. 02.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. TRUE Humans are the only animals with this capacity. Only humans have a language that allows us to communicate information and experiences symbolically. and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. Eukarya. Humans did not evolve from apes.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 23. Bloom's Level: 1. This organism most likely belongs to the domain A. B. FALSE Today's apes are our evolutionary cousins. A species has been discovered that is able to live in boiling hot springs. Section: 01.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere. Bacteria.02 Topic: General True / False Questions 22. Apply Learning Outcome: 01. Humans evolved from apes. C.21.02 Topic: General .02. Bloom's Level: 3.02.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. Understand Learning Outcome: 01. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 01. Archaea. Section: 01. Archaea live in extreme environments. Bloom's Level: 2. What are these an example of? A. We are dependent on the rest of the biosphere and must preserve it. and they build houses and cities. Humans clear forests to grow crops. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 25.Multiple Choice Questions 24. the positive impact of humans on life on Earth E. Section: 01.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere. Section: 01. and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. often to their own detriment. how humans preserve ecosystems C. TRUE All living things on Earth are part of the biosphere. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01. Bloom's Level: 5.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere.02. Humans are part of the biosphere and must live in harmony with it if we are to survive as a species. and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. how humans do not need the rest of life on Earth These are an example of how humans modify the biosphere.02. the high value humans place on biodiversity D. how humans modify the biosphere B.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . Objective/hypothetical E.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere. Subjective/analytical B.03 Topic: General . ________ observations are supported by factual information while _______ observations involve personal judgment.02. A. FALSE Humans have only identified and named under 2 million species on Earth.03. Objective/analytical C.26. Humans have identified and named almost all of the almost 15 million species on Earth. Subjective/theoretical Objective observations are supported by factual information while subjective observations involve personal judgment. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 1. Objective/subjective D.02 Topic: General Multiple Choice Questions 27. and the role of culture in shaping that relationship. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. Section: 01. Section: 01.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. Bloom's Level: 1. This milk tastes funny. Bloom's Level: 5. This mattress feels hard to me. D.03. C.28.03 Topic: General 29.03. Technology B. E.03 Topic: Evolution--Darwin . B. Which of the following statements is an objective observation? A. What is the unifying principle of the biological sciences? A. Taxonomy E. Section: 01. Section: 01. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. This package is larger than that one. Anatomy C.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. The rest of the statements rely on personal opinion. I like this picture. Only the observation that one package is larger than another is objective--it can be measured.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. Biochemistry D. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01. I think I am going to be sick. Evolution The unifying principle of the biological sciences is evolution. Bloom's Level: 1. the data. D.03 Topic: General 31. the data. The tentative explanation to be tested is called A. a hunch. C. B. a theory.03. E. the conclusion. a theory. Section: 01.03.30. Section: 01. a hunch. the hypothesis. Data includes the information collected during the experiment or an observation. Bloom's Level: 2. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. D. the conclusion. The hypothesis is a tentative explanation to be tested. C.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. E. a hypothesis. Understand Learning Outcome: 01. The information collected during the experiment or observation is called A. B.03 Topic: General . Section: 01. B. Bloom's Level: 2. Theory of evolution E. Bloom's Level: 1. the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. diets rich in meat products. Section: 01.03 Topic: General 33. Understand Learning Outcome: 01. Theory of ecosystems B.32.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. The bacterium Helicobacter pylori is a major contributor to stomach ulcers.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method. The law of gravity is found in physics. drinking too much coffee. C. Cell theory C.03. Gene theory D. Theory of gravity The theory of gravity is not a biological theory. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. extreme stress.03 Topic: General .03. D. Which of the following is not a basic theory of biology? A. The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be A. E. excess stomach acid. 03 Topic: General . Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.03. variable study. is called a/an A. double-blind study. statistical study.34. Bloom's Level: 5. neither the patient nor the examiner is aware of whether the patient is receiving a treatment. E. I like my biology class better than my other classes.03 Topic: General 35. The other statements do not propose something that can be tested. Ginny gained 5 lbs her freshman year. B. There are more calories in french fries than in colas.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. C. C. D. Blake failed the test. Bloom's Level: 1. In a double-blind study.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method.03. E. D. adaptive study. then they will eat more vegetables. A controlled study when neither the patient nor the examiner is aware of whether the patient is receiving a treatment. If students buy the university meal plan. Which of the following statements is a hypothesis? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. B. Section: 01. Section: 01. If/then statements are often hypotheses. blind study. to ensure that the doctor does not know which patient is receiving the treatment. placebo The temperatures are being changed by the researchers and are called the experimental variables.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. experimental D. Section: 01. the temperatures that were changed represent what type of variable? A. D. Informed consent ensures that subjects know details about the research and that their participation is voluntary.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03. responding C. correlative E. Bloom's Level: 2. C. In an experiment designed to test the effect of temperature on goldfish respiration.03 Topic: General True / False Questions . E. control B. Section: 01. B. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.03 Topic: General 37. Bloom's Level: 2.03. to ensure the patient knows the risks and is volunteering. to determine whether the treatment works. The purpose of informed consent is A. to decide whether a patient goes into the test group or the control group.36. to determine whether a patient is acceptable for a particular study. 03. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.38. E. If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. Scientific journals are often technical and difficult to read and understand for those outside of the field. Section: 01. patients in the control group can receive a placebo. B. is unverified and usually not referenced.03. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. C. the treatment was successful. . displays bias.03 Topic: General 39.03 Topic: General Multiple Choice Questions 40. D. is technical and may be difficult for a layperson to read.03. Understand Learning Outcome: 01. FALSE If the control and test group show the same results. is designed to convince readers to purchase a product. Bloom's Level: 2. is often out of context or misunderstood.03 Recognize the importance of scientific journals in the reporting of scientific information. To make all subjects think they are receiving the same treatment. TRUE A placebo is a treatment that appears to be the same as that administered to the test group but contains no medication. Section: 01. One of the difficulties with publication of research in scientific journals is that it A. the treatment has no effect and the experiment is invalid. 03 Recognize the importance of scientific journals in the reporting of scientific information. . Bloom's Level: 2. Which of the following URLs would you perhaps distrust in writing a scientific paper? A. .gov C.03 Recognize the importance of scientific journals in the reporting of scientific information. . Remember Learning Outcome: 01. An important part of scientific research is repeatability.org URLs that end in . Bloom's Level: 1.03 Topic: General 41. results.03.03 Topic: General True / False Questions 42. Section: 01.03.com B.03 Topic: General Multiple Choice Questions .edu D. .Section: 01.com often represent companies that are intending to sell you a product and may not present trustworthy information. Section: 01. Understand Learning Outcome: 01. TRUE Another scientist should be able to repeat the experiment in a different location and get the same. or very similar. C. D. E. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.43. whether or not the research has been published in a scientific journal.04 Topic: General True / False Questions 44.03 Recognize the importance of statistical analysis to the study of science. the relationship between the control and test groups. how uncertain a particular value is. TRUE This is acceptable. B. how often the examiner made an error.04 Topic: General Multiple Choice Questions . The standard error is a statistical term that tells how uncertain a particular value is. Bloom's Level: 1. The standard error tells A. how often the experimental variable was tested. Section: 01. Section: 01.04.04. the less likely that results are due to chance. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Recognize the importance of statistical analysis to the study of science. but keep in mind that the lower the p value. A probability value of less than 5% in a scientific study is acceptable. Parents have children. B. In a graph. D. B.04 Topic: General 46. or testimonial evidence. this is anecdotal. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. E. Jessica is interested in a new vitamin pill her friend recommended.04. Helicobacter pylori can cause ulcers. y axis.45. Bloom's Level: 3. Bloom's Level: 4. C. and is not scientifically reliable.04 Topic: General Yes / No Questions 47.02 Interpret information that is presented in a scientific graph. The experimental variable is plotted on the x or horizontal axis. x axis. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Interpret information that is presented in a scientific graph.04. Should Jessica accept this type of evidence? NO No. Apply . the experimental variable is plotted on the A. Section: 01. Section: 01. Illegal drug use causes an increase in crime. Analyze Learning Outcome: 01. Which of the following is an example of correlation without causation? A. People who commit crimes also consume bread. Her friend told her that it really helped her. HPV can cause cervical cancer. Many people consume bread and consuming bread does not make you commit crimes. Section: 01.05. Understand Learning Outcome: 01.04 Topic: General . Scientists B. Choose the following interest group that should be held most responsible for the future roles of new scientific technologies. Bloom's Level: 2. which of the following sources would be the least reliable? A. Politicians C.04. Section: 01. The Pasteur Institute E. In conducting a review of the literature on the Internet. The Centers of Disease Control B.Learning Outcome: 01. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01.04.01 Explain the difference between anecdotal and testimonial data. A. Professionals E. Bloom's Level: 5. Astrology and Medicine The source Astrology and Medicine would be the least reliable. Section: 01:05 Topic: General 49.02 Interpret information that is presented in a scientific graph. The Cystic Fibrosis Foundation C.04 Topic: General Multiple Choice Questions 48. The National Institute of Health D. Everyone Everyone should be held responsible for the future roles of new scientific technologies.02 Discuss the need for the general public to have a general understanding of science and its relationship to society. Clergy D. 02 Discuss the need for the general public to have a general understanding of science and its relationship to society. Apply Learning Outcome: 01.50. will understand all there is to know about humans and biology. TRUE Technology. Bloom's Level: 3. E. Bloom's Level: 1. it is hoped that you A. B. the application of scientific knowledge. offers us ways to improve our lives. After studying biology. will become an animal rights activist. will get a high paying job as a biologist.01 Recognize the importance of ethics in scientific studies.05.05. will dislike anything to do with biology. it is hoped that you will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own wellbeing and the Earth's. Section: 01:05 Topic: General True / False Questions 51. Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to the interests of humans. After studying biology. D. will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own well being and the Earth's. Remember Learning Outcome: 01. Section: 01:05 Topic: General Multiple Choice Questions . C. Section: 01:05 Topic: General . B. statistical significance. D.52. Section: 01:05 Topic: General 53. Bloom's Level: 3. Scientists who have a financial stake in a company are now required to state that when they do research. a biotechnology revolution. Science and technology are good for mankind. financial planning. a new business model. Science and technology are value-neutral. A scientist who has a vested interest in the success of a product may not be honest in evaluating that product. Science and technology are wrong. C.05. There are often risks and benefits to science and technology. C. D. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 01. ethics in science. Bloom's Level: 5.01 Recognize the importance of ethics in scientific studies.01 Recognize the importance of ethics in scientific studies. This is an example of ethics in science. Which of the following statements explains the atomic bomb and the benefit of nuclear physics to cancer therapy? A. This is an example of A. Science and technology are not risk free. Apply Learning Outcome: 01. E. B.05. 01 16 Section: 01.03 Recognize the importance of statistical analysis to the study of science.02.01. Understand 18 Bloom's Level: 3. Analyze 5 Bloom's Level: 5.02 Describe the relationship between humans and the biosphere.01 Summarize the place of humans in the overall classification of living organisms. 5 Learning Outcome: 01. 3 Learning Outcome: 01.01 Describe the general process of the scientific method.01 Explain the difference between anecdotal and testimonial data. Apply 7 Bloom's Level: 4.04 6 Section: 01:05 5 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 4 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 5 Topic: General 44 .03 Recognize the importance of scientific journals in the reporting of scientific information.Chapter 01 Exploring Life and Science Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1. and adaptation all relate 3 to living organisms.01.02 Interpret information that is presented in a scientific graph. Learning Outcome: 01. 3 Learning Outcome: 01.03 16 Section: 01.04 Recognize the special relationship between life and evolution. 7 Learning Outcome: 01.02 Describe the levels of organization of life. 2 Learning Outcome: 01. 5 Learning Outcome: 01. 3 Learning Outcome: 01. Learning Outcome: 01. and the role of culture in shap 6 ing that relationship.01.01 Recognize the importance of ethics in scientific studies.05.02.03 Summarize how the terms homeostasis. 1 Learning Outcome: 01. development.02 Discuss the need for the general public to have a general understanding of science and its re 2 lationship to society.02 10 Section: 01.04. Remember 17 Bloom's Level: 2.02 Distinguish between a control group and an experimental group in a scientific test. Section: 01. Evaluate 6 Learning Outcome: 01. metabolism. 3 Learning Outcome: 01. 3 Learning Outcome: 01.03.03.01 Explain the basic characteristics that are common to all living things. 8 Learning Outcome: 01.05.01.04.03.04. The smallest unit of an element that still retains the chemical and physical properties of that element is called A. a molecular bond. D. Examine the section of the periodic table in Figure 2. B. Which element will behave similarly to C? A. of neutrons. of neutrinos. Si E. Ar D. Mg . the number of protons always equals the number A. In an atom. C. E. of quarks. an isotope. B. S C. a neutrino.Chapter 02 Chemistry of Life Multiple Choice Questions 1. a nucleus. an atom. E. 2. of electrons. Ca B. of neutron and protons.1. C. 3. D. True / False Questions 6. electrons. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 7.1) A. An element cannot be broken down by chemical means. Why is He over Ne in the periodic table? (Refer to Figure 2. The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of A. E. 64 D. . 32 E.4. protons and neutrons. 92 C. How many elements occur naturally? A. They both have the same number of electrons in their outermost orbital. D. protons and electrons. C. neutrons. They both have the same atomic mass. They both have the same number of protons in their nuclei. D. C. They both have the same atomic number. protons. B. They both have a full outermost orbital. 6 5. E. 112 B. both protons and electrons. What is the symbol for sodium? A. Ne C. 4 B. electrons. 5 C. S C. C. An element has its outermost orbital full and contains more than 2 electrons. Be has an atomic number of 4 and an atomic mass of 9. Dm 10. N E. So D. C D.8. N E. B. neutrons. He B. O 11. 9 D. protons. D. Isotopes of an element differ due to the number of A. Na B. 13 9. How many protons does it have? A. . neutrinos. Which element is this? A. E. An emulsion D. What is iodine 131. used in medicine to produce various images of organs and tissues. how many neutrons does C14 have? A. 2 B. Carbon dating is a common method employed in dating certain kinds of fossils. A colloid E.1. 12 E. True False Multiple Choice Questions . A tracer C. called? A. 8 D. Radiation can produce both positive and negative effects for humans. 14 13. A mixture B. It is based upon the radioactive decay of an isotope of carbon (C14). 4 C. A sensor True / False Questions 14. Referring to the atomic number of carbon attained from figure 2.12. B. hydrogen D. E. 16. CaCl2 is a salt that forms as the result of what type of bond? A. D. neutral C. a molecule. ionic True / False Questions . covalent B. A combination of two or more atoms of the same type is called A. covalent B. compound. mixture. atom. an ion. C. C. non-polar E. element. polar D. an atomic unit. B. E. a compound. hydrogen C. 17. ionic 18. colloidal E. D. Ca3(PO4)2 represents a/an A. isotope. Atoms that share electrons have what type of bonds? A. an isotope.15. the oxygen atom is larger than the hydrogen atom. hydrophilic molecules interact with water. hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water. C. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. Water molecules are cohesive. 22. The reason water is polar is because A. D. are relatively weak and can be broken rather easily. B. Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the Titanic? A. D. in polar molecules atoms share electrons evenly. C. D. Water is liquid at room temperature. involve the loss and gain of electrons. E. B. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. Hydrogen bonds A. E. 21.19. . True False Multiple Choice Questions 20. result in the formation of salts. Water has a high heat of vaporization. C. B. there is a transfer of electrons from the hydrogen to the oxygen. involve the sharing of electrons. result from the loss of neutrons by an atom. E. Water makes up 60-70% of total body weight. Water molecules are cohesive. To her surprise the water was really cold. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. Which property of water did she discover? A. A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H+ as a pH of 6. True / False Questions 26. Water has a high heat of vaporization. Water is a solvent. True False Multiple Choice Questions . On a warm day in April. D. the number of H+ is less than the number of OH-. the number of H+ is greater than the number of OH-. the number of H+ is equal to the number of OH-. This is an example of which property of water? A. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. C. Water molecules are cohesive. D. E. B. C. 25. Water is a polar molecule. In an acidic solution A. B. Tina jumped into the swimming pool. Water possesses hydrogen bonds. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. 24. B. E. William noticed blood mysteriously climbing up a capillary tube.23. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. C. 27. A solution containing 0.00001 moles of H+ has a pH of A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 E. 11 True / False Questions 28. The presence of a buffer in our blood is an example of homeostasis. True False Multiple Choice Questions 29. Joining small molecules (monomers) together to form longer chains (polymers) requires a process called A. a hydrolysis reaction. B. a dehydration reaction. C. monomerization. D. emulsification. E. disassembly. 30. Which of the following is not one of the four classes of organic molecules found in cells? A. vitamins B. lipids C. proteins D. carbohydrates E. nucleic acids True / False Questions 31. NaCl is not an organic molecule. True False 32. A hydrolysis reaction involves the loss of water. True False Multiple Choice Questions 33. Sugars with three to seven carbon atoms are called A. monosaccharides. B. disaccharides. C. trisaccharides. D. polysaccharides. E. steroids. 34. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide? A. glucose B. fructose C. galactose D. maltose 35. What passes through the digestive tract as fiber or roughage? A. Chitin B. Glucose C. Glycogen D. Starch E. Cellulose 36. Which polysaccharide is branched the most? A. cellulose B. starch C. glycogen True / False Questions 37. The main function of carbohydrates is for long-term energy storage. True False 38. Our body is capable of converting starch into glycogen. True False Multiple Choice Questions 39. Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are alike in that A. they are all made of glucose. B. they contain the same number of side chains. C. they have the same types of bonds between the monomer units. D. they are all found in animals. E. they can all be digested by our bodies. 40. A fat contains how many fatty acids? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 41. How are fats, phospholipids, and steroids alike? A. They are all solid at room temperature. B. They each contain a polar phosphate group. C. They each contain only 1 fatty acid. D. They do not dissolve in water. E. They all contain at least one carbon ring. 42. A fatty acid that contains only single bonds between the carbon atoms is considered A. saturated. B. unsaturated. C. trans unsaturated. True / False Questions 43. Fats are usually of animal origin while oils are usually of plant origin. True False Multiple Choice Questions 44. The sex hormones belong to which category of lipids? A. steroids B. fats C. oils D. triglycerides E. phospholipids 45. The membranes of cells are composed of A. phospholipids. B. fats. C. oils. D. steroids. E. triglycerides. True / False Questions 46. Fats and oils function well as energy-storage molecules because they contain carbon. True False Multiple Choice Questions 47. The monomer unit of a protein is A. fatty acids. B. amino acids. C. monosaccharides. D. polysaccharides. E. nucleic acids. 48. What makes each amino acid unique? A. the central carbon B. the R group C. the amino group D. the carboxyl group 49. Which of the following is not a function of proteins? A. quick energy B. support C. transport D. enzymes E. motion 50. An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure? A. secondary B. primary C. tertiary D. quaternary 51. When two amino acids combine via a dehydration reaction, A. a peptide bond is formed. B. the R groups are lost. C. water is added to begin the reaction. D. the carboxyl group of each join together. E. the amino group of each join together. True / False Questions 52. All amino acids are alike in that their R groups are polar. True False Multiple Choice Questions 53. The sides of the DNA ladder (backbone) are A. alternating carbons and nitrogens. B. the R groups. C. the nitrogenous bases. D. alternating nitrogens and phosphates. E. sugars and phosphates. 54. When an ATP molecule is used to supply energy, which of the following occurs? A. a phosphate bond is added B. a phosphate bond is broken C. oxygen is removed D. oxygen is added E. an adenine is added 55. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is NOT found in DNA? A. cytosine B. thymine C. uracil D. guanine E. adenine 56. Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide? A. phosphate B. nitrogenous base C. 5 ring sugar D. an R group E. a pentose 57. A species has 29% of its DNA composed of the nucleotide containing guanine (G). What percent does the nitrogen base thymine (T) equal? A. 58% B. 42% C. 21% D. 67% E. 29% 58. ATP carries energy in the form of high-energy A. carbohydrate bonds. B. peptide bonds. C. lipid bonds. D. phosphate bonds. E. hydrogen bonds True / False Questions 59. The function of RNA in the body is to store the genetic information in the nucleus. True False 60. ATP is called the energy currency of the body because it is a type of electricity. True False Chapter 02 Chemistry of Life Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. The smallest unit of an element that still retains the chemical and physical properties of that element is called A. an isotope. B. a nucleus. C. an atom. D. a molecular bond. E. a neutrino. An atom is the smallest unit of an element that still retains the chemical and physical properties of that element. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 2. In an atom, the number of protons always equals the number A. of electrons. B. of neutrons. C. of neutron and protons. D. of quarks. E. of neutrinos. In an atom, the number of protons always equals the number of electrons. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 3. Examine the section of the periodic table in Figure 2.1. Which element will behave similarly to C? A. Ca B. S C. Ar D. Si E. Mg Si or silicon will behave similarly to carbon because they are in the same column. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 4. How many elements occur naturally? A. 112 B. 92 C. 64 D. 32 E. 6 There are 92 naturally occurring elements. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 5. The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. protons and neutrons. E. protons and electrons. The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of protons. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 6. An element cannot be broken down by chemical means. TRUE An element is one of the basic building blocks of matter and cannot be broken down by chemical means. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions 7. Why is He over Ne in the periodic table? (Refer to Figure 2.1) A. They both have the same atomic mass. B. They both have the same number of electrons in their outermost orbital. C. They both have a full outermost orbital. D. They both have the same atomic number. E. They both have the same number of protons in their nuclei. He has a full outermost orbital with 2 electrons. Ne has a full outermost orbital with 8 electrons. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 8. Be has an atomic number of 4 and an atomic mass of 9. How many protons does it have? A. 4 B. 5 C. 9 D. 13 The atomic number gives the number of protons, so Be has 4 protons. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 9. What is the symbol for sodium? A. Na B. S C. So D. N E. Dm Na (short for natrium) is the symbol for sodium. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 10. An element has its outermost orbital full and contains more than 2 electrons. Which element is this? A. He B. Ne C. C D. N E. O He contains 2 electrons and Ne contains 10 electrons. Both have their outermost orbital filled. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.01.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 11. Isotopes of an element differ due to the number of A. protons. B. neutrons. C. electrons. D. both protons and electrons. E. neutrinos. Isotopes of an element differ due to the number of neutrons. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 12. Carbon dating is a common method employed in dating certain kinds of fossils. It is based upon the radioactive decay of an isotope of carbon (C14). Referring to the atomic number of carbon attained from figure 2.1, how many neutrons does C14 have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 E. 14 Carbon fourteen possesses two more neutrons than carbon twelve, for a total of 8 neutrons. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 13. What is iodine 131, used in medicine to produce various images of organs and tissues, called? A. A mixture B. A tracer C. An emulsion D. A colloid E. A sensor Tracers, such as iodine 131, can be used in medicine to produce various images of organs and tissues. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 14. Radiation can produce both positive and negative effects for humans. TRUE Radiation can be used beneficially but can also harm. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.01.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions 15. A combination of two or more atoms of the same type is called A. an atomic unit. B. a molecule. C. a compound. D. an isotope. E. an ion. Two or more atoms of the same type that combine are defined as a molecule. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 16. Ca3(PO4)2 represents a/an A. element. B. mixture. C. compound. D. isotope. E. atom. Ca3(PO4)2 represents a compound because it is a combination of different atoms. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 17. Atoms that share electrons have what type of bonds? A. covalent B. neutral C. hydrogen D. colloidal E. ionic Atoms that share electrons have covalent bonds. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry 18. CaCl2 is a salt that forms as the result of what type of bond? A. covalent B. hydrogen C. polar D. non-polar E. ionic CaCl2 is a salt that forms as the result of an ionic bond. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds. Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 19. Water makes up 60-70% of total body weight. TRUE Water is the most abundant molecule in living organisms. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions 20. Hydrogen bonds A. result from the loss of neutrons by an atom. B. result in the formation of salts. C. involve the loss and gain of electrons. D. involve the sharing of electrons. E. are relatively weak and can be broken rather easily. Hydrogen bonds are relatively weak and can be broken rather easily, but are very strong because there are so many of them. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.02.01 Describe how hydrogen bonds are formed. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry 21. The reason water is polar is because A. in polar molecules atoms share electrons evenly. B. the oxygen atom is larger than the hydrogen atom. C. hydrophilic molecules interact with water. D. hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water. E. there is a transfer of electrons from the hydrogen to the oxygen. Because the oxygen is larger than the hydrogen, the electron spends more time circling the oxygen, and therefore, water is polar. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.01 Describe how hydrogen bonds are formed. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry 22. Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the Titanic? A. Water is liquid at room temperature. B. Water has a high heat of vaporization. C. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. D. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. E. Water molecules are cohesive. Since frozen water is less dense than liquid water, ice, including icebergs, will float in liquid water. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry 23. On a warm day in April, Tina jumped into the swimming pool. To her surprise the water was really cold. Which property of water did she discover? A. Water molecules are cohesive. B. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. C. Water possesses hydrogen bonds. D. Water is a polar molecule. E. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. Water is a good temperature buffer because a great deal of energy is required to raise the temperature of water. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry 24. William noticed blood mysteriously climbing up a capillary tube. This is an example of which property of water? A. Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. B. The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. C. Water molecules are cohesive. D. Water has a high heat of vaporization. E. Water is a solvent. Water climbing up a capillary tube is an example of the cohesive nature of water. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.02 List the properties of water. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry 25. In an acidic solution A. the number of H+ is less than the number of OH-. B. the number of H+ is greater than the number of OH-. C. the number of H+ is equal to the number of OH-. In an acidic solution the number of H+ is greater than the number of OH-. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological systems. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 26. A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H+ as a pH of 6. FALSE A pH of 7 actually has 10 times fewer H+ as a pH of 6. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological systems. Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions 02. A solution containing 0. 5 C. Section: 02.27.02 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions . 9 E.00001 moles of H+ has a pH of A. 7 D.00001 moles) is the same as 1 x 10-5 moles. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 02. Apply Learning Outcome: 02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological systems. Bloom's Level: 3. TRUE A buffer maintains the pH within a normal range which is required for homeostasis.02 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 28. 11 This (0. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02. so the pH would be 5.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological systems.02. The presence of a buffer in our blood is an example of homeostasis. 3 B. Bloom's Level: 1. vitamins B. monomerization. Which of the following is not one of the four classes of organic molecules found in cells? A. Polymerization of monomers into polymers requires a process called a dehydration reaction. emulsification. Joining small molecules (monomers) together to form longer chains (polymers) requires a process called A.03 Topic: Chemistry 30. E. a hydrolysis reaction. Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions .03. B. Remember Learning Outcome: 02. C. nucleic acids Vitamins are not one of the four categories of organic molecules unique to cells. Bloom's Level: 1.29. carbohydrates E. a dehydration reaction. proteins D. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.01 List the four classes of organic molecules that are found in cells.02 Describe the processes by which the organic molecules are assembled and disassembled. Section: 02.03. lipids C. disassembly. D. D. Section: 02.01 List the four classes of organic molecules that are found in cells.01 Summarize the basic chemical properties of a carbohydrate.02 Describe the processes by which the organic molecules are assembled and disassembled. E. trisaccharides.03 Topic: Chemistry 32. Bloom's Level: 2.04.03. Remember Learning Outcome: 02. Bloom's Level: 4. TRUE Organic molecules contain carbon and hydrogen and NaCl does not. Section: 02. steroids. A hydrolysis reaction involves the loss of water. B. disaccharides. Sugars with three to seven carbon atoms are called A. polysaccharides. Section: 02.31. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry .03 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions 33. monosaccharides. C. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. FALSE A hydrolysis reaction involves the addition of water. Bloom's Level: 1.03. Sugars with only three to seven carbon atoms are called simple sugars or monosaccharides. NaCl is not an organic molecule. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 4.04. Remember Learning Outcome: 02. maltose All of these are single sugars except maltose which is a disaccharide composed of two glucose molecules. Remember Learning Outcome: 02. cellulose B.04 Topic: Chemistry 36. Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry 35. glycogen Glycogen has more side chains than the others. Starch E.34. Chitin B. galactose D. Bloom's Level: 1. Which polysaccharide is branched the most? A. Section: 02. fructose C.01 Summarize the basic chemical properties of a carbohydrate. Analyze . Cellulose Cellulose passes through the digestive tract as fiber or roughage because we are unable to break it down. Glycogen D. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide? A.04 Explain the importance of fiber in the diet. What passes through the digestive tract as fiber or roughage? A. Glucose C. glucose B. starch C.04. Our body is capable of converting starch into glycogen. The liver then can store this glucose as glycogen. The main function of carbohydrates is for long-term energy storage.04. TRUE We eat starchy foods. Section: 02. Bloom's Level: 5. Bloom's Level: 2. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.04. and the glucose enters the bloodstream.Learning Outcome: 02. Section: 02. FALSE The main function of carbohydrates is for quick and short-term energy storage.03 Compare the structure of simple and complex carbohydrates.04. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.04 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions .02 State the roles of carbohydrates in human physiology.04 Topic: Chemistry 38.04 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 37.02 State the roles of carbohydrates in human physiology. Section: 02. 4 E. they have the same types of bonds between the monomer units. Starch. they are all found in animals.04. A fat contains how many fatty acids? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02. and cellulose are all made of glucose molecules.04 Topic: Chemistry 40. they can all be digested by our bodies. and steroids.39. Bloom's Level: 4. 2 C. they contain the same number of side chains.01 Compare the structure of fats. E. 1 B. and glycogen are alike in that A. contains three fatty acids. B. 5 A fat. or triglyceride. phospholipids. Section: 02. Bloom's Level: 2. cellulose. they are all made of glucose. glycogen. Starch. D.05 Topic: Chemistry . Section: 02. 3 D.03 Compare the structure of simple and complex carbohydrates.05. C. 05. Remember . They each contain only 1 fatty acid. TRUE Fats. B. A fatty acid that contains only single bonds between the carbon atoms is considered A. saturated. They do not dissolve in water. phospholipids. phospholipids. such as corn oil and soybean oil. How are fats. Bloom's Level: 1. Fats are usually of animal origin while oils are usually of plant origin. Bloom's Level: 4. All lipids are insoluble in water. are of plant origin. Section: 02. phospholipids. Section: 02. B.01 Compare the structure of fats. C. are of animal origin.41. Bloom's Level: 2. and steroids. and steroids alike? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.05. the fatty acid is considered saturated. D. If all the carbon atoms are connected by single bonds. while oils.05 Topic: Chemistry 42.05 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 43. They are all solid at room temperature.01 Compare the structure of fats. such as lard and butter. They each contain a polar phosphate group. and steroids. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02. unsaturated. C. E. trans unsaturated. They all contain at least one carbon ring. 05.05. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. B. The sex hormones belong to which category of lipids? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. Membranes are bilayers of phospholipids.Learning Outcome: 02. steroids. steroids B. triglycerides E. fats.02 State the function of each class of lipids. triglycerides. oils. phospholipids The sex hormones are steroids. D.05 Topic: Chemistry 45. C.05 Topic: Chemistry . Section: 02.02 State the function of each class of lipids. Section: 02. E.05. phospholipids.01 Compare the structure of fats. Bloom's Level: 2.05 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions 44. oils D. The membranes of cells are composed of A. and steroids. phospholipids. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 02. fats C. Bloom's Level: 4. FALSE Fats and oils function well as energy-storage molecules because they contain more energy per gram than other biological molecules. The monomer unit of a protein is A. fatty acids.06 Topic: Chemistry .02 State the function of each class of lipids. polysaccharides.06. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02. Fats and oils function well as energy-storage molecules because they contain carbon. Section: 02. Bloom's Level: 1.05. amino acids. monosaccharides.02 Explain how amino acids are combined to form proteins. nucleic acids. All organic molecules contain carbon.True / False Questions 46.05 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions 47. Proteins are composed of amino acids. D. E. B. Section: 02. Remember Learning Outcome: 02. C. transport D. Which of the following is not a function of proteins? A. secondary B. the carboxyl group The R group for each amino acid is unique.48. the central carbon B.06 Topic: Chemistry 49. serve as a source of quick energy. Understand Learning Outcome: 02.03 Summarize the four levels of protein structure. Remember . Bloom's Level: 2. the R group C. quick energy B.06. An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure? A. enzymes E.06 Topic: Chemistry 50. tertiary D. the amino group D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02. quaternary The secondary structure of a protein can be an alpha helix or a beta sheet. Bloom's Level: 1. What makes each amino acid unique? A. Section: 02. Bloom's Level: 4.06. motion Carbohydrates. not proteins.01 Describe the structure of an amino acid. support C. Section: 02. primary C. the carboxyl group of each join together.01 Describe the structure of an amino acid.06.06. Bloom's Level: 4. the amino group of each join together.02 Explain how amino acids are combined to form proteins. Section: 02. D. water is added to begin the reaction. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.06 Topic: Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions . C.06 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions 52. All amino acids are alike in that their R groups are polar. Section: 02. FALSE The R groups of an amino acid can be polar or nonpolar. E. B. When two amino acids combine via a dehydration reaction.06. Section: 02. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.06 Topic: Chemistry 51. a peptide bond is formed between the carboxyl group of one and the amino group of the other. Bloom's Level: 5. the R groups are lost. A. When two amino acids form a dipeptide. a peptide bond is formed.03 Summarize the four levels of protein structure.Learning Outcome: 02. alternating nitrogens and phosphates. Section: 02. a phosphate bond is broken C. Section: 02. which of the following occurs? A. the R groups. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. oxygen is added E. sugars and phosphates.07.53.02 Summarize the role of ATP in cellular reactions.07 Topic: Chemistry 54. alternating carbons and nitrogens. D.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA. The sides of the DNA ladder (backbone) are A. E. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. the nitrogenous bases.07 Topic: Chemistry . C. Bloom's Level: 2. B. oxygen is removed D. Bloom's Level: 2. When an ATP molecule is used to supply energy. an adenine is added A phosphate bond is broken when ATP is converted to ADP + phosphate + energy.07. a phosphate bond is added B. Sugars and phosphates make up the sides of the DNA ladder. guanine E.07 Topic: Chemistry 56. Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide? A.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA. uracil D. Section: 02.07. not nucleotides. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. Bloom's Level: 2. adenine Uracil is found in RNA. thymine C.07 Topic: Chemistry . an R group E.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA.55. Bloom's Level: 2.07. nitrogenous base C. a pentose R groups are found in amino acids. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is NOT found in DNA? A. 5 ring sugar D. cytosine B. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. Section: 02. not DNA. phosphate B. 67% E.57. Section: 02. E. carbohydrate bonds. lipid bonds. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. A species has 29% of its DNA composed of the nucleotide containing guanine (G). C. B.07 Topic: Chemistry True / False Questions . D. Bloom's Level: 4. phosphate bonds. ATP carries energy in the form of high-energy A.07 Topic: Chemistry 58. Analyze Learning Outcome: 02.07.07. 58% B. Bloom's Level: 2. 21% D. 29% Since G pairs with C and A pairs with T.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA.02 Summarize the role of ATP in cellular reactions. What percent does the nitrogen base thymine (T) equal? A. the amount of the base thymine (T) would equal 21%. hydrogen bonds ATP carries energy in the form of high-energy phosphate bonds. peptide bonds. Section: 02. 42% C. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 02.07 Topic: Chemistry 60. Section: 02.59.02 Summarize the role of ATP in cellular reactions. FALSE The function of DNA is to store genetic information in the nucleus. ATP is called the energy currency of the body because it is a type of electricity. Bloom's Level: 5. FALSE ATP is called the energy currency of the body because it can be spent (like money or currency) to facilitate reactions.07.07 Topic: Chemistry . The function of RNA in the body is to store the genetic information in the nucleus. Section: 02. Understand Learning Outcome: 02. Bloom's Level: 2.07.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA. 06 6 Section: 02. Learning Outcome: 02.05.04. 3 Learning Outcome: 02. 2 Learning Outcome: 02.02. Apply 6 Bloom's Level: 4.05 7 Section: 02. 2 Learning Outcome: 02. 2 Learning Outcome: 02.02 10 Section: 02.03 Summarize the structure of the pH scale and the importance of buffers to biological system 4 s.04. Understand 16 Bloom's Level: 3. 5 Learning Outcome: 02. 2 Learning Outcome: 02.04.01 Explain the differences between RNA and DNA.01.04 Distinguish between ionic and covalent bonds.03.03 Summarize the four levels of protein structure.02 State the roles of carbohydrates in human physiology.Chapter 02 Chemistry of Life Summary Category # of Question s Bloom's Level: 1.04.02. 4 Learning Outcome: 02. Evaluate 5 Learning Outcome: 02. 2 Learning Outcome: 02.06.02 Explain how amino acids are combined to form proteins. 2 Learning Outcome: 02.02 Describe the processes by which the organic molecules are assembled and disassembled.02 State the function of each class of lipids.03. phospholipids. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.02 Illustrate the structure of an atom. Remember 19 Bloom's Level: 2.01 Summarize the basic chemical properties of a carbohydrate. 2 Learning Outcome: 02.03 4 Section: 02. 5 Learning Outcome: 02.03 Compare the structure of simple and complex carbohydrates.07.06. 1 Learning Outcome: 02. Analyze 14 Bloom's Level: 5.01 Distinguish between atoms and elements. 2 Learning Outcome: 02.07 8 .02.01 Compare the structure of fats. 3 Section: 02. 5 Learning Outcome: 02. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.01 18 Section: 02.01 Describe the structure of an amino acid.01.01 Describe how hydrogen bonds are formed. 2 Learning Outcome: 02. and steroids.01. 4 Learning Outcome: 02.01 List the four classes of organic molecules that are found in cells.03 Define an isotope and summarize its application in both medicine and biology.01.04 Explain the importance of fiber in the diet.05.04 7 Section: 02.02 List the properties of water.02 Summarize the role of ATP in cellular reactions.07.06. Topic: Chemistry 60 . 3. surface area-to-volume ratio. Cells C. The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its A. Walther Flemming E. Whose work proved conclusively that spontaneous generation of life from nonlife was not possible? A. ________ are the fundamental units that make up all living things. B. A. D. Georges Cuvier . Louis Pasteur B. C. John Ray D. extracellular matrix. Cristae 2. genome size. E. Coelom E. Charles Darwin C. Chromosomes D. Compartments B.Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function Multiple Choice Questions 1. nuclear size. function. 24nm2. If a cell has a volume of 3nm. cells need to dissipate heat effectively. catabolism C. D. negative B. respiration B. assimilation 6. 5. mitosis occurs before cells reach a certain size. cells influence nearby cells to divide. 38nm2.4. cells need to communicate with adjacent cells. 6nm3 7. The reason that metabolizing cells are small in size is because A. cell division E. micrograph E. chromatograph . 16nm3 C. 8nm3 B. 54nm2. E. C. anabolism D. 27nm3 D. 24nm3 E. What is the name of a photograph of a specimen obtained with a microscope? A. what restores the amount of surface area needed for exchange requirements? A. dermatome C. thermograph D. 64nm2. what are the surface area and the volume of the cell? A. In developing embryos such as a chick. B. 18nm2. the surface area of a cell must be able to accomplish nutrient/waste exchange. C. Use an electron microscope. Use his eyes. scanning electron microscope .0001 mm. compound light microscope B. C.8. compound light microscope B. ultraviolet microscope 12. According to cell theory.00000001 mm. 10. What type of microscope should she use? A.5 mm apart. 0. B. phase contrast microscope E. Cells come only from pre-existing cells. D. Brett needs to distinguish two points that are 0. 9. 11.01 mm. transmission electron microscope C. D. C. Viruses are not made up of cells. scanning electron microscope D.000001 mm. B.1 mm. What is the easiest way to do this? A. 0. E. Cells and viruses are the same thing. 0. The light microscope has a resolving power of A. 0. Viruses are not living. transmission electron microscope C. Viruses can cause disease. E. B. this means what? A. Angela would like to look at living algae from pond water. Use a light microscope. What type of microscopy provides a three-dimensional view of the surface of an object? A. 0. Cells can be infected by viruses. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Golgi body E. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum D. Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 14. they do not have DNA. plasma membrane B. Biologists classify cells into two broad categories--animals and plants.True / False Questions 13. Because bacteria are prokaryotes. mitochondria True / False Questions 15. C. Sanger enclosure. D. plasma membrane.16. eight E. What is the name of the semifluid medium inside the cell? A. The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle. 17. E. two C. four D. cytoplasm C. dialysis membrane. sixteen . nucleolus B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 19. hydrophobic membrane. cytoskeleton E. mosaic membrane. mitochondrion True / False Questions 18. The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called a A. one B. B. The plasma membrane contains how many layers of phospholipids? A. organelle D. groups of prokaryotic cells begin to live in a small group sharing products of metabolism. C.5 billion years old. D. Archetista E. These fossils resemble prokaryotes that are capable of living in extreme conditions such as high temperature and salinity. incorporation of engulfed autotrophic cyanobacteria to form chloroplasts. Paleontologists have discovered ancient prokaryotic fossils dated at over 3. a symbiotic relationship between a host cell and a prokaryote that was taken up but not destroyed. Eukarya 21. invagination of the plasma membrane to form endoplasmic reticulum. Archaea are considered the evolutionary precursors to eukaryotic cells. True / False Questions 22. incorporation of engulfed heterotrophic bacteria to form mitochondria. Protists B. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Protoctista C. E. What domain do these prokaryotes belong to? A. All of the following are possible origins of cell organelles in eukaryotes EXCEPT A. Archaea D.20. heterotrophic D. D. heterotrophic. mark the cell as belonging to a particular individual 25. fluid-mosaic model C. C. contains receptor sites which determine how the cell interacts with its environment D. the phospholipid molecules are oriented so that the _____________ heads are facing the outside environment and the ________________ tails are facing the interior of the membrane. hydrophobic. ectothermic. plasmagel-plasmasol model D. endosymbiont model B. serves as a boundary between the cell and its environment C. a glycocalyx. Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? A. endothermic 24. a glycolipid. determines which substances enter and leave the cell B. a glycoprotein. hydrophilic. a protomembrane. A. induced-fit model 26. autotrophic E. contains the genetic information E. hydrophilic B. autotrophic. . Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane? A. lock and key model E. hydrophobic C. In the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane.23. a protosugar. A short chain of sugar attached to a protein molecule on the plasma membrane is called A. B. E. glycoproteins 28. enzyme . large. salt water invades fresh water marshes causing many of the plants to die. large. hypotonic C. D. ions C. receptor C. Which of the following can cross the plasma membrane because of its selective permeability? A. E. channel E. polar molecules D. isotonic B. The diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called A. During a hurricane. gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide B. dissociation. support D. The plants are killed because the salt water solution is __________________ to the plants. B. drawing water from their cells. hypertonic 30. reconstitution. C. cell marker B. A. nonpolar molecules E. denaturation. 29. osmosis. oligotonic E. What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane? A. mesotonic D.27. dispersion. The cells burst. outside the cell B. there are more particles outside the cell. What happened in the red blood cells? A. If 50 molecules enter the cell.31. there is more water outside the cell. inside the cell 34. Where is the higher concentration of the substance? A. . D. Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water. Often when a person is admitted to the hospital. B. A certain substance continues to enter the cell in the presence of a metabolic poison that disables the generation of energy by the cell. In a hypotonic solution. In a hypertonic solution. C. isotonic C. there is more water inside the cell. B. In an isotonic solution the amount of water inside and outside the cell is equal. there are more particles inside the cell. C. The cells did not change. what is the tonicity of normal saline compared to your blood? A. how many molecules exit the cell? A. E. In a hypertonic solution. fewer than 50 32. In a hypotonic solution. A solution is at equilibrium across a plasma membrane. more than 50 C. an intravenous solution of normal saline is begun. 50 B. Choose the CORRECT statement about solute concentrations or particles inside and outside the cell. A. hypotonic 33. The cells shrunk. Since this does not harm the patient. 35. hypertonic B. active transport D. Which of the following does not utilize active transport? A. The assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without an expenditure of energy is known as what? A. facilitated transport C. In the sodium potassium pump. concentrating iodine ions in the thyroid gland C. crenation True / False Questions 37. movement of sodium and potassium in nerve cells .36. water homeostasis in the kidneys E. osmosis E. sodium and potassium are both pumped out of the cell via active transport. movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood B. diffusion B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 38. absorbing sugar in the gut D. phagocytosis. During exocytosis. True False Multiple Choice Questions 41. the phospholipids present in the vesicle membrane will end up in the plasma membrane. facilitated transport. osmosis. pinocytosis. pinocytosis D. True / False Questions 40. endocytosis . This process is known as A. Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with it's false feet or pseudopods. D. exocytosis. exocytosis B. C. B. receptor-mediated endocytosis E.39. Which of the following processes moves large molecules across a membrane in the opposite direction of the others? A. E. phagocytosis C. Golgi apparatus D.42. What is the obvious dark-stained structure within the nucleus that contains ribosomal RNA called? A. B. DNA and proteins. vacuoles C. ribosomes. True / False Questions 45. lysosomes E. mitochondria. phospholipids. nuclear envelope D. endoplasmic reticulum 44. mitochondria B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . nucleoplasm E. What cell structure is composed of a stack of slightly curved saccules that are important in packaging and secretion? A. endoplasmic reticulum 43. nucleus B. nucleoplasm. D. C. nucleolus C. The nucleus of a cell in your thigh muscle contains the same genes as the nucleus of a cell in your brain. The grainy-looking substance inside the nucleus is composed of A. E. vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface. break down fats. then A. the synthesis of proteins E. form a spindle apparatus. produce ATP. D. respire oxidatively. C. smaller than a ribosome E. Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the Golgi apparatus? If the Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion. the Golgi apparatus must be part of the endomembrane system. vesicles must travel from the RER and SER to the Golgi apparatus. the synthesis of phospholipids D. larger than a ribosome B. B. the Golgi apparatus must consist of 3 to 20 slightly curved sacs. synthesize proteins. larger than the Golgi apparatus C.46. C. the formation of transport vesicles C. . smaller than a protein 47. the processing and modification of proteins 49. the presence of ribosomes B. If a cell lacked ribosomes. 48. larger than the endoplasmic reticulum D. E. E. it would not be able to A. How large is a nuclear pore in the nuclear envelope? A. the Golgi apparatus would contain proteins. What do the SER and RER have in common? A. D. B. nucleus B. mitochondria D. B. C. microbodies D. centrosome 53. ribosomes 52. E. lysosomes. chromosomes. actin filaments E.50. Golgi apparatus 51. Centrosomes are associated with A. nuclei B. Which of the following is not associated with the cytoskeleton? A. Which organelle can be likened to a post office? A. mitochondria. Golgi apparati D. microtubules C. microtubules. ribosomes. . What cellular organelle is especially abundant in phagocytic white blood cells? A. intermediate filaments B. D. nucleolus C. nucleoli C. lysosomes E. endoplasmic reticulum E. brittle bones 57. tight junctions D. Which of the following diseases would you expect in someone with malfunctioning cilia? A. recurrent respiratory infections B. maintain a cell's shape B. Why type of junction must there be between the cells of your bladder? A. A microtubule poison would interfere with mitosis and meiosis. process proteins C. anchor organelles D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 56. move the entire cell True / False Questions 55. muscle paralysis E. heart attack C. channel junctions E.54. Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton? A. adhesion junctions B. gap junctions C. free junctions . urinary infections D. move organelles E. What type of junction connects these cells? A. cristae C. actin junctions 60. gap junctions B. In an experiment in the laboratory. tight junctions E. a small colored molecule is injected into one cells. adhesion junctions D. rugae D.True / False Questions 58. the molecule has entered the adjacent cells. free junctions C. Cilia are composed of microtubules while flagella are composed of actin filaments. lumen E. What are the folds in mitochondrial membranes called? A. Within minutes. villi . matrix B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 59. It breaks down sugar. one B. substrate Z is broken down to form product Y and X. C. C. It is present in most every type of cell.61. four E. rugae. It produces energy. B. In a metabolic pathway. D. Why is glycolysis believed to have evolved early in the history of life? A. . E. five 64. It does not require oxygen. photosynthesis. It splits a 6-carbon molecule into two 3-carbon molecules. two C. B. villi. reaction summary. cristae. D. 63. C. The sum of all of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell collectively are called A. metabolism. The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the A. D. respiration. anabolism. E. How many enzymes are required for this metabolic pathway? A. three D. matrix. B. E. Y is further broken down into products V and W. 62. effluvium. alcohol C. carbon dioxide D. The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. Only glucose can be used as an energy source in the human body. carbon monoxide E. lactate True / False Questions 68. glycolysis B. The players complained of cramps and sore muscles. The reason for their complaints was that there was a __________________ build up in their muscles. citric acid cycle C. A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 67.65. all living cells must contain mitochondria. glucose B. Since all organisms carry on cellular respiration. electron transport chain True / False Questions 66. Which of the following processes in the breakdown of glucose does not require oxygen? A. True False . D. E. cristae D. C.Multiple Choice Questions 69. If you could remove all the phosphate in the cell. It would cycle faster because of the buildup of ATP. If the mitochondrion is the result of endosymbiosis. what would happen to the ATP cycle? A. True False 71. It would not affect the ATP cycle. grana True / False Questions 70. vacuole C. Fermentation produces more ATP than does aerobic respiration. B. It would cycle faster because the lack of phosphate would drive the cycle. It would stop when all the ADP had been converted into ATP. matrix E. It would stop when all the ATP had been converted into ADP. . heat is released. what membrane of the mitochondrion represents the engulfing vesicle? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 72. When ATP is broken down. the outer mitochondrial membrane B. . 01 Topic: Cell Structure . Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Cristae Cells are the basic unit of structure and function of all living things. surface area-to-volume ratio.Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. genome size. Section: 03.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size. ________ are the fundamental units that make up all living things. nuclear size.01. B. the surface area decreases. A.01. C. Coelom E. The surface area of a cell reflects the ability to exchange materials and the volume reflects the cell's metabolic needs. E. Bloom's Level: 1. Compartments B. Cells C. Chromosomes D. As the volume increases in cells. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Section: 03.01 Topic: Cell Structure 2. Bloom's Level: 1.01 State the basic principles of the cell theory. D. The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its A. extracellular matrix. function. D. B. cells need to communicate with adjacent cells. Georges Cuvier Louis Pasteur proved that the spontaneous generation of life was not possible in 1864. cells need to dissipate heat effectively. Section: 03. Charles Darwin C.01 Topic: Cell Structure 4. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size. cells influence nearby cells to divide. Louis Pasteur B. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Cells stay small because the surface area of a cell is important in the exchange of materials. mitosis occurs before cells reach a certain size.01 State the basic principles of the cell theory. Whose work proved conclusively that spontaneous generation of life from nonlife was not possible? A. John Ray D.01. Bloom's Level: 1.01. E.01 Topic: Cell Structure . C. Walther Flemming E. the surface area of a cell must be able to accomplish nutrient/waste exchange. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.3. The reason that metabolizing cells are small in size is because A. Section: 03. assimilation Cell division restores the amount of surface area needed for exchange requirements. 24nm3 E.01.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size.5. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. If a cell has a volume of 3nm. Section: 03. 27nm3 D. Bloom's Level: 3. 54nm2. what restores the amount of surface area needed for exchange requirements? A.01 Topic: Cell Structure 6. 8nm3 B. anabolism D.01 Topic: Cell Structure . catabolism C. 16nm3 C. 6nm3 The surface area is 6 x 3 nm x 3 nm or 54nm2. The volume is 3 nm x 3 nm x 3 nm or 27nm3. what are the surface area and the volume of the cell? A. Bloom's Level: 2. 38nm2. Apply Learning Outcome: 03. Section: 03. 64nm2. In developing embryos such as a chick.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size. respiration B. 24nm2.01. cell division E. 18nm2. Section: 03. Viruses can cause disease. Cells come only from pre-existing cells. Bloom's Level: 4. The cell theory states that all living things are made of cells. thermograph D. Therefore. E. anything not made of cells is not living.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. dermatome C. B.01 Topic: Cell Structure . C. Section: 03. negative B.01 Topic: Cell Structure 8.7. Viruses are not living.01 State the basic principles of the cell theory. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.01. What is the name of a photograph of a specimen obtained with a microscope? A. According to cell theory. Cells can be infected by viruses. Bloom's Level: 1. this means what? A. micrograph E. D.01. chromatograph A micrograph is a photograph of a specimen obtained with a microscope. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03. Cells and viruses are the same thing. Viruses are not made up of cells. C. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03.5 mm apart. D. B.0001 mm. 0. Use his eyes. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. C. E. 0. Bloom's Level: 1. Brett needs to distinguish two points that are 0. The human eye is capable of resolving two points 0. B.000001 mm. Section: 03. Use a light microscope. Use an electron microscope. The light microscope has a resolving power of 0.01. The light microscope has a resolving power of A.1 mm. What is the easiest way to do this? A.0001 mm.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells.01.9. Bloom's Level: 5. so he can distinguish these two points with his eyes.01 Topic: Cell Structure . Section: 03.01 mm.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. 0.00000001 mm.01 Topic: Cell Structure 10.1 mm apart. 0. 0. transmission electron microscope C. What type of microscope should she use? A.11.01 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions 13.01 Topic: Cell Structure 12.01.01. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03. compound light microscope B.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. scanning electron microscope D. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 03.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. compound light microscope B. Understand . Biologists classify cells into two broad categories--animals and plants. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Angela would like to look at living algae from pond water. ultraviolet microscope The scanning electron microscope (SEM) provides a three-dimensional view of the surface of an object. scanning electron microscope Only the compound light microscope can be used to look at living specimens. Bloom's Level: 1. What type of microscopy provides a three-dimensional view of the surface of an object? A. phase contrast microscope E. Section: 03. Bloom's Level: 2. transmission electron microscope C. FALSE Biologists classify cells into two broad categories--the prokaryotes and eukaryotes. plasma membrane B. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. mitochondria Only the plasma membrane is present in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.02 Distinguish between the structure of a prokaryotic cell and that of a eukaryotic cell.02 Distinguish between the structure of a prokaryotic cell and that of a eukaryotic cell. endoplasmic reticulum D. Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes? A. they do not have a nucleus.02 Topic: Cell Structure Multiple Choice Questions 14.02 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions 15. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. nucleus C. Because bacteria are prokaryotes.02. Golgi body E.02.02 Topic: Cell Structure .02. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2. but they do have DNA. they do not have DNA. Section: 03. FALSE Because bacteria are prokaryotes.02 Distinguish between the structure of a prokaryotic cell and that of a eukaryotic cell. Section: 03.Learning Outcome: 03. Section: 03. Section: 03. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 03. C. B. E.02. organelle D. mosaic membrane. D.Multiple Choice Questions 16.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. cytoplasm C.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. hydrophobic membrane. The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called the plasma membrane.02 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions . dialysis membrane. Sanger enclosure.02 Topic: Cell Structure 17. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. cytoskeleton E. Bloom's Level: 1. plasma membrane. nucleolus B. What is the name of the semifluid medium inside the cell? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. mitochondrion The cytoplasm is the semi-fluid internal medium found within the cell.02. The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called a A. The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle.02 Topic: Cell Structure . two C. sixteen The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer. so it consists of two layers of phospholipids.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. However.02. The plasma membrane contains how many layers of phospholipids? A. Bloom's Level: 5. TRUE An organelle is any well-defined subcellular structure.02 Topic: Cell Structure Multiple Choice Questions 19. Section: 03. the cytoplasm does contain organelles. eight E. one B.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03.02. Section: 03.18. four D. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. Bloom's Level: 2. so the cytoplasm is not an organelle. C. Protoctista C.02.5 billion years old. All of the following are possible origins of cell organelles in eukaryotes EXCEPT A. Section: 03. E.03 Summarize how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. Eukarya It is believed that the ancient prokaryotic cells were members of domain Archaea. What domain do these prokaryotes belong to? A. Paleontologists have discovered ancient prokaryotic fossils dated at over 3.02 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions . Analyze Learning Outcome: 03. incorporation of engulfed heterotrophic bacteria to form mitochondria. incorporation of engulfed autotrophic cyanobacteria to form chloroplasts. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03. Section: 03. These fossils resemble prokaryotes that are capable of living in extreme conditions such as high temperature and salinity. B.20. Bloom's Level: 4.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea 21. D.03 Summarize how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. invagination of the plasma membrane to form endoplasmic reticulum. Groups of prokaryotic cells do live together in groups and share products of metabolism but this is not considered part of how the first eukaryotic cells came to be. Bloom's Level: 4. Archetista E. a symbiotic relationship between a host cell and a prokaryote that was taken up but not destroyed. groups of prokaryotic cells begin to live in a small group sharing products of metabolism. Protists B.02. Archaea D. 01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane.03 Summarize how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. heterotrophic. the phospholipid molecules are oriented so that the hydrophilic heads are facing the outside environment and the hydrophobic tails are facing the interior of the membrane. TRUE The eukaryotic cell is believed to have evolved from the archaea. Section: 03. hydrophilic. A. Section: 03. hydrophobic. Bloom's Level: 2. Archaea are considered the evolutionary precursors to eukaryotic cells. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.02. hydrophilic B. autotrophic.03 Topic: Cell Structure . the phospholipid molecules are oriented so that the _____________ heads are facing the outside environment and the ________________ tails are facing the interior of the membrane.03.22. Bloom's Level: 2. heterotrophic D. endothermic In the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane. In the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane. hydrophobic C.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Multiple Choice Questions 23. autotrophic E. ectothermic. contains the genetic information E. Section: 03.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. lock and key model E. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. endosymbiont model B. serves as a boundary between the cell and its environment C. Section: 03.24. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. fluid-mosaic model C. plasmagel-plasmasol model D. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Bloom's Level: 2. contains receptor sites which determine how the cell interacts with its environment D. determines which substances enter and leave the cell B. All of the rest are functions of the plasma membrane.03 Topic: Cell Structure .03 Topic: Cell Structure 25. Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane? A.03. induced-fit model The fluid-mosaic model is the current model of the membrane structure of a cell. mark the cell as belonging to a particular individual The nucleus contains the genetic information.03. Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? A. nonpolar molecules E. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. A short chain of sugar attached to a protein is called a glycoprotein. a protosugar. C.03 Topic: Cell Structure . a glycocalyx.02 Distinguish between diffusion. B. a protomembrane. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure 27. and facilitated diffusion and know the role of each in the cell. ions C. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide B. D. Which of the following can cross the plasma membrane because of its selective permeability? A. a glycolipid. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 03. glycoproteins Gases and non-polar molecules can cross the plasma membrane because of its selective permeability. E. large. polar molecules D.03. osmosis.26.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. A short chain of sugar attached to a protein molecule on the plasma membrane is called A. a glycoprotein. large.03. During a hurricane. mesotonic D. B. isotonic B. oligotonic E. salt water invades fresh water marshes causing many of the plants to die.02 Distinguish between diffusion.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane.28. dispersion. denaturation. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Topic: Cell Structure . hypertonic The salt water is a hypertonic solution which can cause the death of the marsh plants by drawing water out of their cells. osmosis. Apply Learning Outcome: 03. A.03. drawing water from their cells.03. D. E. Section: 03. dissociation.03 Topic: Cell Structure 29. and facilitated diffusion and know the role of each in the cell. hypotonic C. Bloom's Level: 3. The diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called A. Section: 03. The plants are killed because the salt water solution is __________________ to the plants. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. osmosis. Osmosis is a diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane. C. reconstitution. support D. receptor C. cell marker B. Section: 03. A solution is at equilibrium across a plasma membrane. fewer than 50 The definition of equilibrium is as many molecules enter as leave the cell. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03. what is the tonicity of normal saline compared to your blood? A. isotonic C. enzyme Molecules of cholesterol add support to the plasma membrane. hypotonic Normal saline is isotonic to red blood cells in your blood. more than 50 C.30. osmosis.03. Often when a person is admitted to the hospital. Evaluate . Bloom's Level: 5. hypertonic B. 50 B.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the membrane. and facilitated diffusion and know the role of each in the cell. Since this does not harm the patient. What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane? A.03 Topic: Cell Structure 32. Bloom's Level: 4.03 Topic: Cell Structure 31.02 Distinguish between diffusion. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. If 50 molecules enter the cell.03. Section: 03. channel E. how many molecules exit the cell? A. an intravenous solution of normal saline is begun. A. In an isotonic solution the amount of water inside and outside the cell is equal. Where is the higher concentration of the substance? A. there are more particles inside the cell.03 Topic: Cell Structure 34. Section: 03. Bloom's Level: 4. In a hypertonic solution. it is more concentrated outside the cell. Therefore.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane. In a hypotonic solution.03 Topic: Cell Structure . C. it must be following its concentration gradient. there is more water inside the cell. In a hypotonic solution. Section: 03. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03. E.04 Compare passive.03.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane. there are more particles outside the cell. there is more water outside the cell.Learning Outcome: 03. A certain substance continues to enter the cell in the presence of a metabolic poison that disables the generation of energy by the cell. outside the cell B. In isotonic solutions the water is equal inside and outside the cell. Bloom's Level: 2.03. Choose the CORRECT statement about solute concentrations or particles inside and outside the cell. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. B. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure 33.03. inside the cell Since active transport cannot be responsible for the movement of the substance into the cell. D.and active-transport mechanisms. In a hypertonic solution. 03. What happened in the red blood cells? A. Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water.and active-transport mechanisms.03 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 3.35. The assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without an expenditure of energy is known as what? A. active transport D.04 Compare passive. crenation Facilitated transport is the assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without an expenditure of energy. Cells placed in pure water would swell until they burst. facilitated transport C. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Section: 03. Section: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 03.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane. diffusion B. The cells burst. The cells shrunk. B. C.03 Topic: Cell Structure 36. Bloom's Level: 1. The cells did not change.03. osmosis E. Which of the following does not utilize active transport? A. In the sodium potassium pump.and active-transport mechanisms.37.03. Bloom's Level: 2. movement of sodium and potassium in nerve cells Oxygen crosses the plasma membrane by simple diffusion. concentrating iodine ions in the thyroid gland C. sodium and potassium are both pumped out of the cell via active transport.03. The rest utilize active transport. water homeostasis in the kidneys E.04 Compare passive.and active-transport mechanisms. Section: 03. Section: 03.03 Topic: Cell Structure . movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood B. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Bloom's Level: 1. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. FALSE Sodium is pumped out of the cell while potassium is pumped into the cell.04 Compare passive.03 Topic: Cell Structure Multiple Choice Questions 38. absorbing sugar in the gut D. During exocytosis.05 State how eukaryotic cells move large molecules across membranes. phagocytosis. Bloom's Level: 1.03.05 State how eukaryotic cells move large molecules across membranes. This process is known as A. pinocytosis.03 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions 40. B.03. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Section: 03. C. osmosis.39. facilitated transport. Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with it's false feet or pseudopods. Bloom's Level: 4. so the phospholipids of the vesicle will end up in the plasma membrane. Section: 03. the phospholipids present in the vesicle membrane will end up in the plasma membrane. E. the vesicle membrane fuses with the plasma membrane. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03. exocytosis.03 Topic: Cell Structure Multiple Choice Questions . D. TRUE During exocytosis. Phagocytosis involves the engulfing of an object by a cell. 05 State how eukaryotic cells move large molecules across membranes. What cell structure is composed of a stack of slightly curved saccules that are important in packaging and secretion? A. endocytosis Exocytosis moves substances out of the cell.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system.03. vacuoles C. Which of the following processes moves large molecules across a membrane in the opposite direction of the others? A.03 Topic: Cell Structure 42. Golgi apparatus D. exocytosis B. pinocytosis D. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Bloom's Level: 1. while all the others move substances into the cell. endoplasmic reticulum The Golgi apparatus is a stack of slightly curved saccules that are important in packaging and secretion. receptor-mediated endocytosis E.04. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03. Bloom's Level: 5. lysosomes E. Section: 03. mitochondria B.04 Topic: Cell Structure . Section: 03. phagocytosis C.41. 04 Topic: Cell Structure 44.04 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions . ribosomes. nucleus B.04.04. Bloom's Level: 1. nucleoplasm E. E.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic information. nuclear envelope D. B. Section: 03. C. What is the obvious dark-stained structure within the nucleus that contains ribosomal RNA called? A.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic information. D. RNA-rich structure housed in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. The grainy-looking substance inside the nucleus is chromatin. nucleoplasm. mitochondria. a combination of DNA molecules and proteins. Bloom's Level: 2.43. phospholipids. The grainy-looking substance inside the nucleus is composed of A. endoplasmic reticulum The nucleolus is an obvious dark-stained. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. DNA and proteins. Section: 03. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. nucleolus C. 04. smaller than a ribosome E. larger than a ribosome B. TRUE Every cell in the body contains the same genes.04 Topic: Cell Structure . The Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum are far larger than the nuclear pores.45. Apply Learning Outcome: 03. Proteins can also exit through the pores. The nucleus of a cell in your thigh muscle contains the same genes as the nucleus of a cell in your brain. How large is a nuclear pore in the nuclear envelope? A. Section: 03.04. Section: 03. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic information.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic information. Bloom's Level: 3. larger than the endoplasmic reticulum D.04 Topic: Cell Structure Multiple Choice Questions 46. larger than the Golgi apparatus C. smaller than a protein Nuclear pores must be larger than a ribosome in order to allow ribosomes to exit the nucleus. 04 Topic: Cell Structure . D. respire oxidatively. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. produce ATP. E.03 Explain the role and location of the ribosomes. Section: 03. synthesize proteins. Bloom's Level: 4. form a spindle apparatus.47. If a cell lacked ribosomes. it would not be able to A. the presence of ribosomes B. the processing and modification of proteins Both the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum form transport vesicles. Bloom's Level: 1. break down fats. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.04 Topic: Cell Structure 48. What do the SER and RER have in common? A. Section: 03. the synthesis of proteins E. the formation of transport vesicles C.04. B. C.04. If a cell lacked ribosomes it would not be able to engage in protein synthesis. the synthesis of phospholipids D. packaging.04.04 Topic: Cell Structure . vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface. but none of these apply to a secretory function. Section: 03. only to intracellular transport. Section: 03. Which organelle can be likened to a post office? A. then A. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. D. the Golgi apparatus must consist of 3 to 20 slightly curved sacs. Bloom's Level: 5. mitochondria D. Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the Golgi apparatus? If the Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion. vesicles must travel from the RER and SER to the Golgi apparatus.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. the Golgi apparatus would contain proteins. Bloom's Level: 2. C.49. nucleus B. In order to be secretory. this does not apply to secretion.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. B. nucleolus C. The Golgi apparatus is part of the endomembrane system. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03. and secretion.04 Topic: Cell Structure 50. the Golgi apparatus must be part of the endomembrane system. and does contain proteins. does consist of 3-20 slightly curved sacs. vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface. endoplasmic reticulum E. Golgi apparatus The Golgi apparatus is involved in processing.04. E. Although vesicles do travel from the RER and SER to the Golgi apparatus. Section: 03. centrosome Microbodies are not a part of the cytoskeleton. Bloom's Level: 1.51. actin filaments E. Golgi apparati D. ribosomes Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes and are particular numerous in phagocytic white blood cells.05 Topic: Cell Structure . microtubules C. What cellular organelle is especially abundant in phagocytic white blood cells? A. intermediate filaments B.04. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Which of the following is not associated with the cytoskeleton? A. microbodies D.05. Bloom's Level: 2. lysosomes E. nucleoli C. nuclei B.04 Topic: Cell Structure 52.02 List the major protein fibers in the cytoskeleton.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. Section: 03. D.53. Centrosomes are associated with A. Centrosomes are responsible for the regulation of microtubule assembly. chromosomes. anchor organelles D.05 Topic: Cell Structure 54. lysosomes. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. mitochondria. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. Section: 03. maintain a cell's shape B. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions . C. move organelles E.01 Explain the role of the cytoskeleton in the cell.05.01 Explain the role of the cytoskeleton in the cell. process proteins C. E. ribosomes. Bloom's Level: 2. microtubules. B. move the entire cell The cytoskeleton is not responsible for the processing of proteins. Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton? A.05. heart attack C.03 State the role of flagella and cilia in human cells.55. brittle bones The lack of cilia on the cells that line the respiratory tract would result in recurrent respiratory infections. muscle paralysis E. recurrent respiratory infections B. which assist the movement of chromosomes. TRUE Microtubules form spindle fibers during mitosis and meiosis.05 Topic: Cell Structure . urinary infections D. Section: 03. A microtubule poison would interfere with mitosis and meiosis. Remember Learning Outcome: 03. Apply Learning Outcome: 03. Which of the following diseases would you expect in someone with malfunctioning cilia? A. Section: 03.05.05 Topic: Cell Structure Multiple Choice Questions 56. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Explain the role of the cytoskeleton in the cell.05. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 03.05.05 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions 58. FALSE Both cilia and flagella are composed of microtubules. Understand Learning Outcome: 03. Why type of junction must there be between the cells of your bladder? A.03 State the role of flagella and cilia in human cells. adhesion junctions B. channel junctions E. Bloom's Level: 3.05 Topic: Cell Structure Multiple Choice Questions . tight junctions D. Bloom's Level: 2.57.05. gap junctions. and tight junctions in human cells. Cilia are composed of microtubules while flagella are composed of actin filaments. Section: 03.04 Compare the function of adhesion junctions. Apply Learning Outcome: 03. gap junctions C. free junctions Tight junctions are necessary to contain fluids within a specific area. 59. In an experiment in the laboratory, a small colored molecule is injected into one cells. Within minutes, the molecule has entered the adjacent cells. What type of junction connects these cells? A. gap junctions B. free junctions C. adhesion junctions D. tight junctions E. actin junctions Gap junctions serve as communication portals between cells, allowing easy movement between adjacent cells. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.05.04 Compare the function of adhesion junctions, gap junctions, and tight junctions in human cells. Section: 03.05 Topic: Cell Structure 60. What are the folds in mitochondrial membranes called? A. matrix B. cristae C. rugae D. lumen E. villi The folds in the mitochondria are known as cristae. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.01 Identify the key structures of a mitochondrion. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cell Structure 61. The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the A. matrix. B. cristae. C. rugae. D. effluvium. E. villi. The matrix of the mitochondrion is a gel-like fluid. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.01 Identify the key structures of a mitochondrion. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cell Structure 62. The sum of all of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell collectively are called A. respiration. B. anabolism. C. photosynthesis. D. metabolism. E. reaction summary. Metabolism includes the sum of the chemical reactions that occur within a cell. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.02 Summarize the relationship between the mitochondria and energy-generating pathways of the cell. Section: 03.06 Topic: Metabolism 63. In a metabolic pathway, substrate Z is broken down to form product Y and X. Y is further broken down into products V and W. How many enzymes are required for this metabolic pathway? A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five Two enzymes are needed: one to break down Z and one to break down Y. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.06.02 Summarize the relationship between the mitochondria and energy-generating pathways of the cell. Section: 03.06 Topic: Metabolism 64. Why is glycolysis believed to have evolved early in the history of life? A. It breaks down sugar. B. It produces energy. C. It is present in most every type of cell. D. It does not require oxygen. E. It splits a 6-carbon molecule into two 3-carbon molecules. Glycolysis is found in most every type of cell, therefore, it must have evolved early in the history of life. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration 65. Which of the following processes in the breakdown of glucose does not require oxygen? A. glycolysis B. citric acid cycle C. electron transport chain Glycolysis is anaerobic, because it requires no oxygen. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration True / False Questions 66. Only glucose can be used as an energy source in the human body. FALSE Other sugars as well as fats and proteins can be used as possible fuel for cellular respiration. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration Multiple Choice Questions 67. The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. The players complained of cramps and sore muscles. The reason for their complaints was that there was a __________________ build up in their muscles. A. glucose B. alcohol C. carbon dioxide D. carbon monoxide E. lactate The reason for cramps and sore muscles complaints was that there was a lactate build up in their muscles due to anaerobic exercise. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration True / False Questions 68. Since all organisms carry on cellular respiration, all living cells must contain mitochondria. FALSE Prokaryotic cells carry out cellular respiration but they do not contain mitochondria. The elements of the respiratory pathway are present in the plasma membrane. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 03.06.02 Summarize the relationship between the mitochondria and energy-generating pathways of the cell. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration Multiple Choice Questions 69. If the mitochondrion is the result of endosymbiosis, what membrane of the mitochondrion represents the engulfing vesicle? A. the outer mitochondrial membrane B. vacuole C. cristae D. matrix E. grana The outer mitochondrial membrane would come from the engulfing vesicle. The cristae is the inner mitochondrial membrane and would have represented the original prokaryotic membrane. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.06.01 Identify the key structures of a mitochondrion. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cell Structure True / False Questions 70. Fermentation produces more ATP than does aerobic respiration. FALSE Fermentation only produces 2 ATP while aerobic respiration produces 32 ATP. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation in energy generation. Section: 03.06 Topic: Cellular Respiration 71. When ATP is broken down, heat is released. TRUE ATP breakdown releases heat and energy that can be used for metabolic work. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 03.06.04 Illustrate the stages of the ATP cycle. Section: 03.06 Topic: Metabolism Multiple Choice Questions 72. If you could remove all the phosphate in the cell, what would happen to the ATP cycle? A. It would stop when all the ATP had been converted into ADP. B. It would stop when all the ADP had been converted into ATP. C. It would cycle faster because the lack of phosphate would drive the cycle. D. It would cycle faster because of the buildup of ATP. E. It would not affect the ATP cycle. Without phosphate, ADP cannot be converted back to ATP. So the cycle would stop when all the ATP had been converted to ADP. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 03.06.04 Illustrate the stages of the ATP cycle. Section: 03.06 Topic: Metabolism Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1. Remember 29 Bloom's Level: 2. Understand 18 Bloom's Level: 3. Apply 6 Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze 13 Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate 6 Learning Outcome: 03.01.01 State the basic principles of the cell theory. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.01.02 Explain how the surface area-to-volume ratio limits cell size. 4 Learning Outcome: 03.01.03 Summarize the role of microscopy in the study of cells. 5 Learning Outcome: 03.02.01 Identify the components of a human cell and state its function. 4 Learning Outcome: 03.02.02 Distinguish between the structure of a prokaryotic cell and that of a eukaryotic cell. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.02.03 Summarize how eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.03.01 Describe the structure of the cell membrane and list the type of molecules found in the memb 5 rane. Learning Outcome: 03.03.02 Distinguish between diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion and know the role of each in 3 the cell. Learning Outcome: 03.03.03 Explain how tonicity relates to the direction of water movement across a membrane. 4 Learning Outcome: 03.03.04 Compare passive- and active-transport mechanisms. 4 Learning Outcome: 03.03.05 State how eukaryotic cells move large molecules across membranes. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.04.01 Recognize the structure of the nucleus and its role as the storage place of the genetic inform 4 ation. Learning Outcome: 03.04.02 Summarize the function of the organelles of the endomembrane system. 5 Learning Outcome: 03.04.03 Explain the role and location of the ribosomes. 1 Learning Outcome: 03.05.01 Explain the role of the cytoskeleton in the cell. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.05.02 List the major protein fibers in the cytoskeleton. 1 Learning Outcome: 03.05.03 State the role of flagella and cilia in human cells. 2 Learning Outcome: 03.05.04 Compare the function of adhesion junctions, gap junctions, and tight junctions in human cells 2 . Learning Outcome: 03.06.01 Identify the key structures of a mitochondrion. 3 Learning Outcome: 03.06.02 Summarize the relationship between the mitochondria and energy- 3 generating pathways of the cell. Learning Outcome: 03.06.03 Summarize the roles of glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, and fermentation 5 in energy generation. Learning Outcome: 03.06.04 Illustrate the stages of the ATP cycle. 2 Section: 03.01 12 Section: 03.02 10 Section: 03.03 19 Section: 03.04 10 Section: 03.05 8 Section: 03.06 13 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea 2 Topic: Cell Structure 60 Topic: Cellular Respiration 6 Topic: Metabolism 4 Chapter 04 Organization and Regulation of Body Systems Multiple Choice Questions 1. Specialized cells that work together to perform a common function are called A. membranes. B. organs. C. tissues. D. glands. E. organisms. 2. Which of the following is not considered a basic tissue type? A. epithelial B. connective C. muscle D. nervous E. fat 3. Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities? A. epithelial tissue B. connective tissue C. muscular tissue D. nervous tissue E. vascular tissue 4. Jacob looked up and saw the car. This information was relayed to him via what type of tissue? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Muscular D. Nervous E. Vascular 5. Which of the following cells would have a greater probability of developing into cancer? A. brain cells B. neurons C. epithelial cells D. muscle cells E. liver cells 6. Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called A. carcinomas. B. sarcomas. C. leukemias. D. lymphomas. E. blastomas. 7. The three major components of connective tissue are A. cells, ground substance, and carbohydrate fibers. B. cells, fat, and protein fibers. C. cells, ground substance, and protein fibers. D. cells, ground substance, and enzymes. E. ground substance, enzymes, and protein fibers. 8. What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues? A. actin B. collagen C. keratin D. fibrinogen E. myosin 9. It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome. Which type of fiber is affected in this disorder? A. elastic fibers B. reticular fibers C. collagen fibers D. hyaline fibers E. ground fibers 10. What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue? A. bone and blood B. fibroblasts and matrix C. hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage D. adipose and cartilage E. loose fibrous and dense fibrous 11. Alison was looking at a tissue under the microscope. It had cells within lacuna and the matrix was glassy looking. What type of tissue is she looking at? A. blood B. bone C. cartilage D. adipose E. areolar 12. Todd's father slipped a disk in his back. Dr. Foster explained to the family that the intervertebral disks are composed of A. elastic cartilage. B. hyaline cartilage. C. composite cartilage. D. fibrocartilage. E. bone. 13. What characteristic can be used to differentiate bone and cartilage? A. whether the matrix is solid or liquid B. the presence or absence of cells C. the flexibility of the matrix D. the presence of fibers in the matrix E. whether it is fibrous or specialized connective tissue True / False Questions 14. The cells in bone tissue are found scattered throughout the matrix and are not connected to each other. True False Multiple Choice Questions 15. What carries oxygen in the blood? A. platelets B. serum C. plasma D. white blood cells E. red blood cells True / False Questions 16. There is no matrix in blood because it is a liquid. True False Multiple Choice Questions 17. The two components of blood are A. red blood cells and plasma. B. platelets and plasma. C. white blood cells and red blood cells. D. formed elements and plasma. E. formed elements and platelets. True / False Questions 18. Lymph contains no cells. True False Multiple Choice Questions 19. As a result of an infection, which component of blood would increase? A. platelets B. erythrocytes C. leukocytes D. plasma E. serum 20. Lymphatic vessels serve to absorb fat molecules from the A. bile. B. small intestines. C. large intestines. D. stomach. E. blood. 21. While observing cardiac muscle under the microscope for the first time, Jennifer noticed lines running perpendicular to the direction of the muscle. These lines are called A. perpendicular plates. B. Volkman canals. C. Broca's area. D. Haversian canals. E. intercalated discs. 22. The stripes in skeletal muscle are due to the presence of A. multiple nuclei per cell. B. actin and myosin filaments. C. intercalated discs. D. the branching of the cells. E. tendons connecting the muscle to bone. 23. In turning a page, you would mainly be using what type of muscle? A. cardiac muscle B. smooth muscle C. skeletal muscle True / False Questions 24. Smooth muscle in the bladder contracts sending urine into the urethra. True False Multiple Choice Questions 25. What type of tissue receives sensory input, integrates data, and conducts impulses? A. Epithelial tissue B. Connective tissue C. Muscular tissue D. Nervous tissue E. Vascular tissue 26. The specialized cells in the nervous system that serve to conduct a signal are known as A. neuroglia. B. neurons. C. dendrocytes. D. astrocytes. E. Schwann cells. 27. When you put your hand on a hot stove, ____ receive signals from the sensory receptors or other neurons and ______ conduct nerve impulses. A. astrocytes, oligodendrocytes B. axons, dendrites C. astrocytes, dendrites D. dendrites, axons E. dendrites, astrocytes 28. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain? A. astrocytes B. microglia C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. axons True / False Questions 29. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain? True False Multiple Choice Questions 30. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain? A. astrocytes B. microglia C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. axons 31. Which two types of cells make myelin? A. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells B. microglia and astrocytes C. astrocytes and oligodendrocytes D. microglia and oligodendrocytes E. Schwann cells and microglia 32. In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue? A. ependymal cells B. plasma membrane C. synovial membrane D. basement membrane E. transitional membrane 33. What type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch? A. Pseudostratified epithelium B. Glandular epithelium C. Transitional epithelium D. Stratified epithelium E. Columnar epithelium 34. Gynecologists perform yearly pap smears for women. This procedure is important in early diagnosis and prevention of what type of cancer? A. breast cancer B. colon cancer C. cervical cancer D. pancreatic cancer E. liver cancer 35. One of the dangers of smoking is that it disrupts the defensive system that utilizes ciliary action of what type of specialized epithelia? A. pseudostratified epithelium B. glandular epithelium C. cuboidal epithelium D. stratified epithelium E. columnar epithelium 36. ________ glands are considered ductless glands and ______ glands are contain ducts. A. Exocrine, endocrine B. Transitional, exocrine C. Transitional, endocrine D. Endocrine, exocrine E. Sudoriferous, transitional True / False Questions 37. Moving from the outside of the body, the first type of tissue encountered is epithelial tissue. True False Multiple Choice Questions 38. The epithelial lining of the small intestine is modified for what function? A. absorption B. secretion C. excretion D. removing debris 39. Which of the following is not a function of the integument? A. protection from pathogen invasion B. inhibition of water loss C. regulation of body temperature D. synthesis of vitamin D E. production of white blood cells 40. Stretch marks are the result of tears in the integumentary layer that contains fibrous connective tissue, elastin, and collagen. What is this region of the integument called? A. subcutaneous layer B. Langerhan layer C. epidermis D. hypodermis E. dermis 41. Which of the following is mismatched to its location in the skin? A. fat--subcutaneous layer B. sense organs--dermis C. keratinization--epidermis D. nerves/blood vessels--epidermis E. hair follicle--dermis 42. Which of the following is responsible for the waterproofing of skin? A. mucus B. keratin C. hyaline cartilage D. sweat E. wax 43. Which layer of the skin is responsible for tanning? A. epidermis B. dermis C. subcutaneous layer 44. Which type of gland can become blocked and form a "blackhead?" A. sudoriferous B. sweat C. endocrine D. sebaceous E. compound True / False Questions 45. Skin accounts for nearly 15% of the weight of an average human. True False Multiple Choice Questions 46. Carla is having problems with infections. Which body system is failing? A. immune system B. integumentary system C. cardiovascular system D. urinary system E. musculoskeletal system 47. Which of the following body systems is located in a specific cavity of the body? A. urinary system B. skeletal system C. cardiovascular system D. muscular system E. immune system 48. What cavities develop from the ventral cavity? A. cranial and vertebral B. thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic C. pelvic and abdominal D. cranial and thoracic E. cranial, vertebral, and thoracic 49. Which systems function in adjustment of the acid-base balance of the blood? A. cardiovascular and muscular B. cardiovascular and urinary C. respiratory and urinary D. respiratory and skeletal E. muscular and skeletal True / False Questions The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the blood. the cavities of freely movable joints D. the lining of the reproductive tract . the lining of the brain and spinal cord B. the muscular system D. the cardiovascular system C. the abdominal cavity 52. The pleurae would be found in which body system? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 51. the respiratory system B. the heart C. the urinary system E. the lining of the lungs C. Which of the following body parts is surrounded by a mucous membrane? A.50. the lungs B. What membrane is infected in meningitis? A. tubes of the digestive system E. the lining of the heart D. the skeletal system 53. the lining of the digestive tract E. coordination. blood volume. True False Multiple Choice Questions . B. blood glucose levels. E. True / False Questions 56. C. body temperature. homogeneous. blood pH. D. B. development. The body's ability to maintain a relative constancy of its internal environment is called A. 55. urine levels. C. D. E.54. homeostasis. the body's temperature would continue to rise. feedback. Only the nervous and endocrine systems are involved in homeostasis. Sweating is a physiological process that seeks to maintain A. True False 57. If temperature were controlled by a positive feedback mechanism. constriction or dilation of blood vessels B. secretion of sweat glands C. the hypothalamus True / False Questions 59. With a negative feedback system. True False .58. the value in question will vary around the set point. shivering D. Which of the following is not involved in body temperature homeostasis? A. respiration rate E. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. Which of the following is not considered a basic tissue type? A. glands.01 List the four types of tissues. C.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 2.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . connective. Specialized cells that work together to perform a common function are called A. and nervous tissue.Chapter 04 Organization and Regulation of Body Systems Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. connective C. Bloom's Level: 1. fat The basic tissue types include epithelial. B. membranes. organisms. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. muscle D.01. nervous E. epithelial B. Tissues are specialized cells that together perform a common function. tissues. organs. Section: 04. D. muscle.01. Section: 04. E. Bloom's Level: 2.01 List the four types of tissues. Epithelial B. vascular tissue Epithelial tissue covers body surfaces and lines cavities.01.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . Muscular D. Section: 04. Connective C. Bloom's Level: 1.01 List the four types of tissues. Jacob looked up and saw the car.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 4. Nervous E. epithelial tissue B. Vascular Nervous tissue receives stimuli and conducts nerve impulses. Apply Learning Outcome: 04. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. connective tissue C. Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities? A. This information was relayed to him via what type of tissue? A. Bloom's Level: 3.01 List the four types of tissues. Section: 04. nervous tissue E. muscular tissue D.3.01. 01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues .01. carcinomas. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.5. have a greater probability of developing into cancer. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. C. lymphomas. muscle cells E. leukemias. Bloom's Level: 1. E. such as epithelial cells and blood cells. Section: 04. liver cells Cells that divide often. sarcomas. Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called A. neurons C. D. Bloom's Level: 4. B.01 List the four types of tissues. blastomas. Section: 04.01 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 6. Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called sarcomas. Which of the following cells would have a greater probability of developing into cancer? A.01. brain cells B.01 List the four types of tissues. epithelial cells D. 01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. cells. ground substance. collagen C. and carbohydrate fibers. ground substance. enzymes. cells. fibrinogen E. Bloom's Level: 1. and enzymes.02. The three major components of connective tissue are A. myosin The protein collagen provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues. and protein fibers. Bloom's Level: 2. ground substance. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. cells. ground substance. Section: 04. and protein fibers. keratin D. E.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues .02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 8. C. actin B.02. Section: 04. B.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each. and protein fibers. What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues? A. fat. The three components of connective tissue are cells.7. and protein fibers. D. ground substance. cells. fibroblasts and matrix C. hyaline fibers E.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . bone and blood B. elastic fibers B. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 04. there are mutations in the fibrillin gene.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each. reticular fibers C. ground fibers In Marfan syndrome.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. Apply Learning Outcome: 04. which produces a component of elastic fibers. loose fibrous and dense fibrous Loose fibrous and dense fibrous tissues are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue.02.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 10. adipose and cartilage E. What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue? A.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each. hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage D. Section: 04. collagen fibers D.9. It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome. Which type of fiber is affected in this disorder? A. cartilage D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04. bone.11. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. C. What type of tissue is she looking at? A. The intervertebral disks are composed of fibrocartilage.02. adipose E. It had cells within lacuna and the matrix was glassy looking.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 12. composite cartilage.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage. Dr. hyaline cartilage. bone C. elastic cartilage. Bloom's Level: 4. Todd's father slipped a disk in his back.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . Bloom's Level: 2.02. blood B. fibrocartilage. B. Alison was looking at a tissue under the microscope. E. areolar Both bone and cartilage have cells in lacuna. Hyaline cartilage has a glassy-looking matrix. Section: 04. D.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage. Section: 04. Foster explained to the family that the intervertebral disks are composed of A. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues True / False Questions 14. The cells in bone tissue are found scattered throughout the matrix and are not connected to each other. whether the matrix is solid or liquid B. Bloom's Level: 4.02. Section: 04. whether it is fibrous or specialized connective tissue In cartilage the matrix is flexible while in bone the matrix is rigid. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues Multiple Choice Questions .02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage.13. What characteristic can be used to differentiate bone and cartilage? A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04. Section: 04. the presence of fibers in the matrix E.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage.02. FALSE Although bone cells are scattered throughout the matrix they are still connected to each other and to the central canal. the flexibility of the matrix D. the presence or absence of cells C. platelets B. Section: 04. serum C.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues True / False Questions 16.15.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. white blood cells E. FALSE Blood is a fluid connective tissue and has a liquid matrix. Section: 04. There is no matrix in blood because it is a liquid. What carries oxygen in the blood? A.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues Multiple Choice Questions . Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.02. Bloom's Level: 4. red blood cells Red blood cells contain hemoglobin and carry oxygen in the blood. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. plasma D.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. formed elements and plasma.17. Lymph contains no cells.02.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. C.02. Section: 04. Bloom's Level: 2. white blood cells and red blood cells. white blood cells. The two components of blood are A. Blood is composed of the formed elements (red blood cells. B.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Bloom's Level: 2. E. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. FALSE Lymph contains white blood cells. and platelets) and plasma. Section: 04.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues True / False Questions 18. formed elements and platelets.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues Multiple Choice Questions . platelets and plasma. red blood cells and plasma. D. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. their numbers go up in the case of an infection. Lymphatic vessels serve to absorb fat molecules from the small intestines.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . large intestines.02. bile. E. Section: 04. stomach. erythrocytes C.19. platelets B.02 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 20. B. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. serum Because leukocytes are involved in protecting the body. Bloom's Level: 1. plasma E.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Bloom's Level: 3. which component of blood would increase? A. blood. D. leukocytes D. Section: 04. C. As a result of an infection.02. small intestines. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph. Lymphatic vessels serve to absorb fat molecules from the A. 03.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the body. multiple nuclei per cell. are exclusive to cardiac muscle. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. D.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the body. Actin and myosin have alternating light and dark bands that give skeletal muscle a striated appearance. perpendicular plates. where cardiac muscle cells are bound end to end. Jennifer noticed lines running perpendicular to the direction of the muscle. Broca's area. The stripes in skeletal muscle are due to the presence of A. Intercalated discs. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 22. Volkman canals. B.03 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . tendons connecting the muscle to bone. B. intercalated discs. Bloom's Level: 4. D. E. Section: 04.21. intercalated discs. C. C. Haversian canals.03. E. These lines are called A. Section: 04. the branching of the cells. While observing cardiac muscle under the microscope for the first time. actin and myosin filaments. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04. Section: 04. you would mainly be using skeletal muscle. Bloom's Level: 1.03. Apply Learning Outcome: 04. cardiac muscle B.23. you would mainly be using what type of muscle? A. smooth muscle C.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the body. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. TRUE Smooth muscle lines the bladder and is responsible for the ability to urinate.03 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues Multiple Choice Questions .03 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues True / False Questions 24. Smooth muscle in the bladder contracts sending urine into the urethra. Section: 04.03.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the body. Bloom's Level: 3. In turning a page. skeletal muscle In turning a page. Muscular tissue D. dendrocytes. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. B. Section: 04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells.25. integrates data. integrates data. neurons. D. E. Nervous tissue E. Neurons are specialized cells that conduct a signal. neuroglia. Schwann cells.04. The specialized cells in the nervous system that serve to conduct a signal are known as A. and conducts impulses. astrocytes. C. and conducts impulses? A. Vascular tissue Nervous tissue receives sensory input. Epithelial tissue B.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . Understand Learning Outcome: 04. Bloom's Level: 1.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 26. What type of tissue receives sensory input.04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 04. Connective tissue C. 04. axons Outside the brain. Bloom's Level: 2. astrocytes Dendrites receive signals from the sensory receptors or other neurons and axons conduct nerve impulses. astrocytes. dendrites C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. astrocytes B. microglia C. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. astrocytes. axons E. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 2. ____ receive signals from the sensory receptors or other neurons and ______ conduct nerve impulses. Schwann cells are the type of neuroglia that encircle long nerve fibers and form a myelin sheath. axons. Section: 04. Section: 04. dendrites D. dendrites.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 28.04.02 Describe the structure of a neuron. When you put your hand on a hot stove. oligodendrocytes B. A.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells.27. dendrites. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain? A. Section: 04. Bloom's Level: 5. Schwann cells are the type of neuroglia that encircle long nerve fibers and form a myelin sheath. microglia C. Section: 04. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain? TRUE Outside the brain.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues Multiple Choice Questions 30.02 Describe the structure of a neuron. oligodendrocytes D. Which type of cell is neuroglia found outside of the brain? A.29. axons Outside the brain. astrocytes B. Schwann cells E. Schwann cells are the type of neuroglia that encircle long nerve fibers and form a myelin sheath. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04.04.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells.04.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 1.31. ependymal cells B. transitional membrane In epithelial tissues. microglia and astrocytes C. microglia and oligodendrocytes E. the basement membrane serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.01 State the role of epithelial cells in the body. astrocytes and oligodendrocytes D. what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue? A.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells B.05.04 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 32. Section: 04. plasma membrane C. In epithelial tissues. basement membrane E.04. Schwann cells and microglia Oligodendrocytes form the myelin sheaths around fibers in the brain and spinal cord while Schwann cells do so outside the brain. Which two types of cells make myelin? A. Section: 04. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . synovial membrane D. What type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch? A.33.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function. Transitional epithelium D. breast cancer B. Columnar epithelium Transitional epithelium forms the lining of the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch.05. Section: 04.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function. Bloom's Level: 2. cervical cancer D. pancreatic cancer E. This procedure is important in early diagnosis and prevention of what type of cancer? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. colon cancer C. Section: 04.05. Bloom's Level: 2. Glandular epithelium C.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . Understand Learning Outcome: 04. Stratified epithelium E. Gynecologists perform yearly pap smears for women.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 34. liver cancer A pap smear is an important procedure utilized to detect cervical cancer in women. Pseudostratified epithelium B. Endocrine. ________ glands are considered ductless glands and ______ glands are contain ducts. pseudostratified epithelium B. endocrine B. One of the dangers of smoking is that it disrupts the defensive system that utilizes ciliary action of what type of specialized epithelia? A.05. A.05.35. cuboidal epithelium D. Transitional. exocrine E. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. Sudoriferous. stratified epithelium E. Section: 04. Bloom's Level: 3. Exocrine. glandular epithelium C.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 36. Bloom's Level: 2. endocrine D. which contains upward beating cilia.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues True / False Questions . Transitional. transitional Endocrine glands are considered ductless glands and exocrine glands contain ducts. columnar epithelium Pseudostratified columnar epithelium. exocrine C. Section: 04. Apply Learning Outcome: 04. is important in preventing harmful substances from entering the lungs. Bloom's Level: 4. excretion D. absorption B.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues Multiple Choice Questions 38.05. Section: 04. Apply Learning Outcome: 04. Section: 04.05. the first type of tissue encountered is epithelial tissue.37.01 State the role of epithelial cells in the body.01 State the role of epithelial cells in the body. Bloom's Level: 3. the epithelial lining is modified for absorption. The epithelial lining of the small intestine is modified for what function? A.05 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . Analyze Learning Outcome: 04. removing debris Because food is absorbed from the small intestine. TRUE Epithelial tissue covers surfaces and lines body cavities. secretion C. Moving from the outside of the body. production of white blood cells The integumentary system does not produce leukocytes or white blood cells.02 Compare the function of the epidermis and dermis. hypodermis E. subcutaneous layer B. regulation of body temperature D. dermis Tears in the dermis results in stretch marks.06. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04. What is this region of the integument called? A. Stretch marks are the result of tears in the integumentary layer that contains fibrous connective tissue. Langerhan layer C. epidermis D. Bloom's Level: 4.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . Which of the following is not a function of the integument? A.39. inhibition of water loss C.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 40. Section: 04. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. protection from pathogen invasion B.06. Section: 04. synthesis of vitamin D E.01 Describe the structure and function of human skin. Bloom's Level: 2. elastin. and collagen. so tanning alters that layer. Which layer of the skin is responsible for tanning? A.06. nerves/blood vessels--epidermis E. fat--subcutaneous layer B. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04. Analyze . Bloom's Level: 1.06. Section: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 43. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. keratinization--epidermis D. hair follicle--dermis The epidermis is not associated with the nerves and the blood supply. Which of the following is mismatched to its location in the skin? A. keratin C. Bloom's Level: 5. dermis C. hyaline cartilage D. Which of the following is responsible for the waterproofing of skin? A.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 42. Section: 04.03 Identify the function of the accessory organs associated with the skin. Bloom's Level: 4. mucus B. wax The protein keratin is important in waterproofing the skin.41. epidermis B.01 Describe the structure and function of human skin. subcutaneous layer Melanocytes are found in the epidermis. sense organs--dermis C. sweat E. Bloom's Level: 1. endocrine D.03 Identify the function of the accessory organs associated with the skin.06. Section: 04. Which type of gland can become blocked and form a "blackhead?" A.02 Compare the function of the epidermis and dermis.06. compound Blackheads result from failure of the sebaceous glands to discharge their content known as sebum. Section: 04.Learning Outcome: 04. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues True / False Questions 45. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. sudoriferous B. Bloom's Level: 2.06. Skin accounts for nearly 15% of the weight of an average human.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 44.01 Describe the structure and function of human skin. sweat C.06 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues Multiple Choice Questions . TRUE Skin is the most conspicuous system in the body and accounts for nearly 15% of the weight of an average human. Section: 04. sebaceous E. immune system The urinary system is located in the pelvic cavity while all the others occur throughout the body. Which body system is failing? A.46. urinary system E. Carla is having problems with infections. urinary system B. integumentary system C. musculoskeletal system The role of the immune system is to protect us from infections. Section: 04.07 Topic: General 47. immune system B. muscular system E. Which of the following body systems is located in a specific cavity of the body? A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04. cardiovascular system D. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 2. cardiovascular system D. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.01 State the function of each organ system in the human body. skeletal system C.07.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues .02 Identify the major cavities of the human body. Section: 04.07. cardiovascular and muscular B. respiratory and skeletal E. Section: 04. cranial.01 State the function of each organ system in the human body. abdominal. vertebral. and pelvic cavities. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. cardiovascular and urinary C. thoracic. Which systems function in adjustment of the acid-base balance of the blood? A.07.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 49. What cavities develop from the ventral cavity? A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04.48. cranial and thoracic E. pelvic and abdominal D. and pelvic C. respiratory and urinary D. and thoracic The ventral cavity later divides into the thoracic.07. abdominal. Section: 04. Bloom's Level: 4. cranial and vertebral B.02 Identify the major cavities of the human body. muscular and skeletal Both the respiratory and urinary system adjust the acid-base balance of the blood.07 Topic: General True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 2. 03 Name the body membranes and provide a function for each.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues .50. the blood.07. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. respiratory. tubes of the digestive system E. the heart C. the abdominal cavity Mucous membranes line the tubes of the digestive. urinary. Section: 04. FALSE The cardiovascular system consists of the heart. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. the cavities of freely movable joints D. The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the blood. Which of the following body parts is surrounded by a mucous membrane? A.01 State the function of each organ system in the human body. Bloom's Level: 2.07.07 Topic: General Multiple Choice Questions 51. the lungs B. and reproductive tracts. Section: 04. and the vessels the blood moves through. the lining of the brain and spinal cord B. the lining of the heart D.03 Name the body membranes and provide a function for each. the lining of the lungs C.07. the lining of the reproductive tract The meninges are the membranes found within the dorsal cavity. the respiratory system B. Section: 04. Section: 04. Bloom's Level: 2.07.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 53.52. the skeletal system The pleurae cover the lungs and thus would be part of the respiratory system. the lining of the digestive tract E. What membrane is infected in meningitis? A.07 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues . Bloom's Level: 4. Meningitis is an infection of the meninges. Analyze Learning Outcome: 04. The pleurae would be found in which body system? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 04. covering the brain and spinal cord. the cardiovascular system C. the urinary system E. the muscular system D.03 Name the body membranes and provide a function for each. E. The body's ability to maintain a relative constancy of its internal environment is called A. blood volume. Remember Learning Outcome: 04. Bloom's Level: 5. C.08 Topic: Homeostasis 55. blood pH. Sweating cools the body and is part of the homeostatic control of body temperature. D. C. development. B. D.08 Topic: Homeostasis True / False Questions . E.01 Define homeostasis and provide an example from humans.08. blood glucose levels. Section: 04. feedback.54. Homeostasis the the body's ability to maintain a relative constancy of its internal environment by adjusting its physiological processes. B. Section: 04.01 Define homeostasis and provide an example from humans. coordination. homogeneous.08. urine levels. Sweating is a physiological process that seeks to maintain A. homeostasis. Bloom's Level: 1. body temperature. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04. Only the nervous and endocrine systems are involved in homeostasis.08. the body's temperature would continue to rise. respiration rate E. FALSE All of the body systems are involved in maintaining homeostasis. not temperature regulation. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 04. TRUE A positive feedback system results in an increasing change in the same direction. constriction or dilation of blood vessels B. Apply Learning Outcome: 04.56.08. Understand Learning Outcome: 04.01 Define homeostasis and provide an example from humans.08 . If temperature were controlled by a positive feedback mechanism.08. secretion of sweat glands C. Bloom's Level: 5. Section: 04.02 Distinguish between positive and negative feedback mechanisms. Section: 04. Bloom's Level: 3. the hypothalamus The respiration rate is involved in acid-base balance of the blood.02 Distinguish between positive and negative feedback mechanisms.08 Topic: Homeostasis Multiple Choice Questions 58. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04. Which of the following is not involved in body temperature homeostasis? A.08 Topic: Homeostasis 57. shivering D. With a negative feedback system.08. the system shuts off. Section: 04.02 Distinguish between positive and negative feedback mechanisms. the value in question will vary around the set point.08 Topic: Homeostasis . Evaluate Learning Outcome: 04. the value will vary around the set point. When the value is under the set point. TRUE When the value overshoots the set point.Topic: Homeostasis True / False Questions 59. Therefore. Bloom's Level: 5. the system turns on. 01 State the function of each organ system in the human body.07.04.06 7 Section: 04.06. 3 Section: 04. 3 Learning Outcome: 04.01 State the role of epithelial cells in the body.01 Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia cells. 2 Learning Outcome: 04.06.05. Evaluate 5 Learning Outcome: 04.08 6 Topic: Body Orientation and Tissues 50 Topic: General 3 .05. 4 Learning Outcome: 04.03 Name the body membranes and provide a function for each.07. 2 Learning Outcome: 04.03 4 Section: 04.01 Distinguish between the three types of muscles with regard to location and function in the b 4 ody. 6 Learning Outcome: 04. 3 Learning Outcome: 04. 3 Learning Outcome: 04.Chapter 04 Organization and Regulation of Body Systems Summary Category # of Question s Bloom's Level: 1.01 6 Section: 04. Remember 11 Bloom's Level: 2.02.02 Identify the major cavities of the human body. 6 Learning Outcome: 04. 4 Learning Outcome: 04.02.03.08.02 Distinguish between different forms of epithelial tissue with regard to location and function. 4 Learning Outcome: 04.02 Compare the structure and function of bone and cartilage.05 7 Section: 04.01 Describe the structure and function of human skin.07 8 Section: 04.04 7 Section: 04. 5 Learning Outcome: 04.02 Describe the structure of a neuron.07.01 Describe the primary types of connective tissue and provide a function for each.04. 3 Learning Outcome: 04. 2 Learning Outcome: 04. 2 Learning Outcome: 04.02 14 Section: 04.02 Compare the function of the epidermis and dermis. Analyze 12 Bloom's Level: 5. 3 Learning Outcome: 04.06.03 Differentiate between blood and lymph.03 Identify the function of the accessory organs associated with the skin. Apply 7 Bloom's Level: 4.01.01 Define homeostasis and provide an example from humans. Understand 24 Bloom's Level: 3.01 List the four types of tissues.02 Distinguish between positive and negative feedback mechanisms.02.08. Learning Outcome: 04. Topic: Homeostasis 6 . grocery stores D. What type of tissue is important in assisting the cardiovascular system by collecting excess tissue fluid and eventually returning it to the cardiovascular system? A. power plant . roads B. vascular C. pulmonary B. government building C. what is the cardiovascular system similar to? A. lymphatic D. waste recycling plant E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 3. Gas exchange is the only function of blood. gastric E. urinary True / False Questions 2. In a city analogy.Chapter 05 Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood Vessels Multiple Choice Questions 1. endothelium C. large intestine 5. veins . exothelium D. Which part of the body is often diseased in alcoholics due to exposure to alcohol? A. heart and blood vessels B. mesothelium B. small arteries E. stomach C. veins and heart D. and porous enough to exchange substances at the tissue level of organization? A. arteries and heart C. What are the two components of the cardiovascular system? A. venules D. arteries and veins E. capillaries C. The innermost layer of an artery is known as what? A. mouth D. hyperthelium E. esophagus E.4. arterioles B. thin. hypothelium 7. liver B. Which of the following blood vessels are the only ones small. capillaries and veins 6. What structure within a capillary bed shunts blood from the arteriole to the venule? A. It falls because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. Arteries have less smooth muscle than veins. When dissecting a specimen. Veins return blood to the heart against gravity. True False Multiple Choice Questions . D. Veins have valves. Arteries contain a greater volume of blood. Barry noticed that the arteries were thicker and more elastic than the veins. endothelium C. D. Arteries are under greater pressure. What does this do to her blood pressure? Why? A. The walls of veins are thinner. precapillary valve B. pericardium E. not arterioles. control blood pressure. B. precapillary sphincter D. It falls because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. It rises because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. Elizabeth takes a prescription drug that dilates her arterioles. C. shunt valve 9. It stays the same because venules. It rises because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. B. Why? A. C.8. E. E. 10. True / False Questions 11. so they cannot expand as greatly as arteries can. the apex of the heart would be oriented to the ___. Pre-capillary sphincters contract to increase capillary flow. prevent the backward flow of blood C. The walls of capillaries contain smooth muscle. oxygenate the blood E. arteries 15. remove debris from the blood 14. D. regulation of blood pressure D. 13. right C. E. Dr. gas exchange. back . Choose the most correct statement concerning capillaries. capillaries E. left D. and waste exchange is the capillaries. where is the majority of the blood found in the body? A. lungs C. the internal organs are reversed in their orientation. What is the function of valves in the veins? A. front E. lymphatic vessels D. increase the rate of blood flow B. A. veins B. Ferguson explained that in a condition known as situs inversus. B. The only site of nutrient. A.12. middle B. Networks of capillaries are called capillary nets. Thus. C. Almost all capillaries are open at the same time. At any one time. mesothelium B. The right ventricle is to the pulmonary trunk as the left ventricle is to the ___________. septae and chordae C. auricles C. endothelium C. myocardium E. AV valves D. pericardium D. A. superior vena cava C. epicardium 17.16. What type of cell junctions are found in cardiac muscle tissue? A. left pulmonary vein D. atria and auricles B. inferior vena cava E. What are the upper chambers of the heart called? A. intercalated disks D. ventricles E. membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart? A. aorta B. gap junctions and desmosomes 19. atria B. septa 18. myocardium and pericardium E. left common carotid artery . What is the name of the thick. corpus albicans D. A hospital laboratory technician injects a dye into a vein in your right arm. left atrium C. corpus callosum E. right ventricle E. cingulated pectorale B. left ventricle 23. left ventricle . A. Blood leaves which chamber of the heart to enter the lungs? A. right ventricle D. choroid plexus 21. What is the first chamber of the heart the dye reaches? A. right atrium B. right ventricle D. pericardium. During open heart surgery. left ventricle C. the first heart structure that would be cut into is the _____________. myocardium B.20. left atrium 22. D. chordae tendinae C. What are known as the "strings of the heart?" A. left atrium C. right atrium B. the closing of the semilunar valves C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 27. The cardiac muscle is supplied with nutrients from the blood within the heart itself. left ventricle 25. the closing of the AV valves B. sinoatrial node E. the right atrium contracting D. atrioventricular node C. lungs B. the left atrium contracting E. atrioventricular bundle B. If the semilunar valve was blocked. the relaxation of both atria True / False Questions 26. Purkinje fibers D. Which of the following heart tissues is not part of the internal conduction system of the heart? A. semilunar valve . where would blood accumulate? A. right ventricle E. The "lub" sound of the "lub-dup" heart beat is due to what? A. left atrium D. right atrium C.24. stops it D. increases it B. What does an ECG record? A. brain activity B. What is considered the pacemaker of the heart? A. frontal lobe 30. medulla oblongata C. the sinoatrial node C. electrical changes . Lisa receives a dose of epinephrine. Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center? A. hormonal changes E. cerebellum D.28. cerebrum B. decreases it C. does not alter it 31. What does this do to her heart rate? A. heart sounds D. Purkinje fibers E. the atrioventricular node D. atrioventricular bundle 29. medulla oblongata B. pons E. blood volume C. 35 beats per minute C. inferior vena cava D. 70 beats per minute 34. normal blood pressure B. If your pulse is 70 beats per minute. stage 1 hypertension E. sympathetic E. These numbers indicate that she has __________. somatic D. A. hypotension D. Which part of the nervous system causes the heart to beat faster when afraid? A. axial 33. radial artery C. Hinson was informed that her blood pressure was 150/95. superior vena cava E. Mrs. peripheral B. renal capillaries 35. how fast is your heart beating? A. stage 2 hypertension . Tina's heart began to beat much faster when it came to the scary scene in the movie.32. 140 beats per minute B. Which of the following could be used to take a pulse? A. radial vein B. prehypertension C. parasympathetic C. CPR C. ejection of blood from the heart B. A person who sits for hours on a long airplane flight will have problems will blood pooling below the knees. systolic pressure. D. What is the instrument called that is used to measure blood pressure? A. ventricles are relaxing D. 39. The valves in the leg veins don't work above a certain altitude. E. diastolic pressure. ventricles are relaxing E. diastolic pressure. C. ECG E. A blood pressure of 90/40 is considered normal. AED True / False Questions 37. True False Multiple Choice Questions 38. B. Why? A. The respiratory pump is not helping blood return to the heart. The capillaries expand at high altitudes. systolic pressure. diastolic pressure.36. sphygmomanometer D. stethoscope B. ejection of blood from the heart C. Normal blood pressure is 120/80. ventricles are relaxing . The skeletal muscle pump is not helping blood return to the heart. What is the top number called and what is happening in the heart? A. Blood pressure drops on long airplane flights. atria are contracting. aorta C. True / False Questions 43. Capillaries are present in muscles while arterioles are not. A. decreases C. stays the same 42.40. Blood pressure ______ with distance from the left ventricle while the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels __________. increases E. Why does blood move slowly in the capillaries in comparison to arterioles? A. E. renal capillaries 41. Where in the body is blood pressure the highest? A. stays the same. D. increases B. decreases D. inferior vena cava D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . C. decreases. There are many more capillaries than arterioles. superior vena cava B. Capillaries are much wider than arterioles. Precapillary sphincters close shunting blood into capillaries. lung capillaries E. decreases. increases. Blood pressure plays a major role in returning blood to the heart. B. Blood pressure is much higher in capillaries than in arterioles. stays the same. coronary D. True False 48. pulmonary D. The systemic circuit contains more blood at any one time than does the pulmonary circuit. hepatic E.44. carotid C. left atrium D. left ventricle True / False Questions 47. True False . What system drains blood from the capillary beds of the digestive tract to a capillary bed in the liver? A. cephalic B. What is the largest artery in the systemic circuit? A. aorta 45. Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit? A. right atrium B. femoral B. The blood from the digestive tract travels through two different veins before reaching the inferior vena cava. right ventricle C. lymphatic 46. hepatic portal C. celiac E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 51.Multiple Choice Questions 49. poor. C. veins carry oxygen-_____ blood. The net pressure is in. poor D. rich. and in the systemic circuit. rich. E. All veins carry oxygen-poor blood. Blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure. B. This is the venous end of the capillary. If fluid is leaving a capillary and entering the tissue. True / False Questions . Red blood cells are able to leave the capillary. Plasma proteins are able to leave the capillary. rich B. A. poor C. veins carry oxygen-____ blood. poor. In the pulmonary circuit. which of the following statements is true? A. rich True / False Questions 50. D. hypertension D. Oxygen will not leave the capillary and enter the tissues. Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the tissues. how will this affect nutrient exchange at the capillaries? A. If a person is dehydrated. E. It will have no effect. thrombus D. The American Heart Association recommends a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol to prevent which disease? A. Carbon dioxide will not leave the tissues and enter the capillary. C. stroke 56. Plasma proteins will be able to leave the capillary and enter the tissues. Tissue fluid contains lower amounts of protein than does plasma. True False Multiple Choice Questions 54. What is the ballooning or bulging of a blood vessel called? A. aneurysm C. 55. hypotension B. atherosclerosis E.52. D. infarction . Tissue fluid leaving the arterial end of the capillary is balanced by tissue fluid entering the venous end of the capillary. B. aneurysm C. True False 53. myocardial infarction E. embolus B. Take antioxidant vitamins (A. a treatment to lower blood pressure . Know your cholesterol level. Which of the following activities is not recommended for prevention of cardiovascular disease? A. acetominophen B. time spent in recovery after coronary bypass surgery C. aspirin C. True / False Questions 58. True False Multiple Choice Questions 59.57. beta-blockers 60. a cylinder of expandable metal mesh B. there are no symptoms of hypertension. a treatment for phlebitis D. Exercise moderately. t-PA E. B. ACE D. C. and C). What is a stent? A. D. E. an instrument that regulates the heartbeat E. What drug may protect against having a first heart attack? A. E. Use olive and canola oil rather than butter/cream. Raise the LDL intake. Generally. 61. feeling of pressure in the chest B. a form of coronary stent . diarrhea E. a cardioverter-defibrillator B. shortness of breath 62. a heart pump inserted inside the left ventricle E. Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack? A. What is a Jarvik 2000? A. dizziness C. nausea and vomiting D. a total artificial heart D. a left ventricular assist device C. FALSE The blood has many functions.01. What type of tissue is important in assisting the cardiovascular system by collecting excess tissue fluid and eventually returning it to the cardiovascular system? A. gastric E.Chapter 05 Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood Vessels Key Multiple Choice Questions 1.01.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System .01 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions 2. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Explain the purpose of the lymphatic system in circulation. vascular C. lymphatic D. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. of which gas exchange is only one. pulmonary B. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.02 Summarize the functions of the cardiovascular system. Section: 05. urinary Lymphatic tissues are important in assisting the cardiovascular system by collecting excess tissue fluid and eventually returning it to the cardiovascular system. Section: 05. Gas exchange is the only function of blood. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05. power plant The cardiovascular system is similar to the roads which transport goods between all of the other places in the city.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System 4. what is the cardiovascular system similar to? A.01. Excessive amounts of alcohol removed by the liver often damage the liver tissue.Multiple Choice Questions 3. Bloom's Level: 4.01.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System . stomach C.02 Summarize the functions of the cardiovascular system. esophagus E. In a city analogy. grocery stores D. waste recycling plant E. Bloom's Level: 5.02 Summarize the functions of the cardiovascular system. Section: 05. government building C. roads B. mouth D. Section: 05. Which part of the body is often diseased in alcoholics due to exposure to alcohol? A. liver B. large intestine The liver is often diseased because the liver removes toxins and chemicals from the blood. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 05. 01 Identify the two components of the cardiovascular system. veins and heart D. capillaries and veins The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the blood vessels. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. arteries and veins E. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 05. What are the two components of the cardiovascular system? A.01.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System .01 Topic: Cardiovascular System 6. hypothelium The innermost layer of an artery is known as the endothelium. exothelium D. heart and blood vessels B. The innermost layer of an artery is known as what? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. Section: 05.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. hyperthelium E.02. Bloom's Level: 1.5. mesothelium B. arteries and heart C. endothelium C. 02. endothelium C. microscopic tubes that are porous enough to allow for the exchange of substances at the tissue level of organization. venules D. Section: 05. What structure within a capillary bed shunts blood from the arteriole to the venule? A. Section: 05. thin. precapillary valve B.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Which of the following blood vessels are the only ones small. arterioles B. and porous enough to exchange substances at the tissue level of organization? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. small arteries E. Bloom's Level: 1.7.02 Explain how blood flow is regulated in each of the three types of blood vessels. capillaries C.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System . pericardium E. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. shunt valve The precapillary sphincter shunts blood from the arteriole to the venule. veins Capillaries are narrow. precapillary sphincter D.02. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System 8. E. Elizabeth takes a prescription drug that dilates her arterioles. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05. What does this do to her blood pressure? Why? A. Barry noticed that the arteries were thicker and more elastic than the veins. not arterioles. When dissecting a specimen.02 Explain how blood flow is regulated in each of the three types of blood vessels. B. It falls because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. Arteries contain a greater volume of blood. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05. Veins have valves. C. E. It falls because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. control blood pressure. Arteries are thicker and more elastic than veins because they are under greater pressure. C. It stays the same because venules. Arteries have less smooth muscle than veins.02. Bloom's Level: 4.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions . When arterioles dilate blood pressure falls because of the increase in the cross-sectional area of the vessels. D. Why? A. It rises because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. D.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System 10.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Section: 05.9. Veins return blood to the heart against gravity. B. Bloom's Level: 4.02. It rises because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. Section: 05. Arteries are under greater pressure. Pre-capillary sphincters contract to increase capillary flow.02. B. A. Section: 05. Bloom's Level: 2. gas exchange.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. and waste exchange is the capillaries. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Almost all capillaries are open at the same time. Networks of capillaries are called capillary nets. D. C.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System . The only site of nutrient. Bloom's Level: 4. so they cannot expand as greatly as arteries can. Choose the most correct statement concerning capillaries.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 12. FALSE The walls of veins are thinner. The walls of veins are thinner. so they can expand to a greater extent than can arteries. gas exchange. The only site of nutrient.11.02. The walls of capillaries contain smooth muscle. E. and waste exchange is the capillaries. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. Section: 05. oxygenate the blood E.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. Bloom's Level: 3. prevent the backward flow of blood C. Bloom's Level: 1. where is the majority of the blood found in the body? A.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System 14.02. holding about 70% of the blood. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. Section: 05. What is the function of valves in the veins? A. Apply Learning Outcome: 05. lungs C. regulation of blood pressure D.13. veins B. valves prevent the backflow of blood from occurring. increase the rate of blood flow B. At any one time. remove debris from the blood In the lower extremities.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels.02. Section: 05.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System . lymphatic vessels D. capillaries E. arteries Veins can serve as a blood reservoir. In situs inversus the apex of the heart is tilted to the right. left D. mesothelium B.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. A.03. Bloom's Level: 1.15. What is the name of the thick. endothelium C.03. membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart? A. middle B. pericardium D. the internal organs are reversed in their orientation. myocardium E. back Normally.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 16. the apex of the heart would be oriented to the ___. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. right C. Section: 05. the apex of the heart is tilted to the left. Dr. Ferguson explained that in a condition known as situs inversus. Thus. Section: 05. front E. epicardium The pericardium is a thick. Bloom's Level: 2. intercalated disks D. AV valves D. What type of cell junctions are found in cardiac muscle tissue? A. septa The atria are the upper collecting chambers of the heart. gap junctions and desmosomes Gap junctions and desmosomes are types of cell junctions found in intercalated disks of the myocardium.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 18. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. septae and chordae C.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . atria B.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. Bloom's Level: 1. auricles C. atria and auricles B.17. ventricles E. What are the upper chambers of the heart called? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. myocardium and pericardium E.03. Section: 05.03. Section: 05. Bloom's Level: 2. 03 Topic: Cardiovascular System .03. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. chordae tendinae C.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. corpus callosum E.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. A.19. superior vena cava C. choroid plexus The chordae tendinae are strong fibrous strings that serve to anchor the valves of the heart. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05. The right ventricle is to the pulmonary trunk as the left ventricle is to the ___________. Section: 05. inferior vena cava E. Section: 05. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 20. What are known as the "strings of the heart?" A. Bloom's Level: 4. The left ventricle pumps blood out through the aorta. corpus albicans D. aorta B. left pulmonary vein D. cingulated pectorale B.03. left common carotid artery The right ventricle pumps blood out through the pulmonary trunk. Section: 05. right ventricle E.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . D.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. Bloom's Level: 3.03. A hospital laboratory technician injects a dye into a vein in your right arm. right atrium B.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. pericardium. right ventricle D. left atrium C. left ventricle C.03. A. What is the first chamber of the heart the dye reaches? A.21. left ventricle The veins from the body empty into the right atrium. Section: 05. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 05. myocardium B. left atrium The heart is surrounded by a thick. During open heart surgery.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 22. the first heart structure that would be cut into is the _____________. Apply Learning Outcome: 05. membranous sac called the pericardium that would have to be cut through to reach the heart. Section: 05. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. Section: 05. left ventricle The left ventricle contracts.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 24. where would blood accumulate? A. left atrium D. sending blood through the semilunar valve into the aorta. If the valve were blocked. If the semilunar valve was blocked. Apply Learning Outcome: 05. Bloom's Level: 2. the blood would back up in the left ventricle. left ventricle Blood leaves the right ventricle and enters the lungs.23. right ventricle D. right ventricle E. right atrium B.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. Bloom's Level: 3. left atrium C.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart.03. right atrium C.03. lungs B.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Blood leaves which chamber of the heart to enter the lungs? A. the closing of the AV valves B.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions 26. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE The cardiac muscle receives oxygen and nutrients from the coronary arteries. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. the left atrium contracting E.03. Section: 05.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. The "lub" sound of the "lub-dup" heart beat is due to what? A. Section: 05.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions .03. The cardiac muscle is supplied with nutrients from the blood within the heart itself. the right atrium contracting D.25. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart. the closing of the semilunar valves C. Bloom's Level: 2. the relaxation of both atria The "lub" occurs when increasing pressure of blood inside a ventricle forces the cusps of the AV valves to slam shut. 03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. semilunar valve Only the semilunar valve is not involved in the internal conduction system of the heart. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.27. atrioventricular bundle B. Section: 05. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. the atrioventricular node D. Purkinje fibers D.03.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Bloom's Level: 1.03. What is considered the pacemaker of the heart? A. sinoatrial node E.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 28. Bloom's Level: 2. the sinoatrial node C. Purkinje fibers E. Which of the following heart tissues is not part of the internal conduction system of the heart? A. medulla oblongata B. atrioventricular node C. Section: 05. atrioventricular bundle The sinoatrial node is called the pacemaker because it regulates heartbeat.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . frontal lobe The medulla oblongata contains the cardiac control center. does not alter it Epinephrine stimulates the heart to beat faster. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. medulla oblongata C. decreases it C. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat.29. cerebellum D. pons E. increases it B.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Section: 05. stops it D. Lisa receives a dose of epinephrine. Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center? A. cerebrum B. Section: 05.03.03. What does this do to her heart rate? A.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 30. axial The sympathetic nervous system causes the heart to beat faster in responses associated with "fight or flight. Section: 05. somatic D. What does an ECG record? A.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. Which part of the nervous system causes the heart to beat faster when afraid? A.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat. hormonal changes E. Bloom's Level: 2. blood volume C. heart sounds D. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.31.03. parasympathetic C.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . brain activity B. peripheral B. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. sympathetic E. Tina's heart began to beat much faster when it came to the scary scene in the movie. electrical changes An electrocardiogram (ECG) is a recording of the electrical changes that occur in myocardium during a cardiac cycle. Section: 05.03.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 32." Bloom's Level: 3. The rhythmic expansion and recoil of an arterial wall can be felt as a pulse in any artery that runs close to the body's surface. Bloom's Level: 3.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins.33. arteries. the pulse rate indicates the heart rate because the arterial walls pulse whenever the left ventricle contracts.04. and capillaries.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins. renal capillaries It is customary to feel the pulse by placing several fingers on the radial artery. 140 beats per minute B. and capillaries. arteries. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System 34. inferior vena cava D. 35 beats per minute C. how fast is your heart beating? A. Section: 05. Which of the following could be used to take a pulse? A. superior vena cava E. If your pulse is 70 beats per minute. 70 beats per minute Normally. radial artery C.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Bloom's Level: 3. radial vein B. Section: 05. Apply Learning Outcome: 05. 04. Hinson was informed that her blood pressure was 150/95. normal blood pressure B. CPR C. stage 2 hypertension Stage 1 hypertension has a systolic number between 140 and 159.03 Analyze systolic and diastolic pressures to assess the cardiovascular health of an individual. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05. Bloom's Level: 4. A. ECG E. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions . AED A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to measure blood pressure. prehypertension C. These numbers indicate that she has __________.04. and a diastolic number between 90 and 99.03 Analyze systolic and diastolic pressures to assess the cardiovascular health of an individual. stage 1 hypertension E. Section: 05. What is the instrument called that is used to measure blood pressure? A. Mrs. hypotension D. stethoscope B.35. sphygmomanometer D.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System 36. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 05. 04 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 38.04.37. Blood pressure drops on long airplane flights. Analyze Learning Outcome: 05. arteries. The valves in the leg veins don't work above a certain altitude.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Bloom's Level: 4. B. A blood pressure of 90/40 is considered normal. If the person is not moving. E. A person who sits for hours on a long airplane flight will have problems will blood pooling below the knees. Normal blood pressure is 120/80. Apply Learning Outcome: 05.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins. Section: 05. Why? A.04. Bloom's Level: 3. D. and the blood pools in the lower extremities. FALSE This would be considered hypotension. The capillaries expand at high altitudes. The skeletal muscle pump functions every time a muscle contracts. the muscles do not contract. The skeletal muscle pump is not helping blood return to the heart.03 Analyze systolic and diastolic pressures to assess the cardiovascular health of an individual. and capillaries. C. The respiratory pump is not helping blood return to the heart. Section: 05. Bloom's Level: 2. diastolic pressure. atria are contracting. Section: 05. inferior vena cava D. This is reached during ejection of blood from the heart. ejection of blood from the heart C.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System 40.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins. diastolic pressure. Normal blood pressure is 120/80. systolic pressure. What is the top number called and what is happening in the heart? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. and capillaries. systolic pressure. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. arteries.04.02 Distinguish between systolic and diastolic pressure. lung capillaries E.39. aorta C. Bloom's Level: 1. ventricles are relaxing The highest arterial pressure is the top number. ventricles are relaxing E. Where in the body is blood pressure the highest? A. diastolic pressure. called the systolic pressure.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Section: 05.04. ventricles are relaxing D. superior vena cava B. ejection of blood from the heart B. renal capillaries Blood pressure is highest in the aorta. 04 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions . decreases D. C. A.04. Section: 05.41.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. Blood pressure is much higher in capillaries than in arterioles. increases B. decreases. There are many more capillaries than arterioles. arteries. Section: 05. stays the same.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System 42. There are many more capillaries than arterioles and the increase in cross-sectional area causes a decrease in blood flow. and capillaries. increases. and capillaries. Capillaries are much wider than arterioles. Bloom's Level: 2. D. Capillaries are present in muscles while arterioles are not.04.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins. increases E. arteries. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. stays the same. decreases. stays the same Blood pressure decreases with distance from the left ventricle because the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels increases. E. decreases C. B. Why does blood move slowly in the capillaries in comparison to arterioles? A. Blood pressure ______ with distance from the left ventricle while the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels __________. Precapillary sphincters close shunting blood into capillaries. Bloom's Level: 2. arteries. the respiratory pump. FALSE Blood pressure plays only a small role in returning venous blood to the heart. Section: 05. Bloom's Level: 1. Blood pressure plays a major role in returning blood to the heart. Section: 05.04.05. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins. What is the largest artery in the systemic circuit? A.43.02 Identify the major arteries and veins of both the pulmonary and systemic circuits.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System . hepatic E. Venous return is dependent on the skeletal muscle pump. and capillaries. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. carotid C. aorta The aorta is the largest artery in the systemic circuit. and valves in veins. femoral B. pulmonary D.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 44. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. right atrium B.45. What system drains blood from the capillary beds of the digestive tract to a capillary bed in the liver? A. coronary D.01 Compare blood flow in the pulmonary and systemic circuits. lymphatic The hepatic portal system drains blood from the capillary beds of the digestive tract to a capillary bed in the liver. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions 47. TRUE The systemic circuit is a much larger circuit and contains many more blood vessels.05.05. Section: 05. Section: 05. Analyze . left atrium D. right ventricle C.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System 46. Bloom's Level: 1. left ventricle Bloom's Level: 2.04 Explain the location and purpose of the hepatic portal system. cephalic B. Bloom's Level: 4. celiac E. It contains more blood than does the pulmonary circuit. Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit? A. hepatic portal C. The systemic circuit contains more blood at any one time than does the pulmonary circuit. 04 Explain the location and purpose of the hepatic portal system.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 49.01 Compare blood flow in the pulmonary and systemic circuits.05. In the pulmonary circuit. rich. and in the systemic circuit. rich In the pulmonary circuit. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System 48. the pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood to the lungs.05. A. Section: 05. poor D. Section: 05. veins carry oxygen-_____ blood. In the systemic circuit. rich. veins carry oxygen-poor blood back to the heart. veins carry oxygen-____ blood. poor C. Section: 05. rich B.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions . TRUE The blood from the digestive tract travels through the hepatic portal vein and the hepatic vein before reaching the inferior vena cava. poor. poor.05.Learning Outcome: 05. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 05. The blood from the digestive tract travels through two different veins before reaching the inferior vena cava. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Compare blood flow in the pulmonary and systemic circuits. Bloom's Level: 5. 03 Compare the oxygen content of the blood in the arteries and veins of the pulmonary and systemic circuits. This is the venous end of the capillary. Section: 05. The net pressure is in. which of the following statements is true? A. Bloom's Level: 2. Plasma proteins are able to leave the capillary. D.05. Section: 05. B.06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 51. All veins carry oxygen-poor blood.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions . If fluid is leaving a capillary and entering the tissue.01 Describe the processes that move materials across the walls of a capillary. Bloom's Level: 3. Blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure. FALSE The pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood so this is not a true statement. E.50. Red blood cells are able to leave the capillary. Apply Learning Outcome: 05. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure. C. and tissue fluid leaves the capillary and enters the tissue. At the arterial end of the capillary. Section: 05. except much lower amounts of proteins.06. If a person is dehydrated. Section: 05. Evaluate . Bloom's Level: 2. Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the tissues. this will increase their osmotic pressure (more solutes dissolved in the liquid fraction of the blood). which are too large to readily pass out of the capillary. This would result in less water leaving the capillaries and entering the tissues. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. how will this affect nutrient exchange at the capillaries? A.52. If a person is dehydrated. Tissue fluid leaving the arterial end of the capillary is balanced by tissue fluid entering the venous end of the capillary. It will have no effect.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System 53.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 54. Oxygen will not leave the capillary and enter the tissues. Carbon dioxide will not leave the tissues and enter the capillary. FALSE Some tissue fluid does not reenter the capillary and is collected by the lymphatic system.02 Explain what happens to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries. D. B. C. TRUE Tissue fluid tends to contain all components of plasma.02 Explain what happens to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. Bloom's Level: 5. Bloom's Level: 2. E.06. Tissue fluid contains lower amounts of protein than does plasma. Plasma proteins will be able to leave the capillary and enter the tissues. infarction The AHA recommends such a diet to prevent the onset and development of atherosclerosis. Section: 05. What is the ballooning or bulging of a blood vessel called? A.07.01 Explain the underlying causes of cardiovascular disease in humans.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System 55. Bloom's Level: 1. aneurysm C. Section: 05. aneurysm C. hypotension B. embolus B. thrombus D. The American Heart Association recommends a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol to prevent which disease? A.01 Describe the processes that move materials across the walls of a capillary. Remember Learning Outcome: 05. stroke An aneurysm is another name for a ballooning or bulging of a blood vessel. myocardial infarction E. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System 56. Understand Learning Outcome: 05.07. hypertension D.06.01 Explain the underlying causes of cardiovascular disease in humans. atherosclerosis E.Learning Outcome: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System . because there are no symptoms present. Use olive and canola oil rather than butter/cream.07.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions 58. Section: 05. Raising the low density lipoprotein level (LDL) is not recommended for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. E. Know your cholesterol level. Bloom's Level: 2. and C). Raise the LDL intake. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. Generally. Bloom's Level: 3. B. Take antioxidant vitamins (A.57.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions . Exercise moderately. Apply Learning Outcome: 05. D. C. there are no symptoms of hypertension.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders. Which of the following activities is not recommended for prevention of cardiovascular disease? A. TRUE Hypertension is sometimes called a silent killer. E.07. Section: 05. a treatment to lower blood pressure A stent is a cylinder of expandable metal mesh that is positioned inside a coronary artery. beta-blockers There is evidence that aspirin protects against first heart attacks.07. t-PA E. Apply Learning Outcome: 05. a cylinder of expandable metal mesh B. ACE D. What is a stent? A. Bloom's Level: 3. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 05. a treatment for phlebitis D. aspirin C. time spent in recovery after coronary bypass surgery C.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders. What drug may protect against having a first heart attack? A. acetominophen B. an instrument that regulates the heartbeat E. Section: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Remember Learning Outcome: 05.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System 60.59.07. a cardioverter-defibrillator B. Bloom's Level: 1. nausea and vomiting D. Bloom's Level: 2.61. Section: 05. a form of coronary stent The Jarvik 2000 is a pump inserted inside the left ventricle of the heart.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System 62.01 Explain the underlying causes of cardiovascular disease in humans. Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack? A. It is powered by an external battery. diarrhea E. a left ventricular assist device C. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.07. a total artificial heart D. feeling of pressure in the chest B. a heart pump inserted inside the left ventricle E. Understand Learning Outcome: 05. shortness of breath All are symptoms of a heart attack except for diarrhea. What is a Jarvik 2000? A.07 Topic: Cardiovascular System .07. Section: 05. dizziness C.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders. and capillaries.02 Summarize the functions of the cardiovascular system. Evaluate 3 Learning Outcome: 05. 1 Learning Outcome: 05.01.Chapter 05 Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood Vessels Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1.01 Explain the underlying causes of cardiovascular disease in humans. 3 Learning Outcome: 05.02 Summarize how advances in medicine can treat cardiovascular disorders.01 Identify the structures and chambers of the human heart. arteries.02.02 Explain what happens to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries.01.07.03 Compare the oxygen content of the blood in the arteries and veins of the pulmonary and sys 1 temic circuits.04.07.04 Explain the location and purpose of the hepatic portal system.06. 2 Learning Outcome: 05.01 Describe the structure and function of the three types of blood vessels. 7 Learning Outcome: 05.01 Describe the processes that move materials across the walls of a capillary. 1 Learning Outcome: 05. 7 Learning Outcome: 05.02 Distinguish between systolic and diastolic pressure. Understand 21 Bloom's Level: 3. 3 Learning Outcome: 05.05. 2 Learning Outcome: 05.04 11 Section: 05. 5 Learning Outcome: 05. Remember 19 Bloom's Level: 2.01 Identify the two components of the cardiovascular system. Analyze 8 Bloom's Level: 5. 1 Learning Outcome: 05.02 9 Section: 05. Apply 11 Bloom's Level: 4. 2 Learning Outcome: 05.04.01.05 7 Section: 05.03.03 Explain the purpose of the lymphatic system in circulation.01 Compare blood flow in the pulmonary and systemic circuits. Learning Outcome: 05.02. 6 Learning Outcome: 05.02 Diagram the flow of blood through the human heart.01 Explain how blood pressure differs in veins.03 18 Section: 05.02 Explain how blood flow is regulated in each of the three types of blood vessels.05.07 8 Topic: Cardiovascular System 62 .06.01 5 Section: 05. 3 Learning Outcome: 05. 1 Learning Outcome: 05.05.03 Explain the internal and external controls of the heartbeat.03.05.04. 5 Section: 05.03 Analyze systolic and diastolic pressures to assess the cardiovascular health of an individual.06 4 Section: 05.02 Identify the major arteries and veins of both the pulmonary and systemic circuits. 7 Learning Outcome: 05.03. 2 Learning Outcome: 05. 3 Learning Outcome: 05. . fibrinogens B. defense C. gamma globulins C. regulation D. B. plasma and red blood cells. D. What are the most abundant plasma proteins that also establish the osmotic pressure of the plasma? A.Chapter 06 Cardiovascular System: Blood Multiple Choice Questions 1. pumping 2. E. The two major components of blood are A. red blood cells and white blood cells. transport B. plasma and serum. astrocytes D. hemoglobin . C. 3. Which of the following is not a function of blood? A. platelets and plasma. formed elements and plasma. albumins E. transport molecules for cholesterol and iron C. platelets D. what plasma protein may be involved? A. antibodies D.4. albumins E. transport molecules for glucose 6. albumin E. the gamma globulins were serving what function? A. Which of the following are actually cell fragments and not whole cells? A. albumins E. osmoregulatory molecules E. RBCs B. fibrinogens B. When Jennifer had to receive a gamma globulin shot after being exposed to hepatitis. glucose C. globulins . beta globulins 5. gamma globulins C. If there is a problem with clotting. Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma? A. blood clotting agents B. dissolved O2 B. WBCs C. alpha globulins D. urea D. red blood cells 7. monocytes B. RBCs are better known as ________ and WBCs are better known as ___________.8. neutrophils 9. Blood plays an important role in homeostasis. leukocytes. erythrocytes D. leukocytes E. reticulocytes D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . The most abundant component of plasma is water. macrophages. eosinophils C. erythroblasts True / False Questions 10. True False 11. erythrocytes. macrophages C. megakaryocytes B. erythrocytes. A. What gives rise to all the formed elements of the blood? A. stem cells E. lymphocytes. one thousand D. 2 D. B. are biconcave discs without a nucleus. 0 B. one hundred C. C. 4 15. fibrinogen D. hemoglobin C. platelets 13. 3 E. albumin B. fight pathogens. What makes the blood red? A. 1 C. D. E. less than 10 B. Approximately how many oxygen molecules can a single RBC carry? A. are rare in the bloodstream. globulins E. have a nucleus. one million E. one billion . carry plasma. How many globin chains are found in hemoglobin? A.12. Mature human red blood cells A. 14. E. heme B. carbonic acid D. 10% 18. globin chain. heme D. deoxyhemoglobin. D. C. carbaminohemoglobin. globin chain 17. 5% D. alphahemoglobin. globin chain. How much carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma? A. what is not being excreted? A.16. betahemoglobin. 1% C. 19. If your skin and the whites of your eyes appear yellow. carbon dioxide E. heme C. heme. globin chain B. globin chains C. biocarbonate ion . oxyhemoglobin. heme. 7% E. B. 0% B. What part of the hemoglobin molecule actually binds the oxygen molecule? What part binds carbon dioxide? A. Hemoglobin that carries carbon dioxide is called A. blood doping. a week C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . adrenalin E. How long ago could this metal poisoning have occurred? A. hemolysis. What hormone produced in the kidneys stimulates production of red blood cells? A. lipase 21. jaundice. erythropoietin D. D. True / False Questions 23. C. a few days B. a month D. If a person does not have enough iron in their diet. carbonic anhydrase B. Red blood cells are unable to undergo mitosis. E. 3 months E. acidosis. prolactin C. 6 months 22. B. A test for metal toxicity looks at the amount of metal present in the red blood cell membrane. anemia. they may suffer from A.20. have mitochondria and other organelles. monocyte. C. erythropoietin. have hemoglobin. neutrophils and basophils B. In someone with terrible allergies. C. The production of leukocytes is regulated by A. lymphocytes and monocytes C. eosinophils and monocytes D. neutrophils and lymphocytes 27. monocyte E. colony-stimulating factor. have a nucleus. eosinophil B. lymphocyte. D. megakaryocyte. eosinophil. Both red blood cells and white blood cells A. what leukocyte levels would be elevated? A. 25. can carry carbon dioxide in the blood. B. prolactin. folic acid. megakaryocyte C. E. basophil . basophil D. are derived from the same original stem cell. rennin. E. D. 26. B.24. neutrophil. monocytes and neutrophils E. Which of the following are agranular leukocytes? A. stimulate thrombin. megakaryocyte breakdown. B lymphocytes are associated with A. allergic reactions. globulins. C. B. True / False Questions 30. E. macrophage production. increase erythrocyte production. Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to A. macrophages. D. megakaryocytes. E. White blood cells are like red blood cells in that they only live for a matter of days.28. 29. C. B. C. neutrophils. antibody production. . destroy pathogens. produce antibodies. produce platelets. E. antigen production. B. D. Monocytes are large blood cells that differentiate into A. D. fibrinogens. True False Multiple Choice Questions 31. After blood clots. It is caused by an Epstein-Barr virus. D. C. SCID. mononucleosis. sickle cell anemia. C. serum. There is uncontrolled white blood cell proliferation. Graves disease. 33. Symptoms include fever. 35. Mark suffers from nosebleeds and gastrointestinal bleeding due to increased breakdown of platelets outside the marrow. C. and swollen lymph glands. the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called A. cystic fibrosis. This is called A. lymph. E. . C. B. sickle-cell anemia. D. he suffered from A. Which of the following is not a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis? A. B. 34. plasma. As a result. Active EBV can be passed in saliva. E. prothrombin disease.32. hemophilia. D. D. thrombocytopenia. sore throat. Robby could not produce the enzyme adenosine deaminase. The virus remains within a person's body for the rest of his/her life. thrombin. E. thromboembolism. B. fibrinogen. B. E. True / False Questions . 38. vitamin A. D. 37. destroying pathogens. globulins. C. platelets → prothrombin activator. vitamin E. vitamin K. 39. erythrocytes. B. C. maintaining the pH of the blood. keeping the blood within the vessels. E.36. regulating body temperature. The vitamin necessary for fibrinogen and prothrombin formation (found in green vegetables and released by intestinal bacteria) is A. plasmin → fibrin. D. platelets. fibrin → thrombin. E. D. fibrinogen → fibrin. B. albumins. The final reaction in blood clotting is A. B. vitamin D. D. removing debris from the blood. Coagulation contributes to homeostasis by A. C. E. B. E. leukocytes. The fragmentation of very large megakaryocytes results in the production of A. vitamin B. C. prothrombin → thrombin. Rh negative.40. and no antibodies. D. O. B. B. Jena and Seth could have a child with hemolytic disease of the newborn. Ray is considered a universal donor. C. and anti-A antibodies. His blood type is A. production of antibodies. B but no Rh antigens. D. B and Rh antigens. and anti-A antibodies. A. destruction of red blood cells. B and Rh antigens. True False Multiple Choice Questions 41. production of lymphocytes. E. Jena must be A. C. Robby has type B positive blood. . His blood will contain A. and anti-B antibodies. D. AB. E. B. B. 43. 42. B. Rh positive. Agglutination refers to the A. 44. and anti-B antibodies. A and Rh antigens. clumping of red blood cells. Hemophilia is a genetic clotting disorder. A but no Rh antigens. development of platelets. C. B and Rh E. Both mom and dad are Rh negative. In which of the following scenarios would hemolytic disease of the newborn be a possibility? A. Mom is Rh positive and dad is Rh negative. A and Rh D.45. True False Multiple Choice Questions 48. AB positive only E. Jeremy has type O negative blood. . B. regardless of whether they have had a transfusion or not. AB negative only 46. Mom is Rh negative and dad is Rh positive. D. Both mom and dad are Rh positive. and B negative C. A person will have antibodies against any blood antigens different from their own. B only C. O negative only B. none True / False Questions 47. What type blood could he receive in a transfusion? A. C. A positive. B positive. A only B. A person with O negative blood has what antigens on their red blood cells? A. A negative. A positive and B positive D. What do type O negative and type AB positive blood have in common? A. A and B antigens B. A antigens.True / False Questions 49. no antibodies B. B antigens. True False Multiple Choice Questions 51. What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common? A. A antigens. nothing . A and B antigens. The ABO antigens and Rh antigens are the only blood groups considered before a transfusion. anti-B antibodies C. no antibodies E. anti-B antibodies E. A antigens and Rh antigens. A antigens 52. no antibodies D. a RhoGAM shot will not help her second pregnancy. True False 50. If mom has already developed anti-Rh antibodies during her first pregnancy. anti-B antibodies and Rh antigens D. anti-B antibodies C. assists muscles in movement of blood in veins . How does the muscular system benefit the blood? A. the muscular system C. protects the vessels B. produces blood cells C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 56. regulates the acid-base balance of the blood D. protects the heart B. produces the blood cells 54. maintains blood volume E. stores calcium for blood clotting E. Which of the following is not a role the skeletal system plays in helping the cardiovascular system? A. All body systems dump wastes into the blood True / False Questions 55. the urinary system B. the digestive system D.53. keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels C. Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream. Which body system does not dump some product into the blood? A. regulates the contraction of the heart D. the respiratory system E. Hormones produced by the endocrine system regulate blood volume and blood cell formation.True / False Questions 57. True False . 01 List the functions of blood in the human body. transport B. The two major components of blood are A. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System 2. Which of the following is not a function of blood? A. pumping The major functions of the blood include transport. Section: 06. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System . B. The heart does the pumping. plasma and serum. red blood cells and white blood cells.Chapter 06 Cardiovascular System: Blood Key Multiple Choice Questions 1.01. Formed elements and plasma are the two major components of the blood. D. defense C. Bloom's Level: 1. platelets and plasma. regulation D. defense. plasma and red blood cells. E.01 List the functions of blood in the human body.01. formed elements and plasma. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. C. Section: 06. and regulation. gamma globulins C. albumins E. What are the most abundant plasma proteins that also establish the osmotic pressure of the plasma? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. fibrinogens B. astrocytes D. fibrinogens B. what plasma protein may be involved? A.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System .02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. beta globulins Fibrinogens are plasma proteins that when activated aid in the proper clotting of blood. hemoglobin Albumins are the most abundant plasma proteins and contribute by establishing the osmotic pressure of the plasma. gamma globulins C. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.01. Section: 06. Bloom's Level: 2. If there is a problem with clotting.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System 4. Section: 06. alpha globulins D.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. albumins E.3. Bloom's Level: 2.01. Bloom's Level: 4. albumin E.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System 6.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System . red blood cells Red blood cells are part of the formed elements.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. blood clotting agents B. osmoregulatory molecules E. dissolved O2 B.01.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. not the plasma. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. transport molecules for glucose Gamma globulins serve as antibodies and will protect someone exposed to hepatitis. Section: 06.01. the gamma globulins were serving what function? A. antibodies D. Section: 06.5. transport molecules for cholesterol and iron C. urea D. glucose C. When Jennifer had to receive a gamma globulin shot after being exposed to hepatitis. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06. Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma? A. Section: 06. eosinophils C.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System . A. RBCs B.7. platelets D.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. globulins Platelets are cell fragments of whole cells called megakaryocytes. leukocytes E.01. macrophages. monocytes B. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. Bloom's Level: 1. leukocytes. lymphocytes. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. WBCs C. erythrocytes. Section: 06. erythrocytes D.01. erythrocytes. Which of the following are actually cell fragments and not whole cells? A.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. RBCs are better known as ________ and WBCs are better known as ___________. neutrophils RBCs are better known as erythrocytes and WBCs are better known as leukocytes.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System 8. Bloom's Level: 1. albumins E. 9.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. Bloom's Level: 2. and acid-base balance. reticulocytes D.01.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Section: 06. Bloom's Level: 1. TRUE Blood is involved in regulation of many important functions. Section: 06. macrophages C. TRUE Water makes up 91% of plasma. Blood plays an important role in homeostasis.01. osmotic pressure.02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood. stem cells E.01. Bloom's Level: 2. including body temperature. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. Section: 06.01 List the functions of blood in the human body.01 11.01 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions 10. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. erythroblasts Multipotent stem cells give rise to all the formed elements of the blood. What gives rise to all the formed elements of the blood? A. The most abundant component of plasma is water. megakaryocytes B. Bloom's Level: 2. fibrinogen D. Mature human red blood cells A. are rare in the bloodstream. are biconcave discs without a nucleus. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. C. albumin B.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System . E. D. What makes the blood red? A. Section: 06.01 Explain the role of hemoglobin in gas transport.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System 13. fight pathogens. Bloom's Level: 1. globulins E. Section: 06. hemoglobin C. B.02. carry plasma. platelets Hemoglobin is a pigment that makes red blood cells and blood red. Mature human red blood cells are biconcave discs without a nucleus.02. have a nucleus.Topic: Homeostasis Multiple Choice Questions 12. Bloom's Level: 3.14.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System .02. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.01 Explain the role of hemoglobin in gas transport. 4 There are four globin chains in hemoglobin.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System 15. 0 B. Bloom's Level: 1. Approximately how many oxygen molecules can a single RBC carry? A. one thousand D.01 Explain the role of hemoglobin in gas transport. one million E. How many globin chains are found in hemoglobin? A. 3 E. Section: 06. one billion Each hemoglobin molecule can transport 4 molecules of oxygen and each red blood cell contains about 280 million hemoglobin molecules. Section: 06. less than 10 B. one hundred C. Apply Learning Outcome: 06.02. 1 C. 2 D. 0% B.02.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells. heme.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System . 10% About 7% of the carbon dioxide is dissolved in plasma. Bloom's Level: 1. globin chain.02. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. How much carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma? A. heme C. Section: 06. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. What part of the hemoglobin molecule actually binds the oxygen molecule? What part binds carbon dioxide? A. globin chain The heme contains the iron that accepts oxygen. Carbon dioxide binds to the globin chain. Bloom's Level: 2. globin chain. heme. 5% D. heme D. globin chain B. 7% E. 1% C.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System 17.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells.16. Section: 06. Section: 06.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells. Bloom's Level: 3. B. Hemoglobin that carries carbon dioxide is called A. deoxyhemoglobin. caused by the failure of the liver to excrete heme. biocarbonate ion This is referred to as jaundice. Apply Learning Outcome: 06. oxyhemoglobin.02.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System . alphahemoglobin.02. what is not being excreted? A. carbaminohemoglobin. betahemoglobin. Hemoglobin that carries carbon dioxide is called carbaminohemoglobin. E. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.18. globin chains C. D.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System 19. carbonic acid D. heme B. C. If your skin and the whites of your eyes appear yellow. Section: 06. Bloom's Level: 1. carbon dioxide E. erythropoietin D. 6 months Red blood cells only live about 120 days. A test for metal toxicity looks at the amount of metal present in the red blood cell membrane.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production.02. carbonic anhydrase B. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System . lipase The hormone erythropoietin produced in the kidneys stimulates production of red blood cells.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System 21. Bloom's Level: 4.02. adrenalin E. How long ago could this metal poisoning have occurred? A. What hormone produced in the kidneys stimulates production of red blood cells? A. 3 months E.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production. Section: 06. prolactin C. a few days B. Section: 06. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06. so the poisoning would have had to occur within the last 120 days. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. a week C.20. a month D. D. Bloom's Level: 5.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production. E.02. anemia. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 06. TRUE Red blood cells do not have a nucleus so they cannot undergo mitosis. jaundice. C. Bloom's Level: 2. B. hemolysis. Section: 06. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. blood doping. If a person does not have enough iron in their diet. Section: 06. acidosis.02.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions . Red blood cells are unable to undergo mitosis. Anemia can be caused by an iron deficiency.22. they may suffer from A.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production.02 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions 23. Bloom's Level: 4. have a nucleus. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06. are derived from the same original stem cell. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 06.24. C. Both red blood cells and white blood cells A. prolactin. E. colony-stimulating factor. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. D.03. The production of leukocytes is regulated by colony-stimulating factor. have hemoglobin.01 Explain the function of white blood cells in the body. The production of leukocytes is regulated by A. All of the formed elements in the blood originally came from the same type stem cell.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 25. Section: 06. can carry carbon dioxide in the blood. E.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . have mitochondria and other organelles. erythropoietin. rennin. D. B. C.01 Explain the function of white blood cells in the body. B.03. folic acid. neutrophils and basophils B. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 06.03. monocyte. basophil D.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. what leukocyte levels would be elevated? A. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 27.26. neutrophils and lymphocytes Lymphocytes and monocytes are agranular leukocytes. Section: 06. megakaryocyte. monocyte E. lymphocyte. neutrophil. monocytes and neutrophils E. eosinophils and monocytes D.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . basophil Eosinophils and basophils are elevated in those with allergies. eosinophil. lymphocytes and monocytes C.03. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. megakaryocyte C.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. eosinophil B. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. In someone with terrible allergies. Which of the following are agranular leukocytes? A. macrophage production. antigen production.28. Monocytes are large blood cells that differentiate into macrophages. E. B. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. allergic reactions. antibody production. D. D.03. Bloom's Level: 2. B lymphocytes are associated with antibody production.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 29. fibrinogens. Monocytes are large blood cells that differentiate into A.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. megakaryocyte breakdown. Section: 06. megakaryocytes.03. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. Section: 06. neutrophils.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. globulins. E. Bloom's Level: 2. B lymphocytes are associated with A.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions . macrophages. C. B. C. White blood cells are like red blood cells in that they only live for a matter of days. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes. C. destroy pathogens. E. stimulate thrombin. produce antibodies. produce platelets. Bloom's Level: 4.30. Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to A. D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. Section: 06. B. FALSE Some white blood cells may only live for a few days but others can live for months or even years.03. Section: 06.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 31.01 Explain the function of white blood cells in the body.03. Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to physically destroy pathogens. increase erythrocyte production.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Which of the following is not a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis? A. Section: 06. Mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. severe combined immunodeficiency disease. C. E. cystic fibrosis. D.03 Describe some of the disorders associated with white blood cells.03 Describe some of the disorders associated with white blood cells. E. Bloom's Level: 4.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System 33. SCID.03 Topic: Cardiovascular System . which does not involve uncontrollable white blood cell proliferation. sore throat. he suffered from A. As a result. B. Section: 06. Symptoms include fever. C. The virus remains within a person's body for the rest of his/her life. Active EBV can be passed in saliva. results from the lack of adenosine deaminase. B. SCID. Robby could not produce the enzyme adenosine deaminase. mononucleosis. and swollen lymph glands.03. There is uncontrolled white blood cell proliferation.03. Graves disease.32. Bloom's Level: 2. It is caused by an Epstein-Barr virus. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. D. sickle cell anemia. Apply Learning Outcome: 06. the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called A.03 Describe disorders associated with blood clotting. Mark suffers from nosebleeds and gastrointestinal bleeding due to increased breakdown of platelets outside the marrow. thromboembolism. lymph. serum. B. the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called serum. plasma. Bloom's Level: 3. C.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System . B. thrombocytopenia. thrombin. C. D. E. sickle-cell anemia. D. After blood clots. fibrinogen.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System 35. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 06. This is called A. prothrombin disease.04. hemophilia.34. After blood clots. E.04. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. Section: 06. Nosebleeds and gastrointestinal bleeding due to increased breakdown of platelets outside the marrow is a condition called thrombocytopenia. C. C. platelets. B. vitamin A.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System . E. The fragmentation of very large megakaryocytes results in the production of platelets. B. Section: 06.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System 37. Section: 06. Bloom's Level: 1.04. The vitamin necessary for fibrinogen and prothrombin formation (found in green vegetables and released by intestinal bacteria) is A. D. leukocytes. Bloom's Level: 1.04. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. E. vitamin B. albumins.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot.36. vitamin D. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. vitamin E. vitamin K. globulins. The fragmentation of very large megakaryocytes results in the production of A. D. erythrocytes.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot. Vitamin K is needed necessary for fibrinogen and prothrombin formation. C. removing debris from the blood. destroying pathogens. Bloom's Level: 1. Coagulation contributes to homeostasis by A. fibrinogen → fibrin.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot.04.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis True / False Questions . fibrin → thrombin. platelets → prothrombin activator. C. Section: 06.01 Explain how blood clotting relates to homeostasis. B. The final reaction in blood clotting is A. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. plasmin → fibrin. D. B.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System 39. prothrombin → thrombin. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. Section: 06. keeping the blood within the vessels. maintaining the pH of the blood. E. regulating body temperature. E. D. The final reaction in blood clotting is fibrinogen → fibrin.04. Bloom's Level: 2. Coagulation keeps the blood within the vessels so that we do not bleed to death.38. C.04 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 41. Apply . Bloom's Level: 2. is inherited and is therefore a genetic disorder. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. which results in a deficiency in a clotting factor. Rh positive. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. and the baby is Rh positive. Bloom's Level: 1.40. production of lymphocytes.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. Rh negative. production of antibodies. the father is Rh positive. Therefore. Bloom's Level: 3. Jena must be A. D. Section: 06. There is a danger of hemolytic disease of the newborn when the mother is Rh negative.03 Describe disorders associated with blood clotting. Hemophilia is a genetic clotting disorder. Agglutination refers to the clumping of red blood cells. destruction of red blood cells. development of platelets. Jena and Seth could have a child with hemolytic disease of the newborn. B. Section: 06. Jena must be Rh negative. TRUE Hemophilia. Agglutination refers to the A. E.05.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System 42. B. clumping of red blood cells.04. O. Ray is considered a universal donor. B. B. and no antibodies.02 Predict the compatibility of blood types for a transfusion. A.03 Summarize the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease of the newborn.05. D.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans.05. B but no Rh antigens. Blood type O is the universal donor because it has no antibodies against A or B. B and Rh antigens. Bloom's Level: 3. E.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System 43.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System . His blood will contain A. Bloom's Level: 1. C.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System 44. Robby has type B positive blood.05. Section: 06. B. His blood type is A. and anti-B antibodies. Section: 06. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. C. A and Rh antigens. B and Rh antigens.Learning Outcome: 06. and anti-B antibodies. and anti-A antibodies. Apply Learning Outcome: 06. A but no Rh antigens. Section: 06. Robby will possess both B antigens and Rh antigens on his red blood cells. AB. D. and anti-A antibodies. and antibodies against A. B and Rh E.05. Apply Learning Outcome: 06. or AB positive or negative blood because he has antibodies against both A and B antigens. AB negative only Jeremy cannot receive A positive or negative. A person with O negative blood has what antigens on their red blood cells? A.45.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions . and B negative C. AB positive only E. Bloom's Level: 3. A positive and B positive D. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. A negative. A only B. A positive. Bloom's Level: 2. B positive. B only C.02 Predict the compatibility of blood types for a transfusion.05. B positive or negative. What type blood could he receive in a transfusion? A. Jeremy has type O negative blood. O negative only B. Section: 06. none A person with O negative blood has no antigens on their red blood cells.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System 46. A and Rh D. Section: 06. TRUE The antibodies against blood antigens develop whether or not a person ever has a transfusion.03 Summarize the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease of the newborn. A person will have antibodies against any blood antigens different from their own. Bloom's Level: 2. regardless of whether they have had a transfusion or not. Section: 06.47. Mom is Rh positive and dad is Rh negative. In which of the following scenarios would hemolytic disease of the newborn be a possibility? A. Bloom's Level: 5. B.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions 48. C. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.05. Section: 06. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 06. Mom is Rh negative and dad is Rh positive.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System True / False Questions .05. D. Both mom and dad are Rh negative. Both mom and dad are Rh positive. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is only a possibility when mom is Rh negative and dad is Rh positive making the fetus Rh positive.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. Section: 06. Section: 06. If they are already formed. FALSE There are other blood group incompatibilities possible.02 Predict the compatibility of blood types for a transfusion. so before blood can be safely transfused it is necessary to physically combine donor blood with recipient blood on a glass slide and check for agglutination. the shot will not help.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System 50. Bloom's Level: 4. a RhoGAM shot will not help her second pregnancy.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System Multiple Choice Questions . The ABO antigens and Rh antigens are the only blood groups considered before a transfusion. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06.49. Remember Learning Outcome: 06. Bloom's Level: 1. If mom has already developed anti-Rh antibodies during her first pregnancy.05.03 Summarize the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease of the newborn. TRUE The purpose of a RhoGAM shot is to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies.05. 51.05. A antigens. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 06. They have nothing in common. and anti-B antibodies. no antibodies B. A antigens. anti-B antibodies C. B antigens. B. A antigens and Rh antigens. anti-B antibodies and Rh antigens D. and Rh antigens. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06. A antigens Blood type A positive has A antigens. A and B antigens B. and no antibodies.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System . Type AB positive blood has A. nothing Type O negative blood has no antigens and anti-A. Rh antigens. B antigens. The only thing they have in common is A antigens. and anti-Rh antibodies. anti-B antibodies C. Bloom's Level: 4. no antibodies E.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans. What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common? A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 06. What do type O negative and type AB positive blood have in common? A. Section: 06.05 Topic: Cardiovascular System 52. and anti-Rh antibodies. anti-B. A and B antigens. anti-B antibodies E. Blood type AB negative has A antigens.05. no antibodies D. the digestive system D. maintains blood volume E. the respiratory system E.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis True / False Questions . particularly the veins.06. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. produces the blood cells Muscle contraction keeps blood moving through the heart and in the blood vessels. All body systems dump wastes into the blood All tissues dump wastes into the blood. Which body system does not dump some product into the blood? A.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis. How does the muscular system benefit the blood? A. protects the vessels B. keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels C. Section: 06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis. so all body systems are intimately involved with the blood. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 06. regulates the acid-base balance of the blood D.53.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis 54. Section: 06.06. the muscular system C. Bloom's Level: 2. the urinary system B. Bloom's Level: 5. assists muscles in movement of blood in veins The nervous system regulates the contraction of the heart. Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream. TRUE The lymphatic system helps maintain blood volume by collecting excess tissue fluid and returning it to the blood. protects the heart B. Section: 06. produces blood cells C.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis True / False Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 06. Bloom's Level: 2.06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis.55. Section: 06.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Bloom's Level: 2.06. Which of the following is not a role the skeletal system plays in helping the cardiovascular system? A. regulates the contraction of the heart D. stores calcium for blood clotting E.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis Multiple Choice Questions 56. Understand Learning Outcome: 06. 01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain homeostasis.57. Understand Learning Outcome: 06.06.06 Topic: Cardiovascular System Topic: Homeostasis . Section: 06. TRUE The endocrine system assists the cardiovascular system by producing hormones that regulate blood volume and blood cell formation. Hormones produced by the endocrine system regulate blood volume and blood cell formation. Bloom's Level: 2. 02 Compare the composition of formed elements and plasma in the blood.02. Understand 23 Bloom's Level: 3. 3 Learning Outcome: 06.03.04. 3 Learning Outcome: 06. 2 Learning Outcome: 06.01 Explaln what determines blood types in humans.02 Distinguish between granular and agranular leukocytes.01 Explain the role of hemoglobin in gas transport.03 Describe some of the disorders associated with white blood cells. 1 Learning Outcome: 06.01 Explain the function of white blood cells in the body.02.04.02 Compare the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by red blood cells. Evaluate 3 Learning Outcome: 06. 5 Learning Outcome: 06.01 Explain how blood clotting relates to homeostasis.03 10 Section: 06.02 12 Section: 06.06.02 Predict the compatibility of blood types for a transfusion.04 7 Section: 06.03.03 Summarize the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production.01 Summarize how the cardiovascular system interacts with other body systems to maintain ho 5 meostasis.01 11 Section: 06. 5 Learning Outcome: 06.05. Apply 6 Bloom's Level: 4.Chapter 06 Cardiovascular System: Blood Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1.04.01.02 List the steps in the formation of a blood clot.03 Describe disorders associated with blood clotting.05.05 12 Section: 06. 4 Learning Outcome: 06. 3 Learning Outcome: 06. 3 Learning Outcome: 06.03. Analyze 8 Bloom's Level: 5. 6 Learning Outcome: 06.02.06 5 Topic: Cardiovascular System 56 Topic: Homeostasis 7 .05. Remember 17 Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 06. 8 Learning Outcome: 06.01 List the functions of blood in the human body.01.03 Summarize the role of Rh factor in hemolytic disease of the newborn. 3 Learning Outcome: 06. 4 Learning Outcome: 06. 2 Learning Outcome: 06. C. speed up bacterial metabolism. E. What are organisms that are capable of causing disease called? A. 3. carcinogens D. The physician prescribed methicillin for Melissa's Staphylococcus infection. pathogens 2. interfere with the production of the bacterial cell wall. inhibit ribosomal activity. punch a hole in the cell membrane. . denature bacterial DNA. C.Chapter 07 Lymphatic System and Immunity Multiple Choice Questions 1. mutagens E. A bacterium that is shaped like a basketball would be called a A. B. D. teratogens C. B. The mode of action of the drug is to A. spirillus. bacillus. coccus. symbionts B. He explained to Melissa that certain bacteria such as the Gram positive forms are more sensitive to the "cillin" based drugs. True False Multiple Choice Questions . plasmid D. pili B. DNA E. nucleoid C. plasmids E. fimbriae E. cell membrane 6. flagellum True / False Questions 7. capsule B. capsules 5. All bacteria are pathogens. What exist in some bacteria to prevent them from being destroyed by phagocytic white blood cells? A. fimbrae C. flagella D. ribosomes B. Which of the following contributes to the ability of a bacterium to resist antibiotics? A. enzymes C. nucleus D. What do eukaryotes have that prokaryotes do not? A.4. From the outside moving in. symbionts in the digestive tract E. They contain a protein coat called a capsid. They are acellular. cell membrane D. True / False Questions 11. capsule C. cell wall B. important in the wine. A virus does not contain ribosomes. A. decomposers in the environment B. They may contain genomic DNA or RNA. cytoplasm E. what is the first structure of a bacterium encountered? A. Which of the following is not a beneficial contribution of bacteria to humans? A. cheese and bread industry C. They grow and develop.8. E. B. useful in biotechnology D. nucleoid 10. D. Choose the following statement that does not describe viruses. They are obligate intracellular parasites. True False Multiple Choice Questions . C. disease-causing agents 9. E. urinary D. DNA only. calcium homeostasis . strep throat B. protein only.and distribution of lymphocytes E. lymphatic E. Which of the following is not one of the functions of the lymphatic system? A. DNA. cardiovascular B. return it to the bloodstream B.12. and protein. D. RNA. A prion consists of A. absorb fats in the intestines C. tuberculosis C. take up excess tissue fluid. RNA only. syphilis 13. production. DNA plus protein. digestive C. nervous 14. C. Prions cause degenerative diseases of what system? A. help the body defend against disease D. gonorrhea E. B. chicken pox D. 15. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus? A. maintenance . tonsil C. red bone marrow 18. nodes C. spleen B. liver E. tonsils B. contain valves C. polyps D. tonsils D. spleen B. Which of the following is not a lymphatic organ? A. In what way are lymphatic vessels unlike veins in the cardiovascular system? A. dependent upon skeletal muscle contraction 19. lacteals 17. red marrow E. take up excess tissue fluid D. adenoids E. thymus C. lymph nodes . one-way system B. What is the name of the lymphatic vessels located in the small intestines? A. thymus D. Which of the lymphatic organs is also part of the skeletal system? A.16. slow reaction time to external stimuli C. Where does the lymphatic system empty into the cardiovascular system? A. the right lymphatic duct 21.20. red bone marrow E. excess glucose in the blood stream B. tonsils B. spleen D. jaundice True / False Questions 23. thyroid C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Where do T lymphocytes mature? A. tonsil 22. The thymus cleanses the blood from the cardiovascular system of cellular debris and bacteria. If the lymph system did not do its job. axillary lymph nodes C. inability to clot D. thymus E. edema in the tissues E. thymus B. inguinal lymph nodes D. what would be one of the consequences? A. B." In this context. They use up nutrients and release wastes. E. basophils and macrophages D. They activate the complement system which punches holes in the invading pathogen. they only act internally. They cause an inflammatory response that kills pathogenic bacteria upon contact. They phagocytize any pathogenic bacteria that attempt to infect. eosinophils and neutrophils B. preventing pathogenic bacteria from gaining a foothold. mucous membranes C. D. acid pH of stomach E. E. inflammatory response 26. What cell types are involved in the inflammatory response? A. they are lost as we age. they act indiscriminately against all pathogens. C. intact skin B. normal flora (bacteria mostly) . D. Which of the following is not considered a barrier to entry of a pathogen? A.24. One set of the body's defenses are called "innate. they work very. phagocytosis is involved. C. How can normal flora be a barrier to entry? A. 25. They release histamine which causes blood vessels to become permeable. 27. very quickly. sebaceous secretions D. neutrophils and macrophages E. B. eosinophils and basophils C. this means A. B. agglutinating them. eosinophils C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 31. Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue? A. difficulty breathing 29. D. C. causing them to burst. inactivating their ribosomes. basophils D. .28. redness B. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation? A. macrophages E. red blood cells True / False Questions 30. E. Certain complement proteins kill foreign microbes by A. swelling D. Inflammation is normally a self-limiting process. heat C. destroying their nucleic acids. pain E. neutrophils B. creating interferon. E. antigen binds to BCR. B cell divides. become plasma cells. Which of the following is in the correct order in the formation of antibodies? A. B cell activated. antigen binds to BCR D. E. True / False Questions 33. B cell activated. The membrane attack complex of the complement system is not effective against viruses.32. C. plasma cells form E. produces T and B cells. involves chemical barriers to entry. C. B cell divides. plasma cells form C. T cells can recognize antigens because they A. B cell divides. B. is part of the inflammatory response. plasma cells form B. B cell divides. possess specific receptors. plasma cells form. helps other immune responses. antigen binds to BCR. True False Multiple Choice Questions 34. The reason the complement system is called that is because it A. B cell activated. antigen binds to BCR. 35. B cell divides. D. is composed of normal flora. D. possess fimbrae. have enzymes which react with antigens. plasma cells form. B. B cell activated. produce antibodies. antigen binds to BCR . B cell activated. BCR D. TCR .36. IgE C. What are the first antibodies produced by a plasma cell? A. What is the definition of an antigen? A. a part of the membrane attack complex of the complement system E. The acquired defense system only recognizes and destroys cells with antigens that come from outside the body. a type of white blood cell D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 38. In antibody-mediated immunity where does the antigen first bind? A. helper T cell E. a form of immune deficiency True / False Questions 37. IgG B. memory cell B. IgM D. plasma cell C. a protein produced by plasma cells that attacks pathogens C. IgA 39. anything the immune system recognizes as foreign to the body B. IgD E. tonsils and thymus C. IgM E. bone marrow and thyroid E.40. EKG 43. MHC C. Cytotoxic T cells contain what type of molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens? A. What two sites are involved in the production and maturation of T lymphocytes? A. What is the most important thing that needs to match between him and the kidney donor? A. IgE 41. Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics. complement E. perforin . interferon C. thymus and bone marrow D. PCR D. which antibody levels would be higher than normal? A. tonsils and bone marrow 42. TCR B. IgD D. HCG E. Under these conditions. antioxidant D. steroid B. IgG C. IgA B. Shaun was in need of a kidney transplant. thyroid and tonsils B. E. A. They are produced by a clone derived from a single T lymphocyte. passive. neutral B. active. active E. general E. passive C. B. They are both forms of passive immunity. 46. neutral. They are both forms of an immune deficiency. What do "having the measles" and being vaccinated against the measles have in common? A. They are composed of antibodies with a variety of different variable regions. passive. They are both forms of an infection. . nonspecific D. D. active. neutral C. They are both forms of active immunity. C. neutral 47. They are both forms of neutral immunity. E. In ______ immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens while in ______ immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen. Which of the following is true about monoclonal antibodies? A. B. They are primarily produced by mast cells when a person has an allergy. passive D. The RhoGAM shot (discussed in chapter 6) given to Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive fetus is an example of what type of immunity? A. active 45. C.44. They are produced by a variety of unrelated B cells. D. They are produced by hybridomas. active B. If it were positive. cytokines. Beth was given a Mantoux skin test to detect tuberculosis. Jackie goes into anaphylactic shock. This should be quickly treated with A. histamine. True False Multiple Choice Questions 51. epinephrine. a vaccination. you would still be infected but it would not be as bad as if you had never been vaccinated.True / False Questions 48. E. D. histamine C. and determine if a woman is pregnant. If you were vaccinated against the mumps virus and later exposed to it. the site of the test would become hardened and red. identify infections. immediate allergic D. What type of response is this? A. True False 49. Cytokines are signaling molecules produced by hybridomas. anaphylactic B. Monoclonal antibodies can be used to treat cancer. B-cell mediated 52. interferon. When stung by a bee. C. Before working at the hospital. delayed allergic E. True False 50. . B. rheumatoid arthritis D. True False . In SCID. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? A. True False 56. hay fever B. antibodies are missing but T cells function normally.53. myasthenia gravis True / False Questions 54. People with allergies do not produce IgE. rheumatic fever C. systemic lupus erythematosus E. True False 57. All autoimmune diseases are caused by environmental factors such as viral infections. An allergic response is an over reaction of the immune system. True False 55. coccus. C. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea . pathogens Pathogens are organisms such as viruses and bacteria that are capable of causing disease.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. teratogens C.01. bacillus. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. Section: 07. Bloom's Level: 1. Cocci are spherical in shape. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.01.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Viruses 2. What are organisms that are capable of causing disease called? A. mutagens E.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. spirillus. carcinogens D. B. A bacterium that is shaped like a basketball would be called a A.Chapter 07 Lymphatic System and Immunity Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. symbionts B. interfere with the production of the bacterial cell wall. What exist in some bacteria to prevent them from being destroyed by phagocytic white blood cells? A. inhibit ribosomal activity. flagella D. fimbrae C. punch a hole in the cell membrane. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. C. He explained to Melissa that certain bacteria such as the Gram positive forms are more sensitive to the "cillin" based drugs.01. pili B. Methicillin and other "cillin" drugs are used against certain bacteria because they interfere with the production of the cell wall. plasmids E.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea 4. Section: 07.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea . D. Section: 07. The mode of action of the drug is to A. denature bacterial DNA.01.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. E.3. The physician prescribed methicillin for Melissa's Staphylococcus infection. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. Bloom's Level: 2. speed up bacterial metabolism. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. capsules Capsules exist in some bacteria and prevent them from being destroyed by phagocytic white blood cells. B. plasmid D. flagellum A plasmid often carries resistance genes for antibiotics. nucleoid C. nucleus D. capsule B. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. cell membrane Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus or other organelles.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. Which of the following contributes to the ability of a bacterium to resist antibiotics? A.5.01. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. ribosomes B. Section: 07. Bloom's Level: 2. enzymes C. fimbriae E.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea 6.01. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 07. What do eukaryotes have that prokaryotes do not? A. DNA E.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea True / False Questions . thereby harming humans. disease-causing agents Bacteria can cause disease in humans and other organisms.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. FALSE Many bacteria are beneficial to humans and do not cause disease. symbionts in the digestive tract E. All bacteria are pathogens. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. useful in biotechnology D.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Multiple Choice Questions 8.7.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea . Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 07. cheese and bread industry C. Bloom's Level: 2.01. Which of the following is not a beneficial contribution of bacteria to humans? A. Section: 07.01. important in the wine. decomposers in the environment B. They are obligate intracellular parasites. Viruses do not grow and develop. B. They may contain genomic DNA or RNA. cell wall B. E.01.01 Topic: Viruses True / False Questions . C. Section: 07. They are acellular. nucleoid The capsule is on the outside of the bacterium. Section: 07. what is the first structure of a bacterium encountered? A. Bloom's Level: 4. They contain a protein coat called a capsid. Bloom's Level: 5.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 07. capsule C.9.01. They grow and develop.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea 10. D.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. cytoplasm E. cell membrane D. A. Choose the following statement that does not describe viruses. From the outside moving in. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 07. Section: 07.01. chicken pox D.01 Topic: Viruses .03 Describe the structure of a general virus.11. gonorrhea E.01 Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions 12. tuberculosis C.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. TRUE Viruses depend on the host cell to provide ribosomes for protein translation. strep throat B. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. syphilis Chicken pox is caused by the Varicella zoster virus. A virus does not contain ribosomes.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus? A. Section: 07. composed only of protein. RNA only. Bloom's Level: 2.13. protein only. cardiovascular B. urinary D. Prions cause degenerative diseases of what system? A.01 Topic: Viruses . Understand Learning Outcome: 07.01. digestive C.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. DNA plus protein.03 Describe the structure of a general virus. RNA. DNA only. Bloom's Level: 1. lymphatic E. Section: 07. DNA. nervous Prions cause degenerative diseases of the nervous system called spongiform encephalopathies. A prion consists of A. A prion is a proteinaceous infectious particle.01 Topic: Viruses 14.01. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. C. and protein. B. E. D. return it to the bloodstream B.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system. tonsils B.02 Topic: Immune System .02. Bloom's Level: 1. production. polyps D. nodes C. help the body defend against disease D. Section: 07. lacteals Lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are located in the small intestines. Section: 07. maintenance .02 Summarize how the lymphatic system contributes to homeostasis.02 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Immune System 16.15. take up excess tissue fluid. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. Which of the following is not one of the functions of the lymphatic system? A. adenoids E. calcium homeostasis The lymphatic system is not responsible for calcium homeostasis.and distribution of lymphocytes E. absorb fats in the intestines C.02. Bloom's Level: 2. What is the name of the lymphatic vessels located in the small intestines? A. 02. Bloom's Level: 2. one-way system B.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system. contain valves C. dependent upon skeletal muscle contraction Veins in the cardiovascular system do not take up excess tissue fluid.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system.02 Topic: Immune System 18. Section: 07. In what way are lymphatic vessels unlike veins in the cardiovascular system? A. thymus D. spleen B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.02 Topic: Immune System . Understand Learning Outcome: 07. take up excess tissue fluid D.17. liver E. red bone marrow The liver is not a lymphatic organ. Bloom's Level: 4.02. Which of the following is not a lymphatic organ? A. tonsil C. Section: 07. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system.02. lymph nodes The red bone marrow is the site for the origin of all types of blood cells. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. thymus C. red marrow E.02 Topic: Immune System . tonsils B.03 Explain how the lymphatic system interacts with the circulatory system. axillary lymph nodes C. Which of the lymphatic organs is also part of the skeletal system? A.02 Topic: Immune System 20. tonsils D. spleen B. Section: 07. Bloom's Level: 4. thymus E. Where does the lymphatic system empty into the cardiovascular system? A. Section: 07.19. inguinal lymph nodes D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.02. the right lymphatic duct The right lymphatic duct returns lymph into the right subclavian vein. 02 Summarize how the lymphatic system contributes to homeostasis. tonsil The T lymphocytes mature in the thymus. If the lymph system did not do its job. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. Bloom's Level: 1. swelling (edema) would occur in the tissues. excess glucose in the blood stream B.02 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Immune System True / False Questions .01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system. thymus B.02 Topic: Immune System 22. spleen D. red bone marrow E. Bloom's Level: 5.02.02. jaundice Because the lymphatic system collects excess tissue fluid. thyroid C. if it were not working. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 07.21. what would be one of the consequences? A. Section: 07. edema in the tissues E. Where do T lymphocytes mature? A. slow reaction time to external stimuli C. inability to clot D. Section: 07. they work very. B. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. E.02 Topic: Immune System Multiple Choice Questions 24. C. they are lost as we age.02. Section: 07." In this context. Bloom's Level: 2. this means A. D.03.01 List examples of the body's innate defenses. One set of the body's defenses are called "innate.03 Explain how the lymphatic system interacts with the circulatory system. Section: 07. phagocytosis is involved. they only act internally.23. very quickly. "Innate" in this context means that these defenses act indiscriminately against all pathogens. The thymus cleanses the blood from the cardiovascular system of cellular debris and bacteria.03 Topic: Immune System . FALSE The spleen cleanses the blood. they act indiscriminately against all pathogens. Bloom's Level: 2. D. Bloom's Level: 4. preventing pathogenic bacteria from gaining a foothold. C. acid pH of stomach E. intact skin B. How can normal flora be a barrier to entry? A. B. inflammatory response The inflammatory response occurs after the pathogen has entered the body. They activate the complement system which punches holes in the invading pathogen. Section: 07. Which of the following is not considered a barrier to entry of a pathogen? A. mucous membranes C. E.03 Topic: Immune System 26. Section: 07. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. They phagocytize any pathogenic bacteria that attempt to infect.03 Topic: Immune System .01 List examples of the body's innate defenses. sebaceous secretions D.03.03. resident bacteria or normal flora use up nutrients and release waste that make the environment inhospitable for invading pathogens.25.01 List examples of the body's innate defenses. They release histamine which causes blood vessels to become permeable. They cause an inflammatory response that kills pathogenic bacteria upon contact. By their presence. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. They use up nutrients and release wastes. Bloom's Level: 1. and pain.03 Topic: Immune System 28. eosinophils and neutrophils B. Bloom's Level: 2. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation? A.27.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response.03. pain E. swelling. swelling D. Section: 07. basophils and macrophages D.03. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. normal flora (bacteria mostly) Neutrophils and macrophages are the main cells involved in the inflammatory response.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response. heat. eosinophils and basophils C.03 Topic: Immune System . redness B. difficulty breathing The four signs of inflammation are redness. What cell types are involved in the inflammatory response? A. heat C. neutrophils and macrophages E. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. Section: 07. macrophages E. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. Section: 07. TRUE When an injury is not serious. eosinophils C. basophils D.03 Topic: Immune System True / False Questions 30. Inflammation is normally a self-limiting process. Bloom's Level: 1.03.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response. Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue? A. the inflammatory response is short-lived and the healing process will quickly return the affected area to the normal state.03. Section: 07. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response.03 Topic: Immune System Multiple Choice Questions . red blood cells Monocytes become macrophages once they enter the tissues.29. neutrophils B. 03 Topic: Immune System True / False Questions . The reason the complement system is called that is because it A. C. Bloom's Level: 2.03. C. Certain complement proteins involved in the membrane attack complex kills foreign microbes by causing them to burst.03 Topic: Immune System 32. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. Section: 07. creating interferon. Certain complement proteins kill foreign microbes by A.03 Explain the role of the complement system. produces T and B cells. E. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. B. is composed of normal flora. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 07. E. D. inactivating their ribosomes. agglutinating them. involves chemical barriers to entry. helps other immune responses. B.03. D. is part of the inflammatory response.31. destroying their nucleic acids.03 Explain the role of the complement system. The complement proteins "complement" certain other immune responses. causing them to burst. C.03.03 Explain the role of the complement system. TRUE Since viruses are not surrounded by a membrane. E. The membrane attack complex of the complement system is not effective against viruses.04. B. T cells can recognize antigens because they A. Section: 07. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. have enzymes which react with antigens.04 Topic: Immune System . possess fimbrae. become plasma cells. produce antibodies. D. the membrane attack complex is ineffective against them. T cells possess specific receptors that help them identify antigens. possess specific receptors.03 Summarize the process of cell-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Section: 07. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 07. Bloom's Level: 4.03 Topic: Immune System Multiple Choice Questions 34.33. Bloom's Level: 5. plasma cells form. B cell divides. plasma cells form. B cell divides. B cell divides. B cell activated. antigen binds to BCR. anything the immune system recognizes as foreign to the body B.04 Topic: Immune System True / False Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 07. antigen binds to BCR. B cell activated. What is the definition of an antigen? A. plasma cells form C. antigen binds to BCR D.04 Topic: Immune System 36. Which of the following is in the correct order in the formation of antibodies? A. plasma cells form E. a protein produced by plasma cells that attacks pathogens C. B cell activated. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. B cell activated.01 Explain the role of an antigen in the acquired defenses. B cell divides. Section: 07. a form of immune deficiency Anything that the immune system recognizes as foreign to the body is called an antigen. plasma cells form B. Bloom's Level: 2. B cell activated. B cell divides.04.02 Summarize the process of antibody-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. a type of white blood cell D. antigen binds to BCR. a part of the membrane attack complex of the complement system E. B cell divides. B cell activated.04. plasma cells form. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 07. antigen binds to BCR The correct order is: antigen binds to BCR.35. 01 Explain the role of an antigen in the acquired defenses. Section: 07. IgM D.04 Topic: Immune System Multiple Choice Questions 38.37. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. IgE C.04. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE The acquired defense system will also recognize cancer cells with abnormal membrane proteins and destroy them. Section: 07. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. The acquired defense system only recognizes and destroys cells with antigens that come from outside the body. IgA IgM antibodies are the first produced by a plasma cell. What are the first antibodies produced by a plasma cell? A.04. IgD E. IgG B.02 Summarize the process of antibody-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Bloom's Level: 1.04 Topic: Immune System . Bloom's Level: 1.39. IgM E. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. plasma cell C.04 Topic: Immune System 40. TCR The antigen first binds to the B-cell receptor (BCR) to activate antibody-mediated immunity. IgG C. Bloom's Level: 4. In antibody-mediated immunity where does the antigen first bind? A.02 Summarize the process of antibody-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. BCR D. which antibody levels would be higher than normal? A. Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics.04 Topic: Immune System . Under these conditions. IgA B. Section: 07.04. IgE IgE antibody levels rise in an parasite infection and would therefore be higher than normal. IgD D. memory cell B.04. Section: 07.02 Summarize the process of antibody-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. helper T cell E. 03 Summarize the process of cell-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process.04 Topic: Immune System 42. tonsils and thymus C. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. What is the most important thing that needs to match between him and the kidney donor? A.04. Section: 07.04. Section: 07. MHC C. EKG The Major Histocompatibility Complex antigens must match to avoid rejection of the transplant.41. tonsils and bone marrow Lymphocytes are produced in the bone marrow and T lymphocytes travel to the thymus to mature. HCG E.04 Topic: Immune System . Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. bone marrow and thyroid E. Shaun was in need of a kidney transplant. PCR D. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Summarize the process of cell-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. What two sites are involved in the production and maturation of T lymphocytes? A. TCR B. thyroid and tonsils B. thymus and bone marrow D. passive D. Bloom's Level: 1. neutral C. active E.03 Summarize the process of cell-mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Bloom's Level: 2. perforin Cytotoxic T cells contain perforin molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens. antioxidant D. A.05 Topic: Immune System .04. Section: 07. active. Understand Learning Outcome: 07.43. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.04 Topic: Immune System 44.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. interferon C. steroid B. active In active immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens and in passive immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen. neutral B. Cytotoxic T cells contain what type of molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens? A. passive. passive. neutral.05. complement E. Section: 07. In ______ immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens while in ______ immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen. active. D. Bloom's Level: 4. They are both forms of neutral immunity. nonspecific D. whether it is introduced via an infection or a vaccination. Active immunity involves making your own antibodies against an antigen. passive C. Section: 07. What do "having the measles" and being vaccinated against the measles have in common? A.45. They are both forms of an infection. B. C. The RhoGAM shot (discussed in chapter 6) given to Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive fetus is an example of what type of immunity? A. neutral The RhoGAM shot is an example of passive immunity. They are both forms of active immunity. general E.05. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.05 Topic: Immune System . Section: 07. Apply Learning Outcome: 07. They are both forms of passive immunity. active B. It is an injection of serum that contains antibodies.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity.05 Topic: Immune System 46.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Bloom's Level: 3.05. They are both forms of an immune deficiency. E. They are produced by hybridomas. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridomas. They are primarily produced by mast cells when a person has an allergy. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. They are produced by a clone derived from a single T lymphocyte. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 07.05 Topic: Immune System True / False Questions 48.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity.05.05 .02 Recognize the importance of monoclonal antibodies in immunity. Bloom's Level: 5. E. Section: 07. Bloom's Level: 1. TRUE All of these are current uses of monoclonal antibodies.47. identify infections. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. If you were vaccinated against the mumps virus and later exposed to it.05. B. Section: 07. Section: 07.02 Recognize the importance of monoclonal antibodies in immunity.05 Topic: Immune System 49.05. FALSE The purpose of a vaccination is to prevent an infection by causing active immunity. C. and determine if a woman is pregnant. Which of the following is true about monoclonal antibodies? A. Monoclonal antibodies can be used to treat cancer. They are produced by a variety of unrelated B cells. you would still be infected but it would not be as bad as if you had never been vaccinated. D. Bloom's Level: 4. They are composed of antibodies with a variety of different variable regions. 06. Section: 07. Beth was given a Mantoux skin test to detect tuberculosis. B-cell mediated The Mantoux skin test uses the delayed allergic response to indicate exposure to tuberculosis.06 Topic: Immune System .01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction. histamine C.02 Recognize the importance of monoclonal antibodies in immunity. anaphylactic B. macrophages. Cytokines are signaling molecules produced by hybridomas. immediate allergic D. Hybridomas produce monoclonal antibodies. What type of response is this? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. If it were positive. FALSE Cytokines are produced by T lymphocytes.05. delayed allergic E. Bloom's Level: 2. Apply Learning Outcome: 07. and other cells. Bloom's Level: 3.05 Topic: Immune System Multiple Choice Questions 51. the site of the test would become hardened and red. Section: 07. Before working at the hospital.Topic: Immune System 50. Bloom's Level: 2.06. When stung by a bee. B. histamine. Bloom's Level: 1. E.02 Identify the causes of select autoimmune diseases. D. a vaccination. Jackie goes into anaphylactic shock. Section: 07. Epinephrine counteracts the effects of histamine in anaphylactic shock. interferon. systemic lupus erythematosus E. rheumatic fever C. rheumatoid arthritis D.52.06 Topic: Immune System True / False Questions . Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 07. epinephrine. Section: 07. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. C. This should be quickly treated with A.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction.06 Topic: Immune System 53. myasthenia gravis Hay fever is a hypersensitivity. cytokines. hay fever B.06. both B and T cells are lacking.06 Topic: Immune System 57. People with allergies do not produce IgE. FALSE In severe combined immunodeficiency disease. Bloom's Level: 4.06 Topic: Immune System 55. antibodies are missing but T cells function normally. TRUE Allergic responses are hypersensitivities (greater sensitivities). Analyze Learning Outcome: 07.06 Topic: Immune System 56. Section: 07.06. Section: 07.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction.06.06 Topic: Immune System .02 Identify the causes of select autoimmune diseases. FALSE Autoimmune diseases can be genetic or environmental. All autoimmune diseases are caused by environmental factors such as viral infections.54.06. An allergic response is an over reaction of the immune system.06. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 07. Bloom's Level: 2. In SCID. Analyze Learning Outcome: 07. Understand Learning Outcome: 07. Section: 07.02 Identify the causes of select autoimmune diseases. FALSE People with allergies produce ten times more IgE than those people without allergies. Bloom's Level: 4. . 06.01 Explain the role of an antigen in the acquired defenses. 3 Learning Outcome: 07.02 Identify the causes of select autoimmune diseases. Evaluate 4 Learning Outcome: 07.01.03 Summarize the process of cell- 4 mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process.02.01 Describe the structure of the lymphatic system.02 Summarize the process of antibody- 4 mediated immunity and list the cells involved in the process. Apply 2 Bloom's Level: 4. 2 Learning Outcome: 07.05.02 Recognize the importance of monoclonal antibodies in immunity. 3 Learning Outcome: 07.05.03. 5 Learning Outcome: 07.02.01 Distinguish between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. Understand 25 Bloom's Level: 3.03.06 7 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea 9 Topic: Homeostasis 2 Topic: Immune System 43 Topic: Viruses 6 .02. 4 Learning Outcome: 07. 3 Learning Outcome: 07.01.03 Explain the role of the complement system.Chapter 07 Lymphatic System and Immunity Summary Category # of Questions Bloom's Level: 1.02 Identify the structures of a prokaryotic cell.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 07.03 Explain how the lymphatic system interacts with the circulatory system.01. 3 Section: 07. 5 Learning Outcome: 07.04.05 7 Section: 07. Learning Outcome: 07.04. Remember 13 Bloom's Level: 2.03 Describe the structure of a general virus.03.03 10 Section: 07. 5 Learning Outcome: 07.04 10 Section: 07.04.02 9 Section: 07. 4 Learning Outcome: 07.01 Explain what causes an allergic reaction. Analyze 13 Bloom's Level: 5.01 14 Section: 07. 4 Learning Outcome: 07.02 Summarize how the lymphatic system contributes to homeostasis. 2 Learning Outcome: 07.02 Summarize the events in the inflammatory response. 2 Learning Outcome: 07.06. 4 Learning Outcome: 07.01 List examples of the body's innate defenses. Which of following is not considered an accessory organ of the digestive system? A. churning of food in the muscular stomach. B.Chapter 08 Digestive System and Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions 1. gallbladder 2. Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system? A. to ingest food B. D. hydrolysis of nutrients. The process of mechanical digestion includes A. 3. liver B. absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. to digest food into small nutrients so that the molecules that can pass through membranes C. C. physically making food smaller and easier to handle. small intestines D. salivary glands C. to absorb nutrient molecules D. to eliminate indigestible remains E. breakdown of food particles by enzymes. pancreas E. E. to protect against pathogens . submucosa. small intestine. muscularis. anus 6. mouth. submucosa. mucosa. rectum. pharynx. True / False Questions . large intestine. D. serosa. esophagus. muscularis. esophagus. small intestine. small intestine. mucosa. submucosa 7. B. mouth. B. and nerves is called the A. mouth. esophagus. rectum. large intestine. esophagus. large intestine. esophagus. rectum. rickets. peritonitis. stomach. serosa. large intestine. serosa. serosa. large intestine. anus E. C. D. osteoporosis. small intestine. C. mucosa. E. D. The layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall from the inside layer outward in order are A. stomach. muscularis. The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels.4. stomach. stomach. small intestine. anus B. submucosa. muscularis. diverticulum. pharynx. stomach. mucosa. lymph. rectum. anus C. pharynx. serosa. What is the correct order of components of the digestive tract? A. C. E. diverticulitis. pharynx. E. rectum. muscularis. 5. muscularis. cirrhosis. mucosa. serosa. pharynx. mouth. anus D. If your appendix bursts it may lead to a life threatening condition called A. submucosa. submucosa. B. mucosa. mouth. salivary glands 12. The dentist explained that dental caries are caused by A. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing proteins. True 9. cheek E. D. epiglottis. C. E. C. . tonsils B. All of the accessory organs of the digestive system send secretions to the small intestine. B. False Smooth muscles in the stomach are capable of mechanical digestion. adenoid. What prevents food from entering the nasal cavities? A. pharynx. yeast within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids. enzymes within the mouth metabolizing sugars. 11. uvula. B. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids. E. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing sugar. cecum. hard and soft palate D.8. mandible and maxilla C. D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 10. The fleshy extension of the soft palate is known as the A. Which of the following is not found in/on the tongue? A. taste buds D. A. Swallowing consists of both a voluntary phase and a reflex action. vitamin deficiencies. E. cardiovascular disease. muscle B. B. asthma. salivary lipase B. What enzyme initiates the process of starch digestion in the mouth? A. D. salivary protease C. salivary amylase E. physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to ___________. dentin C. sensory receptors 14. peritonitis. True False Multiple Choice Questions 16. salivary sucrase D. True / False Questions 15. neurological disorders. mucous membrane E. salivary lactase . Today. C.13. B. B. Staub it was determined that it was not suffering from a heart attack but from A. anastomoses. peridontitis. 18. D. D. gastroesophageal reflux disease. C. inflammatory bowel syndrome. B.17. E. perineum. periosteum. 19. Staub was rushed to the hospital because he had intense pain in his chest. The process that pushes food through the esophagus is called A. The glottis closes off the larynx so the bolus of food enters the esophagus and not the trachea. buccinators. peritoneum. D. diverticulitis. E. True / False Questions 20. Mr. gingivitis. cannula. After running tests on Mr. peridontal. C. sphincters. True False Multiple Choice Questions . peristalsis. E. frenula. Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called A. C. The primary function of the stomach is to A. package feces. What greatly increases the capacity of the stomach? A. True / False Questions . 22. polyps D. and begin digestion. B. break down fats. chyme. pepsin 24. lacteal. duodenum E. churn. store food.21. The thick. bolus. E. B. diverticula 23. D. lumens C. alcohol absorption B. absorb major nutrients. rugae E. C. C. gastric glands C. lipase. E. pepsin. rugae D. D. soupy liquid of partially digested food that leaves the stomach is called A. crypts B. eliminate water and tissue fluid. Which of the following is not associated with the stomach? A. bile and lipase . it must act in the A. esophagus. D. True False 26. Pepsin-protein D. Lipase-fat C. Which of the following is not associated with the small intestine? A. E. stomach. mouth. Therefore. Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is incorrect? A. lacteals E. gastric pits C. small intestine. Pepsin is an enzyme that digests proteins at acidic pH. Amylase-starch E. Trypsin-carbohydrates 28. True False Multiple Choice Questions 27. The stomach is bounded on both ends by a sphincter. brush border enzymes D. many villi B. B. Nuclease-DNA B.25. C. 29. The small intestine is longer than the large intestine. large intestine. large intestine. lipase B. C. B. D. lacteals. E. D. What serves as an emulsifying agent in the small intestine? A. stomach. internal bleeding and headaches. 33. liver. D. gastric glands. pepsin E. diarrhea and bloating. E. 32. mesenteries. it seemed to be filled with a dark brown organ. bile C. . gallbladder. dehydration and itching. shortness of breath and bloating. The main symptoms of lactose intolerance are A. duodenal pits. E. B. This is the A. C. microvilli. The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as A. When Sheree opened the abdominal cavity of her preserved frog.30. pancreas. diarrhea and itching. amylase D. B. maltase 31. C. gallbladder E. 36. 37. sodium bicarbonate C.34. It removes iron and certain vitamins from the blood and stores them. E. brain B. E. Which organ is responsible for iron homeostasis? A. Which of the following is not a liver function? A. It removes poisonous substances from the blood and detoxifies them. liver D. B. It produces bile. amylase D. lipase 35.5 million Americans. It secretes pancreatic juice through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. bile B. It helps regulate blood cholesterol levels. Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas? A. Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland? A. The disorder causes increased absorption of intestinal iron. D. B. A serious genetic disorder known as hemochromatosis is often called the rusty organ disease and affects nearly 1. lungs C. trypsin E. C. D. spleen . C. It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and secretin into the blood. It secretes secretin through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. It secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine. It secretes bile through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and bile into the blood. A C. D. Why is bile a yellowish-greenish color? A. The gallbladder produces bile. C 41. It contains cholesterol.38. True / False Questions 39. It contains chlorophyll. NAD . B. It contains bilirubin. C. Which of the following is a digestive hormone that causes the liver to increase its production of bile and the gallbladder to release stored bile? A. E. ATP E. HCl D. It contains pancreatic juices. True False Multiple Choice Questions 40. What type of hepatitis is usually acquired through blood transfusions or sexual contact? A. CCK C. B B. It contains biliverdin. GIP B. anus. and anus. duodenum. There is a hormone produced by the stomach that feeds back and acts on the stomach. form feces C. rectum. the colon. The major portions of the large intestine include A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 44. the cecum. and rectum. colon. digestion/absorption B. 45. passageway only E. churning foodstuffs D. eliminate iron . cecum. and jejunum. duodenum. and rectum. cecum. colon. the jejunum. D. B. What is the major function of the colon? A. and anus. E. The secretions of digestive juices are controlled by the nervous system as well as by digestive hormones. True False 43.True / False Questions 42. C. the colon. the duodenum. This is harmful to humans who eat the oysters. absorb water 47. D. What is one benefit of normal flora in the large intestine? A. absorb fats C.46. E. Inflammatory bowel disease is a type of Crohn's disease. 48. while in inflammatory bowel disease. but in inflammatory bowel disease only the small intestine is affected. produce vitamin B D. What is the relationship between Crohn's disease and inflammatory bowel disease? A. Nothing. Recent studies of an oyster-rich bay indicated a high coliform count. E. inflammation occurs throughout the digestive tract. In Crohn's disease. B. the colon is affected. produce bile E. They are two separate diseases but both affect only the colon. Shut down the bay. D. True / False Questions . A high coliform count is normal. Crohn's disease is one of the most common inflammatory bowel diseases. small pouches form in the muscularis. This is harmful to the oysters. This is good for oyster production. Shut down the bay. cysts. villi. Nothing. What should the fisheries officers do? A. D. In Crohn's disease. absorb iron B. C. B. B. lacteals. 49. C. polyps. Small growths arising from the epithelial lining of the colon are called A. wheals. C. obese E. 32.50. 33. True False Multiple Choice Questions 51. healthy C. overweight True / False Questions 52.2. Bryan is 6' 2" and weighs 160 pounds. Calculate his BMI and determine his status based upon figure 8. or gender.6. A. obesity is often defined as having a body mass index of 20 or greater. obese D.11. True False 53. 25. The BMI is useful because it tells you how much of your weight is due to adipose tissue regardless of your fitness. True False Multiple Choice Questions . 20.5. healthy B. Today. Constipation can be treated by adding fiber to the diet. bone structure. 27.4.5. Remove skin from poultry. D. can cause LDL levels to increase. Brain cells require glucose. muscle contraction. magnesium D. E. 57. can cause a sudden drop in blood glucose levels. Carbohydrates are considered a "complete" nutrient. B. can cause fatty acids to build up. C. Use butter instead of herbs and spices. Broil rather than fry. Which of the following will not reduce dietary lipids? A. Why is it necessary to include some carbohydrates in the diet? A. E. Some carbohydrates contain essential amino acids. and blood clotting? A. C. B. Avoid packaged foods that contain hydrogenated fats. can cause HDL levels to decrease. Use lemon juice instead of salad dressing. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy for the body. 55.54. D. 56. calcium B. B. sodium E. sulfur . Chad was concerned about eating foods with a high glycemic index because these foods A. can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose. Which of the following is necessary for strong bones and teeth. nerve conduction. Some carbohydrates contain essential fatty acids. D. E. C. iron C. D and C D. and A C. zinc D. manganese 60. C and B12 B. D. selenium E.58. B12. When a nutrition labels states that something has "0" grams of trans fat. E. vitamin C B. this might not mean there are no trans fats in the food. and E 59. Which vitamin is fat soluble? A. C. A diet rich in what vitamins may reduce the chance of free radicals that can cause health problems? A. vitamin B12 E. copper C. C. True False . iodine B. vitamin E C. and E E. vitamin B6 D. A deficiency in which mineral leads to thyroid deficiency? A. C. biotin True / False Questions 61. older men. C. D. B. About 90% of people suffering from anorexia nervosa are A.Multiple Choice Questions 62. young women. older women. young men. . The process of mechanical digestion includes physically making food smaller and easier to handle. liver B. B.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. Which of following is not considered an accessory organ of the digestive system? A.01. physically making food smaller and easier to handle. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. not an accessory organ. C. gallbladder The small intestines are part of the digestive system. Section: 08.02 List the accessory organs and provide a function for each. salivary glands C.Chapter 08 Digestive System and Nutrition Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. hydrolysis of nutrients.01 Topic: Digestive System 2. Bloom's Level: 2. absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. D. breakdown of food particles by enzymes. small intestines D.01 Topic: Digestive System . Section: 08. The process of mechanical digestion includes A. churning of food in the muscular stomach. pancreas E. E. 01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. submucosa.01. to protect against pathogens The immune system protects against pathogens.03 Describe the structure of the gastrointestinal tract wall. to absorb nutrient molecules D. B. mucosa. diverticulum. Bloom's Level: 2.01. and nerves is called the submucosa. The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels. serosa. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. to ingest food B. and nerves is called the A. lymph. D. Section: 08. lymph. Section: 08. to digest food into small nutrients so that the molecules that can pass through membranes C.01 Topic: Digestive System . Bloom's Level: 1. E. Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system? A. C. to eliminate indigestible remains E.3. The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System 4. muscularis. Bloom's Level: 3.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. large intestine. stomach. mucosa. anus C. rectum. B. pharynx. stomach. esophagus. E.01. pharynx. stomach. submucosa. serosa. mucosa. rectum. small intestine. muscularis. mouth. esophagus. small intestine. pharynx. the muscularis.03 Describe the structure of the gastrointestinal tract wall. submucosa The layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall from the inside in order are the mucosa. serosa. What is the correct order of components of the digestive tract? A. mouth.01 Topic: Digestive System 6. muscularis. anus D. anus B. serosa. large intestine. esophagus. mouth. stomach. small intestine. large intestine. mouth.01. mucosa. esophagus. serosa. the submucosa. submucosa. small intestine. Section: 08. rectum. mucosa. muscularis. submucosa. stomach.01 Topic: Digestive System . esophagus. Section: 08. serosa. and the serosa. stomach. small intestine. Bloom's Level: 3. pharynx. large intestine. pharynx. muscularis. The layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall from the inside layer outward in order are A. submucosa. rectum. anus The digestive system begins at the mouth and includes the pharynx. rectum. anus E. small intestine. Apply Learning Outcome: 08. large intestine. esophagus. rectum. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.5. D. muscularis. and anus. large intestine. C. mucosa. mouth. 01 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions 8. Bloom's Level: 2.7. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System . Smooth muscles in the stomach are capable of mechanical digestion. diverticulitis. rickets. peritonitis.01.03 Describe the structure of the gastrointestinal tract wall. A burst appendix may lead to a life threatening condition called peritonitis. TRUE Mechanical digestion occurs in the mouth by chewing and by peristalsis of the smooth muscles in the stomach. FALSE Only the gallbladder and pancreas send secretions to the small intestine. D. Bloom's Level: 4.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. Section: 08. E. All of the accessory organs of the digestive system send secretions to the small intestine. osteoporosis. B. cirrhosis.02 List the accessory organs and provide a function for each.01.01. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08. Section: 08. Section: 08. If your appendix bursts it may lead to a life threatening condition called A. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01 Topic: Digestive System 9. C. salivary glands The roof of the mouth. adenoid.02. Section: 08. uvula.02 Topic: Digestive System . cheek E. Section: 08. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. separate the oral cavity from the nasal cavities.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. D. Bloom's Level: 1. tonsils B.02 Topic: Digestive System 11.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. The uvula is the fleshy extension of the soft palate. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. B. cecum. What prevents food from entering the nasal cavities? A. C. mandible and maxilla C.02.Multiple Choice Questions 10. epiglottis. hard and soft palate D. Bloom's Level: 2. pharynx. E. The fleshy extension of the soft palate is known as the A. composed of the hard and soft palates. not the tongue. taste buds D. The dentist explained that dental caries are caused by A.02. enzymes within the mouth metabolizing sugars. dentin C.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. Dental caries or cavities occur when bacteria within the mouth metabolize sugar. C. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing proteins.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the mouth. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids.02. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08. B. D. mucous membrane E. sensory receptors Dentin is found in teeth. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. Section: 08. Which of the following is not found in/on the tongue? A. Section: 08. yeast within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids.02 Topic: Digestive System 13. E. bacteria within the mouth metabolizing sugar.12. pharynx. and esophagus. muscle B.02 Topic: Digestive System . 03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the mouth. physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to cardiovascular disease.02 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions 15. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to ___________. TRUE Swallowing has a voluntary phase. Today. Section: 08. Bloom's Level: 1. asthma. Section: 08. B. swallowing becomes a reflex action.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing. E. A. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. neurological disorders.02. and esophagus. Today. C.14. vitamin deficiencies. peritonitis.02 Topic: Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions . However. cardiovascular disease. Bloom's Level: 2. D.02. Swallowing consists of both a voluntary phase and a reflex action. pharynx. once food or drink is pushed back far enough. 03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the mouth. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02.02 Topic: Digestive System . E. What enzyme initiates the process of starch digestion in the mouth? A. After running tests on Mr. Staub was rushed to the hospital because he had intense pain in his chest. C. salivary protease C. Section: 08. Mr. Bloom's Level: 1. salivary amylase E. B. D. salivary sucrase D. diverticulitis. gingivitis. peridontitis. pharynx.02 Topic: Digestive System 17. GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) can also cause intense chest pain. salivary lipase B.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. and esophagus.16. gastroesophageal reflux disease. salivary lactase Salivary amylase initiates the process of starch digestion. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 08. Apply Learning Outcome: 08. inflammatory bowel syndrome. Staub it was determined that it was not suffering from a heart attack but from A.02. Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called A. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing.18. periosteum. peristalsis. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Topic: Digestive System 19. The process that pushes food through the esophagus is called A. peritoneum. frenula.02. anastomoses. B. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. C. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. buccinators. sphincters.02.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing. The rhythmic contractions of the digestive tract that allow movement of foodstuffs are called peristalsis. Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called sphincters. Section: 08. C. E. D.02 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions . cannula. D. peridontal. B. E. Section: 08. perineum. absorb major nutrients. Section: 08. and begin digestion. C. and begin digestion.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing. eliminate water and tissue fluid. Bloom's Level: 2. The glottis closes off the larynx so the bolus of food enters the esophagus and not the trachea. The primary function of the stomach is to store food. Bloom's Level: 2. B. E. package feces. churn.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion.03 Topic: Digestive System .03.02 Topic: Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions 21. Section: 08. store food. churn. FALSE The epiglottis closes off the larynx.20. break down fats.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. The primary function of the stomach is to A. D. 03 Topic: Digestive System . rugae E.03. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. pepsin The duodenum is part of the small intestine.22. Bloom's Level: 4.03. gastric glands C. duodenum E. Bloom's Level: 2. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08. What greatly increases the capacity of the stomach? A. Section: 08. lumens C. polyps D.03 Topic: Digestive System 23. not the stomach. Which of the following is not associated with the stomach? A. diverticula The mucosa of the stomach has deep folds called rugae that greatly increase the capacity of the stomach. alcohol absorption B. rugae D.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. crypts B.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. Section: 08. Section: 08. D. Section: 08. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions 25. The thick. B.03 Topic: Digestive System .02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion. The small intestine is longer than the large intestine. C. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. pepsin. chyme. lacteal. lipase. The thick.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. soupy liquid of partially digested food that leaves the stomach is called A. TRUE The small intestine is about 18 feet in length while the large intestine is only about 4 1/2 feet in length.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion.03. E. soupy liquid of partially digested food that leaves the stomach is called chyme. The stomach is bounded on both ends by a sphincter.03 Topic: Digestive System 26. TRUE The lower gastroesophageal sphincter and the pyloric sphincter are found at either end of the stomach.03. Bloom's Level: 2. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. bolus. Section: 08.24. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03. Lipase-fat C. Bloom's Level: 4. D.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. Pepsin is an enzyme that digests proteins at acidic pH.03. Amylase-starch E.03 Explain how carbohydrates. mouth. large intestine. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08. stomach.03. Pepsin acts in the stomach. Section: 08. Therefore. E. Section: 08. lipids. Nuclease-DNA B. small intestine. Bloom's Level: 3. Trypsin-carbohydrates Trypsin is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that digests proteins.Multiple Choice Questions 27. C.03 Topic: Digestive System . esophagus. it must act in the A. Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is incorrect? A. and proteins are processed by the small intestine. B.03 Topic: Digestive System 28. Pepsin-protein D. Apply Learning Outcome: 08. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 5.03 Topic: Digestive System .02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion. What serves as an emulsifying agent in the small intestine? A. many villi B.03 Topic: Digestive System 30. bile C.02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion.29. pepsin E. maltase In the small intestines. lipase B. amylase D.03. brush border enzymes D. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. gastric pits C. bile and lipase Gastric pits are located in the stomach.03. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 08. Section: 08. Section: 08. bile serves as an emulsifying agent. lacteals E. Which of the following is not associated with the small intestine? A. lipids. The main symptoms of lactose intolerance are A. E. B. diarrhea and itching. The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as lacteals.03. C. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion. Bloom's Level: 1. lacteals. C. dehydration and itching. Section: 08. mesenteries. E. diarrhea and bloating.03 Topic: Digestive System .03 Explain how carbohydrates. microvilli. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. B. Bloom's Level: 2.31. shortness of breath and bloating. D. gastric glands. and proteins are processed by the small intestine.03 Topic: Digestive System 32. duodenal pits. The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as A. Lactose intolerance may cause diarrhea and bloating. internal bleeding and headaches.03. Section: 08. D. 33. Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas? A.04. C. gallbladder. pancreas.01 Explain the function of the pancreas. liver. E. and gallbladder. It lies in the abdominal cavity. amylase D. sodium bicarbonate C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.02 List the secretions of the pancreas. lipase The pancreas secretes all of these but bile. liver. D. large intestine.04. Bloom's Level: 3. liver.04 Topic: Digestive System 34. trypsin E. stomach. When Sheree opened the abdominal cavity of her preserved frog. it seemed to be filled with a dark brown organ. B. Section: 08. The largest gland in the body is the liver. bile B. Bloom's Level: 4. and gallbladder during digestion.04 Topic: Digestive System . Section: 08. This is the A. 04 Topic: Digestive System 36.35. and gallbladder during digestion. C. Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland? A. E. C. It produces bile.01 Explain the function of the pancreas.04. Section: 08. It removes poisonous substances from the blood and detoxifies them. Which of the following is not a liver function? A. Bloom's Level: 4. It helps regulate blood cholesterol levels. and gallbladder during digestion. It secretes bile through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. Section: 08.01 Explain the function of the pancreas. liver. The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine.04 Topic: Digestive System . Analyze Learning Outcome: 08. B. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. It secretes secretin through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and secretin into the blood. D. It removes iron and certain vitamins from the blood and stores them. As an exocrine gland it secretes pancreatic juice through the pancreatic duct. Bloom's Level: 2. It secretes pancreatic juice through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. As an endocrine gland it secretes insulin into the blood. B. It secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine. D. It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and bile into the blood. E.04. liver. D.04.02 List the secretions of the pancreas.37. gallbladder E. Why is bile a yellowish-greenish color? A. and gallbladder.04 Topic: Digestive System 38. It contains bilirubin. C. brain B.5 million Americans. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08. Bloom's Level: 4. and gallbladder during digestion. liver. Section: 08. Bloom's Level: 3. liver D. It contains chlorophyll. It contains biliverdin. E.01 Explain the function of the pancreas. spleen Since the liver removes iron from the blood. it is affected by hemochromatosis.04. Section: 08. liver. A serious genetic disorder known as hemochromatosis is often called the rusty organ disease and affects nearly 1. Apply Learning Outcome: 08. lungs C. The yellowish-green color of bile is due primarily to the presence of bilirubin.04 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions . It contains cholesterol. Which organ is responsible for iron homeostasis? A. It contains pancreatic juices. B. The disorder causes increased absorption of intestinal iron. 01 Explain the function of the pancreas.39. B B. or contaminated needles. Section: 08. C Hepatitis B is acquired through sexual contact. FALSE The liver produces bile which is stored in the gallbladder.02 List the secretions of the pancreas. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. The gallbladder produces bile.04. Section: 08.04 Topic: Digestive System . liver. Bloom's Level: 2. blood transfusions. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. and gallbladder during digestion.04 Topic: Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions 40. A C. liver. What type of hepatitis is usually acquired through blood transfusions or sexual contact? A.04. and gallbladder. Bloom's Level: 2. HCl D. Section: 08.04. Section: 08. Bloom's Level: 1.04 Topic: Digestive System . Remember Learning Outcome: 08.04. NAD CCK or cholecystokinin causes the liver to increase in production of bile and the gallbladder to release stored bile. GIP B.04 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions 42. The secretions of digestive juices are controlled by the nervous system as well as by digestive hormones. CCK C. TRUE The parasympathetic nervous system stimulate gastric secretions along with digestive hormones. Which of the following is a digestive hormone that causes the liver to increase its production of bile and the gallbladder to release stored bile? A.03 Summarize how secretions of the accessory organs are regulated. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.41. ATP E.03 Summarize how secretions of the accessory organs are regulated. and rectum. TRUE Gastrin produced from the lower stomach feeds back to stimulate the upper part of the stomach to produce digestive juice. the duodenum. the colon. colon. duodenum. Section: 08. Section: 08. rectum. cecum. and anus. and anus. The major portions of the large intestine include the cecum. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 08. the cecum.05. rectum. colon. C. E.03 Summarize how secretions of the accessory organs are regulated. duodenum. Bloom's Level: 2. The major portions of the large intestine include A. There is a hormone produced by the stomach that feeds back and acts on the stomach.04 Topic: Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions 44. and jejunum. the jejunum. the colon. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. and anus. colon.05 Topic: Digestive System .04.43.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. anus. and rectum. cecum. B. D. Bloom's Level: 5. form feces C.05 Topic: Digestive System . produce vitamin B D. absorb fats C. Section: 08. passageway only E.45.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. churning foodstuffs D. and breakdown indigestible material.05. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 1. What is one benefit of normal flora in the large intestine? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. absorb water Resident bacteria in the large intestine serve to produce vitamin B. Section: 08. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. as well as vitamin K. absorb iron B. produce bile E.05. eliminate iron The major function of the colon is to form feces. What is the major function of the colon? A. digestion/absorption B.05 Topic: Digestive System 46. lacteals. D. What should the fisheries officers do? A. Nothing. B.47. wheals. B. Recent studies of an oyster-rich bay indicated a high coliform count.05 Topic: Digestive System 48.05.02 List the disorders of the large intestine and provide a cause for each. Apply Learning Outcome: 08. D. Bloom's Level: 1. E.05 Topic: Digestive System . polyps. This is harmful to humans who eat the oysters. Section: 08. The officers should shut down the bay because this indicates fecal contamination of the water which could be harmful to people eating the oysters. C. Small growths arising from the epithelial lining of the colon are called A. C. Nothing. cysts. Shut down the bay. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. Polyps are small growths arising from the epithelial lining of the colon.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. This is good for oyster production. Section: 08. This is harmful to the oysters.05. A high coliform count is normal. villi. Shut down the bay. Bloom's Level: 3. containing fiber. Bloom's Level: 5. In Crohn's disease. B.05. while in inflammatory bowel disease. They are two separate diseases but both affect only the colon. Section: 08.05. inflammation occurs throughout the digestive tract. TRUE Diets that lack whole grain foods (and therefore fiber) can lead to constipation. Crohn's disease is one of the most common inflammatory bowel diseases. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 08. Apply Learning Outcome: 08.02 List the disorders of the large intestine and provide a cause for each. E. What is the relationship between Crohn's disease and inflammatory bowel disease? A. small pouches form in the muscularis. but in inflammatory bowel disease only the small intestine is affected. Section: 08. Bulk laxatives.02 List the disorders of the large intestine and provide a cause for each. the colon is affected.05 Topic: Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions . Constipation can be treated by adding fiber to the diet.49. C. Inflammatory bowel disease is a type of Crohn's disease. D. In Crohn's disease.05 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions 50. Bloom's Level: 3. can reverse the situation. 20. Bloom's Level: 1. A. obesity is often defined as having a body mass index of 20 or greater. 32. obese D. Today. 33.5. healthy B.4. Section: 08. . Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE The BMI only gives you an idea of how much of your weight is due to adipose tissue. Calculate his BMI and determine his status based upon figure 8. bone structure. overweight Bryan has a BMI of 20.5 which is considered healthy. healthy C.06 Topic: Digestive System 53. or gender.2. Bloom's Level: 3. or gender. Apply Learning Outcome: 08. Bryan is 6' 2" and weighs 160 pounds. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.51. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. FALSE The body mass index for obesity is 30 or greater.11.01 Calculate a BMI value and interpret its relationship to your overall health.6.01 Calculate a BMI value and interpret its relationship to your overall health.06. 25. Section: 08. 27.06 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions 52. obese E. This can vary depending on your fitness. The BMI is useful because it tells you how much of your weight is due to adipose tissue regardless of your fitness.06. bone structure.5.01 Calculate a BMI value and interpret its relationship to your overall health.06. Why is it necessary to include some carbohydrates in the diet? A. D. Broil rather than fry. Brain cells require glucose and are unable to convert fatty acids to glucose. Which of the following will not reduce dietary lipids? A. B.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body.Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions 54. Use lemon juice instead of salad dressing.06. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 3. Using butter instead of herbs and spices is not recommended for reducing dietary lipids. D. C. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System 55. Section: 08. Avoid packaged foods that contain hydrogenated fats. E. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy for the body.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Carbohydrates are considered a "complete" nutrient. C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 08.06. Some carbohydrates contain essential amino acids. Apply Learning Outcome: 08. Use butter instead of herbs and spices. Remove skin from poultry. Brain cells require glucose. E. B.06 Topic: Digestive System . Some carbohydrates contain essential fatty acids. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.06. E. muscle contraction. sodium E.06 Topic: Digestive System 57. Bloom's Level: 1. sulfur Calcium is important for all of these.06 Topic: Digestive System .56. nerve conduction. can cause LDL levels to increase. B. can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose. Section: 08. Chad was concerned about eating foods with a high glycemic index because these foods A. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. iron C. magnesium D. can cause a sudden drop in blood glucose levels. Eating foods with a high glycemic index can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose. and blood clotting? A. Section: 08. Which of the following is necessary for strong bones and teeth.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. can cause fatty acids to build up.06. C. D. can cause HDL levels to decrease. calcium B. Bloom's Level: 2. manganese Iodine is required for thyroid hormone synthesis and too little results in a thyroid deficiency. A deficiency in which mineral leads to thyroid deficiency? A. D. selenium E. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 08. B12. E. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. zinc D. Understand Learning Outcome: 08. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 08. and E E. C.06.06. and E Vitamins C. A diet rich in what vitamins may reduce the chance of free radicals that can cause health problems? A.06 Topic: Digestive System . D and C D.06 Topic: Digestive System 59. and A are believed to defend the body against free radicals and are therefore termed antioxidants. iodine B. C and B12 B. C. C.58. and A C.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. copper C.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. E. 06 Topic: Digestive System True / False Questions 61.60. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 08. vitamin E C. TRUE If the amount of trans fats are less than 0. When a nutrition labels states that something has "0" grams of trans fat. vitamin B6 D. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body.06. Which vitamin is fat soluble? A. vitamin B12 E. biotin Vitamin E is a fat soluble vitamin.5 grams per serving.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. vitamin C B. Section: 08.06 Topic: Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions . this might not mean there are no trans fats in the food. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.06. it can be listed on the label as "0 trans fat" even though there are some trans fats present. Remember Learning Outcome: 08. C. B. older men. About 90% of people suffering from anorexia nervosa are A. older women.06 Topic: Digestive System . D.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body. Bloom's Level: 1.06. young men.62. young women. Young women are most affected by anorexia nervosa. Section: 08. 02.01 Explain the function of the pancreas.02 List the secretions of the pancreas. 4 Learning Outcome: 08.01 Identify the structures of the mouth and pharynx and provide a function for each. and gallbladder.01 Calculate a BMI value and interpret its relationship to your overall health.01 Describe the structure of the stomach and its role in digestion. lipids.04 11 Section: 08.01 9 Section: 08. Understand 22 Bloom's Level: 3.02 Describe the structure of the small intestine and its role in digestion. liver.05.01.03. 3 Learning Outcome: 08.04. 3 Learning Outcome: 08. 4 Learning Outcome: 08. liver. 5 Learning Outcome: 08. pharynx.01 State the function of each organ of the gastrointestinal tract. 4 Learning Outcome: 08. 2 Learning Outcome: 08.06. and gallbladder during digestion.05 7 Section: 08. Remember 19 Bloom's Level: 2.02. and esophag 3 us. 3 Learning Outcome: 08.01.01 Describe the structure and function of the large intestine. Analyze 8 Bloom's Level: 5. 3 Learning Outcome: 08.03 Explain how carbohydrates. 4 Learning Outcome: 08.02 Identify the role of each class of nutrient in the human body.02 Explain the series of events involved in swallowing.03 12 Section: 08.04.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the mouth. 3 Learning Outcome: 08. 6 Learning Outcome: 08.03.02 11 Section: 08.04.03 Describe the structure of the gastrointestinal tract wall.02 List the accessory organs and provide a function for each.03. Evaluate 3 Learning Outcome: 08.06 12 Topic: Digestive System 62 .05.Chapter 08 Digestive System and Nutrition Summary Category # of Question s Bloom's Level: 1. Apply 10 Bloom's Level: 4. 2 Learning Outcome: 08.02 List the disorders of the large intestine and provide a cause for each. 9 Section: 08.01.02. and proteins are processed by the small intestine.06. 4 Learning Outcome: 08.03 Summarize how secretions of the accessory organs are regulated. Learning Outcome: 08. The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen leaves the body and carbon dioxide enters the body. True / False Questions 3. B. B. The air travels in the same direction in both. both inspiration and expiration. C. True 4. They both conduct air from the outside. True False Multiple Choice Questions .Chapter 09 Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 1. They both remove wastes from the tissues. They both end in the lungs. inspiration only. What do inspiration and expiration have in common? A. E. expiration only. D. 2. Ventilation includes A. They both use the same pathways. False Inhalation is another word for inspiration. C. lung C. diaphragm True / False Questions 8. glottis 7. bronchus B. Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system? A. Which part of the respiratory system carries out gas exchange? A.5. larynx E. esophagus D. nasal cavity 6. trachea B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Which part of the respiratory system is a skeletal muscle? A. bronchus E. lungs E. nasal cavity D. trachea D. diaphragm B. The respiratory is unlike the digestive system in that air comes in and out the same opening. larynx C. pharynx C. nasal cavity C. Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract? A. oxygen would not be exchanged in the alveoli. nasopharynx--where the nasal cavities open above B. B. Which part of the pharynx is mismatched with its location? A. epiglottis D. air would not be conducted to the lungs. A. laryngopharynx--where the pharynx opens into the larynx True / False Questions 11. food would go down the wrong pipe. If it were not for the nasal cavity. bronchi B. oropharynx--where the sinuses open C. The pharynx contains the vocal cords. glottis 10. we would not be able to speak. C.9. pharynx E. E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 12. . more debris would enter the lungs. D. Sound is produced when air rushes into the lungs. True False 14. A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 15. True False Multiple Choice Questions . When the glottis becomes narrower. The pharynx contains the tonsils that protect against invasion of inhaled foreign particles. B. The epiglottis is the slit between the vocal cords.True / False Questions 13. the pitch of sound goes up. the pitch of sound goes down. True / False Questions 16. lungs C. Where in the lower respiratory tract would you find goblet cells? A. bronchial tree B. The right lung is larger than the left lung. The trachea and upper bronchial tree are similar in that both are held open by cartilaginous rings. bronchi B.17. lungs True / False Questions 20. trachea C. trachea E. trachea 19. Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract? A. alveoli D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . bronchial tree C. Which part of the lower respiratory tract is intimately in contact with the cardiovascular system? A. larynx 18. lungs B. True False 21. one or more lobes of the lung D. The total cross sectional area of the alveoli is about the size of a textbook. What separates the lungs from the thoracic cavity? A. pleura B. pleura C. surfactant True / False Questions 24. What is missing in infant respiratory distress syndrome? A.22. cartilaginous rings D. bone E. oxygen B. bronchioles B. What diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood? A. alveoli C. alveoli E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 25. carbon dioxide C. skeletal muscle 23. water . because the intercostal muscles are involved E. C. because the alveoli have a very large surface area D. Which of the following is not a part of inspiration? A. because the lungs are surrounded by the thoracic wall C. True False 28. True False Multiple Choice Questions 29. D. because there is a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli B. Muscle contraction is required for expiration. because the diaphragm is involved . The rib cage moves up and out. The diaphragm contracts and moves down. E.26. B. Humans inhale by negative pressure. Why is the actual flow of air into the alveoli during inspiration passive? A. True / False Questions 27. Air rushes into the lungs. The intercostal muscles pull the ribs outward. The pressure in the lungs increases. B. inspiratory reserve volume. tidal volume. how much more air can you breath in than the tidal volume? A. vital capacity. D. three times C. C. maximum amount of air breathed in. C. five times E. two times B. maximum amount of air breathed in and the maximum amount of air breathed out. The vital capacity is equal to the A. The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the A. . 31. True False Multiple Choice Questions 33. B. residual volume. four times D. six times True / False Questions 32. Some of the inhaled air never reaches the lungs. If you force inspiration. maximum amount of air breathed out. expiratory reserve volume. E.30. in the brain B. hypoventilation. in the lungs D. in the bronchi C. You cannot increase the amount of air you exhale. B. in the diaphragm Yes / No Questions 37. hyperventilation. 36. normal. C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 35.True / False Questions 34. Can you hold your breath until you die? Yes No . in the aorta E. This would be considered A. Jesse is breathing at a rate of 15 ventilations per minute. Where is the respiratory control center located? A. the respiratory center A. via the blood pH C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . C. increases the rate and increases the depth of breathing. B. Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs. via the blood carbon dioxide level B. decreases the rate and decreases the depth of breathing.Multiple Choice Questions 38. increases the rate and decreases the depth of breathing. decreases the rate and increases the depth of breathing. How does the respiratory center control the diaphragm? A. True / False Questions 40. When the pH of the blood becomes more acidic. via the phrenic nerve E. via the intercostal nerves D. D. via the vagus nerve 39. blood pH. C. oxygen tissue levels. When you breathe into a paper bag after hyperventilating. Both involve oxygen diffusing into the body's tissues. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the lungs. Both involve oxygen diffusing into the lungs. you are decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. 42. oxygen blood levels. E. Carotid bodies and aortic bodies detect A. the residual volume. D. Both involve an exchange of gases. D. B. Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the body's tissues. E. How are internal and external respiration alike? A.41. stretching of the lungs. True / False Questions 43. C. Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the plasma as A. carbon dioxide. E. Which reaction does carbonic anhydrase catalyze? A. Which way does the reaction H+ + HCO3. True False Multiple Choice Questions . does not affect it 46. reduced hemoglobin. carbonic acid. pushes it to the left C. to the right B. to the left 47. D. How does breathing at a very low rate affect the reaction H+ + HCO3. bicarbonate ion.→ H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 ? A. pushes it to the right B. carbonic anhydrase. C. a gas.44. B.→ H2CO3 B. H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 True / False Questions 48. 45. Carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin are similar in that they are both enzymes involved in respiration. H+ + HCO3.→ H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 proceed in the lungs? A. "Strep throat" is caused by what type of infecting organism? A. protist True / False Questions 51. virus C. Which of the following infections does not affect a structure in the respiratory tract? A. One of the main symptoms of a sinus infection is hoarseness. strep throat C. otitis media E. True False 52. laryngitis B.49. bronchitis 50. bacteria B. fungus D. worm E. tonsilitis D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Hoarseness without an upper respiratory infection could be a warning sign of cancer. pulmonary tuberculosis C. emphysema C. Upon X-ray. What is the proper diagnosis for Josh's illness? A. pneumonia 55. tuberculosis B. it could be seen that Josh's lungs were filled with fluid. is more prevalent in women than in men. Lung cancer. emphysema D. pulmonary fibrosis E. just like breast cancer. pulmonary fibrosis 54.53. pneumonia C. Which of the following is not a lower respiratory infection? A. True False . The difference between a restrictive pulmonary disorder and an obstructive pulmonary disorder is that the in restrictive disorder the lungs have lost their elasticity and in an obstructive disorder air does not flow freely in the airways. Which of these lower respiratory diseases should be treated with antibiotics? A. True False 57. pulmonary fibrosis B. bronchitis B. asthma D. bronchitis D. asthma True / False Questions 56. There is a thickening and callusing of the cells lining the bronchi.1. Metastasis occurs. C. 5.2. A. The surface area for gas exchange is reduced.2.4 D.5. Even if you quit smoking. The elastic recoil of the lungs is reduced.1. The airways are inflamed and filled with mucus.4.3 C. 2. the damage to your lungs is already done and they will not return to normal. E. The heart works harder to force more blood through the lungs. 4.5. The alveoli are distended and their walls damaged.4. Cells with atypical nuclei appear.3. True False Multiple Choice Questions 60. .5 E. 2. 5. D. Which of the following is not a symptom of emphysema? A.3 True / False Questions 59. A tumor forms. 1.3.3.Multiple Choice Questions 58. 2.2.1. Cilia are lost.4. What is the correct order of the following steps in the progression of lung cancer in a smoker? 1.4. B. 3.5 B. 1. B. Ventilation is another term for breathing that includes both inspiration and expiration. C. The air travels in the same direction in both. They both remove wastes from the tissues. They both use the same pathways. D.01 Topic: Respiratory System 2. Ventilation includes A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.01. inspiration only. expiration only. B. C. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.Chapter 09 Respiratory System Key Multiple Choice Questions 1.01 Topic: Respiratory System . Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 1. just in opposite directions. Inspiration and expiration utilize the same pathway.01 Summarize the role of the respiratory system. both inspiration and expiration. What do inspiration and expiration have in common? A. Section: 09.02 Distinguish between inspiration and expiration. Section: 09. E.01. They both end in the lungs. They both conduct air from the outside. Section: 09.01 Summarize the role of the respiratory system. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System 4. TRUE Both inhalation and inspiration are terms to describe breathing in.True / False Questions 3.01.01 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions .01. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Inhalation is another word for inspiration.02 Distinguish between inspiration and expiration. The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen leaves the body and carbon dioxide enters the body. FALSE The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that carbon dioxide leaves the body and oxygen enters the body. diaphragm B. esophagus D. trachea D. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system? A.01 Topic: Respiratory System .03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. pharynx C. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09. glottis The diaphragm is a skeletal muscle that functions in ventilation. nasal cavity The esophagus is part of the digestive system. trachea B. Which part of the respiratory system is a skeletal muscle? A.01. Section: 09.01. larynx E. Section: 09.01 Topic: Respiratory System 6.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. Bloom's Level: 5. bronchus E.5. Bloom's Level: 2. lung C. air comes in and out of the nasal cavity. TRUE In the respiratory system. lungs E.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. nasal cavity D. Section: 09. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 4.7. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. food goes in the mouth and waste comes out the anus. The respiratory is unlike the digestive system in that air comes in and out the same opening. Which part of the respiratory system carries out gas exchange? A.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. larynx C.01 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 8.01 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions .01. Section: 09. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. diaphragm The lungs contain alveoli which carry out gas exchange.01. bronchus B. In the digestive system. 02.02 Identify the structures of the upper respiratory system and provide their function. Section: 09. Bloom's Level: 4.02 Topic: Respiratory System 10.9. pharynx E. bronchi B. Section: 09. epiglottis D.02 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 11. nasal cavity C. Which part of the pharynx is mismatched with its location? A. The pharynx contains the vocal cords. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. Remember .02. Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract? A.02 Identify the structures of the upper respiratory system and provide their function. Bloom's Level: 2. glottis The bronchi are part of the lower respiratory tract. contains the vocal cords. oropharynx--where the sinuses open C. FALSE The larynx. Bloom's Level: 1. or voice box. laryngopharynx--where the pharynx opens into the larynx The oropharynx is where the oral cavity opens. nasopharynx--where the nasal cavities open above B. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Learning Outcome: 09. air would not be conducted to the lungs.02 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 12. and larynx in respiration. TRUE The tonsils form a protective ring at the junction of the oral cavity and the pharynx. food would go down the wrong pipe. we would not be able to speak.02. pharynx. oxygen would not be exchanged in the alveoli. One of the functions of the nasal cavity is to filter the air and trap small particles so they don't enter the air passages.02. more debris would enter the lungs.01 Summarize the role of the nose. B. D.01 Summarize the role of the nose.02 Topic: Respiratory System . pharynx. C. E.02. and larynx in respiration.02 Identify the structures of the upper respiratory system and provide their function.02 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 13. Section: 09. A. The pharynx contains the tonsils that protect against invasion of inhaled foreign particles. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 1. If it were not for the nasal cavity. Remember Learning Outcome: 09. Section: 09. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. Section: 09. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 16.02.03 Explain how sound is produced by the larynx. Section: 09. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Explain how sound is produced by the larynx. the pitch of sound goes up. Sound is produced when air rushes into the lungs. the higher the pitch. as when the glottis becomes narrower. The epiglottis is the slit between the vocal cords.02. Bloom's Level: 2. the pitch of sound goes down.14. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 09.02 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 15. When the glottis becomes narrower. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. .02.03 Explain how sound is produced by the larynx. Remember Learning Outcome: 09. The greater the tension. FALSE The glottis is the slit between the vocal cords. A. FALSE Sound is produced when air is expelled from the lungs. B. 02 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 17. and lungs in respiration. Section: 09. bronchial tree C. alveoli D. lungs B. Which part of the lower respiratory tract is intimately in contact with the cardiovascular system? A.03 Topic: Respiratory System 18.01 Summarize the role of the trachea. and lungs in respiration. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract? A.03 Topic: Respiratory System . larynx The larynx is part of the upper respiratory tract.01 Summarize the role of the trachea. trachea The lungs contain the alveoli where gas exchange occurs between the cardiovascular system and the respiratory system. Bloom's Level: 4. bronchi B.03. bronchial tree. Section: 09.Section: 09. bronchial tree. trachea E. Bloom's Level: 2. lungs C.03. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. Section: 09. The trachea and upper bronchial tree are similar in that both are held open by cartilaginous rings.03 Topic: Respiratory System . Bloom's Level: 2. trachea C. Bloom's Level: 4. and the left lung has two lobes.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function. TRUE The right lung has three lobes. The right lung is larger than the left lung. Where in the lower respiratory tract would you find goblet cells? A. bronchial tree B. Section: 09. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 4.03. lungs The goblet cells line the trachea and produce mucus.03.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function.03.19.03 Topic: Respiratory System 21.03 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 20. Section: 09. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. TRUE The upper bronchial tree and the trachea are both held open by cartilaginous rings.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function. allowing room for the heart. one or more lobes of the lung D.03 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 2. pleura B.. pleura C. skeletal muscle Each lung is enclosed by a serous membrane called a pleura (pl. pleurae). Understand Learning Outcome: 09. bronchioles B.03. Bloom's Level: 2. cartilaginous rings D.03 Topic: Respiratory System 23. What separates the lungs from the thoracic cavity? A. alveoli E.03. What is missing in infant respiratory distress syndrome? A.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function. surfactant The surfactant that prevents the alveoli from closing is missing in infant respiratory distress syndrome. bone E. alveoli C.03 Explain how the alveoli increase the efficiency of the respiratory system. Section: 09. Section: 09.Multiple Choice Questions 22. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. 24. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03 Topic: Respiratory System 26.03 Explain how the alveoli increase the efficiency of the respiratory system. Bloom's Level: 1. The intercostal muscles pull the ribs outward. Which of the following is not a part of inspiration? A. FALSE The total cross sectional area of the alveoli is about the size of a tennis court. oxygen B. The diaphragm contracts and moves down. Air rushes into the lungs. E. Bloom's Level: 1. The pressure in the lungs increases. carbon dioxide C. the pressure in the lungs decreases. What diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood? A. Section: 09.03. The total cross sectional area of the alveoli is about the size of a textbook. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.03.03 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 25. Bloom's Level: 2. During inspiration. C. Understand .03 Explain how the alveoli increase the efficiency of the respiratory system. water Oxygen flows from the air in the alveoli into the bloodstream. The rib cage moves up and out. B. Section: 09. D. 01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation.04.Learning Outcome: 09.04. Section: 09. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 2.04 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 27. Muscle contraction is required for expiration. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.04 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions . TRUE The creation of a partial vacuum in the alveoli causes air to enter the lungs. Section: 09. Section: 09. FALSE Expiration is the passive part of ventilation when the muscles relax. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation.04. Humans inhale by negative pressure.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation.04 Topic: Respiratory System 28. because the alveoli have a very large surface area D. vital capacity. The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the A. Section: 09. because there is a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli B. tidal volume. Why is the actual flow of air into the alveoli during inspiration passive? A. D. because the intercostal muscles are involved E.04 Topic: Respiratory System 30. C. the air flows in because there is a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli. Bloom's Level: 1. The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is the tidal volume. because the lungs are surrounded by the thoracic wall C. expiratory reserve volume. vital capacity.04.02 Define the terms tidal volume. E.29. Section: 09. and residul volume in relation to ventilation. inspiratory reserve volume. B.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation. Bloom's Level: 5. because the diaphragm is involved Even though the creation of the negative pressure is active. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09. residual volume.04.04 Topic: Respiratory System . Remember Learning Outcome: 09. bronchi.31. two times B. how much more air can you breath in than the tidal volume? A.03 Summarize the purpose of the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes. three times C. six times The tidal volume is 500 ml. four times D. five times E.04. and residul volume in relation to ventilation.04 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions .04. vital capacity. TRUE This air fills the trachea. If you force inspiration. Section: 09. whereas the forced inspiration volume adds approximately another 3000 ml to that. Remember Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 5. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 09. and bronchioles which are considered dead air space.02 Define the terms tidal volume.04 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 32. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09. Some of the inhaled air never reaches the lungs. The vital capacity is equal to the maximum amount that can be moved in plus the maximum amount that can be moved out during a single breath.04. maximum amount of air breathed in and the maximum amount of air breathed out. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 1.04 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 34. and residul volume in relation to ventilation. Section: 09. Remember Learning Outcome: 09. FALSE You can increase expiration by contracting the abdominal and thoracic muscles. Section: 09.04.02 Define the terms tidal volume. Bloom's Level: 2. The vital capacity is equal to the A.03 Summarize the purpose of the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes.33. vital capacity. C. maximum amount of air breathed out. B. You cannot increase the amount of air you exhale.04 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions . maximum amount of air breathed in. and then your brain will take over respirations. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. hyperventilation. Jesse is breathing at a rate of 15 ventilations per minute.35. Apply .05.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 2. Where is the respiratory control center located? A. Bloom's Level: 4.05 Topic: Respiratory System 36. in the brain B. C.05 Topic: Respiratory System Yes / No Questions 37. in the lungs D.05. You can hold your breath until you pass out. in the aorta E. hypoventilation. B. normal. Section: 09. Bloom's Level: 3. in the bronchi C. Normally adults have a breathing rate of 12-20 ventilations per minute. Can you hold your breath until you die? NO No. in the diaphragm The respiratory control center is located in the medulla oblongata of the brain. so this would be considered normal. Section: 09. This would be considered A. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. via the vagus nerve The respiratory center communicates with the diaphragm via the phrenic nerve. increases the rate and increases the depth of breathing. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 38. Section: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System 39.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing.05. increases the rate and decreases the depth of breathing.02 Explain the role of chemoreceptors and pH levels in regulating breathing rate. B. the respiratory center A. via the blood pH C.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing.Learning Outcome: 09. The respiratory center increases both the rate and depth of breathing to remove more carbon dioxide from the blood. Bloom's Level: 2.05. Section: 09. decreases the rate and increases the depth of breathing. How does the respiratory center control the diaphragm? A. via the blood carbon dioxide level B.05 Topic: Respiratory System .05. decreases the rate and decreases the depth of breathing. D. via the intercostal nerves D. When the pH of the blood becomes more acidic. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 2. via the phrenic nerve E. C. Carotid bodies and aortic bodies are chemoreceptors that are sensitive to blood pH. the residual volume.02 Explain the role of chemoreceptors and pH levels in regulating breathing rate. Carotid bodies and aortic bodies detect A. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Explain the role of chemoreceptors and pH levels in regulating breathing rate. Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs. FALSE Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem. D. B. Bloom's Level: 2.05 Topic: Respiratory System .True / False Questions 40. Section: 09. Section: 09.05. oxygen tissue levels.05. C. E. blood pH. stretching of the lungs. oxygen blood levels. Understand Learning Outcome: 09.05 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 41. in the carotid arteries. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. and in the aorta. Analyze Section: 09.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration. Both involve oxygen diffusing into the body's tissues. carbon dioxide diffuses into the lungs and oxygen into the blood. carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood and oxygen into the tissue. and in internal respiration. Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the body's tissues. How are internal and external respiration alike? A. you are decreasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. Apply Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 3. Bloom's Level: 4. TRUE You are increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood and therefore restoring a normal blood pH. Both involve oxygen diffusing into the lungs.06. In external respiration.06 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 43. Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions . When you breathe into a paper bag after hyperventilating. E. C. Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the lungs.42. Both involve an exchange of gases. D. Both involve an exchange of gases. B. Section: 09. carbon dioxide.06 Topic: Respiratory System . a gas. pushes it to the left C. the reaction goes to the right and releases carbon dioxide into the lungs. Bloom's Level: 3. reduced hemoglobin. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. carbonic acid.06 Topic: Respiratory System 46. E.→ H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 proceed in the lungs? A. Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the plasma as A.44.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration. to the right B. does not affect it This pushes the reaction to the left and increases the pH of the blood.06. pushes it to the right B. bicarbonate ion. Section: 09.→ H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 ? A. B. Carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate ions. to the left In the lungs. carbonic anhydrase.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration.06. C. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2.06 Topic: Respiratory System 45. Which way does the reaction H+ + HCO3. D. Section: 09.06. Apply Learning Outcome: 09. How does breathing at a very low rate affect the reaction H+ + HCO3.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration. H+ + HCO3. Section: 09.06 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions . Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 09. Bloom's Level: 4. Carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin are similar in that they are both enzymes involved in respiration.→ H2CO3 B.06.06 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 48. Remember Learning Outcome: 09. H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the breakdown of carbonic acid to water and carbon dioxide. Which reaction does carbonic anhydrase catalyze? A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.03 Identify the role of carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin in respiration.47.06. FALSE Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme involved in respiration. but carbaminohemoglobin is hemoblogin bound to carbon dioxide.03 Identify the role of carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin in respiration. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 09. otitis media E.49. bacteria B. "Strep throat" is caused by what type of infecting organism? A. fungus D.07 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions . worm E. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. strep throat C.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections. laryngitis B. virus C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. Section: 09.07.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections.07. bronchitis Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear.07 Topic: Respiratory System 50. tonsilitis D. It is included in respiratory infections because it is often a complication seen in children with nasal infections. Which of the following infections does not affect a structure in the respiratory tract? A. Bloom's Level: 4. protist "Strep throat" is caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 09. pulmonary fibrosis Pulmonary fibrosis is a restrictive pulmonary disorder. pneumonia C. Hoarseness without an upper respiratory infection could be a warning sign of cancer.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections.07 Topic: Respiratory System 52. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09. One of the main symptoms of a sinus infection is hoarseness. bronchitis D. Remember Learning Outcome: 09. not sinusitis.07. Section: 09. but it is not an infection.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections. Section: 09.07. FALSE Hoarseness is a symptom of laryngitis.51.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders. tuberculosis B.07 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 53.07. Bloom's Level: 5. Which of the following is not a lower respiratory infection? A. TRUE This is one of the warning signs of cancer and should be looked into by a physician. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System . Bloom's Level: 1. Symptoms of sinusitis include postnasal discharge and facial pain. it could be seen that Josh's lungs were filled with fluid. emphysema D. pneumonia Pneumonia occurs when alveoli fill with pus and fluid making gas exchange difficult. Which of these lower respiratory diseases should be treated with antibiotics? A. pulmonary fibrosis E. Section: 09. emphysema C. Upon X-ray.07. Section: 09.07. asthma Pulmonary tuberculosis is caused by a bacterial infection and should be treated with antibiotics. Apply Learning Outcome: 09. Bloom's Level: 5. What is the proper diagnosis for Josh's illness? A. pulmonary fibrosis B. pulmonary tuberculosis C.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders.07 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions .02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders.07 Topic: Respiratory System 55.54. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 09. bronchitis B. Bloom's Level: 3. asthma D. Remember Learning Outcome: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System 57.56. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. The difference between a restrictive pulmonary disorder and an obstructive pulmonary disorder is that the in restrictive disorder the lungs have lost their elasticity and in an obstructive disorder air does not flow freely in the airways. TRUE Restrictive disorders include pulmonary fibrosis while obstructive disorders include asthma and chronic bronchitis.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders.07.07 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions . is more prevalent in women than in men. FALSE Lung cancer is more prevalent in men.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking. Bloom's Level: 1. Lung cancer. Section: 09. Section: 09.07. just like breast cancer. and emphysema. cancer. Bloom's Level: 4. 2. 4. Cells with atypical nuclei appear. and the formation of a tumor. and emphysema. This is followed by the loss of cilia.1. Remember Learning Outcome: 09. 5.4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09.2.58.3. A tumor forms. 2.1. Finally. 1.5.3 The first even appears to be thickening and callusing of the cells lining the bronchi.3.07. cells with atypical nuclei.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking. 1.1. Even if you quit smoking. Section: 09. metastasis occurs.4 D. Section: 09. A. Cilia are lost. What is the correct order of the following steps in the progression of lung cancer in a smoker? 1. 3. FALSE If the body tissues are not already cancerous. 5. cancer. Bloom's Level: 4.5 E. the damage to your lungs is already done and they will not return to normal.4.4. cancer.07 Topic: Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions .4.3 C. Metastasis occurs.3.5 B.2.2.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking. Bloom's Level: 1.07 Topic: Respiratory System True / False Questions 59. and emphysema. 2. the lungs may return to normal over time. There is a thickening and callusing of the cells lining the bronchi.07.5. 60. Analyze Learning Outcome: 09. The elastic recoil of the lungs is reduced. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 09.07 Topic: Respiratory System . D. Which of the following is not a symptom of emphysema? A.07. and emphysema. B. The surface area for gas exchange is reduced. In chronic bronchitis. The alveoli are distended and their walls damaged. cancer. The airways are inflamed and filled with mucus. E. The heart works harder to force more blood through the lungs. C. the airways are inflamed and filled with mucus.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking. 05 7 Section: 09. 3 Learning Outcome: 09.02 8 Section: 09. Evaluate 5 Learning Outcome: 09.03 Summarize the purpose of the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes.01.04.07.04. 4 Learning Outcome: 09.01.Chapter 09 Respiratory System Summary Category # of Questions Bloom's Level: 1. 3 Learning Outcome: 09.02.02.03 Summarize the relationship between smoking.06. 2 Learning Outcome: 09. and larynx in respiration.02 Identify the structures of the lower respiratory system and provide their function.02 Explain the role of chemoreceptors and pH levels in regulating breathing rate.02 Identify the structures of the upper respiratory system and provide their function.01 Summarize the role of the respiratory system.06 7 Section: 09.04 9 Section: 09.01 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected upper respiratory tract infections.03.05.01 Summarize the role of the trachea. 4 Learning Outcome: 09.01 Summarize the role of the nose. Analyze 14 Bloom's Level: 5.03 Identify the structures of the human respiratory system. 4 Section: 09. and residul volume in relation to ventilation.01 8 Section: 09. Apply 4 Bloom's Level: 4. Remember 14 Bloom's Level: 2. 4 Learning Outcome: 09. 2 Learning Outcome: 09. 4 Learning Outcome: 09. 3 Learning Outcome: 09.04.02 Summarize the chemical processes that are involved in external and internal respiration.01 Contrast the processes of inspiration and expiration during ventilation. 4 Learning Outcome: 09.02. cancer. 3 Learning Outcome: 09.02 Distinguish between inspiration and expiration.03 Explain how sound is produced by the larynx. and emphysema. 2 Learning Outcome: 09. bronchial tree.03 Identify the role of carbonic anhydrase and carbaminohemoglobin in respiration. pharynx.05.01 Explain how the nervous system controls the process of breathing. and lungs in respiration.07.02 Identify the symptoms and causes of selected lower respiratory tract disorders.07 12 Topic: Respiratory System 60 .03 Explain how the alveoli increase the efficiency of the respiratory system. Understand 23 Bloom's Level: 3. 4 Learning Outcome: 09.06. 4 Learning Outcome: 09.03.03 9 Section: 09. 3 Learning Outcome: 09.03. 2 Learning Outcome: 09. 2 Learning Outcome: 09.07. vital capacity.02 Define the terms tidal volume. 2 Learning Outcome: 09.01. Both are carried out by the digestive system. C. Both involve the kidneys. True False Multiple Choice Questions 3. E. excretion of metabolic wastes B. D. Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system? A. Both eliminate waste from the body. maintenance of water-salt balance C. The kidneys excrete metabolic wastes. True / False Questions 2. Both are carried out by the urinary system. Both involve the colon. including urea. maintenance of acid-base balance D. B.Chapter 10 Urinary System and Excretion Multiple Choice Questions 1. maintenance of blood glucose levels E. a by-product of glucose metabolism. How are excretion and defecation alike? A. secretion of hormones . Why does urine have an acidic pH? A. C. erythropoietin C. creatinine E.True / False Questions 4. The kidneys convert vitamin D and thereby assist calcium homeostasis. The blood has an acidic pH and the kidneys produce urine similar to the pH of the blood. True False Multiple Choice Questions 5. B. True False . The kidneys help to maintain blood pressure by monitoring the pH of the blood. 6. urea B. Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product? A. The kidneys filter and excrete H+ from the blood. uric acid True / False Questions 7. The kidneys produce H+ in the process of filtering the blood. ammonia D. cartilage. fibrous connective tissue. one composed of smooth muscle and one composed of skeletal muscle. mucous membrane and fibrous connective tissue C. kidney C. five True / False Questions 11. one B. four E. ureter 9. two C. three D. skeletal muscle. smooth muscle. True False .Multiple Choice Questions 8. How many openings are there from the urinary bladder? A. fibrous connective tissue. bladder B. and fibrous connective tissue D. mucous membrane. Which of the following organs of the urinary system is not present in duplicate? A. skeletal muscle and mucous membrane B. and mucous membrane 10. The urethra is controlled by two sphincters. What are the walls of a ureter composed of? A. and cartilage E. Which of the following is not a region of the kidney? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 13. medulla D. renal cortex to the renal medulla B. pelvis 15. The collecting duct of the nephron originates in what region of the kidney and extends to what region of the kidney? A. ureters C.12. renal medulla to the renal cortex D. hypothalamus B. kidneys D. renal medulla to the renal pelvis E. cortex C. renal cortex to the renal pelvis C. Which part of the urinary system is shared with the reproductive system in males? A. The urethra in females is much longer than in males. bladder B. renal pelvis to the renal medulla True / False Questions . urethra 14. loop of Henle D. ureter True / False Questions 19. 18. glomerular capsule B. collecting duct E. True False Multiple Choice Questions . bladder. The renal pyramids are located within the renal pelvis. proximal convoluted tubule C. D. The renal pelvis is continuous with the A. Which of the following is not part of a nephron? A. C. renal cortex. urethra. Each nephron has its own collecting duct. True False Multiple Choice Questions 17.16. B. ureter. 2.3.2. 1. proximal convoluted tubule. Place the parts of the nephron in order.3. 6. 6. several collecting ducts D. ascending limb of loop.4. 2. glomerulus.6.4.1.5.2. 3. True False Multiple Choice Questions 22. collecting duct. 1.4.5 E. 4.6.5 . 2. distal convoluted tubule A.5 B.1.2.6. 4. What is located within the glomerular capsule? A.3.20. the renal cortex B. a knot of capillaries E. 5. A nephron is a two-way system with glomerular filtrate traveling back and forth within the nephron. descending limb of loop. the peritubular capillary network True / False Questions 21.3.4. 1.3.5 D.1.6 C. the loop of Henle C. descending limb of loop E. active transport D. Which part of the nephron contains podocytes? A. diffusion down the concentration gradient B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 25. Why do water and small molecules move from the glomerulus into the filtrate? A. proximal convoluted tubule C. salts E. glomerular capsule True / False Questions 24. nitrogenous wastes D. water C.23. nutrients 26. Parts of the nephron are lined with epithelial cells containing large numbers of mitochondria to assist in diffusion. glomerular blood pressure C. Which of the following does not filter out of the blood in the glomerulus? A. plasma proteins B. ascending limb of loop D. distal convoluted tubule B. secretion . glomerular filtration A. List the three processes involved in the formation of urine in order. 1.1. plasma proteins 30. 1.1 C. tubular reabsorption. 3. What are the two ways substances are removed from the blood and added to the forming urine? A. 2.2 D. 2. 3.2.2.True / False Questions 27.3. 1. Which molecule is secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the convoluted tubules? A.3 B. water B. salt C.1 E.3 29. H+ D. tubular secretion. Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the afferent arteriole. tubular secretion and tubular reabsorption .3. nutrients E. 2. glomerular filtration and tubular secretion B. glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 28. water C. Which molecule is reabsorbed less than 50% during tubular reabsorption? A. The carriers for glucose reabsorption reach their maximum rate of transport. It is secreted at the distal convoluted tubule.31. Approximately 99% of the water that is filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed. The volume of urine is too great to filter. C. While glucose is filtered out at the glomerulus. none is excreted in the urine. It is reabsorbed from the collecting duct. sodium D. Why does glucose appear in the urine of a diabetic? A. It is secreted at the proximal convoluted tubule. It is reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubule. E. B. True / False Questions 32. glucose E. C. D. 34. amino acids . B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 33. No glucose is filtered into the glomerular filtrate. D. What happens to the glucose? A. The kidneys produce glucose in diabetes. It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle secretes glucose into the urine. urea B. E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 36. glomerular filtration B. then the kidneys are like A.True / False Questions 35. the trucks that take the waste out of town. C. pancreas . How is penicillin removed from the blood? A. B. Tubular reabsorption requires both passive and active modes of reabsorption. sweat glands C. Which of the following does not assist the kidneys in excretion of nitrogenous wastes? A. trash cans where the waste is stored. In the analogy where the liver is like the sewage treatment plant. the trucks that carry the waste from the people who produce it to the treatment plant. 38. blood E. liver B. tubular reabsorption 37. D. muscles D. tubular secretion C. the people who produce the waste. renin and aquaporin C. renin C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 41. ADH D. creatinine and renin B. aldosterone and renin E. aquaporin and aldosterone D. creatinine and aldosterone 42. True False 40. Which of the hormones involved in the regulation of water-salt balance is produced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus? A. ANH . The reabsorption of water in the kidneys always precedes the reabsorption of salt.True / False Questions 39. aldosterone B. The kidneys interact with every other organ system of the human body in maintaining homeostasis. What hormones regulate the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal convoluted tubule? A. what hormone will correct this? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 46. If you do not drink enough water.43. it inhibits its production C. it promotes its production True / False Questions 45. ANH D. ADH C. What effect does ANH have on renin? A. which hormone will the hypothalamus produce to regulate urine production? A. it promotes its secretion D. ADH C. aldosterone 44. ANH D. renin B. renin B. aldosterone . If your blood pressure is high because of increased blood volume. it inhibits its secretion B. ANH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary. . Why is the urine yellow? A. 48. It increases the flow of urine and causes you to go to the bathroom during the night. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 50. A. Why do some people not drink caffeinated beverages right before bedtime? A. it is best to drink water to restore what was lost due to heavy sweating. The inner medulla of the kidney is ____________ to the loop of Henle and therefore water leaves the loop at the descending limb and collecting duct. Creatinine is yellow. C. E. It decreases the flow of urine and can cause kidney stones.47. C. B. D. A breakdown product of hemoglobin is yellow. Uric acid is yellow. Urea is yellow. hypotonic True / False Questions 49. hypertonic C. Renin is yellow. isotonic B. After running a marathon. It may affect the ability to sleep but caffeine has very little effect on the urinary system. C. uremia . urethritis C. What effect does cellular respiration have on the pH of the blood? A. slightly basic C. slightly acidic 52. hemodialysis E.51. The kidneys are much more powerful than the acid-base buffer and the respiratory center mechanisms are in controlling blood pH. What is the normal pH of blood? A. It lowers the pH. neutral B. cystitis B. It does not affect the pH. B. pyelonephritis D. What is an infection of the urinary bladder called? A. True / False Questions 53. It raises the pH. True False Multiple Choice Questions 54. In CAPD. the peritoneum E. edema True / False Questions 56. burning upon urination B. albumin or formed elements in the urine D. the absence of urination E. True False 57. True False Multiple Choice Questions 58. the kidneys themselves D. a filter inside the instrument C. extreme pain C. what serves as the dialysis membrane? A.55. What is one of the earliest signs of nephron damage? A. Females are more likely than males to get urinary tract infections due to the short length of the urethra and the proximity of the anal opening. the pleural membrane . An enlarged prostate gland can lead to kidney stones in males. the walls of the blood vessels B. because it is lost by urination True / False Questions 60. because it enters the body and is absorbed D. because it is easily infected C. to maintain a favorable concentration gradient with the blood B. Why is the dialysate continually replaced in hemodialysis? A. True False . The success rate for a kidney transplant from even a relative is fairly low.59. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system.01 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 2.01.01 Topic: Urinary System . Both are carried out by the digestive system. Excretion removes metabolic waste from the body while defecation removes undigested food and bacteria from the body. FALSE Urea is a by-product of amino acid metabolism.01. D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.Chapter 10 Urinary System and Excretion Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. Both eliminate waste from the body. a by-product of glucose metabolism. Both are carried out by the urinary system. Section: 10. B. Both involve the kidneys. including urea. Bloom's Level: 4. The kidneys excrete metabolic wastes. Section: 10. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Both involve the colon. C. How are excretion and defecation alike? A. E. 01 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions . The kidneys convert vitamin D and thereby assist calcium homeostasis.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Section: 10. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. Section: 10. excretion of metabolic wastes B. TRUE This is another function of the kidneys.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system.01. maintenance of blood glucose levels E. maintenance of acid-base balance D. secretion of hormones The urinary system does not maintain blood glucose levels.01.01 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 4. Bloom's Level: 2. maintenance of water-salt balance C. Bloom's Level: 1. Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system? A. Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption from the digestive tract. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.Multiple Choice Questions 3. 01 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 7.4. The kidneys remove and excrete excess H+ from the blood in order to maintain a blood pH of 7. The kidneys produce H+ in the process of filtering the blood.01. Section: 10. uric acid Erythropoietin is a hormone secreted by the kidneys. C. The kidneys help to maintain blood pressure by monitoring the pH of the blood.01 Topic: Urinary System 6. Bloom's Level: 2.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. The kidneys filter and excrete H+ from the blood. Remember . urea B.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. FALSE The kidneys help to maintain blood pressure by monitoring the water-salt balance of the blood. Bloom's Level: 1. Why does urine have an acidic pH? A. Section: 10.5. creatinine E. Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product? A.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. erythropoietin C. ammonia D. B. The blood has an acidic pH and the kidneys produce urine similar to the pH of the blood. Bloom's Level: 2. 01 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 8. Bloom's Level: 2. and fibrous connective tissue D. skeletal muscle.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function.01. Section: 10. Bloom's Level: 4. skeletal muscle and mucous membrane B. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. fibrous connective tissue. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10. a smooth muscle layer. Section: 10. and cartilage E. Which of the following organs of the urinary system is not present in duplicate? A.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. cartilage.01 Topic: Urinary System . kidney C. smooth muscle.01. mucous membrane. bladder B. and a fibrous connective tissue.01. fibrous connective tissue. and mucous membrane The three layers of the wall of a ureter are a mucous membrane.Learning Outcome: 10.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function. What are the walls of a ureter composed of? A. mucous membrane and fibrous connective tissue C. but only one bladder. ureter There are two kidneys and two ureters. Section: 10.01 Topic: Urinary System 9. one composed of smooth muscle and one composed of skeletal muscle.01 Topic: Urinary System 12. Bloom's Level: 1. two C. one B. Section: 10. four E.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function. How many openings are there from the urinary bladder? A. . The urethra in females is much longer than in males. five There are three openings of the urinary bladder--one for the urethra and two for the ureters.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function. Bloom's Level: 2. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. while in females it measures 4 cm long. FALSE The urethra in males averages 20 cm long. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.01.01. three D. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. TRUE The smooth muscle sphincter is involuntarily controlled while the skeletal muscle one can be voluntarily controlled. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 11. The urethra is controlled by two sphincters.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function.01.10. Section: 10. Bloom's Level: 1. ureters C. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. Which of the following is not a region of the kidney? A. Bloom's Level: 4. urethra The urethra conducts urine for the urinary system and semen for the reproductive system in males. Section: 10. bladder B. hypothalamus B. kidneys D. medulla D.02 Topic: Urinary System .01 Topic: Urinary System 14.02.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function.01 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 13.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. Section: 10. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10. pelvis The hypothalamus is a region of the brain.Section: 10.01. Which part of the urinary system is shared with the reproductive system in males? A. cortex C. 02. renal cortex to the renal medulla B.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. The renal pyramids are located within the renal pelvis. Section: 10. renal pelvis to the renal medulla The collecting duct originates in the renal cortex and extends to the renal pelvis. renal cortex to the renal pelvis C.02 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions . renal medulla to the renal pelvis E.02. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. Bloom's Level: 4. FALSE The renal pyramids are located within the renal medulla. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.02 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 16.15. Section: 10. renal medulla to the renal cortex D. The collecting duct of the nephron originates in what region of the kidney and extends to what region of the kidney? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. renal cortex.02. loop of Henle D. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. urethra. Section: 10. B.17. Which of the following is not part of a nephron? A. bladder. glomerular capsule B.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. collecting duct E.02. The renal pelvis is continuous with the A.02 Topic: Urinary System 18. ureter The collecting duct empties into the ureter. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions . C. ureter. D. The renal pelvis is a central space that is continuous with the ureter. Section: 10. but the ureter is not part of a nephron. proximal convoluted tubule C. 02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. the peritubular capillary network The glomerulus. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. FALSE Several nephrons enter the same collecting duct. Section: 10.02. What is located within the glomerular capsule? A.02 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions . Section: 10. Each nephron has its own collecting duct.02. is located inside the glomerular capsule. a knot of capillaries E.02 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 20. a knot of capillaries. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. Bloom's Level: 1. the renal cortex B. Bloom's Level: 1.19. the loop of Henle C. several collecting ducts D. 5 Filtrate moves from the glomerulus to the proximal convoluted tubule.2.3.5. 1. and finally to the collecting duct.4. 4. 5. 6.3.1.2.3.02 Topic: Urinary System .2. FALSE The nephron is a one way system. 1. 2. through the descending limb and then the ascending limb.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. collecting duct. descending limb of loop.4.6. 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10.6 C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10. A nephron is a two-way system with glomerular filtrate traveling back and forth within the nephron.3. 2. ascending limb of loop.6.5 D.4. Section: 10. glomerulus. Bloom's Level: 4.02 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 22.5 E.5 B.2. Filtrate moves from the glomerular capsule through the proximal convuluted tubule to the loop of Henle to the collecting duct. distal convoluted tubule A. Place the parts of the nephron in order. 6.02. proximal convoluted tubule.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each.1. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 10. 3.21.02.3.6.4.1. 1. proximal convoluted tubule C.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each.02. FALSE Diffusion is a passive process and does not require energy. Section: 10. Bloom's Level: 5.02 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 24. ascending limb of loop D. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10.23. glomerular capsule The podocytes cling to the capillary walls of the glomerulus within the glomerular capsule. descending limb of loop E. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02.02 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions .02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each. Parts of the nephron are lined with epithelial cells containing large numbers of mitochondria to assist in diffusion. Which part of the nephron contains podocytes? A. Section: 10. The mitochondria assist in active transport. distal convoluted tubule B. Which of the following does not filter out of the blood in the glomerulus? A.02 List the components of the glomerular filtrate. Section: 10.25.03 Topic: Urinary System 26. glomerular blood pressure C. water C. water and small molecules move from the glomerulus to the inside of the glomerular capsule as part of the filtrate.03. active transport D. Section: 10. diffusion down the concentration gradient B. secretion Due to glomerular blood pressure. Bloom's Level: 1. plasma proteins B. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. salts E. nutrients Plasma proteins do not move from the glomerulus into the filtrate.02 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions . nitrogenous wastes D. Why do water and small molecules move from the glomerulus into the filtrate? A. Bloom's Level: 1.03. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.02 List the components of the glomerular filtrate. 3 Glomerular filtration is followed by tubular reabsorption and then tubular secretion. 1.03. Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the afferent arteriole.02 List the components of the glomerular filtrate.2 D. List the three processes involved in the formation of urine in order. FALSE Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through the efferent arteriole. glomerular filtration A. 1.3. 3.1 E. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.2. 1.03.03 Topic: Urinary System .1 C. tubular secretion. 2. 2. Section: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 28. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. Bloom's Level: 2. tubular reabsorption.3 B. 2. Section: 10. 3.01 Summarize the three processes involved in the formation of urine.1.27.3.2. 03 Topic: Urinary System 31. tubular secretion and tubular reabsorption Substances are removed from the blood during glomerular filtration and tubular secretion. H+ D. It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule. plasma proteins H+ is actively secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the convoluted tubules. Nutrients such as glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule. It is reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubule. glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption C.03. Understand .04 Explain the substances that are removed from the blood by tubular secretion.03. It is reabsorbed from the collecting duct. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10. Bloom's Level: 5. While glucose is filtered out at the glomerulus. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. salt C. none is excreted in the urine. Bloom's Level: 1.29.03 Topic: Urinary System 30. What are the two ways substances are removed from the blood and added to the forming urine? A. B. glomerular filtration and tubular secretion B. Section: 10. Section: 10. E. Bloom's Level: 2. nutrients E. Which molecule is secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the convoluted tubules? A.01 Summarize the three processes involved in the formation of urine. It is secreted at the proximal convoluted tubule. water B. It is secreted at the distal convoluted tubule. D. What happens to the glucose? A. C. D. The carriers for glucose reabsorption reach their maximum rate of transport. The volume of urine is too great to filter. excess glucose remains in the urine. E. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 10. Section: 10.03. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle secretes glucose into the urine. The kidneys produce glucose in diabetes.03 Topic: Urinary System .Learning Outcome: 10.03 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 32.03. TRUE Approximately 180 liters of water are filtered per day and only 1. No glucose is filtered into the glomerular filtrate. Section: 10. Because the level of glucose is so high in the blood and the carriers for glucose reabsorption reach their maximum rate of transport.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules.03 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 33.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. C. B. Why does glucose appear in the urine of a diabetic? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.8 liters are excreted. Approximately 99% of the water that is filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.03. Section: 10. Section: 10. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. glucose E. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. Bloom's Level: 1. amino acids Urea is only approximately 44% reabsorbed. water C.03 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions .03.are passively reabsorbed. sodium D.03 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 35. urea B.34.03. Which molecule is reabsorbed less than 50% during tubular reabsorption? A.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. Tubular reabsorption requires both passive and active modes of reabsorption. Bloom's Level: 2. TRUE Molecules like glucose and Na+ are actively absorbed whereas other molecules like Cl.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. 03 Topic: Urinary System 37. then the kidneys are like A. Sometimes urea can be excreted by the sweat glands in perspiration.04. Which of the following does not assist the kidneys in excretion of nitrogenous wastes? A.04 Explain the substances that are removed from the blood by tubular secretion. tubular reabsorption Penicillin is actively transported from blood into the kidney tubule. sweat glands C. the trucks that carry the waste from the people who produce it to the treatment plant. D. pancreas The liver produces urea and muscles make creatinine.04 Topic: Urinary System 38. Bloom's Level: 5. The blood carries these to the kidneys where they are eliminated. blood E. Section: 10. tubular secretion C. The kidneys take the already prepared waste away from the body.36. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10. glomerular filtration B. liver B. C. Evaluate . the trucks that take the waste out of town. How is penicillin removed from the blood? A. Bloom's Level: 5. muscles D. Bloom's Level: 2. trash cans where the waste is stored. B. Section: 10.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body.03. the people who produce the waste. In the analogy where the liver is like the sewage treatment plant. FALSE The reabsorption of salt in the kidneys always precedes the reabsorption of water. Bloom's Level: 2. The reabsorption of water in the kidneys always precedes the reabsorption of salt.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body.04. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System 40. The kidneys interact with every other organ system of the human body in maintaining homeostasis.04.04. Section: 10. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. Section: 10.04 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 39.Learning Outcome: 10.04 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 10. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. TRUE The kidneys play a major role in homeostasis in the body and interact with every other organ system. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. What hormones regulate the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal convoluted tubule? A. and aldosterone in homeostasis.02 State the purpose of ADH. ANH. ADH D. creatinine and aldosterone Aldosterone promotes ion exchange at the distal convoluted tubule and renin leads to secretion of aldosterone. creatinine and renin B. Bloom's Level: 1.02 State the purpose of ADH. aldosterone and renin E.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System 42.04.41. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. ANH Renin is produced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus when blood volume falls too low for filtration to occur. aldosterone B.04. renin and aquaporin C. Section: 10. and aldosterone in homeostasis. ANH.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System . Section: 10. Bloom's Level: 2. aquaporin and aldosterone D. Which of the hormones involved in the regulation of water-salt balance is produced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus? A. renin C. 04. it inhibits its secretion B. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions . and aldosterone in homeostasis. Bloom's Level: 2. ANH D. ANH. and aldosterone in homeostasis. ANH. it inhibits its production C. it promotes its production ANH inhibits the secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular apparatus. ADH C. which hormone will the hypothalamus produce to regulate urine production? A. aldosterone The hypothalamus produces ADH if our water intact has been too low.43.02 State the purpose of ADH.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System 44. Section: 10. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.02 State the purpose of ADH. Understand Learning Outcome: 10.04. it promotes its secretion D. Bloom's Level: 2. If you do not drink enough water. What effect does ANH have on renin? A. renin B. 04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System .04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 46. and aldosterone in homeostasis. ANH. ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary.02 State the purpose of ADH. Bloom's Level: 3. ANH. FALSE ANH is produced by the atria of the heart. ADH C. Section: 10. ANH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary.04. Apply Learning Outcome: 10. renin B. aldosterone ANH will cause excretion of Na+ followed by excretion of water and result in reduced blood volume.04. If your blood pressure is high because of increased blood volume. Bloom's Level: 2.45. ANH D.02 State the purpose of ADH. and aldosterone in homeostasis. what hormone will correct this? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. Section: 10. B.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. A breakdown product of hemoglobin is yellow. Urea is yellow. Section: 10.04. A.47. E. D. Uric acid is yellow. hypertonic C.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions . ANH.04. Why is the urine yellow? A. The pigment urochrome is a breakdown product of hemoglobin. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. Creatinine is yellow. Bloom's Level: 2. Renin is yellow. C.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System 48.02 State the purpose of ADH. Bloom's Level: 2. and aldosterone in homeostasis. Section: 10. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. isotonic B. The inner medulla of the kidney is ____________ to the loop of Henle and therefore water leaves the loop at the descending limb and collecting duct. hypotonic The inner medulla is hypertonic and thus draws water out of the loop. 04. Remember . Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System 51. it is best to drink water to restore what was lost due to heavy sweating. Bloom's Level: 3. Why do some people not drink caffeinated beverages right before bedtime? A.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. It increases the flow of urine and causes you to go to the bathroom during the night. It may affect the ability to sleep but caffeine has very little effect on the urinary system. slightly basic C. which is slightly basic. Section: 10. It decreases the flow of urine and can cause kidney stones. B.04. neutral B. Bloom's Level: 3. Bloom's Level: 1. FALSE It is best to drink sports drinks that contain sodium and water. Caffeine is a diurectic and increases the flow of urine. Apply Learning Outcome: 10. After running a marathon. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.4.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 50.49.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. C. both of which are lost due to heavy sweating. What is the normal pH of blood? A. slightly acidic Blood has a pH of 7. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. TRUE Only the kidneys can rid the body of a wide range of acidic and basic substances and adjust the pH. Bloom's Level: 5. It does not affect the pH.03 Explain how the kidneys assist in the maintenance of the pH levels of the blood.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions .04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 53. Cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide which combines with water to form carbonic acid. C. What effect does cellular respiration have on the pH of the blood? A. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 10. B. Section: 10. It raises the pH.03 Explain how the kidneys assist in the maintenance of the pH levels of the blood. Section: 10.04. Section: 10.04 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System 52.Learning Outcome: 10. It lowers the pH. The kidneys are much more powerful than the acid-base buffer and the respiratory center mechanisms are in controlling blood pH. thereby lowering the pH of the blood.04.04.03 Explain how the kidneys assist in the maintenance of the pH levels of the blood. Bloom's Level: 2. cystitis B. uremia Cystitis is an infection of the urinary bladder. burning upon urination B.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes. Bloom's Level: 1. Understand Learning Outcome: 10. Bloom's Level: 2. urethritis C.05 Topic: Urinary System 55. What is an infection of the urinary bladder called? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 10. Section: 10.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes. and/or red blood cells in the urine. extreme pain C. pyelonephritis D. albumin or formed elements in the urine D.54. Section: 10. white blood cells. the absence of urination E.05 Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions . hemodialysis E. edema One of the first signs of nephron damage is albumin. What is one of the earliest signs of nephron damage? A.05.05. In CAPD. the peritoneum E. Bloom's Level: 1. Females are more likely than males to get urinary tract infections due to the short length of the urethra and the proximity of the anal opening. making it easier for pathogens to reach the bladder. Apply Learning Outcome: 10.05 Topic: Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 58. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05. the kidneys themselves D. An enlarged prostate gland can lead to kidney stones in males. or an intake of too much calcium can lead to kidney stones. Section: 10.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes.05.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes. TRUE An enlarged prostate gland. pH imbalances. Remember . Bloom's Level: 1. The opening to the urethra is likely to be contaminated with fecal material and it is very short. Section: 10. what serves as the dialysis membrane? A. the pleural membrane The peritoneum serves as the dialysis membrane.56. Bloom's Level: 3. TRUE Females are much more likely than males to get urinary tract infections. the walls of the blood vessels B.05 Topic: Urinary System 57. a filter inside the instrument C. urinary tract infections. 02 Describe how hemodialysis can help restore homeostasis of the blood in the event of kidney failure.02 Describe how hemodialysis can help restore homeostasis of the blood in the event of kidney failure. Bloom's Level: 1.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System True / False Questions 60. so it is continuously replaced to maintain favorable concentration gradients. Bloom's Level: 4.Learning Outcome: 10. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.05. because it is lost by urination Substances more concentrated in the blood diffuse into the dialysate and vice versa. Section: 10. Section: 10. The success rate for a kidney transplant from even a relative is fairly low. FALSE The success rate for a kidney transplant from a relative is 97%.05. to maintain a favorable concentration gradient with the blood B.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System 59.02 Describe how hemodialysis can help restore homeostasis of the blood in the event of kidney failure. because it enters the body and is absorbed D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 10. Section: 10. Why is the dialysate continually replaced in hemodialysis? A.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Urinary System . because it is easily infected C.05. 01.03 11 Section: 10.02 Summarize the functions of the urinary system. 2 Learning Outcome: 10. 4 Learning Outcome: 10.04.05.03. Analyze 7 Bloom's Level: 5.02.01 List the major diseases of the urinary system and summarize their causes.03. 5 Learning Outcome: 10.04.04.01 Summarize the three processes involved in the formation of urine.01.03 Explain how the kidneys assist in the maintenance of the pH levels of the blood.01 Identify the organs of the urinary system and state their function.03 Describe how tubular reabsorption processes nutrient and salt molecules. 2 Learning Outcome: 10. Section: 10. 7 Learning Outcome: 10.02 List the components of the glomerular filtrate. 6 Learning Outcome: 10.02 12 Section: 10. 4 Learning Outcome: 10.02 State the purpose of ADH.02 Identify the structures of a nephron and state the function of each.02 Describe how hemodialysis can help restore homeostasis of the blood in the event of kidne 3 y failure. Understand 21 Bloom's Level: 3. 7 Learning Outcome: 10.Chapter 10 Urinary System and Excretion Summary Category # of Question s Bloom's Level: 1. 7 Learning Outcome: 10. Apply 5 Bloom's Level: 4. 3 Learning Outcome: 10.04 17 Section: 10. 3 Learning Outcome: 10. Remember 22 Bloom's Level: 2.01 Summarize how the kidney maintains the water-salt balance of the body. Evaluate 5 Learning Outcome: 10. 7 Learning Outcome: 10.03.05.05 7 Topic: Homeostasis 17 Topic: Urinary System 60 . and aldosterone in homeostasis.01 13 Section: 10.04 Explain the substances that are removed from the blood by tubular secretion.03.02.01 Identify the structures of a human kidney. ANH. protect soft body parts C. D. besides adipose tissue. They protect soft body parts. C. They support the entire body. They produce blood cells. 3. Which function of the skeletal system requires that the leg bones be the strongest in the body? A. store minerals and fats E. vertebral column. produce blood cells D.Chapter 11 Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 1. red bone marrow D. yellow bone marrow C. periosteum E. articular cartilage True / False Questions . matrix of bone B. They permit flexible body movement. support the body B. E. is fat stored? A. They store minerals and fat. Where. Which function of the skeleton do the rib cage. and skull represent? A. permit flexible body movement 2. B. trabeculae 7. What term is associated with spongy bone but not with compact bone? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 5. bone marrow 6. compact bone B. the large cavity inside a long bone B. a fibrous connective covering of bone D. what is the first tissue encountered? A. canaliculi B.4. osteocytes C. a small channel in the matrix of bone E. but all the bones in the adult produce blood cells. medullary cavity E. a type of bone forming cell True / False Questions . a stress plate in spongy bone C. Only certain bones in the fetus produce blood cells. What is a canaliculus? A. From the outside of a long bone inside. periosteum D. spongy bone C. A. fibrocartilage C. elastic cartilage B. Which one will heal faster and why? A. knees can be immobilized easier than fingers . cartilage has a blood supply and heal faster D. In bone the cells are called _________________ and in cartilage they are called ________________. Jason broke his finger playing football. fingers bear less weight than knees do C. osteocytes. chondrocytes E. Sean. Sean. Jason. True False Multiple Choice Questions 9. chondrocytes. The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone. Jason. osteoblasts B. hyaline cartilage 11. osteocytes. What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones? A. osteoblasts. lacunae. bones have a blood supply and heal faster B. lacunae D. while Sean tore the cartilage in his knee playing basketball.8. chondrocytes 10. osteocytes C. hyaline cartilage D. the amount of sodium in the blood B. muscle True / False Questions 13. Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime. What type of tissue makes up the epiglottis? A. the amount of vitamin C in the blood E.12. True False Multiple Choice Questions 14. the amount of sodium in the bone D. the amount of vitamin D in the bone True / False Questions . elastic cartilage B. fibrocartilage C. The epiglottis is a structure that needs to be strong but extremely flexible. bone E. Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what? A. the amount of calcium in the blood C. The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone. Bone formation spreads from the center to the ends of the bone. D. Osteoblasts become osteocytes as the bone matures. Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoclasts instead of osteoblasts. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 16. Osteocytes and osteoblasts have the same function. the chondrocytes die off. B. C. What two hormones are involved in regulating the blood calcium level? A. Osteoblasts are derived from the newly formed periosteum. Osteocytes are mature bone cells while osteoblasts are a form of bone cancer. E. renin and PTH D. How are osteocytes and osteoblasts related? A. One builds up bone while the other absorbs it.15. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone? A. D. Osteocytes and osteoblasts work opposite each other. PTH and calcitonin 17. C. 18. A band of cartilage remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center. E. Osteocytes become osteoblasts as the bone matures. renin and aldosterone C. aldosterone and PTH E. calcitonin and renin B. As the cartilage models calcify. True / False Questions . but osteocytes work in the adult and osteoblasts work in the fetus. 2. more than 10 years . 2. the ribs D.19. 1. 3-4 months D. Which bones develop by intramembranous ossification? A.2.2. Bony callus. True False Multiple Choice Questions 20. 3-4 weeks C.4. 3.1 C. 4. 1-2 days B. As long as the growth plate remains. 3. the skull 21. Hematoma.3 22.4. 1. 4. How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last? A. Fibrocartilaginous callus A. the long bones of the arms C.4 B. Remodeling. the long bones of the leg B. 1-2 years E. Arrange the steps of bone repair in order.3 D. the limbs will keep increasing in length.3.2.2. the fingers E.1 E.4. 1.1.3. D. Osteoblasts are not involved in bone repair but they are in bone development. Jeremy had a simple break of his tibia because the bone was broken clear through. temporal D. whether the bones are flat or long D. hyoid C. B. C. whether the bones are weight bearing or not B. How is bone repair different from bone development? A. Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton? A.23. Osteoclasts are involved in bone development but not in bone repair. rib E. clavicle B. True / False Questions 24. whether the bones articulate with the pelvis or not 26. What criterion is used to categorize the skeleton into axial and appendicular? A. vertebrae . Only spongy bone is built in bone repair while both spongy and compact bone are built in bone development. A hematoma indicates an injury has occurred. True False Multiple Choice Questions 25. E. There is no cartilage involved in bone repair but there is in bone development. whether the bones lie on the midline or on a girdle C. whether the bones contain red bone marrow or yellow bone marrow E. Jill broke her cheekbone in an ice skating accident. Which bone did she break? A. maxilla C. for whether they are formed from cartilage or not C. How are the bones of the cranium named? A. zygomatic bone E. 5 B. mandible C. for their shape D. 24 E. How many vertebrae are there? A. scapula B. coccyx E. 18 D. for their articulations with the vertebral column B. for the lobes of the brain they protect 30. hyoid D. temporal 28. maxilla D. frontal bone 29. 33 . Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone? A. 10 C. for their size E. temporal bone B.27. The thoracic vertebrae are named that because the ribs attach there. E. atlas. The name of the "tailbone" is the A. 34.31. D. sacrum. it allows "yes" motion of the head C. What is the name of the first cervical vertebra? Why? A. axis. to give a resonant sound to the voice and to allow the brain to expand C. C. to allow the brain to expand and to lighten the skull . Greek mythology B. What are the functions of the sinuses? A. lumbar. True False Multiple Choice Questions 33. B. to lighten the skull and drain fluid from the brain D. Egyptian sphinx mythology True / False Questions 32. it allows the "no" motion of the head E. axis. Roman mythology D. to drain fluid from the brain and to allow the brain to expand B. sphinoid. atlas. to lighten the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice E. axis. coccyx. sphinoid. She will be unable to lie flat on her back. Due to a back injury. How does this affect Carla? A. hyaline cartilage D. elastic cartilage True / False Questions 36. True False Multiple Choice Questions 37. C. She will have limited movement in that area. Which of the following bones is not part of the pectoral girdle and attached limbs? A. Carla had several of her lumbar vertebrae fused together. sternum C. B. clavicle B. 38. What are the intervertebral disks made of? A. humerus . She will be unable to stand upright. E. scapula D. All 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back and the sternum in the front. She will need assistance in walking. skeletal muscle C. ulna E.35. She will not be affected at all. D. fibrocartilage E. bone B. upper back C. pubis 42. . shoulder D. five 41. shoulder. How many bones are present in the pelvic girdle? A. Which of the following is not part of the coxal bone? A. ischium D. elbow. two C. B. Emma developed a rotator cuff injury. three D. wrist. patella B. ilium C. What part of her body is injured? A.39. one B. lower back E. neck B. lower arm 40. four E. The head of the radius is located at the A. C. is a runner. . clavicle C. deltoid tuberosity C. C. The humerus fits into what at the shoulder? A. what are you hitting? A. glenoid cavity 46. It is not possible to tell whether skeletal remains are male or female. head of ulna E. glenoid cavity E. olecranon process B. olecranon process True / False Questions 44.43. True False Multiple Choice Questions 45. E. B. D. plays basketball. When you hit your "funny bone". is a pianist. lifts heavy weights with his arms. acromion process D. This is probably because Daniel A. Daniel has a very large deltoid tuberosity. acromion process D. spends a lot of time playing video games. acetabulum B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 50. the greater trochanter True / False Questions 49. humerus B.47. femur 48. the lateral malleolus E. pelvis C. the medial condyle D. synovial . cartilaginous D. trochanter B. tibia D. Which bone is the longest and strongest bone in the body? A. There are phalanges in both the lower limb and upper limb. fibrous C. What holds the patella in place? A. the lateral epicondyle B. Which of the following is not a type of joint? A. fibula E. the quadriceps tendon C. fibrous B. sutures between cranial bones B. Which type of joints tend to be slightly movable? A. intervertebral disks D. knee 52. True False . bone to bone. bursae B. ligaments D. ribs and sternum C. fibrocartilage E. synovial 53. C. 54.51. fibrous capsule True / False Questions 55. muscle to bone. Which of the following is not associated with a synovial joint? A. cartilaginous C. menisci C. A ligament connects A. B. What of the following joints is a fibrous joint? A. elbow E. A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint. cartilage to bone. When Phillip was little. bursa 57. menisci E. inversion D. what type of movement are you using? A. flexion and extension C. circumduction E. synovial membrane D. he worked on the outside edge of his feet. Which part of a synovial joint is a fluid-filled sac? A. inversion 58. eversion E. When you kick your foot out in front of you. flexion and extension B. circumduction E. rotation B. what type of movement are you using? A. suture C. When you nod your head "yes". eversion C. adduction and abduction B. adduction and abduction .Multiple Choice Questions 56. rotation D. symphysis B. inversion 59. adduction and abduction C. This is what type of movement? A. rotation D. but not rotation and circumduction. True False . A synovial joint allows for flexion and extension.True / False Questions 60. and inversion and eversion. adduction and abduction. Bloom's Level: 3. and skull represent? A. Which function of the skeletal system requires that the leg bones be the strongest in the body? A. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. and the vertebral column protects the spinal cord. E.01 State the functions of the skeletal system. Which function of the skeleton do the rib cage. Section: 11. vertebral column. store minerals and fats E.01 State the functions of the skeletal system. B.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 2. D. produce blood cells D. Bloom's Level: 4.01. support the body B. The skull protects the brain.Chapter 11 Skeletal System Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11. They protect soft body parts. C. They produce blood cells. They store minerals and fat. They permit flexible body movement.01.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . Section: 11. protect soft body parts C. permit flexible body movement The rib cage protects internal organs. They support the entire body. Bloom's Level: 1.01.01 State the functions of the skeletal system. red bone marrow D. Bloom's Level: 2. but all the bones in the adult produce blood cells. FALSE Only certain bones in the adult produce blood cells.01. Where. besides adipose tissue. but all the bones in the fetus produce blood cells. Section: 11. periosteum E.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions . articular cartilage Fat is stored in yellow bone marrow. yellow bone marrow C.01 State the functions of the skeletal system. Section: 11. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. Only certain bones in the fetus produce blood cells. matrix of bone B.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 4. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. is fat stored? A.3. 02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains. Section: 11. canaliculi B. Section: 11.01.5. compact bone B. but only spongy bone has trabeculae. osteocytes C.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains. What term is associated with spongy bone but not with compact bone? A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11. what is the first tissue encountered? A. From the outside of a long bone inside. bone marrow The periosteum is a layer of fibrous connective tissue that completely covers a long bone except for the articular cartilage at the bone's ends. medullary cavity E. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 4. spongy bone C.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . periosteum D.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 6. trabeculae Both spongy and compact bone have osteocytes and canaliculi.01. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11. Bloom's Level: 2. What is a canaliculus? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. a small channel in the matrix of bone E.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. the large cavity inside a long bone B. a fibrous connective covering of bone D..01.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 8.7.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains. a type of bone forming cell Tiny canals called canaliculi (sing. The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains. Section: 11. a stress plate in spongy bone C. TRUE The diaphysis is the shaft of a long bone and the medullary cavity is within it. canaliculus) run through the matrix of bone.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions . Section: 11. and in the larynx and trachea. osteocytes. Bloom's Level: 1.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each. Bloom's Level: 2.01. lacunae. hyaline cartilage Hyaline cartilage is found at the ends of long bones. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. at the ends of the ribs. elastic cartilage B. the nose.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System .01. osteoblasts. What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. chondrocytes E. osteocytes C.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 10. In bone the cells are called _________________ and in cartilage they are called ________________. chondrocytes Cells in bone are called osteocytes while cells in cartilage are called chondrocytes. lacunae D. Section: 11. osteoblasts B. Section: 11. chondrocytes. fibrocartilage C. A.9. osteocytes. The epiglottis is a structure that needs to be strong but extremely flexible. Bloom's Level: 2. Jason. What type of tissue makes up the epiglottis? A. fingers bear less weight than knees do C. fibrocartilage C.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 12. Which one will heal faster and why? A.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each. while Sean tore the cartilage in his knee playing basketball. cartilage has a blood supply and heal faster D. Sean. bones have a blood supply and heal faster B.01. Jason. muscle The epiglottis is made of elastic cartilage. elastic cartilage B. bone E. hyaline cartilage D. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. Jason broke his finger playing football. Bloom's Level: 3.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each. Section: 11. Section: 11.11. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions .01. knees can be immobilized easier than fingers Cartilage is lacking a blood supply and this makes it slow to heal. Sean. Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. the amount of sodium in the blood B.02.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. shape. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 2. the amount of calcium in the blood C.13. and strength throughout our lifetime.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions . Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what? A. TRUE Bones are able to respond to stress by changing size. Section: 11.02. the amount of sodium in the bone D.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 14. the amount of vitamin D in the bone Bone serves as a storage reservoir for calcium and recycling allows the body to regulate the amount of calcium in the blood. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling. the amount of vitamin C in the blood E. 15. Bloom's Level: 2.02. renin and PTH D.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 16. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. aldosterone and PTH E. Section: 11. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling. calcitonin and renin B. renin and aldosterone C. FALSE Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoblasts (bone forming) instead of osteoclasts (bone absorbing).02. Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoclasts instead of osteoblasts. PTH and calcitonin PTH stimules osteoclasts while calcitonin has the opposite effect. What two hormones are involved in regulating the blood calcium level? A.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . C. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 11. When an osteoblast is surrounded by calcified matrix. the chondrocytes die off. Section: 11. Osteoblasts are derived from the newly formed periosteum. Section: 11. E. it becomes an osteocyte.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved. One builds up bone while the other absorbs it. The region of primary ossification is where osteoblasts lay down spongy bone in the interior of the bone. D. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone? A. B. Bloom's Level: 4. Osteoblasts become osteocytes as the bone matures. How are osteocytes and osteoblasts related? A.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions .02. B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 18. Osteocytes and osteoblasts work opposite each other.17.02. A band of cartilage remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center. but osteocytes work in the adult and osteoblasts work in the fetus. As the cartilage models calcify. The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved. Osteocytes are mature bone cells while osteoblasts are a form of bone cancer. Osteocytes become osteoblasts as the bone matures. Osteocytes and osteoblasts have the same function. Bone formation spreads from the center to the ends of the bone. Bloom's Level: 5. C. D. E. the long bones of the leg B.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 20. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. As long as the growth plate remains.19. such as the bones of the skull. bands of cartilage. TRUE The limbs keep increasing in length as long as growth plates. the ribs D. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . the long bones of the arms C. Which bones develop by intramembranous ossification? A.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved.02. Section: 11.02.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved. are still present. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 11. the limbs will keep increasing in length. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. develop by intramembranous ossification. the skull Flat bones. the fingers E. 4 B. 4. 1-2 days B. How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last? A. 1.2.3. Arrange the steps of bone repair in order. more than 10 years The bony callus lasts about three to four months. 1. 1.21. Remodeling. 2.1 E.1 C. Section: 11.4. 3.02.3 The order of bone repair is hematoma.1. Bloom's Level: 4.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone. 3-4 weeks C.2.4.2. Bloom's Level: 1. Bony callus.02.2. Hematoma. and remodeling.3 D. fibrocartilaginous callus. 2.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 22. Section: 11. Fibrocartilaginous callus A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. 3-4 months D.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone.4. 3. followed by a bony callus.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . 1-2 years E.3. 4. Osteoclasts are involved in bone development but not in bone repair. Osteoblasts are not involved in bone repair but they are in bone development. FALSE A simple break means that the bone does not pierce the skin.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions . E.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone. In some ways. bone repair parallels the development of a bone except that the first step.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 24. Only spongy bone is built in bone repair while both spongy and compact bone are built in bone development. D.23. B. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. indicates that injury has occurred. How is bone repair different from bone development? A.02. C. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 11.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone. Jeremy had a simple break of his tibia because the bone was broken clear through. A complete fracture occurs when the bone is broken clear through. A hematoma indicates an injury has occurred. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 5.02. hematoma. There is no cartilage involved in bone repair but there is in bone development. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 11. they are part of the axial skeleton. vertebral column. and rib cage. Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton? A. hyoid. whether the bones are weight bearing or not B. rib E.03. they are appendicular. whether the bones lie on the midline or on a girdle C.01 Identify the bones of the skull.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 26. If they are part of the girdles or hang from them. Section: 11. and rib cage. Bloom's Level: 2. whether the bones contain red bone marrow or yellow bone marrow E. vertebrae The clavicle is part of the appendicular skeleton.01 Identify the bones of the skull. vertebral column.25. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . temporal D. Section: 11.03. What criterion is used to categorize the skeleton into axial and appendicular? A. hyoid C. hyoid. whether the bones articulate with the pelvis or not If the bones lie on the midline of the body. whether the bones are flat or long D. clavicle B. Bloom's Level: 1.03. scapula B. and rib cage. hyoid D. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. temporal bone B. maxilla C. frontal bone The zygomatic bone forms the cheekbone. Section: 11. coccyx E. Jill broke her cheekbone in an ice skating accident. zygomatic bone E. Bloom's Level: 3.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 28. maxilla D.01 Identify the bones of the skull.01 Identify the bones of the skull. and rib cage.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . hyoid. vertebral column. hyoid. Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone? A. temporal The hyoid bone is the only bone that does not articulate with another bone. vertebral column. Section: 11.27. mandible C. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.03. Which bone did she break? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. for the lobes of the brain they protect The bones of the cranium (frontal.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . Section: 11. parietal. 5 B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.03. How are the bones of the cranium named? A. 24 E. How many vertebrae are there? A. occipital.01 Identify the bones of the skull.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 30. 18 D. and rib cage. Bloom's Level: 1. for their articulations with the vertebral column B. 10 C. for their shape D. vertebral column. hyoid. for whether they are formed from cartilage or not C. 33 There are 33 vertebrae. and temporal) have the same names as the lobes of the brain. for their size E.29.03.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 11. atlas. held up the world. Bloom's Level: 4. TRUE There are twelve thoracic vertebrae named because they articulate with the ribs. of Greek mythology. Egyptian sphinx mythology The first cervical vertebra. The thoracic vertebrae are named that because the ribs attach there. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. atlas. it allows "yes" motion of the head C.03. Greek mythology B. What is the name of the first cervical vertebra? Why? A. sphinoid.31. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions . axis. Section: 11. Section: 11.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column.03. axis. called the atlas.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. it allows the "no" motion of the head E.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 32. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11. Roman mythology D. hold up the head. Atlas. sacrum. coccyx.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 34. to lighten the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice E. E. to drain fluid from the brain and to allow the brain to expand B. B. lumbar. C. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. Section: 11. Section: 11.03. What are the functions of the sinuses? A. sphinoid.33.03. Bloom's Level: 2. The tailbone is three to five fused vertebrae called the coccyx. Bloom's Level: 1. to allow the brain to expand and to lighten the skull The sinuses reduce the weight of the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice. axis. to lighten the skull and drain fluid from the brain D. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03 Explain the function of the sinuses and intervertebral disks in relation to the axial skeleton. to give a resonant sound to the voice and to allow the brain to expand C.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . The name of the "tailbone" is the A. D. bone B. skeletal muscle C.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 36. All 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back and the sternum in the front. fibrocartilage E. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 11. What are the intervertebral disks made of? A. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.03.03.03 Explain the function of the sinuses and intervertebral disks in relation to the axial skeleton. FALSE While all 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back. Section: 11. hyaline cartilage D. elastic cartilage Between the vertebrae are intervertebral disks composed of fibrocartilage that acts as padding. only 7 pairs connect to the sternum in the front.35.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions . Remember Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column. C.03 Explain the function of the sinuses and intervertebral disks in relation to the axial skeleton. Which of the following bones is not part of the pectoral girdle and attached limbs? A.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. B. If the vertebrae are fused together. and from side to side. clavicle B.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . She will be unable to lie flat on her back. Due to a back injury. She will need assistance in walking.37. D.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 38. E. this type of movement will be limited. sternum C. How does this affect Carla? A. backward. She will not be affected at all. humerus The sternum is part of the axial skeleton.03. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. Section: 11. scapula D. Section: 11. Carla had several of her lumbar vertebrae fused together. ulna E. Bloom's Level: 3. The intervertebral disks allow the vertebrae to move as we bend forward. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.04. She will have limited movement in that area. She will be unable to stand upright. Bloom's Level: 3. neck B. three D.04. Emma developed a rotator cuff injury. lower arm The rotator cuff attaches the humerus to the scapula at the shoulder region.39. upper back C. Section: 11. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. How many bones are present in the pelvic girdle? A. four E.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. one B.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 40. Section: 11. lower back E.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . shoulder D. Bloom's Level: 2. five The pelvic girdle consists of two large coxal bones.04. two C. What part of her body is injured? A. pubis The patella is the knee cap. Which of the following is not part of the coxal bone? A.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. ilium C. elbow. glenoid cavity E.04.04.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 42. Section: 11. ischium D. wrist. shoulder. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. Analyze Learning Outcome: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 43.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles. clavicle C. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. The head of the radius is located at the elbow. acromion process D. . The humerus fits into what at the shoulder? A.04. olecranon process The humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula. acetabulum B. Bloom's Level: 2. patella B. The head of the radius is located at the A.41. C. B. glenoid cavity Your "funny bone" is the olecranon process of the ulna.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 45. olecranon process B. deltoid tuberosity C. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. FALSE The male and female pelves differ from each other and can be used to identify the sex of skeletal remains. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles.04.Section: 11.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . Bloom's Level: 3.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 44. Section: 11. It is not possible to tell whether skeletal remains are male or female. what are you hitting? A. head of ulna E.04. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 11. When you hit your "funny bone".02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. acromion process D. humerus B. lifts heavy weights with his arms.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . It increases in size with heavy lifting. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.46.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. is a runner. Bloom's Level: 1. Which bone is the longest and strongest bone in the body? A. Daniel has a very large deltoid tuberosity. The deltoid tuberosity on the humerus is where the deltoid muscle attaches. Section: 11. Section: 11. plays basketball. spends a lot of time playing video games. This is probably because Daniel A. is a pianist.04.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs.04. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. E. fibula E. B. Bloom's Level: 3. D.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 47. C. pelvis C. tibia D. femur The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the body. the lateral malleolus E.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. What holds the patella in place? A. Bloom's Level: 2.04. Section: 11. There are phalanges in both the lower limb and upper limb. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. the lateral epicondyle B.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions .48. Bloom's Level: 2. the medial condyle D. TRUE The bones of the fingers and the toes are called phalanges. Section: 11.04. the greater trochanter The patella is held in place by the quadriceps tendon.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 49. the quadriceps tendon C.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. synovial Cartilaginous joints tend to be slightly movable. fibrous B. such as the sutures between the cranial bones.01 List the three types of joints that connect bones. Which type of joints tend to be slightly movable? A. sutures between cranial bones B. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 11. intervertebral disks D. Bloom's Level: 1.50. cartilaginous D.05.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 52. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. knee Many fibrous joints. Remember Learning Outcome: 11. elbow E. ribs and sternum C.01 List the three types of joints that connect bones. synovial A trochanter is not a type of joint. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 1. cartilaginous C. fibrous C. What of the following joints is a fibrous joint? A. trochanter B. Which of the following is not a type of joint? A. are immovable. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. .01 List the three types of joints that connect bones.05.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 51.05. Which of the following is not associated with a synovial joint? A. Ligaments connect bone to bone.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint. fibrous capsule Fibrocartilage is another type of joint. bone to bone.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 53. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 1. cartilage to bone. menisci C. B.05.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions .05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 54. A ligament connects A. C. It is not found in a synovial joint. ligaments D. fibrocartilage E.Section: 11.05. Remember Learning Outcome: 11.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint. muscle to bone. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 2. bursae B. A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint.05.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint. Understand Learning Outcome: 11.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 56.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . symphysis B. suture C. Section: 11. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. bursa The bursae are fluid-filled sacs that ease friction in a joint. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 11.05. FALSE A meniscus is a C-shaped piece of hyaline cartilage. synovial membrane D. Which part of a synovial joint is a fluid-filled sac? A. menisci E.55. Section: 11. Bloom's Level: 3.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint. circumduction E. flexion and extension C. Apply Learning Outcome: 11.05. what type of movement are you using? A. what type of movement are you using? A. eversion E. inversion Nodding "yes" is flexion and extension. rotation D.05. When you nod your head "yes". When you kick your foot out in front of you. flexion and extension B.57. adduction and abduction C. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. Bloom's Level: 3. adduction and abduction B.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System .05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 58. inversion Kicking your foot out in front of you involves flexion and extension. Section: 11. rotation D. Section: 11.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint. Apply Learning Outcome: 11. but not rotation and circumduction. and inversion and eversion. adduction and abduction. rotation B. Bloom's Level: 3.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 60.59. This is what type of movement? A. FALSE A synovial joint allows for all of these types of movement. circumduction E. he worked on the outside edge of his feet.05 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System .05.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint. Bloom's Level: 2. A synovial joint allows for flexion and extension. adduction and abduction Walking on the outside of your foot so that the sole of the foot turns inward is called inversion. eversion C.05. Section: 11. When Phillip was little. inversion D. Understand Learning Outcome: 11. 02. 4 Learning Outcome: 11.02 Identify the regions of the vertebral column.01 Identify the bones of the skull. and rib cage.02 Identify the bones of the upper and lower limbs.03 Summarize the types of movement that are made possible by a synovial joint. 5 Learning Outcome: 11.03. 3 Learning Outcome: 11.02.02 Describe the structure of a long bone and list the types of tissues it contains.05. 4 Learning Outcome: 11.02 Describe the process of bone remodeling.01 State the functions of the skeletal system.01 Identify the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles.03 Explain the function of the sinuses and intervertebral disks in relation to the axial skeleton.01 12 Section: 11. 5 Learning Outcome: 11.01.02 12 Section: 11.03.01 Summarize the process of ossification and list the types of cells involved.03 Explain the steps in the repair of bone.05.Chapter 11 Skeletal System Summary Category # of Questions Bloom's Level: 1.01.03. Understand 23 Bloom's Level: 3.01 List the three types of joints that connect bones. Remember 13 Bloom's Level: 2. 4 Learning Outcome: 11. 4 Learning Outcome: 11. 4 Learning Outcome: 11.05 11 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 60 . Evaluate 3 Learning Outcome: 11.04. vertebral column. 4 Learning Outcome: 11. Apply 13 Bloom's Level: 4.04 12 Section: 11.03 List the three types of cartilage found in the body and provide a function for each. Analyze 8 Bloom's Level: 5.02 Describe the structure and operation of a synovial joint.04. 7 Learning Outcome: 11. 3 Learning Outcome: 11. 4 Section: 11.01.02. 4 Learning Outcome: 11.03 13 Section: 11.05. hyoid. 5 Learning Outcome: 11. cardiac muscle C.Chapter 12 Muscular System Multiple Choice Questions 1. which is voluntary? A. and skeletal muscle all have in common? A. skeletal muscle . smooth muscle B. 2. E. C. They are all striated. which has multinucleated fibers? A. The cells of these muscles are all called muscle fibers. which is not striated? A. They are all uninucleated. D. skeletal muscle 3. What do smooth. smooth muscle B. Of the three types of muscle tissue. Of the three types of muscle tissue. cardiac muscle C. B. smooth muscle B. skeletal muscle 4. Of the three types of muscle tissue. They are all found in the walls of blood vessels. cardiac. They all interlock at intercalated disks. cardiac muscle C. myoglobin True / False Questions 6. gap junctions C. support C. E. fascicle. D. maintenance of body temperature E. movement of bones D.5. What is found within the intercalated disks of cardiac muscle? A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. Because the heart beats continuously. the first thing encountered would be A. myofibril. dense connective tissue. Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscles? A. B. pumping of blood throughout the body B. muscle fiber. True False Multiple Choice Questions 7. cardiac fibers never relax completely. bone E. protection of internal organs 8. . fascia. dense connective tissue D. C. From the outside of a muscle coming in. with bursae 10. True False 12. True False Multiple Choice Questions .9. the sartorius True / False Questions 11. with ligaments B. the triceps brachii B. the pectoralis major E. The origin of a muscle is on a stationary bone. the masseter D. they cannot push. the trapezius C. How are muscles attached to bone? A. with tendons C. What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii? A. Muscles can only pull. pectoralis major D. synergists C. prime mover B. trapezius C. long E. extensor digitorum . Which of the following is not a term that refers to how muscles work? A. latissimus dorsi B. What is the deltoid muscle shaped like? A. a long thin line B. synergism E. a trapezoid 15. a triangle D. short 16. a circle E. antagonist D. What does the word brevis mean when referring to a muscle? A.13. What is the name of the muscle that is responsible for blinking and winking? A. large B. huge D. orbicularis oculi E. origin 14. a square C. small C. What is the biggest muscle (in terms of mass) in the body? A. the direction of muscle fibers 18. clavicle C. sternum D. in a cone E. in a circle D. gluteus maximus B. What information does the word rectus give you about a muscle? A. latissimus dorsi . the shape of the muscle E. towards the back 20. the size of the muscle B. Which way does the adductor longus move the thigh? A. away from the midline B. the action of the muscle D. toward the midline C. sartorius C. rib B. Which of the following does not attach to the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A.17. quadriceps femoris E. the attachment of the muscle C. mastoid process 19. stapedius D. E. Which of the following is truly a unique structure to muscle cells (not just a renamed one)? A. nucleus C. muscle cells. bursa. A muscle fiber is made up of many A. smooth 22. the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasm. . 24. B. E. For example. is composed of many myofibrils.21. cytoplasm B. contains only actin fibers. T tubules. C. short C. What does the word sarco mean? A. endoplasmic reticulum D. tubule E. muscle D. fascicles. extends from Z line to Z line. Several of the structures in the muscle cell are given special names. One sarcomere A. large B. C. D. transverse (T) system E. myofibrils. B. is composed of many muscle fibers. plasma membrane 23. D. surrounds each muscle in the body. When a muscle contracts. ClE. tropomyosin D.25. actin B. ATP E. The actin and myosin filaments _______________ when a muscle contracts. shorten B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 27. H+ D. lengthen C. myosin C. Ca2+ C. the H zone almost disappears. What supplies the energy for muscle contraction? A. Ca2+ . A. What ion is responsible for initiating muscle contraction? A. Na+ True / False Questions 26. stay the same length 28. Mg2+ B. The muscle contracts. . Ca2+. synaptic cleft D. C. D. the sarcomere shortens 31. An electrical signal is formed that jumps the synaptic cleft. ATP. the sarcomere relaxes C. The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter.True / False Questions 29. tropomyosin returns to normal position E. the sarcome shortens D. synaptic vesicle E. sliding filament C. B. Myosin is released from the axon terminal. T tubules. True False Multiple Choice Questions 30. Each actin molecule is shaped like a golf club. tropomyosin shifts B. with a straight portion ending in a globular head. When the nerve signal reaches the axon terminal what happens next? A. What does troponin bind to and what happens when it binds? A. H+ is pumped into the synaptic cleft. E. sarcoplasmic reticulum 32. T tubule B. tropomyosin. acetylcholine. What is the name of the small gap that separates the axon terminal of a nerve from the sarcolemma? A. D. There are fewer muscle fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle than in the ocular muscles. relaxation period . The ocular muscles require finer control than moving the legs. B. the fewer the muscle fibers per motor axon. Which of the following is not a phase of a single muscle twitch? A. One motor neuron activates one muscle fiber. whereas in the gastrocnemius muscle it is one motor axon per 1000 muscle fibers? A. There are more nerves in the upper body than in the lower extremities. Why is the innervation ratio in the ocular muscles one motor axon per 23 muscle fibers. True False Multiple Choice Questions 35. C. The gastrocnemius muscle contracts much harder than the ocular muscles do. latent period C. E.True / False Questions 33. stimulation period B. 36. One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law. contraction period D. True False 34. The innervation ratio has to do with the overall size of the muscle--the bigger the muscle. 37. The neurotransmitter is diffusing across the synaptic cleft causing an electrical signal in the muscle cell. how many motor units are contracted? A. D. Which of the following does not occur when a muscle fatigues? A. The muscle relaxes. E. Its energy reserves are depleted. C. E. and the power stroke of the contraction occurs. Fresh ATP binds to the myosin causing it to return to its resting position. none B. The muscle relaxes and returns to its former length. B. all True / False Questions 40. some C. The myosin-actin cross-bridges are broken and the sarcomere shortens. D. 38. Acetylcholine is crossing the synaptic cleft. What is happening during the latent period of a muscle twitch? A. Contraction of a muscle requires all the motor units to be undergoing tetanic contraction. C. Stimulation continues. ADP and phosphate are released. Tetanus is achieved. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . In good muscle tone. 39. Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle. Which of the following is not a source of ATP for muscle contraction? A.41. glycogen B. True False . Which of the following is not an energy source for muscle contraction? A. which pathway do slow-twitch fibers prefer? A. fermentation E. triglycerides C. aerobic respiration 43. ATP stored in the cell C. glucose D. ATP in the blood B. the creatine phosphate pathway B. Of the three pathways for obtaining ATP for muscle contraction. respiration 44. fatty acids E. She has predominantly slow-twitch muscle fibers. aerobic respiration True / False Questions 45. the creatine phosphate pathway B. the creatine phosphate pathway D. starch 42. fermentation C. Jillian is a cross country runner. which one requires oxygen? A. fermentation C. spasm 48. 47. tic E. True False . They contain myoglobin. What is the difference between a tic and a spasm? A. A tic refers to achy muscles. They have many more myofibrils per motor unit than fast-twitch fibers. B. A tic is caused by the inflammation of a tendon. usually due to over exercise. D. Why are slow-twitch muscles dark? A. B. C. They need less blood than fast-twitch fibers. A tic is a spasm that can be controlled voluntarily. Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles. E. They are designed for strength and explosions of energy. usually due to overuse. and very painful spasm. They have fewer mitochondria. D. What is the name of a sudden and involuntary muscular contraction. sprain C. while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. especially of the leg and foot. often accompanied by pain? A. E. A tic is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle. while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. bursitis B. while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. strain D. A tic is a strong.Multiple Choice Questions 46. C. True / False Questions 49. and extremities? A. antibodies destroy acetylcholine receptors. myalgia B. B. D. Which disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by weakness that especially affects the muscles of the eyelids. Both are X-linked genetic diseases. muscular dystrophy C. bursitis 51. liver D. bones C. C. The cause of both diseases is unknown.Multiple Choice Questions 50. neck. blood . face. 52. tendinitis E. E. muscles B. In both diseases. In both diseases. the protein dystrophin is absent. Both can be cured with antibiotics. What is the reservoir for Ca2+ in the body? A. myasthenia gravis D. brain E. What do fibromyalgia and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis have in common? A. calcitonin D. parathyroid hormone. tropomyosin B. More blood flows to the surface of the body. very cold? A.53. nervous system. What two hormones regulate calcium homeostasis? A. urinary system. True False Multiple Choice Questions 55. E. testosterone True / False Questions 54. The endocrine system. D. Which of the following does not occur when you are very. . muscular and skeletal systems. and digestive system are all involved in calcium homeostasis. parathyroid hormone. B. Shivering occurs. You get goose bumps. C. tropomyosin E. The arrector pili muscles contract. acetylcholine. acetylcholine. calcitonin C. cardiovascular systems. parathyroid hormone. Smooth muscle contracts inside the blood vessels supplying the skin. Which part of the cardiovascular system does not include muscle? A. capillaries True / False Questions 58. veins D. True False 59. B. arteries C. Your head nods "yes". The blood from your skin is rerouted to your core.56. What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract? A. 57. D. Your leg kicks out. Temperature sensitive neurons in the skin are responsible for initiating shivering. E. C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . You tap your finger. heart B. The hairs on your skin stand on end. If you lock your knees while standing you may pass out because of the lack of venous return to the heart. The skeletal system assists the cardiovascular system by A. C. E. D. pumping the blood. producing the blood cells. activating vitamin D needed for calcium absorption. . altering the pH of the blood. producing hormones for calcium homeostasis. B.60. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. They are all striated. The cells of these muscles are all called muscle fibers. which has multinucleated fibers? A.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. They all interlock at intercalated disks. skeletal muscle Only skeletal muscle has multinucleated fibers. Bloom's Level: 4. and skeletal muscle all have in common? A. B. The cells of all three types of muscle tissues are called muscle fibers.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each.01. C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. E. Section: 12. Of the three types of muscle tissue.01. Section: 12. Bloom's Level: 4.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . smooth muscle B. cardiac.Chapter 12 Muscular System Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. They are all found in the walls of blood vessels. cardiac muscle C. What do smooth. D. They are all uninucleated.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 2. 01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. What is found within the intercalated disks of cardiac muscle? A.01.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 4..01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 5. cardiac muscle C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. Bloom's Level: 4. myoglobin Gap junctions are found at intercalated disks to permit contracts to spread quickly.01. Section: 12. Bloom's Level: 2. Of the three types of muscle tissue. bone E.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. smooth muscle B. skeletal muscle Skeletal muscle is voluntary. sarcoplasmic reticulum B.3. Section: 12.01. cardiac muscle C. which is not striated? A. which is voluntary? A.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. skeletal muscle Smooth muscle is not striated. gap junctions C.01 . Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 12. dense connective tissue D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. Of the three types of muscle tissue. smooth muscle B. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 6.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. FALSE Cardiac fibers relax completely between contractions. Bloom's Level: 2. pumping of blood throughout the body B. cardiac fibers never relax completely. protection of internal organs Cardiac muscle makes up the heart that pumps blood throughout the body. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. Section: 12. Because the heart beats continuously. movement of bones D. which prevents fatigue.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each. Section: 12. Bloom's Level: 4. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.01.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 7. Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscles? A. maintenance of body temperature E. support C.01.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . 01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 10. dense connective tissue. the trapezius C. myofibril. From the outside of a muscle coming in. Bloom's Level: 1. How are muscles attached to bone? A. Bursae act as a cushion in the connection. muscle fiber.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. the triceps brachii B. fascicle. with bursae Tendons connect muscles to bone. Bloom's Level: 4. the pectoralis major E. D. the masseter D. Remember Learning Outcome: 12. fascia. C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01. B. the sartorius The biceps brachii and triceps brachii are a pair of antagonistic muscles. Bloom's Level: 3. Muscles are covered with fascia. What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii? A.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 9. the first thing encountered would be A.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. a type of connective tissue.8. E.01. Apply . with ligaments B. Section: 12. Section: 12. with tendons C. 01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 12. they cannot push. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 11. Section: 12. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. The origin of a muscle is on a stationary bone. TRUE The origin is on the stationary bone while the insertion is on the bone that moves.01.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle.Learning Outcome: 12. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. Section: 12. Muscles can only pull.01. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions .01. Section: 12. TRUE Muscles can only contract and pull on the bone they are attached to. synergism E.13.01. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. synergists C.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . prime mover B. a trapezoid The Greek letter delta looks like a triangle and the deltoid is shaped like a triangle. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. Which of the following is not a term that refers to how muscles work? A. a square C. Section: 12. origin Synergism is not a term that refers to muscle movement.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 14. antagonist D. a long thin line B.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. a circle E. a triangle D. Bloom's Level: 2. What is the deltoid muscle shaped like? A.01. Section: 12. small C. Section: 12.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. pectoralis major D. latissimus dorsi B. large B. What is the name of the muscle that is responsible for blinking and winking? A. trapezius C.15. long E. Section: 12.01. Bloom's Level: 1. Apply Learning Outcome: 12.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . huge D. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. orbicularis oculi E. Bloom's Level: 3. extensor digitorum The orbicularis oculi is around the eye and is responsible for blinking and winking. What does the word brevis mean when referring to a muscle? A. short Brevis means short and is used to indicate the size of a muscle.01.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 16. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.01. mastoid process The sternocleidomastoid does not attach to a rib. the size of the muscle B.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body.01. Section: 12. the attachment of the muscle C. the shape of the muscle E. What information does the word rectus give you about a muscle? A.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 18. clavicle C. Which of the following does not attach to the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Bloom's Level: 4. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12. the action of the muscle D. Section: 12. rib B.17. Bloom's Level: 5.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . the direction of muscle fibers Rectus means straight and gives information about the direction of the muscle fibers. sternum D. quadriceps femoris E. towards the back The adductor longus adducts the thigh. Bloom's Level: 1. in a cone E. Remember Learning Outcome: 12. sartorius C. or moves it toward the midline. stapedius D. What is the biggest muscle (in terms of mass) in the body? A. Which way does the adductor longus move the thigh? A. It also raises the thigh.01. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.01.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 20. gluteus maximus B.01 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . toward the midline C. latissimus dorsi The gluteus maximus which makes up the buttocks is the largest muscle in the body. Bloom's Level: 5.19. in a circle D.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body. Section: 12. away from the midline B. Section: 12. plasma membrane The T system is not found in other types of cells.02.21. endoplasmic reticulum D. smooth The word sarco means muscle. transverse (T) system E. tubule E. What does the word sarco mean? A. the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasm. Bloom's Level: 5. Several of the structures in the muscle cell are given special names. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System .02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 22. Remember Learning Outcome: 12. short C. Bloom's Level: 1. cytoplasm B. Which of the following is truly a unique structure to muscle cells (not just a renamed one)? A. Section: 12. muscle D.02. For example. nucleus C.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. Section: 12.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. large B. 02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 24. C. E. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12. One sarcomere A. is composed of many myofibrils. E. B. A muscle fiber is made up of many myofibrils divided into sarcomeres.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. bursa. D. myofibrils. is composed of many muscle fibers. Section: 12. T tubules. C.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. extends from Z line to Z line. A sarcomere extends between two dark vertical lines called Z lines.02. Section: 12.23. D. fascicles. Bloom's Level: 5.02. A muscle fiber is made up of many A. contains only actin fibers. muscle cells.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . surrounds each muscle in the body. B. 02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 26. When a muscle contracts. H+ D. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2. the H zone almost disappears. TRUE The H zone is the area in the center of the sarcomere that almost disappears when the muscle contracts.02. What ion is responsible for initiating muscle contraction? A. Ca2+ C. Section: 12. Mg2+ B.25.02.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 12. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. Section: 12. ClE. Na+ Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate muscle contraction. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. The actin and myosin filaments _______________ when a muscle contracts. actin B.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. Ca2+ ATP supplies the energy necessary for muscle contraction.02. Understand . They just slide past each other. tropomyosin D. Section: 12. myosin C.27. stay the same length The actin and myosin filaments stay the same length when a muscle contracts.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. ATP E. What supplies the energy for muscle contraction? A. Bloom's Level: 2. shorten B.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 28. FALSE Each myosin molecule is shaped like a golf club. lengthen C. with a straight portion ending in a globular head. A. Section: 12. Each actin molecule is shaped like a golf club.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 29. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. synaptic vesicle E. T tubules.02. Section: 12. the sarcomere relaxes C. ATP. Ca2+. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 5. Section: 12.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. T tubule B.02. What is the name of the small gap that separates the axon terminal of a nerve from the sarcolemma? A. sliding filament C. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 31.02. tropomyosin. exposing myosin-binding sites. synaptic cleft D. tropomyosin shifts B. What does troponin bind to and what happens when it binds? A.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 30.03 Summarize how activities within the neuromuscular junction control muscle fiber contraction. acetylcholine. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . sarcoplasmic reticulum The small gap is called a synaptic cleft. tropomyosin returns to normal position E. The entire region is called a neuromuscular junction. the sarcomere shortens Troponin binds to Ca2+ and this results in a shift of the tropomyosin threads.Learning Outcome: 12. Section: 12. the sarcome shortens D. 02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 33. Bloom's Level: 2. They all either contract or do not contract. into the synaptic cleft.32. The muscle contracts.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage. B. Bloom's Level: 4.02 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 34. E.02. One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law. Section: 12. Remember Learning Outcome: 12. Section: 12. When the nerve signal reaches the axon terminal what happens next? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. The synaptic vesicles release acetylcholine. One motor neuron activates one muscle fiber. D. An electrical signal is formed that jumps the synaptic cleft.03 Summarize how activities within the neuromuscular junction control muscle fiber contraction. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. C.03 . FALSE One motor neuron can stimulate from a few to several muscle fibers of a muscle because each axon has several branches. Bloom's Level: 1. The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter.03 Summarize how activities within the neuromuscular junction control muscle fiber contraction. Section: 12.02. TRUE All the muscle fibers in a motor unit are stimulated at once. a neurotransmitter. Myosin is released from the axon terminal.03. H+ is pumped into the synaptic cleft. D. Which of the following is not a phase of a single muscle twitch? A. The gastrocnemius muscle contracts much harder than the ocular muscles do. C. The ocular muscles require finer control than moving the legs. stimulation period B.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 36. Bloom's Level: 1. contraction period D. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage. The innervation ratio has to do with the overall size of the muscle--the bigger the muscle. relaxation period A stimulation period is not a phase of a muscle twitch. There are more nerves in the upper body than in the lower extremities. latent period C. the fewer the muscle fibers per motor axon. Section: 12.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . The ocular muscles require much finer control than moving the legs.Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 35.03. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12.03. There are fewer muscle fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle than in the ocular muscles. Section: 12. Bloom's Level: 5. E. B. whereas in the gastrocnemius muscle it is one motor axon per 1000 muscle fibers? A. Why is the innervation ratio in the ocular muscles one motor axon per 23 muscle fibers. but not enough to cause movement. Which of the following does not occur when a muscle fatigues? A. B. E. C. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 38. Its energy reserves are depleted. Remember .03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 39. The neurotransmitter is diffusing across the synaptic cleft causing an electrical signal in the muscle cell. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. Bloom's Level: 1. how many motor units are contracted? A. ADP and phosphate are released. D. The myosin-actin cross-bridges are broken and the sarcomere shortens. Bloom's Level: 4. some C. Bloom's Level: 4. The muscle relaxes and returns to its former length.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage.03. some motor units are always contracted. All of the activities that begin a contraction are occurring. What is happening during the latent period of a muscle twitch? A. Section: 12. The muscle relaxes.02 Explain how summation and tetanus increase the strength of whole muscle contraction. D. In good muscle tone. all In good muscle tone. Fresh ATP binds to the myosin causing it to return to its resting position. E. none B. Tetanus is achieved. C.37. Acetylcholine is crossing the synaptic cleft. B. and the power stroke of the contraction occurs. Tetanus is maximal sustained contraction and does not occur during muscle fatigue. Stimulation continues.03. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. 03. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2. Contraction of a muscle requires all the motor units to be undergoing tetanic contraction.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System .03. Section: 12. Section: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 40.02 Explain how summation and tetanus increase the strength of whole muscle contraction. glycogen B.Learning Outcome: 12. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 41. FALSE Some motor units are contracting maximally while others are resting. glucose D. allowing sustained contractions to occur. Which of the following is not an energy source for muscle contraction? A. fatty acids E.03 Summarize how muscle cells produce ATP for muscle contraction. starch Muscles store glycogen and triglycerides for use as energy and acquire glucose and fatty acids from the blood. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. Section: 12.02 Explain how summation and tetanus increase the strength of whole muscle contraction. triglycerides C.03. which pathway do slow-twitch fibers prefer? A. the creatine phosphate pathway B. Section: 12. Section: 12. fermentation C. which one requires oxygen? A. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 44. Section: 12. Which of the following is not a source of ATP for muscle contraction? A. aerobic respiration Slow-twitch fibers prefer to use aerobic respiration for their ATP source.03 . Understand Learning Outcome: 12. the creatine phosphate pathway B.03 Summarize how muscle cells produce ATP for muscle contraction. ATP in the blood B. Bloom's Level: 1. fermentation C. Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle.42. respiration Aerobic respiration requires a supply of oxygen.03 Summarize how muscle cells produce ATP for muscle contraction. the creatine phosphate pathway D.04 Distinguish between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 43. ATP stored in the cell C.03.03. fermentation E. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. Bloom's Level: 4. aerobic respiration Muscles do not get ATP from the blood. Of the three pathways for obtaining ATP for muscle contraction.03. D. Bloom's Level: 3. They need less blood than fast-twitch fibers.04 Distinguish between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers. the respiratory pigment found in muscles. C. have steady power. B. Section: 12. E. Bloom's Level: 4. Apply Learning Outcome: 12. and have endurance--all required for cross country running. Why are slow-twitch muscles dark? A.03. TRUE Slow-twitch muscle fibers are aerobic. They are designed for strength and explosions of energy. Section: 12. She has predominantly slow-twitch muscle fibers. They have fewer mitochondria.Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 45. They have many more myofibrils per motor unit than fast-twitch fibers. They contain myoglobin. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 46. Slow-twitch fibers are dark because they contain myoglobin.03 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System .04 Distinguish between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.03. Jillian is a cross country runner. B. A tic is a spasm that can be controlled voluntarily. while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. usually due to over exercise. A tic is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle. strain D. but only with great effort. spasm A spasm is a sudden and involuntary muscular contraction. often accompanied by pain. A tic refers to achy muscles. Section: 12. tic E. C. Remember Learning Outcome: 12. often accompanied by pain? A. A tic is a spasm that can be controlled voluntarily. A tic is caused by the inflammation of a tendon.01 Distinguish between common muscle conditions such as strains and sprains. bursitis B. What is the name of a sudden and involuntary muscular contraction. while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. Section: 12. A tic is a strong. especially of the leg and foot.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 48. Bloom's Level: 1. D.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 2. and very painful spasm. What is the difference between a tic and a spasm? A.01 Distinguish between common muscle conditions such as strains and sprains. while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction.04. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.04. E.47. sprain C. 04. and myasthenia gravis. usually due to overuse. neck. Section: 12. Bloom's Level: 2. muscular dystrophy. Section: 12. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. Which disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by weakness that especially affects the muscles of the eyelids. tendinitis E. myalgia B. and extremities? A. muscular dystrophy C.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . face.04.02 Summarize the causes of fibromyalgia. myasthenia gravis D. Bloom's Level: 2. bursitis These symptoms describe the disease myasthenia gravis.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 50.49. Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles. Understand Learning Outcome: 12.02 Summarize the causes of fibromyalgia. and myasthenia gravis. tenderness. FALSE Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition whose symptoms include achy pain. and stiffness of muscles. muscular dystrophy. In both diseases. Remember Learning Outcome: 12. Bloom's Level: 4. What do fibromyalgia and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis have in common? A.05. Both can be cured with antibiotics. D. The cause of both diseases is unknown. The cause of ALS and fibromyalgia are both unknown at this time. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. muscular dystrophy.51. What is the reservoir for Ca2+ in the body? A. liver D. brain E. blood The skeleton acts as a reservoir for calcium. B.04. Section: 12.04 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 52. Bloom's Level: 1. Both are X-linked genetic diseases. C. E. bones C.01 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in calcium homeostasis.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . the protein dystrophin is absent. muscles B. antibodies destroy acetylcholine receptors. and myasthenia gravis.02 Summarize the causes of fibromyalgia. Section: 12. In both diseases. Section: 12. Bloom's Level: 5. The red bone marrow stores calcium for blood clotting and keeps blood moving in the body delivering hormones to the various locations. parathyroid hormone.53. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 12. TRUE The endocrine system produces hormones that regulate calcium content of the bones. acetylcholine. cardiovascular systems. The endocrine system.01 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in calcium homeostasis. muscular and skeletal systems. parathyroid hormone. urinary system. What two hormones regulate calcium homeostasis? A.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 54.05.05. Section: 12.01 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in calcium homeostasis. parathyroid hormone. tropomyosin B. The bones store calcium needed for muscle contraction and nerve impulse conduction. calcitonin C. acetylcholine. nervous system. The urinary system activates vitamin D needed for calcium absorption. testosterone Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin are involved in calcium homeostasis.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . and digestive system are all involved in calcium homeostasis. Understand Learning Outcome: 12. calcitonin D. Bloom's Level: 2. tropomyosin E. The digestive system absorbs calcium and vitamin D from food. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. Section: 12. B. Shivering occurs. D.05. where the vital organs are. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. Bloom's Level: 4. C. The arrector pili muscles contract. The blood from your skin is rerouted to your core. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 56. When you are very.02 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in body temperature homeostasis. very cold. Which of the following does not occur when you are very.Multiple Choice Questions 55. less blood flows to the surface of the body in order to keep the core of the body. Smooth muscle contracts inside the blood vessels supplying the skin. E. D. What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract? A. very cold? A.02 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in body temperature homeostasis. Your head nods "yes". The arrector pili muscles are tiny bundles of smooth muscle attached to the hair follicles that cause the hairs to stand up.05.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . The hairs on your skin stand on end. B. C. You get goose bumps. More blood flows to the surface of the body. Your leg kicks out. Bloom's Level: 4. warm. E. You tap your finger. 57.05.05. . there is a shortage of blood returning to the heart and you may pass out.05. arteries C. If you lock your knees while standing you may pass out because of the lack of venous return to the heart. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. Section: 12.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System True / False Questions 58. If you lock your knees.03 Describe how the muscular and skeletal systems aid in the homeostasis of the circulatory system. Remember Learning Outcome: 12. Temperature sensitive neurons in the skin are responsible for initiating shivering. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. heart B. Section: 12. Bloom's Level: 4.02 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in body temperature homeostasis. capillaries The capillaries do not contain a layer of muscle. TRUE The skeletal muscles aid in the process of venous return by pushing blood back toward the heart. veins D.03 Describe how the muscular and skeletal systems aid in the homeostasis of the circulatory system. FALSE These neurons are located in the hypothalamus of the brain. Which part of the cardiovascular system does not include muscle? A. Bloom's Level: 1.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 59. Bloom's Level: 4. activating vitamin D needed for calcium absorption. E. Section: 12.05. Analyze Learning Outcome: 12. C. producing the blood cells.03 Describe how the muscular and skeletal systems aid in the homeostasis of the circulatory system. The skeletal system assists the cardiovascular system by A. altering the pH of the blood. B.Section: 12. producing hormones for calcium homeostasis.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System Multiple Choice Questions 60.05 Topic: Homeostasis Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System . D. pumping the blood. The red bone marrow of the skeletal system produces the blood cells. and myasthenia gravis.01 Distinguish between common muscle conditions such as strains and sprains.02 Summarize the causes of fibromyalgia.05. 3 Learning Outcome: 12. Apply 3 Bloom's Level: 4.01.03. 4 Learning Outcome: 12. Learning Outcome: 12.01 List the three types of muscles and provide a function for each.01 20 Section: 12.02 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in body temperature homeostasis 3 .Chapter 12 Muscular System Summary Category # of Question s Bloom's Level: 1.03 Identify the major skeletal muscles of the human body.02.01 Identify the structures of a muscle fiber. 7 Learning Outcome: 12.03.02.05.05.05 9 Topic: Homeostasis 9 Topic: Muscular-Skeletal System 60 . 3 Learning Outcome: 12.02 Explain how summation and tetanus increase the strength of whole muscle contraction. 7 Learning Outcome: 12.04. Analyze 18 Bloom's Level: 5.03.02 Describe the general structure of a skeletal muscle. muscular dystrophy.03 Summarize how muscle cells produce ATP for muscle contraction. Learning Outcome: 12. 3 Learning Outcome: 12.02.03 Summarize how activities within the neuromuscular junction control muscle fiber contraction 3 .01 Summarize the role of the muscular and skeletal systems in calcium homeostasis.04 5 Section: 12.03. 4 Learning Outcome: 12.04 Distinguish between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.03 13 Section: 12. Remember 14 Bloom's Level: 2. 3 Learning Outcome: 12.04.01 List the stages of a muscle twitch and explain what is occurring in each stage. 3 Learning Outcome: 12. 2 Learning Outcome: 12.02 Explain how the sliding filament model is responsible for muscle contraction. 6 Learning Outcome: 12.01.02 13 Section: 12. 6 Learning Outcome: 12.03 Describe how the muscular and skeletal systems aid in the homeostasis of the circulatory s 3 ystem. Evaluate 7 Learning Outcome: 12. Section: 12.01. Understand 18 Bloom's Level: 3. The spinal cord belongs to the A. The division between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system is based on the anatomical differences between cells in the two locations.Chapter 13 Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 1. True False Multiple Choice Questions . peripheral nervous system. True / False Questions 3. The central nervous system is protected by A. E. muscle. elastic cartilage. B. C. bone. hyaline cartilage. B. 2. D. fibrous cartilage. central nervous system. Which of the following is not a type of neuron? A. visceral sensory nerves--body organs 6. generate motor output 5. The cells of the nervous tissue are all neurons. special senses E. muscles. neuroglia True / False Questions 7. cardiac muscle. receive sensory input B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system? A. motor nerves--efferent C. somatic motor nerves: smooth muscle. cushion and protect soft tissue C. somatic sensory nerves--skin. interneuron C. sensory nerves--afferent B. glands D. perform information processing D. Which of the following is mismatched? A. joints. perform integration E. cells that transmit nerve impulses. motor D. sensory B.4. Which of the following parts of a neuron is correctly matched? A. nerve fibers within the PNS True / False Questions . interneuron 10. myelin sheath C. axon-conducts nerve impulses C. axon D.8. node of Ranvier 11. Schwann cells B. dendrite-contains the nucleus and other organelles 9. long axons B. sensory receptor C. effector E. Which of the following types of nerves is not covered by a protective myelin sheath? A. Which one of the following is entirely located within the central nervous system? A. white matter of the CNS D. dendrite E. gray matter of the CNS C. motor neuron D. sensory neuron B. Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS? A. cell body-short extensions that receive impulses B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . water moves to the outside of the cell and chloride ions follow. True / False Questions 15. The action potential in a neuron is an all-or-nothing event.12. because sodium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane E. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 13. E. D. because potassium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane D. Why is the outside of a neuron positively charged? A. C. because sodium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane B. sodium gates open and sodium moves inside the cell. Depolarization of the neuron occurs when A. because chloride ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane 14. the potassium gates open and potassium moves outside the cell. the sodium-potassium pumps moves potassium inside the cell. the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium inside the cell. The gap where there is no myelin sheath around a nerve fiber is called a node of Ranvier. because calcium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane C. Action potentials are self-propagating. the absence of myelin allows the action potential to travel faster D. unmyelinated fibers. milliseconds. myelinated fibers. the ions can move in and out of the cell faster without the myelin coating True / False Questions 19. seconds. What ensures the one-way direction of an action potential? A. B. 18. C. The intensity of a message is determined by how many action potentials are generated within a given time. unmyelinated fibers. C. minutes. B. The entire action potential (depolarization and repolarization) occurs in a matter of A. As soon as the action potential has passed by. myelinated fibers. the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another E. Conduction of an action potential is an all-or-none event. An action potential at one node causes an action potential at the next node. Which conducts an action potential faster and why? A. that portion of the axon undergoes a short refractory period. the action potential moves through the myelin which allows it to travel faster B. 17. E.16. the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another C. unmyelinated fibers. D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . An axon can conduct a volley of action potentials very quickly. 2. 3.4.5. 6. 4.1 D.4.5 B.3.4.7.4.5. An action potential begins in the receiving neuron. 2. Which of the following could happen to the neurotransmitter once it binds to the receiving membrane receptors? A. glutamate D.3. stays bound to the receiving membrane D. acetylcholine B. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal. absorbed by the receiving membrane in order to start the action potential C.7. 7. Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft. Place the events in the transmission of an action potential in the correct order. Sodium ions diffuse into the receiving neuron. Neurotransmitters molecules bind to the membrane of the receiving neuron.2.6. A. reabsorbed by the sending membrane B.5. 2. 3.1 C. GABA E.2.6. True False . Synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane. There are only two types of neurotransmitters: acetylcholine for excitation and norepinephrine for inhibition.7.1 21. serotonin C. 3. 1.6.4.2. An action potential arrives at an axon terminal.20.3.6.1 E. ATP True / False Questions 23. 7. 5.7. released back into the synaptic cleft where it builds up 22.6. 1. Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter? A.5. Which of the following statements is not true concerning acetylcholine's function? A. D. polarization D. acetylcholine inhibits cardiac muscle. B.Multiple Choice Questions 24. What is the summing up of the excitatory and inhibitory signals by a neuron called? A. When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft. Acetylcholine has an excitatory effect on smooth muscle and glands. In the PNS. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase removes acetylcholine from the receiving cell's membrane. firing 25. In the PNS. Acetylcholine is active in both the CNS and PNS. depolarization E. True False Multiple Choice Questions . True / False Questions 26. acetylcholine excites skeletal muscle. the response of the receiving neuron will be toward excitation. integration B. E. addition C. C. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 29. Spinal nerves are considered part of the CNS. The dorsal and ventral roots join before the spinal nerve leaves the vertebral canal. The spaces around the brain and spinal cord are filled with fluid. The white matter of the spinal cord surrounds the gray matter. The dorsal root contains sensory fibers entering the gray matter. D. Both the brain and spinal cord are protected by bone. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the central nervous system? A.27. True False . E. True / False Questions 30. E. True / False Questions 28. The brain and spinal cord contain only white matter--myelinated axons that run together in bundles. C. D. B. The spinal nerves project from the cord through intervertebral foramina. The spinal cord extends from the base of the brain through a large opening in the skull called the inferior ventricle. Which of the following statements is not true concerning spinal nerves? A. The ventral root contains motor fibers exiting the gray matter. The central nervous system is made up of the spinal cord and the brain. C. Both the brain and spinal cord are protected by meninges. medulla oblongata B. corpus callosum B. The cerebrum is associated with the A.Multiple Choice Questions 31. the pons. pons 32. B. central canal C. cerebrum D. diencephalon D. cerebrum True / False Questions 34. Which of the following is not a part of the brain? A. 33. fourth ventricle. third ventricle. True False . The brain stem contains the midbrain. midbrain C. two lateral ventricles. cerebellum E. Which is the largest part of the brain? A. and the medulla oblongata. cerebellum E. C. 36. premotor area D. Wernicke's area is associated with A. Which of the following functions is not associated with the frontal lobe? A. frontal C. temporal E. Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebral hemisphere? A. reticular B. The thalamus is on the receiving end for all sensory input except the A. 37. somatosensory information. E. D. D. motor speech (Broca's) area E. parietal D. E. prefrontal area . primary visual area C. B. sense of hearing. sexual arousal. occipital 38. primary motor area B. memory and emotions. the ability to ride a bike. sense of smell. C. visual sense. C. the ability to speak. B. the sense of smell.Multiple Choice Questions 35. reflex centers for controlling heartbeat. Which of the following statements concerning the primary motor area is not true? A. The area that controls the thumb. Control of muscles responsible for facial movements take up a large portion of the primary motor area. E. The primary motor area is in the cerebellum. C. E. Voluntary commands to skeletal muscles begin in the primary motor area. fingers. C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . the sense of taste. The primary somatosensory area receives sensory input from A. and hand is larger than the area controlling the leg. D. True / False Questions 41. The primary motor area is located anterior to the central sulcus. the sense of touch. B. the sense of smell. B. the sense of hearing. The structures of the limbic system are linked together because of their position within the cerebrum even though they have a variety of functions. D.39. 40. the sense of vision. spinal cord B. long-term potentiation and memory storage C. Which of the following are mismatched concerning memory and learning? A. skill memory 44. semantic memory. When a student crams for a test at 3 in the morning before the test. long-term memory C. D. semantic memory D. episodic memory. short-term memory. primary somatosensory area C. What type of memory is involved in learning to ride a bike? A. cerebellum 43. reticular formation E. hippocampus and emotionally charged fearful memories B. long-term memory. the information usually goes into A. amygdala D. semantic memory and numbers D. Which of the following is part of the limbic system? A. B. episodic memory E. C. episodic memory and persons E.42. E. prefrontal area and where memories are used True / False Questions . skill memory. short-term memory B. 45. episodic D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 47. What type of memory does language depend upon? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions . semantic C. The left hemisphere of the brain is more involved in verbal functions than the right hemisphere. The two types of nerves in the peripheral nervous system are cranial nerves and spinal nerves.46. short-term B. skill True / False Questions 48. Humans have 31 pairs of cranial nerves. . Some cranial nerves are only sensory nerves. Cranial nerves are largely associated with the head. D. Both utilize two neurons per message.5 C. B.4. Both innervate the skeletal muscles.1. 2. 2.4.1. Both use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter.4. 5. Sensory receptors generate nerve signals. Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is not true? A.49. skeletal muscles. 51.5 D.5 B.4. Sensory neurons pass signals to interneurons. D. C.3. Others are mixed. E.1. 1.3. Nerve signals travel along motor fibers to an effector. Both innervate glands and organs. E. 2. 3.5 50. The cranial nerves are referred to by roman numerals.2. 52. tendons. and face.2. while some are only motor fibers. C. A. Place the following steps in the correct order for a reflex arc.2.3.5 E. B.1. 3. B. Interneurons synapse with motor neurons. The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve. C. The somatic division of the PNS controls all of the following except A. skin. In what way are the somatic motor pathway and the parasympathetic autonomic motor pathway similar? A. 4. There is a response to the stimulus. heart muscle. 3. D. 1.4. neck. Both are voluntary. True / False Questions 54. replace or mimic a neurotransmitter D. dopamine E. D. The postganglionic fiber in the parasympathetic division is long because the ganglia lie near or within the organ. Both arise from the sacral spinal nerves.53. GABA C. C. Both use norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter. Both utilize two neurons per message. promote the action of a neurotransmitter . True False Multiple Choice Questions 55. In which way are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic system similar? A. How does caffeine work? A. increases the amount of neurotransmitter at a synapse B. replace or mimic a neuromodulator E. E. In both the preganglionic neuron is shorter than the postganglionic neuron. interferes with or decreases the action of a neurotransmitter C. serotonin 56. B. Both are associated with the relaxed state (rest-and-digest). substance P B. acetylcholine D. Which of the following is a neuromodulator? A. marijuana 60. stimulant B. depressant C. How is alcohol classified? A. psychoactive 59. Dopamine plays a central role in the working of the brain's built-in reward circuit. heroin D. nicotine and heroin C. marijuana and heroin . alcohol and heroin D. cocaine B. nicotine and alcohol B. Which two drugs are in the same category? A. Which drug is in the same category as nicotine? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 58.True / False Questions 57. cocaine and marijuana E. alcohol C. irritability B. alcohol B. marijuana 62. weight gain. euphoria. cardiac and/or respiratory arrest. Long term use of heroin results in which set of symptoms? A. jitters. addiction. a decrease in overall brain size. hepatitis. sudden death C.61. various bacterial infections E. poor cognitive performance. anxiety. Long term use of __________ results in damage to the frontal lobes. heroin E. apathy. nicotine C. A. and an increase in the size of the ventricles. HIV/AIDS. headaches . insomnia. cocaine D. hallucinations D. Section: 13.Chapter 13 Nervous System Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. muscle.01. peripheral nervous system.01. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. The spinal cord is part of the central nervous system.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. B. C. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions .01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. The brain is protected by the skull and the spinal cord is protected by the vertebral column. The central nervous system is protected by A. B. Section: 13. hyaline cartilage. along with the brain. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. bone. E. central nervous system.01 Topic: Nervous System 2. D. The spinal cord belongs to the A. elastic cartilage. fibrous cartilage. Bloom's Level: 1. 3. cushion and protect soft tissue C.01. Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system? A.01 Topic: Nervous System .01. Bloom's Level: 2. The division between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system is based on the anatomical differences between cells in the two locations. FALSE The division between the CNS and the PNS is arbitrary. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 4.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. receive sensory input B. perform integration E.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. Section: 13. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 13. perform information processing D. generate motor output The nervous system does not cushion and protect soft tissue. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System 6.01. neuroglia Neuroglia are cells that support and nourish neurons. Which of the following is not a type of neuron? A. Section: 13.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard to location and function. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.5. sensory B. visceral sensory nerves--body organs The somatic motor nerves send signals to skeletal muscles. muscles. Which of the following is mismatched? A. glands D. somatic motor nerves: smooth muscle. Bloom's Level: 1. special senses E. motor D.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. motor nerves--efferent C.01. interneuron C. Section: 13. Bloom's Level: 4. somatic sensory nerves--skin. cardiac muscle.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions . sensory nerves--afferent B. joints. Bloom's Level: 4. which support and nourish neurons. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. cell body-short extensions that receive impulses B. axon-conducts nerve impulses C. cells that transmit nerve impulses. are also part of nervous tissue. while the cell body contains the nucleus and other organelles. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE Neuroglia.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each.7.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 8. dendrite-contains the nucleus and other organelles The axon conducts nerve impulses. Section: 13. Which of the following parts of a neuron is correctly matched? A. Section: 13. and the dendrites are short extensions that receive impulses.01. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System .01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. The cells of the nervous tissue are all neurons. interneuron An interneuron lies entirely within the CNS.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Bloom's Level: 4. Which one of the following is entirely located within the central nervous system? A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13. myelin sheath C. node of Ranvier Schwann cells are a type of neuroglia found only in the PNS. Section: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System . sensory receptor C. Schwann cells B. sensory neuron B. Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS? A.9. axon D. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. dendrite E.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Bloom's Level: 2. motor neuron D.01.01 Topic: Nervous System 10. effector E.01. Section: 13. 01. Which of the following types of nerves is not covered by a protective myelin sheath? A. Bloom's Level: 1.11. The gap where there is no myelin sheath around a nerve fiber is called a node of Ranvier.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions .02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. nerve fibers within the PNS The gray matter of the CNS is gray because it contains no myelinated axons.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. Section: 13. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. white matter of the CNS D. gray matter of the CNS C. Bloom's Level: 2. TRUE The nodes of Ranvier are the gaps in the myelin sheath.01. long axons B.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 12. Section: 13. 01 Topic: Nervous System 14. resulting in a positive charge on the outside of the cell. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. Depolarization of the neuron occurs when A. B. the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium inside the cell. Depolarization occurs when the sodium gates open and sodium flows inside the axon. because sodium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane E. the sodium-potassium pumps moves potassium inside the cell. Section: 13. because sodium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane B.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. because calcium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane C. Bloom's Level: 2.01.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions . C. the potassium gates open and potassium moves outside the cell. D. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. because chloride ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane Positively charged sodium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane. Section: 13. water moves to the outside of the cell and chloride ions follow. Bloom's Level: 1. E.13.01. Why is the outside of a neuron positively charged? A. because potassium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane D. sodium gates open and sodium moves inside the cell.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. 01. the action potential does not occur. If the threshold voltage is never reached. C. An action potential takes 3-4 milliseconds to complete. seconds. Section: 13. B. Bloom's Level: 1. the action potential happens automatically and completely.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 16. The entire action potential (depolarization and repolarization) occurs in a matter of A. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Nervous System . The action potential in a neuron is an all-or-nothing event. minutes.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential.01. TRUE Once the threshold is reached. milliseconds. Section: 13.15. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another E. the absence of myelin allows the action potential to travel faster D.01 Topic: Nervous System 18. C. Due to the short refractory period during which the axon is unable to conduct. An axon can conduct a volley of action potentials very quickly. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.04 Summarize the propagation of an action potential across a neuron.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 5.17. B. is much faster than in unmyelinated fibers.01. myelinated fibers. unmyelinated fibers.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. Section: 13. D. Which conducts an action potential faster and why? A. unmyelinated fibers. Section: 13. An action potential at one node causes an action potential at the next node. What ensures the one-way direction of an action potential? A. the action potential moves through the myelin which allows it to travel faster B. the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another C. that portion of the axon undergoes a short refractory period. Conduction of an action potential is an all-or-none event. Action potentials are self-propagating. myelinated fibers. the ions can move in and out of the cell faster without the myelin coating Saltatory conduction. the action potential propagates in just one direction. where the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. Bloom's Level: 2. unmyelinated fibers. As soon as the action potential has passed by. E. 4. 5.5.5.3.7. Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft. 3.2.6. 2.1 The action potential arrives at an axon terminal. The more action potentials.2. Section: 13. 7.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential.01.6. 7.5 B.4.6.05 Explain the process of synpatic integration with the synapse. Sodium ions diffuse into the receiving neuron.2. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 20. 3. and an action potential begins. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.4. 6.3.19. 2.4.3.7. An action potential arrives at an axon terminal. Neurotransmitters molecules bind to the membrane of the receiving neuron. TRUE An axon can conduct a volley of action potentials very quickly.1 C. the more intense the message. Bloom's Level: 1. Neurotransmitter molecules are released into the synaptic cleft and bind to receptors on the membrane of the receiving neuron.6.2. 4. 1.1 D. A.7.7.01 Topic: Nervous System . Section: 13.5.5. An action potential begins in the receiving neuron. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal. The intensity of a message is determined by how many action potentials are generated within a given time. Place the events in the transmission of an action potential in the correct order.6.1 E. Calcium enters and the synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane.4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13. Bloom's Level: 4.01. 3. 1. Sodium ions diffuse into the receiving neuron. Section: 13.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters. not a neurotransmitter. GABA E. glutamate D. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. acetylcholine B.01 Topic: Nervous System 22. Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. reabsorbed by the sending membrane B.21.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions . released back into the synaptic cleft where it builds up The neurotransmitter can be reabsorbed by the sending membrane or it can be broken down. Bloom's Level: 2. Which of the following could happen to the neurotransmitter once it binds to the receiving membrane receptors? A.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters.01. stays bound to the receiving membrane D. ATP ATP is the energy currency of the cell. serotonin C. Bloom's Level: 2.01. Section: 13. absorbed by the receiving membrane in order to start the action potential C. firing Integration is the summing up of excitatory and inhibitory signals. Section: 13. FALSE There are more than 100 substances known or suspected to be neurotransmitters. addition C.05 Explain the process of synpatic integration with the synapse.23.01 Topic: Nervous System . Remember Learning Outcome: 13.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters.01. polarization D. There are only two types of neurotransmitters: acetylcholine for excitation and norepinephrine for inhibition.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 24. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 13. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. depolarization E. What is the summing up of the excitatory and inhibitory signals by a neuron called? A. integration B.01. Bloom's Level: 1. Acetylcholine has an excitatory or an inhibitory effect on smooth muscle or glands. Bloom's Level: 2.01.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 26. the response of the receiving neuron will be toward excitation. depending on their location. D. C. B. Section: 13. Acetylcholine has an excitatory effect on smooth muscle and glands. In the PNS. Which of the following statements is not true concerning acetylcholine's function? A. Bloom's Level: 5.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. Section: 13. acetylcholine inhibits cardiac muscle.05 Explain the process of synpatic integration with the synapse. When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft. FALSE Depending on the nature of the neurotransmitter.25. Acetylcholine is active in both the CNS and PNS. The enzyme acetylcholinesterase removes acetylcholine from the receiving cell's membrane. E. In the PNS. the response can be toward excitation or toward inhibition. acetylcholine excites skeletal muscle. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions .01. The spaces around the brain and spinal cord are filled with fluid. B. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. C.02. E. Both the brain and spinal cord are protected by meninges. Both the brain and spinal cord are protected by bone. Bloom's Level: 1. FALSE The spinal cord extends through a large opening in the skull called the foramen magnum. Bloom's Level: 5.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. The central nervous system is made up of the spinal cord and the brain. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 28. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13. Section: 13. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the central nervous system? A. The CNS also contains gray matter--cell bodies and short.02.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. The spinal cord extends from the base of the brain through a large opening in the skull called the inferior ventricle. The brain and spinal cord contain only white matter--myelinated axons that run together in bundles. D.27.02 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . nonmyelinated fibers. The white matter surrounds the gray matter. The ventral root contains motor fibers exiting the gray matter.29.02.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. Section: 13. B. D. Spinal nerves are outside of the spinal cord and are considered part of the PNS. Bloom's Level: 5. The spinal nerves project from the cord through intervertebral foramina.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. Spinal nerves are considered part of the CNS.02 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. TRUE The gray matter is centrally located and shaped like the letter H. Section: 13. The white matter of the spinal cord surrounds the gray matter. C. Which of the following statements is not true concerning spinal nerves? A. The dorsal and ventral roots join before the spinal nerve leaves the vertebral canal. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13. E.02 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 30. The dorsal root contains sensory fibers entering the gray matter.02. 02. cerebellum E.02. The cerebrum is associated with the A. two lateral ventricles. Bloom's Level: 2. midbrain C. Section: 13. C. Remember . Which of the following is not a part of the brain? A. cerebrum D. third ventricle. The cerebrum is associated with the two lateral ventricles. pons The central canal is located within the spinal cord. Section: 13. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. cerebrum The cerebrum is the largest portion of the brian in humans.02 Topic: Nervous System 32. cerebellum E. Which is the largest part of the brain? A. corpus callosum B. Bloom's Level: 1. medulla oblongata B.31. fourth ventricle.02 Topic: Nervous System 33.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. diencephalon D. B. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. central canal C. The thalamus receives all sensory input except the sense of smell. The brain stem contains the midbrain. the pons. TRUE These three sections make up the brain stem. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. Bloom's Level: 2. visual sense. The thalamus is on the receiving end for all sensory input except the A. E. Section: 13. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.02.02. memory and emotions. sense of hearing.02. sense of smell.02 Topic: Nervous System .02 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 35. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. B.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. Section: 13.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. C.Learning Outcome: 13. D. Section: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 34. and the medulla oblongata. somatosensory information. 02 Topic: Nervous System 37. the ability to speak.02 Topic: Nervous System . Wernicke's area is associated with A. C. sexual arousal. reflex centers for controlling heartbeat. Section: 13.03 Identify the lobes and major areas of the human brain.02. D. reticular B.03 Identify the lobes and major areas of the human brain. Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebral hemisphere? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. Bloom's Level: 2. B. occipital The reticular formation is found in the brain stem. temporal E. E. Wernicke's and Broca's areas are involved in the ability to speak. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. the sense of smell. the ability to ride a bike. frontal C. Section: 13. parietal D.36. Bloom's Level: 2.02. D.02 Topic: Nervous System 39. Bloom's Level: 5. fingers.03 Identify the lobes and major areas of the human brain. E. Which of the following functions is not associated with the frontal lobe? A. and hand is larger than the area controlling the leg. Section: 13.02.38. Section: 13. The primary motor area is located anterior to the central sulcus.02 Topic: Nervous System . Voluntary commands to skeletal muscles begin in the primary motor area.04 Distinguish between the functions of the primary motor and the primary somatosensory areas of the brain.02. The primary motor area is in the cerebellum. Control of muscles responsible for facial movements take up a large portion of the primary motor area. The area that controls the thumb. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13. motor speech (Broca's) area E. primary motor area B. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. premotor area D. Which of the following statements concerning the primary motor area is not true? A. Bloom's Level: 2. primary visual area C. prefrontal area The primary visual area is associated with the occipital lobe. C. The primary motor area is in the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex. B. C. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 13. E. Bloom's Level: 2. the sense of touch.04 Distinguish between the functions of the primary motor and the primary somatosensory areas of the brain. Sensory information from the skin and skeletal muscles arrive at the primary somatosensory area.02. D. hearing. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.02 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 41.03 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 13. the sense of smell. The other primary sensations (taste. FALSE The limbic system is a functional grouping rather than an anatomical one.03. B. The structures of the limbic system are linked together because of their position within the cerebrum even though they have a variety of functions. and smell) are located in other areas of the cerebral cortex.01 Identify the structures of the limbic system. vision. the sense of hearing. the sense of taste. the sense of vision. The primary somatosensory area receives sensory input from A. Section: 13.40. Section: 13.03. reticular formation E.03 Topic: Nervous System .01 Identify the structures of the limbic system. episodic memory E. Which of the following is part of the limbic system? A. amygdala D. spinal cord B. long-term memory C. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Summarize the types of memory associated with the limbic system. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. Section: 13. primary somatosensory area C.42. cerebellum The amygdala is one of the significant structures within the limbic system. semantic memory D. What type of memory is involved in learning to ride a bike? A. short-term memory B. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.03.03 Topic: Nervous System 43. skill memory Riding a bicycle is a type of skill memory. Bloom's Level: 1. D. Which of the following are mismatched concerning memory and learning? A. semantic memory and numbers D. Bloom's Level: 3.03 Summarize the types of memory associated with the limbic system. When a student crams for a test at 3 in the morning before the test. Cramming usually results in only short-term memory. semantic memory.03. B. prefrontal area and where memories are used The amygdala seems to be responsible for fear conditioning and associating danger with sensory stimuli received from various parts of the brain.44.03 Topic: Nervous System 45. Apply Learning Outcome: 13. short-term memory. long-term memory.03. episodic memory. long-term potentiation and memory storage C. hippocampus and emotionally charged fearful memories B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13. Section: 13. the information usually goes into A. E.03 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions . C. Bloom's Level: 4. skill memory. Section: 13.03 Summarize the types of memory associated with the limbic system. episodic memory and persons E. 03 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions .03.02 Explain how the limbic system is involved in memory. episodic D. short-term B. Remember Learning Outcome: 13. What type of memory does language depend upon? A. logical. The left hemisphere of the brain is more involved in verbal functions than the right hemisphere.03 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 47. TRUE The left hemisphere is verbal. language. and speech. and speech. Section: 13. language. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. semantic C.02 Explain how the limbic system is involved in memory.03. skill Language depends on semantic memory. Bloom's Level: 1. and rational.46. Section: 13. Bloom's Level: 2. analytical. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13. Sensory receptors generate nerve signals.5 E.01 Describe the series of events during a spinal reflex. 3.5 Sensory receptors in the skin generate nerve signals that move along sensory fibers toward the spinal cord.4. Nerve signals travel along these motor fibers to an effector.3. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.4. There is a response to the stimulus. 1. 3.5 B. Cranial nerves arise from the brain and spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord. TRUE The PNS contains the nerves.1. Sensory neurons pass signals on to many interneurons.1. which brings about a response to the stimulus.2. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Describe the series of events during a spinal reflex. Sensory neurons pass signals to interneurons.3.04.4. Bloom's Level: 4.4. 2. Section: 13.1.5 C.2. Nerve signals travel along motor fibers to an effector.4. Interneurons synapse with motor neurons. The two types of nerves in the peripheral nervous system are cranial nerves and spinal nerves.04 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 49. Section: 13. 4.5 D.48.04. 2. 3. 1.04 Topic: Nervous System . A. 2.2.3. 5.1. Place the following steps in the correct order for a reflex arc. Some of the interneurons synapse with motor neurons. The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve. The cranial nerves are referred to by roman numerals. Cranial nerves are largely associated with the head. The somatic division of the PNS controls all of the following except A.01 Describe the series of events during a spinal reflex. Humans have 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Bloom's Level: 5.04.04. D. Humans have 31 pairs of cranial nerves.04 Topic: Nervous System 51. tendons. Cardiac muscle is controlled by the autonomic division of the PNS. Section: 13. skin. C. Bloom's Level: 2. and face. Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is not true? A.02 Distinguish between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system.50. Some cranial nerves are only sensory nerves. B. C. B. Others are mixed. Understand Learning Outcome: 13. D. skeletal muscles. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System . while some are only motor fibers. E. neck. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 13. heart muscle. 04 Topic: Nervous System 53. Both are voluntary. C. Both the somatic motor pathway and the parasympathetic division of the autonomic motor pathway use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. Both innervate the skeletal muscles. C.02 Distinguish between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system. E. Bloom's Level: 4. Both utilize two neurons per message. Section: 13. Both use norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter.04. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13. E. B.04. Both utilize two neurons per message. In which way are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic system similar? A.03 Distinguish between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic division. Bloom's Level: 4. Both utilize two neurons per message. B. Both innervate glands and organs. In what way are the somatic motor pathway and the parasympathetic autonomic motor pathway similar? A. Both use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. In both the preganglionic neuron is shorter than the postganglionic neuron. D. Both arise from the sacral spinal nerves.52. Section: 13. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13. Both are associated with the relaxed state (rest-and-digest). D.04 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions . 54. The postganglionic fiber in the parasympathetic division is long because the ganglia lie near or within the organ. FALSE The postganglionic fiber is short because the ganglia lie near or within the organ. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.04.03 Distinguish between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic division. Section: 13.04 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 55. Which of the following is a neuromodulator? A. substance P B. GABA C. acetylcholine D. dopamine E. serotonin Substance P is a neuromodulator. The rest are neurotransmitters. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05.01 Explain the ways that drugs interact with the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System 56. How does caffeine work? A. increases the amount of neurotransmitter at a synapse B. interferes with or decreases the action of a neurotransmitter C. replace or mimic a neurotransmitter D. replace or mimic a neuromodulator E. promote the action of a neurotransmitter Caffeine interferes with the effects of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the brain. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05.01 Explain the ways that drugs interact with the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 57. Dopamine plays a central role in the working of the brain's built-in reward circuit. TRUE The neurotransmitter dopamine is essential for mood regulation and plays a central role in the reward circuit. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.05.01 Explain the ways that drugs interact with the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 58. How is alcohol classified? A. stimulant B. depressant C. psychoactive In the central nervous system, alcohol acts as a depressant. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 13.05.02 Classify drugs as to whether they have a depressant, stimulant, or psychoactive effect on the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System 59. Which drug is in the same category as nicotine? A. cocaine B. alcohol C. heroin D. marijuana Nicotine and cocaine are both stimulants. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.05.02 Classify drugs as to whether they have a depressant, stimulant, or psychoactive effect on the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System 60. Which two drugs are in the same category? A. nicotine and alcohol B. nicotine and heroin C. alcohol and heroin D. cocaine and marijuana E. marijuana and heroin Both alcohol and heroin are depressants. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 13.05.02 Classify drugs as to whether they have a depressant, stimulant, or psychoactive effect on the nervous system. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System 61. Long term use of __________ results in damage to the frontal lobes, a decrease in overall brain size, and an increase in the size of the ventricles. A. alcohol B. nicotine C. cocaine D. heroin E. marijuana Alcohol affects the brain as described, and this brain damage is manifested by permanent memory loss, amnesia, confusion, apathy, disorientation, or lack of motor coordination. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05.03 List the long-term effects of drug use on the body. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System 62. Long term use of heroin results in which set of symptoms? A. weight gain, poor cognitive performance, irritability B. cardiac and/or respiratory arrest, sudden death C. apathy, euphoria, hallucinations D. addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various bacterial infections E. anxiety, jitters, insomnia, headaches Long term effects of heroin use are addiction and various infections because of shared needles. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 13.05.03 List the long-term effects of drug use on the body. Section: 13.05 Topic: Nervous System Chapter 13 Nervous System Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1. Remember 18 Bloom's Level: 2. Understand 26 Bloom's Level: 3. Apply 1 Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze 11 Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate 6 Learning Outcome: 13.01.01 Distinguish between the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system with regard t 5 o location and function. Learning Outcome: 13.01.02 List the three types of neurons and provide a function for each. 7 Learning Outcome: 13.01.03 Summarize the activities that generate an action potential. 6 Learning Outcome: 13.01.04 Summarize the propagation of an action potential across a neuron. 1 Learning Outcome: 13.01.05 Explain the process of synpatic integration with the synapse. 3 Learning Outcome: 13.01.06 Explain the role of neurotransmitters. 4 Learning Outcome: 13.02.01 Identify the structure of the spinal cord and provide a function for each. 4 Learning Outcome: 13.02.02 Identify the structures of the brain and provide a function for each. 5 Learning Outcome: 13.02.03 Identify the lobes and major areas of the human brain. 3 Learning Outcome: 13.02.04 Distinguish between the functions of the primary motor and the primary somatosensory areas 2 of the brain. Learning Outcome: 13.03.01 Identify the structures of the limbic system. 2 Learning Outcome: 13.03.02 Explain how the limbic system is involved in memory, language, and speech. 2 Learning Outcome: 13.03.03 Summarize the types of memory associated with the limbic system. 3 Learning Outcome: 13.04.01 Describe the series of events during a spinal reflex. 3 Learning Outcome: 13.04.02 Distinguish between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the peripheral nervous system. 2 Learning Outcome: 13.04.03 Distinguish between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic division 2 . Learning Outcome: 13.05.01 Explain the ways that drugs interact with the nervous system. 3 Learning Outcome: 13.05.02 Classify drugs as to whether they have a depressant, stimulant, or psychoactive effect on the 3 nervous system. Learning Outcome: 13.05.03 List the long-term effects of drug use on the body. 2 Section: 13.01 26 Section: 13.02 14 Section: 13.03 7 Section: 13.04 7 Section: 13.05 8 Topic: Nervous System 62 Chapter 14 Senses Multiple Choice Questions 1. When blood pressure increases, what type of sensory receptor detects this? A. an exteroceptor called a chemoreceptor B. an exteroceptor called a osmoreceptor C. an exteroceptor called a nociceptor D. an interoceptor called a baroreceptor E. an interoceptor called a chemoreceptor True / False Questions 2. Nociceptors are a type of chemoreceptor. True False Multiple Choice Questions 3. Where are thermoreceptors located? A. aorta and vena cava B. muscles, joints, and tendons C. hypothalamus and skin D. nasal cavity and tongue E. semicircular canals of the ear 4. What type of exteroceptors are located in the ear? A. mechanoreceptors B. chemoreceptors C. photoreceptors D. thermoreceptors True / False Questions 5. All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals. True False Multiple Choice Questions 6. If the nerves between the eyes and the ears were switched, stimulation of the mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in A. hearing sounds. B. seeing lights. C. both hearing sounds and seeing lights. True / False Questions 7. Taste and smell are similar in that both respond to some sort of pressure. True False Multiple Choice Questions 8. The summing up of nerve signals by _____________________ is called __________________. A. the reticular activating system, perception B. the cerebral cortex, sensation C. sensory receptors, sensation D. the cerebral cortex, perception E. sensory receptors, integration 9. When you entered the room, there was a faint smell of smoke, but after about an hour, you no longer noticed the smell. What happened? A. sensory reception B. sensory adaptation C. mechanoreception D. nociception E. thermoreception 10. Which part of the brain is involved in sensory adaptation? A. ventricles B. cerebellum C. medulla oblongata D. pons E. thalamus 11. What type of receptor is involved in reflex actions that maintain muscle tone and, thereby, the body's equilibrium and posture? A. proprioceptors B. cutaneous receptors C. pain receptors D. chemoreceptors E. nociceptors True / False Questions 12. Golgi tendon organs are a type of cutaneous receptor for touch. True False Multiple Choice Questions 13. Order the steps involved in the activity of a muscle spindle: 1. Muscle spindle is stretched. 2. Reflex action occurs. 3. Contraction of muscle fibers adjoining the muscle spindle. 4. Nerve signals are generated. 5. The muscle relaxes. 6. The muscle's length increases. A. 1,6,2,4,5,3 B. 2,3,1,4,5,6 C. 5,6,1,4,2,3 D. 2,1,6,3,4,5 E. 5,1,2,4,3,6 14. Which of the following is not a type of cutaneous receptor? A. Merkel disks B. Meissner corpuscles C. Krause end bulbs D. Pacinian corpuscles E. Golgi tendon organs 15. Which of the following cutaneous receptor is mismatched with its function? A. Pacinian corpuscles, fine touch B. Meissner corpuscles, fine touch C. Krause end bulbs, fine touch D. Ruffini endings, pressure E. free nerve endings, temperature True / False Questions 16. Sensory receptors of the skin are very distinct--each one has its own function. True False 17. Cold receptors are free nerve endings while warmth receptors are Merkel disks. True False Multiple Choice Questions 18. Why does a heart attack radiate pain in the left shoulder and arm? A. The left shoulder and arm are the first to lose their blood supply and begin to hurt. B. Sometimes, stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the skin. C. The nerves that innervate the heart go through the left shoulder and arm before going to the spinal cord. D. Damage to the heart muscle results in a flood of inflammatory products carried by the blood stream to the left shoulder and arm first. True / False Questions 19. Nociceptors are sensitive to mechanical, thermal, or electrical stimuli, or toxic substances. True False Multiple Choice Questions 20. Taste cells and the carotid bodies are alike in that both A. are chemoreceptors. B. are found in the mouth. C. utilize pressure to activate sensory receptors. D. respond to distant stimuli. E. respond to changes in pH. 21. Taste buds A. are located on the tongue, hard palate, pharynx, and epiglottis. B. are responsible for 100% of what we perceive as "taste." C. respond to over 100 different types of taste. D. are actually naked nerve endings. E. have a direct connection with the limbic system and its centers for emotion and memory. 22. The type of taste called umami allows us to enjoy what type of flavor? A. sweet B. savory C. sour D. salty E. bitter True / False Questions 23. There are many more olfactory cells than there are taste buds. True False Multiple Choice Questions 24. In what way are the senses of taste and smell different? A. Taste buds are modified neurons and olfactory cells contain a pore with supporting cells and elongated cells. B. Taste buds contain cilia while olfactory cells contain microvilli. C. Taste depends on a "weighted average" of all the taste messages while smell depends on the signature of olfactory cells stimulated. D. There are 100s of different tastes while only 5 different smell families. E. The sensation of taste occurs in the spinal cord while the sensation of smell occurs in the cerebral cortex. True / False Questions 25. Papillae occur along the walls of the taste buds on the tongue. True False Multiple Choice Questions 26. Which of the following statements is not true concerning olfactory cells? A. Olfactory cells are located in the roof of the nasal cavity. B. Olfactory cells are modified neurons. C. Each olfactory cell has only one out of several hundred different types of receptor proteins. D. Each olfactory cell has its own individual neuron leading to the olfactory bulb. E. Olfactory cells end in a tuft of about five cilia. True / False Questions 27. The receptor proteins for odor molecules are actually located on cilia. True False Multiple Choice Questions 28. Nerve signals from taste buds go primarily to the __________ while those for olfactory cells go primarily to the ___________. A. hypothalamus, thalamus B. thalamus, hypothalamus C. temporal lobe, parietal lobe D. spinal cord, cerebral cortex E. parietal lobe, temporal lobe True / False Questions 29. Memories are often elicited by smell. True False 30. One third of the cerebral cortex takes part in processing visual information. True False Multiple Choice Questions 31. Which of the following is not a layer or coat of the eye? A. sclera B. choroid C. retina D. aqueous humor 32. The rod and cone cells are located within which layer of the eye? A. sclera B. choroid C. retina 33. Which of the following structures of the eye does not touch the lens? A. cornea B. suspensory ligaments C. aqueous humor D. vitreous humor 34. Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply? A. sclera B. choroid C. retina 35. What controls the shape of the lens? A. ciliary muscle B. cornea C. iris D. pupil E. fovea centralis True / False Questions 36. As you try to focus on a far away object, the lens of the eye becomes round and thick. True False Multiple Choice Questions 37. When the ciliary muscle is relaxed, the suspensory ligament is A. taut and the lens is flattened. B. relaxed and the lens is flattened. C. taut and the lens is rounded. D. relaxed and the lens is rounded. 38. Which of the following statements is not true concerning rod and cone cells? A. Both have an outer segment jointed to an inner segment by a short stalk. B. Both contain a deep purple pigment called rhodopsin. C. Both have pigment molecules embedded in the membrane of the outer segment. D. Both contain retinal, a derivative of vitamin A. E. Both have synaptic vesicles at the synaptic endings of the inner segment. True / False Questions 39. It is just a myth that eating carrots will improve your night vision. True False Multiple Choice Questions 40. What is the correct order of cells within the retina starting in the posterior compartment and ending in the choroid? A. rod and cone cell layer, bipolar cell layer, ganglion cell layer B. sclera, rod and cone cell layer, ganglion cell layer C. bipolar cell layer, rod and cone cell layer, sclera D. ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell layer, rod and cone cell layer E. ganglion cell layer, rod and cone cell layer, sclera 41. Many rod cells share one bipolar cell but cone cells do not. Certain cone cells synapse with only one ganglion cell. What are the consequences of this arrangement? A. Rod cells distinguish color better than cone cells. B. Cone cells are better up close, while rod cells are better far away. C. Rod cells are better up close, while cone cells are better far away. D. Rod cells distinguish more detail than cone cells. E. Cone cells distinguish more detail than rod cells. 42. Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females? A. astigmatism B. farsightedness C. nearsightedness D. red green color blindness True / False Questions 43. Nearsighted people cannot see objects that are close. True False Multiple Choice Questions 44. In farsightedness, A. the cornea is uneven. B. rays do not focus evenly. C. rays focus in front of the retina. D. the eyeball is shorter than normal. E. a concave lens corrects vision. 45. Which of the following is part of the middle ear? A. pinna B. auditory canal C. malleus D. cochlea E. semicircular canals True / False Questions 46. All of the parts of the inner ear are concerned with equilibrium. True False Multiple Choice Questions 47. What structures, in order, are responsible for hearing, starting with a sound wave? A. auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlea B. cochlea, tympanic membrane, auditory canal, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window C. tympanic membrane, incus, stapes, malleus, oval window, cochlea, auditory canal D. auditory canal, oval window, stapes, incus, malleus, tympanic membrane, cochlea E. tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, auditory canal, cochlea, oval window 48. Which of the following is found within the cochlea? A. stapes B. spiral organ C. tympanic membrane D. semicircular canals E. incus True / False Questions 49. Hearing actually results from the bending of stereocilia. True False Multiple Choice Questions 50. How can you tell the difference between a tuba and a flute? A. Each part of the spiral organ is sensitive to different wave frequencies. B. The brain interprets pitches based on the strength of the sound waves. C. Lower pitches cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate while higher pitches vibrate the vestibular canal. D. Lower pitches activate all three bones of the middle ear, while higher pitches only activate one or two. E. The cochlear nerve fires more frequently for higher pitches and less frequently for lower pitches. True / False Questions 51. The louder a pitch, the more the basilar membrane vibrates. True False Multiple Choice Questions 52. The receptors involved in our sense of equilibrium are A. mechanoreceptors. B. chemoreceptors. C. nociceptors D. thermoreceptors E. pain receptors True / False Questions 53. The brain receives input from the proprioceptors, the eyes, and the vestibular nerve to help maintain our equilibrium. True False Multiple Choice Questions 54. Rotational and gravitational equilibrium both involve all of the following except A. stereocilia. B. hair cells. C. calcium carbonate granules. D. a gelatinous substance within a chamber. E. the vestibular nerve. 55. Which of the following is involved in rotational equilibrium? A. otoliths B. saccule C. utricle D. ampulla E. kinocilium 56. Which of the following is not involved in gravitational equilibrium? A. vestibular nerve B. saccule C. utricle D. otoliths E. cupula True / False Questions 57. If you get seasick, the rotational equilibrium pathway is confused. True False Multiple Choice Questions 58. If stereocilia move toward the kinocilium, which of the following occurs? A. Nerve impulses increase in the vestibular nerve. B. The cupula begins to move in the same direction. C. Fluid within the semicircular canal flows over and displaces the cupula. D. The otoliths in the utricle return to their resting position. E. The data is sent to the medulla oblongata for processing. The utricle is especially sensitive to what type of movements? A. standing upside D. up and down C.True / False Questions 59. Gravitational equilibrium is responsible for detecting up and down movements of the head. True False Multiple Choice Questions 60. spinning around . back and forth B. Bloom's Level: 2.Chapter 14 Senses Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. When blood pressure increases. Nociceptors are a type of chemoreceptor. an exteroceptor called a osmoreceptor C. an interoceptor called a chemoreceptor Interoceptors receive stimuli from inside the body. Bloom's Level: 2. an interoceptor called a baroreceptor E.01. Section: 14. what type of sensory receptor detects this? A. Baroreceptors respond to changes in pressure.01.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 2.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to.01 Topic: Nervous System . Section: 14. TRUE Nociceptors (pain receptors) are a type of chemoreceptor that respond to chemicals released by damaged tissues. an exteroceptor called a chemoreceptor B. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. an exteroceptor called a nociceptor D. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. and tendons C.01.Multiple Choice Questions 3. mechanoreceptors B. What type of exteroceptors are located in the ear? A. thermoreceptors Hair cells in the inner ear are mechanoreceptors. Section: 14. Section: 14. hypothalamus and skin D. aorta and vena cava B. semicircular canals of the ear Thermoreceptors are located in the hypothalamus and skin. photoreceptors D. joints. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. nasal cavity and tongue E.01.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. muscles.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Topic: Nervous System 4. chemoreceptors C.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. Where are thermoreceptors located? A. The sensation that results depends on the part of the brain receiving the nerve signals. All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals. C. If the nerves between the eyes and the ears were switched. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.02 Distinguish between perception and sensation.02 Distinguish between perception and sensation. both hearing sounds and seeing lights. hearing sounds.01. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 14. the result would be seeing lights. TRUE All sensory receptors do initiate nerve signals. Therefore. Stimulation of the mechanoreceptors would eventually arrive in the visual cortex if the nerves were switched. Bloom's Level: 2. seeing lights. B. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.01 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions .5. stimulation of the mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in A. Section: 14.01.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 6. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14. perception B. Taste and smell are similar in that both respond to some sort of pressure.01. the reticular activating system. sensation D. they also carry out integration. Bloom's Level: 2. perception E. Bloom's Level: 4. the cerebral cortex. A. The summing up of nerve signals by _____________________ is called __________________.01 Topic: Nervous System . Section: 14. sensory receptors. the summing up of signals. sensation C.03 Explain the purpose of integration and sensory adaptation. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. the cerebral cortex.7. integration Before sensory receptor initiate nerve signals.01 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 8. Section: 14. sensory receptors.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. FALSE Taste and smell both involve chemoreceptors which respond to chemical stimuli.01. a decrease in response to a continuing stimulus. pons E. thalamus The thalamus is the gatekeeper that passes on information to the cerebral cortex. there was a faint smell of smoke. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the purpose of integration and sensory adaptation. What happened? A. but after about an hour. nociception E. Bloom's Level: 2.01. Section: 14. Section: 14. Apply Learning Outcome: 14. When you entered the room. cerebellum C. medulla oblongata D.9. Which part of the brain is involved in sensory adaptation? A.01 Topic: Nervous System . occurred.01. you no longer noticed the smell.01 Topic: Nervous System 10. ventricles B. mechanoreception D.03 Explain the purpose of integration and sensory adaptation. sensory adaptation C. sensory reception B. Bloom's Level: 3. thermoreception Sensory adaptation. 02. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 12. the body's equilibrium and posture? A.02 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . Section: 14.11. proprioceptors B. chemoreceptors E.01 Distinguish between proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors with regard to function. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. Section: 14. cutaneous receptors C. pain receptors D.01 Distinguish between proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors with regard to function. Remember Learning Outcome: 14. Bloom's Level: 1.02. and posture. What type of receptor is involved in reflex actions that maintain muscle tone and. thereby. Golgi tendon organs are a type of cutaneous receptor for touch. They are a type of proprioceptor. nociceptors Proprioceptors are mechanoreceptors involved in reflex actions that maintain muscle tone. equilibrium. FALSE Golgi tendon organs are found in tendons and decrease muscle contraction. Bloom's Level: 2.5 E. 5. The muscle's length increases.3. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.2.6 C. Muscle spindle is stretched. Krause end bulbs D. Which of the following is not a type of cutaneous receptor? A.6.3 D.1.6 When the muscle relaxes and its length increases. Bloom's Level: 4.4. 6.3 B. Contraction of muscle fibers adjoining the muscle spindle.02. 3. Pacinian corpuscles E. 2. Section: 14.4. Section: 14. 5.4.4.13.6. A. The muscle relaxes.1.1.02. the muscle spindle is stretched and nerve signals are generated. 1. 4. Golgi tendon organs Golgi tendon organs are a type of proprioceptor. Reflex action occurs.01 Distinguish between proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors with regard to function.3.5.2.6. Order the steps involved in the activity of a muscle spindle: 1.02 Topic: Nervous System 14. Merkel disks B.2. Meissner corpuscles C. 2.3. Nerve signals are generated.4. A reflex action then occurs.1.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor.5. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. 2. which results in contraction of muscle fibers adjoining the muscle spindle.02 Topic: Nervous System . 5. but the two types have no known structural differences. Meissner corpuscles. pressure E. free nerve endings.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor. Krause end bulbs.02. Sensory receptors of the skin are very distinct--each one has its own function.02. Section: 14. Which of the following cutaneous receptor is mismatched with its function? A.02.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor. Pacinian corpuscles. but not completely. fine touch D. fine touch B. Bloom's Level: 5. Section: 14. Ruffini endings.02 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 16. specialized. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.02 Topic: Nervous System . Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14. Section: 14. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14. Bloom's Level: 4.15. FALSE It appears that the receptors of the skin are somewhat. FALSE Both cold and warmth receptors are free nerve endings. temperature Pacinian corpuscles are sensitive to pressure. Cold receptors are free nerve endings while warmth receptors are Merkel disks.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor. fine touch C.02 Topic: Nervous System 17. Bloom's Level: 4. 02 Topic: Nervous System . Damage to the heart muscle results in a flood of inflammatory products carried by the blood stream to the left shoulder and arm first. Stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the skin.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.Multiple Choice Questions 18. This is called referred pain. or toxic substances. thermal.03 Explain the role of nociceptors and summarize the type of sensory input that they detect. Bloom's Level: 3. stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the skin.02 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 19. The left shoulder and arm are the first to lose their blood supply and begin to hurt. Nociceptors are sensitive to mechanical. Section: 14. TRUE Any of these can cause inflammation and result in the release of chemicals by damaged tissues that activate the nociceptors. B.03 Explain the role of nociceptors and summarize the type of sensory input that they detect. Sometimes. or electrical stimuli. Bloom's Level: 2. Apply Learning Outcome: 14. Why does a heart attack radiate pain in the left shoulder and arm? A. Section: 14.02. D. as well as the internal organs. C. The nerves that innervate the heart go through the left shoulder and arm before going to the spinal cord. respond to changes in pH. are located on the tongue. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14. E. Section: 14. B. pharynx. respond to over 100 different types of taste. utilize pressure to activate sensory receptors. D. Taste buds A.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. but also on the hard palate. B. Taste cells and the carotid bodies are alike in that both A. E. and epiglottis.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. pharynx. are responsible for 100% of what we perceive as "taste.Multiple Choice Questions 20. Bloom's Level: 5. C. The approximately 3000 taste buds are located primarily on the tongue. are chemoreceptors. D. are actually naked nerve endings. Section: 14. Both taste cells and carotid bodies are chemoreceptors.03 Topic: Nervous System .03." C. Bloom's Level: 4.03. have a direct connection with the limbic system and its centers for emotion and memory. and epiglottis. respond to distant stimuli. hard palate. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.03 Topic: Nervous System 21. are found in the mouth. 03 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . Section: 14.03.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. savory C. bitter Umami allows us to enjoy the savory flavors of certain cheeses.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. There are many more olfactory cells than there are taste buds. TRUE There are between 10 and 20 million olfactory cells and approximately 3000 taste buds. and mushrooms.22.03 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 23. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.03. The type of taste called umami allows us to enjoy what type of flavor? A. beef. salty E. Bloom's Level: 4. sour D. sweet B. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 14. 03. B.03. Section: 14. In what way are the senses of taste and smell different? A. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Identify the structures of the tongue and olfactory areas of the nose.24. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14. A "weighted average" of all taste messages is used by the brain as the perceived taste. FALSE Taste buds occur along the walls of the papillae on the tongue.03 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 25. Section: 14. Papillae occur along the walls of the taste buds on the tongue. E. There are 100s of different tastes while only 5 different smell families. D. C. An odor contains many odor molecules. The sensation of taste occurs in the spinal cord while the sensation of smell occurs in the cerebral cortex.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. Taste buds contain cilia while olfactory cells contain microvilli. Bloom's Level: 4. Taste depends on a "weighted average" of all the taste messages while smell depends on the signature of olfactory cells stimulated. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. Taste buds are modified neurons and olfactory cells contain a pore with supporting cells and elongated cells. which activate a characteristic combination of receptor proteins.03 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . 03 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . TRUE Each olfactory cell ends in a tuft of about five olfactory cilia. which bear receptor proteins for odor molecules. Each olfactory cell has only one out of several hundred different types of receptor proteins. Section: 14. Which of the following statements is not true concerning olfactory cells? A. Section: 14.02 Identify the structures of the tongue and olfactory areas of the nose. Olfactory cells end in a tuft of about five cilia.03. Olfactory cells are located in the roof of the nasal cavity. B. E. Nerve fibers from similar olfactory cells lead to the same neuron in the olfactory bulb.26. Bloom's Level: 2. D.03 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 27. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. Bloom's Level: 5. The receptor proteins for odor molecules are actually located on cilia. Olfactory cells are modified neurons.02 Identify the structures of the tongue and olfactory areas of the nose. Each olfactory cell has its own individual neuron leading to the olfactory bulb. C.03. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14. .03 Summarize how the brain receives taste and odor information. while the olfactory cortex is located in the temporal lobe.28.04.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. A. Bloom's Level: 3. Remember Learning Outcome: 14. Bloom's Level: 1. hypothalamus C.03 Topic: Nervous System 30. parietal lobe. Section: 14. spinal cord.03. Memories are often elicited by smell. One third of the cerebral cortex takes part in processing visual information. Bloom's Level: 2.03. thalamus B. hypothalamus. TRUE The olfactory bulbs have direct connections with the limbic system and its centers for emotion and memory. temporal lobe Taste signals reach the taste cortex. thalamus.03 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 29. TRUE Researchers estimate that at least a third of the cerebral cortex takes part in processing visual information. Section: 14. Nerve signals from taste buds go primarily to the __________ while those for olfactory cells go primarily to the ___________. parietal lobe D. Apply Learning Outcome: 14. temporal lobe. located primarily in the parietal lobe. cerebral cortex E.03 Summarize how the brain receives taste and odor information. 04. sclera B. choroid C.04 Topic: Nervous System 32. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. aqueous humor The aqueous humor fills the eye but is not one of the layers of the eye. retina Rod cells and cone cells are located within the retina. Section: 14.Section: 14. The rod and cone cells are located within which layer of the eye? A. Bloom's Level: 2.04. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. Which of the following is not a layer or coat of the eye? A. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 31. retina D.04 Topic: Nervous System . sclera B. choroid C.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 14. pupil E. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. sclera B. Bloom's Level: 4. aqueous humor D. and its dark pigment absorbs stray light rays. cornea C. cornea B. Understand .04 Topic: Nervous System 35. vitreous humor The cornea does not touch the lens. which separates the anterior compartment filled with aqueous humor from the posterior compartment filled with vitreous humor. Which of the following structures of the eye does not touch the lens? A.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. contains an extensive blood supply. suspensory ligaments C.01 Identify the structures of the human eye. fovea centralis The ciliary muscle within the ciliary body controls the shape of the lens. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14. choroid C. Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply? A.04 Topic: Nervous System 34.33. retina The middle layer. the choroid. Section: 14.04. The suspensory ligaments hold the lens.04. ciliary muscle B. iris D. What controls the shape of the lens? A. 02 Explain how the eye focuses on near and far objects. the suspensory ligament is A.Learning Outcome: 14.04. the lens of the eye becomes round and thick. Section: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 36.04 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 37.02 Explain how the eye focuses on near and far objects. FALSE As you view a distant object. taut and the lens is rounded. taut and the lens is flattened. relaxed and the lens is rounded. Apply Learning Outcome: 14. Section: 14. When the ciliary muscle is relaxed. When the ciliary muscle is relaxed. the ciliary muscle relaxes. Apply Learning Outcome: 14. this causes the suspensory ligament to become taut and the lens remains flattened. B.04.02 Explain how the eye focuses on near and far objects. and the lens remains relatively flat. As you try to focus on a far away object. D. relaxed and the lens is flattened. Section: 14. Bloom's Level: 3.04 Topic: Nervous System .04. Bloom's Level: 3. C. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 39. Both have pigment molecules embedded in the membrane of the outer segment. Section: 14. Section: 14. Bloom's Level: 5. Both have synaptic vesicles at the synaptic endings of the inner segment. Which of the following statements is not true concerning rod and cone cells? A.04.04. a derivative of vitamin A. D. FALSE Carrots are rich in vitamin A. It is just a myth that eating carrots will improve your night vision.38.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. C. Rod cells contain rhodopsin but cone cells do not. Apply Learning Outcome: 14.04 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . so it is true that eating carrots can improve your night vision. Bloom's Level: 3. Both have an outer segment jointed to an inner segment by a short stalk. E. Both contain a deep purple pigment called rhodopsin. B. Both contain retinal.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. rod and cone cell layer. while rod cells are better far away.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. rod and cone cell layer. What is the correct order of cells within the retina starting in the posterior compartment and ending in the choroid? A. B. Rod cells distinguish more detail than cone cells. sclera D. C. Bloom's Level: 2. followed by the bipolar cell layer. rod and cone cell layer. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14. ganglion cell layer C. What are the consequences of this arrangement? A. ganglion cell layer. Many rod cells share one bipolar cell but cone cells do not. Section: 14. while cone cells are better far away. Cone cells.04. Rod cells distinguish color better than cone cells. bipolar cell layer. Bloom's Level: 5.04 Topic: Nervous System . ganglion cell layer B. sclera The ganglion cell layer is innermost (next to the posterior compartment). ganglion cell layer. bipolar cell layer. Cone cells distinguish more detail than rod cells.40. sclera. Cone cells are better up close.04 Topic: Nervous System 41. and the rod and cone cell layer. rod and cone cell layer E. Rod cells are better up close. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. rod and cone cell layer. Certain cone cells synapse with only one ganglion cell. E. D. Section: 14.04. bipolar cell layer.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. distinguish more detail than rod cells due to the arrangement of the neural connections. The sclera is not part of the retina. in general. Section: 14. Bloom's Level: 1. FALSE Nearsighted people can see close objects better than they can see objects at a distance.04 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . nearsightedness D. astigmatism B. Bloom's Level: 2. Remember Learning Outcome: 14. farsightedness C.04. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.42. red green color blindness Red green color blindness is caused by a genetic mutation that affects 5-8% of the male population.04 Summarize the abnormalities of the eye that produce vision problems. Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females? A.04. Section: 14. Nearsighted people cannot see objects that are close.04 Summarize the abnormalities of the eye that produce vision problems.04 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 43. semicircular canals The malleus is a bone in the middle ear. D. the cornea is uneven. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.44. B.04 Summarize the abnormalities of the eye that produce vision problems. Section: 14. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14.04. A. rays do not focus evenly. rays focus in front of the retina. C. Which of the following is part of the middle ear? A. Bloom's Level: 4. pinna B. cochlea E.04 Topic: Nervous System 45.01 Identify the structures of the ear that are involved in hearing. malleus D. auditory canal C. In farsightedness. Section: 14.05. E. In farsightedness. Bloom's Level: 2. the eyeball is shorter than normal and rays focus behind the retina when viewing close objects.05 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions . a concave lens corrects vision. the eyeball is shorter than normal. auditory canal. malleus. FALSE The semicircular canals and the vestibule are concerned with equilibrium. starting with a sound wave? A. tympanic membrane. tympanic membrane. incus. cochlea. stapes. malleus. incus. tympanic membrane. which passes pressure to the fluid of the cochlea. tympanic membrane. malleus. auditory canal. Section: 14.01 Identify the structures of the ear that are involved in hearing.05 Topic: Nervous System .05 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 47.05. incus. incus. stapes. cochlea B. malleus. The malleus strikes the oval window. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14. auditory canal. incus. auditory canal. but the cochlea is concerned with hearing. What structures. cochlea. stapes.02 Summarize how sound waves are converted into nerve signals. All of the parts of the inner ear are concerned with equilibrium. auditory canal D. This causes the malleus. malleus. stapes. are responsible for hearing. oval window. Bloom's Level: 4. oval window Sound waves enter the auditory canal and strike the tympanic membrane. Section: 14. oval window. cochlea E.46. Bloom's Level: 4. oval window. tympanic membrane. cochlea. in order. and stapes to vibrate. stapes. incus.05. oval window C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14. 02 Summarize how sound waves are converted into nerve signals.05. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14. TRUE Stereocilia of the hair cells embedded in the tectorial membrane bend. spiral organ C.05.05 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 14.48.02 Summarize how sound waves are converted into nerve signals. tympanic membrane D.05 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 49. Which of the following is found within the cochlea? A. stapes B. incus The sense organ for hearing. Bloom's Level: 2. Hearing actually results from the bending of stereocilia. is located in the cochlear canal. semicircular canals E. Section: 14. Bloom's Level: 5. and this initiates nerve signals that are interpreted as sound. called the spiral organ. Section: 14. Section: 14. The cochlear nerve fires more frequently for higher pitches and less frequently for lower pitches. The spiral organ responds to low pitches near the tip and to higher pitches near the base.05 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 51. Analyze Learning Outcome: 14. TRUE Loud noises cause the fluid within the vestibular canal to exert more pressure and the basilar membrane to vibrate to a greater extent. The brain interprets pitches based on the strength of the sound waves. while higher pitches only activate one or two. Section: 14.03 Describe the pathway of sensory information from the ear to the brain. Each part of the spiral organ is sensitive to different wave frequencies. C. Bloom's Level: 4. Understand Learning Outcome: 14.05. B.05 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . Lower pitches cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate while higher pitches vibrate the vestibular canal. Lower pitches activate all three bones of the middle ear. E. D.05. the more the basilar membrane vibrates. Bloom's Level: 2. How can you tell the difference between a tuba and a flute? A. The louder a pitch.03 Describe the pathway of sensory information from the ear to the brain.50. Each part of the spiral organ is sensitive to different wave frequencies. mechanoreceptors. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. C. Section: 14.06. The brain receives input from the proprioceptors. B. TRUE All three of these provide information to the brain about our equilibrium.01 Explain how mechanoreceptors are involved in the sense of equilibrium. nociceptors D.06. and the vestibular nerve to help maintain our equilibrium. Bloom's Level: 1.06 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 53. pain receptors Mechanoreceptors are located within the inner ear and are responsible for our sense of balance. chemoreceptors.06 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions . Remember Learning Outcome: 14. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 14.01 Explain how mechanoreceptors are involved in the sense of equilibrium. The receptors involved in our sense of equilibrium are A. thermoreceptors E.52. the eyes. D. hair cells.06. utricle D. Bloom's Level: 5. vestibular nerve B.06 Topic: Nervous System 55. Rotational and gravitational equilibrium both involve all of the following except A. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. Which of the following is involved in rotational equilibrium? A.01 Explain how mechanoreceptors are involved in the sense of equilibrium. a gelatinous substance within a chamber. C.06 Topic: Nervous System 56.54. stereocilia.06. cupula The cupula is involved in rotational equilibrium. E. calcium carbonate granules.02 Identify the structures of the ear involved in the sense of equilibrium. saccule C. Which of the following is not involved in gravitational equilibrium? A. kinocilium Bloom's Level: 2. ampulla E. saccule C. B. Section: 14. Section: 14. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14. the vestibular nerve. utricle D. Only gravitational equilibrium involves calcium carbonate granules called otoliths. otoliths B. otoliths E. Understand . Bloom's Level: 2. 03 Distinguish between rotational and gravitational equilibrium.06 Topic: Nervous System True / False Questions 57. If stereocilia move toward the kinocilium. Nerve impulses increase in the vestibular nerve and the brain interprets these as motion. The data is sent to the medulla oblongata for processing. Nerve impulses increase in the vestibular nerve. The otoliths in the utricle return to their resting position.06. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 58. Apply Learning Outcome: 14. D. the rotational equilibrium pathway is confused. B. The cupula begins to move in the same direction. C.06.06 Topic: Nervous System .02 Identify the structures of the ear involved in the sense of equilibrium. Fluid within the semicircular canal flows over and displaces the cupula. Section: 14. FALSE Seasickness is a result of confusion in the gravitational equilibrium pathway. Section: 14. which of the following occurs? A. E.06. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 14. Bloom's Level: 3. If you get seasick.02 Identify the structures of the ear involved in the sense of equilibrium.Learning Outcome: 14. Bloom's Level: 5. standing upside D. Understand Learning Outcome: 14. Section: 14. TRUE Gravitational equilibrium detects movement in the vertical or horizontal planes.06.03 Distinguish between rotational and gravitational equilibrium. Bloom's Level: 2. The utricle is especially sensitive to what type of movements? A. up and down C. Gravitational equilibrium is responsible for detecting up and down movements of the head. Remember Learning Outcome: 14. Section: 14.06 Topic: Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 60. back and forth B.03 Distinguish between rotational and gravitational equilibrium. spinning around The utricle is especially sensitive to horizontal or back and forth movements and the bending of the head.True / False Questions 59. Bloom's Level: 1.06.06 Topic: Nervous System . 04 Summarize the abnormalities of the eye that produce vision problems.02.01 List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what each responds to. 2 Learning Outcome: 14.02 Identify the structures of the ear involved in the sense of equilibrium.02 Identify the structures of the tongue and olfactory areas of the nose. 5 Learning Outcome: 14. 5 Learning Outcome: 14. 3 Learning Outcome: 14.04.02 Summarize how sound waves are converted into nerve signals. 2 Learning Outcome: 14. 2 Learning Outcome: 14. 4 Learning Outcome: 14.01.01 Distinguish between proprioceptors and cutaneous receptors with regard to function. 3 Learning Outcome: 14. 3 Learning Outcome: 14.04.06. Understand 27 Bloom's Level: 3.01.04 15 Section: 14.02 9 Section: 14. 3 Learning Outcome: 14. 4 Learning Outcome: 14.05 7 Section: 14.03.02. 3 Learning Outcome: 14.05.06.03 Summarize how the brain receives taste and odor information.02 Explain how the eye focuses on near and far objects.03 Describe the role of photoreceptors in vision. 5 Learning Outcome: 14. 3 Section: 14.02 State the location and general function of each type of cutaneous receptor. 2 Learning Outcome: 14. Remember 5 Bloom's Level: 2. 2 Learning Outcome: 14. Apply 8 Bloom's Level: 4.03 Distinguish between rotational and gravitational equilibrium.01 Explain how mechanoreceptors are involved in the sense of equilibrium.04.03 Explain the purpose of integration and sensory adaptation. Analyze 12 Bloom's Level: 5.05.01.01 Identify the structures of the human eye.06. 3 Learning Outcome: 14. 3 Learning Outcome: 14.05.02.03 Describe the pathway of sensory information from the ear to the brain.03.01 Identify the structures of the ear that are involved in hearing.01 Compare and contrast the senses of taste and smell. Evaluate 8 Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the role of nociceptors and summarize the type of sensory input that they detect. 3 Learning Outcome: 14.01 10 Section: 14.03.03 10 Section: 14.02 Distinguish between perception and sensation.Chapter 14 Senses Summary Category # of Questions Bloom's Level: 1.04.06 9 Topic: Nervous System 60 . D. True / False Questions 2. C. Which of the following statements about hormones is not true? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 3. How are the nervous system and the endocrine system alike? A. E. They both regulate the activities of other systems. Hormones are carried by the bloodstream. The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system.Chapter 15 Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 1. D. C. They both have an very prolonged response to stimuli. Hormones are secreted by axons. They both utilize axons and synapses. It takes time to deliver hormones to the cells. B. B. E. They both respond very rapidly to stimuli. . They both utilize glands. Hormones are targeted to specific organs within the body. The effects of hormones are long lasting. salivary glands C. thyroid 7. because it is located within the abdominal cavity with ties to the gastrointestinal system . thymus D.True / False Questions 4. True False Multiple Choice Questions 5. Both endocrine and exocrine glands have ducts. testes E. adrenal gland 6. because it produces more than one hormone C. Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland? A. because it has an outer cortex and an inner medulla E. adrenal cortex E. parathyroids B. heart B. even though that is not a primary function of the organ? A. because it produces both a neurotransmitter and a hormone B. Which of the following is an exocrine gland? A. ovaries D. testes C. Which of the following organs also produce hormones. because it produces at least one hormone that is delivered through a duct and one that is delivered to the bloodstream D. peptides C. adrenal cortex C. pineal E. Which organ does not produce steroid hormones? A. adrenal D. glycoproteins E. proteins D. thymus True / False Questions 9. ovaries D.8. pineal gland B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 10. modified amino acids 11. humans have not been shown to make them. cholesterol B. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland? A. testes . dudodenum B. pituitary C. Which of the following is the basis for steroid hormones? A. Although other animals produce pheromones. The hypothalamus regulates the internal environment of the body. thyroid stimulating hormone D. initiate gene expression. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the hypothalamus? A. Peptide hormones A. C. The hypothalamus communicates with the somatic nervous system. are able to pass through the membrane and bind to a receptor in the cytoplasm. act much more slowly than steroid hormones. C. True / False Questions 14. The hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary communicate via a portal system. The hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin. oxytocin . adrenocorticotropic hormone E. B. D. The hypothalamus controls the glandular secretions of the pituitary gland. D. Which of the following hormones is not produced by the anterior pituitary? A.12. True False Multiple Choice Questions 15. growth hormone C. E. prolactin B. E. are composed of a complex of 4 carbon rings. The hypothalamus acts as the link between the nervous and endocrine systems. bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane. B. 13. 16. C. FSH--gonads C. E. How are the posterior pituitary and anterior pituitary similar? A. ACTH C. ACTH--adrenal cortex D. growth hormone D. Which of the following hormones is mis-paired with its target organ? A. gonadotropic hormone 18. prolactin B. Both produce three or more hormones. TSH--thyroid B. Which of the following does not? A. Both are connected to the hypothalamus via a portal system. LH--kidney E. antidiuretic hormone E. 19. gonadotropic hormone . TSH E. Which of the following hormones is controlled by positive feedback? A. Both produce releasing and inhibiting hormones. LH B. Both are controlled by the hypothalamus. D. oxytocin C. Both produce hormones that control other glands. growth hormone D. Gonadotropic hormones--testes and ovaries 17. B. Some of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary have an effect on other glands. four E. Growth hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary. C. near the ovaries or testes. E. Too much growth hormone results in giantism. five 23. in the neck. B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 22. three D.20. Growth hormone can be administered as a medical treatment for stature problems. in the brain. Which of the following statements is not true about growth hormone? A. The quantity of growth hormone is greatest during childhood and adolescence. Giants usually have poor healthy because they often have diabetes mellitus. How many iodine atoms are in thyroxine? A. E. D. C. The thyroid gland is located A. Too little growth hormone results in dwarfism. D. near the small intestines. two C. . on top of the kidneys. True / False Questions 21. B. one B. bones B. calcium D. phosphate C. sodium B. The hormone produced by the parathryoid gland influences the blood level of what to rise? A. vitamin D B. glucose E. intestines E.24. thyroid gland C. calcium . kidneys E. A. Which of the following is not involved in blood calcium homeostasis? A. vitamin B D. bones B. cholesterol 25. kidneys D. vitamin C C. Which of the following does not act to increase the amount of calcium in the blood? A. Parathyroid hormone also activates ___________ in the kidneys. cholesterol E. parathyroid hormone 27. parathyroid glands D. posterior pituitary 26. calcitonin C. Where are the adrenal glands located? A. difficulty with speech. short and stocky. What are the symptoms of myxedema? A. simple goiter D. norepinephrine C. blurred vision 30. weight gain. mineralocorticoids 31. A person with congenital hypothroidism will exhibit what symptoms? A. myxedema B. possible mental retardation E. glucagon D. in the brain B. puffiness D. exopthalmic goiter C. near the ovaries/testes E. glucocorticoids E. an eye that protrudes from the eye socket B. tetany 29. in the neck C. shaking. tremors in the hands.28. Which of the following is not produced by the adrenal glands? A. epinephrine B. near the small intestine True / False Questions . a mass in the throat C. on top of the kidneys D. lethargy. balance difficulties E. The adrenal medulla controls the short term response to stress by A. reducing inflammation. Both the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex are under control of hormones produced by the anterior pituitary hormone and hypothalamus. The adrenal cortex provides a slower but long-term stress response in comparison to the adrenal medulla. D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 33. increasing blood volume. True / False Questions 34. suppressing immune cells. B.32. True False Multiple Choice Questions . E. raising blood glucose levels. breaking down protein and fat. C. The pancreas is located near the small intestine. D. loss of sodium and water E. epinephrine C. Proteins and fat are broken down. increased blood sugar levels 38. Which of the following is a result of mineralocorticoid release? A. The pancreas is a fish-shaped organ. Blood volume and pressure increase. D.35. renin 37. The pancreas is not under pituitary control. aldosterone D. Glucose is not broken down. Which of the following is a glucocorticoid? A. C. mild infections can lead to death D. bronzing of the skin C. norepinephrine B. Which of the following is not a symptom of Addison disease? A. low blood pressure B. B. Which of the following statements about the pancreas is not true? A. Inflammation is reduced. B. E. True / False Questions . cortisol E. E. The immune cells are suppressed. The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon. 36. C. The pancreatic islets are the exocrine tissue. True False Multiple Choice Questions 41. Glucose is taken up by the cells. insulin secretion would occur. E. muscle C.39. C. liver B. It is possible to distinguish exocrine from endocrine tissue in the pancreas under the light microscope. Tissue stores of glucose are depleted. True False . stomach E. Glycogen can be broken down to increase blood glucose levels. B. adipose tissue D. 42. The blood glucose level rises. D. Which of the following is not involved in blood glucose homeostasis? A. True False 40. what happens? A. When insulin is secreted. Right after eating a candy bar. but fat cannot be. The liver breaks down glycogen. Adipose tissue breaks down fat. glucagon True / False Questions 43. Multiple Choice Questions 44. The body does not produce glucagon in both. How are type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus similar? A. The number of glucose carriers is too low in both. Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions . C. Most of the diabetics in the United States have type 1 diabetes. The body does not produce insulin in both. B. True / False Questions 45. True False Yes / No Questions 46. The blood glucose levels are very high in both. Both are a result of obesity. E. D. ovaries E. thymus gland--thymosins D. in the neck B. Which gland produces melatonin? A.47. Where is the thymus gland located? A. ovaries--estrogen C. near the ovaries/testes E. pineal gland D. in the chest D. pineal gland--melatonin E. True False Multiple Choice Questions . testes--androgens True / False Questions 50. ovaries--follicle-stimulating hormone B. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is involved in the regulation of both the testes and the ovaries. in the brain C. on top of the kidneys 49. Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its producing gland? A. testes B. adrenal glands 48. thymus gland C. prostaglandins D.51. regulate blood glucose levels B. small intestine D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . What is the function of melatonin? A. thymus E. regulate blood calcium levels C. leptin True / False Questions 54. kidney B. erythropoietin E. Which of the following secretes erythropoietin? A. heart C. epinephrine B. thalamus 53. control the daily sleep-wake cycle E. control the color of the skin 52. follicle-stimulating hormone C. aid in the differentiation of T lymphocytes D. Which hormone triggers satiety? A. The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine. Are there any systems that the nervous and endocrine systems do not control? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions . mineralocorticoids. C. Sometimes this can be treated with A. nervous system True / False Questions 57. anterior pituitary D. Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of the reproductive system? A. D. In comparing the functions of the nervous and endocrine system in controlling the body. the nervous system is better able to respond to changes in the external environment. luteinizing hormone. True False Yes / No Questions 58. Jamie suffers from heartburn. B. 56. aldosterone. prostaglandins. adrenal gland B.55. E. thymosin. hypothalamus C. testes/ovaries E. both the nervous and the endocrine system True / False Questions 60. True False .59. Usually you are consciously aware of the governance of your internal organs by the nervous and endocrine system. the nervous system B. Which system does the hypothalamus belong to? A. the endocrine system C. E. How are the nervous system and the endocrine system alike? A. They both utilize axons and synapses. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Distinguish between the mode of action of a neurotransmitter and that of a hormone. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. They both utilize glands. Section: 15. Both the nervous and endocrine system regulate the activities of other systems. C. D.01 Topic: Endocrine System . TRUE The endocrine produces hormones that have a slower. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.01 Distinguish between the mode of action of a neurotransmitter and that of a hormone.01. They both have an very prolonged response to stimuli. They both respond very rapidly to stimuli.01 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions 2. Section: 15. The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system. B.Chapter 15 Endocrine System Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. more prolonged response than the nervous system. They both regulate the activities of other systems.01. 01 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions . C. Hormones are secreted by axons. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. Hormones are carried by the bloodstream. not axons. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions 4.01. Which of the following statements about hormones is not true? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. B. Neurotransmitters are secreted by axons. E. Both endocrine and exocrine glands have ducts. It takes time to deliver hormones to the cells. FALSE Exocrine glands have ducts but endocrine glands secrete their products into the bloodstream.Multiple Choice Questions 3.02 Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands. Hormones are secreted by glands.01.01 Distinguish between the mode of action of a neurotransmitter and that of a hormone. Hormones are targeted to specific organs within the body. Bloom's Level: 5. Section: 15. Section: 15. D. The effects of hormones are long lasting. Section: 15.03 Identify the organs and glands of the endocrine system. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2. salivary glands C. although that is not the primary function of these organs. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15. ovaries D. testes C. testes E. parathyroids B. adrenal cortex E.01.01 Topic: Endocrine System 6.01 Topic: Endocrine System . Which of the following is an exocrine gland? A. adrenal gland The salivary glands secrete their product into the mouth by way of the salivary ducts.5.02 Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands.01. even though that is not a primary function of the organ? A. Which of the following organs also produce hormones. thymus D. heart B. GI tract. and heart produce hormones. thyroid The kidneys. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15. dudodenum B. Bloom's Level: 4.03 Identify the organs and glands of the endocrine system. because it is located within the abdominal cavity with ties to the gastrointestinal system An exocrine gland delivers its product through a duct and an endocrine gland delivers its product to the bloodstream. Bloom's Level: 4. because it has an outer cortex and an inner medulla E. Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland? A. The pancreas has both. pituitary C.02 Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands.01 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions . Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. adrenal D. because it produces more than one hormone C.01.01 Topic: Endocrine System 8. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland? A.01. Section: 15. because it produces both a neurotransmitter and a hormone B.7. pineal E. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. thymus The duodenum is not an endocrine gland. because it produces at least one hormone that is delivered through a duct and one that is delivered to the bloodstream D. and testes produce steroid hormones. ovaries D. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15. glycoproteins E.01 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 10. Bloom's Level: 1.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. Which of the following is the basis for steroid hormones? A.01 .01. pineal gland B. FALSE Humans make pheromones too.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. modified amino acids Bloom's Level: 2.01.01. Section: 15. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Which organ does not produce steroid hormones? A. Although other animals produce pheromones. testes Only the adrenal cortex.9. proteins D.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. humans have not been shown to make them. adrenal cortex C. cholesterol B. ovaries. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 15. peptides C.01 Topic: Endocrine System 11. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. The hypothalamus regulates the internal environment of the body. bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane.01.Topic: Endocrine System 12. act much more slowly than steroid hormones. Section: 15. Section: 15. D. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the hypothalamus? A. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. The hypothalamus communicates with the somatic nervous system. The hypothalamus controls the glandular secretions of the pituitary gland. C. Bloom's Level: 5.02 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions .02. E. C. Peptide hormones bind to receptors in the plasma membrane to exert their effect. E. B. B.01 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system. The hypothalamus acts as the link between the nervous and endocrine systems. initiate gene expression. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. Bloom's Level: 5. Peptide hormones A. are able to pass through the membrane and bind to a receptor in the cytoplasm. D.01 Topic: Endocrine System 13. The hypothalamus communicates with the autonomic nervous system. The hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. are composed of a complex of 4 carbon rings. consisting of two capillary systems connected by a vein. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System . Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 15.14. oxytocin Oxytocin is secreted by the hypothalamus.01 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Bloom's Level: 2. TRUE A portal system.02. and provide a function for each.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands. growth hormone C. prolactin B. Which of the following hormones is not produced by the anterior pituitary? A. thyroid stimulating hormone D.02. Section: 15. lies between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. adrenocorticotropic hormone E. The hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary communicate via a portal system. 02. Section: 15.02 Topic: Endocrine System 17. ACTH--adrenal cortex D. stimulates the gonads. and provide a function for each. TSH E. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands. Which of the following does not? A.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands. Bloom's Level: 2. gonadotropic hormone Growth hormone promotes skeletal and muscular growth and does not act on another gland. LH--kidney E. Bloom's Level: 4. growth hormone D. FSH--gonads C.16. TSH--thyroid B. luteinizing hormone. ACTH C.02 Topic: Endocrine System . LH B. and provide a function for each. Gonadotropic hormones--testes and ovaries LH. Which of the following hormones is mis-paired with its target organ? A.02. Some of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary have an effect on other glands. Both produce three or more hormones.18.02 Topic: Endocrine System 19. Both produce releasing and inhibiting hormones. and provide a function for each. How are the posterior pituitary and anterior pituitary similar? A. Both are controlled by the hypothalamus. oxytocin C. gonadotropic hormone Oxytocin is controlled by positive feedback. E. Which of the following hormones is controlled by positive feedback? A. Section: 15.02. growth hormone D. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. Both are connected to the hypothalamus via a portal system. antidiuretic hormone E. D.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands. Both the anterior and posterior pituitary are controlled by the hypothalamus. prolactin B. C.02.02 Topic: Endocrine System . which brings about an effect of ever increasing intensity. and provide a function for each. B. Bloom's Level: 5. Both produce hormones that control other glands. Section: 15.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. Bloom's Level: 1. E. Section: 15. Bloom's Level: 5. Growth hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary. B.02 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions . Which of the following statements is not true about growth hormone? A.03 Summarize the conditions produced by excessive and inadequate levels of growth hormone. and so giants usually have diabetes mellitus. D. Too much growth hormone results in giantism. Growth hormone can be administered as a medical treatment for stature problems.03 Summarize the conditions produced by excessive and inadequate levels of growth hormone. TRUE Growth hormone has a secondary effect on the blood sugar level. Too little growth hormone results in dwarfism.02 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions 21. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Growth hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary.20.02.02. C. Giants usually have poor healthy because they often have diabetes mellitus. The quantity of growth hormone is greatest during childhood and adolescence. Section: 15. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. near the small intestines. Bloom's Level: 1. in the neck. C.01 List the hormones produced by the thyroid and parathyroid glands and provide a function for each.03 Topic: Endocrine System 23. near the ovaries or testes. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. three D. five Thyroxine contains four iodine atoms. B.03 Topic: Endocrine System . D. Section: 15. one B. Section: 15. attached to the trachea. four E. in the brain. on top of the kidneys.03. two C. The thyroid gland is located in the neck. How many iodine atoms are in thyroxine? A. The thyroid gland is located A. E. Bloom's Level: 1.22.03. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.01 List the hormones produced by the thyroid and parathyroid glands and provide a function for each. 03. thyroid gland C. parathyroid glands D. glucose E.03 Topic: Endocrine System 25. Which of the following is not involved in blood calcium homeostasis? A. The hormone produced by the parathryoid gland influences the blood level of what to rise? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Bloom's Level: 2.01 List the hormones produced by the thyroid and parathyroid glands and provide a function for each. Section: 15.03 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis . Analyze Learning Outcome: 15.02 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that is involved in the maintenance of blood calcium homeostasis. Section: 15. calcium D. kidneys E. Bloom's Level: 4.24. sodium B. posterior pituitary All are involved in blood calcium homeostasis except for the posterior pituitary. bones B. cholesterol Parathyroid hormone.03. causes the blood calcium level to rise. produced by the parathyroid gland. phosphate C. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15. cholesterol E. vitamin D B.02 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that is involved in the maintenance of blood calcium homeostasis. Which of the following does not act to increase the amount of calcium in the blood? A. vitamin C C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. A.03. calcium PTH also activates vitamin D in the kidneys which then promotes calcium reabsorption by the kidneys. intestines E. thereby decreasing blood levels. Bloom's Level: 4. vitamin B D.03.03 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis 27. calcitonin C. Section: 15.02 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that is involved in the maintenance of blood calcium homeostasis. Parathyroid hormone also activates ___________ in the kidneys. parathyroid hormone Calcitonin causes bones to take up calcium from the blood. bones B. kidneys D. Bloom's Level: 1.26.03 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis . balance difficulties E. exopthalmic goiter C.03. and thickness and puffiness of the skin. A person with congenital hypothroidism will exhibit what symptoms? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. simple goiter D. Bloom's Level: 2. tetany Congenital hypothyroidism results in individuals who are short and stocky. possible mental retardation E. shaking. weight gain.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the thyroid and parathyroid glands.03 Topic: Endocrine System 29. myxedema B. lethargy. difficulty with speech.03. loss of hair. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. tremors in the hands. puffiness D. Section: 15. Bloom's Level: 2. short and stocky. weight gain. What are the symptoms of myxedema? A.03 Topic: Endocrine System . a mass in the throat C. blurred vision Myxedema results in lethargy.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the thyroid and parathyroid glands. and if thyroid hormone therapy is not begun with the first two months of life. Section: 15. slower pulse rate. an eye that protrudes from the eye socket B. lowered body temperature. possible mental retardation.28. 30.04.04 Topic: Endocrine System 31. Where are the adrenal glands located? A. epinephrine B. near the ovaries/testes E. near the small intestine The adrenal glands sit atop the kidneys. in the neck C.01 List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex and provide a function for each. Which of the following is not produced by the adrenal glands? A. Bloom's Level: 1.04.01 List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex and provide a function for each. in the brain B. norepinephrine C. on top of the kidneys D. Section: 15. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. glucagon D. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15.04 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 1. mineralocorticoids The pancreas produces glucagon. glucocorticoids E. 04 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions . Section: 15. Bloom's Level: 2. reducing inflammation. The adrenal medulla controls a short term response to stress by producing epinephrine and norepinephrine.04. Both the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex are under control of hormones produced by the anterior pituitary hormone and hypothalamus.04 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 33. C. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. E. increasing blood volume.04. raising blood glucose levels. suppressing immune cells.32. B. FALSE The adrenal medulla is under nervous system control.02 Explain how the adrenal cortex is involved in the stress response. Section: 15. Bloom's Level: 2. D.01 List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex and provide a function for each. breaking down protein and fat. The adrenal medulla controls the short term response to stress by A. One of the results of these is that the blood glucose level rises. C.03 Distinguish between mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones.04 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 35.34. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. TRUE Nervous stimulation causes the adrenal medulla to provide a rapid but short-term stress response.04. Section: 15.04.04 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis . Mineralocorticoids cause a blood volume and pressure increase due to their role in sodium homeostasis. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2. Blood volume and pressure increase. Inflammation is reduced. B. Proteins and fat are broken down. Glucose is not broken down. The immune cells are suppressed. Section: 15.02 Explain how the adrenal cortex is involved in the stress response. E. Which of the following is a result of mineralocorticoid release? A. The adrenal cortex provides a slower but long-term stress response in comparison to the adrenal medulla. D. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. 04. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15. Bloom's Level: 2. epinephrine C. mild infections can lead to death D. glucose cannot be replenished. Section: 15. cortisol E. Which of the following is not a symptom of Addison disease? A. Which of the following is a glucocorticoid? A. renin Cortisol is a glucocorticoid that is active in the stress response. aldosterone D. bronzing of the skin C. low blood pressure B.36. Bloom's Level: 1.04. loss of sodium and water E.03 Distinguish between mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones.04 Topic: Endocrine System . norepinephrine B.03 Distinguish between mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones.04 Topic: Endocrine System 37. increased blood sugar levels In Addison disease. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. D. Bloom's Level: 3. The pancreas is located near the small intestine. TRUE The light microscope shows that the pancreas has two types of cells. Which of the following statements about the pancreas is not true? A.38.05. Apply Learning Outcome: 15. The pancreas is not under pituitary control.16. Refer to Figure 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions 39. The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon. Right after eating a candy bar. Bloom's Level: 3.01 Explain why the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. TRUE Insulin is secreted when the blood glucose level is high. The pancreas is a fish-shaped organ.05 Topic: Endocrine System . The pancreatic islets are the exocrine tissue. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.05 Topic: Endocrine System 40.01 Explain why the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. insulin secretion would occur. It is possible to distinguish exocrine from endocrine tissue in the pancreas under the light microscope.02 List the hormones produced by the pancreas and provide a function for each. Section: 15. The pancreatic islets are the endocrine tissue and produce insulin and glucagon. E. C. Bloom's Level: 5.05.05. Section: 15. B. Section: 15. liver B. adipose tissue D. Bloom's Level: 2. The liver breaks down glycogen. B. muscle C. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Adipose tissue breaks down fat. The blood glucose level rises. Tissue stores of glucose are depleted. Which of the following is not involved in blood glucose homeostasis? A. When insulin is secreted. D.05. Glucose is taken up by the cells. stomach E.Multiple Choice Questions 41.05.05 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis . Bloom's Level: 4. what happens? A.02 List the hormones produced by the pancreas and provide a function for each.03 Describe how the pancreatic hormones help maintain blood glucose homeostasis. Section: 15. glucagon The stomach is not involved in blood glucose homeostasis. Section: 15. E.05 Topic: Endocrine System 42. Insulin stimulates the uptake of glucose by cells. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. C. E. C. Glycogen can be broken down to increase blood glucose levels. In diabetes.04 Distinguish betwen type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. the body's cells are unable to take up glucose and so blood glucose levels are high in both. The body does not produce insulin in both. Section: 15.03 Describe how the pancreatic hormones help maintain blood glucose homeostasis. D.True / False Questions 43.05. How are type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus similar? A. The blood glucose levels are very high in both. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. FALSE Both fat and glycogen can be broken down to raise blood glucose levels. B.05 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 44. Bloom's Level: 4. The body does not produce glucagon in both. Both are a result of obesity.05.05 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 4. The number of glucose carriers is too low in both. but fat cannot be. Section: 15. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. 05. Bloom's Level: 5.45. If the amount of insulin is too great. FALSE Most have type 2 diabetes. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15.04 Distinguish betwen type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Bloom's Level: 1. the blood sugar level may drop (hypoglycemia).05.04 Distinguish betwen type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Section: 15. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. Most of the diabetics in the United States have type 1 diabetes.05 Topic: Endocrine System Yes / No Questions 46.05 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions . Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic? YES These individuals take daily insulin injections. near the ovaries/testes E. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. thymus. and provide a function for each. Section: 15. on top of the kidneys The thymus gland lies just beneath the sternum in the chest. Where is the thymus gland located? A.06 Topic: Endocrine System . Section: 15. testes B. primarily at night. Bloom's Level: 1. adrenal glands The pineal gland produces melatonin.06. Bloom's Level: 1. and pineal gland.06 Topic: Endocrine System 48. Which gland produces melatonin? A.06.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs. pineal gland D. thymus.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs. in the brain C. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. ovaries E.47. thymus gland C. and provide a function for each. and pineal gland. in the neck B. in the chest D. and provide a function for each. ovaries--follicle-stimulating hormone B. thymus. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. and provide a function for each. and pineal gland. and pineal gland. Bloom's Level: 2.06 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions 50. Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its producing gland? A. is produced by the hypothalamus and controls both testes and ovaries.49. testes--androgens The pituitary gland produces follicle-stimulating hormone.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs.06.06 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions . thymus gland--thymosins D. ovaries--estrogen C.06. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is involved in the regulation of both the testes and the ovaries. TRUE Gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Bloom's Level: 4. GnRH. pineal gland--melatonin E. Section: 15. Understand Learning Outcome: 15.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs. Section: 15. thymus. control the daily sleep-wake cycle E. control the color of the skin Melatonin is involved in circadian rhythms. small intestine D. Which of the following secretes erythropoietin? A.06. Section: 15. thymus E. Section: 15. heart C. regulate blood glucose levels B. aid in the differentiation of T lymphocytes D.06 Topic: Endocrine System 52. regulate blood calcium levels C.06 Topic: Endocrine System . Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 1. What is the function of melatonin? A. daily rhythms such as the sleep-wake cycle.06. thymus. and pineal gland. kidney B. thalamus The kidneys secrete erythropoietin. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs. and provide a function for each. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.51.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. Remember Learning Outcome: 15. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 15. leptin Leptin is a protein hormone produced by adipose tissue that signals satiety or fullness. FALSE Cramping of the uterus is due to the effect of prostaglandins.06.06.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. epinephrine B. prostaglandins D. The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine. follicle-stimulating hormone C. erythropoietin E.53.06 Topic: Endocrine System True / False Questions 54. Bloom's Level: 2.06 Topic: Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions .02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. Which hormone triggers satiety? A. Section: 15. testes/ovaries E. Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of the reproductive system? A.55. E. Apply Learning Outcome: 15.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. thymosin. Analyze Learning Outcome: 15. Bloom's Level: 4. luteinizing hormone. B.06.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis True / False Questions . nervous system All of the above control the reproductive system except the adrenal gland. Section: 15. prostaglandins.06 Topic: Endocrine System 56. adrenal gland B. Bloom's Level: 3. hypothalamus C. Sometimes this can be treated with A. aldosterone.02 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to internal changes in the body.07. Section: 15. D. Jamie suffers from heartburn. anterior pituitary D. mineralocorticoids. Prostaglandins can reduce gastric secretions and have been used to treat gastric reflux. C. 07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis Yes / No Questions 58. Bloom's Level: 5.07. Are there any systems that the nervous and endocrine systems do not control? NO No. In comparing the functions of the nervous and endocrine system in controlling the body. The nervous and endocrine systems control all of the other systems and maintain homeostasis.01 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to external changes in the body.57.01 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to external changes in the body. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15. the nervous system is better able to respond to changes in the external environment.07. Bloom's Level: 5.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis Multiple Choice Questions . Section: 15. TRUE The nervous system often has automatic responses to external stimuli as well as sensory receptors that provide us with information about the external environment. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 15. 07.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis True / False Questions 60.07 Topic: Endocrine System Topic: Homeostasis . Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15.02 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to internal changes in the body. both the nervous and the endocrine system The hypothalamus belongs to both the nervous and the endocrine systems. It is often referred to as a neuroendocrine organ. Understand Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15. the nervous system B.02 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to internal changes in the body.59. FALSE The governance of the internal organs usually occurs below the level of consciousness. Bloom's Level: 2. Which system does the hypothalamus belong to? A. the endocrine system C. Usually you are consciously aware of the governance of your internal organs by the nervous and endocrine system. Bloom's Level: 2.07. 01 List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex and provide a functio 3 n for each.02 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that is involved in the maintenance of blood calc 3 ium homeostasis.06. Learning Outcome: 15.Chapter 15 Endocrine System Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1. and provide a func 5 tion for each.03 Identify the organs and glands of the endocrine system. Learning Outcome: 15. 2 Learning Outcome: 15. 4 Learning Outcome: 15.02 Explain how the adrenal cortex is involved in the stress response.05. 2 Learning Outcome: 15.01. Learning Outcome: 15.02 List the hormones produced by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands. Evaluate 9 Learning Outcome: 15.01. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system.03 Describe how the pancreatic hormones help maintain blood glucose homeostasis.03 Distinguish between mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones. 2 Learning Outcome: 15.01 Distinguish between the mode of action of a neurotransmitter and that of a hormone. 2 Learning Outcome: 15.01 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to external changes in the bod 2 y. and provide a fun 5 ction for each. 3 Learning Outcome: 15.03.02 Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands. Analyze 11 Bloom's Level: 5.03.05. 2 Learning Outcome: 15.05.01 List the hormones produced by the sex organs. thymus.01 Explain why the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland.04.04. 3 Learning Outcome: 15.02 List the hormones that are produced by glands and organs outside of the endocrine system. Remember 15 Bloom's Level: 2.02 List the hormones produced by the pancreas and provide a function for each.02.01. 2 Learning Outcome: 15. Apply 3 Bloom's Level: 4.03. Learning Outcome: 15.02.03 Summarize the conditions produced by excessive and inadequate levels of growth hormone. 4 Learning Outcome: 15. Section: 15. 3 Learning Outcome: 15.04 Distinguish betwen type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Understand 22 Bloom's Level: 3. Learning Outcome: 15.06.02 Summarize how the endocrine and nervous systems respond to internal changes in the body 3 . and pineal gland.03 Summarize the diseases and conditions associated with the thyroid and parathyroid glands.02.01.01 12 .07. 2 Learning Outcome: 15.04 Compare the action of peptide and steroid hormones. 2 Learning Outcome: 15.07. 3 Learning Outcome: 15.04.05.01 List the hormones produced by the thyroid and parathyroid glands and provide a function for 3 each. 05 9 Section: 15.04 8 Section: 15.Section: 15.03 8 Section: 15.07 5 Topic: Endocrine System 60 Topic: Homeostasis 10 .06 9 Section: 15.02 9 Section: 15. after menopause True / False Questions 2. False Females undergo puberty earlier than males. when puberty is complete D. True 3. when there has been intercourse E.Chapter 16 Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 1. before puberty C. All of the body systems in humans are the same in males and females. True False Multiple Choice Questions . at birth B. When does the reproductive system begin to function fully? A. meiosis . produce FSH and LH E. How many chromosomes does a sperm contain? A. mitosis B. 46 E. 24 D. is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 6. produce androgens/estrogens Yes / No Questions 5. produce gametes B. 1 B. Which type of cell division is called the "duplication division"? A. 48 7. 23 C. transport gametes C. protect zygote D. In males. Which of the following is not a function of the genitals? A.4. True / False Questions 8. have 46 chromosomes. True False Multiple Choice Questions . zygote. except for sperm and eggs. egg. C. All of the cells in the body. sperm. B. Meiosis is to gametes as fertilization is to A. E. A zygote contains 46 chromosomes. mitosis. True False Multiple Choice Questions 9. True / False Questions 10. chromosome. D. urethra 12. epididymides D. vas deferens E. urethra D. bladder C. urethra . Which structure of the male reproductive system is also part of the urinary system? A. testes B. smooth muscle D. prostate gland C.11. prostate gland E. penis 14. nitrous oxide B. epididymides C. Which of the following contributes to the semen? A. bulbourethral gland B. blood E. urethra D. Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system? A. cGMP C. testes 13. Which of the following is not involved in achieving and maintaining an erection? A. bulbourethral gland B. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the hormonal control over the male reproductive system? A. B. Sperm cannot develop at body temperature (37 degrees Celsius). spermatogonia. follicle B. seminiferous tubules E. C. Sertoli cells C. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are present in both males and females. Luteinizing hormone controls the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules. D. interstitial cells True / False Questions 16. primary spermatocytes. spermatids.15. spermatozoa. E. E. 18. B. The end result of meiosis I is A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 17. Which of the following are not found in the testes? A. These hormones are involved in a negative feedback relationship. spermatozoa D. C. The interstitial cells produce testosterone. . The hypothalamus secretes a hormone called gonadotropin-releasing hormone. D. secondary spermatocytes. GnRH--stimulates the anterior pituitary B. FSH--stimulates the hypothalamus D. Which of the following parts of the female reproductive system is not present in pairs? A. E. Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its function? A. D. It inhibits meiosis. Testosterone--brings about male secondary sexual characteristics C. cervix B. vagina D. Inhibin--blocks GnRH and FSH secretion 21. ovary C. ovary E. glans clitoris C. It binds with the Sertoli cells and inhibits the production of sperm. C. LH--controls the production of testosterone E. 20. It binds with testosterone and inhibits it. It inhibits the secretion of GnRH. What is the function of inhibin? A. oviduct 22. oviduct . uterus B.19. B. Which of the following is part of the external genital organs of the female? A. It inhibits the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. 14 days True / False Questions 24. Where does fertilization of the egg usually occur? A. D. oviduct. B. . 2-3 days E. 1-5 hours C. vagina. A "Pap test" checks for cancer of the A. uterus. cervix. ovary B. C.23. ovary. 6-24 hours D. How long does an egg live if it is not fertilized? A. E. oviduct E. less than 1 hour B. abdominal cavity C. fimbria D. The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries. True False Multiple Choice Questions 25. vagina 26. Which layer of the endometrium is the functional layer and what does it do? A. in the abdominal cavity. How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus? A. the outermost layer. grows in thickness to accommodate the pregnancy True / False Questions 30. The pH of the vagina is basic because that is the pH sperm prefer. basal layer of reproducing cells B. 3 times normal C. the outermost layer.27. The urinary and reproductive systems in the female are entirely separate. in the labium minora. During implantation. in the labium majora. the innermost layer. in the oviduct. 2 times normal B. basal layer of reproducing cells D. True False 31. 5 times normal E. True False . in the endometrium. the zygote can be found A. grows in thickness to accommodate the pregnancy C. the innermost layer. 4 times normal D. B. 6 times normal 29. E. 28. C. D. it never finishes meiosis. disappears immediately. the follicle A. If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized. becomes a vesicular or Graafian follicle. becomes a secondary follicle containing a secondary oocyte. C. the labia B. D. becomes the corpus luteum and produces sex hormones. True False Multiple Choice Questions 34. an oocyte D. becomes a polar body. B. E. Following ovulation.Multiple Choice Questions 32. What is present within a follicle? A. . the clitoris E. vaginal cleft True / False Questions 33. mucus-secreting glands C. 35. It is followed by a surge of LH. 1 primary oocyte and 1 polar body. breast development D. It has a positive feedback effect on the pituitary gland. milk production E. B. E. a secondary oocyte. It is followed by ovulation. 38. days 6-13 D. Gonadotrophic releasing hormone from the hypothalamus decreases. days 15-28 36. D. a polar body. body hair distribution B. days 1-5 B. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the estrogen spike at the end of the follicular phase? A. day 14 E. The product(s) of meiosis I in oogenesis is/are A. 1 secondary oocyte and 1 polar body. D. 37. days 1-13 C. Which of the following is not a result of estrogen? A. a primary oocyte. B. the uterine cycle . When does the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle (nonpregnant) occur? A. C. fat distribution C. C. E. It has a positive feedback effect on the hypothalamus. abstinence B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 42. hormone patch . which sustains the developing embryo and fetus. True False 41. birth control pills E. the progesterone levels fall to almost zero. Which form of birth control is 100% effective? A. days 6-13 D. originates only from maternal tissue. days 1-5 B. Menstruation occurs during what days of the uterine cycle? A. natural family planning C.39. male condom D. days 15-28 True / False Questions 40. If fertilization occurs. The placenta. days 1-13 C. 3 44. cervical cap C. A tubal ligation consists of cutting and sealing the vas deferens so that sperm are unable to reach the seminal fluid. intrauterine device D.2.2. Put the following methods of contraception in order from most effective to least effective: 1. Which of the following forms of birth control is a small piece of molded plastic that does not allow the fertilized embryo to implant? A.1 D. hormone pill 2.3. 1. cervical shield E.1 E. female condom 3. diaphragm B. True False Multiple Choice Questions .3.4.3.1 C.4 B. female condom True / False Questions 45. 2. 3.2.43.4.2.4. spermicide 4. 4. male condom A. 1. . 48. A woman is contracted and paid to carry the baby. Follicles are larger than normal and many mature at one time. The sperm come from a stranger. How does GIFT differ from IVF? A. in the uterus C. in the vagina B. low sperm count B. where does conception occur? A. Uterine tissue is located outside of the uterus causing pain and structural abnormalities. in the laboratory 49. The eggs and sperm are placed in the oviducts immediately after being brought together. What is the most frequent cause of infertility in males? A. B. B. Leptin levels are higher which impacts GnRH and FSH. E. Fertility drugs are used to obtain the eggs.46. During IVF. D. E. The oviducts are blocked. tubal ligation 47. pelvic inflammatory disease D. What does being overweight have to do with infertility in women? A. endometriosis E. C. in the oviducts D. D. The uterus is displaced and the zygote has difficulty implanting. body weight C. C. A single sperm is injected into an egg. syphilis True / False Questions 51. What causes genital warts? A. A B. HIV/AIDS D. fungi D. B C. Treatment for genital herpes can cure the disease. D E. G . C D. virus C. gonorrhea B. chlamydia C. Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus? A. bacteria B. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is normally transmitted through contaminated drinking water? A.50. True False Multiple Choice Questions 52. parasite 53. True False Multiple Choice Questions . hepatitis. herpes. except A. 55. genital herpes True / False Questions 57. trichomoniasis C. chlamydia. yellow-green frothy discharge and itching of the vulva/vagina? A. Which of the following is a protist that causes an STD? A. All of the following are viral infections. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. C. HIV/AIDS. genital warts E. STDs caused by viruses can be effectively treated with antibiotics. E. B. Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling. Chlamydia trachomatis B. gonorrhea D. yeast infection B.54. warts. Gardnerella vaginosis 56. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans E. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a "silent" disease--there are essentially no symptoms.58. The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard edges) is indication of what type of STD? A. yeast infection E. Is bacterial vaginosis (BV) always a result of sexual transmission? Yes No . gonorrhea True / False Questions 59. hepatitis B. syphilis D. True False Yes / No Questions 60. papillomavirus C. 01 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions 2.01. Bloom's Level: 4.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans.01. Remember Learning Outcome: 16. at birth B. when puberty is complete D. All of the body systems in humans are the same in males and females. before puberty C.Chapter 16 Reproductive System Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. Section: 16. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. when there has been intercourse E. Bloom's Level: 1. FALSE The reproductive systems are quite different in males and females. When does the reproductive system begin to function fully? A.01 Topic: Reproductive System .01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. after menopause The reproductive system functions fully after puberty. Section: 16. TRUE Females undergo puberty between the ages of 10 and 14 while males are 12 to 16 years of age. Which of the following is not a function of the genitals? A. transport gametes C. produce FSH and LH E. Females undergo puberty earlier than males.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. Section: 16.01. produce gametes B.01. Apply Learning Outcome: 16. Bloom's Level: 3. Bloom's Level: 4. produce androgens/estrogens The anterior pituitary produces FSH and LH which affect the genitals.01 Topic: Reproductive System Yes / No Questions . protect zygote D.3.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 4. 01.01.01 Topic: Reproductive System 7.01. 46 E. Remember Learning Outcome: 16. Bloom's Level: 5. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 6. meiosis Mitosis is the duplication division because it produces 2 identical daughter cells. 23 C. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16. In males. 24 D.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans. Males have nothing analogous to a uterus. mitosis B. Section: 16. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. Section: 16. How many chromosomes does a sperm contain? A. 48 Sperm contain the haploid number or 23 chromosomes.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle. is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females? NO No. . 1 B.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle.5. Which type of cell division is called the "duplication division"? A. C. Meiosis is to gametes as fertilization is to A.Section: 16. mitosis. egg. Meiosis results in the formation of gametes. TRUE A zygote results from the union of a sperm with 23 chromosomes and an egg with 23 chromosomes.01.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle. Section: 16.01. A zygote contains 46 chromosomes. Fertilization results in the formation of a zygote.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle.01 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions 8. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. Section: 16.01 Topic: Reproductive System . E. B. D. Bloom's Level: 2. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16. chromosome.01 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 9. zygote. Bloom's Level: 5. sperm. Section: 16. except for sperm and eggs.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each.02.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle. epididymides D. Bloom's Level: 2. Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system? A.01. Liver cells often have multiple copies of each chromosome and therefore have 69 or more chromosomes. FALSE Red blood cells lack a nucleus and therefore have 0 chromosomes. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. bladder C. All of the cells in the body.01 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 11. testes B.02 Topic: Reproductive System . Section: 16. urethra The bladder is part of the urinary system. have 46 chromosomes. not the reproductive system. Bloom's Level: 1.True / False Questions 10. Remember Learning Outcome: 16. prostate gland E. bulbourethral gland B. epididymides C.02 Topic: Reproductive System . Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. urethra D. Section: 16.02. urethra D. vas deferens E. Bloom's Level: 4.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each. penis The bulbourethral gland makes the seminal fluid gelatinous. prostate gland C. Which of the following contributes to the semen? A. Bloom's Level: 2.12. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. bulbourethral gland B. Section: 16. Which structure of the male reproductive system is also part of the urinary system? A.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each. testes The urethra is part of both the male reproductive system and urinary system.02 Topic: Reproductive System 13.02. 01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each. not testes. spermatozoa D. smooth muscle D. urethra The urethra is not involved in achieving and maintaining an erection even though it is the pathway through which the sperm are ejaculated. nitrous oxide B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.02 Describe the location and stages of spermatogenesis.02. Sertoli cells C. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions .02. Bloom's Level: 2.14.02 Topic: Reproductive System 15. Bloom's Level: 4. Which of the following are not found in the testes? A. cGMP C. Section: 16. seminiferous tubules E. interstitial cells Follicles are found in ovaries. blood E. Which of the following is not involved in achieving and maintaining an erection? A. Section: 16. follicle B. Sperm cannot develop at body temperature (37 degrees Celsius).02 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 17.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. primary spermatocytes.02 Describe the location and stages of spermatogenesis.02 Describe the location and stages of spermatogenesis. spermatogonia. Section: 16. D. E.02 Topic: Reproductive System . Bloom's Level: 2. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. Primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis I to produce secondary spermatocytes. The end result of meiosis I is A. secondary spermatocytes. C.02. Bloom's Level: 4. spermatozoa. TRUE Sperm cannot develop at this temperature and therefore testes are located in the scrotum which hangs below the body and helps to regulate the temperature of the testes. Section: 16.16. B. spermatids. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) promotes the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules.02 Topic: Reproductive System .03 Summarize how hormones regulate the male reproductive system. The interstitial cells produce testosterone. C. It binds with testosterone and inhibits it.18. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. B.02.02. Luteinizing hormone controls the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules. Bloom's Level: 2. Inhibin blocks the secretion of GnRH and FSH. It inhibits the secretion of GnRH. It inhibits the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. What is the function of inhibin? A. Section: 16. E. D.03 Summarize how hormones regulate the male reproductive system. These hormones are involved in a negative feedback relationship. The hypothalamus secretes a hormone called gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Bloom's Level: 5. E. B. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the hormonal control over the male reproductive system? A. It binds with the Sertoli cells and inhibits the production of sperm. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are present in both males and females. It inhibits meiosis. Section: 16.02 Topic: Reproductive System 19. C. D. Testosterone--brings about male secondary sexual characteristics C. Bloom's Level: 4. ovary C. Analyze . Which of the following parts of the female reproductive system is not present in pairs? A. but only 1 uterus. Inhibin--blocks GnRH and FSH secretion FSH promotes the production of sperm in the seminiferous tubules. glans clitoris C.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. GnRH--stimulates the anterior pituitary B. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16. Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its function? A. cervix B. FSH--stimulates the hypothalamus D.03 Topic: Reproductive System 22.03.03 Summarize how hormones regulate the male reproductive system. vagina D.02. Bloom's Level: 5. Section: 16. Bloom's Level: 4. oviduct There are 2 ovaries and 2 oviducts. ovary E. Section: 16. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. Which of the following is part of the external genital organs of the female? A.02 Topic: Reproductive System 21.20. LH--controls the production of testosterone E. uterus B. oviduct The glans clitoris is part of the external genitals of the female. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Reproductive System 23. How long does an egg live if it is not fertilized? A.03 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions 24.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. 6-24 hours D.Learning Outcome: 16. Bloom's Level: 1.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries. Section: 16. 2-3 days E. unless fertilization occurs. less than 1 hour B.03 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions .01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. 14 days An egg lives approximately 6 to 24 hours. TRUE The oviducts are near the ovaries and have finger-like projections that sweep over the ovaries. Section: 16. 1-5 hours C. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. Section: 16.03.03. Remember Learning Outcome: 16. fimbria D. cervix. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. ovary. abdominal cavity C. Bloom's Level: 2. D. uterus. C.25. oviduct E. A "Pap test" checks for cancer of the A. E. Early detection of cervical cancer is possible by means of a Pap test. Where does fertilization of the egg usually occur? A. B.03.03 Topic: Reproductive System 26. Bloom's Level: 1. oviduct. vagina.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each.03 Topic: Reproductive System .03. Section: 16.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Remember Learning Outcome: 16. vagina The egg is usually fertilized in the oviduct. ovary B. Section: 16. Bloom's Level: 2. 2 times normal B. B. called the endometrium. C. 5 times normal E.03 Topic: Reproductive System 28.03.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. the zygote can be found A. Section: 16. in the endometrium. The zygote implants in the lining of the uterus. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus? A.27. in the oviduct. 4 times normal D. Bloom's Level: 4. 3 times normal C.03 Topic: Reproductive System . E. D. in the labium minora. During implantation. It stretches to over 30 cm wide to accommodate a growing fetus. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.03. 6 times normal The uterus is approximately 5 cm wide in its usual state. in the labium majora. Section: 16. in the abdominal cavity. the innermost layer. grows in thickness to accommodate the pregnancy C. Section: 16. grows in thickness to accommodate the pregnancy The innermost endometrial lining is the functional layer.03 . basal layer of reproducing cells D. the outermost layer. basal layer of reproducing cells B.03. Which layer of the endometrium is the functional layer and what does it do? A.03. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. FALSE The pH of the vagina is acidic.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. in females the urethra carries only urine. Section: 16. Bloom's Level: 2.29. Section: 16.03 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions 30. Bloom's Level: 4. sperm do prefer a basic pH provided by seminal fluid. the outermost layer. Bloom's Level: 2. and the vagina serves only the reproductive system.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each. The urinary and reproductive systems in the female are entirely separate. It varies in thickness according to a monthly reproductive cycle.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each.03 Topic: Reproductive System 31. TRUE As opposed to males where the urethra carries both sperm and urine (but not simultaneously). However. The pH of the vagina is basic because that is the pH sperm prefer. the innermost layer.03. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. 01 List the stages of the ovarian cycle and explain what is occurring in each stage. vaginal cleft An ovary contains many follicles.04. mucus-secreting glands C.04 Topic: Reproductive System . Section: 16. What is present within a follicle? A. Section: 16. Bloom's Level: 2. the labia B. and each one contains an immature egg called an oocyte. the clitoris E.Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 32. TRUE Meiosis II is completed only if the oocyte is first fertilized by a sperm cell.02 Describe the process of oogenesis. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.04.04 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions 33. Bloom's Level: 1. an oocyte D. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized. it never finishes meiosis. Following ovulation.04. Bloom's Level: 2. days 1-13 C.04 Topic: Reproductive System 35.Multiple Choice Questions 34.04. Section: 16. becomes a vesicular or Graafian follicle. D. the follicle A. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. When does the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle (nonpregnant) occur? A. becomes a secondary follicle containing a secondary oocyte. disappears immediately. The follicle develops into a corpus luteum. days 15-28 The follicular phase lasts from days 1 to 13. a glandlike structure. Bloom's Level: 2. becomes the corpus luteum and produces sex hormones. days 1-5 B. Section: 16. C.01 List the stages of the ovarian cycle and explain what is occurring in each stage.04 Topic: Reproductive System . B.01 List the stages of the ovarian cycle and explain what is occurring in each stage. becomes a polar body. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. day 14 E. days 6-13 D. E. B. D. a secondary oocyte. Bloom's Level: 4. E. C. C. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the estrogen spike at the end of the follicular phase? A.04 Topic: Reproductive System .04. a polar body.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Bloom's Level: 5. Section: 16. 1 primary oocyte and 1 polar body. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. It has a positive feedback effect on the hypothalamus. It is followed by a surge of LH. 1 secondary oocyte and 1 polar body. Gonadotrophic releasing hormone from the hypothalamus decreases. The product of meiosis I is a secondary oocyte and the first polar body. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 16. GnRH from the hypothalamus increases.36. E. It is followed by ovulation. B. D. The product(s) of meiosis I in oogenesis is/are A. a primary oocyte.04. It has a positive feedback effect on the pituitary gland.04 Topic: Reproductive System 37. Section: 16.02 Describe the process of oogenesis. milk production E. days 1-13 C. fat distribution C. Section: 16. days 15-28 Menstruation is considered days 1 to 5 of the uterine cycle Bloom's Level: 1.04. Section: 16. body hair distribution B.38.04. Menstruation occurs during what days of the uterine cycle? A. days 1-5 B. Remember Learning Outcome: 16. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System 39.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. breast development D. days 6-13 D.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Which of the following is not a result of estrogen? A. the uterine cycle Prolactin is responsible for milk production.04 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions . the progesterone levels rise and stay high. abstinence B. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 16.04.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Bloom's Level: 2. hormone patch Only abstinence.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of an egg by a sperm cell.04 Topic: Reproductive System 41.05. Section: 16. Which form of birth control is 100% effective? A. FALSE If fertilization occurs. FALSE The placenta originates from both maternal and fetal tissue. If fertilization occurs. the progesterone levels fall to almost zero.05 Topic: Reproductive System . which sustains the developing embryo and fetus. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. Bloom's Level: 1. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. refraining from sexual intercourse. natural family planning C.04. The placenta.40. originates only from maternal tissue. birth control pills E. is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Remember Learning Outcome: 16.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Section: 16.04 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 42. male condom D. 43.1 D. Spermicides are 50-80% effective. 4.4. Bloom's Level: 4. 2. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16.3.4 B.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of an egg by a sperm cell. Put the following methods of contraception in order from most effective to least effective: 1. Section: 16.4. male condom A. female condom 3.1 C.2.4. 1.05.2. Section: 16. A female condom is 79% effective. Bloom's Level: 3. A male condom is 89% effective. diaphragm B.1 E.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of an egg by a sperm cell. cervical shield E.05.3. Apply Learning Outcome: 16. spermicide 4.2. cervical cap C. 3. hormone pill 2.3. female condom An intrauterine device (IUD) prevents the fertilized embryo from implanting. Which of the following forms of birth control is a small piece of molded plastic that does not allow the fertilized embryo to implant? A. intrauterine device D.3 Hormone pills are 98% effective.05 Topic: Reproductive System 44.2.05 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions . 1. 02 Explain the causes of infertility. Section: 16.05. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.45.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of an egg by a sperm cell.05. FALSE A tubal ligation consists of cutting and sealing the oviducts. low sperm count B. A tubal ligation consists of cutting and sealing the vas deferens so that sperm are unable to reach the seminal fluid. Bloom's Level: 2. body weight C.05 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 46. Bloom's Level: 1. tubal ligation Low sperm count is the most frequent cause of infertility in males. Remember Learning Outcome: 16. Section: 16. pelvic inflammatory disease D.05 Topic: Reproductive System . What is the most frequent cause of infertility in males? A. endometriosis E. The oviducts are blocked. C. Leptin levels are higher in overweight women. What does being overweight have to do with infertility in women? A.47. Bloom's Level: 2. in the uterus C. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. in the vagina B.05.05.05 Topic: Reproductive System .03 Describe how the use of assisted reproductive technologies can increase the chances of conceiving a child. Section: 16. Bloom's Level: 4. Leptin levels are higher which impacts GnRH and FSH. E. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. D. During IVF. The uterus is displaced and the zygote has difficulty implanting. B. Follicles are larger than normal and many mature at one time.05 Topic: Reproductive System 48. and conception occurs in laboratory glassware. Uterine tissue is located outside of the uterus causing pain and structural abnormalities. in the oviducts D.02 Explain the causes of infertility. where does conception occur? A. and this impacts GnRH and FSH levels. Section: 16. in the laboratory IVF stands for in vitro fertilization. The eggs and sperm are placed in the oviducts immediately after being brought together.05 Topic: Reproductive System 50.49. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria.03 Describe how the use of assisted reproductive technologies can increase the chances of conceiving a child. The sperm come from a stranger. Section: 16. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. D.06. except the eggs and the sperm are placed in the oviducts immediately after they have been brought together. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. C. GIFT is exactly the same as in vitro fertilization. A single sperm is injected into an egg. chlamydia C. Section: 16. syphilis HIV/AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus. Fertility drugs are used to obtain the eggs. gonorrhea B. B. A woman is contracted and paid to carry the baby.05. E. Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus? A.06 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions . How does GIFT differ from IVF? A. HIV/AIDS D. Treatment for genital herpes can cure the disease.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. Section: 16. fungi D.51. causes genital warts. virus C. Bloom's Level: 2. bacteria B. Bloom's Level: 3. FALSE Treatment for genital herpes slows the replication of the virus.06 Topic: Reproductive System . Section: 16. parasite A virus. human papillomavirus.06 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 52.06.06. Apply Learning Outcome: 16.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. What causes genital warts? A. but cannot eliminate it from the person's body. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. 01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria.06. chlamydia. Bloom's Level: 2. C. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. Bloom's Level: 2.53.06 Topic: Reproductive System 54. herpes.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria. Chlamydia is a bacterial infection. E. G Hepatitis A is usually acquired from sewage-contaminated drinking water. Section: 16. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is normally transmitted through contaminated drinking water? A. HIV/AIDS. except A. C D. B.06. B C. warts. A B. All of the following are viral infections. Section: 16. D E. hepatitis.06 Topic: Reproductive System . D. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. Which of the following is a protist that causes an STD? A.06 Topic: Reproductive System 56. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. Candida albicans E. yellow-green frothy discharge and itching of the vulva/vagina? A.06 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions . yeast infection B.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. Bloom's Level: 2. Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. trichomoniasis C.06.55. genital warts E. genital herpes Trichomoniasis is characterized by those symptoms. gonorrhea D. Section: 16. Section: 16. Gardnerella vaginosis Trichomonas vaginalis is a protist.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caused by bacteria.06. Bloom's Level: 4. 06 Topic: Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 58.06.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. Bloom's Level: 2.57. gonorrhea A chancre indicates the site of infection of the organism that causes syphilis. hepatitis B.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. papillomavirus C. Section: 16. FALSE Only STDs caused by bacteria are curable with antibiotics.06 Topic: Reproductive System True / False Questions . The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard edges) is indication of what type of STD? A.06. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. Section: 16. syphilis D. Understand Learning Outcome: 16. STDs caused by viruses can be effectively treated with antibiotics. yeast infection E. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 4. but females who are not sexually active get BV as well. Is bacterial vaginosis (BV) always a result of sexual transmission? NO How bacterial vaginosis is acquired is not well understood. Section: 16. FALSE Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a very painful condition.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. Bloom's Level: 2. Analyze Learning Outcome: 16. Understand Learning Outcome: 16.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs.06.06.06 Topic: Reproductive System Yes / No Questions 60. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a "silent" disease--there are essentially no symptoms. Section: 16.06 Topic: Reproductive System .59. 5 Learning Outcome: 16. 3 Learning Outcome: 16. Evaluate 5 Learning Outcome: 16.05. Understand 27 Bloom's Level: 3. Learning Outcome: 16.06.Chapter 16 Reproductive System Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1.03 Summarize how estrogen and progesterone influence the ovarian cycle. Analyze 16 Bloom's Level: 5.06.04.02 Describe the process of oogenesis.05.05.04 10 Section: 16.02.03. Remember 9 Bloom's Level: 2.03 Summarize how hormones regulate the male reproductive system. 2 Learning Outcome: 16. 2 Learning Outcome: 16. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Explain the causes of infertility. 3 Learning Outcome: 16. 5 Learning Outcome: 16. 5 Learning Outcome: 16.01.02 10 Section: 16. 5 Section: 16.01 Distinguish between sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses and those caus 6 ed by bacteria. Apply 3 Bloom's Level: 4.02 Describe the human life cycle and explain the role of mitosis and meiosis in this cycle.05 8 Section: 16.01 List the functions of the reproductive system in humans.01 Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and provide a function for each.02 Describe the location and stages of spermatogenesis.01 10 Section: 16.02 Describe the causes and treatments of selected STDs. 4 Learning Outcome: 16.04.03 11 Section: 16. Learning Outcome: 16.01 Identify the structures of the female reproductive system and provide a function for each.01 List the stages of the ovarian cycle and explain what is occurring in each stage.01.01 List the forms of birth control and summarize how each reduces the chances of fertilization of 4 an egg by a sperm cell.06 11 Topic: Reproductive System 60 .03 Describe how the use of assisted reproductive technologies can increase the chances of con 2 ceiving a child.02. 3 Learning Outcome: 16.04.02. 11 Learning Outcome: 16. zona pellucida. oocyte plasma membrane. several sperm penetrate the corona radiata. oocyte plasma membrane. Which of the following is not associated with the egg? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions . zona pellucida. corona radiata. oocyyte plasma membrane. acrosome C. oocyte plasma membrane B. zona pellucida. During fertilization. fertilization membrane 2. zona pellucida D. corona radiata B. corona radiata. Which of the following gives the correct order of layers the sperm crosses when entering the egg? A. corona radiata. cortical granule E. oocyte plasma membrane True / False Questions 3. corona radiata C. zona pellucida E. zona pellucida D.Chapter 17 Development and Aging Multiple Choice Questions 1. corona radiata. Once the cortical granules release their enzymes. The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the A. E. tail B. Where are the mitochondria located in the sperm? A. Which part of the sperm contains the chromosomes? A.4. 6. B. pronuclei. D. the corona radiata becomes the fertilization membrane. middle piece C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . outer cell mass. middle piece C. corona radiata. cortical granule cells. tail B. head 5. head True / False Questions 7. zona pellucida. C. embryonic C. depolarization of the egg's plasma membrane C. eyes. E. fusion of the sperm and egg nucleus D. acrosome of the sperm B. Heartbeat can be heard.8. True / False Questions 10. and ear become noticeable. Nose. Testes descend into scrotum. Which of the following is involved in the prevention of polyspermy? A. pre-embryonic B. The nervous system develops enough to permit reflex actions during which period of development? A. Which of the following occurs during the embryonic stage of development? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 11. B. D. At the end of the embryonic period. the embryo is about 12 inches long. Chorion appears. fetal . Fingernails appear. changes within the corona radiata 9. C. embryonic disk C. D. primary germ layers E. the first cell division.12. D. E. chorion. gastrulation. 14. seven weeks E. morula B. fertilization. three weeks C. Which of these is associated with pre-embryonic development? A. endoderm. Embryonic development begins with A. mesoderm. The nervous system is to the ectoderm as the skeleton is to the A. B. one week B. formation of the umbilical cord 15. implantation. E. C. five weeks D. allantois. . blastula. B. C. the development of the blastocyst. When does the heart begin to develop? A. gastrulation D. nine weeks 13. C. when it forms the inner cell mass E. epithelial lining of respiratory tract C. The embryonic disk becomes the inner cell mass after gastrulation. growth. B. Which of the following is not derived from the endoderm? A. when it becomes recognizable as human 17. when it forms the gastrula D. E. At what point during development does the embryo form three germ layers? A. epithelial lining of digestive tract B. this is called A. When cells take on specific structure and function. cleavage. when the nervous system develops C. lining of the urinary bladder E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 19. D.16. morphogenesis. differentiation. when it begins cleavage B. urinary system True / False Questions 18. glands of the digestive tract D. . fertilization. morphogenesis. B. E. digestive system. respiratory system. B. The names of the extraembryonic membranes are derived from their function in animals that produce shelled eggs. this is called A. D. When cells begin to move in the embryo in relation to other cells. True False Multiple Choice Questions 22. growth. cleavage. C. True / False Questions 23. E. C. reproductive system. fertilization.20. differentiation. The first system in the body to become visibly differentiated during development is the A. True / False Questions 21. D. True False . nervous system. cardiovascular system. The 4 cell stage of development is almost twice the size of the 2 cell stage of development. amniotic fluid formation E. blood cell precursors.Multiple Choice Questions 24. chorionic villi. umbilical cord formation B. D. yolk sac. and it is the first site of ___________. yolk. chorion. amniotic cavity. C. placenta development C. The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo. neural system development D. True False . yolk sac D. 26. amnion. The amnion is to the amniotic fluid as the allantois is to the A. blood cell formation True / False Questions 27. yolk sac. allantois. The _______ is the first embryonic membrane to appear. The blood of the mother and the fetus mix in the placenta. allantois C. What does that in humans? A. chorion B. amnion 25. E. A. umbilical blood vessels. B. Multiple Choice Questions 28. True False Multiple Choice Questions . True / False Questions 30. Yes. E. No. She has no more follicles in the ovaries. D. Yes. B. No. ovaries 29. because the ovarian cycle continues to function. hypothalamus C. What structure produces progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy? A. No. placenta B. C. posterior pituitary E. Does a woman ovulate during pregnancy? Why or why not? A. because the developing embryo prevents any new blastulas from implanting. anterior pituitary D. because the uterine cycle continues to function. Most birth defects are due to the inheritance of an abnormal number of chromosomes. because negative feedback on the hypothalamus prevents new follicles from maturing. 31. updating all vaccinations B. moderate exercise 32. D. They both connect to the placenta. oxygen-rich blood to the developing fetus. C. internal iliac artery 33. obtaining more folic acid D. They both carry blood to the lungs. left atrium D. oxygen-poor blood to the placenta. oxygen-rich blood to the placenta. B. They are both present in an adult human. treating all sexually transmitted diseases C. oxygen-poor blood to the developing fetus. E. eating enough to feed two people E. How are the pulmonary veins and the umbilical veins similar? A. superior vena cava E. They both carry oxygen-rich blood. C. 34. They both connect to the superior vena cava. Which of the following is present in the fetus but not in an adult human? A. B. Which of the following would be considered a poor health practice for a woman planning to get pregnant or already pregnant? A. D. pulmonary vein C. . ductus arteriosus B. The umbilical arteries carry A. and ears are present. True / False Questions 37. Bone begins to be replaced with cartilage in certain areas of the skeleton. Fetal development includes the third through ninth months of development. Fingernails. ductus arteriosus. 7-9 months 36. D. B. greasy. E. eyes. Head growth slows down as the rest of the body increases in length.35. eyelashes. C. 1-2 months B. When does the mother first begin to feel the fetus move? A. fontanels. nipples. The nose. foramen ovale. Which of the following is not true concerning the fetus during the third month of development? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 38. eyebrows. 5-7 months D. The white. D. cheeselike substance that covers the skin is called A. 3-4 months C. lanugo. C. and hair on the head appear. B. vernix caseosa. . It is possible to distinguish males from females. E. D. reduced maternal immune response to fetus . epididymis B. Which of the following develops into the male genital ducts? A. into a female because testosterone is present. C. reduced uterine motility D. into a male because testosterone is not present. B. into a male because testosterone is present. If a fetus contains an X and a Y chromosome but a defective SRY gene. into a female because testosterone is not present. Wolffian ducts 41. they will develop A. cloaca D. Mullerian ducts E. increased uterine blood flow B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 40. relaxation of smooth muscle C. 42.True / False Questions 39. Which of the following is not a chief effect of progesterone? A. The sex of an individual is determined at the moment of fertilization. urogenital groove C. sodium and water retention 44. E. artery expansion C. lower back pain C. The baby is born. C. lordosis B. The maternal oxygen levels are also falling. C. The fetus is removing carbon dioxide from her blood.43. The placenta is expelled. 46. D. What occurs during stage 3 of labor? A. gastrointestinal reflux D. The amniotic sac ruptures. progesterone B. Effacement occurs. impotence 45. She has trouble breathing due to the expanding uterus. E. B. True / False Questions . renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism D. This creates a favorable concentration gradient between the fetal and maternal blood. Which of the following is not involved in the increase in blood volume in a pregnant woman? A. The bronchial tubes relax. The cervix dilates. D. Why would you predict that the blood carbon dioxide levels in a pregnant woman would fall? A. B. incontinence E. an increase in blood oxygen levels E. Which of the following problems is not associated with pregnancy? A. bloody show B. True False 48. Sheila is experiencing contractions every 15 to 20 minutes that last for 40 seconds or longer. it is almost time for the baby to be born. Development ceases at birth. uterine contractions D. When the uterus begins to contract. Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor. Which of the following does not occur prior to or during stage 1 of labor? A. True False . True False Multiple Choice Questions 49. breaking water E.47. effacement C. dislodging of the placenta Yes / No Questions 50. Is she ready to give birth? Yes No True / False Questions 51. this supports which theory of aging? A. whole-body process C. genetic in origin B. genetic in origin B. extrinsic factors True / False Questions 55.Multiple Choice Questions 52. Which of the following defines "aging"? A. the loss of function of various body systems C. extrinsic factors 54. Which hypothesis of aging involves mitochondria? A. True False . If Dan lives longer than his father did because Dan takes better care of himself than his father did. whole-body process C. the failure to thrive 53. Menopause in women and andropause in men occur for very different reasons. the onset of sexual maturity D. the development of disease or disability E. progressive changes from infancy until death B. The number of elastic fibers decreases. cardiovascular disorders B. E. B. Which of the following skin changes is not associated with growing older? A. Females undergo menopause. stroke C. Few neural cells in the cerebral cortex are lost during the normal aging process. C. suicide E. True False . D. True / False Questions 59. More neural cells are lost as we age. Ventilation of the lungs is reduced. Pigmented blotches appear on the skin. There is an increase in the number of oil glands. There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur. cancer 57. Which of the following statements is related to a decrease in blood flow? A. E. D. The homeostatic adjustment to heat is limited. accidents D. What is the leading cause of death today? A. C. The liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before. There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer. B. 58.Multiple Choice Questions 56. Males develop urinary incontinence but females do not. Females dehydrate faster than males do.Multiple Choice Questions 60. Males lose skeletal muscle mass but females tend to gain muscle mass. How do males and females differ as they age? A. Females undergo menopause but males do not undergo any changes in their reproductive hormone levels. D. C. E. Males can continue to produce sperm until death but females do not continue to produce eggs. B. . oocyte plasma membrane The sperm first makes its way through the corona radiata. fertilization membrane The acrosome is part of the sperm. oocyte plasma membrane. zona pellucida E. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. Section: 17.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm.01.01 Topic: Animal Development . Bloom's Level: 2.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each.01 Topic: Animal Development 2. zona pellucida. oocyte plasma membrane. corona radiata. Which of the following is not associated with the egg? A. zona pellucida D. corona radiata. zona pellucida. corona radiata C.Chapter 17 Development and Aging Key Multiple Choice Questions 1.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. cortical granule E. then through the zona pellucida. Which of the following gives the correct order of layers the sperm crosses when entering the egg? A. acrosome C. oocyyte plasma membrane. Section: 17. zona pellucida. not the egg. oocyte plasma membrane B. corona radiata B. corona radiata. corona radiata. Bloom's Level: 2. zona pellucida D. and finally across the oocyte plasma membrane. Section: 17. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. middle piece C. Section: 17. several sperm penetrate the corona radiata.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm.01.True / False Questions 3.01 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions 4. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. head Mitochondria are located in the middle piece of the sperm. During fertilization.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each. TRUE Several sperm do penetrate the corona radiata. but only one penetrates the zona pellucida. tail B.01.01 Topic: Animal Development . Bloom's Level: 1. Where are the mitochondria located in the sperm? A. Bloom's Level: 1. C.5. zona pellucida.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each. corona radiata.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. cortical granule cells. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. Section: 17. Bloom's Level: 2. The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the A. middle piece C. Which part of the sperm contains the chromosomes? A. B. D. tail B.01. Section: 17. outer cell mass. The follicular cells that adhere to the outside of the egg are called the corona radiata. Understand . E.01.01 Topic: Animal Development 6. the corona radiata becomes the fertilization membrane. Bloom's Level: 2. pronuclei. head The head contains the nucleus and the acrosome. FALSE The zona pellucida becomes the fertilization membrane.01 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions 7. Once the cortical granules release their enzymes. Section: 17. Fingernails appear. and ear become noticeable. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development . eyes. The nose. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01. D. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm.01 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions 8. acrosome of the sperm B. Testes descend into scrotum.01 Topic: Animal Development 9. This prevents the binding of any other sperm. Heartbeat can be heard.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm. Nose.Learning Outcome: 17. C. and ears are noticeable at about the 5th week. depolarization of the egg's plasma membrane C. B. the egg's plasma membrane depolarizes. Section: 17. Chorion appears. Which of the following occurs during the embryonic stage of development? A. Which of the following is involved in the prevention of polyspermy? A. Section: 17.01. Bloom's Level: 1. fusion of the sperm and egg nucleus D.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development.02. eyes. changes within the corona radiata As soon as a sperm touches an egg. E. FALSE At the end of the embryonic period.02 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions 11. embryonic C. At the end of the embryonic period. fetal At 6-8 weeks. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development . the embryo is about 12 inches long. Bloom's Level: 2. pre-embryonic B.True / False Questions 10.02. the embryo is approximately 1.02. The nervous system develops enough to permit reflex actions during which period of development? A.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.5 inches long. Bloom's Level: 2. the nervous system is developed well enough to permit reflex actions. Section: 17. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. 02 Topic: Animal Development .02 Topic: Animal Development 13. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. Bloom's Level: 2. one week B. five weeks D. Embryonic development begins with A. Section: 17. C. Embryonic development begins at implantation.12. nine weeks The heart begins to develop in the third week and continues into the fourth week. B.02.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. Bloom's Level: 1. the first cell division. gastrulation.02. the development of the blastocyst. D. E. When does the heart begin to develop? A. seven weeks E. implantation. three weeks C. Section: 17. fertilization.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. The nervous system develops from ectoderm and the skeleton develops from mesoderm. primary germ layers E. Bloom's Level: 2. blastula. Section: 17. D.02 Topic: Animal Development 15. Section: 17.02. embryonic disk C. morula B. gastrulation D. The nervous system is to the ectoderm as the skeleton is to the A. allantois.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers.02. Which of these is associated with pre-embryonic development? A. C.02 Topic: Animal Development . forms early during pre-embryonic development. a ball of cells. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. mesoderm. B. endoderm. chorion. formation of the umbilical cord The morula. E.14. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Bloom's Level: 5. when the nervous system develops C. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. Which of the following is not derived from the endoderm? A. when it becomes recognizable as human Gastrulation involves morphogenesis and the formation of three germ layers.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers. epithelial lining of digestive tract B. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers. when it forms the inner cell mass E. Bloom's Level: 2. lining of the urinary bladder E. glands of the digestive tract D. when it begins cleavage B.02. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions . when it forms the gastrula D. epithelial lining of respiratory tract C.02 Topic: Animal Development 17. urinary system The urinary system forms from mesoderm.16. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. At what point during development does the embryo form three germ layers? A. Section: 17.02. D.18. B. C.01 Recognize how cleavage. Section: 17. morphogenesis. growth. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. FALSE The inner cell mass becomes the embryonic disk after gastrulation. this is called A. differentiation. and differentiation all play a role in development.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development . Bloom's Level: 1. The embryonic disk becomes the inner cell mass after gastrulation. cleavage. E.02.02. When cells take on specific structure and function. Section: 17. fertilization. morphogenesis. Differentiation occurs when cells take on a specific structure and function. Bloom's Level: 5.02 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions 19. growth. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. growth.02 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions 21.02. reproductive system. morphogenesis. The 4 cell stage of development is almost twice the size of the 2 cell stage of development. Section: 17. cardiovascular system. and differentiation all play a role in development. Section: 17. growth. C.01 Recognize how cleavage. FALSE Cleavage results in an increase in the number of cells without an increase in size of the embryo.02 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions . The nervous system is the first system to become visibly differentiated. respiratory system. Bloom's Level: 1.20. nervous system. digestive system. and differentiation all play a role in development. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17. D. The first system in the body to become visibly differentiated during development is the A. Bloom's Level: 5. morphogenesis.02.01 Recognize how cleavage. B. E. 02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each. D. growth. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. fertilization. E. and differentiation all play a role in development.02 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions 23. Bloom's Level: 1. morphogenesis. B.01 Recognize how cleavage. morphogenesis. C. Section: 17. Morphogenesis is the shaping of the embryo. cleavage. Section: 17. Bloom's Level: 1. The names of the extraembryonic membranes are derived from their function in animals that produce shelled eggs. this is called A. When cells begin to move in the embryo in relation to other cells. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions .02. growth. TRUE The names of these membranes are derived from their functions in birds. and is first evident when certain cells move in relation to other cells. differentiation.02.22. 02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each. umbilical blood vessels. chorionic villi.02. Bloom's Level: 4. The amnion contains the amniotic fluid while the allantois contains the umbilical blood vessels. yolk. The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo. amnion The chorion develops into the fetal half of the placenta and provides the embryo with nourishment and oxygen.02 Topic: Animal Development 25. amniotic cavity. The amnion is to the amniotic fluid as the allantois is to the A. yolk sac D. Section: 17. Section: 17.02 Topic: Animal Development .02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each.24. E. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17. B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17. C. blood cell precursors. What does that in humans? A. Bloom's Level: 4. chorion B. allantois C.02. D. Section: 17. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. yolk sac. and it is the first site of ___________.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. A. blood cell formation The yolk sac is the first embryonic membrane to appear and it is the first site of blood cell formation. FALSE The blood of the mother and the fetus never mix because exchange takes place across the villi. Bloom's Level: 2. umbilical cord formation B.03. chorion. The _______ is the first embryonic membrane to appear.02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each. yolk sac.02 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions 27. placenta development C. amniotic fluid formation E. allantois.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. amnion. Bloom's Level: 2. The blood of the mother and the fetus mix in the placenta. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions . neural system development D.26. B. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.28. C. Yes. because the ovarian cycle continues to function. No.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. hypothalamus C. Section: 17. No. because the developing embryo prevents any new blastulas from implanting. because negative feedback on the hypothalamus prevents new follicles from maturing.03 Topic: Animal Development 29. What structure produces progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy? A.03. No.03. Bloom's Level: 1. Does a woman ovulate during pregnancy? Why or why not? A. because the uterine cycle continues to function. ovaries The placenta is the source of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy. Bloom's Level: 5. Yes. D. posterior pituitary E. anterior pituitary D. E. A woman does not ovulate during pregnancy because of negative feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary which prevents any new follicles from maturing.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development.03 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions . Section: 17. placenta B. She has no more follicles in the ovaries. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17. Which of the following would be considered a poor health practice for a woman planning to get pregnant or already pregnant? A. but her food intake should not become excessive or she will gain too much weight and so will the baby.03 Topic: Animal Development . Section: 17.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. Most birth defects are due to the inheritance of an abnormal number of chromosomes.03. Bloom's Level: 2. treating all sexually transmitted diseases C. Bloom's Level: 4. obtaining more folic acid D. FALSE Most birth defects are the result of poor health practices during pregnancy. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.30. moderate exercise To a certain point a woman needs to consume more calories. updating all vaccinations B. Section: 17. eating enough to feed two people E.03.03 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions 31. 32. C. ductus arteriosus B. The umbilical arteries carry oxygen-poor blood to the placenta.02 Describe the flow of blood in a fetus and explain the role of the placenta. Bloom's Level: 4. oxygen-rich blood to the placenta. Bloom's Level: 2.03. internal iliac artery The ductus arteriosus enables the blood to bypass the lungs. oxygen-poor blood to the developing fetus. Which of the following is present in the fetus but not in an adult human? A. The umbilical arteries carry A. left atrium D.02 Describe the flow of blood in a fetus and explain the role of the placenta. oxygen-poor blood to the placenta. superior vena cava E. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development 33. D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17. B. pulmonary vein C.03. oxygen-rich blood to the developing fetus.03 Topic: Animal Development . Understand Learning Outcome: 17. Section: 17. E. D. They both connect to the placenta. Bloom's Level: 4. They are both present in an adult human. When does the mother first begin to feel the fetus move? A. 7-9 months During the fifth through seventh months the mother begins to feel movement. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17. C.03. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 17. How are the pulmonary veins and the umbilical veins similar? A.03. 1-2 months B. They both carry blood to the lungs. B.03 Topic: Animal Development . Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development 35. 5-7 months D. They both carry oxygen-rich blood.34. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. Both the umbilical vein and the pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood (which is unusual for veins). They both connect to the superior vena cava.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. 3-4 months C.02 Describe the flow of blood in a fetus and explain the role of the placenta. lanugo. The white.36. B. The vernix caseosa is a white. vernix caseosa. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months.03 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions . Remember Learning Outcome: 17. Section: 17. cheeselike substance that covers the skin is called A. Fetal development includes the third through ninth months of development. ductus arteriosus. Bloom's Level: 1.03. C. greasy. greasy. fontanels. Bloom's Level: 1. D.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. E. TRUE Fetal development follows embryonic development and lasts from the third through the ninth month of development. foramen ovale. Section: 17.03 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions 37.03. cheeselike substance that probably protects the skin from the amniotic fluid. Bloom's Level: 2. The nose.03.03 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions . Section: 17. D. and hair on the head appear. eyebrows.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months.03 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions 39.03.38. XY for males) which is determined at the moment of fertilization. It is possible to distinguish males from females. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. Head growth slows down as the rest of the body increases in length. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17. Fingernails. nipples. TRUE Sex is determined by the chromosomal make-up (XX for females. At the beginning of the third month. Bone begins to be replaced with cartilage in certain areas of the skeleton.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. and ears are present. Which of the following is not true concerning the fetus during the third month of development? A. C. eyes. Section: 17. The sex of an individual is determined at the moment of fertilization. Bloom's Level: 4. E. cartilage begins to be replaced by bone as ossification centers appear. eyelashes. B. reduced uterine motility D. into a male because testosterone is not present.03. A defective SRY gene would not allow the production of testosterone and the fetus would develop into a female.03 Topic: Animal Development 41. Mullerian ducts E. If a fetus contains an X and a Y chromosome but a defective SRY gene. Section: 17. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. Apply Learning Outcome: 17.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Animal Development 42. Which of the following develops into the male genital ducts? A. relaxation of smooth muscle C.40. D. into a male because testosterone is present. C. Wolffian ducts The male genital ducts develop from the Wolffian ducts. reduced maternal immune response to fetus Increased uterine blood flow is a chief effect of estrogen. Which of the following is not a chief effect of progesterone? A. Analyze . Bloom's Level: 4. B. Bloom's Level: 3. into a female because testosterone is present. epididymis B. Section: 17. urogenital groove C.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months. they will develop A. into a female because testosterone is not present.03. cloaca D. increased uterine blood flow B. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism D. incontinence E. an increase in blood oxygen levels E. which change little during pregnancy. Bloom's Level: 4.04. progesterone B.04 Topic: Animal Development 43. gastrointestinal reflux D.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy. Which of the following is not involved in the increase in blood volume in a pregnant woman? A. impotence Impotence is a male problem and is not associated with pregnancy. sodium and water retention All of these have an effect on increasing blood volume except the blood oxygen levels.Learning Outcome: 17. artery expansion C. lordosis B.04. Bloom's Level: 5. lower back pain C.04 Topic: Animal Development . Section: 17. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.04. Which of the following problems is not associated with pregnancy? A.04 Topic: Animal Development 44.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy. Section: 17. Section: 17. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy. What occurs during stage 3 of labor? A. Why would you predict that the blood carbon dioxide levels in a pregnant woman would fall? A.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy. The maternal oxygen levels are also falling. This creates a favorable concentration gradient between the fetal and maternal blood.04 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions .04. The baby is born.04.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth. C.04 Topic: Animal Development 46. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17. E. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. The amniotic sac ruptures. Bloom's Level: 1. C. The bronchial tubes relax.45. B. The fetus is removing carbon dioxide from her blood. Bloom's Level: 5. The cervix dilates. Section: 17. She has trouble breathing due to the expanding uterus. The afterbirth is expelled during the third stage of birth. D. A favorable concentration gradient allows carbon dioxide to flow from the fetal blood into the maternal blood at the placenta. E. The placenta is expelled. Section: 17. B. Effacement occurs. D. FALSE The uterus has contractions throughout pregnancy.04. TRUE Oxytocin is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor. When the uterus begins to contract. bloody show B. Bloom's Level: 2. breaking water E.04 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions 49.04. Section: 17. dislodging of the placenta The disloding of the placenta does not occur until stage 3 of labor. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17. effacement C. it is almost time for the baby to be born.04 Topic: Animal Development . Which of the following does not occur prior to or during stage 1 of labor? A. Bloom's Level: 1. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. Bloom's Level: 5.04 Topic: Animal Development 48.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.47. Section: 17. uterine contractions D. Remember Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth. Section: 17. Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor.04. 02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth. Section: 17. FALSE Humans continue to develop through infancy.This is considered the onset of true labor.Yes / No Questions 50.04. Bloom's Level: 3.04 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions 51. Development ceases at birth. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. Sheila is experiencing contractions every 15 to 20 minutes that last for 40 seconds or longer. Apply Learning Outcome: 17. Bloom's Level: 2.05. adolescence. childhood. Section: 17. Is she ready to give birth? YES Yes. and adulthood.05 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions . genetic in origin B. Section: 17. the loss of function of various body systems C. Bloom's Level: 3.05. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. Bloom's Level: 1. whole-body process C. Which of the following defines "aging"? A. Apply . the failure to thrive Aging is defined as progressive changes from infancy until eventual death. If Dan lives longer than his father did because Dan takes better care of himself than his father did.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. this supports which theory of aging? A. extrinsic factors The extrinsic factors theory of aging states that much of what we attribute to aging is instead due to years of poor health habits.05 Topic: Animal Development 54.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. progressive changes from infancy until death B. Bloom's Level: 2. Which hypothesis of aging involves mitochondria? A. the development of disease or disability E. whole-body process C. the onset of sexual maturity D.05 Topic: Animal Development 53. Section: 17. extrinsic factors The current mitochondrial hypothesis of aging suggests that aging is genetic in origin. genetic in origin B.52. Understand Learning Outcome: 17.05. 05. Menopause in women and andropause in men occur for very different reasons. accidents D.05 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions 55. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17.05. What is the leading cause of death today? A. stroke C.05 Topic: Animal Development .05 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions 56. Section: 17. FALSE Both menopause and andropause occur for similar reasons. suicide E.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. Remember Learning Outcome: 17. Bloom's Level: 4.Learning Outcome: 17.05. Section: 17. cancer Cardiovascular disorders are the leading cause of death today.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. cardiovascular disorders B. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 17. The ovaries and tests do not respond to hormones produced by the anterior pituitary. Bloom's Level: 4.05 Topic: Animal Development True / False Questions . There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur. Pigmented blotches appear on the skin. Section: 17. There is an increase in the number of oil glands. B. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 17.05. E. The liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before.05. The number of oil glands decreases as we age.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. C.05 Topic: Animal Development 58. D. Section: 17. The homeostatic adjustment to heat is limited. E.57. D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17. The number of elastic fibers decreases. Ventilation of the lungs is reduced. B. C. Bloom's Level: 5. the liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. and the skin tends to crack. Which of the following skin changes is not associated with growing older? A. Which of the following statements is related to a decrease in blood flow? A. As the blood flow to the liver is reduced. There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer. More neural cells are lost as we age. Females undergo menopause. 59.05 Topic: Animal Development .02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. Males can continue to produce some sperm until death but females do not produce eggs past menopause.05 Topic: Animal Development Multiple Choice Questions 60. B. Section: 17. Bloom's Level: 2. E. Females undergo menopause but males do not undergo any changes in their reproductive hormone levels. Males lose skeletal muscle mass but females tend to gain muscle mass. Understand Learning Outcome: 17. C. Females dehydrate faster than males do.05. Analyze Learning Outcome: 17. D. Males can continue to produce sperm until death but females do not continue to produce eggs. Section: 17.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. Few neural cells in the cerebral cortex are lost during the normal aging process.05. This means that cognitive skills remain unchanged. How do males and females differ as they age? A. Males develop urinary incontinence but females do not. Bloom's Level: 4. TRUE New studies have shown this to be true. 01 Recognize how cleavage.01 Explain the influence of progesterone and estrogen on female physiology during pregnancy.Chapter 17 Development and Aging Summary Category # of Question s Bloom's Level: 1.02.05. Remember 17 Bloom's Level: 2. Apply 3 Bloom's Level: 4.02 Summarize the effects of aging on the organ systems of the body. 7 Learning Outcome: 17.01 8 Section: 17. Analyze 11 Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate 8 Learning Outcome: 17. 3 Learning Outcome: 17.04.02 18 Section: 17.03 Summarize the major events in the development of the fetus from three to nine months.02.01 Explain the three hypotheses on why humans age. 4 Learning Outcome: 17. Understand 21 Bloom's Level: 3.04 9 Section: 17. 5 Learning Outcome: 17. morphogenesis.05. Learning Outcome: 17. 5 Learning Outcome: 17. 4 Learning Outcome: 17. 4 Learning Outcome: 17. Learning Outcome: 17.01.05 10 Topic: Animal Development 60 .02.01 Identify the structures of an egg and sperm cell and provide a function for each.02.04.04 Summarize the key events that occur at each stage of pre- 6 embryonic and embryonic development. growth.03. and differentiation all play a role in devel 4 opment. 5 Section: 17.03 15 Section: 17.02 Identify the extraembryonic membranes and provide a function for each.02 Describe the steps in the fertilization of an egg cell by a sperm. 5 Learning Outcome: 17.01.03 Identify the organ systems that are formed from each of the primary germ layers.03. 4 Learning Outcome: 17.02 Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.01 State the roles of progesterone and estrogen in fetal development. 4 Learning Outcome: 17.03.02 Describe the flow of blood in a fetus and explain the role of the placenta. C. largest to smallest. 92 2. epithelial cells D. How many chromosome pairs does a human have? A. smooth muscle cells E. B. largest to smallest. with the sex chromosomes at the end. with the sex chromosomes at the end.Chapter 18 Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 1. D. red blood cells C. 46 D. including the sex chromosomes. . skeletal muscle cells 3. 25 C. white blood cells B. In a karyotype the chromosomes are arranged in order from A. including the sex chromosomes. Which cell could you not use to produce a karyotype? A. 23 B. smallest to largest. smallest to largest. 50 E. six . four E. From Figure 18. In a karyotype. C.1 it can be seen that a homologous pair of chromosomes contains how many chromatids? A. True / False Questions 5. 7. there were three copies of a chromosome present. each chromosome contains two sister chromatids. spindle. B. C. two C. a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred. Two sister chromatids are held together at the A. From a karyotype you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether A. one B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 6. three D. B. D. one chromosome was missing. autosome. a particular gene contained a mutation. D. E. aster.4. telomere. centromere. a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes. E. Prospective parents want to know whether a chromosomal abnormality exists in the fetus. B. 8-12 weeks of pregnancy E. 12-16 weeks of pregnancy 9. 3-4 weeks of pregnancy C. E.8. Jessica and Nathan just found out they are pregnant. Yes / No Questions 10. D. C. 1-2 weeks of pregnancy B. Can they have an amniocentesis done now? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions . The results of the karyotype can be obtained ealrier than with an amniocentesis. There is no danger to the fetus in removing chorionic villi. The doctor estimates it has been 6 weeks since her last menstruation. It is relatively to remove chorionic villi with a suction tube. The chorion is the fetal part of the placenta. 5-8 weeks of pregnancy D. When is chorionic villi sampling generally performed? A. Which of the following is not a reason chorionic villi sampling is used to determine the fetal karyotype? A. Mitosis occurs during G1 but not during G2. apoptosis and interphase B. mitosis and meiosis E. Which of the following is not a stage of interphase? A. How are G1 and G2 different? A. The amount of time the cell takes for interphase is approximately 1 hour. G1 C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . The cell spends much more time in G2 than in G1. G2 D. cytokinesis B. True / False Questions 14. B. The cell copies its DNA during G1 but not G2. interphase and cell division 12. S 13. plus or minus about 5 minutes. C. E. What are the two parts of the cell cycle? A. nucleus and cytoplasm D. In G1. D. the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA and in G2 it synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division. The cell does not grow during G1 but doubles its organelles in G2.11. mitosis and cytokinesis C. during mitosis E. E. C. Both involve DNA synthesis. The cell receives external signals to divide. C.15. How are mitosis and cytokinesis alike? A. Both involve mitochondria. B. The cell makes a commitment to divide. The cell enters G0. When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids? A. G1 and G2 B. mitosis B. D. B. At what 2 checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA? A. The cell checks that the DNA has replicated. What happens at the G2 checkpoint? A. Both involve division. during G1 of interphase B. during G2 of interphase D. Both involve the nucleus. during S of interphase C. 18. Both involve apoptosis. 19. Which comes first: mitosis or cytokinesis? A. The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly. during cytokinesis 16. D. G2 and mitotic . cytokinesis 17. G1 and mitotic C. E. When a child is born. what cell division process occurs? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions . mitosis B. meiosis True / False Questions 23. inhibit it 22. How do proto-oncogenes affect the cell cycle? A. During development from a zygote to a child. External signals such as hormones and growth factors can stimulate a cell to go through the cell cycle. stimulate it B.True / False Questions 20. the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell. True False Multiple Choice Questions 21. mitosis ceases to function. Following mitosis. True False 24. nucleolus C. prophase B. If a cell has 4 pair of chromosomes. 8 D. centromere 27. nuclear membrane D. Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis? A. telophase 28. metaphase C. Which of the following is part of the mitotic spindle? A. 16 E. sister chromatid B. interphase B. anaphase D. metaphase D. 4 C. At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing? A. 2 B. aster E. anaphase E. prophase C. after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes? A. 32 26.25. telophase . anaphase D. anaphase and telophase E. actin filaments True / False Questions 33. prophase and anaphase D. At which stage of mitosis do the chromsomes look like the letter "V"? A. intermediate filaments C.29. At what stage of mitosis do sister chromatids become chromosomes? A. prophase and metaphase B. prophase and telophase 32. metaphase C. telophase 31. anaphase D. telophase 30. In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear/disappear? A. There is no mechanism to ensure the exact partitioning of the cytoplasm as there is of the DNA. prophase B. microtubules B. metaphase and anaphase C. True False . prophase B. Which aspect of the cytoskeleton is involved in the cleavage furrow? A. metaphase C. 4 C. In meiosis there are how many divisions and how many daughter cells? A.2 D. 8 D. 1. 1. 32 . True False Multiple Choice Questions 36. then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction.8 True / False Questions 35. 2 B. 2. If an organism has 4 pairs of chromosomes.Multiple Choice Questions 34. after meiosis it will contain how many chromosomes? A.4 C. 2. 16 E.4 E.2 B. If an organism does not undergo meiosis. 2. metaphase I B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . prophase I B. prophase II C. anaphase II E. metaphase II E. interkinesis 39. When do the centromeres divide in meiosis? A.37. In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other? A. anaphase I 38. anaphase II E. prophase II C. prophase I B. In what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur? A. anaphase I D. anaphase I D. Sexual reproduction introduces more genetic variation than does asexual reproduction. telophase I True / False Questions 40. metaphase I D. metaphase II C. This is associated with which stage of meiosis? A. metaphase II E. 32 42. prophase I B. . True False Multiple Choice Questions 44. Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change. 8 D. and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate. 4 C. then you are looking at A. If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16. how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible? A. B. Independent alignment creates genetic variation. metaphase I C. mitosis.41. 2 B. prophase II D. 16 E. meiosis. anaphase II True / False Questions 43. If there are 4 pairs of chromosomes. and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes. one sperm/egg forms from one primary spermatocyte/oocyte. B. meiosis. Both result in 1 or 2 polar bodies. B. mitosis. meiosis I B. Which division of meiosis is like mitosis? A. E. Both result in 4 daughter cells. Both result in cells with half the chromosome number. In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis? A. If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes. meiosis II 47. True / False Questions 48. In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Both occur continuously from puberty on. D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . then the cell has undergone A. 46.45. Both are arrested in prophase I. C. but on the order of years. All the products of oogenesis are the same size. spermatids. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I.49. True False Multiple Choice Questions 52. There is usually a pause of about 1 hour. True / False Questions 50. True False 51. spermatazoa. C. secondary spermatocytes. 4 . primary spermatocytes. B. B. 1 B. 2 C. C. 53. If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized. how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal? A. It varies. it does not complete meiosis II. One follows directly after the other. D. The product(s) of meiosis I in spermatogenesis is/are A. How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis? A. 3.2 55. elevated levels of purines in the blood B. 2. Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome? A. short stature B. Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis.2 C.1 E. increased tendency toward leukemia C. Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome? A. 1. stubby fingers E. accelerated rate of aging 57.1 D. 1. Turner syndrome B.3 B. increased tendency toward cataracts D. Klinefelter syndrome C. Down syndrome E. flat face D. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy? A. and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal sperm.54. Williams syndrome . Jacobs syndrome D. Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome? A. 2. indeterminate genitalia 56. eyelid fold C. Both have only two Y chromosomes. D.58. True False Multiple Choice Questions 60. E. duplication C. all of the DNA is present. B. translocation D. and there is only one copy of each piece. Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome? A. Both have one sex chromosome. inversion . Both have three sex chromosomes. Both have only 45 chromosomes. C. deletion B. How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike? A. In a translocation. Both have only two X chromosomes. True / False Questions 59. epithelial cells D. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Section: 18. 23 B. white blood cells B. smooth muscle cells E. Bloom's Level: 2. red blood cells C.Chapter 18 Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which cell could you not use to produce a karyotype? A.01. 46 D.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype. 50 E. 25 C. How many chromosome pairs does a human have? A. skeletal muscle cells Red blood cells do not have a nucleus and thus cannot be used for a karyotype.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 2. Section: 18.01. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . 92 A human cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype. largest to smallest. one chromosome was missing.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype. Section: 18. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18. In a karyotype the chromosomes are arranged in order from A. smallest to largest. C. Remember Learning Outcome: 18.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 4. a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred. including the sex chromosomes. a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes. Bloom's Level: 1.3. Bloom's Level: 5. C.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . a particular gene contained a mutation. You can see chromosome structure in a karyotype but not gene mutations. B.01. D. B. From a karyotype you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether A. E. D.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype. smallest to largest. with the sex chromosomes at the end. including the sex chromosomes. there were three copies of a chromosome present. Section: 18. with the sex chromosomes at the end. In a karyotype the chromosomes are arranged by size from largest to smallest with the sex chromosomes separate. largest to smallest.01. 02 Describe the purpose of the centromere in relation to the sister chromatids. the chromosomes have already duplicated and appear as two sister chromatids. Bloom's Level: 2. each chromosome contains two sister chromatids. E.02 Describe the purpose of the centromere in relation to the sister chromatids. Sister chromatids are held together at the centromere. Section: 18. telomere. TRUE When a karyotype is done. aster. Two sister chromatids are held together at the A. autosome. Bloom's Level: 1. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Section: 18.01.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 6. spindle. D.5.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . In a karyotype. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. centromere. B. C.01. 1 it can be seen that a homologous pair of chromosomes contains how many chromatids? A. Section: 18. 5-8 weeks of pregnancy D. one B. 1-2 weeks of pregnancy B. 3-4 weeks of pregnancy C.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . Bloom's Level: 3. When is chorionic villi sampling generally performed? A.03 List the methods of obtaining fetal chromosomes for karyotype analysis.01. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Describe the purpose of the centromere in relation to the sister chromatids. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.7. so a homologous pair contains 4 chromatids. three D.01. six Each homologue contains 2 chromatids. Section: 18. From Figure 18. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. four E. 12-16 weeks of pregnancy Chorionic villi sampling is usually performed from the eighth to the twelfth week of pregnancy.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 8. 8-12 weeks of pregnancy E. two C. The results of the karyotype can be obtained ealrier than with an amniocentesis. Which of the following is not a reason chorionic villi sampling is used to determine the fetal karyotype? A. D. Section: 18. The chorion is the fetal part of the placenta.01. There is a small risk (0.03 List the methods of obtaining fetal chromosomes for karyotype analysis. Apply Learning Outcome: 18. E. Prospective parents want to know whether a chromosomal abnormality exists in the fetus. The doctor estimates it has been 6 weeks since her last menstruation. It is relatively to remove chorionic villi with a suction tube. Bloom's Level: 5. C. Jessica and Nathan just found out they are pregnant.9. B.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Yes / No Questions 10. They must wait until between the 15th and 17th week of pregnancy. Section: 18. Can they have an amniocentesis done now? NO No. Bloom's Level: 3.8%) of spontaneous abortion with CVS.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . There is no danger to the fetus in removing chorionic villi. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18.03 List the methods of obtaining fetal chromosomes for karyotype analysis.01. apoptosis and interphase B. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. G2 D.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . G1 C. S Cytokinesis is part of mitosis.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each.02.11. mitosis and cytokinesis C.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. mitosis and meiosis E. cytokinesis B.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 12. interphase and cell division The cell cycle consists of interphase and cell division. Section: 18. not interphase. nucleus and cytoplasm D. Section: 18. Which of the following is not a stage of interphase? A. Bloom's Level: 2.02. What are the two parts of the cell cycle? A. Bloom's Level: 2. C. The cell does not grow during G1 but doubles its organelles in G2. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18. The cell spends much more time in G2 than in G1. E.02. B. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. In G1. The cell copies its DNA during G1 but not G2. Section: 18.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. The amount of time the cell takes for interphase is approximately 1 hour.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. the cell synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 14. Mitosis occurs during G1 but not during G2. In G1.13.02. FALSE The amount of time the cell takes for interphase varies widely. Section: 18. How are G1 and G2 different? A. D.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA and in G2 it synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division. the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA. plus or minus about 5 minutes. Bloom's Level: 5. while in G2. during G1 of interphase B. the cytoplasm divides. Both mitosis and cytokinesis involve division.02. during cytokinesis The DNA is duplicated during the S phase of interphase. Bloom's Level: 1. mitosis B. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 18. cytokinesis Mitosis. the division of the cytoplasm. Both involve DNA synthesis. during G2 of interphase D. B. precedes cytokinesis.02. E. during S of interphase C. Bloom's Level: 4.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each. during mitosis E.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 16. Both involve mitochondria.15. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. Both involve the nucleus.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis. Both involve division. In mitosis the DNA divides while in cytokinesis. Section: 18. Analyze . When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids? A. How are mitosis and cytokinesis alike? A. D. Which comes first: mitosis or cytokinesis? A.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 17. C. Both involve apoptosis. the division of the DNA. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. G1 and mitotic C. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. What happens at the G2 checkpoint? A. the cell verifies that the DNA has replicated. Section: 18. Section: 18.02. B. G2 and mitotic The cell checks for the integrity of the DNA in G1 before the DNA is replicated and in G2 before it undergoes division. The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 19.02.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle. G1 and G2 B. The cell makes a commitment to divide. The cell enters G0. The cell receives external signals to divide. Section: 18. At the G2 checkpoint. Bloom's Level: 2.Learning Outcome: 18. E. At what 2 checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA? A.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . The cell checks that the DNA has replicated. C.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle.02. D. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 18. Bloom's Level: 2.20. External signals such as hormones and growth factors can stimulate a cell to go through the cell cycle.02.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. what cell division process occurs? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. stimulate it B. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis .02. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. mitosis B.03. Bloom's Level: 1. inhibit it Proto-oncogenes stimulate the cell cycle.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 22. and child. Section: 18. Section: 18. fetus. meiosis Mitosis is responsible for new cells in the developming embryo. During development from a zygote to a child. TRUE The cell cycle can be controlled externally by hormones and growth factors.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle. Section: 18.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 21. How do proto-oncogenes affect the cell cycle? A. 03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 24.True / False Questions 23. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. TRUE The purpose of mitosis is to make two cells with the same number and types of chromosomes as the cell that divides. the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. Bloom's Level: 1.03. replacing tissues and healing damage.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis. When a child is born. Section: 18. Section: 18. mitosis ceases to function. Following mitosis.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . FALSE Mitosis continues throughout the lifetime.03. Bloom's Level: 2. 8 D. Which of the following is part of the mitotic spindle? A.03. nucleolus C.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis.25.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 26. centromere The aster is an array of microtubules at the poles that make up part of the mitotic spindle. Bloom's Level: 3. 4 C. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Apply Learning Outcome: 18. after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes? A. Section: 18. 16 E. 2 B.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis. 32 Each will have 4 pair.03.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . sister chromatid B. or 8 chromosomes. aster E. If a cell has 4 pair of chromosomes. Section: 18. nuclear membrane D. 03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 29.03. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 18. Section: 18. prophase B. metaphase C.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis? A. anaphase E.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. anaphase D.27. Bloom's Level: 2. interphase B.03. metaphase D. At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing? A. Understand . prophase B. At what stage of mitosis do sister chromatids become chromosomes? A.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 28. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. telophase The chromosomes first appear during prophase. prophase C. Bloom's Level: 2. telophase The sister chromatids split during anaphase and become chromosomes. metaphase C. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. anaphase D. telophase Interphase is not part of mitosis. 02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. anaphase and telophase E. telophase During anaphase. Section: 18.03.03. Bloom's Level: 4. prophase and anaphase D. Bloom's Level: 3. looking like a "V". Apply Learning Outcome: 18.03. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 31. prophase and metaphase B. The centromere moves toward the poles trailing the arms of the chromosome behind.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . prophase B. prophase and telophase The nuclear membrane disappears in prophase and reappears in telophase.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. anaphase D. At which stage of mitosis do the chromsomes look like the letter "V"? A.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis. In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear/disappear? A. Section: 18. the chromosomes are being pulled apart by the spindle apparatus attached at the centromere. metaphase and anaphase C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.Learning Outcome: 18. metaphase C.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 30. Section: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . Bloom's Level: 1.03. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 33. Bloom's Level: 5. actin filaments Actin filaments form a contractile ring that forms the cleavage furrow. TRUE Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm and organelles. intermediate filaments C. There is no mechanism to ensure the exact partitioning of the cytoplasm as there is of the DNA.32. Section: 18.03. microtubules B.03 State the purpose of cytokinesis. It is not exact. Which aspect of the cytoskeleton is involved in the cleavage furrow? A.03 State the purpose of cytokinesis. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. 2 D.01 State the purpose of meiosis. Section: 18. 2.4 E.01 State the purpose of meiosis.8 In meiosis there are 2 divisions resulting in 4 daughter cells.04 Topic: Meiosis Multiple Choice Questions .04. 2. Bloom's Level: 2.4 C.04 Topic: Meiosis True / False Questions 35.04. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. If an organism does not undergo meiosis. 1.2 B. 1. Section: 18. TRUE Sexual reproduction is dependent on the reduction division of meiosis. then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 18. 2. In meiosis there are how many divisions and how many daughter cells? A.34. 02 List the stages of meiosis and describe what occurs in each stage. Bloom's Level: 3. anaphase I Synapsis occurs when the chromosomes first appear in prophase I.04. Section: 18.01 State the purpose of meiosis. 16 E. 8 D. 4 C.04 Topic: Meiosis . prophase I B. 2 B. 32 After meiosis it will have 4 chromosomes.36.04 Topic: Meiosis 37. Bloom's Level: 1. If an organism has 4 pairs of chromosomes. Apply Learning Outcome: 18. Section: 18. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. In what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur? A. metaphase I D.04. after meiosis it will contain how many chromosomes? A. prophase II C. metaphase II E. anaphase I D. Section: 18. Bloom's Level: 2.04 Topic: Meiosis 39. prophase I B. interkinesis Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Section: 18. metaphase II C. prophase II C. metaphase I B. anaphase II E. When do the centromeres divide in meiosis? A.02 List the stages of meiosis and describe what occurs in each stage. Bloom's Level: 2. In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other? A.04 Topic: Meiosis True / False Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 18. telophase I The centromeres divide in anaphase II when the sister chromatids separate.04.02 List the stages of meiosis and describe what occurs in each stage.38.04. anaphase I D. anaphase II E. Bloom's Level: 2.04. 4 C. Bloom's Level: 3. 32 There would be 24. 16 E. TRUE In sexual reproduction the daughter cells are not identical to the parent cell as they are in asexual reproduction.03 Explain how meiosis increases genetic variation. or 16 possible combinations. If there are 4 pairs of chromosomes. therefore.03 Explain how meiosis increases genetic variation. Section: 18.04 Topic: Meiosis . Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Section: 18. there is more genetic variation in sexual reproduction.04.40. Apply Learning Outcome: 18. how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible? A. 8 D.04 Topic: Meiosis Multiple Choice Questions 41. Sexual reproduction introduces more genetic variation than does asexual reproduction. 2 B. metaphase II E.04. Section: 18. prophase II D. Bloom's Level: 2. anaphase II Independent alignment occurs when the homologues line up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I. prophase I B. Independent alignment creates genetic variation. Section: 18.04. Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change.04 Topic: Meiosis Multiple Choice Questions . TRUE Those individuals with a genetic variation that allows them to survive after an environmental change will pass on their genes. This is associated with which stage of meiosis? A. metaphase I C. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.42.03 Explain how meiosis increases genetic variation.04 Discuss the potential evolutionary benefits of meiosis over asexual reproduction.04 Topic: Meiosis True / False Questions 43. 44. . Bloom's Level: 1. then the cell has undergone A. Bloom's Level: 3. If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes. meiosis. B. If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16. mitosis. meiosis.05 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Topic: Meiosis 45. If there are only 8 structures then the chromosomes are lined up as homologous pairs. then you are looking at A.02 Contrast the events of meiosis I and meiosis II with the events of mitosis. meiosis II Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that sister chromatids separate during anaphase.05. meiosis I B. and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate.05. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.01 Distinguish between meiosis and mitosis with regard to the number of divisions and the number and chromosome content of the resulting cells. Section: 18. Bloom's Level: 2. In mitosis. Which division of meiosis is like mitosis? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Only in meiosis do homologous chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate. the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell. Section: 18.01 Distinguish between meiosis and mitosis with regard to the number of divisions and the number and chromosome content of the resulting cells.05 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Topic: Meiosis 46.05. B. mitosis. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE In spermatogenesis.05. 1 egg forms form one oocyte. Both result in cells with half the chromosome number. Section: 18. Both occur continuously from puberty on. one sperm/egg forms from one primary spermatocyte/oocyte. Bloom's Level: 4. In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis? A. Both result in 4 daughter cells. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18. D.Section: 18. In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis.04 Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis with regard to occurrence and the number of functional gametes produced by each process. Both are arrested in prophase I.05 Topic: Meiosis True / False Questions 48. Both result in 1 or 2 polar bodies. Section: 18. while in oogenesis. C.05 Topic: Meiosis Multiple Choice Questions .04 Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis with regard to occurrence and the number of functional gametes produced by each process. Both are forms of meiosis in which the daughter cells contain half the chromosome number. Understand Learning Outcome: 18.05 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Topic: Meiosis 47. 4 sperm form from one primary spermatocyte. B.05. E. Section: 18. Section: 18. Bloom's Level: 2.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18.49. It varies. B. Section: 18. Bloom's Level: 4. There is usually a pause of about 1 hour.05. FALSE The polar body(ies) are much smaller as the egg receives all of the cytoplasm. How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis? A.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. but on the order of years.05 Topic: Meiosis . Bloom's Level: 4.05 Topic: Meiosis True / False Questions 50.05.05 Topic: Meiosis 51. One follows directly after the other. If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. All the products of oogenesis are the same size. The cells are arrested in prophase I and do not complete metaphase I until after puberty upon ovulation. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18. TRUE Fertilization is required for the completion of meiosis II in oogenesis.05. it does not complete meiosis II. Bloom's Level: 3. secondary spermatocytes. The primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis I to produce two secondary spermatocytes. The product(s) of meiosis I in spermatogenesis is/are A. Bloom's Level: 2. C.06. how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. 2 C. Apply Learning Outcome: 18.05 Topic: Meiosis 53. spermatids. primary spermatocytes. Section: 18. 4 All 4 daughter cells will be abnormal. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I. D. B.Multiple Choice Questions 52.01 Explain how nondisjunction produces monosomy and trisomy chromosome conditions.05. 1 B.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.06 Topic: Meiosis . spermatazoa. Section: 18. 06. 1. 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome? A. 3. stubby fingers E.02 Describe the causes and consequences of trisomy 21.06 Topic: Meiosis 55. indeterminate genitalia Down syndrome individuals include all of the above symptoms except for indeterminate genitalia.1 D. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy? A.06 Topic: Meiosis . and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal sperm. Apply Learning Outcome: 18. Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis. one cell will have an extra copy (trisomy).1 E.54. and one cell will have a missing copy (monosomy). eyelid fold C.06. Section: 18. short stature B.3 B. Section: 18.01 Explain how nondisjunction produces monosomy and trisomy chromosome conditions. Bloom's Level: 2. 2. 1. flat face D. Bloom's Level: 3.2 C.2 Two cells will be normal. an X.02 Describe the causes and consequences of trisomy 21. Bloom's Level: 1.06 Topic: Meiosis .03 List the major syndromes associated with changes in the number of sex chromosomes. causes an increased level of purines in the blood. Turner syndrome B. The other X chromosome is missing. increased tendency toward cataracts D. Jacobs syndrome D. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. Section: 18. Remember Learning Outcome: 18. elevated levels of purines in the blood B. accelerated rate of aging The gene for mental retardation.56. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 18. Klinefelter syndrome C. dubbed the Gart gene. Down syndrome E.06. Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome? A.06 Topic: Meiosis 57. the individual has only one sex chromosome. Williams syndrome In Turner syndrome.06. Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome? A. increased tendency toward leukemia C. Bloom's Level: 2.06 Topic: Meiosis Multiple Choice Questions .04 Describe the effects of deletions. but there are no deletions or duplications. Analyze Learning Outcome: 18. duplications.06 Topic: Meiosis True / False Questions 59. all of the DNA is present. In a translocation.58. the sex chromosomes are XYY. Both have only two Y chromosomes. E. and there is only one copy of each piece. translocations. Both have only two X chromosomes.06. the sex chromosomes are XXY while in Jacobs syndrome. and inversions on chromosome structure. Section: 18. In both cases there are three sex chromosomes. Both have three sex chromosomes. Bloom's Level: 4. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. C. Section: 18. Both have one sex chromosome. D. In Klinefelter syndrome. a portion of a chromosome is moved. How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike? A. TRUE In a translocation.06.03 List the major syndromes associated with changes in the number of sex chromosomes. Both have only 45 chromosomes. B. chromosome 5 is missing the end piece. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 18. and inversions on chromosome structure.04 Describe the effects of deletions. translocation D.60. Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome? A. inversion In cri du chat syndrome. Understand Learning Outcome: 18. translocations. duplication C.06 Topic: Meiosis . deletion B.06. duplications. 03 List the major syndromes associated with changes in the number of sex chromosomes.05.03. 4 Learning Outcome: 18. 2 Learning Outcome: 18. 2 Learning Outcome: 18.01 State the purpose of meiosis.03 12 Section: 18.04 Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis with regard to occurrence and the numb 2 er of functional gametes produced by each process.03 Describe the purpose of the checkpoints in the cell cycle. 2 Learning Outcome: 18.05.06.01.04. 5 Learning Outcome: 18. Understand 27 Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 18.01 List the stages of the cell cycle and state the purpose of each.03 Explain how meiosis increases genetic variation. and inversions on chromosome s 2 tructure. 4 Learning Outcome: 18.02.02. 3 Learning Outcome: 18.04.01.02 Describe the purpose of the centromere in relation to the sister chromatids. 2 Learning Outcome: 18.04.03. 2 Learning Outcome: 18.02 Contrast the events of meiosis I and meiosis II with the events of mitosis.03.03 List the methods of obtaining fetal chromosomes for karyotype analysis. Analyze 7 Bloom's Level: 5. 1 Learning Outcome: 18.01 10 Section: 18. 3 Learning Outcome: 18.01. 6 Learning Outcome: 18.02 11 Section: 18.02 Explain the events that occur in each stage of mitosis.03 State the purpose of cytokinesis.01 Summarize the purpose of mitosis.05. 4 Learning Outcome: 18.04 Discuss the potential evolutionary benefits of meiosis over asexual reproduction.06.Chapter 18 Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance Summary Category # of Ques tions Bloom's Level: 1. 3 Learning Outcome: 18. Apply 9 Bloom's Level: 4. 3 Learning Outcome: 18.04.01 Explain the purpose of a karyotype.02. 4 Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain how nondisjunction produces monosomy and trisomy chromosome conditions. duplications.06.02 Describe the causes and consequences of trisomy 21.04 Describe the effects of deletions.06. 1 Learning Outcome: 18.02 List the stages of meiosis and describe what occurs in each stage. 3 Learning Outcome: 18.01 Distinguish between meiosis and mitosis with regard to the number of divisions and the numbe 2 r and chromosome content of the resulting cells. Learning Outcome: 18. Remember 12 Bloom's Level: 2.04 10 . Evaluate 5 Learning Outcome: 18.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis.03 List the stages of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Learning Outcome: 18.05. translocations. Section: 18.06 8 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 36 Topic: Meiosis 27 .05 9 Section: 18. Cancer cells lack differentiation. D. E. D. suppressor genes. C. B. cells have gained the ability to invade lymphatic and blood vessels. B. C. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells that distinguishes it from normal cells? A. when cells come in contact with a neighbor. cells are able to divide without the presence of stimulatory growth factors. The ends of the chromosomes are "capped" with special repetitive DNA sequences called A. centromeres. they stop dividing. oncogenes. radiata. Cancer cells form tumors. True / False Questions . 2. Cancer cells utilize mitosis to divide. B. E. C. 3. D. E. Contact inhibition means that A. telomeres.Chapter 19 Cancer Multiple Choice Questions 1. there are more chromosomes within the nucleus than there should be. cells only divide a certain specified number of times and then quit. Cancer cells have an unlimited potential to replicate. Cancer cells have abnormal nuclei. The cancer cells lack intact actin filament bundles. B. progression D. Invasive cancer cells are sperm-shaped. D. Cancer is a single disease that affects one in three Americans. A benign tumor is not dangerous because it cannot metastasize. True False Multiple Choice Questions 5. Which of the following is not a stage in carcinogenesis? A. C. Cancer cells produce proteinase enzymes. True False Multiple Choice Questions 7.4. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with metastasis? A. The internal cytoskeleton is disorganized. promotion C. differentiation True / False Questions 6. . E. initiation B. The low oxygen content in the middle of a tumor may turn on genes for angiogenesis. the gene for p53 True / False Questions 10. Proto-oncogenes A. which of the following is not true? A. growth factor receptor genes C. The cell cycle continues when it should not. C. B. become tumor suppressor genes when mutated. code for proteins that promote the cell cycle. Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the gas pedal of a car. Apoptosis is less likely to occur. Genes that stop the cell cycle are not turned on. A "gain-of function" mutation has occurred. D. promote apoptosis. If a tumor suppressor gene becomes mutated.8. are considered "loss-of-function" mutations. . True False Multiple Choice Questions 11. the gene for cyclin D B. the gene that codes for Ras proteins D. growth factor genes E. E. Genes that encode enzymes that repair DNA are not turned on. Which of the following is not a type of proto-oncogene? A. C. D. 9. B. E. code for angiogenic growth factors. 1 in 3 D. colon and rectum D. 1 in 2 C. prostate B. How many Americans will deal with cancer in their lifetime? A. colon and rectum B. E. Cancers of epithelial tissues are called A. sarcomas. all B. 1 in 4 E. 14. What type of cancer causes the most deaths in males? A. C. blastomas. What is the most common cancer found in males? A. leukemias. carcinomas. melanoma of the skin D.12. lymphomas. esophagus . pancreas E. D. oral cavity E. B. urinary bladder C. 1 in 5 13. prostate 15. lung and bronchus C. esophagus D. D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . cells of the liver and spleen. colon and rectum. mutated B cells. Both heredity and environmental risk factors come into play in the development of cancer. bladder B. or prostate? A. pancreas. pancreas. all types of white blood cells. Which accounts for more cancer deaths in males: bladder. 17. colon and rectum C. Hodgkin lymphomas develop from A. C. B. E. or ovary? A. pancreas D. pancreas C. Which is responsible for more cancer deaths in women: breast. B or T cells.16. bladder epithelial cells. prostate True / False Questions 19. esophagus. breast B. ovary 18. Both are oncogenes. What was the name of the first gene associated with breast cancer? A. Both cause eye cancers. B. What do BRCA1 and RB have in common? A. cyclin D E. RB B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 22. C. True / False Questions . If you only inherit one mutated copy of BRCA1 and the other copy is normal. E. Both cause breast cancer. BRCA1 True / False Questions 21. D. RET C.20. you will not develop breast cancer. Both are inherited as autosomal dominant traits. p53 D. Both are tumor suppressors. 23. ultraviolet radiation B. In the case of a proto-oncogene like RET. Which of the following is not a type of ionizing radiation? A. radon gas C. Thus far no evidence has been found that nonionizing radiation. True False Multiple Choice Questions 25. X-rays True / False Questions 26. such as the energy given off by cell phones. True False Multiple Choice Questions . True False 24. both copies of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer. A carcinogen is not a mutagen. nuclear fuel D. causes cancer. Increase your consumption of dark green. B. D. leafy vegetables. and various fruits. N-nitrosonornicotine C. B. vinyl chloride B. carrots. and nitrite-cured foods. Avoid radiation. Don't use tobacco. Which of the following is not a protective behavior that will help prevent cancer? A. Avoid obesity. . Which of the following is not found in tobacco smoke? A. Don't sunbathe. True False Multiple Choice Questions 30. Drink alcohol only in moderation. D. True / False Questions 29. E. benzo(a)pyrene 28. C. Avoid ham and sausage. C. E. Increase consumption of salt-cured. Epstein-Barr virus is routinely isolated from cases of cervical cancers. smoked. Increase consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family. asbestos D. Decrease your consumption of high-fiber foods. Which of the following dietary changes will not reduce your risk of developing cancer? A.27. Which of the following is not one of the seven warning signs? A. sleep habits. True False 33. True False Multiple Choice Questions 34. eating habits. skin coloring. change in bowel or bladder habits C. obvious change in wart or mole True / False Questions 32. Currently most cancers are diagnosed before metastasis. The "C" in CAUTION stands for change in A. E. which spell out the word CAUTION. The American Cancer Society publicizes seven warning signals. C. The earlier a cancer is detected. D. the more likely it can be effectively treated. B. True / False Questions . a cut that bleeds B. thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere D. sensitivity to heat or cold. indigestion or difficulty swallowing E. bowel or bladder habits.31. A mole becomes suspicious when it is greater than 6 mm in diameter. colon cancer . usually brown D. about the size of a pin prick B. about the size of a pencil eraser D. How big is 6 mm approximately? A. esophageal cancer C. about the size of a quarter 39. If you have one of the seven warning signals in CAUTION. asymmetry B. skin cancer B. True False 36. Which of the following is not one of the things to watch for in a mole? A. a solid color. larger than 6 mm E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 37. elevated above the skin surface 38. A Pap test looks for what type of cancer? A. about the size of a nickel E. just barely visible. about the same as one of the letters in this question C. Melanoma is the most serious form of skin cancer. cervical cancer E. bladder cancer D. irregular border C.35. this means that you have cancer. once a month D. daily B.40. If you receive the new vaccine against HPV. X-ray B. once a week C. fecal occult blood test True / False Questions 41. PSA E. once every 6 months E. or changes? A. blood test B. knots. flexible sigmoidoscopy D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 42. Which type of test is particularly useful in analyzing tumors in tissues surrounded by bone? A. digital examination C. How often should a woman do a shower self-examination of her breasts for lumps. CAT scan C. then you do not need to get Pap tests anymore. Which of the following tests is not used to screen for colon cancer? A. Pap test . once a year 43. MRI D. self-examination B. digital rectal examination. What type of screening test could be used to determine the likelihood that someone might develop cancer? A. genetic test E. fecal occult blood test 45. a genetic test E. in 20s B. in 30s C. fecal occult blood test B. a type of prostate cancer test C. PSA E. testicle self-examination D. What type of test is a CEA test? A. CEA test D. Which two tests are done for prostate cancer? A. a type of cervical cancer test D. PSA test C. mammography. in 60s 46. Pap test C. a tumor marker test 47. in 50s E. digital rectal examination. When should screening for colorectal cancer begin? A.44. PSA. testicle self-examination. PAP test B. tumor marker test True / False Questions . in 40s D. this is an indication this is a cancer cell. True False Multiple Choice Questions 49. immunotherapy B. surgery B.48. radiation therapy D. chemotherapy 50. Which is the most viable treatment option to handle Ted's cancer? A. If the gene for telomerase is turned off in a cell. Ionizing radiation both causes cancer and can be used to treat cancer. chemotherapy True / False Questions 51. surgery C. Which of the following is not a standard therapy for cancer treatment? A. Unfortunately. radiation therapy C. the cancer in Ted's body had spread to multiple sites. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Taxol is used to treat what type of cancer? A. diarrhea D. mitotic inhibitors 55. Which of the following is a side effect of radiation therapy that is not also a side effect of chemotherapy? A. leukemia B. weight loss and hair loss 54. Which treatment does not work for leukemia? A. irritated skin and/or blisters C. dry. alkylating agents B. fatigue and weakness E. bone marrow transplants E. antitumor antibiotics D. testicular cancer D. chemotherapy 53. vomiting B. ovarian cancer . nausea.52. lymphoma C. colon cancer E. antimetabolites C. Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapy? A. radiation therapy C. surgery B. red. is a type of cancer vaccine. 99% True / False Questions 57. 80% E. Which of the following is not a type of immunotherapy? A. genetically engineered antigen presenting cells True / False Questions 59. 30% C. 50% D. cytokine therapy D. Melacine. What is the survival rate for children with childhood leukemia? A. 10% B. anti-p53 engineered adenovirus C. True False . used against melanoma. monoclonal antibodies E. Antiangiogenic drugs cause cytotoxic T cells to attack tumor cells. cancer vaccines B.56. True False Multiple Choice Questions 58. the cells are killed. True False . When the p53 gene is overexpressed in normal cells.60. Bloom's Level: 1. E.01.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 2. Section: 19. Cancer cells form tumors. The ends of the chromosomes are "capped" with special repetitive DNA sequences called A. Section: 19. Cancer cells lack differentiation. B.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. C. Telomeres are repetitive DNA sequences that cap the ends of the chromosomes. B. D. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. Cancer cells have abnormal nuclei. Both cancerous and normal cells use mitosis to divide. D.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Bloom's Level: 4. Cancer cells utilize mitosis to divide. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19. radiata. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells that distinguishes it from normal cells? A. E. Cancer cells have an unlimited potential to replicate.Chapter 19 Cancer Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. telomeres. suppressor genes.01. oncogenes. C.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . centromeres. D. C. Bloom's Level: 4.01. when cells come in contact with a neighbor. cells have gained the ability to invade lymphatic and blood vessels. B. Bloom's Level: 2. Cancer is a single disease that affects one in three Americans. When they come in contact with a neighboring cell. Statistics say that it will affect one in three Americans. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19. cells are able to divide without the presence of stimulatory growth factors. Section: 19.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. FALSE Each type of cancer is different. Section: 19.01. they stop dividing. there are more chromosomes within the nucleus than there should be.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 4. they stop dividing. Contact inhibition means that A. cells only divide a certain specified number of times and then quit. E.3. Cancer is over a hundred different diseases.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . Contact inhibition is a characteristic of normal cells. Section: 19.01. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19. promotion C. not carcinogenesis.01. Which of the following is not a stage in carcinogenesis? A. Bloom's Level: 5. differentiation Cancer cells are undifferentiated. progression D. FALSE Even though a benign tumor cannot metastasize it can still cause damage if it presses on normal tissue or restricts the blood supply of normal tissue. Differentiation is a stage in development.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 19. initiation B.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells.5. Bloom's Level: 2. A benign tumor is not dangerous because it cannot metastasize.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 6. Section: 19. code for angiogenic growth factors.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . are considered "loss-of-function" mutations. C. Proto-oncogenes code for proteins that promote the cell cycle and prevent apoptosis.01.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Bloom's Level: 4. Angiogenesis is not associated with the ability of a cell to metastasize. B. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with metastasis? A. E. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19. C. promote apoptosis.7. Bloom's Level: 5. E. B. Invasive cancer cells are sperm-shaped. code for proteins that promote the cell cycle. Cancer cells produce proteinase enzymes. The cancer cells lack intact actin filament bundles. D. The internal cytoskeleton is disorganized. become tumor suppressor genes when mutated. Section: 19. The low oxygen content in the middle of a tumor may turn on genes for angiogenesis. although it is an important aspect of cancer cells.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 8. Proto-oncogenes A. D.01. Section: 19.02 Distinguish between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19. growth factor receptor genes C. Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the gas pedal of a car. Section: 19.9.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . the gene that codes for Ras proteins D. growth factor genes E. not a proto-oncogene. the gene for p53 The gene for p53 encodes a tumor suppressor. FALSE Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the brake of a car because they inhibit acceleration through the cell cycle. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02 Distinguish between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle. Which of the following is not a type of proto-oncogene? A. Section: 19.01. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19. Bloom's Level: 4.01.02 Distinguish between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 10. the gene for cyclin D B. Bloom's Level: 1. A "gain-of function" mutation has occurred. C. which of the following is not true? A. B.01. If a tumor suppressor gene becomes mutated. 1 in 5 One in three Americans will deal with cancer in their lifetime. 1 in 3 D. E. D. Genes that encode enzymes that repair DNA are not turned on.01. Genes that stop the cell cycle are not turned on.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Bloom's Level: 5. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. Section: 19. The cell cycle continues when it should not.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . Section: 19.02 Distinguish between a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle. 1 in 4 E. A mutated tumor suppressor gene is a "loss-of-function" mutation. How many Americans will deal with cancer in their lifetime? A. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19. all B.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 12.11. Apoptosis is less likely to occur. 1 in 2 C. 03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. B. oral cavity E. D. E.01. lymphomas.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 14. Section: 19. colon and rectum B. sarcomas. urinary bladder C. leukemias.01.13.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . C. blastomas. Cancers of the epithelial tissues are called carcinomas. Section: 19. What is the most common cancer found in males? A. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. Cancers of epithelial tissues are called A. melanoma of the skin D.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. prostate Prostate cancer accounts for 25% of cancers in males. carcinomas. colon and rectum D. C. Section: 19. D. all types of white blood cells. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. prostate B. esophagus Lung and bronchus cancers account for 30% of cancer deaths in males. pancreas E. Section: 19.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 16.15. Hodgkin lymphomas develop from A. E.01. B or T cells. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. B. lung and bronchus C.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. mutated B cells.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. Hodgkin lymphomas develop from mutated B cells.01. bladder epithelial cells. cells of the liver and spleen. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . What type of cancer causes the most deaths in males? A. 01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 18. Bloom's Level: 1. and bladder accounts for 3%. esophagus D. Colon and rectum accounts for 9%.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated.17. esophagus accounts for 4%. Which is responsible for more cancer deaths in women: breast.01. or prostate? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated. ovary Breast cancer accounts for 15% of cancer deaths in women. or ovary? A. colon and rectum. prostate Prostate cancer accounts for 9% of cancer deaths in males. Which accounts for more cancer deaths in males: bladder. Pancreas accounts for 6%. colon and rectum C.01 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . esophagus. Bloom's Level: 1. while pancreas accounts for 6% and ovary accounts for 5%. Section: 19. pancreas.01. pancreas D. Section: 19. pancreas. breast B. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. bladder B. pancreas C. 19. RET C.02. scientists know that both heredity and environmental risk factors play a role.02. BRCA1 The first gene associated with breast cancer was discovered in 1990 and named BRCA1. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. Bloom's Level: 2. RB B. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. p53 D. What was the name of the first gene associated with breast cancer? A.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . cyclin D E. Section: 19. Section: 19. Both heredity and environmental risk factors come into play in the development of cancer. TRUE Although our understanding of cancer is incomplete.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 20. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Explain how heredity and the environment may both contribute to cancer. Bloom's Level: 5. B. Bloom's Level: 3. Both BRCA1 and RB are tumor suppressors. FALSE BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor. although the development of breast cancer is not guaranteed. it is more likely. Apply Learning Outcome: 19. However. It certainly is not impossible. D.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer. Both cause eye cancers. C.02. If you only inherit one mutated copy of BRCA1 and the other copy is normal. Both are tumor suppressors. Section: 19. the likelihood of another mutation is increased. Both are oncogenes. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19. Both cause breast cancer. Section: 19. It takes the loss of both copies of the gene to cause cancer.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer.02. What do BRCA1 and RB have in common? A.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . E. you will not develop breast cancer. It takes the inactivation of both copies to cause cancer. if each cell in the body already has one mutated copy of BRCA1. Both are inherited as autosomal dominant traits. So.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 22.21. 02. only one copy of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer. FALSE In the case of proto-oncogenes.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Section: 19. Which of the following is not a type of ionizing radiation? A. A carcinogen is not a mutagen.02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. A carcinogen is a chemical that causes cancer by being mutagenic.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 24. nuclear fuel D. In the case of a proto-oncogene like RET. Bloom's Level: 2. ultraviolet radiation B. So a carcinogen is also a mutagen. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.23. Section: 19.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer. . Understand Learning Outcome: 19.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 25. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. Bloom's Level: 2. radon gas C.02. both copies of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer. Bloom's Level: 4. X-rays Ultraviolet radiation is not a type of ionizing radiation. This is what is meant by a "gain-of-function" mutation. FALSE A mutagen is an agent that causes mutations. it is not found in tobacco smoke. vinyl chloride B.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 27. such as the energy given off by cell phones.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. benzo(a)pyrene Although asbestos can increase the risk of cancer.Section: 19. causes cancer. Thus far no evidence has been found that nonionizing radiation.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 26. no evidence has been found to link nonionizing radiation with cancer. TRUE Although there has been a great deal of public concern. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. Which of the following is not found in tobacco smoke? A.02. N-nitrosonornicotine C. Section: 19. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 3.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis .02.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Apply Learning Outcome: 19. Section: 19. asbestos D. and nitrite-cured foods.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. Avoid radiation. Bloom's Level: 4. C. Human papillomavirus is associated with cervical cancers. One should decrease the consumption of salt-cured.28. smoked. E. Section: 19. Section: 19. and nitrite-cured foods.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . Bloom's Level: 2.02. Increase consumption of salt-cured. Don't sunbathe. Which of the following is not a protective behavior that will help prevent cancer? A. FALSE Epstein-Barr virus is associated with Burkitt lymphoma. B.02. D. Don't use tobacco. smoked. Epstein-Barr virus is routinely isolated from cases of cervical cancers. Increase consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 29.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19. D. Section: 19.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. carrots. Bloom's Level: 4.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer. a cut that bleeds B.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . and various fruits. Studies show that a high-fiber diet may protect against colon cancer. Bloom's Level: 2. thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere D.30. B. leafy vegetables. Which of the following is not one of the seven warning signs? A. Drink alcohol only in moderation. Which of the following dietary changes will not reduce your risk of developing cancer? A. change in bowel or bladder habits C. obvious change in wart or mole A sore that does not heal is one of the signs. Increase your consumption of dark green. Avoid ham and sausage.03.02 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 31.02. indigestion or difficulty swallowing E. but a cut that bleeds is normal. E. Decrease your consumption of high-fiber foods. Avoid obesity. C. Section: 19. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. bowel or bladder habits.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 34. FALSE Diagnosis of cancer before metastasis is difficult. The "C" in CAUTION stands for a change in bowel or bladder habits. Section: 19. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. C.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer.03. Bloom's Level: 1. sensitivity to heat or cold. skin coloring.03. Bloom's Level: 2. which spell out the word CAUTION. The American Cancer Society publicizes seven warning signals. Section: 19. the more likely it can be effectively treated.32.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. Section: 19. B.03. Currently most cancers are diagnosed before metastasis.03 . The "C" in CAUTION stands for change in A. D.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 33. eating habits. sleep habits. The earlier a cancer is detected. Bloom's Level: 2. E. TRUE This is why scientists are working on ways to detect cancer earlier. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. TRUE Of the various types of skin cancer. this means that you have cancer. melanoma is the most serious form.Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 35. Melanoma is the most serious form of skin cancer.03. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE These signs do not necessarily mean that you have cancer.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 19. Bloom's Level: 1. However. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. Section: 19. they are an indication that something is wrong and a medical professional should be consulted.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 36.03. Section: 19. If you have one of the seven warning signals in CAUTION.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. 37. this is a warning sign. irregular border C. a solid color. Section: 19. Which of the following is not one of the things to watch for in a mole? A. Section: 19. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 38. A mole becomes suspicious when it is greater than 6 mm in diameter. asymmetry B.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. about the size of a nickel E. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. elevated above the skin surface Normally moles are a solid color. about the same as one of the letters in this question C. about the size of a pencil eraser D.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . Bloom's Level: 3. about the size of a quarter The diameter of a pencil eraser is about 6 mm. larger than 6 mm E. usually brown D. How big is 6 mm approximately? A.03.03. If the color varies from one area to another. about the size of a pin prick B. Bloom's Level: 2. just barely visible. colon cancer A Pap test removes a sample of cells from the cervix to examine for cervical cancer. Bloom's Level: 2. fecal occult blood test A blood test is used to detect leukemia. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. skin cancer B. Bloom's Level: 2. esophageal cancer C. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.39. Section: 19. digital examination C.03. cervical cancer E.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions .02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. flexible sigmoidoscopy D.03. blood test B. Which of the following tests is not used to screen for colon cancer? A. but not colon cancer. A Pap test looks for what type of cancer? A. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 40. bladder cancer D.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Each of the other three is done. once a month D. once a year A woman should check her breasts for any lumps.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. knots. or changes? A. Section: 19.41. Bloom's Level: 3. If you receive the new vaccine against HPV. or changes once a month. FALSE Any woman who chooses to receive the new HPV vaccine should still get regular Pap tests because the vaccine does not protect against all types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. once every 6 months E.03. and the vaccine does not protect against any HPV infections she may already have. daily B. about one week after her period. then you do not need to get Pap tests anymore.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. Apply Learning Outcome: 19. Bloom's Level: 3. knots. Apply Learning Outcome: 19. How often should a woman do a shower self-examination of her breasts for lumps. Section: 19. once a week C.03.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis .03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 42. PSA E. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.03. MRI D. X-ray B. such as tumors of the brain or spinal cord.03. Bloom's Level: 2. digital rectal examination. mammography. PSA E.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis .02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. testicle self-examination. fecal occult blood test B. PSA. Bloom's Level: 4. testicle self-examination D. Which two tests are done for prostate cancer? A. Section: 19. CAT scan C. Pap test C.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual.43. Pap test An MRI is a type of imaging technique that is particularly useful for analyzing tumors in tissues surrounded by bone.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 44. Section: 19. fecal occult blood test Screening for prostate cancer involves a digital rectal examination and a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test. digital rectal examination. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19. Which type of test is particularly useful in analyzing tumors in tissues surrounded by bone? A. 03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 46. a type of cervical cancer test D.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . in 50s E. in 40s D.03. in 30s C. a type of prostate cancer test C. a tumor marker test CEA stands for carcinoembryonic antigen test. It is a type of tumor marker test used to detect any relapses of colon cancer. a genetic test E. Bloom's Level: 3. self-examination B. Apply Learning Outcome: 19.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. in 20s B. Bloom's Level: 2. When should screening for colorectal cancer begin? A.45. Section: 19. in 60s The various colorectal screening tests should begin at age 50 years.03. Section: 19. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. What type of test is a CEA test? A. FALSE Telomerase. Section: 19.03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions .03 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions 48.03. PAP test B. is turned off in normal cells but is active in cancer cells.03. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19. the enzyme that keeps telomeres a constant length in cells. genetic test E. Bloom's Level: 5. PSA test C. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. What type of screening test could be used to determine the likelihood that someone might develop cancer? A. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 19. this is an indication this is a cancer cell. tumor marker test A genetic test looks for mutations in proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes that increase the likelihood that someone will develop cancer. If the gene for telomerase is turned off in a cell. CEA test D.47.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual. radiation therapy C. chemotherapy. chemotherapy. Unfortunately.01 Describe how radiation therapy.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 50. the cancer in Ted's body had spread to multiple sites. immunotherapy B.04. chemotherapy Immunotherapy is considered a new advance in the treatment of cancer. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 19.49.01 Describe how radiation therapy. Which is the most viable treatment option to handle Ted's cancer? A. and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Section: 19. and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. radiation therapy D. Apply Learning Outcome: 19. chemotherapy Chemotherapy is the only treatment that will be able to address cancer in multiple sites throughout the body.04. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. Which of the following is not a standard therapy for cancer treatment? A. Bloom's Level: 1. surgery B. surgery C.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . and surgery may all be used to treat cancer.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 52. Section: 19. Ionizing radiation both causes cancer and can be used to treat cancer. Which treatment does not work for leukemia? A. and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. but it can also be used as a treatment for cancer cells. Section: 19. chemotherapy. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 19. Bloom's Level: 5.01 Describe how radiation therapy.01 Describe how radiation therapy. Apply Learning Outcome: 19. Bloom's Level: 3. surgery B. radiation therapy C. chemotherapy. TRUE Ionizing radiation causes chromosomal breakage and cell cycle disruption.51.04.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis .04. chemotherapy Surgery does not work for cancers of the blood. This can cause cancer. Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapy? A. diarrhea D. Which of the following is a side effect of radiation therapy that is not also a side effect of chemotherapy? A.04.04. antimetabolites C. antitumor antibiotics D. dry. chemotherapy. alkylating agents B.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . but they are not a type of chemotherapy. Analyze Learning Outcome: 19.53. mitotic inhibitors Bone marrow transplants are often done in conjunction with chemotherapy. Section: 19. fatigue and weakness E.01 Describe how radiation therapy. vomiting B. Section: 19. irritated skin and/or blisters C. chemotherapy. irritated skin and/or blisters at the site of treatment. and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. red.01 Describe how radiation therapy. Bloom's Level: 2.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 54. and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. Bloom's Level: 4. bone marrow transplants E. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. weight loss and hair loss Radiation therapy often causes dry. red. nausea. 01 Describe how radiation therapy.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . Section: 19. Taxol is used to treat what type of cancer? A. testicular cancer D. Bloom's Level: 2. 80% E. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.04. 10% B.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 56. Bloom's Level: 1. 30% C.01 Describe how radiation therapy. as well as breast. and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. lymphoma C. head. 99% The survival rate for children with childhood leukemia is 80%. ovarian cancer Taxol is used to treat advanced ovarian cancers.55. leukemia B. and surgery may all be used to treat cancer. 50% D. chemotherapy.04. colon cancer E. Section: 19. chemotherapy. and neck tumors. What is the survival rate for children with childhood leukemia? A. cancer vaccines B. Melacine. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis Multiple Choice Questions 58. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.04. is a type of cancer vaccine. called Melacine. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer.57. used against melanoma. anti-p53 engineered adenovirus C. contains broken melanoma cells from two different sources. TRUE A vaccine.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis True / False Questions . Which of the following is not a type of immunotherapy? A. Bloom's Level: 2.04. monoclonal antibodies E.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer. Section: 19. Remember Learning Outcome: 19. cytokine therapy D. genetically engineered antigen presenting cells Anti-p53 engineered adenovirus is a type of gene therapy against cancer. 04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis . Bloom's Level: 2. When the p53 gene is overexpressed in normal cells. Understand Learning Outcome: 19.59.04. FALSE Expression of the p53 gene seems to trigger cell death only in cancer cells. Antiangiogenic drugs cause cytotoxic T cells to attack tumor cells. Section: 19. Understand Learning Outcome: 19. the cells are killed. Section: 19.04 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 60.04. Elevating the p53 level in a normal cell doesn't do any harm. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE Antiangiogenic drugs break up the network of new capillaries in the vicinity of a tumor.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer. 7 Learning Outcome: 19.03.01 Describe how radiation therapy.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells that distinguish them from normal cells. Understand 22 Bloom's Level: 3.01 List the seven warning signs of cancer.02.04 12 Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis 60 .02 12 Section: 19. Apply 8 Bloom's Level: 4. Evaluate 6 Learning Outcome: 19. 4 Learning Outcome: 19.02. and surgery may all be used to treat cance 8 r.03 Summarize how protective behaviors and diet can help prevent cancer. 5 Learning Outcome: 19. 7 Learning Outcome: 19.02 Describe the tests that may be used to diagnose cancer in an individual.01. 7 Learning Outcome: 19.03 Identify the common types of cancers and the body system with which each is associated.01 18 Section: 19.04. Remember 15 Bloom's Level: 2.02 Distinguish between a proto- 4 oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene with regard to their effects on the cell cycle.03.02 Identify the genetic mechanisms of select forms of cancer. 1 Learning Outcome: 19.Chapter 19 Cancer Summary Category # of Question s Bloom's Level: 1.01. Learning Outcome: 19. Analyze 9 Bloom's Level: 5.02.01 Explain how heredity and the environment may both contribute to cancer.03 18 Section: 19. Learning Outcome: 19.01. 4 Section: 19. chemotherapy.02 Summarize some of the new advances in the treatment of cancer. 13 Learning Outcome: 19.04. True False Multiple Choice Questions 3. Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual? A. genotype. phenotype. phenotype C.Chapter 20 Patterns of Genetic Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 1. B. probability E. autosomal True / False Questions 2. When describing someone as "lactose intolerant". you are describing their A. . gamete D. When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes. genotype B. you are describing their genotype. chromosome.4. Which of the following individuals has a recessive phenotype? A. E. genotype. BB B. AA True / False Questions 5. AA B. Bb C. AB D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 6. B. bb E. Aa C. a gene refers to a specific position on a chromosome. 7. While a locus refers to a unit of heredity. C. aabb . AaBb D. gamete. Which of the following would not be a possible way to list someone's genotype? A. phenotype. as a locus is to a A. D. An allele is to a gene. unit of heredity. There are two different alleles for the number of fingers on the hands: 5 finger allele and 6 finger allele. aB D. Which of the following is a dominant allele? A. both PP and Pp C. Which allele is dominant? A. Aa B. AA D. A B. Ab C. aa 11. only pp . 6 fingers 10. There is a single gene that controls the ability to taste PTC paper. the individual has 6 fingers on the hands. The ability to taste is dominant to the inability to taste.8. a C. both PP and pp D. only PP B. only Pp E. ab E. If you can taste the paper. Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous? A. 5 fingers B. it is very bitter. Which of the following genotypes can taste the paper? A. ab E. Ab 9. When both the 5 finger allele and the 6 finger allele are present in the same individual. A B. four E. How many different kinds of sperm can he produce? A. which thumb is on top? A. Aa E. all of her eggs will be identical for this trait. bb True / False Questions 14. five .12. left B. Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele? A. AA D. b C. If you have the genotype "tt". Clasp your hands together (without thinking about it). two C. If the mother's genotype is aa. True False Multiple Choice Questions 15. Which thumb is on top? The dominant phenotype is left thumb on top. three D. Dad has a genotype of AaBb. one B. right 13. sum rule. B. Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross? A. Ss x ss 17. True False Multiple Choice Questions 19. Which of the following represents a cross to determine if an individual is homozygous or heterozygous dominant? A. AAbb x Aabb D. AA x AA C. . Aa x aa B. product rule. ff x ff B. you use the A. aa x aa D. Gg x gg C. If you want to know the probability that tossing two coins will result in a particular outcome (two heads. Aa x AA True / False Questions 18. AAbb x aaBB E.16. The square that is used to make all the possible combinations of gametes is called a Punnett square. for example). C. the probability of having a heterozygous genotype is A. 1 D. C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 21. B. 1/3. 1/3. 2/3. 23. 1/4.True / False Questions 20. . 3/4. The probability of tossing a coin and having it be heads or tails is A. In a cross of Ff x Ff. 2/3. 1/4. 1/2. E. 3/4. D. In a cross of Ss x Ss. 0 22. 1/2 C. B. the probability of having a dominant phenotype is A. 1/4 B. D. Probability calculations in which the word "or" is used involve the product rule. 1/2. E. . D. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. GgRr x GgRr D. Gg x Rr E. D. GGRR x ggrr C. D. 0. 1/4. 3/16. 25. C. In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent. B. 26. B. E. GgRr x ggrr B. 1/2. 9/16. GG x RR 27. if the resulting ratios are 1:1:1:1. what is the probability that the offspring will exhibit both of the dominant phenotypes? A. 1/16. Two affected parents will always have affected children. 6/16. C. In a dihybrid cross. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal recessive disorder pedigree? A. Heterozygotes have an affected phenotype. In a dihybrid cross. B. E. what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype? A. Affected children can have unaffected parents. Affected individuals with homozygous unaffected mates will have unaffected children.24. C. 3/4. what are the genotypes of the parents? A. 1. 1. E. a shaded square. How is this disorder most likely inherited? A. autosomal recessive . Can two parents that have a genetic disorder ever have a normal child? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 31. none of which have the genetic disorder. True / False Questions 29. an open square. Julie has a genetic disorder. C. a square with a line through it. an affected male would be designated by A. an open circle. In a pedigree. If two parents who are unaffected have a child that is affected. then the parents are both considered bearers. Shane.28. B. True False Yes / No Questions 30. a shaded circle. E. autosomal dominant B. Julie and her husband. have three children. D. 33. C. Marfan syndrome True / False Questions 35.32. sickle cell disease 34. It is estimated that there are fewer than 100 genetic diseases caused by single gene mutations in humans. Which of the following genetic disorders is due to a lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A? A. Tay-Sachs disease C. Tay-Sachs disease C. D. B. Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree? A. cystic fibrosis D. sickle-cell disease E. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Huntington disease D. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. Affected children will usually have unaffected parents. Marfan syndrome B. Which of the following is not an autosomal recessive disorder? A. cystic fibrosis B. Heterozygotes are affected. cystic fibrosis D. the heterozygote can express some variation of the recessive phenotype. cystic fibrosis B. sickle-cell disease True / False Questions 37. True False Multiple Choice Questions 38. Tay-Sachs disease C. Marfan syndrome B. Which of the following disorders is a trinucleotide repeat disorder? A. Marfan syndrome D.36. Even though sickle-cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder. Tay-Sachs disease E. sickle-cell disease C. Huntington disease E. Which of the following disorders is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic connective tissue protein called fibrillin? A. Huntington disease . AAbb E. AABB B. skin color B. AaBB D. which genotype would have the same phenotype as AaBb? A. autosomal dominant C. AABb C. autosomal recessive B. ABO blood type D. Tay-Sachs disease C. Aabb True / False Questions 41. In the inheritance of skin color example in the book. familial hypercholesterolemia E. How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited? A. curly hair 40. The definition of a multifactorial trait is one in which more than one set of alleles is involved. incompletely dominant D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 42.39. Which of the following traits/disorders is controlled by multiple genes? A. sex-linked dominant . codominant E. There is a trait with two alleles. ABO blood type True / False Questions 45.43. three . two C. One allele codes for blue while the other allele codes for yellow. blue B. yellow C. suicide risk C. each individual can have how many? A. Which of the following traits would not be considered multifactorial? A. one B. diabetes E. blue and yellow striped 44. Of the three possible alleles for the ABO blood type. True False Multiple Choice Questions 46. cleft lip/palate D. Most polygenic traits show discrete phenotypes when plotted on a graph. If this trait is inherited in a codominant manner. what color will the offspring be? A. green D. alcoholism B. IBi E. What is the genotype of a person with type O blood? A. ii Yes / No Questions 50. all 4 types 49. types B and O E. types A and O D. what phenotypes can their children be? A. all type B C. all type A B. two C. how many different genotypes can they possess? A. Can a man with type O blood be the father of a child with type A blood? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions . three D. IAIB C. four E.47. If an individual has the A phenotype. five 48. If a person with type B blood marries a person with type A blood. IAIA B. one B. IAi D. a E. Which of the following represents the genotype of a male who is color-blind? A. XbXb D. XBY True / False Questions 53. XBXb C.51. . A male receives his X linked alleles from his A. i 52. Which of the following designations indicates a sex-linked trait? A. father. mother. Most of the sex-linked traits are found only on the X chromosome. XBXB B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 54. XB D. A B. IA C. XbY E. B. If a woman has the characteristic. E. The characteristic often skips a generation. More females than males are affected. E. D. An affected son can have normal parents. her father must also have it. Both cause autism. B. . B. Both exhibit a late onset in life. D. Which of the following X-linked recessive disorders is characterized by a degeneration of the muscles? A. How are Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease similar? A. Fragile X B. all of her sons will have it. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree? A. color blindness D. Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 57. hemophilia 58.55. Both affect the muscles and lead to eventual paralysis. If a female has the trait. C. Duchenne's C. C. Both are trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders. Both are found only in males. Yes / No Questions 56. which of the following children are not possible? A. affected males pass the trait only to daughters. color-blind son True / False Questions 60. If a mother is color-blind and her husband is not. In an X-linked dominant trait. True False . normal son C.59. normal daughter B. 01.01. autosomal The genetic make-up of an individual is called the genotype. phenotype C.01 Topic: Inheritance . genotype B.Chapter 20 Patterns of Genetic Inheritance Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. FALSE You are describing their phenotype. you are describing their genotype.01 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions 2. When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes. Section: 20. or the physical appearance of the trait.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype. Remember Learning Outcome: 20. gamete D. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. Bloom's Level: 3.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype. Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual? A. probability E. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 20. AA A genotype usually involves 2 of the same letters--either both capitalized. Bloom's Level: 4. Lactose intolerant is a description of the characteristic of the individual. or one of each.01. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20. B.01 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions . Apply Learning Outcome: 20. both lower case. genotype. Which of the following would not be a possible way to list someone's genotype? A.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype. phenotype. therefore. bb E. it is a phenotype.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype. Section: 20. BB B. When describing someone as "lactose intolerant". Section: 20. Bloom's Level: 3.01. you are describing their A.01 Topic: Inheritance 4.Multiple Choice Questions 3. Bb C. AB D. phenotype. An allele is an alternate form of a gene.01 Topic: Inheritance . FALSE A gene refers to a unit of heredity. dominant.5. a gene refers to a specific position on a chromosome. gamete.02 Define allele. Section: 20. as a locus is to a A. gene. Bloom's Level: 5. and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance. gene. Bloom's Level: 2. An allele is to a gene. D. dominant. C.01 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 6.02 Define allele. Section: 20. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 20. B. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance.01. E.01. While a locus refers to a unit of heredity. chromosome. while a locus is a specific position on a chromosome. while a locus refers to a specific position on a chromosome. genotype. unit of heredity. Bloom's Level: 3. There are two different alleles for the number of fingers on the hands: 5 finger allele and 6 finger allele. 5 fingers B.7. Which allele is dominant? A. Which of the following is a dominant allele? A.01 Topic: Inheritance 8. gene. ab E.01 Topic: Inheritance 9. Apply . Apply Learning Outcome: 20. capitalized letter.01. aabb Recessive phenotypes are represented by lower case letters. Section: 20. a C. the individual has 6 fingers on the hands. AA D. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. Bloom's Level: 3. identify the phenotype. the dominant allele is expressed while the recessive allele is hidden. Bloom's Level: 3. AaBb D. dominant. Which of the following individuals has a recessive phenotype? A.03 Given the genotype of an individual. Section: 20. and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance. Ab An allele is represented by a single. 6 fingers When both alleles are present. Aa C. When both the 5 finger allele and the 6 finger allele are present in the same individual.01. AA B. A B.02 Define allele. only PP B. Which of the following genotypes can taste the paper? A. Section: 20.Learning Outcome: 20. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. dominant. Section: 20.02 Define allele. and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance. ab E.01.01 Topic: Inheritance 10. aa A heterozygous genotype is indicated by two of the same letters.01. dominant. both PP and pp D. The ability to taste is dominant to the inability to taste. gene. aB D. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. If you can taste the paper. identify the phenotype. gene. Section: 20. Ab C.01 Topic: Inheritance . it is very bitter. both PP and Pp C.01. Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous? A. only Pp E. Bloom's Level: 3. Aa B.02 Define allele. and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance.01 Topic: Inheritance 11. one capital and one lower case. only pp Both Pp and Pp genotypes would be able to taste the bitter taste of PTC paper. There is a single gene that controls the ability to taste PTC paper. Bloom's Level: 3.03 Given the genotype of an individual. A B. If the mother's genotype is aa. Bloom's Level: 2. TRUE SInce the mother only has 1 type of allele (lower case a). Understand Learning Outcome: 20. bb A gamete only has one allele for a particular trait and the dominant allele would be a capital letter. Aa E. b C.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one.03 Given the genotype of an individual.12. Section: 20. Which thumb is on top? The dominant phenotype is left thumb on top. AA D. Clasp your hands together (without thinking about it). all of her eggs will be identical for this trait.01. If you have the genotype "tt". right The genotype "tt" would be the recessive phenotype.01 Topic: Inheritance 13. identify the phenotype.02. so the right thumb would be on top. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. which thumb is on top? A. Bloom's Level: 5.02 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions 14.and two-trait crosses. left B. Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele? A. Bloom's Level: 3. Evaluate . all of her eggs will be identical for this trait. Section: 20. Section: 20.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance .and two-trait crosses. aB. Bloom's Level: 4. four E. How many different kinds of sperm can he produce? A. two C. Bloom's Level: 4. and ab. three D. Section: 20.02. ff x ff B. Ab. Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross? A. Ss x ss A dihybrid cross involves two different sets of alleles that are not identical to each other.and two-trait crosses.02.Learning Outcome: 20.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one.02 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 15. AAbb x Aabb D.02. five Dad can produce four different types of gametes (sperm): AB.and two-trait crosses. Dad has a genotype of AaBb. one B.02 Topic: Inheritance 16. AAbb x aaBB E. Gg x gg C. Section: 20.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20. Remember Learning Outcome: 20. Section: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions .and two-trait crosses.02.02 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions 18. aa x aa D. Aa x aa B.02.17. Section: 20. Bloom's Level: 1. Which of the following represents a cross to determine if an individual is homozygous or heterozygous dominant? A. AA x AA C.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one. TRUE Reginald Punnett introduced the Punnett square in his genetic classes in 1909. Aa x AA A type of cross involves a dominant phenotype (unknown genotype) crossed with a homozygous recessive. Bloom's Level: 4.and two-trait crosses. The square that is used to make all the possible combinations of gametes is called a Punnett square. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one. 19.02. sum rule. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. If you want to know the probability that tossing two coins will result in a particular outcome (two heads." involve the use of the sum rule. Bloom's Level: 2. product rule. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.02 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions 20.02. Section: 20.and two-trait crosses.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one. Probability calculations in which the word "or" is used involve the product rule. FALSE Probability calculations in which the word "or" is used. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one. for example). such as "heads or tails.and two-trait crosses. Section: 20. B. you use the A.02 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions . The product rule gives the chance of two different events (the two coins being tossed) occurring simultaneously. 1/4 B. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. Bloom's Level: 3.02 Topic: Inheritance .02. The probability of tossing a coin and having it be heads or tails is A. Three out of four of the offspring will have a dominant phenotype. Section: 20.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross.21. Bloom's Level: 3.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. 2/3. Section: 20. D. The probability of it being tails is 1/2 and the probability of it being heads is 1/2. B. 1/2. and the sum rule is involved (1/2 + 1/2 = 1).02 Topic: Inheritance 22.02. 1/4. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. 1/2 C. 1/3. C. 3/4. In a cross of Ff x Ff. the probability of having a dominant phenotype is A. E. 1 D. 0 The probability of tossing a coin and having it be either heads or tails is 1. B. 1/3. E. 1/2. In a cross of Ss x Ss. B.02 Topic: Inheritance . 1. 3/4. D. the probability of having a heterozygous genotype is A. E. Section: 20. C. 1/4. will have a heterozygous genotype.23. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. C.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent. D. Two out of four of the offspring. 1/2. 3/4. 0.02 Topic: Inheritance 24. or 1/2. Section: 20.02. Bloom's Level: 3. Bloom's Level: 3.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype? A. None of the offspring will exhibit the recessive phenotype. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02. 2/3. 1/4. Bloom's Level: 3.02 Topic: Inheritance .02.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. In a dihybrid cross. GgRr x GgRr D. 1.02 Topic: Inheritance 26. 6/16. GGRR x ggrr C. Bloom's Level: 3.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cross. Gg x Rr E. In order to have a 1:1:1:1 ratio. the other parent must be homozygous recessive for both traits. Section: 20. 3/16. what is the probability that the offspring will exhibit both of the dominant phenotypes? A. 1/16.25. what are the genotypes of the parents? A. GgRr x ggrr B. C. D. if the resulting ratios are 1:1:1:1. E. In a dihybrid cross. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. GG x RR A dihybrid would involve a individual with the genotype GgRr. 9/16. Section: 20. Nine out of sixteen of the offspring will exhibit both of the dominant traits phenotypically. B. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.02. and a male is represented by a square. B. C. D. In an autosomal recessive disorder. a shaded circle.03. a square with a line through it.27. heterozygotes have an unaffected phenotype. B. Affected individuals with homozygous unaffected mates will have unaffected children. an affected male would be designated by A. Affected children can have unaffected parents. D. E. In a pedigree. Affected individuals are shaded.03.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions . Bloom's Level: 4. an open square. C. an open circle. Heterozygotes have an affected phenotype. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal recessive disorder pedigree? A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20. Two affected parents will always have affected children. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. Section: 20. a shaded square. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. E.03 Topic: Inheritance 28. 03 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions .01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20. Section: 20.03. FALSE Two parents who are unaffected but are heterozygous for a recessive disorder are considered carriers.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. Can two parents that have a genetic disorder ever have a normal child? YES Yes. If two parents who are unaffected have a child that is affected.03 Topic: Inheritance Yes / No Questions 30. Section: 20. if they are heterozygous and the child inherits the recessive allele from both parents. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.29.03. then the parents are both considered bearers. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 3.03 Topic: Inheritance . Section: 20.03. Heterozygotes are affected. none of their children will have the genetic disorder. then half of their children may be affected. Shane. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. then Julie's genotype is AA or Aa. C. Julie has a genetic disorder. If this were an autosomal dominant disorder. Affected children will usually have unaffected parents. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree? A. autosomal dominant B. Then either all or half of their children would be affected.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. autosomal recessive If this is an autosomal recessive disorder. Bloom's Level: 2. Apply Learning Outcome: 20.03. Section: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance 32. If Shane's genotype is Aa.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait. B. have three children. then Julie's genotype is aa. D. If Shane's genotype is AA. none of which have the genetic disorder. Affected children will usually have an affected parent.31. How is this disorder most likely inherited? A. Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. Julie and her husband. Shane would be aa. Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child. Section: 20.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders.03 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions .03. Tay-Sachs disease C. Tay-Sachs disease C.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. sickle-cell disease E.03. cystic fibrosis D. Which of the following genetic disorders is due to a lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A? A. Huntington disease D. cystic fibrosis B. Remember Learning Outcome: 20. sickle cell disease Marfan syndrome is inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder. Remember Learning Outcome: 20. Marfan syndrome Tay-Sachs disease is due to the lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Topic: Inheritance 34. Marfan syndrome B. Which of the following is not an autosomal recessive disorder? A. Section: 20.33. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. Tay-Sachs disease C. Bloom's Level: 1.03. Section: 20. Bloom's Level: 1.35. It is estimated that there are fewer than 100 genetic diseases caused by single gene mutations in humans.03. Remember Learning Outcome: 20.03 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions .02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. Which of the following disorders is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic connective tissue protein called fibrillin? A. FALSE It is estimated that there are over 4000 identified genetic disorders caused by single gene mutations in humans. Marfan syndrome D. sickle-cell disease Marfan syndrome is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic connective tissue protein called fibrillin. Section: 20. cystic fibrosis B.03 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 36. Huntington disease E. Bloom's Level: 2. sickle-cell disease C. Remember Learning Outcome: 20. Which of the following disorders is a trinucleotide repeat disorder? A.03 Topic: Inheritance . Bloom's Level: 1. Even though sickle-cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder. cystic fibrosis D. Section: 20. Marfan syndrome B.03.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders. the heterozygote can express some variation of the recessive phenotype.37. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. Huntington disease Huntington disease is caused by the base sequence CAG repeated over and over again in the protein huntingtin.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive genetic disorders.03 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 38. TRUE Sickle-cell heterozygotes have sickle-cell traits in which the blood cells are normal unless they experience dehydration or mild oxygen deprivation. Tay-Sachs disease E.03. Section: 20. Section: 20. codominance. and incomplete dominance differ from simple one-trait crosses. Aabb There are 2 dominant alleles in AaBb and in AAbb. Bloom's Level: 4. AAbb E.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance. In the inheritance of skin color example in the book. ABO blood type D. AABB B. Section: 20.39.04. AaBB D.04 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions . which genotype would have the same phenotype as AaBb? A.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance. curly hair Skin color is controlled by several sets of alleles. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20. AABb C. Tay-Sachs disease C. Both would have the same medium brown phenotype. codominance. Bloom's Level: 2.04 Topic: Inheritance 40. skin color B. It is a polygenic trait. familial hypercholesterolemia E.04. and incomplete dominance differ from simple one-trait crosses. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. Which of the following traits/disorders is controlled by multiple genes? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 20. autosomal dominant C.41. Bloom's Level: 2. sex-linked dominant Familial hypercholesterolemia is an incompletely dominant disorder.04. The definition of a multifactorial trait is one in which more than one set of alleles is involved. codominant E. incompletely dominant D. How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited? A.02 Explain how a combination of genetics and the environment can influence a phenotype.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance.04. codominance. FALSE A multifactorail trait is a polygenic trait that is also influenced by the environment.04 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 42. autosomal recessive B. Bloom's Level: 1. and incomplete dominance differ from simple one-trait crosses. Section: 20. Section: 20. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance . 04.02 Explain how a combination of genetics and the environment can influence a phenotype.04 Topic: Inheritance 44. ABO blood type ABO blood type is not a polygenic trait influenced by the environment.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance. blue B.43. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. Section: 20. Section: 20. yellow C. One allele codes for blue while the other allele codes for yellow. what color will the offspring be? A. There is a trait with two alleles.04 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions . alcoholism B.04. green D. Bloom's Level: 2. so the offspring would be blue and yellow striped. Which of the following traits would not be considered multifactorial? A. blue and yellow striped Both colors would be present. codominance. and incomplete dominance differ from simple one-trait crosses. Bloom's Level: 3. If this trait is inherited in a codominant manner. diabetes E. suicide risk C. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. cleft lip/palate D. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Explain how a combination of genetics and the environment can influence a phenotype. Most polygenic traits show discrete phenotypes when plotted on a graph. each can only carry 2 alleles.04.45. Bloom's Level: 2.13. If an individual has the A phenotype. two C. Understand . how many different genotypes can they possess? A. Section: 20. three Because each individual is diploid. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. Of the three possible alleles for the ABO blood type. four E. Bloom's Level: 2.04 Topic: Inheritance 47. five The individual can be IAIA or IAi. three D.04 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 46. each individual can have how many? A. one B.04. two C. See Figure 20. Section: 20. FALSE Most polygenic traits show a continuous distribution of phenotypes when plotted on a graph. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. one B.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. all type A B.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. ii The person's genotype will be ii. Section: 20. Bloom's Level: 2. and AB. IAi D. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. IAIA B.04.04 Topic: Inheritance Yes / No Questions . If a person with type B blood marries a person with type A blood. what phenotypes can their children be? A.Learning Outcome: 20. IAIB C.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype.04. What is the genotype of a person with type O blood? A. B. all 4 types If both parents are heterozygous. Bloom's Level: 5. IBi E. types B and O E. all four blood types are possible: A. Section: 20.04 Topic: Inheritance 48. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 20.04. all type B C. Section: 20. types A and O D. O.04 Topic: Inheritance 49. 50. if the mother has A blood and the child is heterozygous (IAi). A B. Section: 20. a E. Bloom's Level: 3.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. i A sex-linked trait is shown as the letter attached to the X chromosome. Bloom's Level: 2. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. Section: 20. IA C.04. Which of the following designations indicates a sex-linked trait? A. Can a man with type O blood be the father of a child with type A blood? YES Yes. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance .04 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 51.05. XB D.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance. Section: 20.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance.05 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 20. XbY E.52. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.05.05. Which of the following represents the genotype of a male who is color-blind? A. TRUE Very few Y-linked alleles have been found on the much smaller Y chromosome. XBXB B. XBXb C. XbXb D. Most of the sex-linked traits are found only on the X chromosome.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance. Bloom's Level: 2.05 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions 53. XBY A male who is color-blind would have an X chromosome with a "b" allele and a Y chromosome. Bloom's Level: 4. Section: 20. If a woman has the characteristic.54. A male receives his X linked alleles from his A.05 Topic: Inheritance 55. An affected son can have normal parents. mother. her father must also have it.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. more males than females are affected. Understand Learning Outcome: 20. B. More females than males are affected.05. Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons? NO No.05. Evaluate . Bloom's Level: 4. Fathers only pass on their Y chromosome to their sons.05 Topic: Inheritance Yes / No Questions 56. In an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree. If a female has the trait. Section: 20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree? A. father. Bloom's Level: 5. Males have only one X chromosome and it is inherited from their mother. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance. Section: 20. E. all of her sons will have it. C. D. all of her sons would inherit their X chromosome with the defective allele from mom. B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20. The characteristic often skips a generation. D. Section: 20. Section: 20.05. Bloom's Level: 1.05.05 Topic: Inheritance . B.05.05 Topic: Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 57. Both are found only in males. Duchenne's C.05 Topic: Inheritance 58. Bloom's Level: 4.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Both diseases involve repeats of three nucleotides. hemophilia Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is characterized by a degeneration of the muscles. Both exhibit a late onset in life.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Both affect the muscles and lead to eventual paralysis. Fragile X B. How are Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease similar? A. Which of the following X-linked recessive disorders is characterized by a degeneration of the muscles? A. E. Both are trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders. Analyze Learning Outcome: 20.Learning Outcome: 20. Both cause autism. color blindness D. Section: 20. Remember Learning Outcome: 20. C.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. If a mother is color-blind and her husband is not. Understand Learning Outcome: 20.05 Topic: Inheritance True / False Questions 60.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Section: 20. In an X-linked dominant trait.05 Topic: Inheritance . which of the following children are not possible? A.05. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 20. TRUE Since daughters must inherit an X chromosome from their fathers. normal son C. normal daughter B.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait.05. color-blind son If the mother is color-blind. all of the sons will be color-blind. Apply Learning Outcome: 20. they would receive an X chromosome with the dominant trait.59. affected males pass the trait only to daughters. Bloom's Level: 3. 04.01 12 Section: 20. Understand 18 Bloom's Level: 3.05.03 Predict a person's blood type based upon his or her genotype. 3 Learning Outcome: 20.02 Calculate the probability of a specific genotype or phenotype in an offspring of a genetic cros 6 s. gene. dominant. codominance.03.01 Understand the differences between autosomal and sex-linked patterns of inheritance. 3 Learning Outcome: 20. Apply 18 Bloom's Level: 4. 4 Learning Outcome: 20. identify the phenotype. Learning Outcome: 20.Chapter 20 Patterns of Genetic Inheritance Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1. 4 Learning Outcome: 20. and recessive as they relate to patterns of inheritance.05 10 Topic: Inheritance 60 . Remember 10 Bloom's Level: 2.03 12 Section: 20.04.02.04 12 Section: 20. 6 Section: 20.05.01.01. Learning Outcome: 20.01 Summarize how polygenic inheritance. and incomplete dominance differ from 4 simple one-trait crosses. 8 Learning Outcome: 20. 5 Learning Outcome: 20.04. Evaluate 4 Learning Outcome: 20.03.02 Explain how a combination of genetics and the environment can influence a phenotype.01 Understand the relationship between probability and one.02 Interpret a human pedigree to determine sex-linked inheritance of a trait. Learning Outcome: 20.02 Understand the genetic basis of select human autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive 6 genetic disorders. 6 Learning Outcome: 20.01 Interpret a human pedigree to identify the pattern of inheritance for a trait.02 Define allele.03 Given the genotype of an individual.01 Distinguish between a genotype and a phenotype.01. Analyze 10 Bloom's Level: 5.and two-trait crosses.02. 5 Learning Outcome: 20.02 14 Section: 20. amino acids B. It must be able to change conformations. nitrogen base. D. It must be able to provide genetic variability. It must be able to undergo mutations. nitrogen base B.Chapter 21 DNA Biology and Technology Multiple Choice Questions 1. fatty acids C. carbohydrate rings E. Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA? A. E. nucleotides D. fatty acid 3. fatty acids. It must be able to replicate. phosphate. phosphate. amino acids. Which of the following is not a requirement for the genetic material of the cell? A. B. C. It must be able to store information. nitrogen base E. Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA? A. amino acids C. steroid rings . sugars D. 2. A always binds with A. A. C. G. T. The ladder structure is twisted into a double helix. True False Multiple Choice Questions 7. Which of the following is not true about the structure of DNA? A. C. C. C. A always pairs with T and G always pairs with C. The bases form the "rungs" of the ladder structure. D. dispersive. . E. relaxed. The two strands are considered parallel. B. B. B. E. Mitochondria also contain DNA. D.4. 5. D. semiconservative. DNA replication is considered A. True / False Questions 6. conservative. stringent. The sides of the ladder structure are made up of sugar and phosphate. The bases in DNA are complementary. DNA telomerase 10. It matches new bases to the old strand by complementary base pairing. E. and G. and G. B. A. B. What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication? A. C. D. DNA replicase D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . In what way are DNA and RNA similar? A. E. It seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. Both contain U. DNA ligase E.8. It folds the DNA into a coiled structure. 9. Both contain deoxyribose. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose while the sugar in RNA is ribose. True / False Questions 11. Both contain C. C. It unzips the double-stranded DNA. It breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of the DNA together. Both form a double helix. DNA helicase C. DNA polymerase B. Both are single stranded. D. What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new strand? A. C. tRNA C. D. siRNAs True / False Questions 15. transcribed. C. E. B. mRNA 14. rRNA D. tRNA C. The "r" in "rRNA" stands for reticulum RNA because this type of RNA is associated with the endoplasmic reticulum.12. considered the genetic material of the cell. translated. small RNA B. Which of the following is not a type of small RNA? A. Both DNA and RNA are A. found in the cytoplasm. Which of the following is a coding RNA? A. miRNAs E. found in the nucleus. 13. True False Multiple Choice Questions . snoRNAs B. snRNAs D. antibodies for the immune system D. How many different amino acids are commonly found in proteins? A. 20 D. All of the RNAs A. 17. C. over 100 18. uracil True / False Questions . Which of the following is not a potential function of proteins? A. are transcribed from DNA. Which of the following is not an amino acid? A. D. interact with amino acids. B. 50 E. enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions B. neurotransmitters to aid the nervous system C. glycine B. 10 C. function within the nucleus. alanine D. are translated into proteins. valine E. E. hormones to change cellular activity 19. storage form for genetic information E.16. 5 B. tryptophan C. can be found in the ribosomes. E.. D. UAA. C. 22. C. mutation. transposon. D. glycine . valine E. glutamine C. the transcribed copy is also DNA. AAA. E. AUG. The start codon for translation is a A. 23. UAG. In the RNA sequence CAAUGACCAG. B. B. methionine D. AGU.20. i. True False Multiple Choice Questions 21. codon. The 3-base sequence in a mRNA molecule is called a/an A. initiator. alanine B. what will be the first amino acid incorporated? A.e. To transcribe something is to make an identical copy. if the original is DNA. transcriptome. protease True / False Questions 25. helicase B. adding a tail D.24. Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus. What enzyme is responsible for transcribing RNA? A. cleaving off the methionine C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 26. Which of the following is not a type of mRNA processing? A. As the RNA is being made. RNA polymerase D. DNA polymerase C. True False . ligase E. adding a cap B. it is exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation. removing the introns E. splicing True / False Questions 27. what is the anticodon and what amino acid will be inserted? A. glycine D. D. the large ribosomal subunit C. CCA. GGU. B. One of the three stop codons is reached. E. the tRNA E. If the codon is CCA. proline C. They contain both RNA and protein. the rRNA 30. the mRNA B. They are composed of two subunits. D. The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time. They translate RNA into protein. The ribosome dissociates into its two subunits and falls off the mRNA. Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation? A. C. 29.Multiple Choice Questions 28. E. Which of the following is not true regarding ribosomes? A. the small ribosomal subunit D. Which structure contains the anticodon? A. They function within the nucleus. ACC. The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits. . B. C. UGG. threonine E. proline B. They contain an A site and a P site. tryptophan 31. The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA. GGT. True False Multiple Choice Questions . four D. three D. four E. five 33. the corresponding protein will be arginine-asparaginealanine-arginine. six True / False Questions 34. three C. When the sequence CGCAAUGCAAGGA is translated. How many stop codons are there for translation? A. one B. five E. How many codons are there for leucine? A. two C.32. two B. A. The mRNA is processed before it leaves the nucleus. CACCGCCGA D. Genes code for transcription factors. C. The polypeptide product is folded to form its functional conformation. Translational 37. UUUUAAUGG 36.35. B. Specialization of cells is determined/influenced by which transcription factors are active in the cell. Transcriptional C. Which of the following is not a level of regulation for gene expression? A. E. GCCGACGGC C. D. . Transcription factors are considered external cell regulators. B. Pretranscriptional B. D. The life expectancy of the mRNA molecules vary. GUUAAGAGG B. The chromosomes must decondense. Which of the following would be an example of pretranscriptional control? A. Transcription factors help initiate transcription. 38. E. GAUGGUGCU E. There are many different types of transcription factors. Pretranslational E. Which of the following nucleotide sequences could give rise to the amino acid sequence alanine-asparatate-glycine? Assume that translation initiation has already occurred. C. Posttranscriptional D. Which of the following is not true about transcription factors? A. Transcription factors are DNA-binding proteins. PCR can create millions of copies of a segment of DNA in a test tube. DNA breakage D. It only takes a matter of several hours to sequence 1000 base-pair sections of DNA. by eye True / False Questions 40. One of the disadvantages of PCR is that it requires large amounts of starting material. Which of the following statements about PCR is not true? A. True False . laser E. PCR stands for "polymerizing copies of RNA". B. PCR uses DNA polymerase. How does modern day sequencing detect dyes on the nucleotides? A.39. dye terminator chemicals C. D. The amount of DNA doubles with each replication cycle. E. radioactivity B. True / False Questions 42. C. The target is repeatedly replicated. True False Multiple Choice Questions 41. 5 45. 5. study evolutionary history B. 3.3. "sticky" ends True / False Questions .4. 1.4. detect a genetic disorder 44. Place the following steps in order for the cloning of a gene. host cell B. Which of the following is not involved in gene cloning? A.3.2.A restriction enzyme is used to cleave DNA. 1. 5.2 E.5 C. The plasmid replicates on its own. DNA ligase seals foreign DNA into a plasmid. The bacterium makes a product. 2.2.3. 1. vector C. Some of the bacterial cells take up a recombinant plasmid. study mummies C. restriction enzyme D. 2.1. 4. Which of the following is not an application of PCR? A. A. treat cancer E.1.4. dyes attached to nucleotides E.Multiple Choice Questions 43.4.1.5 D.2. 3.5.4.3 B. crime scene investigations D. eat them. from growth media True / False Questions . insulin C. disease resistant B. salt sensitive C. eat them D. Which of the following is a product made from bacteria via recombinant DNA technology that promotes the health of plants? A. frost-minus substances 49. drink milk E. drink milk C. clotting factor VIII D. drink milk. drought tolerant 48. True False Multiple Choice Questions 47. growth hormone E. improved yield D. modified wood pulp E. How is the recombinant product procured from transgenic bacteria? Transgenic goats? A. Which of the following is not a desirable trait for a genetically engineered plant? A. eat them. Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called analytical products.46. from growth media. hepatitis B vaccine B. from growth media B. from growth media. 1% B. 20. 80. 2003 D. 1 million C. When was the Human Genome Project completed? A. 1 million.9% 53. 2001 C. 1 million True / False Questions . True False Multiple Choice Questions 51.500 E. 125 million. have been created by recombinant DNA technology. 99.000 B. 3 billion. 90% D.500.000 D. 99% E.000. 2005 E. How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it contain? A. How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class? A. 20.50. 50% C. 2010 52. 80. such as cystic fibrosis. 80. 1999 B. Mouse models for human diseases. and leg length C. 99% . 85% E. to determine the genome sequence of other organisms useful to humans C. hearing. How similar are our genomes to those of a mouse? A. genes for food preference. to determine how all the proteins within the cell interact E. cranial size. Researchers found 3 genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that. opposable thumbs. What is the goal of functional genomics? A. to determine all of the human genome sequence B. What were those three genes? A. genes for speech development. 1% B. genes for chest size. genes for speech development. to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 55. and smell B.54. bipedalism. and leg length E. More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins. 35% D. have given us insight into our evolution. genes for taste. 10% C. and cranial size 57. and bipedalism D. opposable thumbs. to carry out gene therapy for human diseases 56. when compared to our human genes. which genes give rise to which proteins D. cellular location of particular proteins E. chemical modifications of proteins True / False Questions 59. to input DNA and protein sequences into a computer C. therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells with the use of a vector or carrier molecule.58. In ex vivo gene therapy. protein concentration in a cell C. protein-protein interactions B. Which of the following is not studied in the field of proteomics? A. to obtain the sequence of all the noncoding regions of the DNA E. to model the three-dimensional shape of cellular proteins D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 60. to insert genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder . to find significant patterns in the information gained from DNA sequencing and proteomics B. Which of the following is the primary goal of bioinformatics? A. Section: 21. along with sugars. In order to be the genetic material. are found in the monomer unit of DNA. Bloom's Level: 2. amino acids C. nitrogen base B.Chapter 21 DNA Biology and Technology Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. Bloom's Level: 2. It must be able to replicate. It must be able to store information. B.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. phosphate. Understand Learning Outcome: 21. sugars D. amino acids.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 21. E. It must be able to undergo mutations. nitrogen base. nitrogen base E.01 Topic: Molecular Biology .01.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. fatty acid Phosphates and nitrogen bases.01 Topic: Molecular Biology 2. C. Section: 21. It must be able to change conformations. D. It must be able to provide genetic variability. phosphate. Which of the following is not a requirement for the genetic material of the cell? A. Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA? A. DNA does not need to change conformations. fatty acids. 01. C. G.01 Topic: Molecular Biology . fatty acids C. A always binds with T.3. Remember Learning Outcome: 21. C. T. A. Section: 21.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. amino acids B.01. B. A always binds with A. nucleotides D. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Molecular Biology 4. Remember Learning Outcome: 21. D. Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA? A. The bases in DNA are complementary. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. carbohydrate rings E. Section: 21. steroid rings Nucleotides are the monomer unit of DNA. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.01. The two strands are considered parallel.5. E. Mitochondria also contain DNA. A always pairs with T and G always pairs with C. Section: 21. Which of the following is not true about the structure of DNA? A. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. they run in opposite directions. Bloom's Level: 4..e. i. C. The two DNA strands are considered antiparallel. Remember Learning Outcome: 21. Section: 21. TRUE Mitochondria contain a small.01 Topic: Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions . The sides of the ladder structure are made up of sugar and phosphate. The ladder structure is twisted into a double helix.01 Topic: Molecular Biology True / False Questions 6.01. circular chromosome of DNA. D. B. The bases form the "rungs" of the ladder structure. semiconservative. the enzyme ligase seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. DNA replication is considered A. Understand Learning Outcome: 21. To complete replication. dispersive. stringent. B. DNA replication is considered semiconservative because each DNA molecule is composed of one old strand and one new strand. D.02 Explain the process of DNA replication.7. C. D. It matches new bases to the old strand by complementary base pairing. Section: 21. It seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. E. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 21. It unzips the double-stranded DNA.01 Topic: Molecular Biology 8.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.01 Topic: Molecular Biology . Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01. conservative. It breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of the DNA together. E. B. It folds the DNA into a coiled structure. relaxed. C.01. What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication? A. Bloom's Level: 2. 01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. Both contain deoxyribose. D. and G. What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new strand? A. In what way are DNA and RNA similar? A. and G.01 Topic: Molecular Biology 10. Both DNA and RNA contain C. DNA replicase D.01. A. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21. E.9. Both contain C.01 Topic: Molecular Biology True / False Questions . DNA telomerase DNA polymerase is responsible for the process of DNA replication. B.03 Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA. Section: 21. DNA polymerase B. Section: 21. C. DNA helicase C. DNA ligase E. Both contain U. and G. Remember Learning Outcome: 21. Both form a double helix. Both are single stranded. A.01. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 4. C. 11. The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose while the sugar in RNA is ribose. TRUE DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid while RNA stands for ribonucleic acid. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.03 Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions 12. Both DNA and RNA are A. found in the cytoplasm. B. transcribed. C. translated. D. found in the nucleus. E. considered the genetic material of the cell. Both DNA and RNA can be found in the nucleus. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.03 Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology 13. Which of the following is a coding RNA? A. small RNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. mRNA The coding RNA is messenger RNA (mRNA), which is translated into protein. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology 14. Which of the following is not a type of small RNA? A. snoRNAs B. tRNA C. snRNAs D. miRNAs E. siRNAs Transfer RNA (tRNA) is not a type of small RNA. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology True / False Questions 15. The "r" in "rRNA" stands for reticulum RNA because this type of RNA is associated with the endoplasmic reticulum. FALSE The "r" stands for ribosomal because this type of RNA is associated with the ribosomes. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions 16. All of the RNAs A. can be found in the ribosomes. B. are translated into proteins. C. are transcribed from DNA. D. function within the nucleus. E. interact with amino acids. All RNAs are transcribed from a DNA template. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.01.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell. Section: 21.01 Topic: Molecular Biology 17. How many different amino acids are commonly found in proteins? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 50 E. over 100 There are twenty different amino acids commonly found in proteins. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 18. Which of the following is not a potential function of proteins? A. enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions B. neurotransmitters to aid the nervous system C. antibodies for the immune system D. storage form for genetic information E. hormones to change cellular activity DNA, not proteins, serves as the storage form for genetic information. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 19. Which of the following is not an amino acid? A. glycine B. tryptophan C. alanine D. valine E. uracil Uracil is a base found in a nucleotide, not an amino acid. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology True / False Questions 20. To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA. FALSE To replicate something is to make an identical copy. To transcribe is to make a faithful copy, but it is not identical. DNA is transcribed into RNA. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions 21. The 3-base sequence in a mRNA molecule is called a/an A. codon. B. transcriptome. C. initiator. D. mutation. E. transposon. The 3-base sequence in the mRNA molecule is called a codon. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 22. The start codon for translation is a A. UAG. B. UAA. C. AAA. D. AUG. E. AGU. The start codon is AUG. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 23. In the RNA sequence CAAUGACCAG, what will be the first amino acid incorporated? A. alanine B. glutamine C. methionine D. valine E. glycine The first amino acid incorporated is always methionine because that is the amino acid incorporated for the start codon AUG. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 24. What enzyme is responsible for transcribing RNA? A. helicase B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase D. ligase E. protease RNA polymerase transcribes DNA into RNA. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology True / False Questions 25. As the RNA is being made, it is exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation. FALSE The RNA must first be processed before it can leave the nucleus for the cytoplasm. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions 26. Which of the following is not a type of mRNA processing? A. adding a cap B. cleaving off the methionine C. adding a tail D. removing the introns E. splicing There are no methionines in RNA so this is not a step in the processing of a mRNA. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology True / False Questions 27. Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus. FALSE Exons in mRNAs are spliced back together again and exit the nucleus. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions 28. Which of the following is not true regarding ribosomes? A. They are composed of two subunits. B. They contain both RNA and protein. C. They contain an A site and a P site. D. They translate RNA into protein. E. They function within the nucleus. Translation by the ribosomes occurs in the cytoplasm and on the surface of the endoplasmic reticulum. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 29. Which structure contains the anticodon? A. the mRNA B. the large ribosomal subunit C. the small ribosomal subunit D. the tRNA E. the rRNA The tRNA contains the anticodon that pairs with the codon. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 30. If the codon is CCA, what is the anticodon and what amino acid will be inserted? A. CCA, proline B. GGU, proline C. GGT, glycine D. ACC, threonine E. UGG, tryptophan If the codon is CCA, then proline will be inserted. The sequence of the anticodon is GGU. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 31. Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation? A. The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA. B. The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits. C. The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time. D. The ribosome dissociates into its two subunits and falls off the mRNA. E. One of the three stop codons is reached. The first step in initiation of translation is that the mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 32. How many stop codons are there for translation? A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five There are three stop codons for translation: UAA, UAG, and UGA. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 33. How many codons are there for leucine? A. two B. three C. four D. five E. six There are six codons for leucine: UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA, and CUG. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology True / False Questions 34. When the sequence CGCAAUGCAAGGA is translated, the corresponding protein will be arginine-asparaginealanine-arginine. FALSE Initiation must begin at AUG so the sequence would be methionine-glutamine-glycine. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.02.02 Interpret a sequence of DNA nucleotides. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions 35. Which of the following nucleotide sequences could give rise to the amino acid sequence alanine-asparatateglycine? Assume that translation initiation has already occurred. A. GUUAAGAGG B. GCCGACGGC C. CACCGCCGA D. GAUGGUGCU E. UUUUAAUGG CAC/CGC/CGA could give rise to the above amino acid sequence. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.02.02 Interpret a sequence of DNA nucleotides. Section: 21.02 Topic: Molecular Biology 36. Which of the following is not a level of regulation for gene expression? A. Pretranscriptional B. Transcriptional C. Posttranscriptional D. Pretranslational E. Translational Pretranslational is not considered a form of regulation for gene expression. Those mechanisms that occur after the RNA is made but before the protein is made are called posttranscriptional. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Gene Regulation 37. Which of the following would be an example of pretranscriptional control? A. The chromosomes must decondense. B. Transcription factors help initiate transcription. C. The mRNA is processed before it leaves the nucleus. D. The life expectancy of the mRNA molecules vary. E. The polypeptide product is folded to form its functional conformation. Pretranscriptional control are things that occur before transcription begins. The uncoiling or decondensing of the chromosomes is one type of pretranscriptional control. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Gene Regulation 38. Which of the following is not true about transcription factors? A. Transcription factors are DNA-binding proteins. B. Transcription factors are considered external cell regulators. C. There are many different types of transcription factors. D. Specialization of cells is determined/influenced by which transcription factors are active in the cell. E. Genes code for transcription factors. Transcription factors are internal and bind to DNA. They may be influenced by external cell regulators. Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 21.02.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein. Section: 21.02 Topic: Gene Regulation 39. How does modern day sequencing detect dyes on the nucleotides? A. radioactivity B. dye terminator chemicals C. DNA breakage D. laser E. by eye Modern day sequencing involves dyes attached to the nucleotides and use of a laser to detect the different dyes. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.03.01 Recognize the importance of DNA sequencing to the study of biology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology True / False Questions 40. It only takes a matter of several hours to sequence 1000 base-pair sections of DNA. TRUE With the advent of automated DNA sequencing, it only takes a matter of several hours to sequence 1000 basepair sections of DNA. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.03.01 Recognize the importance of DNA sequencing to the study of biology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions 41. Which of the following statements about PCR is not true? A. PCR stands for "polymerizing copies of RNA". B. PCR can create millions of copies of a segment of DNA in a test tube. C. PCR uses DNA polymerase. D. The amount of DNA doubles with each replication cycle. E. The target is repeatedly replicated. PCR stands for "polymerase chain reaction." Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology True / False Questions 42. One of the disadvantages of PCR is that it requires large amounts of starting material. FALSE One of the advantages of PCR is that it only requires a very small amount of DNA to begin. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions 43. Which of the following is not an application of PCR? A. study evolutionary history B. study mummies C. crime scene investigations D. treat cancer E. detect a genetic disorder PCR can be used to detect cancer, but it is not a treatment for cancer. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology 44. Place the following steps in order for the cloning of a gene. 1. DNA ligase seals foreign DNA into a plasmid. 2.A restriction enzyme is used to cleave DNA. 3. The bacterium makes a product. 4. Some of the bacterial cells take up a recombinant plasmid. 5. The plasmid replicates on its own. A. 2,1,4,5,3 B. 1,2,3,4,5 C. 3,1,2,4,5 D. 5,1,4,3,2 E. 1,3,2,4,5 The correct order is: a restriction enzyme is used to cleave human DNA and plasmid DNA. DNA ligase is used to seal foreign DNA into the opening created in the plasmid. Some of the bacterial cells take up the recombinant plasmid. Gene cloning occurs as the plasmid replicates on it own. The bacterium makes a product that it could not make before. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology 45. Which of the following is not involved in gene cloning? A. host cell B. vector C. restriction enzyme D. dyes attached to nucleotides E. "sticky" ends Dyes attached to nucleotides are involved in DNA sequencing, not cloning. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology True / False Questions 46. Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called analytical products. FALSE Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called transgenic organisms. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions 47. Which of the following is not a desirable trait for a genetically engineered plant? A. disease resistant B. salt sensitive C. improved yield D. modified wood pulp E. drought tolerant Salt tolerant crops are a desirable trait for a genetic engineering. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology 48. Which of the following is a product made from bacteria via recombinant DNA technology that promotes the health of plants? A. hepatitis B vaccine B. insulin C. clotting factor VIII D. growth hormone E. frost-minus substances Bacteria that live on plants have been converted to frost-minus bacteria in order to make new frost-resistant crops. Bloom's Level: 4. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology 49. How is the recombinant product procured from transgenic bacteria? Transgenic goats? A. eat them, from growth media B. from growth media, drink milk C. eat them, eat them D. drink milk, drink milk E. from growth media, from growth media Usually the recombinant product from bacteria is procured from the growth media, while the recombinant product from goats is procured by drinking the milk. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology True / False Questions 50. Mouse models for human diseases, such as cystic fibrosis, have been created by recombinant DNA technology. TRUE By inserting an allele such as the one that causes cystic fibrosis, a mouse with a phenotype similar to a human with cystic fibrosis can be isolated and studied. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology. Section: 21.03 Topic: Biotechnology Multiple Choice Questions 51. When was the Human Genome Project completed? A. 1999 B. 2001 C. 2003 D. 2005 E. 2010 The Human Genome Project was completed in 2003. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics 52. How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class? A. 1% B. 50% C. 90% D. 99% E. 99.9% Humans are 99.9% identical in DNA sequence to each other. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics 53. How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it contain? A. 3 billion; 80,000 B. 1 million; 1 million C. 20,500; 80,000 D. 80,000; 20,500 E. 125 million; 1 million Researchers thought the genome would contain 80,000 to 140,000 genes. It appears to contain only 20,500. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics True / False Questions 54. More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins. FALSE Less than 2% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.04.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project. Section: 21.04 Topic: Genomics Multiple Choice Questions genes for food preference. Researchers found 3 genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that. to determine how all the proteins within the cell interact E. cranial size. What is the goal of functional genomics? A. genes for speech development. to determine the genome sequence of other organisms useful to humans C. Bloom's Level: 1. genes for taste. have given us insight into our evolution. when compared to our human genes. and bipedalism D. Remember Learning Outcome: 21.55. to determine all of the human genome sequence B. to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being D.5000 genes function and how together they form a human being. to carry out gene therapy for human diseases The purpose of functional genomics is to determine how our 20. and smell found on chromosome 22 have been identified and compared with their counterparts in humans.04. hearing. opposable thumbs. the genes for speech. genes for speech development. Understand Learning Outcome: 21.02 Distinguish between functional and comparative genomics.04 Topic: Genomics 56. hearing.02 Distinguish between functional and comparative genomics. and cranial size Interestingly. and leg length E. genes for chest size. opposable thumbs. Section: 21. and smell B.04 Topic: Genomics . What were those three genes? A. Section: 21. Bloom's Level: 2. bipedalism.04. and leg length C. chemical modifications of proteins Genomics studies genes.02 Distinguish between functional and comparative genomics.04 Topic: Genomics 58. 10% C. protein concentration in a cell C. How similar are our genomes to those of a mouse? A. 85% E. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 21. Remember Learning Outcome: 21. 99% Surprisingly. 35% D. and interaction of cellular proteins. Section: 21. function. Section: 21. protein-protein interactions B.04 Topic: Genomics True / False Questions . 1% B. our DNA sequence is 85% similar to that of a mouse. Which of the following is not studied in the field of proteomics? A. cellular location of particular proteins E. which genes give rise to which proteins D.04.04. while proteomics studies the structure.57. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Distinguish between genomics and proteomics. therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells. Bloom's Level: 4. Which of the following is the primary goal of bioinformatics? A.03 Distinguish between genomics and proteomics.04. Understand Learning Outcome: 21. Analyze Learning Outcome: 21.04. Section: 21. to insert genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder Bioinformatics seeks to find meaningful patterns in the data generated from DNA and protein sequencing. FALSE In in vivo gene therapy.04 Topic: Genomics Multiple Choice Questions 60. to find significant patterns in the information gained from DNA sequencing and proteomics B. In ex vivo gene therapy. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Distinguish between genomics and proteomics. to model the three-dimensional shape of cellular proteins D. Topic: Genomics .59. to obtain the sequence of all the noncoding regions of the DNA E. to input DNA and protein sequences into a computer C. therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells with the use of a vector or carrier molecule. 3 Section: 21. 5 Learning Outcome: 21.01. 3 Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA.02 State the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction and DNA cloning.03 Distinguish between genomics and proteomics.02. 2 Learning Outcome: 21.04.03.01 Recognize the importance of DNA sequencing to the study of biology. 3 Learning Outcome: 21.04 State the roles of RNA in a cell.02 Distinguish between functional and comparative genomics.Chapter 21 DNA Biology and Technology Summary Category # of Questions Bloom's Level: 1.02.04. Understand 22 Bloom's Level: 3.03 12 Section: 21.01 16 Section: 21.04.01. 4 Learning Outcome: 21.03.03 Summarize some of the products that have been produced using biotechnology.04 9 Topic: Biotechnology 12 Topic: Gene Regulation 3 Topic: Genomics 10 Topic: Molecular Biology 35 .01. Remember 19 Bloom's Level: 2.01 Summarize the goals of the Human Genome Project.02 Interpret a sequence of DNA nucleotides. Apply 4 Bloom's Level: 4.01 Summarize how the information contained within the DNA is expressed as a protein.02 Explain the process of DNA replication.01 Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. 2 Learning Outcome: 21. Analyze 12 Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate 3 Learning Outcome: 21.02 22 Section: 21.01. 8 Learning Outcome: 21. 5 Learning Outcome: 21. 1 Learning Outcome: 21. 4 Learning Outcome: 21. 20 Learning Outcome: 21. True False Multiple Choice Questions . cell theory B. False By 15 billion years ago. speciation E. The early Earth's atmosphere was not the same as it is today. What is the name of the hypothesis that states that the very first living thing came from nonliving chemicals? A. the solar system was in place.Chapter 22 Human Evolution Multiple Choice Questions 1. organic chemistry True / False Questions 2. Darwinian evolution D. chemical evolution C. True 3. ozone layer E. gamma radiation E. hydrogen. lightning D. heat C. water vapor. hydrogen. water vapor. nitrogen. and carbon monoxide. volcanoes B. water vapor. E. meteorites C. ultraviolet radiation 6. Miller's experiment showed that life could arise via chemical evolution. and carbon dioxide. The early atmosphere of Earth consisted mainly of A. C. hydrogen. oxygen.4. ultraviolet radiation D. sunlight True / False Questions 7. nitrogen. oxygen. and carbon dioxide. and carbon dioxide. What was the energy source Miller used in his 1953 experiment to replicate Earth's early environment? A. carbon monoxide. 5. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Which of the following was not an energy source on early Earth? A. B. electric spark B. D. True False Multiple Choice Questions . use an RNA only information system. Both the RNA-first and the protein-first hypotheses must propose a manner for DNA to become the genetic material as it is today. finding a living organism that uses RNA as its genetic material True / False Questions 10. finding a protocell that could carry on metabolism as well as reproduce B. C. More primitive cells. 9. RNA was formed in MIller's experiment. E. being able to build microspheres that contain only protein and RNA E. Which piece of evidence would strongly support the RNA-first hypothesis? A. discovering a way to make RNA more stable than DNA C. Protocells contain only RNA and lipids. such as archaea. D. RNA can sometimes be both a substrate and an enzyme during RNA processing.8. RNA continues to evolve chemically today. B. What evidence contributed to the formulation of the RNA-first hypothesis? A. finding a mechanism whereby proteins could assemble DNA out of free nucleotides D. only the strongest survive. B. biochemical evidence . homology True / False Questions 13. E. There are two important aspects to biological evolution: descent from a common ancestor and the fossil record. analogy D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 14. According to the textbook. What is a characteristic that makes an organism able to survive and reproduce in its environment? A. fossil record B. selection C. what evidence is the best evidence for biological evolution? A. anatomical evidence D. living cells arose from nonliving chemicals. adaptation E. biogeographical evidence C. species change through time. prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells. Biological evolution is the process whereby A. 12. C. D.11. humans descended from apes. culture B. Fishes evolved before terrestrial plants. paleontologist D. B. Reptiles preceded the amphibians. C. Unicellular eukaryotes evolved before multicellular eukaryotes.15. E. What is someone who searches for and researches fossils called? A. igneous rock C. geologist E. ecologist 18. Which of the following statements concerning the order of evolving organisms is not true? A. sedimentary rock B. Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 17. Fishes evolved before terrestrial animals. entomologist B. metamorphic rock Yes / No Questions 16. . D. Nonflowering plants preceded the flowering plants. physicist C. What type of rock preserves fossils well? A. D. What did Darwin conclude from the observation that there are no rabbits in South America? A. fossil record True / False Questions . Rabbits cannot live in South America because they do not have a good food source. biogeographical B. The first organisms to appear in the fossil record are unicellular eukaryotes. anatomical C. C. Rabbits cannot live in South America because it is too warm.True / False Questions 19. The fact that marsupials are not as diverse in South America as they are in Australia would be classified as what type of evidence for evolution? A. True False 20. Rabbits evolved somewhere else and had no means of reaching South America. B. biochemical D. We do not have any fossils of unicellular prokaryotes. Rabbits were originally found in South America but went extinct. There are no transitional fossils between different groups. True False Multiple Choice Questions 21. 22. Rabbits in South America evolved into guinea pigs and thus are no longer present. E. What type of evidence for evolution would arise from a comparison of the DNA sequence of humans and monkeys? A. biogeographical B. Closer biochemical structures suggest a closer evolutionary relationship. piloerectors in humans D. fossil record . biochemical D. pelvic girdle in snakes E. anatomical C. pelvic girdle and legs in whales B.23. Which of the following is not a vestigial structure? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 24. tailbone in humans True / False Questions 25. True False Multiple Choice Questions 26. wings for flight in most birds C. All vertebrate forelimbs are the same in that they are used for the same form of locomotion. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics True / False Questions . If you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles. this would support whose mechanism for evolutionary change? A. The flipper of a whale and the wing of a bird are homologous structures. Charles Darwin's process of natural selection B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 29. Charles Darwin's process of natural selection B. and then your children are born with very strong leg muscles. analogous B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics 30. this would support whose mechanism for evolutionary change? A. and then your children are born with very strong leg muscles. A.27. homologous True / False Questions 28. The wings of birds and insects are _____________ structures. If you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles. develop brain and tool use 34. Mammalia E. heterotrophic and multicellular C. mitochondrial DNA sequence data D. Chordata D. vertebrates with hair and mammary glands E. the presence or absence of a nucleus and organelles True / False Questions . bipedal locomotion and an upright stance B. Primates 33. What characteristics separate the Class Mammalia from other animals in the Phylum Chordata? A. brussels sprouts. On what basis was life divided into three domains? A. Chinese cabbage. rRNA sequence data B. Animalia C.31. and kohlrabi are all derived from a single species via artificial selection. Which of the following is the Phylum classification for humans? A. cytochrome c sequence data C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 32. a dorsal tubular nerve cord and notochord D. Eukarya B. E. reduced reproductive rate 38.35. Which of the following is not a similarity between humans and apes? A. The eyes move to the front and allow for stereoscopic vision. lorises 37. What happens in chimps and humans when the snout is shortened considerably? A. The sense of smell is dramatically reduced. Which primate is found within the anthropoid group with humans? A. three different types of cone cells B. smaller portion of the brain devoted to smell E. To study recent evolutionary events. powerful and precise grip D. opposable big toe C. Canine teeth are lost. True False Multiple Choice Questions 36. D. tarsiers D. lemurs C. B. researchers use mitochondrial DNA sequences because mitochondrial DNA changes occur frequently. This allows for the development of a chin. C. . monkeys B. Vocalization becomes possible. and humans and their closest extinct relatives? A. hominid C. B. They are our ancestors. B. The human knee can support more weight than the ape knee. D. The human's femur angles inward to the knees while the ape's femur angles out a bit. The human spine is S-shaped while the ape spine has a slight curve. Which term is used to include only the gorillas.39. The human foot has an arch while the ape foot does not. Which of the following is not a difference between the human skeleton and the chimpanzee skeleton? A. hominine D. homo 42. anthropoid B. The ribs attach to the vertebral column in humans but are free-floating in apes. C. E. . Does the spine of both a human and chimpanzee exit the skull in the same manner? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 41. hominin E. We both share a common ancestor. Yes / No Questions 40. chimpanzees. What relationship do humans have with apes? A. 1. Ardipithecus kadabba E. gibbons. True / False Questions . B.3.5 E.3. 2.4.43. 4. C.2. Europe. brain size E. E. What is the earliest fossil hominin? A. Australopithecus robustus C. 1. new world monkeys.4.3. 5. chimpanzees A. South America.2 45. Southern Africa.1. flat face D. 3. gorillas.2. 5. North America. D. absence of sharp canines B. 1.4. Australopithecus africanus D. absence of a chin 44.1. The first australopithecine fossils were unearthed in A. 3.5 B.5 D. Sahelanthropus tchadensis B.4. Ardipithecus ramidus 46.2. 2. 3. Place these in the correct order from least related to humans to most closely related to humans. lemurs.5 C. Which of the following is not an important anatomical features for determining if a fossil is a hominin? A. Asia.1. bipedal posture C.4. walked on all fours. What were the two different types of australopithecines? A. terrestrial D. Homo floresiensis . arboreal. omnivorous C. Which of the following is not a species within the genus Homo? A. Which of the following describes the limb anatomy of australopithecine? A. Human characteristics did not evolve all at one time. gathering 50. hindlimbs longer than forelimbs 49. walked upright. walked upright. gracile. hindlimbs longer than forelimbs D. Homo ramidus D. forelimbs longer than hindlimbs B. Homo sapiens E. walked on all fours. erect. Homo erectus B.47. knuckle-walker B. Homo habilis C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 48. hunting. carnivorous. robust E. forelimbs longer than hindlimbs C. erectus and H. and Europe. H. B. erectus had a larger brain and a flatter face than Homo habilis. H. H. They may have been the first to develop culture. ergaster is the African form. Homo habilis was the first hominid to use fire. H. erectus was much shorter than Homo species had been up to this time. B. How does Homo erectus differ from Homo ergaster? A. D. H. D. 52. afarensis. True False Multiple Choice Questions 54. H. The fossils looks very similar but H.51. C. H. erectus is an Asian form and H. erectus walked upright whle H. erectus had tools and fire and H. erectus babies were born in an immature state that required an extended period of care. D. B. True / False Questions 53. Asia. erectus evolved into H. ergaster did not. erectus walked erect and probably had a striding gait like ours. Which of the following is inconsistent with what is known about Homo erectus? A. C. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning Homo habilis? A. E. ergaster still walked on all fours. They have a brain size about 45% larger than A. . The portions of the brain associated with speech were enlarged. H. H. C. ergaster is very apelike. They had not yet developed tools. E. ergaster and was supplanted by H. E. The cheek teeth are smaller than even those of the gracile australopithecines. erectus essentially looks like modern humans while H. erectus fossils have been found in Africa. ergaster are identical except that H. ergaster. North and South America C. and Europe B. Asia. only in Asia True / False Questions 56. 10.000 years before present C. 100. when did Homo sapiens migrate to Europe and Asia? A. According to the out-of-Africa hypotehsis.000 years before present D. Africa. In the out-of-Africa hypothesis. where did modern humans evolve? A. Europe and North America D.55. True False Multiple Choice Questions 57. there was interbreeding between the ancestors of modern humans on three continents. According to the multiregional continuity hypothesis. only in Africa E. 1000 years before present B. 1 million years before present E. 5 million years before present . True False Multiple Choice Questions 60. True / False Questions 59. plants and animals that live at the same time evolve together. D. B. The oldest fossils to be designated Homo sapiens are the Cro-Magnons. A. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Neandertals? A. They had massive brow ridges. animals in colder regions have bulkier body builds. . The pubic bone was long compared to ours. They were heavily muscled. the more genetically disparate they will be. C. B. E.58. They are considered H. hominins such as Cro-Magnons were capable of symbolic thinking because they buried their dead with flowers. D. E. C. sapiens. variation exists because of genetic inheritance. The brain size was larger than ours. According to Bergmann's rule. the longer two populations have been separated. organic chemistry Chemical evolution suggests that a complexity of chemicals produced the first cells on primitive Earth. Bloom's Level: 1. TRUE The early Earth's atmosphere was not the same as it is today.01. if any.Chapter 22 Human Evolution Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. Section: 22.01 Topic: Origins of Life . Bloom's Level: 2.01 Topic: Origins of Life True / False Questions 2. oxygen.01. chemical evolution C. speciation E. It would have had little. Darwinian evolution D. cell theory B. The early Earth's atmosphere was not the same as it is today. What is the name of the hypothesis that states that the very first living thing came from nonliving chemicals? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere. Section: 22. 01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere.3.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere. carbon monoxide. hydrogen.6 billion years ago. nitrogen. oxygen. B. The Big Bang occurred 13. hydrogen.01. and carbon dioxide. Bloom's Level: 2. and carbon dioxide. The early atmosphere of Earth consisted mainly of A. water vapor. and carbon dioxide. D. Section: 22. the solar system was in place. water vapor. if any. E.01 Topic: Origins of Life Multiple Choice Questions 4. hydrogen. Bloom's Level: 1. FALSE The solar system was in place 4. nitrogen. Section: 22. By 15 billion years ago. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. oxygen. C. oxygen. and carbon monoxide. and carbon dioxide. The primitive atmosphere would have consisted mostly of water vapor.01. water vapor.01 Topic: Origins of Life .75 billion years ago. nitrogen. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. with little. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. ultraviolet radiation All of the above were energy sources on the early Earth except for the ozone layer. volcanoes B.01 Topic: Origins of Life 6. Bloom's Level: 2. ozone layer E. meteorites C. What was the energy source Miller used in his 1953 experiment to replicate Earth's early environment? A.01. Bloom's Level: 1. Which of the following was not an energy source on early Earth? A.02 Discuss how the first organic materials may have arisen on the planet. heat C. ultraviolet radiation D.01. sunlight Miller circulated a solution past an electrical spark to simulate the early Earth's conditions. Section: 22. gamma radiation E. electric spark B. Section: 22.5.01 Topic: Origins of Life True / False Questions . Remember Learning Outcome: 22. lightning D.02 Discuss how the first organic materials may have arisen on the planet. 03 Distinguish between the RNA-first and protein-first hypotheses. D. then researchers proposed that perhaps RNA could have carried out the processes of life commonly associated today with DNA and proteins. Protocells contain only RNA and lipids. Section: 22. even if oxygen is not present. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 22.01.01. Section: 22. More primitive cells. Bloom's Level: 4. B. Bloom's Level: 5. RNA continues to evolve chemically today.7. Miller's experiment showed that life could arise via chemical evolution.01 Topic: Origins of Life Multiple Choice Questions 8. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. RNA was formed in MIller's experiment. What evidence contributed to the formulation of the RNA-first hypothesis? A.02 Discuss how the first organic materials may have arisen on the planet. such as archaea. RNA can sometimes be both a substrate and an enzyme during RNA processing.01 Topic: Origins of Life . use an RNA only information system. When it was discovered that RNA can sometimes be both a substrate and an enzyme during RNA processing. E. C. FALSE Miller's experiment showed that inorganic chemicals may form organic molecules in the presence of a strong energy source. Section: 22. finding a protocell that could carry on metabolism as well as reproduce B. finding a mechanism whereby proteins could assemble DNA out of free nucleotides D. Which piece of evidence would strongly support the RNA-first hypothesis? A.9. Both the RNA-first and the protein-first hypotheses must propose a manner for DNA to become the genetic material as it is today. Section: 22. Bloom's Level: 4.01 Topic: Origins of Life True / False Questions 10.01.03 Distinguish between the RNA-first and protein-first hypotheses. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. discovering a way to make RNA more stable than DNA C.01 Topic: Origins of Life Multiple Choice Questions . being able to build microspheres that contain only protein and RNA E. Bloom's Level: 2. TRUE How the first cell acquired both DNA and enzymatic proteins is an issue for both the RNA-first and the protein-first hypotheses.03 Distinguish between the RNA-first and protein-first hypotheses.01. finding a living organism that uses RNA as its genetic material If scientists could find a living organism that uses RNA as its genetic material that would provide evidence for an RNA-first hypothesis. prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells. selection C.11. Biological evolution is defined as the processes whereby species changes through time. E.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 12. adaptation E. Biological evolution is the process whereby A. B. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 22. homology An adaptation is a characteristic that makes an organism able to survive and reproduce in its environment. D. species change through time.02. C. Section: 22. only the strongest survive. What is a characteristic that makes an organism able to survive and reproduce in its environment? A.01 Explain the relationship between adaptation and the process of biological evolution. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. living cells arose from nonliving chemicals.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. culture B. humans descended from apes.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin True / False Questions . analogy D.01 Explain the relationship between adaptation and the process of biological evolution. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin Multiple Choice Questions 14. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. anatomical evidence D. These show actual remains of species that lived on Earth at least 10. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02.01 Explain the relationship between adaptation and the process of biological evolution. what evidence is the best evidence for biological evolution? A. Section: 22. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. There are two important aspects to biological evolution: descent from a common ancestor and the fossil record. biochemical evidence The fossil record provides the best evidence for evolution. fossil record B.02. Bloom's Level: 1.13. FALSE Descent from a common ancestor and adaptation to the environment are the two important aspects of biological evolution.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin .02 Discuss how the fossil record. biogeographical evidence C.000 years ago up to billions of years ago. Bloom's Level: 2. biogeography. According to the textbook. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record. Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish? NO Usually the soft parts of an animal are consumed or decomposed and do not form fossils. Section: 22. Fossils of jellyfish are relatively rare. Bloom's Level: 4. sedimentary rock B. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. Section: 22.15. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. igneous rock C. metamorphic rock Most fossils are found embedded in or recently eroded from sedimentary rock.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin Multiple Choice Questions . What type of rock preserves fossils well? A. Bloom's Level: 2. biogeography.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin Yes / No Questions 16. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. biogeography.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. Fishes evolved before terrestrial plants. C. geologist E.02. biogeography. Amphibians preceded the reptiles. Unicellular eukaryotes evolved before multicellular eukaryotes.02 Discuss how the fossil record. Bloom's Level: 1. Nonflowering plants preceded the flowering plants. Reptiles preceded the amphibians. Section: 22. What is someone who searches for and researches fossils called? A. D. Fishes evolved before terrestrial animals. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution.17. B. Which of the following statements concerning the order of evolving organisms is not true? A.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 18. biogeography. including the dinosaurs. Section: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin True / False Questions .02 Discuss how the fossil record. ecologist Paleontologists are researchers who search for and study fossils.02. physicist C. Bloom's Level: 4. E. paleontologist D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. entomologist B. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. The first organisms to appear in the fossil record are unicellular eukaryotes. biogeography. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. There are no transitional fossils between different groups.02. Bloom's Level: 2. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. FALSE There are many transitional fossils that have characteristics of two different groups.02. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Section: 22. Bloom's Level: 1.19. biogeography.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 20.02 Discuss how the fossil record. FALSE The first signs of life in the fossil record are unicellular prokaryotes. We do not have any fossils of unicellular prokaryotes.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin Multiple Choice Questions . Section: 22. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02 Discuss how the fossil record. anatomical C. C.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 22. E.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin True / False Questions .02. Section: 22. Rabbits cannot live in South America because they do not have a good food source. Rabbits cannot live in South America because it is too warm. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. biochemical D.02 Discuss how the fossil record. fossil record Biogeography is the study of the distribution of plants and animals in different places throughout the world. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Therefore. Rabbits evolved somewhere else and had no means of reaching South America. Bloom's Level: 4. biogeography. D. biogeography. The fact that marsupials are not as diverse in South America as they are in Australia would be classified as what type of evidence for evolution? A.02 Discuss how the fossil record. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.21. What did Darwin conclude from the observation that there are no rabbits in South America? A. islands. Rabbits were originally found in South America but went extinct. biogeographical B. you would expect a different mix of plants and animals whenever geography separates continents. B. Section: 22. Darwin proposed that life-forms evolved in a particular locale before they spread out. Apply Learning Outcome: 22. Rabbits in South America evolved into guinea pigs and thus are no longer present. Bloom's Level: 3.02. or seas. Section: 22. and running. biogeography. pelvic girdle and legs in whales B. biogeography. Section: 22. Wings for flight in most birds serve a function.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin Multiple Choice Questions 24.02 Discuss how the fossil record. FALSE Vertebrate forelimbs are used for flying. tailbone in humans Vestigial structures are anatomical features that are fully developed in one group of organisms but that are reduced and may have no function in similar groups.23. swinging.02.02 Discuss how the fossil record. They are all the same in that they have the same sets of bones organized in similar ways.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin True / False Questions . and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Bloom's Level: 4.02. All vertebrate forelimbs are the same in that they are used for the same form of locomotion. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. swimming. wings for flight in most birds C. pelvic girdle in snakes E. climbing. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. Which of the following is not a vestigial structure? A. despite their dissimilar functions. Bloom's Level: 2. piloerectors in humans D. 02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin . and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. Bloom's Level: 2. TRUE This is the assumption behind biochemical evidence for evolution. biogeography.25.02.02.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin Multiple Choice Questions 26.02 Discuss how the fossil record. Apply Learning Outcome: 22. What type of evidence for evolution would arise from a comparison of the DNA sequence of humans and monkeys? A. biogeography. and anatomical and biochemical evidence all support the concept of biological evolution. fossil record DNA base sequences and amino acid sequences of proteins are compared in biochemical evidence for evolution.02 Discuss how the fossil record. Closer biochemical structures suggest a closer evolutionary relationship. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 22. Section: 22. anatomical C. biogeographical B. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. biochemical D. Bloom's Level: 1. analogous B. The flipper of a whale and the wing of a bird are homologous structures. Section: 22. homologous Analogous structures share the same function but are not constructed similarly and do not share a common ancestry.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin True / False Questions 28. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. The wings of birds and insects are _____________ structures.03 Distinguish between homologous and analogous structure.02. Section: 22. TRUE These structures share the same pattern of bones because they are descendent from a common vertebrate ancestor. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin Multiple Choice Questions .27.02.03 Distinguish between homologous and analogous structure. A. Bloom's Level: 4. However. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 22. the evidence does not support this mechanism.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 30. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics This would support Jean-Baptist Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics. Charles Darwin's process of natural selection B. this would support whose mechanism for evolutionary change? A. and then your children are born with very strong leg muscles. and then your children are born with very strong leg muscles.29. Charles Darwin's process of natural selection B. However. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. Chinese cabbage. Section: 22. Apply Learning Outcome: 22.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin True / False Questions 31. Remember . TRUE Humans help carry out artificial selection when they breed plants and animals and select for desired traits. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics This would support Jean-Baptist Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics. If you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles. this would support whose mechanism for evolutionary change? A. brussels sprouts.04 Describe how the process of natural selection supports the concept of biological evolution.02. the evidence does not support this mechanism.02.04 Describe how the process of natural selection supports the concept of biological evolution. and kohlrabi are all derived from a single species via artificial selection. Bloom's Level: 3. If you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution. Eukarya B. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.02. What characteristics separate the Class Mammalia from other animals in the Phylum Chordata? A.Learning Outcome: 22. Section: 22. Section: 22.03 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics . Chordata D. heterotrophic and multicellular C.02 Topic: Evolution--Darwin Multiple Choice Questions 32. Section: 22. Which of the following is the Phylum classification for humans? A.03.03. bipedal locomotion and an upright stance B. a dorsal tubular nerve cord and notochord D. Animalia C. Bloom's Level: 4. Mammalia E.03 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics 33.04 Describe how the process of natural selection supports the concept of biological evolution. vertebrates with hair and mammary glands E. Primates Humans belong to the Phylum Chordata. develop brain and tool use The Class Mammalia is characterized by vertebrates with hair and mammary glands.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. Bloom's Level: 5. On what basis was life divided into three domains? A.03 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics True / False Questions 35.03. the presence or absence of a nucleus and organelles Life was divided into three domains on the basis of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequence data. Bloom's Level: 2. To study recent evolutionary events.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution. cytochrome c sequence data C. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. Section: 22. Section: 22.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution.03. TRUE Mitochondrial DNA data are used to idetermine the evolutionary history of modern man. researchers use mitochondrial DNA sequences because mitochondrial DNA changes occur frequently. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 22. rRNA sequence data B.03 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics Multiple Choice Questions . mitochondrial DNA sequence data D.34. monkeys B.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation .02 Describe the evolutionary trends that occur in the primates. powerful and precise grip D. The others are within the prosimian group. Which primate is found within the anthropoid group with humans? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.03. lemurs C.02 Describe the evolutionary trends that occur in the primates. tarsiers D. smaller portion of the brain devoted to smell E. opposable big toe C. lorises Monkeys and apes are in the anthropoid group. Which of the following is not a similarity between humans and apes? A.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation 37. Section: 22. three different types of cone cells B. reduced reproductive rate Apes have an opposable big toe but humans do not. Bloom's Level: 4.36.03. Section: 22. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. Bloom's Level: 1. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. Vocalization becomes possible. C. The human's femur angles inward to the knees while the ape's femur angles out a bit.38. Bloom's Level: 4. With the shortening of the snout. What happens in chimps and humans when the snout is shortened considerably? A. This allows for the development of a chin. the eyes can move to the front of the head. E.03. The human knee can support more weight than the ape knee.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation Yes / No Questions . B.03 Compare the structure of chimpanzee and human skeletons and list the adaptations in humans that make upright walking possible. C. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. This allows for depth perception. E.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation 39. D. Canine teeth are lost.03.02 Describe the evolutionary trends that occur in the primates. In both humans and apes the ribs attach to the vertebral column. Which of the following is not a difference between the human skeleton and the chimpanzee skeleton? A. Bloom's Level: 2. D. The ribs attach to the vertebral column in humans but are free-floating in apes. The human foot has an arch while the ape foot does not. Section: 22. The human spine is S-shaped while the ape spine has a slight curve. B. Section: 22. The eyes move to the front and allow for stereoscopic vision. The sense of smell is dramatically reduced. Section: 22. and humans and their closest extinct relatives. hominid C.03. chimpanzees. chimpanzees.03 Compare the structure of chimpanzee and human skeletons and list the adaptations in humans that make upright walking possible.40.03 Topic: Evolution--Speciation Multiple Choice Questions 41. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. Does the spine of both a human and chimpanzee exit the skull in the same manner? NO The human spin exits from the skull's center while the ape spine exits from the rear of the skull. hominin E. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 22.04. and humans and their closest extinct relatives? A.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation . hominine D. Which term is used to include only the gorillas.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins. Bloom's Level: 1. anthropoid B. homo The term hominine is now used to include only the gorillas. 04. Which of the following is not an important anatomical features for determining if a fossil is a hominin? A. We both share a common ancestor. B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. Section: 22. They are our ancestors. What relationship do humans have with apes? A. absence of sharp canines B. absence of a chin Hominins have a more pronounced chin than do apes because the human jaw is shorter than that of the apes.42. bipedal posture C. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins. Section: 22. brain size E. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 4.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation . One common misconception is that humans evolved from apes. flat face D. This is not possible because we are living on Earth at the same time.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation 43.04. Humans and apes are thought to have shared a common apelike ancestor. 3.4. 5.1. Section: 22. This is followed by the new world monkeys and the gibbons. What is the earliest fossil hominin? A. Sahelanthropus tchadensis B.2. 2.4.5 C. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. Bloom's Level: 1.1. Australopithecus robustus C.44. gorillas. Ardipithecus kadabba E.5 E.5 B. 1.2. Place these in the correct order from least related to humans to most closely related to humans.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation 45. The gorillas are further from us than the chimpanzees.4. 4.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins.04.2 The least related are the lemurs. 5.3.3.04. Ardipithecus ramidus Sahelanthropus tchadensis is dated from 7 MYA when the ape and human lineages split. chimpanzees A. new world monkeys.01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins.5 D. 3. 3.4.4. gibbons. 2. lemurs. 3. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. Bloom's Level: 1. 1.1.2.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation . Section: 22.1. Australopithecus africanus D. E. North America. C.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution. Section: 22.46. B.04. South America. TRUE The term mosaic evolution is applied when different body parts change at different rates as is the case with humans.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation Multiple Choice Questions .02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution. The first australopithecine to be discovered was unearthed in southern Africa by Raymond Dart in the 1920s. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. Europe. Bloom's Level: 2. The first australopithecine fossils were unearthed in A. Bloom's Level: 1.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation True / False Questions 47. Asia. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. Southern Africa. Section: 22. Human characteristics did not evolve all at one time.04. D. walked on all fours. erect.48. terrestrial D. What were the two different types of australopithecines? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. knuckle-walker B. walked upright. hindlimbs longer than forelimbs D. walked on all fours. gracile.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation . Section: 22. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. while others were more powerful and termed robust.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution. Bloom's Level: 1. hunting. However. carnivorous.04 Topic: Evolution--Speciation 49. forelimbs longer than hindlimbs C. Bloom's Level: 2. robust E.04. hindlimbs longer than forelimbs Limb anatomy suggests that australopithecines walked upright.04. omnivorous C. walked upright. Which of the following describes the limb anatomy of australopithecine? A. forelimbs longer than hindlimbs B. Section: 22. gathering Some australopithecines were slight and termed gracile.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution. arboreal. the proportions of the limbs are apelike in that the forelimbs are longer than the hindlimbs. 05. Homo sapiens E. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning Homo habilis? A. Bloom's Level: 5. The stone tools made by Homo habilis were rather crude. E. Which of the following is not a species within the genus Homo? A.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation . The portions of the brain associated with speech were enlarged. Homo ramidus D. The correct name is Ardipithicus ramidus. Section: 22. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 22. B. D. They may have been the first to develop culture. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. Homo floresiensis All are species within the genus except ramidus. afarensis.50. Bloom's Level: 4. Homo habilis C.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation 51.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. but they did exhibit tool use.05. The cheek teeth are smaller than even those of the gracile australopithecines. Section: 22. They had not yet developed tools. C. Homo erectus B.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. They have a brain size about 45% larger than A. 01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. D. B. FALSE Homo erectus was the first hominid to use fire. Asia. Bloom's Level: 5. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation Multiple Choice Questions . Which of the following is inconsistent with what is known about Homo erectus? A. H.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation True / False Questions 53. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 22. and Europe.05. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 22. erectus fossils have been found in Africa.05. erectus had a larger brain and a flatter face than Homo habilis. H. erectus walked erect and probably had a striding gait like ours. erectus babies were born in an immature state that required an extended period of care.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus. erectus was much taller than the hominids that came before. Homo habilis was the first hominid to use fire. erectus was much shorter than Homo species had been up to this time. H. H. C.52. H. H. E. Section: 22. there are some slight differences. ergaster are identical except that H. erectus is an Asian form and H. Europe and North America D. H. erectus and H. and Europe B. Understand Learning Outcome: 22. only in Asia The multiregional continuity hypothesis proposes that H. The fossils looks very similar but H. erectus and the African form H. How does Homo erectus differ from Homo ergaster? A. where did modern humans evolve? A. only in Africa E.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation True / False Questions . erectus evolved into H. and Europe. According to the multiregional continuity hypothesis.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus.05. H.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation 55. H. Africa.05. Bloom's Level: 4. erectus essentially looks like modern humans while H.54. erectus had tools and fire and H. Although all fossils assigned the name H. Section: 22. D. Africa. North and South America C. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. It has been proposed that the Asian form should be called H. erectus are similar in appearance. erectus walked upright whle H. ergaster is the African form. Asia. ergaster did not. E.02 Distinguish between the multiregional and out-of-Africa hypotheses of Homo sapiens evolution. Bloom's Level: 2. ergaster still walked on all fours. H. ergaster and was supplanted by H. sapiens evolved separately in Asia. ergaster. Section: 22. ergaster. C. B. ergaster is very apelike. 1000 years before present B. erectus only in Africa and migrated to Europe and Asia about 100.05.000 years before present C. In the out-of-Africa hypothesis.000 years before present D. Section: 22. 5 million years before present According to the out-of-Africa proposal.000 years before present.05.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation .05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation Multiple Choice Questions 57. sapiens evolved from H.56. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.02 Distinguish between the multiregional and out-of-Africa hypotheses of Homo sapiens evolution. According to the out-of-Africa hypotehsis. when did Homo sapiens migrate to Europe and Asia? A.02 Distinguish between the multiregional and out-of-Africa hypotheses of Homo sapiens evolution. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 22. 100. 10. H. Bloom's Level: 2. there was interbreeding between the ancestors of modern humans on three continents. 1 million years before present E. Section: 22. FALSE This is a tenant of the multiregional continuity hypothesis. They were heavily muscled. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Neandertals? A. Section: 22. sapiens. not H. They are considered H. C. sapiens. TRUE Cro-Magnons have a thoroughly modern appearance and are the oldest fossils to be designated H.05. They had massive brow ridges.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation True / False Questions 59. E.03 Describe the differences between Neandertals and Cro-Magnons. sapiens. The pubic bone was long compared to ours.03 Describe the differences between Neandertals and Cro-Magnons. D. B. Section: 22. neandertalensis. Bloom's Level: 4. Neandertals are considered H.58.05. Bloom's Level: 1. Analyze Learning Outcome: 22. Remember Learning Outcome: 22.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation Multiple Choice Questions . The brain size was larger than ours. The oldest fossils to be designated Homo sapiens are the Cro-Magnons. A. animals in colder regions have bulkier body builds. variation exists because of genetic inheritance.60. According to Bergmann's rule.03 Describe the differences between Neandertals and Cro-Magnons.05 Topic: Evolution--Speciation . E. Bloom's Level: 2. Bergmann's rule correlates body shape and environmental conditions. It states that animals in colder regions of their range have a bulkier body build. the longer two populations have been separated. the more genetically disparate they will be. Section: 22. hominins such as Cro-Magnons were capable of symbolic thinking because they buried their dead with flowers. Understand Learning Outcome: 22.05. plants and animals that live at the same time evolve together. B. C. D. 01 Describe the major events in the evolution of the hominins. Evaluate 4 Learning Outcome: 22.04 Describe how the process of natural selection supports the concept of biological evolution.03 Compare the structure of chimpanzee and human skeletons and list the adaptations in human 2 s that make upright walking possible.03.02 Discuss how the fossil record.02 Summarize the significance of the australopithecines in the study of human evolution.01 Describe how DNA analysis is used to study primate evolution.01 Explain the relationship between adaptation and the process of biological evolution.01 Describe the conditions of the early Earth's atmosphere. 5 Learning Outcome: 22. 4 Learning Outcome: 22. Analyze 14 Bloom's Level: 5.02 Discuss how the first organic materials may have arisen on the planet.05. 4 Learning Outcome: 22. 3 Learning Outcome: 22.02 Describe the evolutionary trends that occur in the primates.03 Distinguish between homologous and analogous structure. Learning Outcome: 22.02 21 Section: 22.05. 4 Learning Outcome: 22.05. 3 Learning Outcome: 22. 2 Learning Outcome: 22. Apply 3 Bloom's Level: 4.04 9 Section: 22.05 11 Topic: Evolution--Darwin 21 Topic: Evolution--Speciation 25 Topic: Origins of Life 10 Topic: Taxonomy and Systematics 4 . and anatomical and biochemical evidence all su 13 pport the concept of biological evolution.02.04.01.01 10 Section: 22.02. Remember 18 Bloom's Level: 2. 5 Learning Outcome: 22. biogeography. 3 Learning Outcome: 22. 3 Learning Outcome: 22.01. 3 Learning Outcome: 22.03 Distinguish between the RNA-first and protein-first hypotheses.03 Describe the differences between Neandertals and Cro-Magnons.04.02. 3 Section: 22.03 9 Section: 22.02. Learning Outcome: 22. Understand 21 Bloom's Level: 3. Learning Outcome: 22.03.01 Explain the adaptations of Homo erectus.03.01.Chapter 22 Human Evolution Summary Category # of Questi ons Bloom's Level: 1.02 Distinguish between the multiregional and out-of- 3 Africa hypotheses of Homo sapiens evolution. True False Multiple Choice Questions 3. all the places on Earth where living organisms can be found True / False Questions 2. aspects of the nonliving environment interacting together E. temperature and the types of plants found there B. all living organisms and the nonliving environment interacting together D. What two characteristics define a biome? A. amount of precipitation and the types of plants found there C. latitude and rainfall E. altitude and temperature . temperature and rainfall D. The bottom of the ocean floor is not considered part of the biosphere because no sunlight reaches it. Which of the following defines an ecosystems? A.Chapter 23 Global Ecology and Human Interferences Multiple Choice Questions 1. all of the living organisms in an area interacting together C. a group of organisms of the same species interacting together B. low to high temperatures and low annual rainfall. such as a savanna. what is the first type of ecosystem encountered? A. temperate forests D. low to high temperatures and large amounts of annual rainfall. What is another name for the taiga? A. The richest marine ecosystems are those in the open water where large fish abound. E. 5. B. coniferous forest E. prairies C. tundra . are A. prairie D. low average temperature but moderate rainfall. From the North Pole south. high temperatures and moderate/seasonal rainfall. tropical rain forest C. tundra True / False Questions 6. The conditions that define a tropical grassland. D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 7. savanna B. taiga E. high average temperature and large amounts of annual rainfall. C. coniferous forests B.4. carnivores C. Timothy has become a vegan. soil type C. What kind of an organism is an earthworm? A. temperature E.8. amount of rainfall D. What is another name for autotrophs? A. decomposers B. or cheese. He does not eat any meat. omnivore E. omnivore E. How would Timothy be classified? A. carnivore D. producer B. herbivore C. detritus feeder 11. producers E. Which of the following is not an abiotic component of an ecosystem? A. producer B. detritus feeder True / False Questions . amount of sunlight 9. omnivores D. milk. carnivore D. eggs. herbivores B. detritus feeders 10. herbivore C. job description C. True False . To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem. sunlight. Which term is analogous to the word "niche"? A.12. water D. Both energy and chemicals cycle through an ecosystem. an energy source. properties D. Decomposers perform a valuable service because they recycle nutrients. organic nutrients C. sunlight. True False 16. needs E. an energy source. address B. inorganic nutrients B. inorganic nutrients E. heat. desires True / False Questions 15. What do autotrophs require in order to produce food for themselves and all the heterotrophs? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 13. water 14. feces. Almost 100% of the energy taken in by plants from the sun is available to an ecosystem. 5% C. growth and reproduction D. All of the energy in an ecosystem eventually becomes A. E. 50% E. True False . 90% 19. cellular respiration E. D. detritus. 18. excretion B. death True / False Questions 20. 1% B. body mass.Multiple Choice Questions 17. 10% D. defecation C. sunlight. C. B. Which is the following functions of an herbivore provides energy that becomes available to the carnivore that eats the herbivore? A. heat. How much of the food energy taken in by an herbivore is passed on to a carnivore? A. biomass True / False Questions .21. shrews 24. Life on Earth is dependent on a continued input of energy from the sun. detritus C. shrews E. feeding E. What is at the beginning of a grazing food chain? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 22. energy B. leaves B. web D. earthworms C. What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food chain? A. niche C. detritus B. leaves 23. What does the word "trophic" mean? A. earthworms E. beetles D. birds D. Which of the following organisms is a secondary consumer? A. sparrows D. fox D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 26. 500 kg B. 10 kg E. caterpillars C. 100 kg C. hawks 28. leaves B. Which of the following is on the same trophic level as a rabbit? A. 50 kg D. beetle Yes / No Questions . If the first-level carnivores consumes 500 kg of herbivore tissue. deer B. snake C.25. 5 kg 27. hawk E. how much is available to the second-level carnivores? A. A detrital food web and a grazing food web are separate because each starts at a different level. carbon B. B. Most ecosystems contain quaternary consumers. This eliminates the need to include producers in the pyramid. C. Aquatic ecosystem pyramids actually look like pyramids. This takes into account nutrient cycling as well as energy flow. True False Multiple Choice Questions 32.29. phosphorus . What is the advantage of constructing an ecological pyramid based on biomass? A. Do all ecological pyramids actually look like a pyramid? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 30. This includes the detrital food web as well as the grazing food web in one pyramid. True / False Questions 31. nitrogen C. E. Size of the various organisms is eliminated as a factor. Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is a sedimentary cycle? A. D. Are humans capable of upsetting global biogeochemical cycles with their activities? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions . Minerals in rocks are considered what type of component of a chemical cycle? A. A biogeochemical cycle involves only the abiotic components of an ecosystem and describes how chemicals circulate through those components. exchange pool C. reservoir B.True / False Questions 33. True False Multiple Choice Questions 34. biotic community Yes / No Questions 36. biotic community 35. exchange pool C. The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle? A. reservoir B. aquifers 38. precipitation. True False Multiple Choice Questions 40. E. D. runoff. transference . C. runoff B. transpiration E. it leaves the salts behind. lakes and rivers C. True / False Questions 39. rainfall D. ocean B. B. precipitation C. What is the loss of water from plants called? A. Hail and snow are considered A. aquifers.37. evaporation D. When water evaporates from the ocean. transpiration. evaporation. What is the reservoir for the water cycle? A. runoff 42. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Organisms that live in an aquatic environment get their carbon from calcium carbonate shells on the bottom instead of from carbon dioxide in the environment. Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining? A. a decrease in the level of the water table. plants D. What is the exchange pool for the carbon cycle? A. groundwater table D. C. standing water (lakes and ponds) C. or the ocean. increased runoff into nearby streams. Once of the consequences of building roads. parking lots. ocean E. 43. lakes. and buildings is A. increased evaporation from the ocean. aquifers B. carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C. B. wetlands. D. increased transpiration of plants in the vicinity. soil True / False Questions 44. E. algae E.41. the ocean B. decreased precipitation over the oceans and the land. True False Multiple Choice Questions 48. carbon dioxide C. by breathing B. by decay 46. by combustion E. How is carbon dioxide made available to living organisms? A. bicarbonate D. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? A. carbon monoxide True / False Questions 47. methane D. nitrous oxide E. calcium chloride C.45. carbon dioxide E. calcium carbonate B. What is the direct source of carbon for algae? A. There is no reservoir of carbon for the carbon cycle. by cellular respiration C. hydrofluorocarbons . by photosynthesis D. oxygen B. Water vapor contributes to global warming.e. B. 5 (i.e. wetter coastal regions E.5 (i.e.e. C. half as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). Which of the following is not an effect of global warming? A.49. flooding of coastal agricultural land True / False Questions 51. The global climate has already warmed about 0. The ratio between the uptake of carbon dioxide by photosynthesis and the release of carbon dioxide by respiration is approximately A. There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen. True False Multiple Choice Questions .. True False 53.6 degrees Celsius since the Industrial Revolution. E.e.... one tenth as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). twice as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). True False 52. about the same). melting of glaciers D.1 (i.. expansion of forests in the temperate zones C. 2 (i. 0. five times as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). one (i. 50. rise in sea level B. 0. D. ferns B. cellular respiration True / False Questions . conversion of nitrite to nitrate E. Both are gaseous cycles. How is the nitrogen cycle like the carbon cycle? A. What is involved in the process of denitrification? A. Both are lost to the atmosphere during cellular respiration. Neither has a reservoir in nature. E. conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas 57. Which of the following is a legume involved in housing nitrogen-fixing bacteria? A. Both require photosynthesis to utilize the chemical. conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonium B. conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrate C. grass D. 56. precipitation from clouds C. How does phosphate enter the soil? A.54. D. oak trees C. B. photosynthesis E. conversion in the atmosphere due to lightning B. Both are stored in fossil fuels. conversion of ammonium to nitrate D. weathering of rocks D. C. roses 55. beans E. Biological magnification occurs as organisms get larger due to increased water. Cultural eutrophication can be caused by A. detergents.58. air. respiration and transpiration. True / False Questions 60. mercury from industrial sources. biological magnification. E. C. Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is a part of proteins. bacteria and viruses from sewage and barnyard waste. True False . True False Multiple Choice Questions 59. fertilizers. and soil pollution. D. B. and sewage treatment plants. 01. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Section: 23. aspects of the nonliving environment interacting together E. The bottom of the ocean floor is not considered part of the biosphere because no sunlight reaches it. FALSE Any place where organisms are found on planet Earth is part of the biosphere. Which of the following defines an ecosystems? A.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. a group of organisms of the same species interacting together B.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 2. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems .Chapter 23 Global Ecology and Human Interferences Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. all of the living organisms in an area interacting together C. Section: 23. Bloom's Level: 2. all living organisms and the nonliving environment interacting together D. all the places on Earth where living organisms can be found Ecosystems are specific areas where organisms interact among themselves and with the physical and chemical environment.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. low to high temperatures and large amounts of annual rainfall. altitude and temperature A biome is defined by the temperature and rainfall. such as a savanna. Bloom's Level: 1. C.Multiple Choice Questions 3. low to high temperatures and low annual rainfall. B. high average temperature and large amounts of annual rainfall. What two characteristics define a biome? A. Tropical grasslands. D. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. low average temperature but moderate rainfall. temperature and the types of plants found there B. latitude and rainfall E.01. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . high temperatures and moderate/seasonal rainfall.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 4. E. temperature and rainfall D. amount of precipitation and the types of plants found there C.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. Bloom's Level: 4. such as savannas. Section: 23. have high temperatures and moderate/seasonal rainfall. are A.01.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. The conditions that define a tropical grassland. coniferous forest E. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. tropical rain forest C. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions .01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 6.01.5. prairie D. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 4. tundra The taiga is a type of coniferous forest. The richest marine ecosystems are those in the open water where large fish abound. savanna B. FALSE The richest marine ecosystems are those near the coasts. These are often called the nursery of the sea. Section: 23.01. What is another name for the taiga? A. taiga E. temperature E.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 8.7.01. amount of rainfall D. so they are not part of the abiotic component of an ecosystem. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 23. amount of sunlight Decomposers are living organisms.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . temperate forests D. coniferous forests B. Which of the following is not an abiotic component of an ecosystem? A. tundra The tundra is the frigid region bordering the North Pole.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. decomposers B. Section: 23.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere. what is the first type of ecosystem encountered? A. soil type C. prairies C. Bloom's Level: 2. From the North Pole south. How would Timothy be classified? A. producer B.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. eggs. or cheese. milk.01. herbivore C. carnivore D. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 23. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. herbivores B. omnivore E. Section: 23. because they produce their own food. carnivores C. He does not eat any meat. an organism that only eats plants or algae. omnivores D. detritus feeders Autotrophs are also called producers. Timothy has become a vegan. What is another name for autotrophs? A. detritus feeder Timothy is a herbivore. Bloom's Level: 2. producers E. Section: 23.9.01.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems .01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 10. detritus feeder An earthworm is a detritus feeder because it consumes decomposing particles of organic matter. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 23. TRUE Decomposers release inorganic substances that are taken up by plants once more and reenter the biotic elements of an ecosystem.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. carnivore D.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 12.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 23. producer B.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. Decomposers perform a valuable service because they recycle nutrients. herbivore C. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. omnivore E.01. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 23.01.11. What kind of an organism is an earthworm? A. job description C. desires A niche is the role of an organism in an ecosystem. What do autotrophs require in order to produce food for themselves and all the heterotrophs? A. an energy source. an energy source. inorganic nutrients B. Section: 23.03 Define the term niche. although not necessarily sunlight. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. heat. Section: 23. Which term is analogous to the word "niche"? A. water Autotrophs require a source of energy. sunlight. analogous to its job description. address B. water D. and inorganic nutrients. sunlight.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions .02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. properties D.13. organic nutrients C. needs E.01. inorganic nutrients E. Bloom's Level: 4.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 14. Bloom's Level: 4.01. 04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. E.01. To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. D. FALSE Chemicals cycle through an ecosystem. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. sunlight. Section: 23.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems .01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 16.03 Define the term niche.01.15. All of the energy of an ecosystem is eventually converted to heat that dissipates in the environment.01. so "producer" would be a niche description. Section: 23. TRUE Descriptions of a niche include how an organism gets its food. Section: 23. Bloom's Level: 2. C. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. detritus. but energy flows one way and is eventually lost. heat. body mass. feces. All of the energy in an ecosystem eventually becomes A. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. B. Bloom's Level: 2. Both energy and chemicals cycle through an ecosystem.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 17. 5% C.18. cellular respiration E.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. approximately 90% of the energy is lost.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions .01. Death. 50% E. Therefore. death Growth and reproduction provide food energy for the carnivores. Section: 23. and cellular respiration provides heat lost to the environment. Which is the following functions of an herbivore provides energy that becomes available to the carnivore that eats the herbivore? A. defecation C.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 19.01. excretion B. Section: 23. and defecation provide food energy for the detritus feeders. excretion. How much of the food energy taken in by an herbivore is passed on to a carnivore? A. growth and reproduction D. 90% Only approximately 10% of the energy taken in by a herbivore is passed on to the carnivore. 10% D. 1% B. beetles D. detritus B.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . Section: 23.01. Section: 23. shrews E.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. earthworms C.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 22. TRUE Because energy dissipates and is lost.01 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 21. Life on Earth is dependent on a continued input of energy from the sun.20. Section: 23. life on Earth requires a continued input of energy from the sun.01. FALSE Only approximately 55% of the original energy absorbed by plants is available to an ecosystem. Bloom's Level: 1. What is at the beginning of a grazing food chain? A. Almost 100% of the energy taken in by plants from the sun is available to an ecosystem. leaves A grazing food chain begins with producers. Bloom's Level: 4. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. Bloom's Level: 2.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem. energy B.23.). such as an earthworm. biomass The word "trophic" meeds feeding. What does the word "trophic" mean? A. shrews The second level would be an organism that feeds on detritus. Things on the same trophic level play the same role (producers.02. etc.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions . earthworms E.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web. Bloom's Level: 3.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.02. web D. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 24. niche C. Section: 23. primary consumers. leaves B. What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food chain? A. Section: 23. feeding E. detritus C. birds D. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 3. 500 kg B.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web. Section: 23. If the first-level carnivores consumes 500 kg of herbivore tissue. Section: 23. 50 kg D. 5 kg The so-called 10% rule states that only about 10% of the energy of one trophic level is available to the next trophic level. how much is available to the second-level carnivores? A.02. 100 kg C.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 26.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . 10 kg E. Apply Learning Outcome: 23. FALSE Detrital and grazing food webs are connected because members of detrital food webs may become food for aboveground carnivores.25. Bloom's Level: 2. A detrital food web and a grazing food web are separate because each starts at a different level.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. hawk E. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 28. sparrows D. hawks The sparrows are the secondary consumer. fox D. deer B. snake C. Section: 23. The caterpillars are the primary consumer. leaves B. Which of the following is on the same trophic level as a rabbit? A.02.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. beetle A deer is on the same trophic level because a deer is also a primary consumer. Apply Learning Outcome: 23.27. Bloom's Level: 3. Section: 23.02. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Which of the following organisms is a secondary consumer? A. caterpillars C.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Yes / No Questions .02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. E. B. Do all ecological pyramids actually look like a pyramid? NO No. The algae are producers and they reproduce rapidly but are also consumed at a high rate. such as aquatic ecosystems. This eliminates the need to include producers in the pyramid. D.02. What is the advantage of constructing an ecological pyramid based on biomass? A. Section: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions . This eliminates size as a factor because biomass is the number of organisms multiplied by the weight of organic matter contained in one organism.29. Size of the various organisms is eliminated as a factor. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 30. C. Section: 23. because in some instances.02. This takes into account nutrient cycling as well as energy flow. Bloom's Level: 2. the herbivores may have greater biomass than the producers.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. This includes the detrital food web as well as the grazing food web in one pyramid.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level. Bloom's Level: 4. Aquatic ecosystem pyramids actually look like pyramids. phosphorus The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle because phosphorus is absorbed from the soil by plants. Most ecosystems contain quaternary consumers. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions .02. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 1.31.02 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 32.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass at each level.03. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. FALSE Very few ecosystems contain quaternary consumers because there is just not enough energy left by the time an organism gets to that trophic level. nitrogen C.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. carbon B. Section: 23. Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is a sedimentary cycle? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE A biogeochemical cycle involves not only the abiotic. Section: 23. reservoir B. but the biotic components of an ecosystem. The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle? A. reservoir B. A biogeochemical cycle involves only the abiotic components of an ecosystem and describes how chemicals circulate through those components.33. exchange pool C.03.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. Minerals in rocks are considered what type of component of a chemical cycle? A.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. such as minerals in rocks or calcium carbonate shells on ocean bottoms. such as the atmosphere or soil. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 35. Understand . biotic community A reservoir is a source normally unavailable to producers.03. exchange pool C. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 34. biotic community An exchange pool is a source from which organisms generally take chemicals. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. In this way the biogeochemical cycles are upset.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems .03. Are humans capable of upsetting global biogeochemical cycles with their activities? YES Human activities remove chemicals from reservoirs and exchange pools and make them available to the biotic community.Learning Outcome: 23. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 23. Section: 23.03. lakes and rivers C. What is the reservoir for the water cycle? A. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 37.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Yes / No Questions 36. rainfall D. aquifers The ocean is the source of water for Earth.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. ocean B. 38. precipitation. Hail and snow are considered A. even if it is not in liquid form. runoff. B.03. E. transpiration. C. D. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. TRUE Water that evaporates from the ocean leaves the salts behind.03. it leaves the salts behind. When water evaporates from the ocean. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Section: 23. aquifers. evaporation.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 39. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. Water that falls from the clouds over Earth is known as precipitation. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 23.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. resulting in freshwater precipitation over land.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions . standing water (lakes and ponds) C. precipitation C.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle.40.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . transpiration E. runoff B. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. Section: 23. Section: 23. ocean E.03. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 41.03. Bloom's Level: 4. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. What is the loss of water from plants called? A. aquifers B. transference Transpiration is the evaporation of water from plants. groundwater table D. Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining? A. evaporation D. runoff Groundwater mining is the withdrawal of water from aquifers. parking lots. wetlands.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. soil Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is the exchange pool for the carbon cycle. algae E. E. D.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle.03. Once of the consequences of building roads. Section: 23. Bloom's Level: 1. or the ocean.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions . lakes. wetlands. and buildings is A. Clearing vegetation from land and building on it prevents percolation and increases runoff of water into nearby streams.03. a decrease in the level of the water table. Section: 23. Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 43. decreased precipitation over the oceans and the land. Bloom's Level: 2. lakes. increased runoff into nearby streams. plants D. carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C.42. or the ocean. increased evaporation from the ocean. C. increased transpiration of plants in the vicinity. What is the exchange pool for the carbon cycle? A. B. the ocean B. 03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. by breathing B. Bloom's Level: 2. by photosynthesis D.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . FALSE Both terrestrial and aquatic organisms get their carbon from carbon dioxide in the environment. Section: 23. by cellular respiration C.03. Organisms that live in an aquatic environment get their carbon from calcium carbonate shells on the bottom instead of from carbon dioxide in the environment. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. by decay Photosynthesis allows producers to incorporate carbon into nutrients used by autotrophs and heterotrophs. How is carbon dioxide made available to living organisms? A.44. Section: 23. by combustion E. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 45.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 23. calcium carbonate B. FALSE Reservoirs for carbon include living and dead organisms. such as trees and fossil fuels. calcium chloride C.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle.03. Section: 23. There is no reservoir of carbon for the carbon cycle. What is the direct source of carbon for algae? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. carbon monoxide Carbon dioxide from the air combines with water to produce bicarbonate ion that is the source of carbon for algae. Bloom's Level: 5. Bloom's Level: 1. bicarbonate D.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 47. Section: 23.46.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle.03. carbon dioxide E.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions . e. nitrous oxide E.e.e. B.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . Section: 23.03. 5 (i. twice as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Bloom's Level: 2. 0. 0.. Bloom's Level: 1.. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? A. Section: 23. oxygen B.1 (i. C. about the same). D.e.48.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 49. hydrofluorocarbons Oxygen is not a greenhouse gas.03.e. five times as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration)... carbon dioxide C. one tenth as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). methane D. 2 (i. half as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration).03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle.5 (i. one (i. The ratio between the uptake of carbon dioxide by photosynthesis and the release of carbon dioxide by respiration is approximately A.. E. The transfer rates of these two is about even. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 23.03.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . Bloom's Level: 5. Which of the following is not an effect of global warming? A.03.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. this much increase causes significant changes on Earth. expansion of forests in the temperate zones C. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 52.03. Bloom's Level: 4. TRUE Water vapor forms clouds that reradiate heat back to Earth. flooding of coastal agricultural land Dryer inland conditions will result in the loss of forests in the temperate zones. The global climate has already warmed about 0.6 degrees Celsius since the Industrial Revolution.50. rise in sea level B.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle. Section: 23. Water vapor contributes to global warming. TRUE Although this does not sound like a large increase. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. melting of glaciers D. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 51. Section: 23. wetter coastal regions E. Section: 23. 03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems .04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this cycle. beans E. Bloom's Level: 1.53. ferns B. Which of the following is a legume involved in housing nitrogen-fixing bacteria? A. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen.03. grass D. roses Beans are a type of legume that house nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules. TRUE Nitrogen gas makes up about 78% of the atmosphere. oak trees C.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions 54.03. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this cycle. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 23. Section: 23. 04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this cycle. Bloom's Level: 4. conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrate C.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . E. Both the nitrogen and the carbon cycles are gaseous cycles.55. which enters the atmosphere. B. conversion of nitrite to nitrate E. Both are lost to the atmosphere during cellular respiration. Section: 23.04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this cycle. Both are stored in fossil fuels. Section: 23. D. Analyze Learning Outcome: 23. Remember Learning Outcome: 23. C.03. conversion of ammonium to nitrate D. What is involved in the process of denitrification? A. How is the nitrogen cycle like the carbon cycle? A. Both are gaseous cycles. Both require photosynthesis to utilize the chemical. conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas Denitrification is the conversion of nitrate back to nitrogen gas.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 56. Bloom's Level: 1. Neither has a reservoir in nature. conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonium B.03. 05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication. How does phosphate enter the soil? A. weathering of rocks D. ATP. cellular respiration The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle in which the slow weathering of rocks places phosphate ions in the soil. Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is a part of proteins. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Section: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 58. Bloom's Level: 2.05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 23. precipitation from clouds C. conversion in the atmosphere due to lightning B. photosynthesis E. DNA.57. and RNA. FALSE Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is part of phospholipids.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems Multiple Choice Questions . Understand Learning Outcome: 23.03.03. and sewage treatment plants. Biological magnification occurs as organisms get larger due to increased water. and soil pollution. mercury from industrial sources. Section: 23.05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication. detergents. C.03. B.59. air.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems . biological magnification. D. Cultural eutrophication is due to an increase in the supply of phosphate and nitrogen in water. respiration and transpiration. bacteria and viruses from sewage and barnyard waste. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 23. Cultural eutrophication can be caused by A.05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 23.03 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems True / False Questions 60. Section: 23. E. FALSE Biological magnification occurs as toxic chemicals pass along a food chain and become increasingly concentrated with each higher consumer level. fertilizers.03. 05 Summarize the phosphorus cycle and its relationship to eutrophication.02. Learning Outcome: 23.02 10 Section: 23.01. 6 Learning Outcome: 23.01. 10 Learning Outcome: 23.02 Describe the water cycle and discuss how human activity interferes with this cycle. Analyze 11 Bloom's Level: 5.02 Explain the relationship between the trophic level of an ecological pyramid and the biomass 6 at each level.03. 6 Learning Outcome: 23.01 Identify whether a given biogeochemical cycle is gaseous or sedimentary. Apply 4 Bloom's Level: 4. 2 Learning Outcome: 23.01 Summarize the differences between a grazing and a detrital food web.02 Explain the differences between the roles of autotrophs and heterotrophs in an ecosystem. 4 Learning Outcome: 23.03. Evaluate 2 Learning Outcome: 23.03. 4 Section: 23. 7 Learning Outcome: 23.04 Distinguish between the paths of energy and chemicals in an ecosystem.01.03.Chapter 23 Global Ecology and Human Interferences Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1. Learning Outcome: 23. 5 Learning Outcome: 23. Understand 26 Bloom's Level: 3. Remember 17 Bloom's Level: 2.04 Summarize the nitrogen cycle and discuss how human activity is creating problems with this 4 cycle.01 State the relationship between ecosystems and the biosphere.02.03 29 Topic: Biomes and Ecosystems 60 . 6 Learning Outcome: 23.01.01 21 Section: 23.03 Describe the carbon cycle and discuss how human activity is altering the carbon cycle.03.03 Define the term niche. maximum population the environment can sustain D. almost 1 billion people B. Planetary Resources. a relatively slow (lag) population growth B. the birthrate or natality E. What is the definition of biotic potential? A. almost 5 billion people D.Chapter 24 Human Population. The carrying capacity of Earth for humans is approximately 8 billion people. True False Multiple Choice Questions . What is the current world's population? A. and Conservation Multiple Choice Questions 1. almost 7 billion people E. maximum growth rate under ideal conditions C. almost 10 billion people 2. almost 3 billion people C. the deathrate or mortality True / False Questions 3. . 1. what is the population growth rate? A. 2. C. E. birth rate B. In order to have a negative population growth rate. birth rate times death rate E. death rate C. 22% True / False Questions 6.8% C. the biotic potential of the population must increase. the carrying capacity for the population must increase. 14% E.2% B. birth rate minus death rate D. 0. the birthrate must exceed the death rate. D. birth rate divided by death rate 5. True False Multiple Choice Questions 7. If the birthrate is 22 per 1000 per year and the death rate is 8 per 1000 per year. B.4% D. only replacement reproduction can occur. the death rate must exceed the birth rate. Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people).4. A. How is the growth rate of a population determined? A. 2 E. decreasing C. 12 D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 10. If the birthrate is 19.8. What does the population growth for the United States look like? A. Currently the world population growth is at 1.6 True / False Questions 9. leveling off 11. dramatically increasing. 78. 19.86 per 1000 (2009 estimate).86 B. .2%.86 C. The population growth in less-developed countries is A. The more-developed countries have typically always had low population increases. 1. leveling off. C. negative. 7. what is the death rate? A. increasing B. modestly increasing. D. B. What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why? A. If there are more women in the postreproductive years than in the reproductive years. a pyramid. More women in the LDCs are entering the reproductive years than older women are leaving them. True / False Questions 13. an inverted pyramid C. a rectangle. 15. and more women in the reproductive years than in the prereproductive years. C. It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II. B. C. what does the age structure diagram look like? A. It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war. D. It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war. B. The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 14. a pyramid B. an inverted pyramid. It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine. a rectangle True / False Questions .12. land B. Define an ecological footprint. the total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs B. minerals 18. eat more beef C.16. do not water the lawn True / False Questions . the amount of food a person needs to eat C. Which of the following is a renewable resource? A. drive an energy-efficient car B. zero population growth will take place immediately. True False Multiple Choice Questions 17. turn down the thermostat in the winter E. the amount of energy a person needs to meet their needs 19. live in a smaller home D. If each couple only has two children. Which of the following is not a way to reduce your ecological footprint? A. solar energy C. A. the amount of water a person needs to meet their needs D. the amount of land a person needs to provide a place to live E. fossil fuels D. 10% C.20. loss of buffer zone for storms C. erosion 22. 40% D. How much of Earth's land mass is already desert? A. It is considered a human right for people to have clean drinking water. Which of the following is not an issue for coastal areas? A. The soil in the tropics is very rich and fertile and makes excellent land for agriculture. True False 24. pollution E. At least 40% of the world population lives within 100 km (60 miles) of a coastline. True False . 50% E. 1% B. loss of habitat for organisms B. 65% True / False Questions 23. True False Multiple Choice Questions 21. desertification D. electricity use B. seepage into underlying rock beds E. Overall. C. True / False Questions 26. drinking. watering lawns. loss of water by evaporation D. industrial needs. bathing. D. sediment buildup .Multiple Choice Questions 25. irrigation. there is not enough water on the face of the Earth to meet the human population needs for water. alter river flow C. E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 27. B. Which of the following is considered a benefit of a dam? A. Most of the freshwater in the world is used for A. 20 times B. polyculture planting C. heavy use of fertilizers D. 10 times C. 2 times . saltwater intrusion D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 31. sinkholes C. Planting the same crop in straight rows prevents soil erosion. heavy use of pesticides and herbicides B. 5 times D. Which of the following is not associated with groundwater depletion? A.28. subsidence B. increased fuel consumption True / False Questions 30. 3 times E. How many more people could be fed on grain than on meat? A. lowering of the water table E. sediment buildup 29. Which of the following is not a harmful practice of modern farming? A. generous irrigation E. "Green revolution" plants caused many ecological problems. True False Multiple Choice Questions 35. Both result in the depletion of fossil fuels. solar energy C. True False 33. Both require the use of photovoltaic cells. True False 34. hydrogen gas D. Wind is to a wind farm as what is to hydropower? A. Both require the building of dams. C. many people do not eat enough protein. E. One of the best things you can do personally to help the environment is to cut down on your consumption of meat. steam E. 36. hot salt . D. B. Both lead to an increase in greenhouse gas emissions.True / False Questions 32. What do hydropower and wind power have in common? A. falling water B. Both are renewable energy sources. In MDCs. What organization oversees the cleanup of hazardous waste sites in the United States? A. Minerals are what type of resource? A. NSF C. minnow D. earthworm B.37. USGS 39. USDA D. PCB contamination 40. Which organism is more likely to suffer due to biological magnification? A. lead contamination E. mercury contamination C. NIH B. pesticide contamination D. renewable B. herbicide contamination B. Why should pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish? A. pelican E. nonrenewable 38. EPA E. algae True / False Questions . caterpillar C. Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource. increased carrying capacity C. kudzu E. Decorative plants and exotic pets often suffer from overexploitation. bass B. True False Multiple Choice Questions 42.41. buffalo True / False Questions 44. disease 43. Which of the following is an alien species that has invaded the United States? A. alien species B. Which of the following is not a factor contributing to the loss of biodiversity? A. overexploitation E. pollution D. wolves D. oak trees C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . They are all pervasive benefits provided by ecosystems. horseshoe crabs--limulus amoebocyte lysate Yes / No Questions . consumptive use D. B. Which of the following would be an example of an organism that provides direct benefit by consumptive use value? A. E. rosy periwinkle--leukemia B. Which of the following medicinal value pairings is mismatched? A. D. They all depend on an individual species. Which of the following is an indirect. C. ecotourism 46. 47. trees 48. viruses--antibiotics D. armadillos B. wheat D. medical use B. They are all involved with the biogeochemical cycles. armadillo--leprosy C. value of biodiversity? A. rice E. fungus--penicillin E. food C. as opposed to a direct. What do indirect values of biodiversity all have in common? A.45. rosy periwinkle C. They provide pleasure and relaxation for humans. They all undo some harm that humans have done. using more freshwater for agriculture than in homes D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 52. E. Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees is not true? A. In forests. Which of the following would not be considered an unsustainable practice of society? A. Globally. D. they stabilize the climate because they take up carbon dioxide. they exert a natural "sponge effect" for provision of freshwater. They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes. and pesticides E. using large amounts of fossil fuels. They retain soil and prevent soil erosion. fertilizers. A sustainable society is one that provides all of the goods and services desired by humans. reduction in population growth rate B. They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and airconditioning. C. Is it important to save the wild relatives of our current crop plants.49. True / False Questions 51. eating more meat than vegetables C. B. deforestation and desertification . even at great cost? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 50. Which of the following is an urban. use green roofs D. draining of wetlands for housing E. sustainability plan? A. integrated pest management C. plant multipurpose trees . recycling and composting 55. The biggest problem in moving toward a sustainable society with the LDCs is overconsumption. more than 50 years 56. use low-flow or trickle irrigation B. multi-use farming B.True / False Questions 53. use integrated pest management E. 1-2 months C. not a rural. mass transit D. How long does it take for a plastic grocery bag to degrade? A. True False Multiple Choice Questions 54. a year D. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sustainable society? A. 1-2 weeks B. 10-20 years E. plant cover crops C. cultural value--language and history B. educational value--experience of nature D. option value--preserving for the future C. use value--entrance fees True / False Questions . When calculating the gross national product. use green roofs True / False Questions 58.57. True False Multiple Choice Questions 59. Which of the following criteria of value are mismatched? A. use nonporous surfaces for parking lots E. aesthetic value--agricultural use E. build retention ponds D. Which of the following is not a sustainability practice designed to conserve water? A. use sediment traps for storm drains B. economists consider whether an activity is environmentally harmful. use low-flow or trickle irrigation C. True False .60. Measures that include noneconomic indicators are most likely better at revealing our quality of life than is the gross national product. 01 Topic: Population Ecology . Bloom's Level: 1.01 Define the terms exponential growth and carrying capacity and explain how each relates to human population growth. almost 1 billion people B. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01. What is the current world's population? A. almost 5 billion people D.01 Define the terms exponential growth and carrying capacity and explain how each relates to human population growth. a relatively slow (lag) population growth B.Chapter 24 Human Population. Planetary Resources. the birthrate or natality E. What is the definition of biotic potential? A. almost 10 billion people The current world's population is almost 7 billion people. almost 7 billion people E. Section: 24. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. maximum population the environment can sustain D. Section: 24. maximum growth rate under ideal conditions C. and Conservation Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. almost 3 billion people C.01 Topic: Population Ecology 2. the deathrate or mortality Biotic potential is the maximum growth rate under ideal conditions.01. and the annual growth rate of a population. Others believe we have already exceeded it. death rate. birth rate B.01. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE The carrying capacity of Earth for humans has not been determined.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate.01 Topic: Population Ecology . birth rate divided by death rate The growth rate of a population is determined by considering the difference between the number of persons born per year and the number who die per year.01 Define the terms exponential growth and carrying capacity and explain how each relates to human population growth. Bloom's Level: 2. The carrying capacity of Earth for humans is approximately 8 billion people. Section: 24. birth rate times death rate E.01. death rate C. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.01 Topic: Population Ecology Multiple Choice Questions 4. birth rate minus death rate D. How is the growth rate of a population determined? A.True / False Questions 3. Some estimate it may be 50-100 billion people. Section: 24. 02 Explain the relationship between birthrate.5.01 Topic: Population Ecology True / False Questions 6.01.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate. 0. Bloom's Level: 1. and the annual growth rate of a population. 22% The growth rate is 22-8 divided by 1000 times 100 or 1. 1.01 Topic: Population Ecology Multiple Choice Questions . death rate. 2. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.4% D. 14% E. Apply Learning Outcome: 24. FALSE Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as per 1000 people.2% B. Section: 24. Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people). what is the population growth rate? A. Section: 24. If the birthrate is 22 per 1000 per year and the death rate is 8 per 1000 per year. death rate. Bloom's Level: 3.4%.8% C. and the annual growth rate of a population.01. 01 Topic: Population Ecology 8.86 B. 19. Section: 24. Bloom's Level: 5. 12 D. the carrying capacity for the population must increase. In order to have a negative population growth rate. the death rate must exceed the birth rate. and the annual growth rate of a population. and the annual growth rate of a population.7.86=12. Bloom's Level: 3. the birthrate must exceed the death rate. D. 78. A.01.01 Topic: Population Ecology True / False Questions .6 The death rate must be 7. 1.86 per 1000 (2009 estimate).01. 7. In order for the growth rate to be negative. Apply Learning Outcome: 24. 19. C. Currently the world population growth is at 1. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24. B. divided by 1000.86.86 C. death rate.86-17. Section: 24. death rate. times 100 = 1. what is the death rate? A.2 E. the death rate must be larger than the birthrate.2%. the biotic potential of the population must increase.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate. If the birthrate is 19. only replacement reproduction can occur. E.2%. Section: 24.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Between 1850 and 1950. Much of the continued population growth is due to immigration.01 Topic: Population Ecology .03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24.9. they doubled their populations. The more-developed countries have typically always had low population increases. increasing B. decreasing C. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. leveling off The population of the United States continues to increase. Bloom's Level: 1.01. What does the population growth for the United States look like? A.01.01 Topic: Population Ecology Multiple Choice Questions 10. Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. FALSE The more-developed countries did not always have low population increases. The death rate in LDCs decreased following WWII because of the introduction of modern medicine. Section: 24. dramatically increasing.01. C. modestly increasing. It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war. B. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. Bloom's Level: 2. D. C. It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war. leveling off. What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why? A.01 Topic: Population Ecology 12. Bloom's Level: 1.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. The population growth in less-developed countries is A. It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine. B. It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II. negative. Section: 24.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.11. The population growth in less-developed countries is dramatically increasing. D.01.01 Topic: Population Ecology True / False Questions . 13. an inverted pyramid. Bloom's Level: 2. B. Section: 24. a rectangle.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth.01. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. C. a pyramid. Bloom's Level: 1.01 Topic: Population Ecology Multiple Choice Questions 14. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like A.01 Topic: Population Ecology . Section: 24. reproductive. and postreproductive years.01. More women in the LDCs are entering the reproductive years than older women are leaving them. The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like a rectangle because there are approximately the same number of women in the prereproductive. TRUE This is why LDCs are experiencing a population momentum. a pyramid B. Apply Learning Outcome: 24. and more women in the reproductive years than in the prereproductive years. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24. zero population growth will take place immediately.01. the reproductive years are in the middle. Bloom's Level: 3.01 Topic: Population Ecology Multiple Choice Questions . what does the age structure diagram look like? A.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less-developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. Section: 24. FALSE This is called replacement reproduction and will not have the desired effect because in the LDCs more young women are entering the reproductive years than older women leaving them. Bloom's Level: 5. a rectangle The age structure diagram would look like an inverted pyramid because the postreproductive years are on top.15. If there are more women in the postreproductive years than in the reproductive years.01. and the prereproductive years are at the bottom. an inverted pyramid C. Section: 24. If each couple only has two children.01 Topic: Population Ecology True / False Questions 16. energy. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.02. the total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs B. Which of the following is a renewable resource? A. the amount of land a person needs to provide a place to live E.01 Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resouces and give an example of each. land.01 Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resouces and give an example of each. water.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 18. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. the amount of energy a person needs to meet their needs An ecological footprint involves all of the resources. and minerals. solar energy C. Define an ecological footprint. Section: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology . fossil fuels D. A. the amount of food a person needs to eat C. minerals Renewable resources are capable of being naturally replenished. Solar energy is an example. food. Bloom's Level: 2. the amount of water a person needs to meet their needs D.17. land B. Section: 24. a person uses to meet their needs. Bloom's Level: 2. 02. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. Section: 24. turn down the thermostat in the winter E. water. drive an energy-efficient car B. At least 40% of the world population lives within 100 km (60 miles) of a coastline. eat more beef C.02.01 Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resouces and give an example of each.02 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions 20.19. TRUE This leads to significant environmental issues and the numbers are expected to increase. Bloom's Level: 1. food. Section: 24. Apply Learning Outcome: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions . Bloom's Level: 3. and energy. live in a smaller home D. do not water the lawn Eating vegetables as opposed to beef utilizes fewer resources and reduces your ecological footprint. Which of the following is not a way to reduce your ecological footprint? A.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. 65% 40% of Earth's lands are already deserts.02.02. loss of habitat for organisms B. erosion Desertification is the conversion of semiarid land to desertlike conditions. water. and energy. 1% B.21. Bloom's Level: 4. food. This is not a problem in coastal regions although all of the others are. Which of the following is not an issue for coastal areas? A. desertification D. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. food.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. Section: 24. pollution E.02 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions . How much of Earth's land mass is already desert? A. 40% D. Section: 24. and energy. 50% E. 10% C.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24. loss of buffer zone for storms C.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 22. Bloom's Level: 1. water. 02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: 24.02. It is considered a human right for people to have clean drinking water. food.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. food. E. D. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. Section: 24. water. water. Worldwide.23. bathing. 70% of freshwater is used to irrigate crops. C.02. TRUE This is considered one of the basic human rights. and energy.02 . Remember Learning Outcome: 24. water. irrigation. Bloom's Level: 1. FALSE The soil in the tropics is often thin and nutrient-poor because all the nutrients are tied up in the trees and other vegetation. B.02. Most of the freshwater in the world is used for A.02 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions 25. The soil in the tropics is very rich and fertile and makes excellent land for agriculture. food. industrial needs. drinking. watering lawns.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 24.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. Section: 24. Bloom's Level: 2. and energy. and energy. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. water.02 Topic: Conservation Biology . food. Bloom's Level: 2. However.02 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions 27. sediment buildup Some 65 countries obtain over half of their electricity from dams. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02.Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions 26.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. food. there is not enough water on the face of the Earth to meet the human population needs for water. Bloom's Level: 2. electricity use B. water. Section: 24. loss of water by evaporation D. Section: 24. alter river flow C.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. and energy. and energy. Overall. FALSE The needs of the human population overall do not exceed the renewable supply.02. this is not the case in certain regions. Which of the following is considered a benefit of a dam? A. seepage into underlying rock beds E. saltwater intrusion D. water. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. food. generous irrigation E.02. polyculture planting C.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. food. increased fuel consumption Polyculture.28. water. is a helpful farming practice. Which of the following is not a harmful practice of modern farming? A. and energy. heavy use of pesticides and herbicides B. sediment buildup Sediment buildup is a problem associated with dams. Bloom's Level: 2. the planting of two or more different crops in the same area. not with groundwater depletion. Bloom's Level: 2. Section: 24. sinkholes C.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 29. Section: 24.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. lowering of the water table E. and energy. Which of the following is not associated with groundwater depletion? A. heavy use of fertilizers D.02. subsidence B. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions . 02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. Bloom's Level: 2. leads to one of the highest rates of soil erosion. Section: 24. How many more people could be fed on grain than on meat? A. Bloom's Level: 1. 10 times C. Section: 24. water. FALSE This type of farming. which allows the use of large farming machines.02 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions . Planting the same crop in straight rows prevents soil erosion.30. 5 times D. food. water. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. food.02. and energy.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. and energy.02. 3 times E.02 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions 31. 2 times Ten times as many people could be fed on grain as on meat. 20 times B. In MDCs. "Green revolution" plants caused many ecological problems. Section: 24. many people do not eat enough protein.02 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions . food. and energy.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 33. TRUE Raising livestock accounts for many of the environmental problems associated with farming. and pesticides to produce a high yield. water. Section: 24. food.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. TRUE Green revolution plants are called high responders because they need high levels of fertilizer. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: 24. water. Bloom's Level: 2.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 34. many people have more than enough protein in their diets. and energy.02. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. water. water. One of the best things you can do personally to help the environment is to cut down on your consumption of meat.32. FALSE In MDCs. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. Consuming less meat reduces those concerns. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02. and energy. Section: 24. food.02. and energy.02.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land. food. B. food.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 36.35. and energy. C. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. Both require the use of photovoltaic cells. water. Bloom's Level: 4. solar energy C.02. Bloom's Level: 2. nonrenewable Minerals are nonrenewable raw materials in the Earth's crust. hot salt Wind is what generates the energy in a wind farm and falling water is what generates energy in hydropower. Minerals are what type of resource? A. . falling water B. Section: 24. Both require the building of dams. Both hydropower and wind power are types of renewable energy. renewable B. What do hydropower and wind power have in common? A. food. Section: 24. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24. D.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 37. Both are renewable energy sources.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land.02. Bloom's Level: 4. Wind is to a wind farm as what is to hydropower? A. water. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24. Both lead to an increase in greenhouse gas emissions. E. and energy. hydrogen gas D. steam E. water. Both result in the depletion of fossil fuels. 02 Topic: Conservation Biology 39.02. Section: 24. oversees the cleanup of hazardous waste disposal sites in the US.02 Topic: Conservation Biology . mining. and incineration of medical waste.03 Provide an example of biological magnification. herbicide contamination B.03 Provide an example of biological magnification.Section: 24. Why should pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish? A. pesticide contamination D. USDA D. NIH B. USGS The Environmental Protection Agency.02 Topic: Conservation Biology 38.02. Apply Learning Outcome: 24. Bloom's Level: 2. What organization oversees the cleanup of hazardous waste sites in the United States? A. PCB contamination The EPA recommends that pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish due to the presence of mercury contamination from coal burning. Bloom's Level: 3. NSF C. EPA E. lead contamination E. Section: 24. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. mercury contamination C. EPA. earthworm B. TRUE Many of these are taken illegally and populations of these are declining. algae Top predators. Which organism is more likely to suffer due to biological magnification? A. are more likely to suffer from biological magnification.03. Section: 24.40.03 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions . such as predatory birds like pelicans.02 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions 41.03 Provide an example of biological magnification. caterpillar C. Decorative plants and exotic pets often suffer from overexploitation. Bloom's Level: 3. Bloom's Level: 1.02. minnow D.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis. Section: 24. Apply Learning Outcome: 24. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. pelican E. Bloom's Level: 2. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.42.03. kudzu E. Section: 24. Loss of habitat results in decreased carrying capacity. Bloom's Level: 1. disease All of these contribute to loss of biodiversity except for increased carrying capacity. bass B. Section: 24. buffalo Kudzu is a vine from Japan imported to help prevent soil erosion. alien species B. wolves D. pollution D.03. Which of the following is not a factor contributing to the loss of biodiversity? A.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis. overexploitation E. It now covers much of the South.03 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions . Which of the following is an alien species that has invaded the United States? A.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.03 Topic: Conservation Biology 43. oak trees C. increased carrying capacity C. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. Which of the following is an indirect. as opposed to a direct. medical use B. Section: 24. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.03 Discuss the indirect values to society for conserving biodiversity.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis. ecotourism Ecotourism is a type of indirect value of biodiversity. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Topic: Conservation Biology . Bloom's Level: 2. Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource. FALSE Fish are a renewable resource if harvesting does not exceed the ability of the fish to reproduce. value of biodiversity? A.03.03. consumptive use D.03 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions 45. food C. Section: 24.44. They provide pleasure and relaxation for humans. They all depend on an individual species. D.02 Summarize the direct values to society for conserving biodiversity. armadillos B. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. They are all pervasive benefits provided by ecosystems.03.03 Topic: Conservation Biology . wheat D. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24.46. rosy periwinkle C. Bloom's Level: 2.03 Discuss the indirect values to society for conserving biodiversity. Section: 24. Ecosystems provide many useful services for modern humans. E. trees Many trees are still felled in the natural environment for their wood. Which of the following would be an example of an organism that provides direct benefit by consumptive use value? A. rice E. Bloom's Level: 5.03 Topic: Conservation Biology 47. They all undo some harm that humans have done. They are all involved with the biogeochemical cycles. What do indirect values of biodiversity all have in common? A. Section: 24. B.03. Our very survival depends on the functions that ecosystems perform for us. C. 03 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions . Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24. even at great cost? YES If our genetically similar (monoculture) crops were infected with a new disease. horseshoe crabs--limulus amoebocyte lysate Various bacteria. Is it important to save the wild relatives of our current crop plants. Which of the following medicinal value pairings is mismatched? A. are the source of certain antibiotics such as tetracycline and streptomycin.02 Summarize the direct values to society for conserving biodiversity.03 Topic: Conservation Biology Yes / No Questions 49. Bloom's Level: 5. fungus--penicillin E. Wild relatives of these current crop plants could provide genes that conveyed resistance to the new disease. rosy periwinkle--leukemia B. they may be decimated. Bloom's Level: 2. not viruses.03.02 Summarize the direct values to society for conserving biodiversity. Section: 24. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.48. viruses--antibiotics D. Section: 24. armadillo--leprosy C.03. Bloom's Level: 5. break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes. A sustainable society is one that provides all of the goods and services desired by humans.50. They retain soil and prevent soil erosion. They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society. Section: 24. Bloom's Level: 2.04 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions . B. C. Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees is not true? A. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24. E. In forests. they exert a natural "sponge effect" for provision of freshwater. FALSE A sustainable society is able to provide the same amount of goods and services for future generations as it does at present. Decomposers. Globally. not trees.03 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions 51.04. they stabilize the climate because they take up carbon dioxide. Understand Learning Outcome: 24. They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and airconditioning.03 Discuss the indirect values to society for conserving biodiversity. D.03. Section: 24. Which of the following would not be considered an unsustainable practice of society? A.04. Bloom's Level: 4.04.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society.04 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions . FALSE The biggest problem in moving toward a sustainable society with the LDCs is overpopulation. and pesticides E.52. reduction in population growth rate B. using more freshwater for agriculture than in homes D. Section: 24. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24. Bloom's Level: 1. using large amounts of fossil fuels. eating more meat than vegetables C. fertilizers. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions 53. deforestation and desertification A reduction in population growth rate would lead to a sustainable society. The biggest problem in moving toward a sustainable society with the LDCs is overconsumption. Remember Learning Outcome: 24.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society. Section: 24. integrated pest management C. not drained. Bloom's Level: 2. multi-use farming B.04. a year D.54. draining of wetlands for housing E.04 Topic: Conservation Biology 55.04. 1-2 months C. Bloom's Level: 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sustainable society? A. How long does it take for a plastic grocery bag to degrade? A. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology .01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society. recycling and composting Wetlands need to be restored and preserved.02 Distinguish methods of developing sustainability between rural and urban environments. 1-2 weeks B. more than 50 years Plastic grocery bags may take 10-20 years to degrade so one of the things you can do to help is to use cloth or mesh bags for groceries. 10-20 years E. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. Section: 24. mass transit D. use green roofs D. Bloom's Level: 2. plant cover crops C. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.02 Distinguish methods of developing sustainability between rural and urban environments. Bloom's Level: 2. build retention ponds D. use low-flow or trickle irrigation C. use green roofs Porous surfaces for parking lots will allow these surfaces to reflect less heat and soak up rainwater runoff. Section: 24.02 Distinguish methods of developing sustainability between rural and urban environments.04. sustainability plan? A. plant multipurpose trees Green roofs are a suggestion for urban settings. use nonporous surfaces for parking lots E. Understand Learning Outcome: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions . use low-flow or trickle irrigation B. Green roofs involve planting a wild garden on tops of buildings.04 Topic: Conservation Biology 57.56.04. not a rural. Which of the following is not a sustainability practice designed to conserve water? A. Which of the following is an urban. use sediment traps for storm drains B. use integrated pest management E. Section: 24. 04 Topic: Conservation Biology True / False Questions . FALSE The gross national product considers the total costs of all manufacturing. Section: 24.04 Topic: Conservation Biology Multiple Choice Questions 59. economists consider whether an activity is environmentally harmful.03 List the methods of determining economic well-being and quality of life. use value--entrance fees Aesthetic value is appreciating an area or creature for its beauty and/or contribution to biodiversity. aesthetic value--agricultural use E. Which of the following criteria of value are mismatched? A.04. Bloom's Level: 4. not for its use as food.58.04. educational value--experience of nature D.03 List the methods of determining economic well-being and quality of life. option value--preserving for the future C. Remember Learning Outcome: 24. Analyze Learning Outcome: 24. Section: 24. but it does not necessarily consider whether an activity is environmentally harmful. Bloom's Level: 1. and services. production. cultural value--language and history B. When calculating the gross national product. 03 List the methods of determining economic well-being and quality of life. Evaluate Learning Outcome: 24.60.04. TRUE The index of sustainable economic welfare does take into account other forms of value and attempts to consider the quality of life. Section: 24. Measures that include noneconomic indicators are most likely better at revealing our quality of life than is the gross national product. Bloom's Level: 5.04 Topic: Conservation Biology . 3 Learning Outcome: 24.03 List the methods of determining economic well-being and quality of life.03 Distinguish between more-developed countries (MDCs) and less- 8 developed countries (LDCs) with regard to population growth. 3 Section: 24.02.04.02 Explain how human activity is influencing the natural resources of land.01.02 Explain the relationship between birthrate. and Conservation Summary Category # of Questio ns Bloom's Level: 1.03.03.01 Describe the factors that are contributing to the current biodiversity crisis.01 Define the terms exponential growth and carrying capacity and explain how each relates to h 3 uman population growth.02. Analyze 5 Bloom's Level: 5.04 10 Topic: Conservation Biology 44 Topic: Population Ecology 16 . food.03 Provide an example of biological magnification. 3 Learning Outcome: 24. Learning Outcome: 24. water. Evaluate 6 Learning Outcome: 24. 3 Learning Outcome: 24.02 24 Section: 24. Remember 18 Bloom's Level: 2. Understand 24 Bloom's Level: 3. 3 Learning Outcome: 24. Apply 7 Bloom's Level: 4.03. Learning Outcome: 24.01 16 Section: 24. 3 Learning Outcome: 24.Chapter 24 Human Population.01. and ener 18 gy.01 Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resouces and give an example of each. and the annual growth rate of a popula 5 tion. Learning Outcome: 24.01. Learning Outcome: 24. death rate.01 Describe the characteristics of a sustainable society.04.03 Discuss the indirect values to society for conserving biodiversity. 4 Learning Outcome: 24.02 Distinguish methods of developing sustainability between rural and urban environments. Planetary Resources.02.02 Summarize the direct values to society for conserving biodiversity.04. 4 Learning Outcome: 24.03 10 Section: 24. B. E.Infectious Diseases Supplement Multiple Choice Questions 1. a chronic infection. opportunistic infections. HIV/AIDS and tuberculosis are both examples of current A. A disease is called an epidemic if people all over the world have the same disease. C. an outbreak. an opportunistic infection. True / False Questions 3. D. True False Yes / No Questions . If an epidemic is confined to a local area. D. a slow infection. acute infections. E. C. epidemics. a pandemic. pandemics. it is usually called A. B. outbreaks. 2. It only infects cells with that line the reproductive tract. E. However. When was the first documented case of AIDS in the United States? A. B. 7. B cells C. Is this an epidemic? Yes No Multiple Choice Questions 5. How does HIV know what cells to infect? A. 1924 C. D. It can infect any cell it comes in contact with. It can only infect cells on the surface of the body where the temperature is lower. It infects cells with a particular surface receptor. basophils 6. helper T cells B. liver cells D. It can only infect cells that are actively growing and dividing. 1969 E.4. epithelial cells E. there were 15 cases. in the month of September. 1982 . What type of cells does HIV infect? A. 1959 D. 1884 B. C. There are normally 1-2 cases of measles per month in a particular city. because there are no opportunistic infections yet 10. because there is no HIV virus in the blood B. because there are no symptoms D. In which phase of an HIV infection is the person typically asymptomatic? A. chronic phase (B) C. chronic phase (B) C. AIDS (C) True / False Questions 11. AIDS (C) 9. Patient X has 150 CD4 T-cells per mm3. because the CD4 T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm3 E.8. Why would an HIV test be negative within the first 2-3 weeks of an HIV infection? A. The vast majority of new HIV infections are in people under the age of 15. What phase of an HIV infection is this patient in? A. because there are no detectable levels of HIV antibodies in the blood C. True False Multiple Choice Questions . acute phase (A) B. acute phase (A) B. prolonged diarrhea B. the destruction of CD4 T-cells by the virus B. the amplification of virus in the blood D. shingles E. True False Multiple Choice Questions 14. In the "kitchen-sink model" for AIDS. There is no cure for AIDS. cervical dysplasia D. the wide variety of possible opportunistic infections True / False Questions 15. the destruction of virus by the immune system E. the production of new CD4 T-cells C. yeast infections of the mouth or vagina C.12. Kaposi's sarcoma True / False Questions 13. Which of the following diseases is categorized as an opportunistic infection found in AIDS patients? A. True False . what does the sink's drain represent? A. Infection with HIV is listed as the cause of death for an AIDS patient. 7.8 B.2.4.3.5 E.8. single stranded RNA. 1.3. double stranded RNA.7.5.8.2.2.7.Multiple Choice Questions 16.6.4. 5. 3.4. an envelope obtained from the host D. Which of the following is not important for making HIV a retrovirus? A.1. Assembly. single stranded RNA.2. 6. capsid C.6. 4.8 C.3. B. 1. Place the steps in the HIV life cycle in the correct order.6 19.6. 17.5. 1.5. protease 18.3. 2. 4. 5. 8. reverse transcriptase B. Attachment.4 D.6. double stranded DNA. 7. the production of viral DNA .7. 8. Biosynthesis and cleavage. Entry. Reverse transcription A. C. matrix B. RNA genome C. Fusion.7.3.1. D. nucleocapsid D. Budding.1. Integration. Which of the following is not a layer of the protein coat that surrounds the HIV genetic material? A. The HIV virus contains a genome composed of A.2. D. acquisition of an envelope from the host B. Of the following modes of HIV transmission. HIV strains may differ by 10% within one person and by 35% in people across the globe. the fact that HIV targets T-cells. oral-genital contact with an infected person True / False Questions 22. C. the fact that most people do not die from HIV infection.20. uncoating 21. vaginal/rectal intercourse with an infected person C. integration of the viral DNA into the host genome E. which is the least common mode and rare in many countries? A. This is due to A. transfusions of infected blood B. E. needle sharing among IV drug users D. B. babies born to HIV infected women E. HIV's high rate of mutation. cleavage of the proteins by protease D. The envelope of the HIV virus is actually part of the host cell plasma membrane. Which of the following is important for the attachment stage of the HIV life cycle? A. the fact that HIV inserts its genome into the host genome. gp120 spike proteins C. True False Multiple Choice Questions 23. both cellular and antibody-mediated responses. . AIDS is the new name for what used to be called consumption. there have been no Phase III vaccine trials for an HIV vaccine. 2 years C.True / False Questions 24. how long has the immune system been able to successfully and effectively delay the onset of AIDS in 60% of people who are HIV infected? A. A vaccine for HIV would be the cure for AIDS science has been looking for. True False Multiple Choice Questions 27. 5 years D. As of yet. On average. True False 25. 1 year B. True False . 20 or more years True / False Questions 28. True False 26. 10 years E. The rhesus monkey is the ideal animal model for AIDS vaccine testing. How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread? A.Multiple Choice Questions 29. Tuberculosis is caused by a A. 6+ months 32. bacterium. rash over the trunk. lethargy. B. coughing up blood or sputum D. fungi. D. via airborne droplets B. opportunistic infections. sexual intercourse D. C. runny nose. 30. E. How long does the treatment for TB take? A. protist. blood transfusions . IV drug abuse E. What are the symptoms of a TB infection? A. bad cough. worm. fever B. post-nasal drip E. 1-2 weeks C. chronic diarrhea C. 1-2 days B. contaminated food or water C. 2 months E. 1 month D. virus. general malaise 31. sore throat. chest pain. 33. mosquitoes True / False Questions 35. The organism that causes malaria is a A. True False Multiple Choice Questions . bacterium. B. True False 36. 34. by blood transfusions C. protist. both tuberculosis and malaria can be cured. fungi. C. The drugs that treat malaria can be used prophylactically. via airborne droplets B. E. D. virus. or before infection. breast feeding E. sexual intercourse D. worm. How is malaria spread? A. Unlike AIDS. waves of activity by the body's B. E. Most people with malaria exhibit chills and fevers every 48-72 hours. C. both mosquito and human 38. D. An emerging disease is one that A. the fusion of the male and female Plasmodium gametes to form new organisms. human C.37. is now present on multiple continents. Where does the life cycle of the Plasmodium protist take place? A. can be transmitted in multiple ways. can infect both humans and animals. the bursting of the red blood cells in the body. mosquito B. True False Multiple Choice Questions . Streptococcus is now considered to be a reemerging pathogen. B. D. This is due to A. E. has suddenly caused an epidemic. B. the formation of Plasmodium gametes within the body. C. reinfection with new Plasmodium. True / False Questions 40.and T-cells. is newly recognized in the last two decades. 39. Once SARS appeared in China. contamination of an air-conditioning system. 6 months C. It had declined in the 1960s but appears to be back again. Ulcers were not known to have an infectious cause until recently. It is now present on all of the continents. how long did it take for it to reach nine other countries/provinces via air travel? A. 5 years . D. mutation of the influenza virus. consuming horseshoe bats. 1 year D. exposure to wild monkeys. True False Multiple Choice Questions 43. Legionnaires' disease emerged in 1976 due to A. E. E. 2 years E. 3 months B. B. abuse of antibiotics. Why is Helicobacter pylori considered an emerging disease? A. D. It is highly antibiotic resistant. C. True / False Questions 42. 44.41. SARS is thought to have arisen in China due to the consumption of civets. C. It can jump from humans to pigs and back again. B. 10 years E. People can become resistant to antibiotics. 25 years True / False Questions 46. True False 48. Do not save unused antibiotics.45. 4 years D. True False Multiple Choice Questions 49. C. Which of the following is an unwise use of antibiotics? A. Take the antibiotics only for the infection for which they were prescribed. 6 months B. The uses of antibiotics does not cause antibiotic resistance. There is no point in taking antibiotics for a cold. E. Discontinue the antibiotics when you feel better. How long did it take for bacteria to develop resistance to penicillin? A. 1 year C. True False 47. B. D. it just selects for those organisms that are already resistant. . Do not take antibiotics for a viral infection. Do not skip doses of antiobiotic. 4 E. 3 D. True False . 2 C. They both cause tuberculosis. They are both transmitted by mosquito bites. MRSA can be fatal. What do MDR TB and MRSA have in common? A. They are both multiple drug resistant bacteria. B. True / False Questions 52. D. 1 B. C. E. How many different "lines" of antibiotics do we have against TB? A. They are both viruses. Infections with both of these have declined dramatically in recent years.50. 5 or more 51. 01 Topic: Immune System .01 Distinguish between an outbreak. D. an outbreak.01.Infectious Diseases Supplement Key Multiple Choice Questions 1. B.01.01 Topic: Immune System 2. a chronic infection. an opportunistic infection. and pandemic. Remember Learning Outcome: S. E. B. C. epidemic. These. opportunistic infections. outbreaks. D. Section: S. C. epidemics. E. a slow infection.01 Distinguish between an outbreak. If the epidemic is confined to a local area. If an epidemic is confined to a local area. a pandemic. and pandemic. it is usually called an outbreak. Bloom's Level: 1. Understand Learning Outcome: S. pandemics. along with malaria and influenza are all examples of current pandemics. Section: S. it is usually called A. HIV/AIDS and tuberculosis are both examples of current A. epidemic. acute infections. Bloom's Level: 2. FALSE A disease is called an epidemic if there are more cases of the disease than expected in a certain area for a certain period.01 Topic: Immune System Multiple Choice Questions . epidemic. Bloom's Level: 1. Section: S. in the month of September.01.True / False Questions 3. there were 15 cases. Apply Learning Outcome: S. However. and pandemic. epidemic. An epidemic is defined as more cases of the disease than expected in a certain area for a certain period.01 Topic: Immune System Yes / No Questions 4.01 Distinguish between an outbreak. Bloom's Level: 3. There are normally 1-2 cases of measles per month in a particular city.01. Remember Learning Outcome: S. Is this an epidemic? YES Yes. Section: S. A disease is called an epidemic if people all over the world have the same disease. and pandemic.01 Distinguish between an outbreak. Understand Learning Outcome: S.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. helper T cells B. It can only infect cells on the surface of the body where the temperature is lower. It can infect any cell it comes in contact with. C. Section: S. B cells C.5.01. It binds to this receptor and then gains entry to the cell. Bloom's Level: 2. epithelial cells E. It can only infect cells that are actively growing and dividing. What type of cells does HIV infect? A. D.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Understand Learning Outcome: S. E. It infects cells with a particular surface receptor.01. liver cells D. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses 6. HIV infects cells with a particular surface receptor. B. How does HIV know what cells to infect? A. It only infects cells with that line the reproductive tract. basophils HIV infects helper T cells and macrophages.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses . Section: S. 1969 E. chronic phase (B) C. When was the first documented case of AIDS in the United States? A. AIDS (C) A person in category A typically has no apparent symptoms.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses . 1982 The first documented case in the United States was a 15-year-old male who died in Missouri in 1969.01. 1959 D. Bloom's Level: 1.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection.01. Remember Learning Outcome: S. 1884 B. In which phase of an HIV infection is the person typically asymptomatic? A. Remember Learning Outcome: S. Bloom's Level: 1.7.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses 8. Section: S.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. 1924 C. acute phase (A) B. Section: S. acute phase (A) B. Section: S. because there is no HIV virus in the blood B.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection.01. Bloom's Level: 3. Apply Learning Outcome: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses 10. because there are no detectable levels of HIV antibodies in the blood C. chronic phase (B) C.9. Section: S. Analyze Learning Outcome: S. What phase of an HIV infection is this patient in? A. AIDS (C) This patient has AIDS. Bloom's Level: 4.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Patient X has 150 CD4 T-cells per mm3.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses True / False Questions . Why would an HIV test be negative within the first 2-3 weeks of an HIV infection? A. because there are no symptoms D.01. because the CD4 T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm3 E. because there are no opportunistic infections yet THe HIV test is an antibody test and it generally takes an average of 25 days before there are detectable levels of HIV antibodies in body fluids. Bloom's Level: 2.11. Bloom's Level: 5. Kaposi's sarcoma Kaposi's sarcoma is an opportunistic illness that categorizes an HIV infection as AIDS.01. Understand Learning Outcome: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses True / False Questions .02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Section: S.01. Section: S. prolonged diarrhea B. cervical dysplasia D. FALSE Nearly 20% of the 2.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions 12. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S. Which of the following diseases is categorized as an opportunistic infection found in AIDS patients? A.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection.5 million new HIV infections are in people under the age of 15. shingles E. The vast majority of new HIV infections are in people under the age of 15. yeast infections of the mouth or vagina C. 02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. the person has a healthy immune system that can deal with the infection. the wide variety of possible opportunistic infections The sink's faucet is the production of new CD4 T-cells and the sink's drain is the destruction of the CD4 T-cells.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses True / False Questions .13. Bloom's Level: 2. Analyze Learning Outcome: S. what does the sink's drain represent? A. Infection with HIV is listed as the cause of death for an AIDS patient. As long as the body can produce enough new CD4 T-cells to keep pace with the destruction. the destruction of CD4 T-cells by the virus B. Bloom's Level: 4. the production of new CD4 T-cells C.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions 14. Understand Learning Outcome: S.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. FALSE Persons with AIDS die from one or more opportunistic diseases rather than from the HIV infection.01. the destruction of virus by the immune system E. In the "kitchen-sink model" for AIDS.01. the amplification of virus in the blood D. Section: S. Section: S. The genome of HIV consists of two single strands of RNA. Bloom's Level: 1. Bloom's Level: 2. D.15. healthier lives due to antiretroviral therapy.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions 16. B. single stranded RNA. There is no cure for AIDS.02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. double stranded RNA. many people with HIV infection are living longer. Section: S. TRUE Although there is still no cure for AIDS. C. single stranded RNA. Remember Learning Outcome: S. double stranded DNA.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. The HIV virus contains a genome composed of A.01.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses . Understand Learning Outcome: S. Section: S.01. 5.3.3. reverse transcription. Bloom's Level: 5. matrix B. Section: S. 4. nucleocapsid D. Integration.2. 1.7. Place the steps in the HIV life cycle in the correct order.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. biosynthesis and cleavage.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses 18.8.8 B.01. 5.6. 1.1. Biosynthesis and cleavage.4 D.3. 1.6 The correct order is attachment.1.01. assembly.5 E.7.5. Bloom's Level: 2.3. 4. Fusion.2.7. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses . entry.17. and budding. protease The protease is an enzyme within the HIV core.3.5. 8.1. fusion. 7.2. 6. Which of the following is not a layer of the protein coat that surrounds the HIV genetic material? A. 5.7. Budding. 3.2. Entry. Assembly.6. Attachment.6.4.8 C.4. Understand Learning Outcome: S.8. capsid C. Section: S. integration.4.2. Reverse transcription A.7. 8. 2.6. uncoating The gp120 spike proteins on the surface of HIV are required to bind to the CD4 receptor on the surface of the Tcell for attachment. cleavage of the proteins by protease D. reverse transcriptase B. integration of the viral DNA into the host genome E.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses 20. acquisition of an envelope from the host B. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.19. the production of viral DNA A retrovirus has an RNA genome and must use reverse transcription to convert its RNA into viral DNA.01. RNA genome C. an envelope obtained from the host D. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses .01. Bloom's Level: 5. Which of the following is not important for making HIV a retrovirus? A. Bloom's Level: 5. gp120 spike proteins C. Section: S. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S. Which of the following is important for the attachment stage of the HIV life cycle? A. 01. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S. transmission of HIV by transfusion is very rare.21. Section: S. transfusions of infected blood B. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S. TRUE The HIV envelope is acquired during budding of the virus through the host cell plasma membrane. needle sharing among IV drug users D. Bloom's Level: 5.01.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses True / False Questions 22. which is the least common mode and rare in many countries? A.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. The envelope of the HIV virus is actually part of the host cell plasma membrane. Of the following modes of HIV transmission.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. vaginal/rectal intercourse with an infected person C. oral-genital contact with an infected person In countries where the blood supply is screened for HIV.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions . Section: S. babies born to HIV infected women E. B. A vaccine for HIV would be the cure for AIDS science has been looking for. This is due to A. Bloom's Level: 5.23. HIV's high rate of mutation. HIV strains may differ by 10% within one person and by 35% in people across the globe. both cellular and antibody-mediated responses.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses True / False Questions 24. Section: S. the fact that HIV inserts its genome into the host genome. This makes it difficult to make a vaccine against HIV.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination.01.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. the fact that HIV targets T-cells. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S. Understand . Section: S. The rhesus monkey is the ideal animal model for AIDS vaccine testing. the fact that most people do not die from HIV infection. The strain differences are due to HIV's high rate of mutation. D. E.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses 25. C. they prevent people from being infected in the first place. Bloom's Level: 2. Bloom's Level: 5.01. FALSE Vaccines do not cure diseases. FALSE Scientists do not have an ideal animal model for AIDS vaccine testing. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S. Bloom's Level: 1. 20 or more years The immune system in 60% of HIV infected people can delay the onset of AIDS an average of ten years.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses 26. 5 years D.Learning Outcome: S. FALSE A Phase III trail of the RV 144 HIV vaccine was conducted from 2003 to 2009 in Thailand. On average.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions 27. 1 year B.01.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. how long has the immune system been able to successfully and effectively delay the onset of AIDS in 60% of people who are HIV infected? A.01. Section: S. Remember Learning Outcome: S. Remember Learning Outcome: S.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. Section: S. Bloom's Level: 1.01. As of yet. 2 years C. 10 years E. there have been no Phase III vaccine trials for an HIV vaccine. Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses . D. Understand Learning Outcome: S. protist. Tuberculosis is caused by the rod-shaped bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. bacterium.01. Understand Learning Outcome: S. AIDS is the new name for what used to be called consumption. worm.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. B.True / False Questions 28. Bloom's Level: 2.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System . Section: S. Section: S.01. Bloom's Level: 2. C.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System Multiple Choice Questions 29.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. virus. Tuberculosis is caused by a A. E. fungi. FALSE Tuberculosis (TB) used to be called consumption. lethargy. 1 month D.01. Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: S. coughing up blood or sputum D.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria.01. 1-2 days B.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System 31.30. 2 months E. How long does the treatment for TB take? A. chest pain.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System . bad cough. 6+ months It takes at least 6 months to kill all the Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the body. opportunistic infections. chronic diarrhea C. What are the symptoms of a TB infection? A. fever B. Section: S. 1-2 weeks C.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. chest pain. and coughing up blood or sputum. Section: S. runny nose. sore throat. Bloom's Level: 1. general malaise Symptoms of TB include a bad cough. Remember Learning Outcome: S. post-nasal drip E. rash over the trunk. a protist. bacterium.01. Section: S. The organism that causes malaria is a A. Bloom's Level: 2.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. protist. blood transfusions Mycobacterium tuberculosis is spread via airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes. worm. C. fungi. B.32. The causative agent of malaria is Plasmodium sp. How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread? A. IV drug abuse E.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists .01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System 33. virus. Understand Learning Outcome: S.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria.. E. Bloom's Level: 1. sexual intercourse D. Remember Learning Outcome: S. contaminated food or water C. D. via airborne droplets B.01. Section: S. Analyze Learning Outcome: S. Bloom's Level: 2.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. They do not prevent the initial infection but they prevent the development of the parasites in the blood. breast feeding E. Understand Learning Outcome: S. .01. sexual intercourse D. TRUE Bloom's Level: 4. Section: S. The drugs that treat malaria can be used prophylactically. or before infection. TRUE Antimalarial drugs can be used prophylactically. Section: S.01.34. Unlike AIDS. mosquitoes The parasite that causes malaria is spread by the female Anopheles mosquito. both tuberculosis and malaria can be cured. Remember Learning Outcome: S.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. via airborne droplets B.01 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists Topic: Viruses 36.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria.01. Bloom's Level: 1. How is malaria spread? A.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists True / False Questions 35. by blood transfusions C. Most people with malaria exhibit chills and fevers every 48-72 hours. the formation of Plasmodium gametes within the body. Bloom's Level: 2. waves of activity by the body's B. reinfection with new Plasmodium. Section: S. both mosquito and human Half of the Plasmodium life cycle occurs in the human and the remainder happens in the mosquito. B.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. This is due to A. Understand Learning Outcome: S.Section: S.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists Multiple Choice Questions 37. mosquito B.and T-cells. C.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists . Section: S.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. the bursting of the red blood cells in the body.01.01 Topic: Immune System Topic: Protists 38.01. E. human C. the fusion of the male and female Plasmodium gametes to form new organisms. Where does the life cycle of the Plasmodium protist take place? A. The red blood cell stage of the infection is cyclic and every 48-72 hours the red blood cells burst. D. Understand Learning Outcome: S. Bloom's Level: 2. has suddenly caused an epidemic. Section: S. Streptococcus is now considered to be a reemerging pathogen. E.02 Topic: Immune System True / False Questions 40. Bloom's Level: 1. TRUE Due to increased resistance to antibiotics. Section: S. can be transmitted in multiple ways. Bloom's Level: 1. is newly recognized in the last two decades.02. D. C.02.39. Remember Learning Outcome: S. Streptococcus is now considered to be a reemerging pathogen. An emerging disease is one that A. can infect both humans and animals.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System Multiple Choice Questions . is now present on multiple continents.01 Define the term emerging disease. B.01 Define the term emerging disease. An emerging disease is one that is newly recognized in the last two decades. Remember Learning Outcome: S. Understand Learning Outcome: S. Why is Helicobacter pylori considered an emerging disease? A. Section: S. E.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System True / False Questions 42. It had declined in the 1960s but appears to be back again. B. a type of exotic cat. Ulcers were not known to have an infectious cause until recently. SARS is thought to have arisen in China due to the consumption of civets. Understand Learning Outcome: S.02 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions .02. Ulcers have been known throughout human history but it was not known that they could be caused by Helicobacter pylori until recently. D. Bloom's Level: 2. It can jump from humans to pigs and back again. C.02 List some examples of emerging diseases. Section: S. Bloom's Level: 2. It is now present on all of the continents.41. It is highly antibiotic resistant.02. are considered a delicacy in China. TRUE Civets. It is thought that the civets were possibly infected by exposure to horseshoe bats.01 Define the term emerging disease. consuming horseshoe bats. SARS had reached nine countries/provinces mostly via air travel.02 Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses . abuse of antibiotics. Once SARS appeared in China. C. exposure to wild monkeys. mutation of the influenza virus. 1 year D.02.02 List some examples of emerging diseases. Bacteria thrived in the cooling tower used as the water source for the air-conditioning system in a hotel.02 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System 44.02 List some examples of emerging diseases. Bloom's Level: 2. E. 2003. By the end of February. Section: S. 2002.02. 3 months B. Legionnaires' disease emerged in 1976 due to A. 5 years The first cases of SARS were reported November 16. B. Section: S. Understand Learning Outcome: S. Analyze Learning Outcome: S. how long did it take for it to reach nine other countries/provinces via air travel? A. Bloom's Level: 4.43. 2 years E. contamination of an air-conditioning system. 6 months C. D. 03. Evaluate Learning Outcome: S.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System True / False Questions 46. bacteria began developing resistance to it. 4 years D. Remember Learning Outcome: S. Section: S. Bloom's Level: 5.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic.03. Bloom's Level: 1. How long did it take for bacteria to develop resistance to penicillin? A. 25 years Within 4 years of the introduction of penicillin in 1943. People can become resistant to antibiotics. but people do not become resistant to antibiotics. Section: S. 1 year C.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic. 6 months B. 10 years E. FALSE Bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics and people can harbor those bacteria.45.03 Topic: Immune System . Analyze Learning Outcome: S. not viral infections. TRUE Development of antibiotic resistance is a form of natural selection.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic. Section: S. The common cold is caused by a virus.47. Section: S.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic.03.03 Topic: Immune System 48. Bloom's Level: 4. Bloom's Level: 5. TRUE Antibiotics are useful against bacterial infections. The uses of antibiotics does not cause antibiotic resistance. it just selects for those organisms that are already resistant. There is no point in taking antibiotics for a cold.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System Topic: Viruses Multiple Choice Questions . Evaluate Learning Outcome: S. it just selects those organisms that are already resistant. Antibiotic use does not cause the resistance.03. 2 C.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System . Bloom's Level: 4. Do not take antibiotics for a viral infection. Analyze Learning Outcome: S. 1 B. It is unwise to discontinue the antibiotics when you feel better.49.03. 4 E. Remember Learning Outcome: S. D. Bloom's Level: 1. E. Take the antibiotics only for the infection for which they were prescribed.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic. Do not save unused antibiotics.03 Topic: Immune System 50.03. How many different "lines" of antibiotics do we have against TB? A. If the organism is resistant to both of these.02 Explain the significance of XDR TB and MRSA. B. treatment options are limited. Section: S. Section: S. Do not skip doses of antiobiotic. C. Which of the following is an unwise use of antibiotics? A. 5 or more Currently we have first-line and second-line antibiotics for TB. 3 D. Discontinue the antibiotics when you feel better. Bloom's Level: 2. They are both viruses. Bloom's Level: 4. They are both multiple drug resistant bacteria. C. Infections with both of these have declined dramatically in recent years. MDR TB stands for multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and MRSA stands for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.02 Explain the significance of XDR TB and MRSA.51. Understand Learning Outcome: S. MRSA can be fatal. B. They are both transmitted by mosquito bites. What do MDR TB and MRSA have in common? A.02 Explain the significance of XDR TB and MRSA.03. TRUE Infections with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus can be fatal. Section: S.03.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System True / False Questions 52. E. D. They both cause tuberculosis. especially if there are no antibiotics available to treat the infection.03 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea Topic: Immune System . Section: S. Analyze Learning Outcome: S. epidemic. Analyze 7 Bloom's Level: 5.03 8 Topic: Bacteria and Archaea 14 Topic: Immune System 52 Topic: Protists 6 Topic: Viruses 27 .02 Describe the phases of an HIV infection. Apply 2 Bloom's Level: 4. 3 Section: S.03.03 List the stages in the HIV life cycle. 5 Learning Outcome: S.02 List some examples of emerging diseases.01. Remember 14 Bloom's Level: 2.02. 5 Learning Outcome: S. 7 Learning Outcome: S. 3 Learning Outcome: S.04 Summarize the barriers in the development of an effective HIV vaccination. and pandemic. Understand 20 Bloom's Level: 3.01 Define the term emerging disease.Infectious Diseases Supplement Summary Category # of Questions Bloom's Level: 1. Evaluate 9 Learning Outcome: S.03.01 Summarize how a pathogen becomes resistant to an antibiotic.05 Describe the causes of tuberculosis and malaria. 11 Learning Outcome: S.01 Distinguish between an outbreak.01. 4 Learning Outcome: S.01. 11 Learning Outcome: S.01. 3 Learning Outcome: S.02.02 6 Section: S.01.02 Explain the significance of XDR TB and MRSA.01 38 Section: S.