SubId ChaptId Question OPt1 OPt2 OPt31 1 The "first light" of big bang from the far side of universe has recently been detected by the radio-telescopes as Sound waves Water waves light waves 1 1 the wold of complex matter falls in a category of world of extremely large bodies world of extremely small bodies world of middle-sized bodies 1 1 The branch of physics in which we study the matter and energy and the relationship between them is called Biology Chemistry Physics 1 1 Many physicists started believing that every thing about physics has been discovered by the end of 17th century 18th century 19th century 1 1 the branch of physics which deals with the atomic nuclei is called nuclear physics atomic physics particule physics 1 1 the branch of physics which is concerned with the atomic nuclei is called nuclear physics atomic physics modern physics 1 1 the relativistic mechanics is the branch of physics in which we deals with the velocities of bodies equal to velocity of light greater than the velocity of light approaching to velocity of light 1 1 the branch of physics in which we study the structure and properties of solids is called nuclear physics modern physics particle physics 1 1 the most fundamental of all sciences which provides basic principles and fundamental laws to other branches of science is physics chemistry biology 1 1 we are living in the age of chaos technology peace 1 1 The computer chips are made of semi- conductors silicon sand 1 1 Silicon can be obtained from rocks mud sand 1 1 Which of the following are the interdisciplinary areas of physics I) astrophycs (ii) chemical physics (iii) geophysics One of them two of them three of them 1 1 the quantities like mass, length, time, velocity, force, temperature and electric current are the examples of Scalar quantities vector quantties physical quantities 1 1 physical quantities are divided into two categories three categories four categories 1 1 The quantitites whose definitions are based on the other physical quantitites are called Scalar quantities vactor quantities base quantities 1 1 Velocity, acceleration, force, area, volume are all examples of Scalar quantities Vector Qquantities base quantities 1 1 Length, mass, time, current and intensity of light are all examples of Scalar quantities vector quantities base quantities 1 1 Is charge a base SI quantity. yes no sometimes 1 1 the SI unit of amount of substance is ampere (A) Kelvin (K) candela (CD) 1 1 the units of plane angle and solid angles are the examples of Bbase units derived units supplementary units 1 2 The direction of a vector in a plane is denoted by the angle which the vector makes with positive x-axis in the anti-clock wise direction clock-wise direction upwards 1 2 The direction of a vector in space is specified by the one angle two angles three angles 1 2 In head to tail rule of vector addition, the sum of two or more than two vector can be found by joining the tail of the first with the head of second joining the head of the first with the tail of second joining the head of the first with the head of second 1 2 The vector addition process is a distributive process associative process commutative 1 2 A single vector which have the same effect as all the original vectors taken together is called the unit vector resultant vector null vector 1 2 In order to subtract a vector B from from vector A we reverse the dire reverse the direction of B and add it to A Keep the same direction of B and add it to A 1 2 Subtraction of vector B from vector A we use the following mathematicalrelation A- B=A-B A-B=A+b A-B=A+(-B) 1 2 When a vector A is multiplied by a positive number n then the new vector nA has the same director as A but a magnitude n times the magnitude of A opposite direction on A but a magnitude n times the magnitude of A same direction as A and same magnitude as of A 1 2 When a vector A is multiplied by a negative number -n: then the new vector -nA has the opposite direction as A but a magnitude 'n' times the magnitude of A same direction as A but a magnitude 'n' times the magnitude of A same direction and same magnitude as of A 1 2 When velocity is multiplied by scalar mass 'm: the product is a new vector quantity called momentium having the same dimensions as that of velocity same dimensions as that of mass same dimensions of mass and velocity 1 2 A vector in a given direction with magnitude one is called null vector equal vector resultant vector 1 2 Null vector is a vector which has zero magnitude but has a certain direction zero magnitude but has an arbitrary direction arbitrary magnitude and certain direction 1 2 Mathematically a null vector can be represented as A + A =0 A + (-Ax)=0 A + (-A) =0 1 2 Rectangular components of a vector are those components which have the following angle between them 0 30 45 1 3 The magnitude of the displacement is a line form initial position to final position which is straight curved either straight or curved 1 3 the displacement coincides with the path of the motion when a body moves in a curved line straight line may be curved or straight 1 3 velocity is a Scalar quantities vector quantity constant quantity 1 3 Dimensions of velocity are [L] [T] [LT-1] 1 3 when we consider the average velocity of a body, then the body is moving in straight line curved path may be in a straight or curved path 1 3 if a ball comes back to its starting point after bouncing off the wall several times, then its total displacements is zero average velocity is zero none of them 1 3 The instantaneous velocity is define as the limiting value of d/t on the time interval t approaches to zero maximum minimum 1 3 if the instantaneous velocity of a body does not change, the body is said to be moving with average velocity uniform velocity instantaneous velocity 1 3 The rate of change of velocity is known as displacement distance velocity 1 3 acceleration is a scalar quantity imaginary quantity vector 1 3 velocity of a body changes if direction of the body changes speed of the body changes neither speed nor direction changes, 1 3 the direction of the acceleration is the same as that of speed velocity both of them 1 3 acceleratio of a body at any particular instant during its motion is known as average acceleration uniform acceleration instantaneous acceleration 1 3 If the velocity of a body changes by egqual amount in equal intervals of tiem, the body is said to have acceleration uniform acceleratin instantaneous acceleration 1 3 when a body is moving with uniform acceleration, its average acceleration is less than instantaneous acceleration greater than instantaneous acceleration equal to instantaneous acceleraiton 1 3 The distance travelled by a body in one second is called speed velocity acceleration 1 4 If the angle 0 between the force and displacement is less than 90, then the work done will be positive negative zero 1 4 If the angle 0 between the force and displacement is equal to 90, then the work done will be positive negative zero 1 4 If the angle Ө between the force and displacement is grater then 90, then the work done will be positive negative zero 1 4 If the displacement occurs in the direction of force, then the work done will be positive negative zero 1 4 the SI Unit of work is N-s N-m2 N-m 1 4 in which of the following, force does not remain constant during the process of doing work (I) a rocket moves away form earth (ii) work done against the force of gravity (iii) force exerted on the spring (I) only (I) and (ii) only (I),(ii) and (iii) only 1 4 A force of 5N applied on a body and the body moves 4.5 meters in the direction of applied force, then the work done will be 20 N 22.5 N 20J 1 4 The space around the earth in which its gravitational force acts on a body is called Magnetic field electric field electromanetic field 1 4 In the gravitational field, the work done will be negative, if the displacement is in the directin of gravitational force the displacements is against the gravitational force the displacemetn is perpendicular to the gravitational force 1 4 In the gravitational field, the work done will be positive, if the displacement is in the direction of gravitational force the displacements is against the gravitaiotnal force the displacement is perpendicular to the gravitational force 1 4 The gravitational field is non- conservatiove filed conservative field constant field 1 4 work done in Earth's gravitational field is independent of the path followed dependent of the path followed both of them 1 4 the field in which the work done is independent of the path followed or work done in a closed path is zero is called a variable field constant field non conservative field 1 4 which of the following is example of non conservative force frictional force damping force viscous force 1 4 the rate of doing work is known as work power energy 1 4 power is a vector quantity scalar quantity imaginary 1 4 The Si unit is power is joule Kg-m/s newton 1 4 kilowatt hour is aunit of mechanical energy potential energy electrical energy 1 5 Angle subtended at the centre of circular path by a body is known as linear displacement angular displacement linear velocity 1 5 when a body is moving in a clockwise direction then the angular displacement is zero magnitude but has a certain direction maximum negative 1 5 when a body is moving in anticlockwise direction in a circle, then the angular displacement is taken as zero maximum negative 1 5 the direction associated with the angualr displacement is along the radius perpendicular to radius along the axis of rotation 1 5 the direction of angular acceleration is given by left hand rule right hand rule fleemings left hand rule 1 5 according to the right hand rule, the direction of angular displacement is along the thumb first fingers second finger 1 5 according to the right hand rule, the direction of motion of a body is indicated by the direction of thumb direction of first finger curl of the fingers 1 5 the SI unit of angular displacement is degree revolution radian 1 5 One radian is equal to 60 180 360 1 5 when a body completes one revolution, then the angular displacement in degrees is 180 270 360 1 5 the rate at which angular displacement is changing with time is called linear displacement velocity linear velocity 1 5 angular displacement is a scalar quantity vector quantity constant quantity 1 5 angular velocity is a scalar quantity vector quantity fixed quantity 1 5 the SI unit of angular velocity is revolution per second revolution per minute radians per second 1 5 rate of change of angular velocity is defined as acceleration linear acceleration instantaneous acceleration 1 5 the direction of angular velocity is along the radius perpendicular to radius along the circle 1 5 which of the following quantity has direction along the axis of rotation angular displacement angular velocity angular acceleration 1 5 the direction of angular acceleration is given by left hand rule fleemings left hand rule right hand rule 1 5 any point on a rigid body which is moving in a circular path can be completely described by body moving in a straight line body moving in a circular path may be in straight line or circular path 1 5 the direction of linear velocity of a body moving in a circle is along the axis of rotation along the radius perpendicular of radius 1 5 the linear velocity of a body moving in a circular path is also known as angular velocity radial velocity tangential velocity 1 6 substances that do not flow easily have large coefficient of viscosity small coefficient of viscosity either of them 1 6 substances that flow easily have large coefficient of viscosity small coefficient of viscosity either of them 1 6 liquids and gases have zero viscosity non zero viscosity very large viscosity 1 6 an object moving through a fluid experiences a retarding force called a frictional force terminal force opposing force 1 6 when the speed of a body in a fluid increases then the drag force decreases becomes zero increases 1 6 at low speeds, the drag force is proportional to speed inversely proportional to speed not simply proportional to speed 1 6 at high speeds, the drag force is proportional to speed inversely proportional to speed not simply proportional to speed 1 6 when a water droplet falling freely through air, the drag force on water droplet increases with the decrease in speed increase in speed pressure 1 6 when a water droplet falls through air, the net force on it is net force = drag force - weight net force = weight - drag force net force = drag force + weight 1 6 when weight of an object falling freely becomes equal to the drag force, then the body will move with increasing speed decreasing speed constant speed 1 6 during the free fall motion of an object, when its weight becomes equal to the drag force, then it will move with maximum speed minimum speed zero speed 1 6 the body will move with terminal velocity when it acquires minimum speed zero speed maximum speed 1 6 when the body reaches its terminal velocity, the acceleration of the body becomes maximum speed minimum speed zero 1 6 at the starting point of the free fall motion of an object its speed will be maximum speed minimum speed zero 1 6 a water hose with an internal diameter of 20 mm at the outlet discharges 30 kg of water in 60 s. what is water speed at the outlet if density of water is 1000 Kg/m3 during its steady flow. 1.3 m/s 1.6m/s 1.9 m/s 1 6 the direction of the streamlines is the same as the direction of the force torque velocity 1 6 when the different streamlines cannot cross each other, then this condition is known as continuity condition turbulent flow condition steady flow condition 1 6 when each particle of the fluid moves along a smooth path, this path is known as straight path smooth path haphazard path 1 6 during the steady flow, different streamlines cannot across each other can across each other either of them 1 6 if every particle of the flow that passes a particular point, moves along the same path as followed by particles which passed the point earlier, then this flow is said to be turbulent streamline abrupt 1 6 when a fluid is in motion, its flow can be considered as turbulent streamline either of them 1 6 according to the equation of continuity, when water falls from the tap, it's speed increases and its cross sectional area decreases increases becomes zero 1 6 the product of cross sectional area of the pipe and the fluid speed at any point along the pipe is very high very low constant 1 7 the force which opposes the applied force producing the displacement in the spring is called restoring force periodic force centripetal force 1 7 the vibratory or oscillatory motion of a body is translatory motion back and forth motion about its mean position free fall motion 1 7 the vibratory motion of a body whose magnitude of acceleration is directly proportional to the magnitude of its displacement and is always directed towards the equilibrium position is called. rotatory motion motion under gravity angular motion 1 7 one complete to and fro trip of the body about its mean position is called displacement vibration a complete motion 1 7 the time required to complete one vibration is called time period frequency time period 1 7 the number of vibrations completed by a body in one second is called time period frequency total vibrations 1 7 the distance of vibrating body at any instant from its equilibrium position is called displacement frequency amplitude 1 7 for a body executing S.H.M, its momentum remains constant potential energy remains constant kinetic energy remains constant 1 7 when a body is performing S.H.M., its acceleration is inversely proportional to the displacement directly proportional to the applied force directly proportional to the amplitude 1 7 which of the following is an example of a S.H.M? motion of a projectile motion of a train along a circular path motion of swing 1 7 which of the following does not exhibit S.H.M? a plucked violin string a mass attached to a spring a train shunting between two terminals 1 7 if the displacement of a body executing S.H.M is plotted against time, then the curve is known as frequency of S.H.M period of S.H.M wave form 1 7 the wave from of S.H.M will be square wave sine wave rectified wave 1 7 an object undergoes S.H.M has maximum speed when its displacement from the mean position is maximum speed zero half of the maximum value 1 7 an object undergoes S.H.M has maximum acceleration when its displacement form the mean position is maximum zero half of the maximum value 1 7 SI unit of time period is second hertz revolutio n 1 8 In case of mechanical waves, we study the motion of a singl eparticle collection of particles any one of them 1 8 a wave, which transfers energy by moving away from the source of disturbance is called a progressive wave travellign wave both of them 1 8 example of progressive wave is transverse waves longitudinal waves both of them 1 8 the waves in which the particles of the medium are displaced in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of waves are knowns as longitudinal waves transverse waves non mechanical waves 1 8 the waves in which the particles of the medium have displacement along the direction of propagation of waves are called longitudinal waves transverse waves non mechanical waves 1 8 which type of wave can be set up in solids longitudinal waves transverse waves both of them 1 8 which type of wave can be set up in fluids. longitudinal waves transverse waves both of them 1 8 sound is an example of longitudinal waves transverse waves both of them 1 8 waves on the water surface is an example of longitudinal waves transverse waves both of them 1 8 when we make a single disturbance in a medium, then the wave produced in the form of a periodic wave a continuous wave a pulse 1 8 an oscillating mass spring system is an example of pulse discontinous wave periodic wave 1 8 a pattern in which the particles of the medium are displaced above the equilibrium position is called trough crest amplitude 1 8 a pattern in which the particles of the medium are displaced below the equilibrium position is called trough crest amplitude 1 8 the maximum displacement of the particles on either side of the equilibrium positio is called trough crest amplitude 1 8 wavelength is the distance between any two crests any two troughs two consecutive crests or troughs 1 8 the speed of a periodic wave can be found indirectly from its frequency of S.H.M wavelength frequency and wavelength 1 8 as a wave progresses, each point in the medium oscillates with the smaller frequency and same period of the source same frequency and same period of the source same frequency and smaller period of the source 1 8 the profile of periodic waves generated by a source executing SHM is represented by a tangent cuve sine curve cosine curve 1 8 the particles of the medium, as the wave passes through it are in phase with each other if they are at the same distance from equilibrium position. they are moving in the same direction both of them 1 8 the longitudinal wave produced in a spring is also called a transverse waves e.m.wave ripple wave 1 8 the regions of the spring in which spring is stretched more than its normal position are called compressions rarefactions troughs 1 8 The regions of the spring in which spring is compressed more than its normal position is called compressions rarefactions troughs 1 8 In a compressional wave, the particles of the medium in the path of the wave move. perpendicular to the directio of propagation of wave opposite to the direction of propagatio nof wave along the direction of propagatio of wave 1 9 In case of a point source, the shape of the wavefront is straight elliptical oval 1 9 a line normal to the wavefront including the direction of motion is called perpendicular line parallel line a ray of light 1 9 the waves propagate in space by the motion of the wavelengths frequencies wavefronts 1 9 a limited region taken on a wavefront which is far away form the source as plane wavefront circular wavefront spherical wavefront 1 9 the light from Sun reached earth in the form of plane wavefront circular wavefront spherical wavefront 1 9 In the study of interference and diffraction, we consider plane waves plane wavefronts both of them 1 9 Usual way to obtain a plane wave is to place point source of light at the focus of a concave lens convex lens both of them 1 9 By which principle we can locate the position of new wavefront after a later time principle of irreversibility principal of light archimedes principle 1 9 According to huygen's, every point of a wavefront may be considered as a source of primary wavelets secondary wavelets either of them 1 9 According to huygen's principle, the new position of the wavefront after a time can be found by constructing a surface that touches all the primary wavelets secondary wavelets either of them 1 9 The wave nature of light was first proposed by Huygen thomas young newton 1 9 Huygen's principle is used to study the formation of waverfronts propagation of wavefronts nature of light 1 9 According to the huygen's principle, the secondary wavelets propagate in the forward direction with a speed equal to speed of wave motion speed of medium speed of electrons 1 9 The medium in which speed of light is the same in all directions is called non- homogeneous medium homogeneous medium both of them 1 9 When two lights waves traveling the same direction are in phase at any point, they produce constructive interference destructive interference despersion 1 9 When the light waves of the same frequency and amp;itude travelling in the same direction are superimposed each other, they give rise to interference diffraction dispersion 1 9 When two light waves travelling in the same direction are out of phase at any point, their resultant amplitude increases decreases remains unchanged 1 9 Light waves produce interference when sources are monochromatic sources are phase conherent sources are close together 1 9 A monochromatic source of light gives light of one colour two colours seven colours 1 10 As the object is brought from a far off point to the focus, the magnification goes on decreasing goes on increasing remains the same 1 10 The closer the object to the eye, the greater is the angle subtended at the eye samaller is the angle subtended at the eye no effect on the angle 1 10 When the object is placed at the near point, the eye sees the size of the object maximum minimum either of them 1 10 When the object is placed inside the near point, the details of the object are visible clearly visible not visible 1 10 The ratio of the angles subtended by the image as seen through the optical device to that subtended by the object at the unaided eye is called magnifying power angular magnification none of them 1 10 On a microscope or a telescope which thing tells us that how close together the two point sources of light can be, so that they are still seen as two separate sources magnification linear magnification optical magnification 1 10 The ability of an instrument to reveal the minor details of the object under examination is called magnification optical magnification resolving power 1 10 The minimum angle which two point sources subtends at the instrument so that their images are seen as two distinct spots of light rather than one is expressed magnification optical magnification resolving power 1 10 The lens which can be used to help the eye to see small objects distinctly is convex lens concave lens either of them 1 10 A watch maker uses which lens to mend the watches convex lens concave lens either of them 1 10 When the object is placed inside the focal point of the convex lens, the image formed will be magnified and real magnified and virtual diminished and real 1 10 For a lens of higher angular magnification the focal length should be small large very large viscosity 1 10 for a simple microscope, the focal length is 5 cm and the distance of the object to the eye is 25 cm, then the magnifications is 5 10 15 1 10 Whenever high magnification is desired, we will use simple microscope compound microscope any of them 1 10 The compound microscope consists of one convex lens two convex lenses one concavelens 1 10 In a compound microscope, the focal lehngth of object lens is very large large short 1 10 The object of height 'h' is placed in a compound microscope at the principle focus of objective at the principle focus of eye- piece just beyond the principle focus of the objective 1 10 The objective of the compound microscope produces a real and magnified image real and diminished image vitual and magnified image 1 10 The objective of the compound microscope formed the image at the focus of the eye-piece just beyond the focus of eye-piece inside the focus of the eye-piece 1 10 In a compound microscope, the eye-piece is positioned so that the final image is formed at the for point of eye objective focus of objective 1 11 The pressure exerted by the gas is directly proportional to the P.E. inversely proportional to the P.E. inversely proportional to the K.E. 1 11 The ideal Gass law is P=nRT V=nRT PV=RT 1 11 The absolute temperature for an ideal gas is directly proportional to the rotational K.E. olf gas molecules. directly proportional to the vibrational K.E. of gas molecules directly proportional to the average translational K.E. of gas molecules 1 11 Internal energy is the sum of all the forms of K.E. P.E. both of them 1 11 In the study of thermodynamics, which gas is considered as the working substance real gas ideal gas any gas may be ideal or real 1 11 The internal energy of an ideal gas system is generally the translational K.E. of molecules vibrational K.E. of molecules rotional K.E. of molecules 1 11 When two objects are rubbed toghther, their internal energy remains the same decreases remains the same then decreases 1 11 In thermodynamics, internal energy is the function of temperature pressure state 1 11 The internal energy of a system does not depend upon the initial state of the system final state of the system path 1 11 The work done by the system on its environment is considered as positive negative zero 1 11 The work done on the system by the environment is considered as positive negative zero 1 11 If an amount of heat Q enters the system it could decrease the internal energy not change the internalenergy increase the internal energy 1 11 We can express the work in terms of directly measurable variables indirectly measurable variables either of them 1 11 A diatomic gas molecule has translational energy rotational energy vibrational energy 1 11 A bicycle pump provides a good example of first law of thermodynamic s second law of thermodynamic s third law of thermodynamic s 1 11 If 42 J heat is transferred to the system and the work done by the systeme is32 J then what will be the change in internal energy 0J 2J 5J 1 11 the process which is carried out at constant temperature is known as adiabatic process isothermal process isochoric process 1 11 In which process the conditin for the application of Boyle's law on the gas is fulfilled isochoric process adiabatic process isothermal process 1 11 In case of an ideal gas, the P.E. associated with its molecule is maximum speed zero minimum 1 11 A process in which no heat enters or leaves the system is called isochoric process isothermal process adiabatic process 1 12 SI unit of time period is ampere Seconds calorie 1 12 The value of coulomb's constant 'K' depend upon the system of unit used medium between the charges quantity of charges 1 12 the distance between the two charged bodies is halved, the force between them becomes double half four times 1 12 If the distance between the two charged bodies is doubled, the electric force between them will become four times twice half 1 12 Force is a scalarquantity vector quantity constant 1 12 The SI unit of force is joule pound watt 1 12 A metallic conductor conducts electricity because it contains free protons electrons ions 1 12 The value of relative permittivity ?r, in vacuum is 1.6 2 1 1 12 A substance which does not contain free electrons, is called insulator conductor semiconductor 1 12 The value of relative permittivity Єr for different insulator is always greater than unity less than unity slightly less than unity 1 12 the concept of electric field theory was introduced by Kepler Newton Dalton 1 12 The concept of electric field theory was introduced in 1791-1867 1731-1809 1809-1857 1 12 The force per unit charge is known as electric flux electric volt electric potential 1 12 The SI unit of electric field intensity is Coulomb Newton / Coulomb Ampere 1 12 An example of vector quantity is Work Eleectric field intensity speed of electrons 1 12 Which is a vector quantity? Electric charge electric potential difference Electric engergy 1 12 the electric field at a point inspace is equal in magnitude of the potential charge there the electric charge there the force of an electron would experience there 1 12 The unit N/C of electric field intensity is equivalent to Volt/m Weber/m Apere/m 1 12 One volt is 1N/C 1dyne/C 1 Watt/c 1 12 Electric field is a scalar vector constant 1 12 The test charge is always a unit positive charge negative charges nutral 1 12 Electric field lines originate from positive charges to positive charges negative charges test charges 1 13 The SI unit of current is watt coulomb volt 1 13 The charge carriers in electrolyte are positive and negative protons electrons to molecules ions 1 13 The charge carriers in gases are electrons ions protons 1 13 The conventional current in a circuit is defined as "current which passes from a point at higher potential to a point at a lower potential as if it represents a movement of: negative charges positive charges protons 1 13 The speed of randomly moving electrons depends upon pressure volume temperature 1 13 The potential difference across the conductors should be mantained constant by conectng the ends of wire to the terminals of a device called a source of power current resistance 1 13 Solar cell converts sunlight directly into potential energy thermal energy mechanical energy 1 13 Eelctric generators which convert mechanical energy into solar energy thrmal eneregy kinetic eneregy 1 13 The liquid which conduct current is known as heating effect chemicial energy electroyte 1 13 the material in the form of wire or rod or plate which leads the current into or out of the electrolyte is known as voltmeters resistance electrode 1 13 The electrode connected with the positive terminal of the current soure is called cathode anode electrolyte 1 13 The electrode connected with the negative terminal of the current source is called anode electroyte cathode 1 13 Ohm's law state that The current throught a resistor is directly proportional to the applied voltage The voltage across a resistor is directrly proportional to the current passing throught it Resistance is the constant of proportionality betweeen the voltgage and current 1 13 If one volt is needed to cause a current of one ampere to flow in a conductorits resistance is one ohm one joule one volt 1 13 The graphical representation of ohm's law is hyperbola straight line ellipse 1 13 Ohm is the unit of current capacitance energy 1 13 The relation V=IR represents Ampere law Faraday's law Ohm's law 1 13 The ohm's is defined as 1 ampere/ 1 volts 1 coulomb / 1 volt 1 volt/ 1 ampere 1 13 Ohm established a relation between voltage and resistance voltage and charge voltage and current 1 13 If we plot a graph between potential difference (V) and current (I) obeying ohm's law, it will give us parabola straight line hyperbola 1 14 A current carrying conductor is placed at right angle to the magnetic field. The magnetic force experienced by the conductor is minimum speed maximum zero 1 14 a current carrying straight conductor is placed in a magnetic field perpendicular to it. The force experienced by the conductor F=0 F=BIL cos F=BIL 1 14 K' is the proportionality constant of force experienced by conductor. What is the value of 'K' in SI units? O 1 0.5 1 14 a current carrying straight conductor is placed in a magnetic field parallel to it. The force experienced by the conductor is F=0 F=BIL sin F=BIL 1 14 the force acting on a charge moving in a magnetic field is perpendicular to the both magnetic field and direction of motion is proportional to the magnetic of charges vanishes when the motion is directly opposite to the direction of field 1 14 Gauss (G) is smaller unit of magnetic induction which is related to tesla (T) as IT=10-4 G IT=106G IT=103G 1 14 the force acting as one meter length of the conductor placed at right angle to the magnetic field, when one a current is passing through it, defines the magnetic flux magnetic induction magnetic field 1 14 A 5 meter wire carrying a current of 2A is at right angles to the uniform magnetic field of 0.5 Weber/m2. The force on the wire 5N 4N 1.5N 1 14 a relationship between gauss of magnetic induction and Tesla (T) is given by G10-3T G=10-2T G=10-4T 1 14 the SI unit of magnetic induction is gauss tesla weber 1 14 the force exerted on a conductor of length L, carrying current I when placed in a magnetic field B is given by F=IB/L F=LxB/I F=ILxB 1 14 if current through conductor is 1 A and length of conductor is 1m placed at right angle to the magnetic field, then the strength of magnetic field is F=B2 F=0 F=B 1 14 weber is a unit of magnetic flux magnetic filed intensity magnetic induction 1 14 the unit of magnetic flux is weber -m3 weber-m3 Henry 1 14 the total number of lines of magnetic induction pasing through a surface perpendicular to the magnetic field is called magnetic flux magnetic flux density magnetic induction 1 14 the SI unit of flux density is newton/amp- meter Newton- m/Ampere Newton- m/Amp2 1 14 the SI unit of flux density is tesla weber Gaun 1 15 magnetic field do not interact with stationary electric charges moving electric charges stationary permanent magnet 1 15 Electromotive force is most closely related to magnetic flux density electric field intensity inductance 1 15 an induced emf is produced in a circuit when no magnetic flux produced magnetic flux remain constant magnetic flux change 1 15 when a magnet moves away from the coil, a current is again induced in the same direction both the directions same direction but of high magnitude 1 15 current can be induced in a coil by changing the area of the coil, magnetic field is non uniform constant field zero 1 15 the emf induced by the motion of a coductor across a magnetic field is called induced emf magnetic emf induced current 1 15 the emf of a moving conductor behave as a resistance insulator battery 1 15 the motional emf generated in a conductor is directly proportional to the velocity of conductor strength of magnetic field length of conductor 1 15 the experiments show that whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a loop or closed circuit there is always a charge induced an emf induced inductance induced 1 15 inductance is measured in henry voltage and charge Ohm's law 1 15 the motional emf 'vBi Sin developed in a conductor depends upon orientation of the conductor magnetic field and velocity of conductor length of the conductor 1 15 in the equation if motional emf, if the conductor is at rest, then motional emf is strongly eeveloped not strongly eeveloped zero 1 15 the average emf induced in a conducting coil of N loop is equal to negative of the rate at which the magnetic flux through the coil is changing with time is known as Ohm law Faraday's law Coulomb's Law 1 15 according to Faraday's law the total charge induced in a conductor that is moved in magnetic field depend upon change in magnetic flux final magnetic flux initial magnetic flux 1 15 Lenz's law predicts the direction of induced emf the magnitude of induced current the directio of induced current 1 15 a metallic ring is placed on a table, and north pole of a magnet is brought near it. The directio of emf induced in the ring will depend upon length of magnetic direction of motion of magnet speed of magnet 1 15 lenz's law introdued by Russia physicist chines mathematician french chemist 1 15 russian physicist heinrich Lenz gave lenz's law 1900 1834 1824 1 16 the main reason for the word wide use of A.C. is that it can be transmitted to long distance easily and at a high cost easily and at a very low cost at a very high cost 1 16 alternating current is that which is produced by a voltage source whose polarity remains the same keeps on reversing does not change 1 16 the time interval T during which the voltage source changes its polarity once is known as frequency of S.H.M total time time period 1 16 the wave form of alternating voltage is a cosine curve tangent curve sine curve 1 16 the wave form of alternating voltage is curve or graph between voltage and current voltage and time current and time 1 17 there is a regular arrangement of molecules in a amorphous solids polymeric solids crystalline solids 1 17 there is no regular arrangement of molecules in a amorphous solids polymeric solids crystalline solids 1 17 the solids which has structure in between order and disorder are called amorphous solids polymeric solids crystalline solids 1 17 the neighbours of every molecule in cyrstalline solids are arranged in an irregular manner a regular manner any manner 1 17 the vast majority of solids are in the form of amorphous structure polymeric structure crystalline structure 1 17 the molecules or ions in a crystalline solids are static not static randomly moving 1 17 the amplitude of oscillation of each atom in a metallic crystal rises with the rise in temperature decrease in temperature even temperature remains constant 1 17 in metallic crystals which of the following thing remains constant amplitude of oscillations temperature of solid average atomic positions 1 17 the cohesive forces between atoms, molecules or ions in cyrstalline solids maintain the strict short range order long range order both of them 1 17 every crystalline solis has definite melting point different melting points may or may not be definite 1 17 amorphous solids are more like crystalline solids gases liquids 1 17 amorphous solids are also called as crystalline solids polymeric solids glassy solids 1 17 glass is an example of crystalline solids amorphous solid polymeric solid 1 17 synthetic materials fall into the category of crystalline solids amorphous solid polymeric solids 1 17 polymeric solids have low specific gravity high specific gravity either of them 1 17 the smallest three dimesnional basic structure in a crystalline solid is called lattice point crystal lattice cubic crystal 1 17 the crystalline structure of NaCI is rectangular hexagonal tetrahedral 1 17 the ability of the body to return to tis original shape is called deformation stretching compressing 1 17 the results of mechanical tests are usually expressed in terms of stress strain stress and strain 1 17 the force applied on unit area to produce any change in the shape, volume or length of a body is known as strain elasticity stretching 1 17 when a stress changes length, it is called the compressional stress tensile stress share stress 1 17 when a stress changes the volume, it is called the compressional stress tensile stress shear stress 1 18 a p-n junction is formed when a crystal of silicon is grown in such a way that its one half is doped with trivalent impurity and the other hand with a impurity from 2nd group fourth group fifth group 1 18 in n-region of pn-junction, the majority charge carriers are holes electrons to molecules both of them 1 18 in p-region of pn-junction, the majority charge carriers are holes electrons to molecules either of them 1 18 whenever a pn-junction is formed, a chargeless regionis formed around the junction, which is called as p-region n-region free region 1 18 the value of the potential difference across the depletion region for the case of silicon is 0.3 v 0.5 v 0.7 v 1 18 when the +ve terminal of the battery is connected with p-type and -ve terminal with the n-type regio of pn-junction, then the pn- junction is reversed biased forward biased either of them 1 18 when the +ve terminal of the battery is connected the n-type and -ve terminal with the p-type region of pn-junction, then the pn- junction is reversed biased forward biased either of them 1 18 when the pn-junction is forward biased its resistance is of the order of few mega ohms few killo ohms few ohms 1 18 when the pn-junction is reversed biased, the current flows through it is of the order of mili amperes amperes nano amperes 1 18 when the pn-junction is forward biased, the current flows through it is of the order of mili amperes amperes nano amperes 1 18 when the pn-junction is in forward biased, current flows through the junction due to the majority carriers minority carriers either of them 1 18 when the pn-junction is in reversed biased, current flows through the junction due to the majority carriers minority carriers either of them 1 18 when the pn-junction is connected reversed biased, its resistance is of the order of few ohms few kilo ohms few mega ohms 1 18 a diode characteristic curve is a plot between current and time voltage and time voltage and current 1 18 conversion of alternating current into direct current is called amplification rectification conductino 1 18 in half wave rectification, the number of diode used is / are one two three 1 18 the output voltage of half wave rectificatio is in the form of a motth curve a smooth wave pulses 1 18 during the positive half cycle in the half wave rectification, the diode does not conduct conducts either of these 1 18 during the negative half cycle of the half wave rectification, the diode does not conduct conducts either of these 1 18 in half wave rectification, both halves of the input voltage is used only one half of the input voltage is used either of these 1 19 the concept of direction and position are purely absolute relative absolute or relative 1 19 absolute motion cannot be detected in its own frame of references in a different frame of references both in its frame and different frame of references 1 19 an inertial frame of reference is a frame of reference which is at rest moving with uniform velocity either at rest or moving with uniform velocity 1 19 which of the followign is not an example of inertial frame a body placed on the surface of earth a body placed in a car moving with uniform velocity a body placed in a car moving with some acceleration 1 19 the special theory of relativity treats problems involving inertial frame of references accelerating frame of references both of these 1 19 the general theory of relativity treats problems involving inertial frame of references accelerating frame of references both of these 1 19 the special theory of relativity is based on the one postulate two postulates three postulates 1 19 which of the followig is not a postulate of special theory of relativity laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames speed of light in free space has the different value for all observers speed of light in free space has the same value for all observers 1 19 according to the special theory of relaivity, time is absolute quantity not absolute quantity constant quantity 1 19 the speed of a pendulum is measured to be 3.0 s in the inertial reference frame of the pendulum. What is its period measured by an observer moving at a speed of 0.95 c with respect to the pendulum 2.9 s 3.0 s 6.6 s 1 19 the length contraction happens only opposite to the direction of motion along the direction of motion perpendicular to the direction of motion 1 19 if you are moving at relativistic speed between two points that are a fixed distance apart, then the distance between the two points appears larger shorter equal 1 19 a bar 1.0 m in length and located along x- axis moves with a speed of 0.75 c with respect to a stationary observer. The length of the bar as measured by the stationary observer is 1.66 m 1.0 m 0.66 m 1 19 if a body reaches a speed equal to the speed of light, then tis mass will became zero very small infinity 1 19 according to the special theory of relaivity, mass and energy are same entities mass and energy are same entities but interconverible mass and energy are different entities but interconvertible 1 19 the location and speed anywhere on earth can now be determined using relativists effects by NAVISTAR to an accuracy of 2 cm/s 20 cm/s 200 cm/s 1 19 Newton's laws of motion do not hold in an accelerated frame of reference an unaccelerated frame of refeence both of these 1 19 accordign to the special theory of relativity, a moving clock runs faster runs slower neither runs faster nor slower 1 19 at the temperature, a body emits radiation which is principally of long wavelengths and in the visible region of long wavelengths in the invisible infrared region of short wavelengths in invisible ultraviolet region 1 19 at high temperature, the proportion of shorter wavelength radiation, emitted by the body decreases first increases then decreases increases 1 20 the branch of physics which deals with the wavelength and intensities of electromagnetic radiation emitted or absorbed by atoms is called nuclear physics solid state physics spectroscopy 1 20 how many types of spectra present two three one 1 20 black body radiation spectrum is an example of band spectra continuous spectra line spectra 1 20 molecular spectra are the example of band spectra continuous spectra line spectra 1 20 atomic spectra are the example of band spectra continuous spectra line or discrete spectra 1 20 the spectral series was identified by compton einstein rutherfard 1 20 the "spectral series" was identified in 1885 1890 1985 1 20 balmer series has the historical importance because it Lies in the far- ultraviolet region lies in the infra- red region lies in the visible region 1 20 Which one of the followng various series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the ultra-violet region Balmer series Bracket Series Paschen series 1 20 Which of the following is one of the spectral series of atomic hydrogen? Balmer series Bracket series Pfund series 1 20 Which of the following series of hydrogen spectrun lies in the infrared region? Paschen series, Bracket series, Lyman series Paschen series, Bracket series Pfund series Paschen series Pfund series, Lymann series 1 20 When electron inhydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit to first orbit, the set of lines emitted is called Bracket series Pfund series Paschen series 1 20 When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit to third orbit, the set of lines emitted is called Balmer series Bracket series Lyman series 1 20 When electron in hydrogen atom jumps torm higher orbit to fifth orbit, the set of lines emitted is called. Pfund series Paschen series, Bracket series Pfund series Lyman series 1 20 Lyman series is obtained when electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher to lower orbit, where 'n' is equel to 1 2 3 1 20 The Balmer series lies in ultraviolet region infrared region far infrared region 1 20 According to Bohr's atomic model, the energy is radiated in the form of a photon by an atom, whenever one of its electron speed up in its orbit one one of its electron speed down in into orbit one of its electron jumps from a higher energy orbit to lower energy orbit 1 20 According to the Bohr's theory the orbits are amost alleptical the angular momentum of electron is an integral multiple of h/2n the energy of the electron remain constant in all the orbits 1 20 According to the Bohr's atomic model, the electron does not fall into the nucleus because the electrostate attraction is balanced by mechanical force the electron is not a particle the quantum rules do no allow it 1 20 If an electron jumps form lower to higher orbit, it will absorb energy emit energy absorb as well as emit eneregy 1 21 Proton was discovered by Rutherford in 1915 1906 1910 1 21 Neutron was discovered in 1915 1920 1925 1 21 Neutron was discovered by Curie Roentgen Chadwick 1 21 Proton was discovered by Rutherford in Rutherfod Curie Roentgen 1 21 In 1932 chadwick discovered protons neutron photon 1 21 A particle having the mass of electron and charge of a proton is called a photon positron antiproton 1 21 The chemical behaviour of an atom is determined by binding energy atomic number mass number 1 21 According to Rutherford atomic model, the positive charge in an atom is concentrated at its centre is in the form of psotive electron at same distance from its centre is spread uniformly through its volume 1 21 For an atom having atomic number 'Z' and atomic weight 'A' the number of neutrons in the nucleus is A-Z A Z 1 21 The number of protons inside a nucleus is called mass number atomic weight atomic number 1 21 For an atom having atomic number Z and atomic weight A, the charge on the nucleus is A-Z A+Z Z 1 21 For an atom having atomic number Z and atomic weight A, the number of electron in an atoms A-Z A+Z Z 1 21 Structure of the nucleus was explained by J.J. Thomson Bohr Millikan 1 21 Neutrons are positive charge negatively charged massless 1 21 Electrons are positive charged negatively charged massless 1 21 Nuclei that have the same chrge number but different mass number are called isotones isomers isotopes 1 21 How many isotopes of helium are present? 1 2 3 1 21 Hydrogen atom with only one proton is its nucleus, and one electron in its orbit is called deuteron deuterium protium 1 21 Hydrogen atom with only one proton and two neutrons is its nucleus and one electron is called protium deuterium deuteron 1 21 The chemical properties of all the isotopes of an elements are same direction different melting points slightly different 1 2 Scalar is a physical quantity which is completely described by a Number only Direction only Number with proper units 1 2 Which one of the following is a scalar Velocity Acceleration Force 1 2 A vector is a physical quantity which is completely described by Magnitude and direction Magnitude only Direction only 1 2 All the following ar vectors EXCEPT Impulse Momentum Torque 1 2 A vector whose magnitude is one is called Null vector Unit vector Position vector 1 2 Unit vector is used to specify Magnitude of a vector Dimension of a vector Direction of a vector 1 2 A vector having magnitude equal to given vector but in opposite derection is called Unit vector Positive vector Negative vector 1 2 Null vector is a vector having zero magnitude and No direction Specific direction Arbitrary direction 1 2 When two equal and opposite vectors are added then their resultant will have Same magnitude Double magnitude Zero magnitude 1 2 The product ixi is equal to 2 1 -1 1 2 The product ixj is equal to Zero 1 k 1 2 If A = 3i + 4j, then IAI will be 7 5 25 1 2 A vector product is Commutative Associative Additive 1 3 The magnitude of the displacement is a line form initial position to final position which is straight curved either straight or curved 1 3 the displacement coincides with the path of the motion when a body moves in a curved line straight line may be curved or straight 1 3 velocity is a Scalar quantities vector quantity constant quantity 1 3 Dimensions of velocity are [L] [T] [LT-1] 1 3 when we consider the average velocity of a body, then the body is moving in straight line curved path may be in a straight or curved path 1 3 if a ball comes back to its starting point after bouncing off the wall several times, then its total displacements is zero average velocity is zero none of them 1 3 The instantaneous velocity is define as the limiting value of d/t on the time interval t approaches to zero maximum minimum 1 3 if the instantaneous velocity of a body does not change, the body is said to be moving with average velocity uniform velocity instantaneous velocity 1 3 The time rate of change of velocity is known as displacement distance velocity 1 3 acceleration is a scalar quantity imaginary quantity vector 1 3 velocity of a body changes if direction of the body changes speed of the body changes neither speed nor direction changes, 1 3 the direction of the acceleration is the same as that of speed velocity both of them 1 3 acceleratio of a body at any particular instant during its motion is known as average acceleration uniform acceleration instantaneous acceleration 1 3 If the velocity of a body changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have acceleration uniform acceleratin instantaneous acceleration 1 3 when a body is moving with uniform acceleration, its average acceleration is less than instantaneous acceleration greater than instantaneous acceleration equal to instantaneous acceleraiton 1 3 The distance travelled by a body in one second is called speed velocity acceleration 1 4 If the angle 0 between the force and displacement is less than 90, then the work done will be positive negative zero 1 4 If the angle 0 between the force and displacement is equal to 90, then the work done will be positive negative zero 1 4 If the angle 0 between the force and displacement is grater then 90, then the work done will be positive negative zero 1 4 If the displacement occurs in the direction of force, then the work done will be positive negative zero 1 4 the SI Unit of work is N-s N-m2 N-m 1 4 in which of the following, force does not remain constant during the process of doing work (I) a rocket moves away form earth (ii) work done against the force of gravity (iii) force exerted on the spring (I) only (I) and (ii) only (I),(ii) and (iii) only 1 4 A force of 5N applied on a body and the body moves 4.5 meters in the direction of applied force, then the work donw will be 20 N 22.5 N 20J 1 4 The space around the earth in which its gravitational force acts on a body is called Magnetic field electric field electromanetic field 1 4 In the gravitational field, the work done will be negative, if the displacement is in the directin of gravitational force the displacements is against the gravitational force the displacemetn is perpendicular to the gravitational force 1 4 In the gravitational field, the work done will be positive, if the displacement is in the direction of gravitational fonrce the displacements is against the gravitaiotnal force the displacement is perpendicular to the gravitational force 1 4 The gravitational field is non- conservatiove filed conservative field constant field 1 4 work done in Earth's gravitational field is independent of the path followed dependent of the path followed both of them 1 4 the field in which the work done is independent of the path followed or work done in a closed path is zero is called a variable field constant field non conservative field 1 4 What is the correct definition of power ? Doing work the rate of doing work Amount of work 1 4 The unit of power is MKS system of units is Watt Joule Erg 1 4 In British Engineering system of units, one horse power is equal to 742 watts 746 watts 750 watts 1 4 Work energy principle implies that the work done by the applied force is Equal to change in K.E Greater than the change in K.E Less than the change in K.E 1 4 The minimum initial velocity required to take a body out of earth gravitational field is known as Variable velocity Instantaneous velocity Escape velocity 1 4 The Energy released in fission reaction is Tidal energy Solar energy Wind energy 1 5 Motion of a body is called two dimensional if it has Only x- componenet x and y component No Component 1 5 The path of a projectile is determened by Gravitational force Magnetic Force Electric force 1 5 In projecile motion, the horizontal component of velocity Remains constant Changes Increases 1 5 When a projectile moves upwards, its vertical component of velocity Remains constant Decreases Increases 1 5 In a projectile motion, the body has One component of velocity Two components of velocity Three components fo velocity 1 5 The path of a projectile is determened by Parabolic Elliptiacal Circular 1 5 At the highest point, a projectile has its vertical component of velocity equal to Maximum Minimum Horizontal component of velocity 1 5 In a projectile motion, the total time of flight is Twice the time to reach the highest point The time to reach the highest point Half the time to reach the heghest point 1 5 If we want to kill a monkey sitting on the tree we should aim A little above the monkey Straight at the monkey A little below the monkey 1 5 The motion of a body in a circle is called Rectilinear motion Vibratory motion Angular motion 1 2 The physical quantity which produces angular acceleration in a body is called force Centripetal force Gravitational force 1 2 The turning effect of a force about a certain point is called Momentum Angular momentum Torque 1 2 Torque is the resultant of Dot product of force and moment arm Simple product of force and moment arm Cross product of force and moment arm 1 2 When direction of both r and F are reversed then Torque does not change Torque change Magnitude of torque changes 1 2 Torque is a Scalar quantity Vector quantity Quantity which produces linear acceleration 1 2 Clock-wise torque is taken as Positive Negative Nither +ve nor - ve 1 2 The torque is also called as Moments of inertia Moment of momentum Moment of force 1 2 In a couple, the resultant of two forces is 2 F F 2 / F 1 2 A couple acting on a body will only Accelerate the body Vibrate the body about certain axis Rotate the body about certain axis 1 2 Torque is the product between force and Distance Velocity Moment arm 1 2 The centre of gravity of an irregular shaped body lies at The centre of the body The axis of rotation of the body The point of intersection of lines drawn vertically from various position of the body 1 2 The centre of gravity of a cylinder is at The centre of the top of the cylinder The centre of the bottom of the cylinder A point on curved side of the cylinder 1 2 The centre of gravity of a triangular plate is at One end of the plate The interectionof the medians The mid point of any side of the plate 1 2 Angular momentum is defined as The quantity of matter in a body The quantity of motion in a body The moment of force in a body 1 2 The Rate of change of angular momentum of a body is equal to Impulsive force Applied force Moment of inertia 1 9 The wave nature of light was verified by Thomas young Huygen Newton 1 9 Which one of the following properties of light does not depend upon the nature of the medium Velocity Wavelength Amplitude 1 9 Which one of the following properties prove the transverse nature of light Interference Diffraction Polarization 1 9 Which one of the following is nearly monochromatic Light from candle Light from simple lamp Light from sodium lamp 1 9 Young's Double slit experiment can be used to determine Wave length of monochromatic light Distance between the slits Fringe spacing 1 9 A thin layer of oil on the surface of water appears colored becouse of Interference of waves Polarization Reflection 1 9 Michelson's Interferometer is usually used to determine Wavelength of light Velocity of light Frequency of light 1 9 A monochromatic light of wavelenght 500 nm is incident normally on a diffraction grating having 200 lines per millimeter, the maximum number of order visible on one side will be 20 15 10 1 9 Which one of the following is used to measure the wave length of X-rays Young's Double slit experiment Diffraction grating Bragg's Law 1 9 which one of the following properties is not found in both sound and light Interference of waves Diffraction Polarization 1 9 In monochromatic red light a blue book will appear Blue Red Black 1 9 Polaroids can be used To control head light glare in night driving To determine the concentration of optically active substance In curtain less window to adjust the amount of light 1 10 A refracting substance boinded by one or two spherical surfaces is called Mirrow Prism Lens 1 10 A lens which is thicker in the middle and thinner at the edges is called Concave lens Convex lens Convex- Concave lens 1 10 A lens which diverges a beam of parallel rays of light is called Convex lens Concave lens Convex- Concave lens 1 10 A straight line passing through centers of curvature of the two spherical surfaces of a lens is called Diameter of the lens Radius of the lens Principal axis 1 10 A point on the surface of the mirror where principal axis meets is called Focus Centre of curvature Pole 1 10 The centre of the lens through which a ray of light does not change its direction is knowns as Optical centre Focus Centre of curvature 1 10 The diameter of a lens is called Principal axis Principal focus Aperture 1 10 The unit of power of lens is Meter Watt Horsepower 1 10 Power of a lens is one dioptre if its focal length is 1 meter 2 meter 1/2 meter 1 10 when the object is placed at 2f of convex lens then the image formed behind the lens will be At the focus At 2f Beyond 2f 1 10 when the object is placed at principal focus of a convex lens then the image is formed at Same distance Infinity Same side of lens 1 10 A double convex lens acts as a diverging lens when the object is placed At the focus At 2f Between f and 2f 1 10 If the focal length of an objective and eye- piece of a telescope are 5cm and 1cm respectively then its length will be 8 cm 4 cm 6 cm 1 10 If the size of the image is twice that of object then q = 2p q = p q = p / 2 1 10 1 10 1 10 1 1 Which one is not a branch of physical sciences? Chemistry Astronomy Geology 1 1 Which branch of science plays an important role in the development of technology and engineering? Chemistry Physics Geology 1 1 The number of categories in which physical quantities are divided are ----------- One Two Three 1 1 How many types of units are in SI? One Two Three 1 1 In scientific notation numbers are expressed in----------- Power of ten Powers of two Reciprocal 1 1 The error in measurement may occur due to- -------------- Inexperience of a person The faulty apparatus Inappropriate method 1 1 The uncertainty in a measurement may occur due to------------- Limitation of an instrument Natural variation of the object to be measured Inadequate of technique 1 1 Random error can be reduced by ________________ taking zero correction comparing the instrument with another more accurate one taking mean of several measurement 1 1 In any measurement the significant figures are_______________ all accurately known and all doubtful digit only accurately known digits only doubtful digits 1 1 A digit zero in a measurement _______________ may be significant may not significant always significant always insignificant 1 1 Number of significant figures in 0.017 are ______________ three four five 1 1 Smaller the least count of the instrument more is the Measurement__________ accurate precise accurate and precise 1 1 Dimensional analysis is helpful for ________________ deriving a possible formula checking the homogeneity of a physical equation verification of laws 1 1 Three students measured length of a needle with meter rod and recorded as (i)0.2145m (ii) 0.21m (iii) 0.214 m Which one is correct record? only (i) only (ii) only (iii) 1 1 Absolute uncertainty in a measurement depends upon_______________ magnitude of the measurement least count of the instrument percentage error in the measurement 1 1 steradian is the SI unit of ________________ Plane angle Solid angle Both plane angle and solid angle 1 1 An ideal standard of measurement of a base quantity has characteristics____________ accessible invariable transportable 1 1 Total uncertainty, in result obtained from the subtraction of two measurements, is equal to-------------- Sum of their absolute uncertainties Difference of their absolute uncertainties Product of their absolute uncertainties 1 1 Which one is the highest power multiple? Giga Beta Mega 1 1 The unit of force is------------ and its symbol is---------. Which is the correct pain? Newton,n Newton,N newton,n 1 1 How many main frontiers of fundamental science? 1 2 3 1 1 Which one is the derived quantity in SI units? Electric current Electric charge Plane angle 1 1 Zero error of the instrument is a type of ------- ------ Random error Personal error Systematic error 1 1 In multiplication and division of measurement------------ Percentage uncertainties are added Absolute uncertainties are added Percentage uncertainties are divided 1 1 The Number of significant figures in 5.400 are Three Five Two 1 1 To reduce the uncertainty in the timing experiment Use highly precise instrument Conduct at room temperature Count more number of vibration 1 1 The number of significant figures in the length of a bar 6200mm measured by meter rod are Four Three Two 1 17 A ferromagnetic will become fully magnetized at High voltage A.C Low voltage A.C Alternating current at its peak value 1 17 Coercive force is the force which opposes ____________ Demagnetizatio n Breakage Extension 1 17 Materials in which valence electrons are tightly bound to their atoms at low temperature are called ____ _____ Semi conductor Super conductors insulators 1 17 The bulk properties of materials such as their mode of fracture, can be related to their ____________ Polymerization Cleavage Microstructure 1 17 The angular position of cells remains the same for a sample of a crystal. This property is called _ _________ Isotropy Cleavage Homogeneity 1 17 The breaking of crystals along definite direction is called __________ Cleavage Symmetry Isotropy 1 17 If the density of atoms remain same along any direction in a crystal is called ___________ Symmetry Homogeneity Isotropy 1 17 In simple cube, one atom or molecule lies at its _______ Force corners Nine corners Eight corners 1 17 The band theory of solids explains satisfactorily the nature of _________ Electrical insulators alone Electrical conductors alone Electrical semi conductors alone 1 17 A vacant or partially filled band is called __________ Conduction band Valence band Forbidden band 1 17 A completely filled band is called _________ Conduction band Valence band Forbidden band 1 17 The electrons in conduction band are free to ___________ Transport vibrations Transport signals Transport charge 1 17 Which one has the greatest energy gap? Semi conductor Conductor Metals 1 17 Many of the semi conductors are crystals of the type ___________ Face centred cubic Body centred cubic Simple cubic 1 17 With increase in temperature the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semi conductor Decreases Increases Remains same 1 17 Holes can exist in______________ Conductors Insulators Semi conductors 1 17 On the basis of band theory of solids, the semiconductors have___________ A partly filled valence band and totally empty conduction band A completely filled valence band a totally empty conduction band and a very wide forbidden band A completely filled valence band, a partially filled conduction band and a narrow forbidden band 1 17 In a semiconductors, the charge carriers are____________ Holes only Electrons only Electron and holes both 1 17 The net charge on n-type material is ______________ Positive Negative Both positive and negative 1 17 Very weak magnetic fields are detected by___________ Squids Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Magnetometer 1 10 1 10 1 10 1 10 1 11 The pressure exerted by the geas is directly proportional to the P.E. inversely proportional to the P.E. inversely proportional to the K.E. 1 11 The ideal gass law is P=nRT V=nRT PV=RT 1 11 The absolute temperature for an ideal gas is directly proportional to the rotational K.E. olf gas molecules. directly proportional to the vibrational K.E. of gas molecules directly proportional to the average translational K.E. of gas molecules 1 11 Internal energy is the sum of all the forms of K.E. P.E. both of them 1 11 In the study of thermodynamics, which gas is considered as the working substance real gas ideal gas any gas may be ideal or real 1 11 The internal energy of an ideal gas system is generally the translational K.E. of molecules vibrational K.E. of molecules rotional K.E. of molecules 1 11 When two objects are rubbed toghther, their internal energy remains the same decreases remains the same then decreases 1 11 In thermodynamics, internal energy is the function of temperature pressure state 1 11 The internal energy of a system does not depend upon the initial state of the system final state of the system path 1 11 The work done by the system on its environment is considered as positive negative zero 1 11 The work done on the system by the environment is considered as positive negative zero 1 11 If an amount of heat Q enters the system it could decrease the internal energy not change the internalenergy increase the internal energy 1 11 We can express the work in trms of directly measurable variables idirectly measurablevari ables either of them 1 11 A diatomic gas molecule has translational energy rotational energy vibrational energy 1 11 A bicycle pump provides a good example of first law of thermodynamic s second law of thermodynamic s third law of thermodynamic s 1 11 If 42 J heat is transferred to the system and the work done by the systeme is32 J then what will be the change in internal energy 0J 2J 5J 1 11 the process which is carried out at constant temperature is known as adiabatic process isothermal process isochoric process 1 11 In which process the conditin for the application of Boyle's law on the gas is fulfilled isochoric process adiabatic process isothermal process 1 11 In case of an ideal gas, the P.E. associated with its molecule is maximum speed zero minimum 1 11 A process in which no heat enters or leaves the system is called isochoric process isothermal process adiabatic process 1 19 the concept of direction and position are purely absolute relative absolute or relative 1 19 absolute motion cannot be detected in its own frame of references in a different frame of references both in its frame and different frame of references 1 19 an inertial frame of reference is a frame of reference which is at rest moving with uniform velocity either at rest or moving with uniform velocity 1 19 which of the followign is not an example of inertial frame a body placed on the surface of earth a body placed in a car moving with uniform velocity a body placed in a car moving with same acceleration 1 19 the special theory of relativity treats problems involving inertial frame of references accelerating frame of references both of these 1 19 the general theory of relativity treats problems involving inertial frame of references accelerating frame of references both of these 1 19 the special theory of relativity is based on the one postulate two postulates three postulates 1 19 which of the followig is not a postulate of special theory of relativity laws of physics are the same inall inertial frames speed of light in free space has the different value for al lobservers speed of light in free space has the same value for all observers 1 19 according to the special theory of relaivity, time is absolute quantity not absolute quantity constant quantity 1 19 the speed of a pendulum is measured to be 3.0 s in the inertial reference frame of the pendulum. What is its period measured by an observer moving at a speed of 0.95 c with respect to the pendulum 2.9 s 3.0 s 6.6 s 1 19 the length contraction happens only opposite to the direction of motion along the direction of motion perpendicular to the direction of motion 1 19 if you are moving at relativistic speed between two points that are a fixed distance apart, then the distance between the two points appears larger shorter equal 1 19 a bar 1.0 m in length and located along x- axis moves with a speed of 0.75 c with respect to a stationary observer. The length of the bar as measured by the stationary observer is 1.66 m 1.0 m 0.66 m 1 19 if a body reaches a speed equal to the speed of light, then tis mass will became zero very small infinity 1 19 according to the special theory of relaivity, time is mass and energy are same entities mass and energy are same entities but interconverible mass and energy are different entities but interconvertible 1 19 the location and speed anywhere on earth can now be determined using relativists effects by NAVISTAR to an accuracy of 2 cm/s 20 cm/s 200 cm/s 1 19 Newton's laws of motion do not hold in an accelerated frame of reference an unaccelerated frame of refeence both of these 1 19 accordign to the special theory of relativity, a moving clock runs faster runs slower neither runs faster nor slower 1 19 at the temerature, a body emits radiation which is principally of long wavelengths and in the visible region of long wavelengths in the invisible infrared region of short wavelengths in invisible ultraviolet region 1 19 at high temperature, the proportion of shorter wavelength radiation, emitted by the body decreases first increases then decreases increases 1 20 the branch of physics which deals with the wavelength and intensities of electromagnetic radiation emitted or absorbed by atoms is called nuclear physics solid state physics spectroscopy 1 20 how many types of spectra present two three one 1 20 black body radiatio spectrum is an example of band spectra continuous spectra line spectra 1 20 molecular spectra are the example of band spectra continuous spectra line spectra 1 20 atomic spectra are the example of band spectra continuous spectra line or discrete spectra 1 20 the spectral series was identified by compton einstein rutherfard 1 20 the "spectral series" was identified in 1885 1890 1985 1 20 balmer series has the historical importance because it lies in the far- ultraviolet region lies in the infra- red region lies in the visible region 1 20 Which one of the followng various series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the ultra-violet region Balmer series Bracket Series Paschen series 1 20 Which of the following is one of the spectral series of atomic hydrogen? Balmer series Bracket series Pfund series 1 20 Which of the following series of hydrogen spectrun lies in the infrared region? Paschen series, Bracket series, Lyman series Paschen series, Bracket series Pfund series Paschen series Pfund series, Lymann series 1 20 When electron inhydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit to first orbit, the set of lines emitted is called Bracket series Pfund series Paschen series 1 20 When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher orbit to third orbit, the set of lines emitted is called Balmer series Bracket series Lyman series 1 20 When electron in hydrogen atom jumps torm higher orbit to fifth orbit, the set of lines emitted is called. Pfund series Paschen series, Bracket series Pfund series Lyman series 1 20 Lyman series is obtained when electron in hydrogen atom jumps from higher to lower orbit, where 'n' is equel to 1 2 3 1 20 The Balmer series lies in ultraviolet region infrared region far infrared region 1 20 According to Bohr's atomic model, the energy is radiated in the form of a photon by an atom, whenever one of its electron speed up in its orbit one one of its electron speed down in into orbit one of its electron jumps from a higher energy orbit to lower energy orbit 1 20 According to the Bohr's theory the orbits are amost alleptical the angular momentum of electron is an integral multiple of h/2n the energy of the electron remain constant in all the orbits 1 20 According to the Bohr's atomic model, the electron does not fall into the nucleus because the electrostate attraction is balanced by mechanical force the electron is not a particle the quantum rules do no allow it 1 20 I f an electron jumps form lower to higher orbit, it will absorb energy emit energy absorb as well as emit eneregy 1 21 Radiations emitted by unstable nuclei are Heat X-rays Light 1 21 Charge on alpha particle is equal to the charge on the nucleus of Hydrogen Helium Lithium 1 21 Alpha particles are highly ionizing because of Two protons Low speed Low energy 1 21 Which one of the following are highly penetrating Gamma rays Beta particles Alpha Particles 1 21 Solid state detector basically is A pnp transistor A npn transistor PN-junction diode 1 21 Cancerous tissues in a thyroid gland can be detected by the intake of Radio iodine Radio sodium Radio carbon 1 21 The tumors are irradiated by Protons Gamma rays Beta particles 1 21 Range of alpha particle in air is about 50 cm 40 cm 7 cm 1 21 Neutron penetrate matter readily and chiefly because they are Neutral Equal mass to proton Slow moving 1 21 which one of the following is the most useful tracer Strontium - 90 Carbon - 14 Lodine - 131 1 1 The number 76.8 is rounded off up to two significant figures as 76.8 77 76.9 1 2 Rectangular coordinate system is also called- ---------------- Polar coordinate system Cartesian coordinate system Cylindrical coordinate system 1 2 The direction of a vector in space is specified by------------ One angle Two angle Three angle 1 2 Addition of vector obey-------------------- Commutative law Distributive law Associative law 1 2 A vector can be multiplied by a number. The number may be--------- dimensionless dimensional scalar negative 1 2 Maximum number of rectangular components is------------- One Two Three 1 2 Maximum number of components of a vector may be---------- One Two Three 1 2 Which one is not correct for a vector A= √2 i٨ + √2 j?٨ Has direction θ=45o with x- axis Has magnitude 2 Has magnitude 2 and direction θ=45o with y- axis 1 2 Two vectors A and B are making angle θ with each other. The scalar projection of vector B on vector A is written as___________________ A.B /A A.B/ B A. cos θ 1 2 The direction of vector product is given by_______________ Head to tail rule Right hand rule Left hand rule 1 2 If east, west, north, south, up and down are representing the direction of unit vector, then east x south has direction along______________ West North Down 1 2 Null vector is vector which has____________ Zero magnitude No specified direction Both a and b are correct 1 2 Zero magnitude Their dot product Their cross product Head to tail rule 1 2 Torque is defined as---_______________ Turning effect of force Cross product of position vector and force Product of force and moment arm 1 2 SI unit of torque is_______________ N.m Joule Both a and b are correct 1 2 Torque acting on a body determines___________ Acceleration Linear acceleration Angular acceleration 1 2 A body in equilibrium_________ Always at rest Always in uniform motion May be at rest or in uniform motion 1 2 Which one is not a type of dynamic equilibrium? Rotational equilibrium Translational equilibrium Static equilibrium 1 2 Three coplanar forces acting on a body keep it in equilibrium. They should therefore be ___________________ Concurrent Non concurrent Parallel 1 2 Which of the following pairs does not have identical dimensions Torque and energy Momentum and impulse Energy and work 1 2 A central force is that which_______________ Can produce torque Can‟t produce torque Some time can produce torque some time can‟t 1 2 It is easier to turn a steering wheel with both hands than with a single hand because_______________ Accelerating force increases on the wheel Two forces act on the wheel Two hands provide firm grip 1 3 When body is in motion, ____________ always changes. its velocity its acceleration its position vector 1 3 a body is moving in uniform velocity, its _________ its speed changes acceleration changes direction of motion changes 1 3 a man is in a car moving with the velocity of 36Km/hr. his speed with respect to the car is 10m/s 36m/s Zero 1 3 when velocity time graph is straight line parallel to time axis then___________ acceleration is constant acceleration is variable acceleration is zero 1 3 Area under velocity time graph represent____________ force displacement distance 1 3 Slope of velocity time graph is __________ acceleration distance force 1 3 Instantaneous and average velocities become equal when body__________ has zero acceleration has uniform acceleration has variable acceleration 1 3 Inertia of an object is quantitative measure of its___________ volume density mass 1 3 Newton,s law do not hold good for particles----------_____________ at rest moving slowly moving with high velocity 1 3 Momentum depends upon ____________ force acts on a body mass of a body velocity of a body 1 3 When a body moves in a straight line then its displacement coincides with distance force acceleration 1 3 Which of the following pair has same direction always? force, displacement force , velocity force, acceleration 1 3 Motorcycle safety helmet extends the time of collision hence decreasing the _________ chance of collision force acting velocity 1 3 the collision between two bodies of elastic if bodies are ______________ solid and soft solid and elastic solid and hard 1 3 During long jump, athlete runs before taking the jump. By doing so he __________ provide him a larger inertia decresing his inertia decreses his momentum 1 3 When car takes turn around a curve road, the passengers feel a force acting on them in a direction away from the center of the curve. It is due to_____________ centripetal force gravitational force their inertia 1 3 a body is falling freely under gravity. How much distance it falls during an interval of time between 1st and 2nd seconds of its motion, taking g=10? 14 m 20 m 5 m 1 3 What is the shape of velocity time graph of constant acceleration? straight inclined line parabola inclined curve 1 3 When collision between the bodies in a system is inelastic in nature then for system_______________ momentum changes but K.E remain conserve K.E changes but momentum remains conserve both momentum and K.E changes 1 3 the acceleration in the rocket at any instant is proportional to the nth power of velocity of the expelled gases. Where the value of n must be ? -1 1 2 1 3 Which of the following is not an example of projectile motion. a gas filled balloon bullet fired from gun a football kicked 1 3 What is the angle of projection for which the range and maximum height become equal? 1 3 the trust on the rocket in the absence of gravitational force of attraction is ___________ constant not constant constant if the rate of ejected gases is constant 1 3 Flight of rocket in the space is an example of_____________ Second law of motion Third law of motion First law of motion 1 3 The trajectory or path of projectile is _________________ straight line parabola hyperbola 1 3 Time rate of change of momentum is equal to force impulse velocity 1 3 Why ballistic missile fails in some circumstances of precision. due to their shape due to air resistance due to angle of projection 1 4 . A field in which the work done is moving a body along closed path is zer is called _______________ electric field conservative field electromagneti c field 1 4 . when a force is parallel to the direction of motion of the body , then work done on the body is _____________ zero minimum infinity 1 4 . which of the following type of force can do not work on the practical on which it acts? frictional force gravitational force elastic force 1 4 the average power and instantaneous power become equal if work is done at ___________ any rate at variable rate at uniform rate 1 4 Slope of work time graph is equal to ___________ displacement acceleration power 1 4 work done by variable force is determine by dividing ____________ force into small interval displacement into small interval both force and displacement into small interval 1 4 work done on the body equal to the ______________ change is its K.E energy always change in its P.E Always change in its K.E and change in its P.E 1 4 The escape velocity of a body in gravitational field of earth is Of_________________ a) its mass the angle at which its is thrown Both its mass and the angle at which it is thrown 1 5 The rotational K.E of hoop is equal to the ----- ------------- Its translational K.E Half than its translational K.E Double than its translational K.E 1 5 Geo-stationary satellite completes one rotation around earth in------------- 3 hour 6 hours 12 hours 1 5 Radius of geo-stationary orbit from center of earth is nearly-------------- 42000km 36000km 24000km 1 5 According to Einstein, the gravity interaction is possible between------------ Material objects only Material objects only Material objects and electromagneti c radiation only 1 5 The direction of linear velocity of body moving in a circle is---------------- Along the axis of rotation Along the tangent Directed towards the center 1 5 When a body is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of string the centripetal force is supplied by---------- Mass of a body Velocity of body Tension in the string 1 5 Centripetal force performs----------- Maximum work Minimum work Negative work 1 5 A stone is whirled in a vertical circle at the end of a string. When the stone is at the highest position the tension in the string is---- ----------- Maximum Zero Equal to the weight of the stone 1 5 The span of broad jumps depends upon------- ----- Mass of the jumper Height of jumps Angle of projection 1 5 In case of planets the necessary acceleration is provided by ------------- Gravitation force Frictional force Coulomb force 1 5 A body can have constant velocity when it follows a ---------------- Elliptical path Circular path Parabolic path 1 5 A cyclist cycling around a circular racing track, skids because----------- The centripetal force upon him is less than limiting friction The centripetal force upon him is greater then limiting friction The centripetal force upon him is equal to the limiting friction 1 5 What is outward force acting on a mass of 10kg when rotating at one end of an inelastic string 10m long at speed of 1m/s? 1N 10N 2N 1 5 If we whirl a stone at the end of a string in the vertical circle, it is likely to break when the stone is--------- At the highest point At lowest point At any point during motion 1 5 Who discovered the inverse square law for gravity? Einstein Galileo Newton‟s 1 5 The planet nearest to the earth is---------------- -- Venus Mercury Uranus 1 5 A satellite moving round the earth constitutes--------------------- An inertial frame of reference Non intertial frame Neither incertial nor non inertial 1 5 minimum number of communication satellites required to cover the whole earth is- ---------------------- 4 3 2 1 5 A body of 2kg is suspended form the ceiling of an elevator moving up with an acceleration g. its apparent weight in the elevator will be---------- 9.8N 19.6N 129.4N 1 5 If a body of mass 10kg is allowed to fall freely, its weight becomes----------------- zero 89N 9.8N 1 5 How many days would be in a year if the distance between the earth and the sun were reduced to half of its present value (assuming circular orbit)? 365 days 730days 329 days 1 5 When a body is moving along a circular, path, it covers a certain angle in a given internal of time. Such type of motion is--------- ---- Vibratory motion Linear motion Rotatory motion 1 6 Coefficient of viscosity of honey is greater than------------------ Milk Water Tar coal 1 6 Terminal velocity is-------------------- Uniform Maximum Uniform and maximum 1 6 When body moves with terminal velocity the acceleration in the body become----------------- ----------- Zero Maximum Variable 1 6 Terminal velocity of the body is directly proportional to the ------------------- Radius of the body Diameter of the body Size of the body 1 6 The flow of ideal fluid is always------------------- --- Turbulent Streamline Irregular 1 6 Drag force is given by------------------------- Newton‟s law Pascal‟s law Gauss‟s law 1 6 When fluid is incompressible then--------------- - Velocity of the fluid is constant Flow of the fluid is straight line Density of the fluid is constant 1 6 Irregular flow of fluid is called------------------- Streamline Turbulent Uniform 1 6 Equation of continuity is obtained by apply in law of conservation of-------------- Mass Energy Momentum 1 6 Velocity of fluid increases where the pressure is------------------- Low High Constant 1 6 Speed of efflux can be determined by applying---------------- Bernoulli‟s theorem Torricelli‟s theorem‟ Venture relation 1 6 Blood vessels are--------------------- Rigid Not rigid Of glass 1 6 Concentration of red cells in blood is about--- ---------- 25% 40% 50% 1 6 A man standing near a fast moving train may fall------------------ On the train Away from the train Towards the train 1 6 For which position, maximum blood pressure in the body have the smallest value? Standing straight Sitting on chair Sitting on ground 1 6 Two fog droplets have radius 2:3 their terminal velocities are---------------- 04:06 04:09 02:09 1 6 Bernoulli‟s equation is obtained by applying law of conservation of ----------------- Mass Energy momentum 1 6 Venturi meter is used to measure_____________________ Fluid pressure Fluid density Fluid speed 1 6 In Cricket when a bowler produce reverse swing, the ball will move towards______________ Shinning side of the ball Rough side Seam of the ball 1 6 Stokes law is applicable if body has_______________ shape Rough Square Circular 1 6 Systolic pressure is called_________________ Low blood pressure High blood pressure Normal blood pressure 1 6 Instrument used to measure blood pressure is called______________ Venturimeter Blood pressure Sphygmomano rmeter 1 6 A chimney works best if air exposed to the chimney is _______________ Stationary Moving Moving slowly 1 6 The effect of the decrease in pressure with the increase of the speed of fluid in a horizontal pipe is known as_____________________ Bernoulli‟s effect Torricelli‟s effect Venture 1 6 Ideal fluid is _________________ Non-viscous Incompressible Steady flow 1 6 Laminar flow usually occurs at speeds. Low High Very high 1 6 For __________ flow the path of the fluid particles cannot be tracked Laminar Streamline Turbulent 1 6 Sphygmomanometers measures blood pressure. Statically Dynamically Some time static and some time dynamic 1 6 Carburetor of a car is a application of Venturi meter Bernoull‟s equation Both (a) and (b) 1 6 The blood flow is __________________ flow at disystolic pressure Laminar Turbulent Mixed 1 6 The profile of aero plane wing which lifts it up is called as Wing shape Aerofoil profile Curved profile 1 6 Bernoullis equation is applicable for Laminar flow Turbulent flow Both laminar and turbulent flow 1 6 The density of human blood is nearly equal to Water Honey Mercury 1 6 The speed of the fluid is maximum in the venturimeter at Convergent duct Divergent duct Throat 1 6 The normal blood pressure range for an human body is 120 to 80 torr 100 to 80 torr 120 to 60 torr 1 7 In vibratory remains motion------------ P.E remains constant K.E remain constant Total energy remain constant 1 7 The waveform of S.H.M. is-------------- Standing wave Sine wave Square wave 1 7 In S.H.M. the velocity of particle is maximum at------------------ Mean position Extreme position Middle between mean and extreme position on the right side 1 7 Total energy of a body executing S.H.M is directly proportional to ------------- Square root of amplitude The amplitude Reciprocal of amplitude 1 7 the time period of a seconds pendulum is ---- ------------- 4 seconds 3 seconds 2 seconds 1 7 The length of second pendulum is--------------- ---- 100cm 99cm 99.2cm 1 7 If length of second pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become__________________ Four times Six times Eight 1 7 The force responsible for the vibratory motion of the somple pendulum is _____________ Mg cosθ Mg sinθ Mg tanθ 1 7 The frequency of the second pendulum is ___________________ 1 hertz 0.5 hertz 1.5 hertz 1 7 Simple harmonic motion is a type of ___________________ Rotational motion Circular motion Musical arrangement 1 7 The SI unit of force constant is identical with that of ______________ Force Pressure Surface tension 1 7 When the amplitude of a wave become double, its energy become_________ Double Four times One half 1 7 A simple pendulum suspended form the ceiling of a lift has time period T when the lift is at rest. When the lift falls freely, the time period is _____________ Infinite T/g Zero 1 7 The energy of SHM is Maximum at_______________ Mean position Extreme position In between mean and extreme 1 7 The prduct of requency and time period is equal to _____________ 1 2 3 1 7 Sharpness of resonance is _____________ Derectly proportional to damping force Inversely proportional ro damping force Equal to square of damping force 1 7 Which one does not work according to resonance? T.V Radio Microwave oven 1 7 The restoring force acting on simple pendulum is given by ______________ Mg sing θ –mg sing θ Mg cos θ 1 7 Phase of SHM describes_________________ Displacement only Direction motion only Both displacement and direction of motion 1 7 Natural frequency of simple pendulum depends upon____________ Its mass Its length Square of its length 1 7 Electrical resonance is observed in ________________ Radio Microwave oven Both in radio and microwave oven 1 7 Total distance traveled by bob of simple pendulum in one vibration is equal to _____________ Amplitude Square of amplitude 2 x amplitude 1 7 When K.E energy of SHM is maximum, is _________________ P.E is zero Acceleration is zero Restoring force is zero 1 7 In damped harmonic oscillation, which one decreases? Amplitude of vibration Energy of vibration Both amplitude and energy 1 7 Forced vibration are known as_________________ Simple harmonic vibration Natural vibration Driven harmonic vibration 1 7 Mass attached to a spring executes. Vibratory motion Rotatory motion S.H.M 1 7 At Murree Hills (Assume value of g changes). If we use a simple pendulum as time standard then one second duration will. Increase Decrease Remains same 1 7 The velocity of the mass attached to a spring is maximum at Mean position Extreme position Both (a) and (b) 1 7 The projection of the particle moving in a circle with non-uniform speed executes. S.H.M Vibratory Both (b) and (d) 1 7 Displacement of the body in S.H.M is equal to amplitude when body is at Mean position Else where Extreme position 1 7 For a simple pendulum the restoring force is caused by Gravity Spring Hand 1 7 The distance covered by a body in one complete vibration is 20cm. what is the amplitude of body 10cm 5cm 15cm 1 7 In case of a simple pendulum, the cause of damping is Drag force of air Gravity Tension in string 1 8 Waves transmit ______________from one place to another. Energy Mass Both 1 8 The waves that require a material medium for their propagation are called _____________ Matter waves Electromagneti c waves Carrier 1 8 The distance between any two consecutive crests or troughs is called _________ Frequency Period Wave length 1 8 When two identical traveling waves are superimposed, the velocity of the resultant wave__________________ Decreases Increased Remains unchanged 1 8 In vibrating cord the points where the amplitude is maximum, are called______ Antinodes Nodes Troughs 1 8 If stretching force T of wire increases, then its frequency ___________ Decreases Increases Remains the same 1 8 A stationary wave is set up in the air column of a closed pipe. At the closes end of the pipe__________________ Always an node is formed Always an antinode is formed Neither node nor antinode is formed 1 8 It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves form the property of _____________________ Refraction Polarization Interference 1 8 According to Newton sound travel in air under the conditions of ___________ Adiabatic Isothermal Isobaric 1 8 Sound waves do not travel in vacuum because _________________ They are transverse waves They are stationary waves They require material medium for propagation 1 8 The velocity of sound is greatest in __________________ Water Air Copper 1 8 On loading the prong of a tuning from with wax, its frequency _________ Increases Decreases Remains unchanged 1 8 The normal ear is the most sensitive in the frequency range____________ 20,000 to 30,000 hertz 10 to 20 hertz 2000 to 4000 hertz 1 8 Ultrasonic have________________ Frequency in the audible range Frequency in grater than 20 KHz Frequency lower than 20 Hz 1 8 The periodic alternation of sound between maximum and minimum loudness are called_________________ Silence zone Interference Beats 1 8 The number of beats produced per second is equal to _____________ The sum of the frequencies of two tuning forks The difference of the frequencies of two tuning forks The ratio of the frequencies of two tuning forks 1 8 Beats are the results of __________________ Diffraction of sound waves Constructive and destructive interference Polarization 1 8 Silence zone takes place due to________________ Constructive interference Destructive interference Beats 1 8 Doppler effect applies to __________________ Sound wave only Light wave only Both sound and light waves 1 8 When the source of sound moves away form a stationary listener, then ____________ occurs. An apparent increase in frequency An apparent decrease in frequency An apparent decrease in wavelength 1 8 A simple pendulum has a bob of mass „m‟ and its frequency is „f‟. if we replaced the bob with heavier one, say of „2m‟, then what will be its new frequency? 1 /4f 1 /2f F 1 8 in open organ pipe___________ only even harmonics are present only odd harmonics are present both even and odd harmonics are present 1 9 Optical active crystals rotates the __________ Vibrating plane Polarization plane Diffraction plane 1 9 Which is not optically active? Sugar Tartaric acid Water 1 9 In double slit experiment, we observe___________ Interference fringes only Diffraction fringes only Both interference and diffraction fringes 1 9 When light incident normally on thin film, the path difference depends upon____________ Thickness of the film only Nature of the film only Angle of incidence of only 1 9 Which one of the following properties of light does not change with the nature of the medium? Velocity Wavelength Amplitude 1 9 Light reaches the earth form sun in nearly----- --------------- 15 minutes 10minutes 8 minutes 1 9 Photoelectric effect was given by---------------- -- Hertz Fresnel Einstein 1 9 According to Einstein, light travels form one place to another in the form of ----------- Waves Particles Photons 1 9 Longitudinal waves do not exhibit---------------- ---------- Reflection Refraction Diffraction 1 9 Central spot of Newton‟s rings-------------------- - Bright Dark for large wavelength Dark 1 9 A point source of light placed in a homogeneous medium gives rise to------------ -- A cylindrical wave front An elliptical wave front A spherical wave front 1 9 The locus of all points in a medium having the same phase of vibration is called----------- - Crest Trough Wavelength 1 9 Which one of the following is nearly monochromatic light? Light form fluorescent tube Light form neon lamp Light 1 9 Two sources of light are coherent if they emit rays of----------------- Same wavelength constructive interference Destructive interference 1 9 When crest of one wave falls over the trough of the other wave, this phenomenon is known as---------------- Polarization Constructive interference Destructive interference 1 9 In young double slit experiment, if white light is used, --------------- Alternate dark and bright fringes will be seen Colored fringes will be seen No interference fringes will be seen 1 9 The velocity of light was determined accurately by ------------------ Newton Michelson Huygen 1 9 In an interfrnce pattern___________________ bright fringes are wider than dark fringes dark friges are wider than bright fringe both dark and bright friges are of equal width 1 9 The appearance of colour in thin films is due to__________ diffraction dispersion interference 1 9 The blue colour of the sky is due to________________ diffraction rflection scattering 1 9 Diffraction affect is______________ more for a round edge less for a round edge 1 9 In a plane polarized light, ___________________ Vibration in all direction Vibration in two mutually perpendicular directions Vibration take place in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light 1 9 light on passing through a Polaroid is ________________ plane polarized un-polarized circularly polarized 1 9 Which one of the following cannot be polarized? Radio waves Ultraviolet rays X-ray 1 9 Diffraction fringes are____________________ Equally spaced Distance between them increases Distance between then decreases 1 9 In monochromatic red light, a blue book will probably appear to be_______________ Black Purple Green 1 9 A thing that emits its own light is___________________ Luminous Non-luminous Incandescent 1 9 In double slit experiment, if one of the two slit is covered then_______________ No interference fringes are observed No diffraction fringes are observed No fringes observed 1 10 A lens which converges a beam of parallel rays to a point is called ___________ diverging (or concave ) lens converging (or convex ) lens plano concave lens 1 10 A point where the incident parallel rays of leight converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens is called _________ center of curvature focus optical center 1 10 the diameter of a lens is called __________ focal length principle axis aperture 1 10 in going form a denser to rarer medium a ray of light is _________ undeviated bent away from normal bent towards the normal 1 10 unit of power of a lens is _____________ meter watt dioptre 1 10 the power of concave lens is ____________ real virtual positive 1 10 the minimum distance between an object and its real image in a convex lens is 2 f 2.5 f 3 f 1 10 if an object is placed away from 2f of a converging lens, then the image will be real and erect virtual and erect real and inverted 1 10 a convex lens give a virtual image only when the objects lies between principle focus and center of curvature beyond 2 f at the principle focus 1 10 magnifying power of simple microscope ___________ increase with increase in focal length increase with decrease in focal length no effect with decrease or increase wit focal length 1 10 image of an object 5 mm heigh is only 1cm high. Magnification produced by lens is 0.5 0.2 1 1 10 the least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is _________ 15cm 25cm 30cm 1 10 least distance of distinct vision _____________ increase with increase in age decrease with increase in age neither increases nor decreases 1 10 if a convex lens of large aperture fails to converge the leight rays incident on it to a simple point , it is said to suffer from chromatic aberration spherical aberration both chromatic and spherical 1 10 two convex lenses of equal focal „f ‟ are placed in a contact , the resultant focal length of the combination is ________________ zero f 2 f 1 10 A convex length of equal focal length „f 1„ and concave lence of focal length „f 2 „ are placed in contact. The focal length of combination is _____________ f2+f1 f2-f1 f1f2/f2+f1 1 10 final image produced by a compound microscope is ________________ real and inverted real and erect virtual and erect 1 10 In multimode step index fiber the refractive index of core and cladding is __________ same different zero 1 10 Dispersional effect may produce error in light signals. This type of error is minimum in ___________ signal mode step index fiber multimode step index fiber multimode graded index fiber 1 10 Light signal passes through multimode graded index fiber due to ____________ continuous refraction total internal reflection both continuous refraction and total internal reflection 1 10 there is no noticeable boundry core and cladding ________ multimode step index fiber multimode graded index fiber single mode step index fiber 1 10 the electrical signals changes into light signals for transmission through optical fiber. A light pulse represent ____________ zero one both zero and one 1 10 A lens , which is thicker at the center and thinner at the edges , is called ___________ concave lens convex lens plano convex lens 1 10 A spectrometer is used to find _________ wave length of light refractive index of the prim wave length of different colors 1 10 if a convex lens of focal length „f „ is cut into two identical halves along the lens diameter , the focal length of each half is _____________ f f/2 2f 1 10 30 A convex and concave lens of focal length „f „ are in contact, the focal length of combination will be _____________ zero f/2 2f 1 11 Temperature is property, which determines_________________ How much heat a body contains Whether a body will feel hot or cold to touch In which direction heat will flow between two systems 1 11 We prefer mercury as a thermometric substance because _________ Over a side range of temperature its expansion is uniform It does not stick to thermometer glass It is opaque to light 1 11 The scales of temperature are based on two fixed points, which are__________ The temperatures of water at 0oC and 100oC The temperature of melting ice and boiling water at atmospheric pressure The temperatures of ice cold and boiling water 1 11 The Fahrenheit and centigrade scales agree to ______________ -40 15.5 542 1 11 The size of one degree of Celsius is equal to _______________ One degree of Fahrenheit scale 1.8 degree of Fahrenheit scale 3.2 degrees of Fahrenheit scale 1 11 At constant temperature, the graph between V and I/P is______________ Hyperbola Parabola A curve of any shape 1 11 According to Pascal‟s law the pressure of gas in a vessel is _____________ Different in different direction Same in all direction Same only along opposite directions 1 11 We can produce heat by _________________ Frictional process Chemical processes Electrical processes 1 11 Which one is true for internal energy? It is sum of all forms of energies associated with molecules of a system It is a state function of system It is proportional to transnational K.E of the molecules 1 11 Metabolism is the name of a process in which energy transformationtakes place within__________________ Heat engine Human body Atmosphere 1 11 Which one is not an example of adiabatic process? Rapid escape of air from a burst tyre Rapid expansion of air Conversion of water into ice in refrigerator 1 11 The pressure exerted by a column of mercury 76cm high and at 0oC is called__________ 1 atmosphere 1 Newton per square meter 1 Pascal 1 11 If the volume of a gas is hel constant and we increase its temperature then _________ Its pressure is constant Its pressure rises Its pressure falls 1 11 “If the pressure of a given gas is held cosnstant its density is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature”. We can refer it as another statement of ________________ Boyle‟s law Charle‟s law Ideal gas law 1 11 Gas molecules of different masses in the same container have the same average transnational kinetic energy, which is directly proportional to their____________ Volume Pressure Absolute temperature 1 11 Boyle‟s law holds for ideal gases in _____________ Isochoric processes Isobaric processes Isothermal processes 1 11 For a gas obeying Boyle‟s law, if the pressure is doubled, the volume becomes________ Double One half Four times 1 11 Which of the following properties of molecules of a gas is same for all gases at particular temperature? Momentum Mass Velocity 1 11 In which process entropy remains constant_________ Isobaric Isochoric Adiabatic 1 12 When we rub a glass rod with a silk cloth, then______________ Glass rod acquires negative charge while silk acquires positive charge Glass rod acquires positive charge while silk acquires negative charge Both glass rod and silk acquire negative charge 1 12 If the distance between the two point charges become half, then force between them becomes_____________ Double Half Four times 1 12 The force per unit charge is known as____________ Electric flux Electric intensity Electric potential 1 12 An electric charge at rest produces_________________ Only an magnetic field Only an electric field Neither electric field nor magnetic field 1 12 Tick the only wrong statement. Similar charges repel each other Dissimilar charges attract each other Repulsion is the sure test of electrification 1 12 Electric intensity being a vector quantity always points______________ Along the direction of force experienced by a unit positive charge Opposite to the direction of force experienced by a unit positive charge Perpendicular to the direction of force experienced by a unit positive charge 1 12 Electric flux linked with a surface will be maximum when____________ The surface is held parallel to the electric field The surface is held perpendicular to the electric field The surface males an angle of 45o with the field 1 12 A closed surface contains two equal and opposite charges. The net electric flux from the surface will be_______________ Negative Positive Zero 1 12 The electric lines of force are____________ Imaginary Physically existing every where Physically existing near the charges 1 12 Tick the correct statement The electric lines of force have no physical existence They expand laterally and contract longitudinally They do not cross each other and group together in dielectric 1 12 If free space between the plates of a capacitor is replaced by a dielectric The potential difference remains constant, capacitance and energy stored increases The potential difference remains constant, capacitance decreases and energy increases The potential difference decreases but both capacitance and energy increase 1 12 A hollow metallic sphere of 8cmdiameteris charged with 4x10 8C. the potential on its surface will be ________________ 900 volts 9000 volts 90 volts 1 12 The metallic spheres A and B of radii 2m and 4m respectively carry the same charge 4x10 8C. If the spheres are connected by a copper wire. Charge will flow from A to B Charge will flow from B to A No flow of charge will occur 1 12 Potential difference is the work done in moving unit positive charge form one point to another----------------- In the direction of electric intensity Against electric intensity In any direction 1 12 Equipotent planes are----------------- Parallel to one another Non-parallel to one another Intersecting 1 12 The value of the capacitance depends upon the ----------------- Voltage applied Thickness of the capacitor plates Geometry of the capacitor 1 12 If a 10F capacitor is to have an energy content of 20J, it must be placed across a potential difference of ----------- 4 volts 9 volts 2 volts 1 12 Equivalent capacitance is greater than individual capacitances in--------- Series combination Parallel combination Both series and parallel combination 1 12 Two appositely charged balls A and B attract third conducting ball C when placed near them turn by turn. The ball C must be Positively charged Electrically neutral Negatively charge 1 12 In a non-uniform electric field, a polar molecule will experience Net torque Net force Both 1 12 Electric intensity at infinite distance from the point charge is ____________ Zero Infinite Positive 1 12 N/C= _______________ V / A J / V V / m 1 12 A charge of 0.10C accelerated through a potential difference of 1000V acquires kinetic energy ________________ 200J 100J 1000J 1 12 A capacitor is a perfect insulator for _______________ Direct current Alternating current Both for the direct and alternating current 1 12 In a charged capacitor the energy resides in _________ Magnetic field electric field nuclear field 1 13 The current through a metallic conductor is due to the motion of____________________ Free electrons Protons Neutrons 1 13 Resistance of a conductor depends upon___________ Nature of conductor Dimension of conductor Physical state of the conductor 1 13 A wire having very high value of conductance is said to be___________ Very good conductor Moderately good conductor An insulator 1 13 A wire of uniform area of cross-section 'A' length 'L' and resistance R is cut into two parts. Resistivity of each part__________________ Remains the same Is doubled Is halved 1 13 Production of heat due to an electric current flowing through a conductor is given by___________________ Joule effect Joule Thomson's effect Compton's effect 1 13 When same current passes for same time through a thick and thin wire _________________ More heat is produced in thick wire More heat is produced in thin wire No heat is produced in wire 1 13 Three equal resistors connected in series with a source of e.m.f together dissipate 10 W of power each. What will be the power dissipated if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of e.m.f? 40W 90 W 100W 1 13 One kilowatt hour is the amount of energy delivered during______ one second one day one minute 1 13 Thermocouples convert________________________. heat energy into electrical energy heat energy into light energy heat energy into mechanical energy 1 13 How much heat does a 40 W bulb generates in one hour? 144000J 144 J 1.44J 1 13 An immersion heater of 400 watts kept on for 5 hours will consume electrical power of __________________ 2KWh 20KWh 6KWh 1 13 Resistance of a super conductor is _______ finite infinite zero 1 13 Resistance of an ideal insulator is_________ infinite zero finite 1 13 Which one is the best material for making connecting wires? iron tungsten silver 1 13 Reciprocal of resistivity is called_______________ resistance inductance conductivity 1 13 Circuit which gives continuously varying potential is called complex network wheat stone bridge potential divider 1 13 Internal resistance is the resistance offered by source of e.m.f conductor resistor 1 13 There are three bulbs of 60W, 100W and 200W which bulb has thickest filament. 100W 200W 60W 1 13 Three bulbs are rating 40 W, 60W and 100W designed to work on 220V mains. Which bulb will burn most brightly if they are connected in series across 220 V mains? 40 W bulb 60 W bulb lOOW bulb 1 13 Resistance of a wire on increasing its temperature will________ increase with rise in temperature deerease with rise in temperature will remain same 1 13 Specific resistance of a wire ______________ will depend on its length will depend on its radius will depend on the type of material of the wire 1 13 An electric iron is marked 20 volts 500W. The units consumed by it in using if for 24 hours will be 12 24 5 1 13 In liquids and gases, the current is due to the motion negative charges positive charges both negative and positive charges 1 13 If 1 ampere current flows through 2m long conductor, the charge flow through it in 1 hour will be 3600C 7200C 1C 1 13 The graphical representation of Ohm's law is hyperbola ellipse parabola 1 13 Which one of the following materials is useful for making bulb filaments? constantan nichrome copper 1 13 The resistance of a conductor at absolute zero (OK) is________ zero almost infinite almost no prediction at all 1 13 Why should a resistance be introduced in a circuit in series deliberately? to increase current to decrease current to control current 1 13 Electrical energy is measured in_____________ watt horse power kilo watt 1 13 All electrical appliances are connected in parallel to each other between the main line and neutral wire, to get____________ same current same current and potential difference different current but same potential difference 1 13 Which one of the following bulbs has the least resistance? 100 watt 200 watt 300 watt 1 13 A fuse is placed in series with the circuit to protect against_______ high power high voltage high current 1 13 Terminal potential difference of a battery is greater than its emf when___________ the internal resistance of battery is infinite the internal resistance of battery is zero the battery is charged 1 14 Magnetic force acting on a unit positive charge moving perpendicular to the magnetic field with a unit velocity is called ______________. magnetic flux magnetic flux magnetic induction 1 14 What is the value of the current in a wire of 10cm long at the right angle to a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 Wcber/m2, when the force acting on the wire is 5N? lA 10A 1OOA 1 14 When a particle of charge q and mass m enters into a uniform magnetic field B moving with a velocity v perpendicular to the direction for the field, it describes a circular path of radius R=qB/mV R=mV/qB R=qmV/B 1 14 Two parallel wires carrying currents in the opposite directions ___ __. repel each other attract each other have no effect upon each other 1 14 A magnetic compass will be deflected if it is kept near a charge in motion charge at rest both 1 14 A magnetic field always exerts a force on a charged particle never exerts a force on a charged particle exerts a force if the charged particle is moving in the direction of the magnetic field lines 1 14 A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 100Q gives half scale deflection for a current of 20mA. What will be the potential difference across it? 4 volt 5 volt 2 volt 1 14 Which one of the following material is most suitable for making core of an electromagnet? air steel Cu-Ni alloy 1 14 Magnetic flux and flux density are related by magnetic flux = flux density / area magnetic flux = flux density x area flux density = magnetic flux area 1 14 The standard vector symbol for flux density is M L H 1 14 The charged particle enters the uniform magnetic field in such a way that its initial velocity is not perpendicular to the field, the orbit will be a circle a spiral an ellipse 1 14 An electron enters a region where the electric field E is perpendicular to the magnetic field B. It will suffer no deflection if________________- E = BeV B = eE/V E= BV 1 14 An instrument, which can measure potential without drawing any current, is____________ voltmeter galvanometer cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) 1 14 When the coil of the galvanometer is in equilibrium, then the deflecting couple is________________ zero equal to the restoring couple greater than the restoring couple 1 14 The sensitivity of a galvanometer is given by________________ C/BAN CAN/B ABC/N BAN/C 1 14 Which one of the following is not an electromechanical instrument? galvanometer voltmeter ammeter 1 14 In a multi range ammeter, as the range increases, shunt value decreases shunl value increases shunt value remains the same 1 14 While measuring the unknown resistance, with the help of a slide wire bridge, a greatest accuracy can be achieved when a most sensitive galvanometer is used a steady voltage cell is used the balance point is close to the middle of the wire 1 14 A sensitive galvanometer gives full-scale deflection with 100 mV. If the resistance of the galvanometer is 50Q, the maximum current that can flow through safely is _____________ 2.0 mA 20 mA 200 mA 1 14 An ammeter measures the total current flowing through a circuit, when it is connected_______________ in series with the circuit in parallel with the circuit in series with any of the parallel resistances in the circuit 1 14 A galvanometer basically is an instrument used to_____________ detect current in a circuit measure current flowing through a circuit measure voltage across a circuit 1 14 The effective way to increase the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is to_________________ use a very long and fine suspension use a coil of very large area use a coil with very large number of turns 1 14 A wheat stone bridge is said to be balanced when_____________ maximum current flows through the galvanometer branch minimum current flows through the galvanometer branch potential difference across galvanometer branch is maximum 1 14 When an electron moving with a uniform speed in a vacuum enters a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to the field, the subsequent path of the electron is ______________ a straight line parallel to the field a parabola in a plane perpendicular to the field a circle in a plane perpendicular to the field 1 14 A particle of mass m charge q and speed V, enters a uniform magnetic field of flux density B. The path of the particle in the field is a circle of radius r. The radius r of the circle is independent mass m directly proportional to m directly proportional to q 1 14 Galvanometer is a very sensitive device with very low damping very high damping no damping at all 1 14 Which one of the following methods would be able to increase the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer? connect a shunt across the coil use a coil of smaller cross sectional area use a coil having less number of turns 1 14 Heating a magnet will weaken it strengthen it reverse its polarity 1 14 If a current carrying solenoid is suspended freely, it will be rotating came to rest in N-S direction vibrating like galvanometer needle 1 15 The practical illustration of the phenomenon of mutual induction is____________ A.C generator D.C dynamo induction coil 1 15 Weber is the unit of_____________ magnetic field intensity magnetic induction magnetic flux 1 15 Current produced by moving the loop of wire across a magnetic field is called A.C current D.C current induced current 1 15 emf induced in a circuit according to Faraday's law depends on the__________ maximum magnetic flux rate of change of magnetic flux change in magnetic flux 1 15 emf generated by A.C dynamo depends upon_______________ number of turns in the coil magnetic field strength frequency of rotation 1 15 An alternating current or voltage __________________ fluctuates off and on varies in magnitude alone changes its direction again and again 1 15 A dynamo converts___________________ mechanical energy into electrical energy electrical energy into mechanical energy magnetic energy into mechanical energy 1 15 Which one of the following functions, like a motor? galvanometer ammeter voltmeter 1 15 A.C cannot be used for___________________ producing heat producing light magnetizing and electroplating 1 15 Which of the following works on torque on the current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field. galvanometer ammeter voltmeter 1 15 Self inductance of a coil depends upon_____________ current flowing number of turns per unit length voltage produce 1 15 If the coil is wound on an iron core, the flux through it will decrease become zero remain the same 1 15 Inductors acts as a short circuit for___________ AC DC Both (a) and (b) 1 15 For electroplating we use_______________ A D.C source an A.C source any source 1 15 Which of the following uses electric energy and does not convert it into any other form? transformer motor D.C generator 1 15 The only difference between construction of D.C generator and A.C generator is that of carbon brushes coil commutator 1 15 A.C and D.C have the same________________ effect in charging a capacitor effect in charging a battery effect while passing through an inductance 1 15 Power loss in actual transformer is due to___________ Small output Eddy currents and magnetic hysterias Soft iron core 1 15 A metal rod of 25cm length is moving at a speed of 0.5m/sec in direction perpendicular to 0.25T magnetic field, emf produced in the rod is_____________ 0 volt 3.125 volt 31.25 volt 1 15 The emf induced in a conductor of unit length moving with unit velocity at right angles to a magnetic field is equal to_______ Magnetic flux density Torque Mutual induction 1 15 The self-inductance of a solenoid is increased when a soft iron core is inserted into it. This is because the soft iron core___________ Decreases the resistance of the solenoid Reduces the effect of eddy current Improves the flux linkage between the turns of the coil 1 15 A small coil lies inside a large coil. The two coils are horizontal, concentric and carry currents in opposite directions. The large coil will experience__________________ A torque about horizontal axis A torque about vertical axis An upward force along the axis 1 15 A.C can not be used for__________ Producing heat Producing light Magnetizing iron 1 15 Non inductive resistances are used in decreasing_________ Mutual inductance Self inductance Magnetic fields 1 15 Magnetic compass needle will be deflecting, if it is kept near_______ Static charge Soft iron Semi- conductor 1 15 Long distance transmission is easy for _____ D.C voltage A.C voltage Half A.C voltage 1 15 Which one of the following devices docs not function like an electric motor? Galvanometer Ammeter Voltmeter 1 15 The out put voltage of a transformer is 3 times the input voltage then turns ratio will be ___________ .1/3 3 1 1 15 For long distance transmission, the transformer used is_________ Step down Input voltage and output voltage remain same Step up 1 15 An electric current induced within the body of a conductor when that conductor cither moves through a non uniform magnetic field or in a region where there is a change in magnetic flux is called ____________ Induced current Eddy current Back emf 1 15 Lagging of changes in the magnetization of a substance behind changes in the magnetic field as the magnetic field is varied is known as magnetic Retaintivity Permeability Flux 1 15 Transformer works on the principle of ________________ Lenz's law Faraday's law Mutual induction 1 15 When the motor is at its maximum speed, then back emf will be ____ Maximum Zero Intermediate values 1 16 An alternating current or voltage___________ fluctuates off and on varies in magnitude alone changes its direction again and again 1 16 A changing magnetic flux produces around itself an induced Magnetic field Electric field Electromagneti c force 1 16 Electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the speed of_______ γ-rays Positive rays Cathode rays 1 16 The direction of propagation of an electromagnetic waves is Perpendicular to electric field Perpendicular to both electric and magnetic field Perpendicular to magnetic field 1 16 An electromagnetic wave consists of________________ Electric and magnetic fields moving parallel to each other Magnetic field moving with velocity of light in space Electric field moving with velocity of light 1 16 Electromagnetic waves transport Energy Momentum Mass 1 16 Waves emitted from the antenna are___________ Sound waves Electromagneti c waves Radio waves 1 16 Electromagnetic waves emitted from antenna arc Stationary Longitudinal Transverse 1 16 11 capacitance of L-C circuit is made four times then frequency of the circuit becomes__________________ Twice One half Four times 1 16 The value of the steady current, which when flowing through the same resistor produces heat at the same rate as the mean rate of heat produced by the alternating current, is ____________ Average current Sinusoidal current r.m.s current 1 16 To find the r.m.s value of an alternating current mathematically, we need to have______________ Mean value of P- Square root of mean value of I2 Square root of F 1 16 An alternating current of r.m.s value of 4.0 A and frequency 50Hz flows in a circuit containing 10Ω resistor. The peak current is then 20A 20.66A 6.66A 1 16 In pure resistor circuit, the voltage and current are_____________ Lagging each other They are at 90° phase difference They have zero phase difference 1 16 If a glass plate is inserted in between the plate of a capacitor in series with a lighted bulb, the brightness of the bulb Remains same Brightness increases Brightness decreases 1 16 A pure variable resistor is connected in series with a pure capacitor of fixed capacitance. The impedance of the circuit__________________ Remains Becomes infinite Becomes zero 1 16 Ammeter connected in an AC circuit measures____________ Exact value of current rms value of current Net value of current 1 16 When a pure inductor of inductance L, and a pure capacitor of capacitance C are connected in parallel to a sinusoidal potential difference V, the potential difference across both L&C will be_______________ Same Different At L will be more than at C 1 16 What is the self inductance of a coil in which an induced emf of 2V is set up when the current changes at the rate of 4 As -1? 0.5mH 0.5H 2.OH 1 16 A choke is used as a resistance in DC circuit AC circuits Both AC and DC circuit 1 16 At resonance the value of the power factor in an L-C-R series circuit is Zero 1\2 1 1 16 An inductive coil has a resistance of 100Ω. When an AC signal of frequency l000Hz is fed to the coil, the applied voltage leads the current by 45°. What is the inductance of the coil? l0mH 12mH 16ml! 1 16 Choose the correct statement. In the case of AC circuit, ohm's law holds for______________ Peak values of voltage and current Effective values of voltage and current Instantaneous values of voltage and current 1 16 Two identical coaxial circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. If the loops approach each other, the current in Each increases Each decreases Each remains the same 1 16 An inductor may store energy in ----------------- --- its electric field its coils its magnetic field 1 17 Which of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity? Rubber Steel Glass 1 17 Which one of the following physical quantities does not have the dimensions of force per unit area? Stress Strain Young's modulus 1 17 A wire, suspended vertically from one end, is stretched by attaching a weight of 20 N to the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1mm. How much energy is gained by the wire? 0.01J 0.02J 0.04J 1 17 A uniform steel wire of length 4m and area of cross-section 3x10 -6m2 is extended by 1mm by the application of a force. If the young's modulus of steel is 2xl011Nm-2 the energy stored in the wire is_______ 0.025J 0.050J 0.075J 1 17 The ratio stress to strain in young's modulus of the material, then tension is ______________ Directly proportional to extension. Directly proportional to strain. Directly proportional to square of amplitude. 1 17 Materials that undergo plastic deformation before breaking are called _____ Brittle Ductile Amorphous 1 17 A wire is stretched by a force F which causes an extension 1. The energy stored in the wire is 1A Fl only if_____ _____ The extension of the wire is proportional to the force applied The weight of the wire is negligible The wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit 1 17 Formation of large molecule by joining small molecules is _____________ Fusion Polymerization Crystallization 1 17 Any alteration produced in shapes, length or volume when a body is subjected to some external force is called ______________ Stiffness Toughness Extension 1 17 The energy band occupied by the valence electrons is called Energy state Valence band -ve energy state 1 17 The curie temperature is that at which________ Semi- conductor becomes conductors Ferromagnetic become paramagnetic Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic 1 17 Energy needed to magnetize and demagnetize is represented by Hysteresis curve Hysteresis loop area Hysteresis loop 1 18 Electrons present in p-type material due to thermal pair generation are majority carriers minority carriers dual carriers 1 18 Semi-conductors with donor atoms and free electrons belong to the type n p mix 1 18 Semi-conductor germanium and silicon are pentavalent trivalent divalent 1 18 Acceptor and donor impurities donate n-carriers only p-carriers only p-carriers and n- carriers respectively 1 18 p-n junction when reversed biased acts as a capacitor inductor on switch 1 18 In p-n-p transistor, the collector current is equal to emitter current slightly less than emitter current greater than emitter current 1 18 In n-p-n transistor, p works as collector emitter base 1 18 The simplest type of rectification known as half wave rectification is obtained by using a transistor suppressing the harmonics in A.C voltage suppressing half wave of A.C supply by using diode 1 18 Identify the correct statement about minority carriers_________ holes in n-type and free electrons in p- type holes in n-type and p-type free electrons in n-type-and holes in p-type 1 18 Depletion region of a junction is formed during the manufacturing process under forward bias under reverse bias 1 18 The velocity of an oscillating charge as it moves to and fro along a wire is always______________ constant zero changing 1 18 Which one of following band is completely filled in case of conductors? Conduction band Ferrni band Valence band 1 18 Which one of the following has the greatest energy gap? insulator conductor semi conductor 1 18 Thermions are------------- protons positrons electrons 1 18 Hole is equivalent to a negative charge a positive charge a neutral particle 1 18 Which one of the following is not a donor impurity? antimony phosphorus aluminium 1 18 Forward current through a semi conductor diode circuit is due to_______________ minority carriers majority carriers holes 1 18 In the transistor schematic symbol, the arrow____________ is located on the emitter is located on the base is locate on the collector 1 18 In full wave rectification, the output D.C. Voltage across the load is obtained for_________________ The positive half cycle of input A.C. The negative half cycle of input A.C. The complete cycle of input A.C. 1 18 The semiconductor diode can be used as a rectifier because___________ It has low resistance to the current flow when forward biased & high resistance when reverse biased. It has low resistance to the current flow when forward biased. It has high resistance to the current flow when reverse biased. 1 18 In half-wave rectification, the output D.C. voltages is obtained across the load for______________ The negative half cycle of A.C. The positive half cycle of A.C. The positive and negative half cycles 1 18 The device or circuit used for conversion of A.C. into D.C. is called______ An amplifier. A rectifier Filtering circuit 1 18 The device used for conversion of D.C. to A.C. is called____________ Converter Amplifier Inverter 1 18 The specially designed semiconductor diodes used as indicator lamps in electronic circuits are______________ The switch The light emitting diode The photo diodes 1 18 The specially designed semi-conductor diodes used as fast counters in electronic circuits are_________________ The light emitting diodes Photo diodes Photo voltaic cell 1 18 The alternating voltage is an example of_______________ A digital waveform An analogue waveform Discrete waveform 1 18 The rectangular voltage is an example of_____________ An analogue waveform Continuous wave form Electronic waveform 1 18 The operational amplifier is______________ A high gain amplifier A high-power amplifier A high resistance amplifier 1 18 In a half-wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of the A.C. Component of the wave is______________ Equal to D.C. value More than D.C. value Less than D.C. value 1 18 To obtain an n-type semiconductor germanium crystal, it must be doped with foreign atoms whose valency is______________ 2 3 4 1 18 To obtain a p-type semi-conductor Si Crystal must be doped with foreign atoms whose valency is_________________ 2 3 4 1 18 The operation of a transistor requires_________________ That the emitter be heated That the base be heated That the collector be heated 1 18 In forward bias the width of potential barrier_____________ Increases Decreases Remains same 1 18 The working of transistor as amplifier is similar to____________ Step up transformer Step down transformer Three diodes in common 1 18 The electronic circuits which implement the various logic operations are called________________ Logic gates Boolean algebra Amplifier gain 1 18 An OP-AMP comparator is a circuit that compares the signal voltage on one of its inputs with a________________ Non-inverting voltage at output Reference voltage on the other Virtual input 1 18 An OP-AMPs can amplify_____________ D.C. A.C. Both A.C. & D.C. 1 18 Non-inverting amplifier circuits have______________ A very high input impedance A very low input impedance A low output impedance 1 19 Tick the correct statement. the flight path of a vertically falling body appears straight to the stationary observer the flight path of vertically falling body appears parabolic to an observer in uniform relative motion all states of rest and motion are relative and there is no such thing as absolute rest and absolute motion 1 19 Mark the wrong statement. a frame of reference which is either at rest or moves with a constant velocity is called an inertial frame of reference an un- accelerated frame of reference is called an inertial frame of reference all the frames of reference in uniform rectilinear motion are equivalent 1 19 An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick at very high (relativistic) speed and finds that the length of meter stick is______ greater than one meter less than one meter one meter 1 19 kg mass will be equivalent to _..______ 2.50 GWh 25.00 GWh 0.26 GWh 1 19 Which one of the following radiations has the strongest photon? T.V waves micro waves X-rays 1 19 Tick the right statement. no photo electronic emission takes place if the frequency of radiation, however intense it may be, is less than a certain critical value called threshold frequency threshold frequency depends upon the nature of the metal surface maximum energy of a photoelectron is a function of frequency rather than intensity of radiation 1 19 A device based on photoelectric effect is called photo sensitive detection photo diode photosynthesis 1 19 Stopping potential for a metal surface in case of photoelectric emission depends on _____________________ the threshold frequency for the metal surface the intensity of incident light the frequency of incident light and work function of the metal surface 1 19 The existence of 'Ether wind' was experimentally rejected by____ Heisenberg Einstein Michelson and Morley 1 19 If a material object moves with speed of light, its mass becomes____ equal to its rest mass double of its rest mass infinite 1 19 As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity______________ shifts towards longer wavelength shifts towards shorter wavelength remain the same 1 19 The name of the photon for quantum of light was proposed by Ampere plank Thomson 1 19 In Compton scattering, the change in wave length is max. if angle of scattering is 90o angle of scattering is 600 angle of scattering is 1800 1 19 Davison Germer experiment indicates interference polarization election diffraction 1 19 A photon is__________ a unit of energy a positively charged particle a quantum of electromagneti c radiation 1 19 After traveling through a vacuum, a photon of light entering into some transparent denser medium. Thus the energy of light _________ Increases because wavelength decreases Decreases because speed decreases Remains same 1 19 In a photoelectric effect, monochromatic light is incident on a metal surface. If the incident light of twice the intensity but of same wavelength, the kinetic energy of the emitted electron ________ Becomes double. Remains same. Becomes half. 1 19 If the wavelength of incident radiation is increased in photoemission, then _______________ The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increases. The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons decreases. The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increases. 1 19 In Davisson-Germer experiment, the diffracted proton from crystal shows ______ Particle property. Wave property. Light property. 1 19 If a diffraction grating is placed in the path of a light beam, it reveals______ Wave property. Particle property. Energy particle 1 19 In electron microscope, we use energetic particles because of Penetrating power is high. Kinetic energy is large. Wavelength is very short. 1 19 In electron microscope, electric & magnetic fields are used as__________ Electromagneti c gun. Source of electromagneti c waves. Deflecting charged particle. 1 19 A three dimensional image is obtained by ___________________ Electron microscope. Scanning electron microscope. Magnetic imaging. 1 19 The uncertainty in momentum & position is due to its Property of matter and radiation. Two dimensional motion Emission of certain wavelength 1 19 The energy radiated is directly proportional to fourth power of Kelvin's temperature is_________________ Karl-wein's law. Reyleigh Jeans law. Stephens law. 1 19 Compton effect proves the________________ Photon theory of light. Dual nature of light. Wave nature of light. 1 19 Electron moves in the orbit as________________ Simple vibratory motion. Standing wave motion. Vibratory motion like up and down. 1 20 Ratio of the weight of H-atom to that of an electron is approximately._____ 18.336 1836 18360 1 20 In hydrogen spectrum, which one of the following series lies in the ultraviolet region? Balmer series Pfund series Bracket series 1 20 In obtaining an X-ray photograph of our hand, we use the principle of_________ photo electric effect ionization shadow photograph 1 20 When we excite some atoms by heat collision or electrical discharge, they will_______________ radiate electromagneti c energy with a continuous distribution of wavelength absorb particular wavelengths when white light is incident on them radiate electromagneti c energy of discrete characteristic wavelength 1 20 Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays because its energy levels are too close to each other its energy levels are too far apart it is too small in size 1 20 Which one of following postulate is in accordance with the Rutherford's model? continuous spectra for atoms discrete spectra for atoms either continuous nor discrete 1 20 X-rays are_____________ of unknown nature high energy electrons high energy photons 1 20 Tick the correct statement an atom has limited number of ionization potentials but a number of excitation potentials there are as many excitation potentials as there are excited states the difference between the energy of the ground sate and any one of the excited states is the measure of excitation energy 1 20 Ground state energy of the 4th orbit in a H- atom is_________ -13.60 eV -3.40eV -0.85eV 1 20 Total number of series in hydrogen spectrum is____________ three four five 1 20 The radiations emitted form hydrogen filled discharge tube show band spectrum line spectrum continuous spectrum 1 20 Radiation with wavelength longer than red lights ultraviolet rays X-rays infrared radiation 1 20 In an electronic transition, atom cannot emit_______________ y-rays infra red radiation visible light 1 20 Reverse process of photoelectric effect is ________________ pair production Compton effect annihilation of matter 1 20 The penetrating power of X- rays depends on their_______________ applied voltage frequency source 1 20 When X- rays are passed through successive aluminium sheets, what happens to their thickness? it increases it decreases it remains same 1 20 Quality of X- rays depends upon filament current accelerating voltage material of the target 1 20 Radiation produced from TV picture tube is________________ γ-rays. X-rays. Far infrared. 1 20 In an X-ray tube, electrons each of charge e are accelerated through V potential difference allowed to hit a metal target. The wavelength of the X-rays emitted is_____________ hc / eV he/Vc eV/h 1 20 The minimum wavelength of X-rays can further be reduced by__________ Reducing the pressure or cooling the target. Increasing the temperature of the filament. Using a target clement of higher atomic number. 1 20 The characteristic X-rays spectrum is due to The illumination of the target metal by ultra- violet radiation. The bombardment of the target by protons. The bombardment of target by electrons. 1 20 Maximum frequency in the spectrum from X- ray tube is directly proportional to the________________ Number of incident electron i.e. filament current. The kinetic energy of the incident electron i.e. the potential difference through which they are accelerated. The soft target which can easily emit electrons. 1 20 X-rays are diffracted by a crystal but not by a diffraction grating because_______________ The ions in a crystal arc well arranged. The lines in a diffraction grating cannot reflect X-rays. The penetration power of X- rays is high in a diffraction grating. 1 20 UV radiation can be produced by_______________ Heating the filament. Electron excitation in the gas. Ionization of atoms. 1 20 Wave like characteristic of electron is demonstrated by Line spectrum of atoms. Production of x-rays. Diffraction by crystalline solids. 1 20 Electron cannot exist in the nucleus; it is confirmed by observing that_______________ It does emit γ- radiation. Its size as compare to proton and neutron is very small. No antiparticle of electron is present. 1 20 In normal state of energy, the incident high energy photons will be_____ Stimulated. Absorbed. Cause X-ray emission. 1 20 In laser production, the state in which more atoms are in the upper state than in the lower one is called_____________ Metal stable state. Normal state. Inverted population. 1 20 In He-Nc laser, the lasing action is produced by____________ Ne only. He-Ne both. Electrons of He. 1 20 Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to____________ Further stimulation. Lasing more. For producing more energetic lasers. 1 20 The velocity of laser light is Less than ordinary light. More than ordinary light. Equal to ordinary light. 1 21 In nucleus of uranium the number of neutrons will be________________ 92 235 143 1 21 During fusion of hydrogen into helium,____________ energy is absorbed energy is released mass is increased due to energy absorption 1 21 According to which one of following law, the density of atom is uniform? J.J.Thomson model Rutherford's model Bohr's model 1 21 For chain reaction to build up, the size of the radioactive target should be________________ greater than the critical size less than the critical size equal to the critical size 1 21 Antimatter consists of ____________ antiproton antineutron positron 1 21 Neutron and proton are commonly known as nucleon meson boson 1 21 Electrons_______________ can exist inside the nucleus cannot exist inside the nucleus can exist both inside and outside the nucleus 1 21 Radioactivity is a ________________ Spontaneous activity Chemical property Self disintegration property 1 21 Energy liberated when one atom of U-235 undergoes fission reaction is_________________ 200MeV 40MeV 30MeV 1 21 Transuranic elements have atomic number greater than 72 greater than 82 greater than 92 1 21 Nuclear forces exist between proton-proton proton-neutron neutron- neutron 1 21 Mass defect per nucleon is _______________ binding energy of nucleus packing fraction average energy of nucleus 1 21 Tick the correct statement________________ moderators slow down the neutrons moderators bring the neutrons to rest moderators absorb the neutrons 1 21 The bombardment of nitrogen with a- particles will produce______ neutron proton electron 1 21 Average energy required to remove one nucleon from the nucleus is called_______________ binding energy per nucleon energy of decay destruction energy 1 21 Fission chain reaction in a nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing ________________ iron rods graphite rods cadmium rods 1 21 Charge on an electron was determine by__________ Ampere Maxwell Millikan 1 21 Charge on neutron is________________ +1.67 x 10-19 Kg zero -1.6 x 10 -19 C 1 21 A particle having the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton is called a antiproton positron gamma rays 1 21 Nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic number are Isotopes Isobars lsotones 1 21 A mass spectrograph (spectrometer) sorts out_____________ molecules ions elements 1 21 Sum of the masses of constituent nucleons as compared to the mass of the resultant nucleus is smaller greater same 1 21 During fission process, a large amount of _________ heat energy is released nuclear energy is released chemical energy is released 1 21 Radioactive materials can be identified by measuring their hardness density mass 1 21 If one or more of the neutrons emitted during fission can be used to build up further fission then the reaction is self sustained and is known as fission reaction fusion reaction chain reaction 1 21 Pair production takes place in the vicinity of a heavy nucleus so that net energy is conserved net. charge is conserved net momentum is conserved 1 21 During an encounter with an atom, u-particle knocks out protons electrons neutrons 1 21 The path of p-particle is__________ rectilinear curved zig-xag or erratic 1 21 Various types of cancer are treated by___________ cobalt-60 strontium-90 carbon- 14 1 21 The penetration power of β-particle as compared to α-particle is____ 10 times more 100 times more 100 times less 1 21 Geiger counter is suitable for____________ fast counting extremely fast counting slow counting 1 21 Pair production cannot take place in vacuum as_____ energy charge mass 1 21 CFC is used in_________________ refrigeration aerosol spray plastic foam industry 1 21 Average distance covered by a-particle in air before its ionizing power ceases, is called its ___________ trajectory range firing level 1 21 The most useful tracer is __ __________ Sr-90 I-131 Ca-41 1 21 Why y-rays are used to kill bacteria, to sterilize surgical equipments etc? chargeless massless highly penetrating 1 21 Pair production cannot take place in vacuum as________________ mass is not conserved energy is not conserved momentum is not conserved 1 21 Pair production can take place only with__________________ X- rays γ-rays UV-rays 1 21 A device for producing high velocity nuclei is________________ cloud chamber linear accelerator a mass spectrograph 1 21 Which of the following will be a better shield against γ-rays? ordinary water heavy water lead 1 21 The maximum safe limit dose for persons working in nuclear power station are_________________ 1 rem per week 5 rern per week 4 rem per week 2 1 The atom of an element is The smalest particle the fundamental pariticle the independent particle 2 1 which of the sub-atomic particles is not charged electron proton neutron 2 1 Object of the size of an atom can be ovserved in an electron microscope an x-ray spectrum atomic absorptionspec trum 2 1 When energy is released during a reaction it is Exothermic reaction Endothermic reaction A free radical reaction 2 1 A molecular ion is formed by passing a high energy electron beam through gaseous molecule dissolving a salt in dilute acid passing electric current through molten salt 2 1 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. What is the mass of 2 mol of chlorine gas? 142 g 71 g 35.5 g 2 1 Mass spectrometer measures the exact mass of an element average mass of an element the number of elements present in a molecule 2 1 The relative abundance of the ion with a definite m/e value is measured by high pressure of vapours strength of electric current measured quantity of fast moving electrons 2 1 Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons number of protons number of electrons 2 1 With of the following is not true? Isotopes with even atomic masses are comparatively abundant Isotopes with odd atomic masses are comparative abundant Isotopes with even atomic masses and even atomic numbers are comparatively abundant 2 2 Wich of the folloving is not a separation technique filtration sublimation solvent extraction 2 2 An insoluble solid can be separated from a liquid by crystallization sublimation chromatograph y 2 2 Sublimation is a separation technique used to remove a non volatile component from a volatile component low boiling component from a high boiling component fast moving component from a slow moving component 2 2 A filtration process could be very time consuming if it were not aided by a gentle suction wich is developed If the paper covers the funnel upto its circumference If the paper has got small sized pores in it if the stem of the funnel is large so that it dips into the filtrate 2 2 From which mixture can the fast substance be obtained by adding water,stirring and filtering? calcium carbonate and sodium cloride magnesium and iron oxygen and nitrogen 2 2 Which of the following methods is most suitable for obtaining a pure,dry sample of sodium chloride from a mixture of solid sodium chloride and sand? shake the mixture with water, filter and dry the substance on the filter paper shake the mixture with water, filter and evaporate the filtrate shake the mixture with water, and distil off the liquid 2 2 A bottle of copper(II) oxide has been contaminated with some solid,Sodium chloride. How can the sodium chloride be removed from the copper (II) oxide? place the mixture in a separating funnel heat the mixture and allow it to cool add dilute acide to the mixture and filter 2 2 What mathod is used to remove insoluble solids from muddy water? chlorination distillation evaporation filtration 2 2 The process of filtration is used to separate the two miscible liquids Seprate insoluble particles from liquids separate the two immisible liquids 2 2 For smoot filtration one of the following precautions should be observed stem of the funnel should remain continuously full of liquids the filter paper should be small the stem of funnel should be small 2 2 Fluted filter paper is used for filtering the hot saturated solution increasing the rate of filteraion to avoid premature crystallization of the solute 2 2 Gooch crucible is used in a suction filtering apparatus, because It is used for filteration of precipitates which need to be ignited It keeps the stem of funnel full of liquid a solid compound is purified 2 2 Sintered glass crucible is used to separate two liquids purify a solid convenient filteration than that by Gooch crucible 2 2 Filtration through Gooch and sintered glass crucibles is aided by a gentle suction for preparation of a chemical compound quick filtration can be done it should deposit well formed crystals of the pure compound 2 2 There are as many as 7 steps used in crystallization technique chromatograph ic technique filtration technique 2 2 During the process of crystallization, the hot saturated solution is cooled very slowly to get large sized crystals is cooled at a moderate rate to get medium sized crystals is evaporated to get the crystals of the products 2 2 Slow cooling of the hot saturated solution yields large sized crystals medium sized crystals premature crystallization of the solute 2 2 The top of funnel stem should touch the side of the beaker because the filtration is quick filtrate runs down without splashing this gives the medium sized crystals 2 2 The solvent is selected for crystallization of a substance on the basis of its polar nature its non polar nature it should react chemically 2 2 Sublimation is a process for the separation of solute and solvent from a solution solution of volatile and non volatile liquids volatile and non volatile solids 2 2 Solvent extraction method is a particularly useful technique for separation when the product to be separated is non volatile or thermally unstable volatile or thermally stable non volatile or thermally stable 2 2 A flask contains the liquids trichloromethane (chloroform) and water. They are separated using a separating funnel. Which conclusion can be made form this observation alone? Trichlormethan e and water have different relative messes. Trichlormethan e and water have different boiling points Trichloomethan e has a higher density than water 2 3 Considering the physical properties of the gases, which of the following statements about particles of gas is not true. The particles are orderly arranged randomly moving having wide spaces 2 3 As gases can adopt the shape of the container so they have no fixed shapes fixed shapes different shapes 2 3 If allowed to expand, the gases suddenly heat up move randomly react 2 3 Which one of the following is not postulated in the kinetic molecular theory molecules of all the gases have same size and same mass molecules are in chaotic motion all molecular collisions are elastic 2 3 According to Boyles law at constant temperture the product of pressure and volume of a givne mass of gas is whole number a constant fraction 2 3 which of the following laws study the pressure -volume relationship of a gas at constatn temperature Charles law Graham's law Dalton's law 2 3 A graph is plotted, P on x-axis and volume on y-axis for a given mass of a gas at constant temperature, we get a straight line a curve with different peaks straight line parallel to x- axis 2 3 if absolute temperature of a gas is doubled and the pressure is reduced to one half, the volume of the gas will remain unchanged increase four times reduce to 1/4 2 3 How should the conditions be changed to prevent the volume of a given gas from expanding when its mass is increased temperature is lowered and pressure is increased temperature is increased and pressure is increased temperature and pressure both are lowered 2 3 Matter having no definite shape and volume is called linquid plasma solid 2 3 At constant temperature, volume of given mass of a gas is inversely proportional to pressure on it. This is Charles law Boyle's law Hook law 2 3 A pressrue one Newton per meter square (1 Nm-2) is equal to one pascal one bar one atmosphere 2 3 The instrument that is used to meanure the pressure of a gas is called Viscometer Photometer barometer 2 3 Equal volume of all gases at same temperature and pressure contain number of molecules different multiples equal 2 3 The volume of a gas that is occupied by its one mole at STP is called total volume normal volume molar volume 2 3 which is the best example of diffusion of gases bubbling in soda bottle vapour condensing on moist surface hot air rising above a candle 2 4 which of the following may be called London dispersion forces dipole-dipole forces ion-dipole forces dipole-induced dipole forces 2 4 An example of ion-dipole force is solution of NaCl is water Glucose in water Bromine in bezene 2 4 The boiling point of radon ( 211 K) is higher than boiling point of helium (4.4 k) because the atomic number of Rn is larger than of the He the atomic mass of Rn is larger than of He the dispersion forces between Rn atoms are more prominent than between He atoms 2 4 which is the correct order of boiling points solution of ethanol in water linking of helix protein molecule structure of ice 2 4 Acetone and chloroform are soluble in each other due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding ion-depole interaction instantaneous dipoles 2 4 NH3 shows a maximum boiling point among the hydrides of Vth group elements due to very small size of nitrogen hydrogen bonding between its molecules enhanced electronegative character of nitrogen 2 4 Dipole-dipole forces are present between polar molecules non-polar molecules (a) and (b) both 2 4 The bonding which occurs among polar convalent molecules containing H and one of the small electronegative element such as O, F or N is called bridge bonding metallic bonding hydrogen bonding 2 4 London forces are more affective at low temperature high temperature high pressure 2 4 When two ice cubes are pressed together they unite to form one cube. Which of the following forces is responsible for holiding them together Van der Waal's Covalent bonding hydrogen bonding 2 4 water has high boiling point which is due to weak dissociation hydrogen bonding between its molecules high specific heat 2 4 In which of the following componds hydrogen bonding is not present water ethanol ether 2 4 The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds in which an H20 molecule can participate is 1 2 3 2 4 In which of the following moleculse strongest hydrogen bond is shown water ammonia hydrogen fluoride 2 4 The attractive forces which are created due to repulsion of electronic cloud of the molecules are dipole-dipole forces ion diopole forces instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces 2 4 NaCl is completely ionized in water due to presence of hydrogen bonding dipole dipole force ion- dipole forces 2 5 which of the following is not a property of cathode rays they can produce x-rays when they strike a heavy metal anode they can cause reduction reaction they produce fluorescence in rare earth metals and minerals 2 5 which of the following is not sub-atomic particle electron proton neutron 2 5 which of the following is not charged particle proton electron neutron 2 5 Spilitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric field is called zeeman effect stark effect photoelectric effect 2 5 The velocity of photon is independent of its wavelength depends on its wavelength equal to square of its amplitude 2 5 The nature of the positive rays depend on the nature of the electrode the nature of the discharge tube the nature of the residual gas 2 5 Rutherford's model of atom failed because the atom did not have nucleus and electrons it did not account for the attraction between protons and neutrons it did not account for the stability of the atom 2 5 Bohr model of atom does not explain zeeman effect stark effect orgin of lines in H2 spectrum 2 5 Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are n=2,1=1 n=1,1=2 n=1,1=0 2 5 In the ground state of an atom, the electron is present in the nucleus in the second shell nearest to the nucleus 2 5 When 3p orbital is complete, the entering electron goes into 4s 3d 4p 2 5 Orbitals having same energy are called hybrid orbitals valence orbitals degenerate orbitals 2 5 The principle quantum number describes the distance from the nucleus the shape of the orbital the orientation of the orbital 2 5 The rules which describe the distributin of electron in atomic energy level are Auf-bau principle, Pauli's exculsion principle & Hunds rule. The Pauli exculsion principle refers to the orientation of obital in space fact that two electrons in the same orbital should have opposite spins energy of the obital 2 5 Cathode rays drive a small paddle wheel placed in their path. This observation shows that cathode rays travel in straight lines cathode rays are negatively charged cathode rays produce x-rays 2 5 No cathode rays are produced in the discharge tube when gas is under ordinary pressure even if voltage of 500 to 10000 is applied. Voltage is low discharge tube is not coloured gas does not conduct current at ordinary pressure 2 5 e/m of cathode rays is same but for positive rays e/m changes by changing gas in the discharge tube because cathode rays are small sized particles cathode rays have same charge nature of cathode rays is same for all gasses, but masses of nuclei are different for different gases 2 5 When cathode rays strike the anode metal, X-rays are emitted and not the positive rays because cathode rays are material particles cathod rays knock out electrons from anode, which emit X-rays when outer electronens take their place cathode rays are obsorbed by the nucleus 2 5 Positive particle in discharge tube is produced by ionization of gas molecules, which is caused by gas molecules collide with anode gas molecules are at high temperature gas molecules produce x-rays 2 6 The force which holds the atoms together to form a compound is called a chemical bond Van der wall;s force dispersion force 2 6 The chemical reactivity of an element depends upon the umber of valence shell electrons only total of electrons in all shells number of neutrons in an atom of the element 2 6 Noble gases are stable substances reactive substances light substances 2 6 The driving force for making a bond is to attain noble gas electronic configuration to make solid compounds to make different compounds 2 6 Elements have the tendency to attain 8 electrons in their valence shell. This is known as Octet rule Hunds rule Pauli exclusion Principle 2 6 When two hydrogen atoms approach to from a chemical bond the repulsive forces dominate the attractive forces the attractive forces, dominate the repulsive forces the energy of atoms increases 2 6 The atomic radius of hydrogen is 37 pecometer manometer angstrom 2 6 Ionic radius, In a period from left to rigth increase decreases decreases then increases 2 6 The electronegativity of elements in a period from left to right decreases increases first decreases then increase 2 6 A bond between two atoms may be obtained by sharing of electrons such a bond is called an ionic bond a coordinate bond a dative bond 2 6 Which of the following is a polar molecules carbon dioxide carbon tetrachloride methanol 2 6 Molecular orbital picture of N2 indicates one unpaired electron two unpaired electrons no unpaired electron 2 6 Molecular orbital picture of O2 indicates one unpaired electron two unpaired electrons no unpaired electron 2 6 Which of the following is not correct regarding bonding molecular orbitals? bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than atomic orbitals from which they are formed bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density between the two unclei every electron in the bonding molecular orbitals contributes to the attraction between atoms 2 6 Which of the hydrogen halides has the highest percentage of ionic character? HCI HBr HF 2 6 Formation of a chemical bond between atoms of elements is based on Pauli exclusin principle octer rule electropositive character of elements 2 6 Noble gases are most stable of all other elemetns because these do not react with one another these are mono atomic gases their ionization energies are high 2 7 Thermochemistry is the study of chemical reaction accompanying heat change rate change mass change 2 7 When a bond breaks heat is evolved heat is absorbed no change in heat contents takes palce 2 7 A reaction in which heat is given out is an endothermic reaction an exothermic reaction a thermochemica l reaction 2 7 According to SI-system heat contents are measured in units of calorie joules ergs 2 7 which one of the following is not a spontaneous process flow of water from higher to lower level neutralization of strong acid with strong base when a piece of Zn is added to the the blue copper sulphate solution the colour disappears 2 7 chemical reactions involve energy changes. The study of the heat changes during chemical changes is called thermochemist ry Chemical kinetics Chemical equilibrium 2 7 Kinetic energy of the molecules is due to Transnational motion rotational motion vibrational motion 2 7 Neutralization of a strong acid with a strong base is non- spontaneous reaction spontaneous reaction chemical equilibrium 2 7 Buring of coal in air is initiated by a spark and it is an example of spontaneous reaction because buring of coal in air releases large amount of energy buring of coal is an endothermic process coal and air react giving reversible reaction 2 7 A macroscopic property of a system which describes the initial and final state of the system is called physical property chemical property energy of system 2 7 The SI unit of heat and energy is calorie joules watt 2 7 One calorie is equal to 5.184j 3.184j 4.1184j 2 7 The branch of chemistry which deals with thermal energy changes in chemical reactions is called chemical kinetic thermodynamic s thermochemist ry 2 7 The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction, when represented in chemical equation is called heat of reaction free energy of reaction entropy of reaction 2 7 The branch of science which deals with energy transformations is know as thermochemist ry kinetics photochemistry 2 7 The total energy depends on the state of system enthaply free energy of reaction entropy of reaction 2 7 The energy required to break one mole of bonds to form neutral atoms bond length bond strength bond energy 2 8 When rate of forward reaction is equal to rate of backward reaction, then the equilibrium established is called chemical equilibrium static equilbrium dynamic equilibrium 2 8 The rate at which a substance reacts, is directly proportional to its active mass and the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the proudct of the active masses of reacting substances, is called law of conservation of energy Le-Chateliers principle law of mass action 2 8 Chemical equlibrium involving reactants and products in more than one phase is called static dynamic homegeneous 2 8 Hydrogen gas and iodine vapours combine to form HI at 425 C the same composition of mixture is present if we start with decomposition of HI. It suggests a static equilibrium law of mass action a dynamic equilibrium 2 8 Law of mass action states that rate of chemical reaction is directly proportional to the product of active masses of the reactants. The term active mass means mass in grams converted to products number of moles number of moles per dm3 of reactants 2 8 The value of Kp is greater than Kc for a gaseous reaction when number of molecules of products is greater than the reactants number of molecules of reactants is great than those of products number of molecules of reactants and products equal 2 8 Le-chatiler's principle is applied on the reversible reactions in order to determine the rate of reaction predict the direction of reaction determine the extent of reaction 2 8 0.1M HCI has PH =1.0, it is about 100 times stonger than acetic acid. Then pH of acetic acid will be 0.1 2 1.3 2 8 If the difference of pKa values of the two acids is 2, then acid with smaller pKa is 10 times stronger acid acid with greater pKa is 10 times stronger acid acid with smaller pKa is 100 times stronger acid 2 8 Whenever a weak base is dissolved in water, it give its conjugate acid. Similarly a weak acid in water produces its conjugate base. This conjugate acid-base pair concept is stated by law of mass action Le-chatiler's principle common ion effect 2 8 Which statement is incorrect for a Buffer solution solution which resists the change in its pH value by adding small quantity of acid or base a solution of mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong base a solutoin of strong acid+salt of this acid with strong base 2 9 A homogeneous mixture of two or more than two chemical substances is called solute solution solvent 2 9 A solution which contains a relatively small amount of solute dissolved in the solvetn is called diluted solution concentrated solution saturated solution 2 9 Number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 kg of solvent is know as molarity formality molality 2 9 The ratio of the number of moles of a particular component of the solution to the total number of moles of all the componetns of the solution is called % age mole fraction fomality 2 9 The process in which solvent molecules surround and interact with solute ions or molecules is called hydration solvation hydrolysis 2 9 The process in which water moleucules surround solute particles is called hydration salvation hydrolysis 2 9 If the ionic proudct of a solution is less than the solubility product, the solution is supersaturated unsaturated ideal 2 9 If ionic product of solution is greater than solubility products, the solution is supersaturated saturated unsaturated 2 9 what is the molarity of a solution containing 15.0g urea in 500 cm3 of solution 0.5 M 1 m 1.5 M 2 9 The molarity of the solution containing x grames (NH4)2SO4 in 500 cm3 of the solution is 0.6.what is x? 39.6 45.1 40.5 2 9 The molarity of toluene solution in bezene is 0.22 if 5 grams of toluene is dissolved, then mass of benzene in grams is 267 260 240 2 9 The number of moles of NH4Cl dissolved in 500 cm3 of its 15% W/N sollution is 1 mole 1.4 moles 2.0 moles 2 9 Silver amalgam is a solution consisting of the type liquied is solute and solvent is solid liquied is solute, liquied is solvent solid is solute and solid is the solvent 2 9 Dust particles in smoke is a solutin of the type linquid is solute and solid is solvent solid is solute and liquid is solvent solid is solute and gas is solvent 2 9 A solution of two components is called binary solution dilute solution orginal solution 2 9 The percentage by weight of NaCl, if 6.0 g of NaCl is dissolved in 120 g of water is 10.50% 5% 8.02% 2 9 10 mL of 1.5 M NaOH solution is neutralized by 20 ml of a -M HCI solution. The value of a will be 1 0.75 0.5 2 10 A device which converts electrical energy into chemical energy is called a galvanic cell a voltaic cell a electrollytic cell 2 10 Metals usually conduct electricity because there are mobile electrons is the metallic structure metals are decomposed by current metals have high resistance 2 10 Which of the following is ture about Galvanic cell anode is negatively charged reduction occurs at anode cathode is positively charge 2 10 The electrode through which the electrons enter the electrolytic solution in electroyltic cell is anode cathode may be anode or cathode 2 10 A cell in which chemcial energy is converted into electrical energy is called electrolytic cell galvanic cell fuel cell 2 10 when electric current is used to carry out non-spontaneous redox reaction,the process is called hydrolysis electrolysis decomposition 2 10 An electrochemical cell in which a spontaneous oxidation reduction reaction generates electric current is called electrolytic cell galvanic or voltaic cell dry cell 2 10 The process of electrical coating of one metal on another to protect, decorate or to have a greater resistance to corrosoin is called electroplating electrolysis conduction 2 10 The two half cells of a galvanic cell are connected by ammeter salt bridge hydrogen electrode 2 10 When a metal is dipped in 1 molar of its solution at 298 K, then potential set up is called standard electrode potential electric charge ionization potential 2 10 Electrochemical series is a list of elements arranged into the increasing order of their standard oxidation potential standard reduction potential cell voltage 2 10 The galvanic or voltaic cells which cannot be recharged is called primary cell secondary cell infinite cells 2 10 The galvanic or voltaic cells which are rechargeable called as primary cells secondary cells dry cell 2 11 With the progression of the reaction the slope of the curve between concentration of products and time gradually becomes more steep gradually becomes less steep no change occurs in slope 2 11 The rate of reaction determined at a given time is called average rate instantaneous rate specific rate 2 11 The chemical method used for determination of rate of reaction is spectroscopic conductometric refractometric 2 11 Factor which slows down the rate of reactions is small size of the particles of the reactant high temperature of reaction more concentration of reactant 2 11 A substance which increases the rate of a reaction without being consumed during the reaction is called an autocatalyst a catalyst a negative catalyst 2 11 Which statement is not correct enzymes catalyse a specfic reaction enzymes show catalytic activity at a specific temperature the catalytic activity of enzymes is stopped if optimum pH is changed 2 11 In the rate equation when the concentration of reactants are unity then rate is equal to instantaneous rate average rate active mass of products 2 11 Initially the rate of increase in the concentration of products in a reaction is slowest moderate rapid 2 11 Instantaneous rate of chemical reaction is rate of reaction between specific time intervals rate of reaction in the beginning rate of reaction in the end 2 11 The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is called average rate instantaneous rate initial rate 2 11 Sum of exponetns of the concentration terms in the rate equation is called rate of reaction between specific time intervals order of reaction specific rate constant 2 11 The average rate and instantaneous rate of a reaction are equal in the beginning at the end when the time interval of two rates is zero 2 11 The experimental relationship between a reaction rate and the concentration of reactants is called order of reaction rate law law of mass action 2 11 when the rate of reaction is entirely indpendent of the concentration of reactant molecules then order of reaction is zero negative in fractions 2 11 If initial concentration of the reactants and half life period of the reaction is known, then we can determine average rate of reaction order of reaction rate constant k 2 12 Al-Razi, Dobereiner, Newland and Mendeleef contributed in the development of the concept of periodicity of the properties of the elements law of triads law of octaves 2 12 In the modren periodic Table, the elements are placed in the ascending order of their atomic masses melting points boiling points 2 12 The period table contains elements in vertical column. These vertical columns are called groups periods blocks 2 12 The horizontal rows in the Periodic Table are called period. The number of periods in the periodic table are 5 6 7 2 12 The number of elements in the first, second and third period are 2,8,18 8,2,18 2,18,8 2 12 The IA elemetns are called alkaline earth metals alkali metals the halogens 2 12 Rare earth elements are s-block elements p-block elements d-block elements 2 12 Transition elements have valence electrons in s-orbital p-orbital d- orbital 2 12 The following elements are arranged as metal non-metal and metalliod Na, Si, S Si, Na,S Na,S,Si 2 12 The atomic radius varies as shown increase in a period from left to right and decreases down a group increases in a period from left to right and down a group decreases in a period from left to right and increase down a group 2 12 The first ionization energy of elements varies increases in period and group increase in a period and decrease down the group decrease in period and group 2 12 Number of elements in the first period of the periodic table are two four one 2 12 which orbital is in a process of completion in case of transition elements? p-orbital f-orbital d-orbital- 2 12 Which is the longest period of the periodic Table? 5th 7th 6th 2 12 The second and third period contain elements six five eight 2 12 The fourteen elements following lanthanum are called actinides lanthanides trans-uranic elements 2 12 The amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom of an element in the gaseous state is called electron affinity electronegativit y ionization energy 2 12 In a group, the ionization energy increases decreases remains constant 2 12 In a period,melting points of elements increases in period and group decreases remain constant 2 12 The oxides of electronegative elements are basic neutralization of strong acid with strong base acidic 2 12 The elements of group IIA are called halogens noble gases alkali metals 2 12 What is the nature of Na2O? basic weakly basic strongly basic 2 12 What is the nature of SO2? basic strongly acidic weakly acidic 2 12 What is the nature of Al2O3? acidic basic amphoteric 2 12 The fourth period contains elements 8 16 18 2 13 The maximum number of electrons in the outermost shell of s-block elements is one two three 2 13 S-block elements consist of alkali metals alkaline earth metals alkali and alkaline earth metals 2 13 Alkaline earth metals possess two electrons in their outermost f-orbital d-orbital p-orbital 2 13 which colour is imparted by sodium Yellow violet red 2 13 In a group IA from top to bottom, as the atomic number increases, there is a steady increase in atomic size ionic size both atomic and ionic sizes 2 13 In a group IIA from top to bottom as the atomic number increases there is regular decrease in ionic size atomic size ionization potential 2 13 Densities, m.p and b.p of alkaline earth metals are high than alkali metals due to high ionization potential high nuclear charge high ionzation potential and nuclear charge 2 13 in alkali and alkaline earht metals down the group, there is decreasing trend in m.p b.p ionization potential 2 13 in alkali and alkaline earth metals down the group, there is increasing trend in electropositivity atomic radii atomic volume 2 13 Alkali metals react violently with halogens to form hydrides halides anhydrides 2 13 What property is associated with sodium? soft nature good conductor yellow flame 2 13 Carbonates of alkali metals dissovle freely in water to form acidic solutions neutral solutions alkaline solutions 2 13 The commonly used name for sodium hydroxide is soda ash baking soda caustic soda 2 13 Sodium carbonate is generally called washing soda or soda ash baking soda caustic soda 2 13 Sodium forms largely normal oxides per-oxides super-oxide 2 13 which of the following are electropositive in nature ? alkali metals alkaline earth metals halogens 2 14 Sodium sillicate is a useful compound of sllicon. Which statement is false it is used as a filler for soap used in textile as fire proof it used for making white cement 2 14 Semi conductors have been used in photoelectric cells and in solar batteries. Which statement about their conductance is not true. their resistance increases with increasing temperature their resistance decreases with intensity of light their resistance decreases with increasing temperature 2 14 which metal is used in the thermit process because of its activity iron copper aluminum 2 14 Aluminum oxide is basic oxide acidic oxide amphoteric oxide 2 14 which element among the following _____________ belongs to group IVA of the Periodic Table barium iodine lead 2 14 Boric acid cannot be used as an antiseptic for washing eyes in soda bottles 2 14 which of the following elements is not present abundantly in earth's crust? sillicon aluminum sodium 2 14 Tincal is a mineral of AI B Si 2 14 The elements which belong to group IIIA and IVA group are called s-block elements p-block elements d-block elements 2 14 bauxite is ore of Al B si 2 14 bauxite, crystoblite and mica are ores of barium calcium zinc 2 14 the oxides of B and Si are acidic basic neutral 2 14 C and Si form divalent compounds trivalent compounds tetravalent compounds 2 14 boron, aluminum, galium, indium and thallium belong to group IV-A of the periodic Table, show a decrease with increasing relative atomic mass the first ionization energy the basic character of the oxides ionici character of the compounds 2 14 Name non-metallic element present in III-A B AI Ga 2 14 Colemanite is the ore of beryllium boron barium 2 15 Phosporous uses the following orbitals for bonding 3s 3p 3d 2 15 The excited state electronic configuration of phosphorous has unpaired electrons 3 4 5 2 15 Dinitrogen pentoxide has oxidation number of nitrogen 2 3 4 2 15 Phosphorus pentoxide is a powerful oxidising agent reducing agent dehydrating agent 2 15 Elements of group VIA show a covalency of +2, +4 and +l except S secondary cells Po 2 15 Which statement about oxygen and sulphur is not ture both exhibit allotropic forms both are usually divalent both combine with metals to from O2- and S2- 2 15 Out of all element of group VA, the highest ionization energy is possessed by N P Sb 2 15 Out of all element of group VA, the highest melting and boiling points is shown by the element Te N S 2 15 Electropositive character increases down the group due to decrease in ionization potenital increase in atomic size of the elements decrease in electronetativity of the elements 2 15 Ozone is an allotropic from of sulphur phosphorous oxygen 2 15 One sulphur molecule contains 2 atom of sulphur 4 atom of sulphur 8 atoms of sulphur 2 15 Oxygen molecule has two unpaired electrons. It is therefore ferromagnetic paramagnetic diamagnetic 2 15 Sulphur trioxide is an anhydride of sulphurous acid sulphuric acid hyposulphuric acid 2 15 Relatively pure sulphuric acid is manufactured by lead chamber process Haber's process contact process 2 16 The halogens exist as halides. Which is not the common place where they are found in sea in lakes in the atmosphere as HX 2 16 Because of its small size and due to restriction of its valence shell to an octet fluorine differs from other halogens. Which behavious of fluorine is incorrct it has highest first ionization energy it has highest electronegativit y it is more reactive than other halogens 2 16 The oxidising power of halognes depends on various factors. Which is not the correct reason energy dissociation electron affinity hydration energy of ion 2 16 There is definite graduation of the physical property of hydrogen halides in one of these which one m.p b.p heat of fusion 2 16 The reaction of chlorine with cold and hot NaOH to give NaCl and NaCIO is an example of neutralization reaction oxidation reaction reduction reaction 2 16 what is not use of bleaching powder for the preparation of chlorine and oxygen as disinfectant in the sterlization of water for bleaching cotton 2 16 Which of the following hydrogen halide is the weakest acid in solution HF HBr HI 2 16 which halogen will react spontaneously with Au(s) to produce Au3+? Br2 F2 I2 2 16 Bleaching powder may be produced by passing chlorine over calcium carbonate hydrated calcium sulphate anhydrous calcium sulphate 2 16 An element that has a high ionization energy and tends to be chemically inactive would most likely to be an alkali metal a transitionsleme nt a noble gas 2 16 Which of the following is not gas Xe Rn Kr 2 16 The heat of vaporization of noble gases increases gradually down the group decrease gradually down the group none of these 2 16 Which of the halogens is radioactive F CI I 2 16 Chlorine is used for purification of water as a bleaching agent extraction of gold from its ores 2 16 Which one of the following is found in solid state? bromine iodine fluorine 2 16 At room temperature fluorine is pale Yellow gas greenish yellow gas red-brown liquid 2 17 Which element does not belong to 4d series Ti violet Mn 2 17 which element belongs to 5d series v Nb Pd 2 17 s-block elements closely resemble in their physical and chemical properties. Which statement is incorrect they show variable valency their ions and compounds are coloured they are good conductors of heat and electricty 2 17 All 3d series elements show variable oxidation states. The one shown by all 3d element is 2 3 4 2 17 A transition metal complex can be recognized by various terms, which is not the proper term central metal ion coordination number ligand 2 17 f-Block elements are also called non typical trnsition elements outer transition elements number of element 2 17 the strength of binding energy of transition elements depends upon number of neutrons number of unpaired electrons number of electrons 2 17 The percentage of carbon in different types of iron products is in the order of Cast iron>wrought iron> steel wrought iron > steel > cast iron cast iron >steel>wrought iron 2 17 The colour of transition metal complexes is due to d-d transitions of electrons para magnetic nature of transition elements ionization 2 17 The total number of d-bock transition element is 110 14 40 2 17 Trasnition metals form complexes due to the participation of partially filled f-orbitals d-orbital s-probitals 2 17 Transition elements are insulators good conductors bad conductors 2 17 Out of 110 known elements, transition elements are 40 60 50 2 17 Most transition elements show diamgentic behaviour ferromagnetic behaviour paramagnetic behaviour 2 17 Bell metal is an alloy of Sn and copper iron zinc 2 18 which of the following is not an organic compound ammonium cyanate glucose urea 2 18 who rejected the vital force theory wholer fisher newton 2 18 which is not the characteristic property of organic compounds they form long chain compounds organic cmpounds are generally covalent compounds they exist in homologous series 2 18 fossil fuels are sources of organic comounds. Which one is not fossil fuel petroleum coal naturalgas 2 18 the destructive distillation of coal gives three products.what is not the product of destructive distillation of coal coal gas carbon dioxide coal tar 2 18 the total coal resources of pakistan are estimated to be 184 billion tonnes 184 million tonnes 1.84 billion tounes 2 18 the major portion of natural gas is ethane propane butane 2 18 the fractions obtained from fractional distillation of petroleum are placed in increasing order of their boiling points. Which order is corect natural gas, petroleum ether, gasoline, kerosene petroleum ether, kerosene, gasoline, natural gas gasoline, kerosene, natural gas, petroleum ether 2 18 cracking is a process by which higher hydrocabon are broken down into low boiling hydrocabon. Which one is not generally a procedure for cracking thermal cracking catalytic cracking steam cracking 2 18 the use of tetra ethyl lead in petrol as an efficient antiknock agent is being discouraged.which reason is correct it is costly it damages the engine Pb is difficult to obtain in bulk quantities 2 18 which one of the followings is a heterocyclic compound cyclohexanol phenol pyridine 2 18 as the number of carbon atoms increases the number of isomers also incresase.the 6C compound hexane has as many as 3 isomers 5 isomers 6 isomers 2 18 The functional group isomer of dimethylether is ethyI alcohol propyl alcohol diethyl ether 2 18 Which is the chain isomer of n-pentane iso pentane neopentene n-pentene 2 18 The geometric isomerism is caused by the restricted rotation of pi bond free rotation of a pi bond the presence of similar groups on a carbon atom 2 18 In ter-butly alcohol, the tertiary carbon is bonded to two hydrogen atoms three hydrogen atoms one hydrogen atom 2 18 The chemist who synthesized urea from ammonium cyanate was Bezelius Koibe Wholer 2 18 A double bond consists of two sigma bonds one sigma and one pi bond one sigma and two pi bonds 2 18 Ether shows the phenomenon of position isomerism chain isomerism metamerism 2 18 The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of compounds containing carbon as an essential element is called physical inorganic nuclear 2 19 Which method is not used for the preparation of alkenes dehydrohaloge nation of alkyl halides dehydration of alcohols dehalogenation of vic-dihalides 2 19 Which reaction is used as test for the presence of alkenes reation of cold dilute alkaline KMn04 combustion polymerization 2 19 Paraffins are also called alkanes alkynes alkenes 2 19 The process in which orbitals of different energies and shapes mix with each other to give equivalent hybrid oritals is called isomerization polymerization hybridization 2 19 When acetylene is passed through a copper tube at 300C, it polymerizes to polyacetylene polyethylene benzene 2 19 Hydrogenation of alkenes/alkynes in the presence of Ni as catalyst at 300c results in the formation of corresponding alkanes. This reaction is known as sabatier- sendererns reaction kolbes reation Cannizaro's reaction 2 19 Methane is used in the preparation of urea in the preparation of hydrogen in the preparation of chloroform 2 19 Alkyl halides when reduced with nascent hydrogen in the presence of zn +HCI, are converted to alkynes alkenes alkanes 2 19 the elimination of HX from adjacent carbon atoms is called halogenation hydrohalogenat ion dehydrohaloge nation 2 19 Alkenes combine readily with electrophilic reagents such as halogens giving. haloalkanes gem dihalides vicinal dihalides 2 19 Ethyl hydrogen sulphate on hydrolysis with boiling water is converted to methyl alcohol propyl alcohol ethyl alcohol 2 19 Ethylene combines with water in the presence of H2SO4 + HgSo4 and forms ethyl chloride ethyl alcohol carboxylic acid 2 19 When ethene is passed through a dilute solution of KMn04 the pink colour changes to red blue green 2 19 Ethylene polymerizes at 100 atm pressure and 400 C give polybenzene polyalcohol polypropyele 2 19 which is used for welding purposes? ethane nitrogen methane 2 19 Acetylene is used in the manufacture of rubber plastic ethyl alcohol 2 20 Which of the followings is not an electrophilic substitution reaction of benzene nitration sulphonation Fridel-craft alkylation 2 20 The benzene molecule contains three double bonds two double bonds one double bond 2 20 Aromatic hydrocarbons are the derivatives of normal series of paraffins alkenes benzene 2 20 Benzene does not undergo subsittution reactions addition reactions oxidation reactions 2 20 Amongst the following, the compound that can be most readily sulphonated is toluene benzene nitrobenzene 2 20 which compound is the most reative one benzene ethene ethane 2 20 Aromatic compounds burn with sooty flame because they have high percentage of hydrogen they have a ring structure they have high percentage of carbon 2 20 The conversion of n-hexane into benzene by heating in the presence of Pt is called iosmerization aromatization dealkylation 2 20 The nature of ---CI group is orho directing meta directing para directing 2 20 the nature of ---COOH group is meta directing ortho directing para directing 2 20 which property of benzene may be directly attributed to the stability associated with its delocalised structure? it has a low boiling point it does not conduct electricity it tends to undergo substitution rather than additionreactio n 2 20 Benzeme is insoluble in Water alcohol petrol 2 20 Identify the compound formed, when ethene combines with water in the presence of 10% sulphuric acid and HgSO4 as catalyst carbinol methanol athanol 2 20 With ALCL3 as catalyse, benzene reacts with Alkyl and Acyl chlorides giving alkylated and acylated benzene respectively. This reaction is known as Friedel and Crafts reaction Nitration reaction Halogenation reaction 2 20 The benzene molecule contains three double bonds two double bonds one double bonds 2 20 Amongst the following, the compound that can be most readily sulphonated is toluene benzene nitrobenzene 2 20 Which one of the following belongs to meta directing group? halogens alkyl group phenyl group 2 20 The formula C6H5 represents benzyl group vinyl group phenyl group 2 21 In a primary alkyl halide, the halogen atom is attached to a carbon which is further attached to only one carbon atom two catbon atoms three carbon atoms 2 21 The order of the reactivety of an alkyl halide (R - X ) for a particular alkyl group is iodide> bromide> chloride choride > bromide > iodide bromide > chloride > iodide 2 21 SN2 reaction can be best carried out with primary alkyl halides secondary alkyl halides teritary alkyl halides 2 21 Elimination bimolecular reactions usually obey first order kinetics second order kinetics third order kinetics 2 21 For which mechanism, the first step involved is the same E and E2 E2 and SN2 W1 and E2 2 21 Alkyl halides are considered to be very reactive compounds towards nucleophiles because they have an electrophilic carbon they have an electrophilic carbon and good leaving group they have an electrophilic carbon and bad leaving group 2 21 The rate of E1 reaction depends upon the concentration of substrate the concentration of nucleophile the concentration of substrate as well as nucleophile 2 21 Monohalo derivativies of alkanes are called amides alkenes alkI halides 2 21 Alkyl halides can be prepared by treating halogen acids with ethane ethane ethanol 2 21 Alkanes may be prepared by the reaction of alkyl halides with alcohol alkenes ketones 2 21 When alkyl halides are heated with aqueous solution of ammonia at about 100 c ,amines are formed. This reaction is known as williamsons synthesis Hoffmans reaction Wurtz reaction 2 21 Halogens on treating with silver salts of acids give alcohol esteres phenol 2 21 The reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 in the presence of pyridine as catalyst gives acids acid chloride alkl halide 2 21 Alkyl halides on treatment with metallic Na give alkyness alkenes alkanes 2 21 Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides give alkaness alkenes alkynes 2 22 which compound contains-OH in their molecule alcohol phenol alcohol and phenol 2 22 Alochols, phenosl and ethers may be considered as derivative of hydrocarbons benzene carboxylic acids 2 22 Methanol and ethanol can be distingusished by iodoform test lucas test dichromate/H2 SO4 oxidation test 2 22 Phenol is a weak acid. The correct order of acid strength of carboxylic acid,phenol and alcohol is carboxylic acid> phenol>alcohol carboxylic acid> alcoho>phenol pheno>carboxy lic acid> alcoho 2 22 Bakelite is a polymer obtaiend from two monomers phenol and ethanol pehnol and methanol phenol and methanal 2 22 The IUPAC name of diethly ether is methoxy methyoxy ethyane ethyoxy ethane 2 22 Diethyl ether is obtained by Williamsons synthesis using ethanol+Na+C 2H5 Br ethanol+Mg+C 2H5 Br methanol+Na+ CH3 Br 2 22 Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid by hydrogenation hydration oxidation reactions 2 22 Which enzyme is not involved in fermentation of starch? distase zymase urease 2 22 Methyl alcohol is not used as a sovlent as an anti- freezing agent as a substitute for petrol 2 22 When phenol is reduced in the presence of Zn dust, we get cyclohexene cyclohexane benzene 2 22 Alcohol reacts with halogen acid to produce alkyl halides aldelydes ketones 2 22 Nirtration of phenol gives o-nitrophenol p-nitrophenol c-nitrophenol 2 22 which of the following is used as anesthetics? alcohol diethylether phenol 2 22 Treatment of a secondary alcohol with a suitable oxidizing agent (K2Cr2 O7) results in the formation of ketone aldehyde ether 2 22 Which of the following is known as wood spirit? ethyl alcohol propyl alcohol methly alcohol 2 22 Methly alcohol possesses burning taste poisonous causing blindness 2 22 Oxidation of methly alcohol gives formaldehyde acetone ester 2 23 Distillation of calcium salts of acetic acid and formic acids gives acetaldehyde. What compound vould be obtained if ony calcium salt of acetic acid is distilled formaldehyde butyraldehyde propionaldehyd e 2 23 Aldol condensation is a reaction of cold dilute solution of alkali with all aldehydes all ketones aldehydes with x-hydrogen 2 23 Acetone reacts with HCN to form a cyanohydrin. It is an example of electrophilic addition electrophillic substitution nucleophilic addition 2 23 Which of the following compounds will not give iodoform test on treatment with 1/2 NaOH acetaldehyde acetone butanone 2 23 Cannizaro's reaction is given by formaldehyde acetaldehyde benzaldehyde 2 23 Which of the following reagents will react with the aldehydes and ketones? Grignard reagent Tollen's regent Fehiling's reagent 2 23 Aldelydes are the oxidation product of p-alcohols s-alcohols ter-alcohols 2 23 Almond essence is used to flavour food. A student tested a sample of almond essence using 2, 4-DNP reagent and obtained decoloured crystals which had sharp melting point. Which class of compounds gives the test? alcohols carboxylic acids aldehydes with α-hydrogen 2 23 The carbon atom of a carbonyl group is sp hybridized sp2 hybridized sp3 hybridized 2 23 Formalin is 10% solution of formaldehyde in water 20% solution of formaldehyde in water 40% solution of formaldehyde in water 2 23 Ketones are prepared by the oxidation of primary alcohol secondary alcohol tertiary alcohol 2 23 Silver mirror test is applied for aldehydes alcohols acids 2 23 Aldehydes is distinguished from ketones by using Tollen's reagent Benedict regent Fehling solution 2 24 Carboxylicacids can generally be prepared by various methods. Which of the following methods is not suitable for making carboxylic acids. by the oxidation of primary alcohols by the hydrolysis of nitriles by the carbonation of Grignard, reagent 2 24 Monocarboxylic acids exist as dimer because of dipole-diple attraction hydrogen bonding Van der Waals forces 2 24 Ester are pleasant smelling compounds. Which ester possesses odour like pineapple anmlacetate amylbutyrate ethylbutyrate 2 24 Essential amino acids are those amiono acids which body can not systhesize body can synthesize x-amino acids 2 24 Acetic acid is manufactured by distillation fermentation ozonolysis 2 24 A carboxylic acid contains a hydroxyl group a carbonyl group a hydroxyl and carbonyl group 2 24 Which of the folloiwng is not fatty acid propanoic acid acetic acid phthalls acid 2 24 Acetamide is prepared by heating ammonium acetate heating methl cyanide heating ethyl acetate 2 24 The reaction of alcohol with acetic acid is known as saponification estriification ammonolysis 2 24 Acetic acid is categorized as a weak acid because it is less volatie has less density has less dissociation 2 24 When carboxylic acid is reacted with soda lime and alkali, it produces carbon dioxide and simple hydrocarbon, which of the following is that alkanes alkenes alkynes 2 24 Ethyl acetate, an ester when allowed to react with water in acidic media, it produces acetic acid and ethl alcohol. This process is also know as hydration salvation hydrolysis 2 24 Ester have peculiar smell, which of the following is used as an essence of orange isoaml acetate iosaml valerate octyl acetate 2 24 An artifical smell of banana is produced in many aritcles by using esters which of the following is that amyl acetate isoaml valerate octly acetate 2 24 The aicd present in the stings of bees and wasps is acetic acid formic acid formalin 2 25 Macromolecules or polymers are large molecules built up form small moecules called moneomers. This hypothesis put forward by schrodixger standinger Lewis 2 25 Which of the following is not an inorganic macromelecule diamond graphite sand 2 25 One of the following is not a natural polymer which one cellulose protein nylon 2 25 The structure of a polymer depends upon how the monomer repeating unit joins to make a polymer. What is not the type of structure of a polymer linear polymer branched polymer cross-linked or inter connected polymer 2 25 The molecular mass of a polymer is obtained by multiplying mass of the monomer unit with the degree of polymerization. The degree of polymerization of PVC is 1000. What is the molecular mass 60000 62000 63000 2 25 One of the following is not type of polymer homopolymer copolymer heteroplymer 2 25 Thermoplastic polymer can be softened and hardned when cooled repeatedly. Which one is not a thermoplastic polymer PVC (poly vinyl chloride) plastic toys exposy resin 2 25 The mechanisim of polymerisation involves free redical addition polymerisation or condensation polymerisation. Which statemetn is correct polythene is addition polymer polstryrene Poly vingylchloride (PVC) is a condensation polymer 2 25 Nylon, 6,6 is a condensation polymer of adipic acid and glycol phthalic acid and glycol adipic acid and hexaethylene diamine 2 25 Which of the following is not a biopolymer, that is resistant to paints acrylic resins polyvinyl acetate polystyrene 2 25 One of the following is not a biopolymer, which one starch lipid protein 2 25 Which of the following is not a carbohydrate glycogen cellulose starch 2 25 Denaturation of protein means the structure of protein is disrupted indicate which factor does not denature protein heating prorein pH changes oxidising agent 2 25 Lipids are naturally occurring compounds produced in cell and are water insoluble but soluble in organic solvetns. One of the followings is not a lipid. Which one a triglyceride sterol vitamin D 2 25 A fat or oil is charcterised for extent of unsaturation by one of the following number, which one rancidity number acid number iodino number 2 25 Cholesterol is a precursor of steriod hormones. What is the class of a steroid a natural lipid a carbohydrae a protein a hydrocarbon 2 25 In which of these processes are small organic molecules made into macromolecules the crecking of petroleum fractions the fractional distillation of crude oil the polymerization 2 25 Which of these polymers is an addition polymer nylon 6 , polystyrene terylene 2 25 which of these polymers is a synthetic polymer? animal fat starch cellulose 2 25 Plastics are a pollution problem because many plastics are made from petroleum are very inflammable burn to produce toxic fumes 2 26 What element is not essential in the growth of plants and is not required in the fertilizers nitrogen potassium phosphorus 2 26 Which no of nitrogen fertilizers plants in Pakistan are 10 12 14 2 26 At present the number of cement factories in Pakistan are 20 22 25 2 26 The number of paper industires in Pakistan are 30 25 35 2 26 Which three elemetns are needed for the healthy growth of plants S,S,P N,Ca,P N,P,K 2 26 Which woody raw material is used for the manufacture of paper pulp? cotton bagasse poplar 2 26 Phosphorus helps in the growth of root leave stem 2 26 Micro-nutrients are required in quantity ranging from 4g-40g 6g-200g 6kg-200kg 2 26 During the manufacturing process of cement the temperature of the decomposition zone goes up to 600 C 800 C 1000 C 2 26 The word paper is derived from the name of which reedy plant rose sun flower papyrus 2 26 Which is not a calcareous material? lime clay marble 2 26 How many zones through which the charge passes in a rotary klin? 4 3 2 2 26 Ammonium nitrate fertillzer is not used for which crop cotton wheat sugar cane 2 26 The substances which are added to the soil to provide one or more nutrient elemetns essential for plant growth are called minerals hormones fertiliazers 2 26 The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia is 80% 82% 90% 2 26 Natural fertilizers are materials derived from plants only animals only both plants and amimals 2 26 substances that tend to decrease the activity of enzymes are called coenzyme activators inhibitors 2 26 The substances added in the paints for improving the mechanical properties is called pigmetn filter stabilizer 2 26 Which of the following are thermoplastic materials? PVC (poly vinyl chloride) polystryences polyethlene 2 26 Silk is an example of animal fiber vegtable fibre mineral fibere 2 27 Which one of the followiong is not a component of environment hydrosphere lithosphere biosphere 2 27 The gases in the atmosphere are essential for sustaining life on earth thus oxygen is required for breathing . What for Is carbon dioxide required to help clean the atmosphere to help in fixing of baqcteria to help plant to underg photosynthesis 2 27 Oceans, rivers streams, lakes, polar ice caps, glaciers and goup water reserviors are included in hydrosphere litosphere biosphere 2 27 Which factor is helping to reduce the environmental pollution rapid growth of population urbanization industrizalizatio n 2 27 Which is not the affect of polluted air on environment acid rain smog ozone 2 27 CFCs destroy ozone laryer. How many ozone molecule a chlorine free redical can destroy 10,000 20,.000 100,000 2 27 Surface and ground water sources are contaminated by various human activties. Which of the followings is not a human activity that causes contamination in fresh water live stock waste oil leaks and spills disposal of industtrial effluetns 2 27 Biochemical oxygen demadn (BOD) is the capacity of organic matter in natural wter to consume oxygen within a period a 2 days 5 days 6 days 2 27 Potable water is considered to be safe for human consumption not safe for human consumption the surface water 2 27 Which step is unecessary for purification of water for drinking puposes aeration coagulaton treatmetn with chlorine 2 27 Which of the following waste material is not recycled for use again paper plastic toys hides of animals 2 27 The PH range of the acid rain is 07-Aug 7-6.5 6.5-6 2 27 Peroxyacetylnitrate (PAN) is an irritant to human beings and it affects eyes ears stomach 2 27 Fungicides are the pesticides which control the growth of fungus kill insects kill plants 2 27 Ecosystem is a smaller unity of lithosphere nydosphers atmosphere 2 27 The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the waste water is due the salt of lead chromium (vi) copper 2 27 The temperature in the incineration of industrial and hazardous waste process had a range 900 to 1000 C 250 to 500 C 950 to 1300 C 2 27 Newspaper can be recycled again and again by howmany times ? 2 3 4 2 18 Reaction of 2-butene with HBr gives only one product because the molecular is symmetrical around C = C bond the molecule is asymmetrical around C = C bond It is more stable 2 18 Bromoethane can be converted to ethene by Reaction with aq. KOH Reaction with alcoholic KOH Oxidation 2 18 During Pyrolysis which bond bill break rapidly? C – C C – H C = C 2 18 Which one of the following compounds has longest C-H bond? Ethane Ethene Ethyne 2 18 Ozonolysis of Ethene produces Aldehyde Ketone Mixture of a and b 2 18 Which one of the following will not react with tollens‟ reagent? Ethyne 1-butyne 3-Methyl-1- butyne 2 18 Which one of the following is the least stable hydrocarbon? Cycloprane Propane Cyclobutane 2 18 Replacement of hydrogen atom by -SO3H group in benzene is called Nitration Alkylation Sulphonation 2 18 Which of the following possess linear geometry Alkane Alkane Alkyne 2 18 Identify the hydrocarbon formed, when ethyl bromide reacts with, alcoholic KOH at1000 Methane Ethane Ethene 2 18 On passing ethene in to concentrated suphric acid the intermediate compound formed on hydrolysis with boiling water gives, Methyl alcohal Ethyl alcohal Ethyl hydrogen sulphate 2 18 Identify the compound formed when ethylene combins with water in the presence of 10% sulphuric acid and HgSO4 as catalyst Carbinol Methanol Ethanol 2 18 Acetylene has a characteristic ethereal smell resembling that of Ginger Vinegar Garlic 2 18 Polythene is a polymer of Ethane Ethene Acetone 2 18 The structure of benzene is Hexagonal Pyamidal Square planer 2 21 A molecule of oligosaccharide on hydrolysis produces ______ molecules of monosaccharide 1 2 4 2 21 A molecule of polysaccharide on hydrolysis produces ______ molecules of monosaccharides 2 3 2 – 10 2 21 A molecule of polysaccharide on hydrolysis produces ______ molecules of monosaccharides Many Few 2 – 10 2 21 Water soluble and crystalline carbohydrates are monosaccharid es oligosaccharid es polysaccharide s 2 21 Which one is non-reducing sugar Sucrose Glucose Fructose 2 21 Most animals cannot digest Starch Cellulose Proteins 2 1 The soul of chemistry is its dealing with Internal structural changes in matter Composition of matter Properties of matter 2 1 All of the following statements are incorrect for 20 mol of hydrogen peroxide except it has 20 mol of hydrogen atoms it has 30 mol of oxygen atoms it has 80 mol of atoms 2 1 A chemist poured lemon juice on soil, the idea that he may have in his mind is that there may be a possibility of a chemical reaction there may be a possibility of a chemical reaction lemon juice is dangerous to health 2 1 Which of the following is not related to a.m.u gram kilogram microgram 2 1 The number of significant figures in 0.00200 is two three five 2 1 All of the following statements are incorrect except precision and accuracy should go side by side in a scientific work scientific work must be precise, accuracy is not essential scientific work must be accurate, precision is not essential 2 1 Empirical formula and formula unit of an ionic compound are always similar are always different may be similar or different 2 1 Copper (II) oxide is mixed with organic compound during combustion analysis. The purpose is to carry out complete combustion to reduce the economy of the process to reduce the time for completion of the reaction 2 1 Bismark brown is a dye. Its molar mass is 228.3 g/mol. When the dye was analyzed by a scientist, it was found that it contains 30.68% nitrogen. How many nitrogen atoms are there in each Bismark brown molecule 6 5 4 2 1 The mass of 2 mole of sodium hydroxide will be 2 g 20 g 40 g 2 1 “A” compound is always consists of the same elements combined in the same fixed ratio”. The statement is a hypothesis a fact a law 2 1 An atom is smallest indivisible particle in an element smallest particle of an element which can undergo a chemical reaction building block of an element 2 1 A piece of paper is burnt in air, the gas produced is passed through distilled water. The PH of water solution will be 1 7 2.1 2 1 Which of the following is a substance ? sea water brass tape water 2 1 Freezing point of a substance is a temperature at which a liquid substance is converted to solid, it is always lower than its melting point usually a little lower than its melting point always higher than its melting point 2 1 A student subtracted 0.00055 from 10.2345678 and reported the result as 10.23401. But his friend told him that the result was wrong. What is the correct result 10.234017 10.2340178 10.234 2 1 The following statement contained in a student‟s laboratory report is a conclusion a gas is liberated colour of the gas is greenish yellow oxide of the gas is strongly acidic 2 1 A 50.00 mL sample of a cough mixture prepared by a pharmacist was found to have a mass of 46.0g. what is the density (in g/mL) of this mixture. Stated to the correct number of significant figures ? 0.92 0.92 0.92 2 1 Which of the sub-atomic particles not charged electron proton neutron 2 1 Object of the size of an atom can be observed in in electron microscope an x-ray spectrum atomic absorption spectrum 2 1 The item of an element is the smallest particle the fundamental particle the independent particle 2 1 wich of the following statement is correct.For a chamical? collid with each other collied with energy more than activation energy collied with energy less than activation energy 2 1 when energy is released during a reaction it is exothermic reaction endothermic reaction a free rradical reaction 2 1 A molecular ion is formedby passing a high energy electron beam through gaseous molecule dissolving a salt in dilute acid passing electric current through moltem salt 2 1 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5. What is the mass of 2 mol of chlorine gas? 142 g 71 g 35.5 g 2 1 Mass spectrometer measures the exact mass of an element average mass of an element the number of elements present in a molecule 2 1 Isotopes differ in the numberof neutrons number of protons number of electrons 2 1 Which of the following statements is not true? Isotopes with even atomic masses are comparatively abundant Isotopes with odd atomic masses are comparative abundant Isotpes with even atomic masses and even atomic numbers are comparatively abundant 2 3 Professor Qawwi told his students that air is a mixture because: suddenly a student raised his hand and said it is colourless oxygen can be removed from it its composition is different at different altitudes 2 3 Imagine Dr. Khan is sitting in a room. The room is closed from all sides, no entry, no exit of any gas. If the room expands suddenly then he will be frightened his blood pressure will decrease he will feel cool 2 3 which of the following elements will have strongest Van Der Waal force of attraction between its molecules hydrogen oxygen chlorine 2 3 The beaker shown in the figure contains slurry of ice and water, the three thermometers Fahrenheit, Kelvin and Centigrade placed in it. The thermometers are represented by A, B and C respectively. The lowest reading will be on thermometer a b c 2 3 Which thermometer will have its reading 273 degrees greater than that of thermometer C ? A B C has greater reading than all other thermometer 2 3 The temperature recorded by Kelvin scale is 0K 273K 373K 2 3 If pressure on a gas is increased from 2 atm to 4 atm than its volume will decrease from 6L to 4L 8L to 2L 3L to 1L 2 3 This is a known fact that the molar volumes of different gases at S.T.P are little bit greater than the molar volumes of liquids little bit less than the molar volumes of solids about the same as the molar volumes of liquids 2 3 the behavior of a gas is non-ideal at lo2w temperature and low pressure high temperature and high pressure high temperature and low pressure 2 3 All of the following statements are false except gas molecules do not attract each other at very low temperature all of the gases cannot be liquefied increase in pressure will not decrease the intermolecular distance in a gas 2 3 At the same temperature and pressure helium is more ideal than hydrogen due to greater molar mass less molar mass greater molecular size 2 3 As gases can adopt the shape of the container so they have no fixed shapes fixed shapes different shapes 2 3 If allowed to expand, the gases suddenly heat up move randomly react 2 3 Which one of the folloiwng is not postulated in the kinetic molecular theory molecule of all the gases have same size and same mass molecules are in chaotic motion all molecular collisions are elastic 2 3 According to Boyles law at contant temperture ,the product of pressure and volume of a given mass of gas is whole number a constant fraction 2 3 which of the following laws study the pressure -volume relationship of a gas at constatn temperature Charies law Graham's law Dalton's law 2 3 A graph is plotted ,P on x-axis and volume on y-axis for a given mass at constant temperature, we get a straight line a curve with different peaks straigh line parallel to x- axis 2 3 Elastic collision involves Loss of energy Gain of Energy No gain no loss of energy 2 3 if absolute temperature of a gas is doubled and the pressure is reduced to one half, the volume of the gas will remain unchanged increase four times reduce to 1/4 2 3 How should the conditions be changed to prevent the volume of a given gas from expanding when its mass is increased temperature is lowered and pressure is increased temperature is increased and pressure is increased temperature and pressure both are lowered 2 3 According to Kinetic Molecular Theory, Kinetic energy of molecules increases when they are Mixed with other moleculers at low temperature Frozen in to a solid Condensed in to liquid 2 3 To measure the true pressure of a gas collected over water, the pressure due to water vapours is Added to the total pressure Subtracted from the total pressure Multiplied to the total pressure 2 3 Matter having no definite shape and volume is called linquid plasma solid 2 3 The respiration process taking place in animals depends on a difference in Osmotic pressure Vapour pressure Partial pressure 2 3 At constant temperature, volume of given mass of gas is inversely proportional to pressure on it. This is a statement of Charles law Boyle's law Hook law 2 3 A pressrue of one Newton per meter square (1 Nm-2) is equal to one pascal one bar one atmosphere 2 3 Supose that all the air of the earth were replaced by an ocean of mercury. How deep would this ocean have to be to exert the same pressure as the air 76 cm 77 cm 78 cm 2 3 The instrument that is used to meanure the pressure of a gas is called Viscometer Photometer barometer 2 3 Considering the physical properties of the gases, which of the following statemetns about particles of gas is not true. The particles ordely arranged randomly moving having wide spaces 2 3 Equal volume of all gases at same temperature and pressure contain number of molecules different multiples equal 2 3 The volume of a gass that is occupied by its one mole at STP is called total volume normal volume molar volume 2 3 which is the best example of diffusion of gases bubbling in soda bottle vapour condensing on moist surface hot air rising above a candle 2 4 Air can be distilled fractionally because the constituents of the air can be liquefied have different boiling points are gases at room temperature 2 4 There are three different substances, Argon, Hydrochloric acid and Hydroiodic acid. The correct sequence in which the boiling point increases is Ar < HCI < HI HI > HCI > Ar HCI < HI < Ar 2 4 A student put two eggs A and B in HCI solution. After 5 minutes he took them out for weighing but egg dropped in water accidentally. The student was able to take it out after 30 minutes. He weighed it. Its weight was 40.33 grams. Weight of egg “B” was als greater than that of egg “A” less than that of egg “A” equal to that of egg “A” 2 4 Keeping in mind different factors which affect the melting point of a substance, the compound having highest melting point among the following is NaCI RbCI LiCI 2 4 Islamian genius told his follows that in a crystal the atoms are located at the position of zero potential energy infinite potential energy maximum potential energy 2 4 Keeping in mind the concept of charge density, compound having highest lattice energy is KCI MgO LiBr 2 4 Meniscus is the shape of the surface of a liquid in a cylindrical container. It may be concave, convex or plane. For molten metals meniscus is concave meniscus is convex meniscus is plane 2 4 All of the following substances are crystalline except Ice Carbon (diamond) Sucrose 2 4 All of the following have cleavage planes except ionic crystals covalent crystals molecular crystals 2 4 Coordination number of Na+ in NaCI is 1 4 2 2 4 All of the following have crystals except diamond NaCI KBr 2 4 Kerosene is liquid at room temperature due to hydrogen bonding organic nature dipole-dipole forces 2 4 Honey contain glucose and fructose along with some other ingredients, it has greater viscosity due to hydrogen bonding irregular shape of the molecules irregular shape of the molecules and strong intermolecular forces 2 4 Rate of evaporation of petrol is greater that that of water at room temperature because petrol molecules do not have any hydrogen bond petrol is an organic compound water molecules have small size 2 4 What is the typical range of the hydrogen bond 5 – 25 kJ per mole of bonds 5 – 25 kJ per molecule 500 kJ per mole of bonds 2 4 All of the following acids have hydrogen bond in liquid state except sulfuric acid nitric acid hydrofluoric acid 2 4 The increasing vapor pressure caused by heating a liquid is due to increase intermolecular interactions increasing potential energy of molecules increasing kinetic energy of molecules 2 4 Covalent network crystals have higher melting point then molecular crystals lower melting point then molecular crystals discrete molecules linked by Van der waals forces 2 4 A chemist was able to measure the value of lattice energy of KCI to be 690 kJ/mol. From this experiment he concluded that lattice energy of KBr is 630 kJ/mol and that of KI is 665 kJ/mol lattice energy of KBr is 665 kJ/mol and that of KI is 630 kJ/mol lattice energy of KBr is 765 kJ/mol and that of KI is 730 kJ/mol 2 4 which of the following may be called London dispersion forces dipole-dipole forces ion-dipole forces dipole-induced dipole forces 2 4 I heard Islamian genius saying that glass must be a super cooled liquid. The reason that he might have in his mind is that glass has definite volume definite shape crystalline structure 2 4 Some substances are good conductor of electricity in both the solid and liquid states. These substances are generally ionic substances metallic substances molecular solids 2 4 An example of ion-dipole force is solution of NaCl is water Glucose in water Bromine in bezene 2 4 The boiling point of radon ( 211 K) is higher than boiling point of helium (4.4 k) because the atomic number of Rn is larger than of the He the atomic mass of Rn is larger than of He the dispersion forces between Rn atoms are more prominent than between He atoms 2 4 which is the correct order of boiling points solution of ethanol in water linking of helix protein molecule structure of ice 2 4 Acetone and chloroform are soluble in each other due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding ion-depole interaction instantaneous dipoles 2 4 NH3 shows a maximum boiling point among the hydrides of Vth group elements due to very small size of nitrogen hydrogen bonding between its molecules enhanced electronegative character of nitrogen 2 4 Dipole-dipole forces are present between polar molecules non-polar molecules (a) and (b) both 2 4 The bonding which occurs among polar covalent molecules containing H and one of the small electronegative element such as O, F or N is called bridge bonding metallic bonding hydrogen bonding 2 4 London forces are more affective at low temperature high temperature high pressure 2 4 When two ice cubes are pressed together they unite to form one cube. Which of the following forces, is responsible for holding them together Van der Waal's Covalent bonding hydrogen bonding 2 4 water has high boiling point which is due to weak dissociation hydrogen bonding between its molecules high specific heat 2 4 In which of the following componds hydrogen bonding is not present water ethanol ether 2 4 The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds in which a H20 molecule can participate is 1 2 3 2 4 In which of the following molecules, strongest hydrogen bonding is shown water ammonia hydrogen fluoride 2 4 The attractive forces which are created due to repulsion of electronic cloud of the molecules are dipole-dipole forces ion dipole forces instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces 2 4 NaCl is completely ionized in water due to presence of hydrogen bonding dipole dipole force ion dipole forces 2 5 Color of the glow produced in the discharge tube depends on the pressure in the discharge tube depends on the metal used as cathode depends on the gas used in the discharge tube 2 5 e/m ratio of the canal rays is less than that of cathode rays. The reason is greater mass of canal ray particles greater charge of the canal ray particles greater mass and charge of the canal ray particles 2 5 Nuclear radiation is emitted by those elements whose molecules are stable molecules are unstable nuclei are stable 2 5 Roentgen discovered X-rays and Mosley found that the frequency of the X-rays emitted from anode increases with the increase in the mass number of the metal used as anode decrease in the mass number of the metal used as anode decrease in the proton number of the metal used as anode 2 5 Radiation emitted by exited atoms is in the form of continuous waves in the form of quanta nuclear radiations 2 5 Second ionization energy is always less than first ionization energy is always greater than first ionization energy is equal to the first ionization energy 2 5 “Ionization energies of the elements of the 5th group are greater than those of 6th group”. It is because 5th group elements have less electronegativit y 6th group of elements have greater shielding effect 5th group element have greater shielding effect 2 5 All of the following are electromagnetic radiations except red light sound waves x-rays 2 5 This shape of a 2s orbital resembles a hockey puck an (American) football an ellipse 2 5 Which orbital of the following has a principal quantum number of 3 and an angular momentum quantum number of 27 3s 3d 4f 2 5 Which of the following has the highest energy ? gamma rays X-rays Ultra-violet radiation 2 5 All of the following elements are correct for atomic orbitals except p-sub energy level has 3 orbitals s-orbital has spherical shape energy of 4s is less than that of 4d 2 5 How many orbitals are allowed for principal quantum number (n) of 3 ? 9 8 6 2 5 Which of the following orbitals are degenerate in a multielectron atom ? 3d orbitals 3s, 3p, 3d orbitals 1s, 2s orbitals 2 5 The quantum number that specifies the way the orbital is oriented in space is the electron spin quantum number the magnetic quantum number the angular momentum quantum number 2 5 Which of the following has the largest wavelength visible light x-rays infrared light 2 5 Select the arrangement of electromagnetic radiation which starts with the lowest energy and increases to greatest energy radio, visible, infrared, visible, ultraviolet microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet visible, ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays 2 5 In the quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom, which one of the following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowd ? 3, 1, -1 3, 2, 2 3, 2, -1 2 5 “Each electron in an atom must have its own unique set of quantum numbers” is a statement of Aufbau principle Pauli exclusion principle Hund‟s rule 2 5 The effective nuclear charge for an atom is less than the actual nuclear charge due to Shielding Penetration Paramagnetis m 2 5 “Electrons added to atomic orbitals of the same energy will remain unpaired with parallel spins until the subshell is more than half-filled” is a statement of Aufbau principle Pauli exclusion principle Hund‟s rule 2 5 Arrange potassium, rubidium, calcium and barium in order of increasing atomic size K < Ca < Rb < Ba Ca < K < Rb < Ba Ca < K < Ba < Rb 2 5 Element having smallest atomic radius among the following is Li Ne Rb 2 5 The arrangement of sodium, oxygen, fluorine and strontium on the basis of increasing first ionization energy is Na < Sr < O < F Sr < Na < O < F Sr < Na < F < O 2 5 Elements with ___ first ionization energies and ___ electron affinities generally form cations low, very negative high, positive or slightly negative low, positive or slightly negative 2 5 In a Millikan oil-drop experiment, the charges on several different oil drops were as follows: -5.92; -4.44; -2.96; -8.88. The units are arbitrary. What is the likely value of the electronic charge in these arbitrary units -1.11 -1.48 -2.22 2 5 which of the following is not charged particle proton electron neutron 2 5 which of the following is not a property of cathode rays they can produce x-rays when they strike a heavy metal anode they can cause reduction reaction they produce fluorescence in rare earth and mineral 2 5 which of the following is not sub-atomic particle electron proton neutron 2 5 Spilitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to srong electric field is called zeeman effect stark effect photoelectric effect 2 5 The velocity of photon is independent of its wavelength depends on its wavelength equal to square of its amplitude 2 5 The natur of the positive rays depend on the nature of the electrode the nature of the discharge tube the nature of the residual gas 2 5 Rutherford's model of atom failed because the atom did not have nucleus and electrons it did not account for the attraction between protons and neutrons it did not account for the stability of the atom 2 5 Bohr model of atom does not explain zeeman effect stark effect orgin of lines in H2 spectrum 2 5 Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are n=2,l=1 n=1,l=2 n=1,l=0 2 5 In the ground state of an atom, the electron is present in the nucleus in the second shell nearest to the nucleus 2 5 When 3p orbital is complete, the entering electron goes into 4s 3d 4p 2 5 Orbitals having same energy are called hybrid orbitals valence orbitals degenerate orbitals 2 5 The principle quantum number describes the distance from the nucleus the shape of the orbital the orientation of the orbital 2 5 The rules which describe the distributin of electron in atomic energy level are Auf-bau priniple, Pauli's exculsion principle, Hunds rule. The Pauli exculsion principle refers to the orientation of obital in space fact that two electrons in the same orbital should have opposite spins energy of the orbital 2 5 Cathode rays drive a small paddle wheel placed in their path. This observation shows that cathode rays travel in straight lines cathode rays are negatively charged cathode rays produce x-rays 2 5 No cathode rays are produced in the discharge tube when gas is under ordinary pressure even if voltage of 500 to 10000 is applied. Voltage is low discharge tube is not coloured gas does not conduct current under ordinary pressure 2 5 e/m of cathode rays is same but for positive rays e/m changes by changing gas in the discharge tube because cathode rays are small size particles cathode rays have same charge nature of cathode rays same fos all gasses, but masses of nuclei are different for different gases 2 5 When cathode rays strike the anode metal, X-rays are emitted and not the positive rays because cathode rays are material particles cathod rays knock out electrons from anode, which emit X-rays when outer electronens take their place cathode rays are obsorbed by the nucleus 2 5 Positive particle in discharge tube is produced by ionization of gas molecules, which is caused by gas molecules collide with anode gas molecules are at high temperature gas molecules produce x-rays 2 6 All of the following statements are false except The MO‟s in a molecule equals twice the number of constituent atomic orbitals As bonding MO‟s become more stable, antibonding MO‟s become equally less stable In MO‟s, the number of bonding electrons equals the number of antibonding electrons 2 6 Arrange the following bonds in order of increasing bond strength. C-F < C-CI < C-Br < C-I C-I < C-Br < C- CI < C-F C-Br < C-I < C- CI < C-F 2 6 According to molecular orbital (MO) theory, the twelve outermost electrons in the O2 molecule are distributed as follows 12 in bonding MOS, O in antibonding MOs 10 in bonding MOs, 2 in antibonding Mos 9 in bonding MOs, 3 in antibonding Mos 2 6 The force which holds the atoms together to form a compound is called a chemical bond Van der wall's force dispersion force 2 6 The chemical reactivity of an element depends upon the umber of valence shell electrons only total of electrons in all shells number of neutrons is an atom of the element 2 6 Noble gases are stable substances reactive substances light substances 2 6 The driving force for making a bond is to attain noble gas electronic configuration to make solid compounds to make different compounds 2 6 Elements have the tendency to attain 8 electrons in their valence shell. This is known as Octet rule Hunds rule Pauli exclusion Principle 2 6 When two hydrogen atoms approach to from a chemical bond the repulsive forces dominate the attractive forces the attractive forces, dominate the repulsive forces the energy of atoms increases 2 6 The atomic radius of hydrogen is 37 picometer manometer angstrom 2 6 The electronegativity of elements in a period from left to right decreases increases first decreases then increases 2 6 A bond between two atoms may be obtained by sharing of electrons such a bond is called an ionic bond a coordinate bond a dative bond 2 6 Which of the following is a polar molecule carbon dioxide carbon tetrachloride methanol 2 6 Molecular orbital picture of N2 indicates one unpaired electron two unpaired electrons no unpaired electron 2 6 Molecular orbital picture of O2 indicates one unpaired electron two unpaired electrons no unpaired electron 2 6 Which of the following statements is not correct regarding bonding molecular orbitals? bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than atomic orbitals from which they are formed bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density between the two nuclei every electron in the bonding molecular orbitals contributes to the attraction between atoms 2 6 Which of the hydrogen halides has the highest percentage of ionic character? HCI HBr HF 2 6 Formation of a chemical bond between atoms of elements is based on Pauli exclusion principle octer rule electropositive character of elements 2 6 Noble gases are most stable of all other elemetns because these do not react with one another these are mono atomic gases their ionization energies are high 2 7 All of the following are state functions except P V q 2 7 All of the followings are incorrect except Hvaprizaiton < Hsublimation < Hfusion < Hcondensation Hfusion < Hcondensation < sublimation < Hvaporization Hcondensation < Hfusion < Hvaporization < Hsublimation 2 7 A chemist heated a balloon by supplying 600 J of heat. The balloon expands doing 200 J of work against the atmospheric pressure. The change in internal energy of =-K719 -400 J O J 2 7 Spontaneous reactions are those which continue to occur once started require activation energy are endothermic 2 7 sublimation, vaporization, melting and photosynthesis all are examples of chemical processes physical processes biochemical processes 2 7 A mixture of ice and water contains 60g of ice and 60g of water. If 60J of heat energy is removed from this mixture then some of the water will vaporize ice will sublime ice will melt 2 7 If volume of a system is kept constant and heat is supplied to the system then internal energy of the system increases and no work is done on the surrounding internal energy of the system increases and work is done on the surrounding no change in internal energy occurs 2 7 Melting of ice at room temperature is spontaneous exothermic process spontaneous endothermic process non- spontaneous exothermic process 2 7 Four containers hold the following quantities at the same temperature, which one has highest heat capacity? 1 kg H2O 2kg H2O 3kg H2O 2 7 A calorimeter is an instrument used for the measurement of heat of reaction heat of combustion heat of formation 2 7 Enthalpy represents heat content energy state reaction rate 2 7 For an exothermic reaction the sign of enthalpy will be, Positive Negative Zero 2 7 When rate of forward reaction is equal to rate of backward reaction, then the equilibrium established is called chemical equilibrium static equilbrium dynamic equilibrium 2 7 Ther rate at which a substance reacts, is directly proportional to its active mass and the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the proudct of the active masses of reacting substances, is called law of conservation of energy Le-Chateliers principle law of mass action 2 7 Chemical equilibrium involving reactants and products is more than one phase is called static dynamic homogeneous 2 7 Hydrogen gas and iodine vapours combine to form HI at 425 C, the same composition of mixture is present if we start with decomposition of HI. It suggests a static equilibrium law of mass action a dynamic equilibrium 2 7 Law of mass action states that rate of chemical reaction is directly proportional to the product of active masses of the reactants. The term active mass means mass in grams converted to products number of moles number of moles per dm3 of reactants 2 7 The value of Kp is greater than Kc for a gaseous reaction when number of molecules of products is greater than the reactants number of molecules of reactants is greater than those of products number of molecules of reactants and products equal 2 7 Le-chatiler's principle is applied on the reversible reactions in order to determine the rate of reaction predict the direction of reaction determine the extent of reaction 2 7 If the difference of pKa values of the two acids is 2, then acid with smaller pKa is 10 times stronger acid acid with greater pKa is 10 times stronger acid acid with smaller pKa is 100 times stronger acid 2 7 Whenever a weak base is dissolved in water, it gives its conjugate acid. Similarly a weak acid in water produces its conjugate base. This conjugate acid-base pair concept is stated by law of mass action Le-chatiler's principle common ion effect 2 7 Which statement is incorrect for a Buffer solution solution which resists the change in its pH value by adding small quantity of acid or base a solution of mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong base a solutoin of strong acid+salt of this acid with strong base 2 11 The number of atoms or molecules whose concentration determines the rate of a chemical reaction is called the molecularity of the reaction order of the reaction specific activity of the reaction 2 11 A scientist prepared a compound in laboratory. He found that it has two forms, one amorphous form and another crystalline form C. Both A and C reacts with sulfuric acid. One possible predication is that increases with increase in concentration of the reactants decreases with increase in concentration of the reactants increases with increase in concentration of the products 2 11 The rate of an irreversible reaction increase with increase in concentration of the reactants decreases with increase in concentration of the reactants increases with increase in concentration of the products 2 11 A substance which increases the efficiency of a catalyst is termed as Promoter Activator Retarder 2 11 “Rancidity produced in butter can be decreased by adding quinoline to the butter”. This statements shows that nothing is impossible quinoline is an inhibitor quinoline is a catalyst 2 11 An increase in the concentration of reactants Increases the number of collisions directly has no effect on number of collisions has inverse effect on number of collisions 2 11 Use of catalyst in a reaction changes Enthalpy Entropy Internal energy 2 11 with an increase in temperature during a chemical reaction, the molecules becomes Activated per unit time Deactivated per unit time No change in activation per unit time 2 11 For the reaction XYZ the diagram indicates that ∆ H for the reaction is Positive Negative Zero 2 11 Reactions with high activation energy are Slow Fast Moderate 2 11 A chemical reaction is characterized by Concentration Temperature Catalyst 2 12 Which of the following elements is a representative element? Ag Cr I 2 12 He belongs to __ block of the periodic table s p d 2 12 Which one is a non-metal? Fr AI B 2 12 Which family of elements has the ns2 np2 electronic configuration? 2A 3A 4A 2 12 The correct electronic configuration of Ag+1 d10 4S1 4d10 5So 3d9 4S1 2 12 which one has highest ionization potential value? Mg AI O-2 2 12 The electron affinity order among the halogens is F>CI>Br>I CI>F>Br>I I>CI>Br>F 2 12 Which one is having higher electron affinity? O S Li 2 12 In third period there are ____ transition metals 10 9 8 2 12 The number of periods in the long form of the periodic table is Seven Nine Eighteen 2 12 Which of the following has the highest melting point? NaCI NaBr NaI 2 12 Which of the following species has highest ionization potential? Mg+ Na Mg+2 2 12 In periodic table the highest ionization potentials are for Halogens Noble gases Chalcogens 2 12 Which one of the following is more electropositive? I Cs K 2 12 Magnesium is diagonally related to Li Cs K 2 12 The correct order of first ionization potential of C, N O and F is C>N>O>F O>F>N>C F>N>O>C 2 12 Which group consists entirely of metals? IIA IVA VIA 2 12 Which of the following properties progressively increases down the group in the periodic table? electron affinity Electro negativity Ionization potential 2 12 23- The atomic number of an element is 53. The number of valence electrons in this element is 5 7 18 2 12 In each period there is decrease in size from left to right, the decrease is comparatively large in case of 3d series 4d series 5d series 2 12 The size of CI is largest in case of CIO2 CIO4-1 CIO3-1 2 12 Properties of elements depend upon mass number atomic weight number of protons 2 12 Electronic configuration of an elements is ns2 (n-1) d10 this element belongs to group IA IIB IIIB 2 12 Lanthanides and actinides belong to ___ group IB IIB IIB 2 12 29- The electronic configuration of an element ends as 7S2 to which period and group this element belongs? VI period IA group VII period and IIA group VII period and IIB group 2 12 Nitrogen can from only three covalent bonds but phosphorus can from 5 covalent bonds. The reason is there are three valence electrons in nitrogen but five valence electrons in phosphorus Phosphorus has an additional lone pair of electrons Little energy is required to unpair the electrons of s- orbital in phosphorus than in Nitrogen 2 12 Which of the following elements produce the strongest acidic oxide? Mg AI O 2 12 The strongest bond among the following is C-H N-H O-H 2 12 Astatine is a halogen. Which one of the following statements about Astatine is incorrect? It has colored vapors It forms a molecule At2 It forms a soluble silver salt 2 12 An element X reacts with water producing acidic solution this solution gives a white PPt with aqueous silver nitrate. In which group of the periodic table is X? I II V 2 12 Which one of the following elements burns in air to form an oxide which when shaken with water gives a solution with pH greater than 7? C Mg S 2 12 Why are sodium and chlorine placed in the same period? sodium and chlorine are non metals sodium and chlorine combine to from sodium chloride the atoms of both elements have only three electron shells containing electrons 2 12 Which statement is correct about Rubidium? it reacts slowly with air it slowly reacts with cold water it is produced during the electrolysis of RbCI (Liq) 2 12 An element Y on reaction with chlorine produces a white solid YCI3 which element could be Y? Aluminum Nitrogen Carbon 2 12 Which of the statements regarding Astatine is correct? It burns readily in air It forms a basic oxide It displaces iodine from its salt 2 12 A compound with the formula XY is likely to be formed if the elements X and Y are in groups II and VI V and VII II and VII 2 12 The elements of group IA are called halogens alkaline earth metals alkali metals 2 12 In the modren periodic Table the elements are placed in the ascending order of their atimuc masses melting points boiling points 2 12 The elements of group IIA are called halogens noble gases alkali metals 2 12 Number of elements in the first period of the periodic table are two four one 2 12 What is the nature of Na2O? basic weakly basic strongly basic 2 12 What is the nature of Al2O3? acidic basic amphoteric 2 12 What is the nature of SO2? basic strongly acidic weakly acidic 2 12 The fourth period contains elements 8 16 18 2 12 Al-Razi, Dobereiner, Newland and Mendeleef contributed in the development of the concept of periodicity of the properties of the elements law of triads law of octaves 2 12 The period table contains elements in vertical column. These vertical column are called groups periods blocks 2 12 The horizontal rows in the Periodic Table are called period. The number of periods 5 6 7 2 12 The number of elements in the first, second and third period are 2,8,18 8,2,18 2,18,8 2 12 The IA elemetns are called alkaline earth metal alkali metals the halogens 2 12 Rare earth elements are s-block elements p-block elements d-block elements 2 12 Transition elements have valence electrons in s-orbital p-orbital d-block elements 2 12 The following elements are arranged as metal, non-metal and metalliod Na, Si, S Si, Na,S Na,S,Si 2 12 The atomic radius varies as shown increases in a period from left to right and decreases down a group increases in a period from left to right and down a group decreases in a period from left to right and increase down a group 2 12 The first ionization energy of elemetns varies increases in period and group increase in a period and decrease down the group decrease in period and group 2 12 which orbital is in a process of completion in case of transition elements? p-orbital f-orbital d-orbital- 2 12 Which is the longest period of the periodic Table? 5th 7th 6th 2 12 The second and third period contain elements six five eight 2 12 The fourteen elements following lanthanum are called actinides lanthanides trans-uranic elements 2 12 The amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom of an element in the gaseous state is called electron affinity electronegativit y ionization energy 2 12 In a group, the ionization energy increases in period and group decreases remains constatn 2 12 In a period,melting points of elements increases in period and group decreases remain constant 2 12 The oxides of electronegative elements are basic neutralization of strong acid with strong base acidic 2 13 Which of the following statements is true regarding boron? Boron forms + 3 ion Boron is monovalent Boron compounds are mostly ionic 2 13 Borax bead test is used to identify colored basic radicals. Cobalt gives a colored bead Blue Red Violet 2 13 In extraction of aluminum, Cryolite is used to Dissolve bauxite To help reduction To remove impurities 2 13 Graphite is used in nuclear reactors as Lubricant Fuel Shield against radiation 2 13 Aqua regia dissolves gold due to the formation of Nascent oxygen Nascent chlorine Nascent hydrogen 2 13 White phosphorus on reaction with caustic soda produces Phosphorus acid Phosphine Phosphoric acid 2 13 The most abundant element on earth is Oxygen Sulpur Silicon 2 13 Which one is not true regarding bleaching powder? it is a double salt it is oxidizing agent highly soluble in water 2 13 A salt, which on reaction with conc. H2SO4, gives colorless gas is Iodide chloride Nitrite 2 13 Aluminum chloride fumes in moist air. This is due to oxidation hydrolysis dehydration 2 13 Which of the following metals is not commercially produced by reducing the metal oxide with coke? Aluminum Iron Zinc 2 13 Which of the following elements of III group has the highest first ionization potential Boron Aluminum Gallium 2 13 Which of the following elements becomes passive in fuming Nitric acid? Ca B AI 2 13 Potash alum dissolves in water to give a/an Acidic solution Basic solution Neutral solution 2 13 Alumina is a/an Acidic oxide Basic oxide Neutral oxide 2 13 An aqueous solution of aluminum chloride is Acidic Basic Neutral 2 13 The alums contain any two metals one monovalent and one trivalent metal one bivalent and one trivalent metal 2 13 In graphite the adjacent layers of carbon atoms are held together by Covalent bonds Hydrogen bonds Vander waal‟s forces 2 13 Lead pencil contains Lead Lead sulphide Graphite 2 13 The stable form of phosphorus is White Red Yellow 2 13 Which one is more stable thermodynamically? diamond graphite both have equal stability 2 13 Lead usually forms compounds in which its ox. No is +2 rather than +4. it is because of inert electron pair effect inert electron pair of the P- sub-shell it has two valence electrons 2 13 Point out the metal used in Photo flash bulbs Zinc Tungsten Aluminium 2 13 Duralumin an alloy used for making aeroplane frame is a mixture of aluminium and Nickel, Iran & cobalt Magnesium Manganese, copper and magnesium 2 13 Aluminium metal mixed with iron oxide is used in Electric welding Thermite welding Gas welding 2 13 In the production of Alminium Metal by the Hall,s process which one of the following is not used Bauxite Electricity Cryolite 2 13 Alums are used in dye industry for permanent dyeing. The process of permanent dying is termed as: Tarnishing Mordanting moderating 2 13 A sulphur molecule contains 2 atoms of sulphur 4 atoms of sulphur 8 atoms of sulphur 2 13 The element carbon exists in its two allotropic forms Diamond & Graphite. Diamond has a refractive index of 1.4 4.2 2.4 2 13 The chemical name of Phosgene gas is Phosphonyl Chloride Carbonyl Chloride Carbon tetra- chloride 2 13 The catalyst used in the contact tower for the manufacture of sulphuric acid is easily poisoned by Nitrous oxide Carbon dioxide Arsenic oxide 2 13 Concentrated Sulphuric acid can act as a Reducing agent Dehydrating agent Hydrating agent 2 13 Nitric acid is a very strong acid .The statement means that It is non- electrolyte It is weak electrolyte it is strong electrolyte 2 13 Nitric acid can be obtained on an industrial scale by the Contact process Haber's process Ostwald's process 2 13 The molecule of Oxygen has two unpaired electrons. It is therefore. Diamagnetic Paramagnetic Ferro magnetic 2 17 Which one of the following is organic compound? Calcium cyanamide Carbon disulphide Calcium carbide 2 17 Which coal is having higher percentage of Carbon, higher calorific value of lower moisture contents among the following Anthracite Bitumenous Lignite 2 17 There is no direct test for the detection of one of the following in an organic compound which is it? C S N 2 17 Compounds having same empirical formula but different molecular formula must have the same viscosity the same vapour density different molecular weights 2 17 An Alkane forms isomers if the number of carbon atoms is at least 4 3 2 2 17 The method of converting high boiling hydrocarbons into low boiling hydrocarbons is called Polymerization Cracking Condensation 2 17 No lead gasoline with higher octane number can be obtained by Reforming process Cracking Hydrogenation 2 17 Which one has zero octane number? isooctane N-hexane N-heptane 2 17 TEL is used in petrol to increase octane number. 1mL TEL per liter of petrol is sufficient the scavenger used in this case is TML Ethane Ethlenedibromi de 2 17 Which one is condensation polymer? Polyethene Bakelite Both a and b 2 17 Alkenes are also called paraffin‟s olefins napthenes 2 17 Kerosene oil is also called jet oil paraffin oil both a and b 2 17 If TEL is added to isooctane, octane number will be 100 <100 >100 2 17 A molecular orbital is formed by the linear combination of two atomic orbitals. A molecular orbital must accommodate _ electrons 2 >2 <2 2 17 Which one of the following is alicylic hydrocarbon? Cyclohexane Benzene Isobutylene 2 17 Isomerism which is only found in alkenes? Metamerism Functional group isomerism Position isomerism 2 17 Who rejected the Vital Force Theory wholer fisher newton 2 17 Which of the following is not an organic compound ammonium cyanate glucose urea 2 17 The major portion of natural gas is ethane propane butane 2 17 Which is not the characteristic property of organic compounds they form long chain compounds organic cmpounds are generally covalent compounds they exist in homologous series 2 17 Fossil fuels are sources of organic compounds. Which one is not fossil fuel petroleum coal natural gas 2 17 The functional group isomer of dimethylether is ethyI alcohol propyI alcohol diethyl ether 2 17 Which is the chain isomer of n-pentane isopentana neopentene n-pentene 2 17 In ter-butly alcohol, the tertiary carbon is bonded to two hydrogen atoms three hydrogen atoms one hydrogen atom 2 17 The destructive distillation of coal gives three products.what is not the product of destructive distillation of coal coal gas carbon dioxide coal tar 2 17 A double bond consists of two sigma bonds one sigma and one pi bond one sigma and two pi bonds 2 17 The total coal resources of pakistan are estimated to be 184 billion tonnes 184 million tonnes 1.84 billion tounes 2 17 Ether shows the phenomenon of position isomerism chain isomerism metamerism 2 17 The fractions obtained from fractional distillation of petroleum are placed in increasing order of their boiling points. Which order is corect natural gas, petroleum ether, gasoline, kerosene petroleum, ether, kerosene, gasoline, natural gas gasoline, kerosene, natural gas, petroleum ether 2 17 Cracking is a process by which higher hydrocabon are broken down into low boiling hydrocabon. Which one is not generally a procedure for cracking thermal cracking cataiytic cracking stemcracking 2 17 The use of tetra ethyl lead in petrol as an efficient antiknock agent is being discouraged.which reason is correct it is costly it damages the engine Pb is difficult to obtain in bulk quantities 2 17 Which one of the followings is a heterocyclic compound cyclohexanol phenol pyridine 2 17 As the number of carbon atoms increases the number of isomers also incresase.the 6C compound hexane has as many as 3 isomers 5 isomers 6 isomers 2 17 The geometric isomerism is caused by the restricted rotation of pi bond free rotation of a pi bond the presence of similar groups on a carbon atom 2 17 The chemist who synthesized urea from ammonium cyanate was Bezelius Koibe Wholer 2 17 The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of compounds containing carbon as an essential element is caleed physical inorganic nuclear 2 18 Which one is not a hydrocarbon? Naphthalene Antheracene Chloroform 2 18 In methane all the bonds are Sigma Pi Single covalent 2 18 Alkenes usually undergo _____ reactions addition substitution elimination 2 18 Actually benzene has _____ double bonds 3 2 4 2 18 In benzene carbon-carbon bonds are Single covalent Double covalent Of the order 1.5 2 18 Double bond is ethane makes it Electrophilic Nucleophilic Acidic 2 18 Ethyl alcohol on ______ gives ethane Dehydrogenati on Hydration Dehydration 2 18 When H2SO4 is heated with excess of ethanol at 140oC. The major product is Alcohol Ether Ketone 2 18 Which one decolorizes Baeyers reagent and bromine water? Ethene Ethyne Both a and b 2 18 Metallic ethynides are formed by the reaction of ______ with ammonial silver nitrate or ammonial cuprous chloride Ethene Acetylene Benzene 2 18 Pi electrons of benzene make it Electrophilic Nucleophilic Heterocyclic 2 18 The unexpected lower heat of hydrogenation of benzene is due to Delocalization of electrons Lower stability A and B 2 18 The <HCH angle in Ethene is 120 125 117 2 18 Which statement is true regarding reactivity? double bond is stronger then single bond hence alkenes are less reactive then alkanes Alkenes do not under go addition reactions Alkenes decolorize bromine solution and Baeyer‟s reagents but alkynes do not 2 21 Glucose forms a polymer, which is stored in liver. The name of this polymer is Glycogen Starch Cellulose 2 21 Starch gives _____ color with iodine blue red yellow 2 21 One gram of carbohydrate yields energy 4 kcal 9 kcal 10 kcal 2 21 An amino acid exists in the form of Zwitter- ion which has One +ve charge One –ve charge One +ve and one –v charge 2 21 Keratomalacia is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin A B D 2 21 The fat soluble vitamins are A and B B and C C and D 2 21 Per hydro cyclopentano phenanthrene is the basic structural of all the proteins Vitamins Waxes 2 21 Iodine number of an oil indicates its Molecular weight Purity Degree of unsaturation 2 21 Potency and turn over are terms related to Enzymes Proteins Fats 2 21 The optimum pH value for the enzyme “pepsin” is 2 8 10 2 21 In the cyclic structure of glucose when the position of atoms on carbon 1 is altered one isomer changes to other. These isomers of glucose are called Matamars Position isomers Cis-trans isomers 2 21 A maltose molecule is formed by the combination of Two glucose molecules One glucose and one fructose molecule Two fructose molecules 2 21 Which one of the following reactions is NOT given by formaldehyde Reduction of Fehling's solution Iodoform reaction Reduction of Tollen's Solution 2 21 isozymes are the enzymes which ______ have similar chemical properties have similar physical properties have different physical and chemical properties 2 21 Deposition of cholesterol in arteries is responsible for heart attack diabetes hepatitis 2 21 Rancidification of fats and oils is due to Hydrolysis reaction Oxidation reaction A and b both 2 21 Which substances Do NOT react immediately with bromine water ? Phenol Benzene Ethane 2 21 Coenzymes are the species which increase the activity of enzymes. They are chemically Organic bases Organic acids Metal ions 2 21 Benedict solution gives a positive test with Fructose Glucose Starch 2 21 Enzymes that catalyse the transfer of groups within the molecules are called transferases isomerases ligases 2 21 Saponification is the hydrolysis of fats or oils with an ____ acid alkali enzyme 2 21 Which one of the following organic acids is made from methanol Acetic acid Bothanic acid formic acid 2 21 Glucose is a _____ Ketohexose Aldohexose Monosaccharid e 2 21 Oxidation of a secondary alcohol give Organic acid Ether Aldehyde 2 21 Sex harmones belong to a group of organic compounds called Heterocyclics Steroids Amino acids 2 21 Aniline is a derivative of Alkane Alkene Aromatic hydrocarbon 2 21 An ester is prepared by a reaction of Two alcohols Carboxylic acid and alcohol Ketone and alcohol 2 21 Methyl butyrate has a smell of Apple Pineapple Banana 2 21 Malt sugar is converted into glucose by an enzyme invertase present in yeast. The process is known as Dehydration Condensation Fermentation 2 21 which pair of substances is NOT suitable for the direct preparation Ethanol and Acetic acid Ethanol and Acetyl Chloride Ethanol and Benzoic acid 2 1 Diameter of an atom is in the range of 0.2m 0.2mm 0.2nm 2 1 Mass spectrometer separates the isotopes of an element in analyzer according to their Charge Mass e/m 2 1 Formation of molecular ion is Homolysis Redox Heterolysis 2 1 The number of peaks obtained in mass spectrometry shows Charge of isotope Mass of isotopes Number of isotopes 2 1 Which one is true about isotopes Same number of neutrons Same mass number Same physical properties 2 1 Molecular mass of water (18g) means Mole Gram Mole Gram molecule 2 1 Which of the following ion formation is always exothermic? Uninegative Unipositive Dinegative 2 1 Which of the following statement is about isotopes is correct? Isotopes with odd atomic number are abundant Isotopes with odd atomic number and even mass no abundant Isotopes with even atomic number and even mass number are abundant. 2 1 The sample which is taken in vaporization chamber is generally Gas Liquid Volatile solid 2 1 Avogadro‟s number may represent. Volume of particles number of particles Mass of particles 2 1 The number of isotopes of elements with even mass number and even atomic number are. 280 300 154 2 1 . In the mass spectrometry, icons are separated on the basis of Charges only charges only mass to charge ratio 2 1 Which of the following terms is not used for ionic compound? formula unit empirical formula molecular formula 2 1 Which of the following terms is used for the mass of chlorine 35.5? relative atomic mass mass number atomic weight 2 1 Which one of the following has the minimum number of isotopes? oxygen carbon tin 2 1 Which one of the following is not the mono isotopic element? arsenic uranium iodine 2 1 The number of moles of CO2 which contains 16g of oxygen is 0.25 0.50 0.75 2 1 Which of the following statement is wrong about isotopes? they posses different mass number they posses same physical properties they posses different chemical properties 2 1 . How many isotopes have even mass numbers and even atomic number? 154 280 40 2 1 Qualitative analysis is carried out for identification of elements estimation of elements molar ratio of elements 2 1 Percentage of calcium in calcium carbonate is 80% 30% 40% 2 1 Combustion analysis is performed to determine empirical formula molecular mass molecular formula 2 1 Mostly elements have fractional atomic masses because of mass of an atom itself is in fraction atomic masses are average masses of isobars atomic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their relative abundant 2 1 Isotopes differ in properties which depends upon masses arrangement of electrons in orbitals chemical properties 2 1 Which of the following is not a macromolecular? sand hemoglobin diamond 2 1 Which of the following methods is used to estimate oxygen in an organic compound? combustion method Duma‟s method Kheldahl‟s method 2 1 Isotopes of the same elements have different numbers of protons same number of neutrons different numbers of neutrons 2 1 The nucleus of an atom always contains neutrons Contains protons and electrons protons only 2 1 When cationic molecular ions are allowed to pass through strong magnetic fields in mass spectrometer, which of the following ions is fallen first? lighter intermediate heavier 2 1 When 0.5 mole of phosphoric acid is dissolved in aqueous solution how many moles of –ve and +ve ions are collected altogether? 0.50 1.00 1.50 2 1 Which statement is correct for the relative atomic masses of elements? many elements have atomic masses in whole numbers many elements have fractional atomic masses many elements have same number of isotopes 2 2 Which of the following techniques is used for the separation of insoluble particles from liquids? Filtration crystallization solvent extraction 2 2 of the following way in used for classification of chromatography? shape phase mechanism 2 2 Fluted filter paper is used to filter hot solution avoid premature crystallization increase the rate of filtration 2 2 Safe and the most reliable method of drying crystals is through filter paper desicator oven 2 2 A substance having high vapour pressure at a temperature below their boiling point when heated start melting sublimation decomposition 2 2 A process controlled by distributive law crystallization sublimation solvent extraction 2 2 A technique of partition chromatography in which the solvent is in a pool at the bottom of vessel adsorption chromatograph y ascending chromatograph y radial chromatograph y 2 2 Different components of a mixture have different Rf values due to polar solvent is used combination of solvent is used their different distribution coefficient in the solvent 2 2 Branch of chemistry that deals with the complete qualitative and quantitative analysis of a substance is stoichio chemistry physical chemistry analytical chemistry 2 2 Identification of the components of a sample is quantitative analysis qualitative analysis stoichiometery 2 2 estimation of amounts of different components in a sample is quantitative analysis qualitative analysis stoichiometery 2 2 the techniques used to separate insoluble particles from liquid is crystallization sublimation filtration 2 2 the solid which is left over the filter paper is called steel residue crystals 2 2 size of filter paper is selected according to the amount of solution precipitates water 2 2 crucible are made up of plastic fibre porcelain 2 2 rate of filtration can be increased by placing gooch crucible sintered crucible steel 2 2 sintered crucible is made up of plastic glass porcetain 2 2 the tip of tunnel should be along the breaker to avoind leakage splashing sampling 2 2 separation of a solid from it hot saturated solution by cooling is called vapourization solvent extraction filtration 2 2 in crystallization, if the solvent is inflammable then direct healing is needed avoided depends on temperature 2 2 separation of a substance by dissolving it in a solvent is called filtration crystallization solvent extraction 2 2 in solvent extraction ether is used to separate products of organic iodine water HCL 2 2 95% ethanol is called crystal diesel rectified spirit 2 2 Ration of the amount of solute in organic and aqueous solvent is distribution non- efficient distributive co- efficient distributive of aqueous 2 2 Without suction pump, filtration is fast process slow process rapid process 2 2 Animal charcoal absorbs the colored impurities agents crystals 2 2 Direct conversion of solids into vapors is called solvents extraction sublimation crystallization 2 2 Crystallization does not involve heating sublimation cooling 2 2 Repeated extraction using small portions of solvents is more affective efficient rapid 2 2 Silica gel and alumina are used as mobile phase stationary phase mixed phase 2 2 shaking two immiscible liquids increases length of contact volume area of concept 2 2 the solvent or mixture of solvents used for separation of compounds is stationary phase mobile phase dynamic phase 2 2 to achieve a good separation, the liquids are gently shaken to measure their area of solubility contact miscibility 2 2 sintered glass is pores material used for absorption nutrition filtration 2 2 selection of filter paper depends on size of particles to be filtered rejected discolored 2 2 the solution remaining after the formation of crystals is called mother liquor crystal residue 2 3 Which of the following is not considered as an intermolecular force between molecules? covalent bonds hydrogen bonds hydrophobic bonds 2 3 The weakest (in strength) of the following intermolecular forces is hydrogen bonding the typical Vander walls forces between polar molecules 2 3 Ideal gases have all the following characteristics except absence of intermolecular forces non ideal gasses may exhibit ideal behavior at high pressure and low temperature the molecules occupy no space 2 3 Which of the following statement is true about plasma? it may be the first state of matter it is not a phase transition it is a conductor of electricity 2 3 Under what conditions real gases deviate from ideal behavior high temperature low temperature high pressure 2 3 The introduction of Kelvin scale in thermometry is according to Boyle‟s law Charles‟ law Dalton‟s law 2 3 0.5 mole of methane and 0.5 mole of ammonia gas have equal volume molecules mass 2 3 At constant temperature the pressure of an ideal gas is doubled its density becomes half double same 2 3 The diffusion of gases at absolute zero will be unchanged slightly decreased slightly increased 2 3 Which is incorrect in case of ideal gases? all molecules move with same speed behave independently PV/RT = n 2 3 Critical temperature for different gases is different and depends upon size of molecule shape of molecule intermolecular attraction 2 3 In how many forms do matter exists? Three four five 2 3 What is the simplest form of matter? gas liquid solid 2 3 What is the abundant form of matter around us? gas liquid solid 2 3 Which state of matter has the lowest density? gas liquid solid 2 3 What do we call to sudden expansion of plasma? Avogadro‟s law Graham‟s law of diffusion Joule Thomson effect 2 3 The solid particles only posses translational vibration rotational 2 3 If I/V is plotted on X- axis and pressure on Y- axis at constant temperature what should appear hyperbola parabola straight line 2 3 The partial pressure exerted by the water vapors is called surface tension aqueous tension vapor pressure 2 3 The spreading of fragrance or scent in air is due to diffusion effusion attraction with air 2 3 Thomas Graham was a French chemist English chemist Russian chemist 2 3 The kinetic molecular theory of gases was put forward in 1738 by Boltzman Maxell Clausius 2 3 The highest temperature at which a substance can exit as a liquid is called its critical temperature standard temperature absoluter temperature 2 3 The process of effusion and diffusion are best understand by Dalton‟s law Avogadro‟s law Graham‟s law 2 3 Who made volume and pressure correction to explain deviation of gasses from ideal behavior? Clausius Boltzman Charles law 2 3 The non ideal behavior results chiefly from inter molecular attraction and infinite volume elastic collision and finite volume inter molecular attractions and finite volume 2 3 The real gases become non-ideal high temperature and high pressure low temperature and low pressure high temperature and low pressure 2 3 Lind‟s method is employed to separation of gases expansion of gases compression of gases 2 4 As a substance moves from a solid to a liquid, all of the following changes are occur except molecules becomes more disordered K.E of the molecules decreases intermolecular forces become weaker 2 4 When the atoms of third layer are arranged in such a way that they directly lie above the atom of the first layer then this arrangement is called ABAB (hexagonal) ABCABC (cubic) Orthor Hombic 2 4 in order to mention the boiling point of water at 110c0 the external pressure should be between 760 torr and 1200 torr between 200 torr and 760 torr 765 torr 2 4 Which one is false for evaporation? surface phenomenon continuous exothermic 2 4 Which one of the following does not show hydrogen bonding? water ethyl alcohol phenol 2 4 Liquid crystal is discovered by William crooks Fredrick reinitzer J.J Thomson 2 4 Which one is a conductor but non malleable? iron graphics silver 2 4 Hydrogen bonding involves in solubility detergent biological molecules 2 4 Forces of attraction which may be present between all kinds of atoms and molecules are intermolecular intermolecular Vander wall 2 4 The density of water may be equal to that of ice greater to that of ice less than that of ice 2 4 The quantity of heat required to convert one mole of liquid into its vapors at its boiling point is called heat of vaporization evaporation crystallization 2 4 Steam causes more severe burn than the boiling water because it possesses latent heat of fusion latent heat of vaporization latent heat of sublimation 2 4 The conversation of vapors back into their liquid state is called crystallization evaporation vaporization 2 4 Formation of vapors from the surface of a liquid is called vaporization evaporation condensation 2 4 When water freezes at 00C its density decreases due to change of bond angles cubic structure of ice empty space present in the structure of ice 2 4 The attractive forces between the partial positive end of one molecule and partial negative end of other molecule are called dipole-dipole forces ion dipole- dipole forces London dispersion forces 2 4 The boiling point increases down the zero group elements due to ion dipole forces London forces hydrogen bonding 2 4 Vapor pressure is not affected by surface area temperature intermolecular force 2 4 Rising of a wetting liquid in a capillary tube is due to surface tension cohesive forces adhesive forces 2 4 a substance having strong cohesive forces forms meniscus concave convex first concave then convex 2 4 Kerosene oil is used to kill mosquitoes because it has surface tension very strong very weak zero 2 4 During which process empty spaces between particles become minimum? ionization condensation sublimation 2 4 Liquid gets the shape of the container when it is poured into it. Which one of the following reason justifies it? liquid has not definite shape Liquid has not definite volume liquid is highly compressible 2 4 If we provide very high amount of heat to a liquid its boiling point will increase remains constant decrease 2 4 a solid may be made up of atoms ions molecules 2 4 A malleable solid is one which can be converted into wires converted into thin sheets melted easily 2 4 Amorphous substances possess definite heat of fusion no definite heat of fusion sharp melting point 2 4 Crystalline solids can be identified easily from their sharp melting point definite geometry transition temperature 2 4 Boiling points of hydrocarbons increase with the increase in number of carbon atoms. It is mainly due to more strength of H-bonding More strength of London force less polarization 2 4 Viscosity of solids is infinite negligible medium 2 4 The phenomenon in which a single substance exists in two or more crystalline forms is called isomorphism polymorphism anisotropy 2 4 Which solids are called true solids? metallic amorphous crystalline 2 4 bucky balls is an allotropic form of sulphur carbon silica 2 4 Which one of the following is isotropic? graphite mercury borax 2 4 Isomorphs substance has same physical and chemical properties same physical and different chemical properties different physical and same chemical properties 2 4 if a physical and chemical change take place at a constant pressure, then the heat change during the process is called heat of transition heat of fusion enthalpy change 2 4 The pressure during the molar heat of fusion is kept 0 atmosphere 1 atmosphere 2atmosphere 2 4 _________ is the amount of heat absorbed when one mole of a liquid is changed into vapors at its boiling point. molar heat of sublimation molar heat of fusion molar heat of vaporization 2 4 All the enthalpy changes are negative positive may or may not 2 5 All of the following were theorized by Bohr n his description of the atom except Angular momentum of electrons in multiples of h/2╥ Electrons circulate in discrete circular orbits Energy of each electron is inversely proportional to n2 2 5 The letters s,p,d and f are used to represent which quantum numbers angular momentum (l) principal (n) Magnetic (ml) 2 5 The magnetic quantum number (QN) has its values limited directly by the value of principal (QN) angular (QN) spin (QN) 2 5 When an atom emits energy of light bonds in the spectrum will appear which are brighter darker colorless 2 5 the maximum number of electron in a sub shell with l=3 is 6 10 14 2 5 When an atom absorb energy the bands in the spectrum will appear which are brighter darker colorless 2 5 Color of fluorescence produced by cathode rays depends upon temperature pressure volume 2 5 Positive rays are produced by burning of gas by cooling of gas by ionization of the gas 2 5 Ruther ford‟s planet like structure was defective and unsatisfactory because Moving accelerate toward the nucleus continuous spectrum remain unexplained 2 5 The relationship between energy of a photon of light and its frequency is given by de-Broglie dual nature of matter Bohr‟s model Plank‟s quantum theory 2 5 Splitting of spectral lines when atom is subjected to magnetic field is called Zeeman‟s effect Stark‟s effect Photo electric effect 2 5 the velocity of the photon is independent of wavelength depends upon source depends upon its frequency 2 5 Which one of the following explain the shape of orbitals? principals of quantum number azimuthal quantum number magnetic quantum number 2 5 Atom can not be divided into simple units called by Ruther ford Dalton Bohar 2 5 Pressure in gas discharge tube was kept 10 torr 1 torr 0.1 torr 2 5 Florescence is product due to electric current gas molecules anode 2 5 Angle of deflection was studied by Hitorff Stony Thomson 2 5 Positive rays produced in discharge tube due to electricity gas molecules anode 2 5 Free neutrons changes into proton with the emission of energy positron electron 2 5 Charge of electron was measured by J.J Thomson Millikan Rutherford 2 5 Rutherford bombarded______ particles in discovery of nucleus Gamma rays alpha rays beta rays 2 5 Plank‟s theory says energy is emitted in continuous manner Discontinuous manner simultaneously 2 5 Deflection of blue light is lesser than violet because blue has more energy blue has higher wavelength blue is absorbed more easily 2 5 Spectrum containing large dark space than color is called continuous spectrum line spectrum emission spectrum 2 5 Pfund series are produced in the spectrum of hydrogen atom when electrons jump to 2-orbits when electrons jump to 3-orbits when electrons jump to 5-orbits 2 5 Atomic orbitls having same energy are called degenerate orbitals generate orbitals an effect zeem 2 5 Summerfled‟s modification in Bohr‟s model is orbit is cylindrical orbit is elliptical an effect zeem 2 5 When electrons collide with heavy metals, then ______ are produced beta rays alpha rays X- rays 2 5 Atom with higher atomic number produces X- rays of shorter wavelength larger wavelength X-ray not produced 2 5 Wavelength of electron was verified by Moseley Davison and Germer Einstein 2 5 Space around nucleus where finding of electrons is maximum is orbital orbit subshell 2 5 Quantum no. tell the energy of electron n l m 2 5 ____________ can expel protons from paraffins electron positron neutron 2 5 Millikan used _________ in his atomizer milk honey oil 2 5 Centrifugal forces are balanced in atom by attractive forces repulsive forces electrons 2 5 Spectrum is produced due to different wavelength different color different intensities 2 5 Light can produce absorption spectrum when it is passé through chloroform chlorophyll chromoplast 2 5 When electron jump into orbit, then series obtained is lyman paschen pfund 2 5 When neutrons move with an energy 1.2 MeV, called fast slow moderate 2 5 Zee man effect is produced when degeneracy breakdown degeneracy upgraded no effect of degeneracy 2 5 Three quantum no. have been derived from equation of de- Broglie plank‟s Schrodinger 2 6 The relative attraction of the nucleus for the electrons in a chemical bond is called ionization energy electron affinity electron negativity 2 6 The ionization energy generally increases from left to right in a period does not change in a period increase from top to bottom in a group 2 6 Fluorine (F) has an atomic number (AN) -9 and Chlorine (Cl) has an atomic number-17. which one ha the higher electron affinity? both are equal Cl F 2 6 octet rule does not always hold for which of the following elements? C O F 2 6 Which of the solids does not contain Covalent bond Copper Ice Diamond 2 6 Shielding effect across the period increases decreases constant 2 6 Which one is not the absolute term of the element? ionization energy electron affinity electron negativity 2 6 Molecular orbitals are filled according to Auf bau principle Hund‟s rule pauli‟s exclusion principle 2 6 Measurement of the degree of polarity is electron affinity ionic character ionization energy 2 6 Bond is formed because and atom tries to loose its electrons tries to gain electrons tries to complete its outer most shell 2 6 _______________ have their outer most shell complete in atomic form. noble gas alkali metals coinage metals 2 6 Force responsible to hold atoms together in a compound is called bond attractive force interaction 2 6 Energy of atom in compound is higher than individual lesser than individual no change 2 6 in a period, the atomic radii increases decreases remain same 2 6 An atom loses or gain electrons because of stability to form bond to complete its shell 2 6 In a group ionic radii increases decreases no change 2 6 Energy required removing electron from an atom I.P E.N E.A 2 6 I.P energy in period generally increases decreases no change 2 6 Greater shielding effect corresponding to I.P value greater lesser remain same 2 6 Elements having high I.P values are metals non metals liquids 2 6 Energy release or absorbed when electrons are added in atom is I.P E.N E.A 2 6 In a period, E.N from L→R increases decreases remain constant 2 6 Ionic bond is produced after complete transfer of nucleus neutrons electrons 2 6 Elements of group IA, IIA are electro negativity electro positivity neutral 2 6 Bond will be ionic when E.N difference of bonded atom is Equal to 1.7 Greater to 1.7 lesser to 1.7 2 6 Mostly ionic compounds are produced in between elements of IA and VIA IA, IIA and VIIA IB and VIIB 2 6 The lewis acids are electron deficient electron rich octet is complete 2 6 Sharing of electron pair by one specie is called single covalent bond hydrogen bond double covalent bond 2 6 The geometry of ammonia is 104.9` 104.9 109.5 2 6 The geometry of ammonia is tetrahedral square planner T-shaped 2 6 Orbital of same energy produced after mixing of orbitals of different energy called degenerate orbital generate orbital hybrid orbital 2 6 By combining “n” atomic orbitals, no. of hybrid orbitals will be 2n n 3n 2 6 Geometry of simple molecule having sp3 hybrid orbital is triangular tetrahedra square planner 2 6 Geometry of molecule will be pyramidal, when no. of electrons in outer most shell of central atom is 3 bond pair, one lone pair 2 bond pair, 2 lone pair 1 bond pair, 3 lone pair 2 6 Pi bonds are produced by overlapping of unhybridized orbital hybrid orbital hybrid and un hybrid orbital 2 6 According to VESPR model, the geometry of molecule having 5 bond pair in outer most shell will be triangular square planner trigonal bi pyramidal 2 6 Molecular orbital, which have higher energy than atomic orbitals is called bonding molecular orbitals anti bonding molecular orbital hybrid orbital 2 6 Unpair electrons in a molecular give _________ character ferromagnetis m paramegnetism diamagnetism 2 6 Product of charge and distance is called pressure bond length work 2 6 Unit of dipole moment is debye poise pascal 2 7 Which one is not a state function? internal energy enthalpy gibbs free energy 2 7 If internal energy of the system is increased. change in state of the system is increased temperature of the system may rise chemical reaction can take place 2 7 ___________ is study about energy of a chemical system thermochemist ry thermo dynamics kinetics 2 7 The environment in which a system is studied is state function phase surrounding 2 7 Unit of heat in SI system is KJ Kcal Cal 2 7 Any thing which depends upon initial and final state of a system is environment surrounding state function 2 7 Total energy of a system is P.E + K.E P.E + heat energy K.E + heat energy 2 7 Reaction in which heat evolves is called endothermic spontaneous non- spontaneous 2 7 Pumping of water uphill is spontaneous process non- spontaneous process irreversible process 2 7 State function the microscopic property of system depends upon path of reaction initial state final state 2 7 Which one of the following in not a state function pressure temperature heat 2 7 When enthalpy of reactants is higher than products, then reaction will be endothermic spontaneous non- spontaneous 2 7 Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by glass calorimeter bomb calorimeter thermometer 2 7 Enthalpy of combustion for food, fuel and other compounds can be measured by glass calorimeter bomb calorimeter thermometer 2 7 The lattice energy of NaCl is -787Kj/mole 787Kj/mole 780Kj/mole 2 7 Most of thermodynamics parameters are system surrounding phase 2 7 Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are pressure and temperature pressure and volume heat and volume 2 7 The initial condition of a system is called initial state final state surrounding 2 7 In measurement of melting point of a liquid, the beaker used will be surrounding state phase 2 8 Kc value has no units has units both a & b 2 8 If a buffer solution of higher pH than seven is to be made we use strong acid and strong base weak acid and strong base weak acid and its salt with strong base 2 8 Sodium benzoate and benzoic acid of equimolar mixed to form buffer if pKa is 2 what will be the pH? 0 1 2 2 8 Which of the following will not change the concentration of ammonia at the equilibrium increase of pressure increase of volume addition of catalyst 2 8 Why is hydroxide ion a strong base in water solution? OH- is the only base . OH- is the conjugate base of water all bases react with water to produce OH- ions 2 8 Reaction which proceeds in both directions is called reversible irreversible spontaneous 2 8 Chemical equilibrium state is dynamic state static state free state 2 8 Conversion of reactant into product in unit time is called rate of forward reaction rate of backward reaction rate of constant 2 8 At start of reaction the concentration of reactants is on higher side on lower side on optimum side 2 8 By the addition of base in water, pH will be more than 7 less than equal to 7 2 8 Idea of pH and pOH was put forward by Gibbs Einstein Sorenson 2 8 Negative log of molar concentration of H+ ions is called pH pOH acidity of compound 2 8 Any substance which accepts H+ is base favor the concept Lowry‟s Lewis Arhenius 2 8 Conjugate base of a weak acid is weak base strong base do not ionize 2 8 The solubility constant when sparingly soluble salt is in equilibrium with molar concentration of its oppositely charged ion is called common ion effect solubility ion effect dissociation constant 2 8 Solution whose pH con not change called buffer solution normal solution standard solution 2 8 The pH of human blood is 7.00 7.35 7.50 2 8 By decreasing the pressure, the reaction will go to that direction where volume decrease volume increases heat absorbed 2 8 By addition of ______, equilibrium state is achieved quickly. reactants acid base 2 8 The pH of milk is 6.50 6.00 6.20 2 9 Which of the following unit of concentration is independent of temperature? molarity molality normality 2 9 Which of the following is an example of liquid solute gas solvent? opals dust particles in smoke paints 2 9 The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation in boiling point to molarity molality mole fraction of solvent 2 9 Which of the following are the conditions of colligative properties? solute non electrolyte volatile solute dilute solution 2 9 Which has minimum freezing point? One molal NaCl one molal Kcl solution One molal Cacl2 2 9 Which of the following is not a collgative property? lowering of vapor pressure freezing point osmotic pressure 2 9 When common salt is dissolved in water? B.P of water decrease B.P of water increase B.P of water remains same 2 9 Every sample of matter with uniform properties and fixed composition is called solute solvent solution 2 9 Homogenous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called solution compound radical 2 9 Smaller components in a solution is called solvent solute phase 2 9 Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called good solution unsaturated solution saturated solution 2 9 Number of moles in 1Kg of solvent is called normality molality molarity 2 9 In partially miscible liquid the two layers are saturated solutions of each liquid unsaturated solutions of each liquid normal solution of each liquid 2 9 The volume of solution equal to sum of volumes of all components ideal solution non ideal solution saturated solution 2 9 The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to the volume of solvent volume of solute mole fraction of solute 2 9 The solution which does not boil on a particular temperature ideal solution zeotropic solution azeotropic solution 2 9 Mixtures which boil at constant temperature and distill over without change in composition called zeotropic mixture azeotropic mixture ampheoteric solution 2 9 Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with sold substances at particular temperature is called saturated solution solubility Unsaturated solution 2 9 Presence of Nacl in ice lowers the melting point of ice increase the melting point of ice no charge 2 9 Boiling point elevations can be measured by calorimeter Landsberger‟s method saccharimeter 2 9 Bechman‟s apparatus is used to measure B.P of elevation depression of F.P temperature 2 9 Water molecules surrounds more around +ve ion complex ion -ve ion 2 9 The compound in which water molecules are added are called complex double salt hydrates 2 9 Hydration is a process in which water molecules is added water molecule is added by H-O bond breakage of O- H bond 2 9 PPm means parts of solute in 1000 parts of solvent parts of solvent in 1000 parts of solute parts of solute in one million parts of solvent 2 9 Water of crystallization can be removed by drying heating crystallization 2 9 Solution containing relative smaller amount of solute molecules called concentrated solution dilute solution saturated solution 2 10 Which of the following element act as inert electrode? Cu Ag Pt 2 10 Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the oxidation potential reduction potential Redox potential 2 10 Which has max oxidation number? N Cr S 2 10 Which of the following cell is not rechargeable? lead storage battery silver oxide cell fuel cell 2 10 In an electrolytic cell current flows? from cathode to anode in outer circuit from anode to cathode outside the cell from cathode to anode inside the cell 2 10 A galvanic cell chemical energy is converted into electricity chemical energy is converted into heat electrical energy is converted into chemical energy 2 10 The degree of dissociation of week electrolyte increases as pressure increases dilution decreases dilution increases 2 10 Molten Nacl conducts electricity due to the presence of free electrons free molecules free ions 2 10 Electricity in voltaic cell is produced due to neutralization oxidation reduction 2 10 In electrolytic solution conductance of electricity is due to free electrons ions metals 2 10 In electrolytic cell, electricity is carried out by spontaneous reaction non spontaneous reaction neutralization 2 10 Reaction at anode is called oxidation reduction redox 2 10 cathode provides electrons to +ve ion -ve ions neutral atom 2 10 In electrolytic cell electrons flow from anode to cathode through electric circuit salt bridge movement of ions 2 10 Decrease in oxidation no. is called oxidation reduction oxidation- reduction 2 10 Right half cell contains ____________________ electrode Al Zn Cu 2 10 Salt bridge transfer electrons anion current 2 10 Voltaic cell can be recharged by by addition of fresh solution by replacing external circuit with external source of electricity by removal of solution 2 10 E of an element can be calculated by comparing it with new electrode of same element SHE 1 M solution of element 2 10 Potential of SHE is considered as Zero unity constant 2 10 Potential of Zn is called Oxidation reduction oxidation- reduction 2 10 List of elements based on hydrogen scale is called periodic table groups periods 2 10 Anode electrode based on hydrogen scale is called higher lower in middles 2 10 Li, Na acts as anode as their position is in electrochemical series is higher lower in middle 2 10 Greater value of standard electrode potential greater will be tendency oxidation reduction to accept electrons 2 10 Greater value of standard reduction potential smaller will tendency to form positive ions to form negative ions to remain unchanged 2 10 Secondary battery is rechargeable unchangeable electrolytic cell 2 10 lead accumulators are secondary battery primary battery Daniel battery 2 10 Capacity of one lead accumulator cell is 1.5 volts 2 volts 3 volts 2 10 the strength of solution of an element whose electrode potential is to be measured is 2M 1N 1m 2 10 Apparent charge on atom in molecule is valency coordination no oxidation no. 2 10 Voltaic cell is a irreversible cell reversible cell alkaline cell 2 10 % of sulphuric acid in leas accumulator is 40% 25% 30% 2 10 The reduction potential of Zn is 0.76 -0.76 -0.55 2 10 The half cell are intermolecular through wire salt bridge electric circuit 2 12 Elements in the same vertical group of the periodic table have same number of electrons atomic number atomic volume 2 12 An element having I.E and low E.A is likely to belong to group IA group IB group VIIA 2 12 Which of the following always increase on going from top to bottom in a group? Metallic character electro negativity oxidizing behavior 2 12 Which of the p-block elements are not representative elements? alkali metals group 14 elements group 18 elements 2 12 Among halogens the highest boiling point is of fluorine chlorine bromine 2 12 Which of the following elements has the highest boiling point? He Ne Ar 2 12 Which statement is incorrect? all the metals are good conductor of electricity all the metals are good conductor of heat all the metals form positive ions 2 12 Periodic table provides a basic framework to study elements with respect to their physical properties chemical properties properties of their compounds 2 12 The scientist who did not contribute in the construction of periodic table? Al-Razi Mosley Dobereiner 2 12 Concept of triads was introduced by Dobereiner New land Mendeleev 2 12 Which element was not known when Mendeleev proposed his classification? hydrogen sodium copper 2 12 Elements with similar chemical properties appear in the same family same period both a and b 2 12 Noble gases are named so because they are inert zero group elements having completely filled valence shell 2 12 In modern periodic table all the elements are arranged in ascending order of valency atomic mass atomic number 2 12 Inner transition elements are called lanthanides actinides rare earth metals 2 12 Seventh period contains -------------_____________ normal elements 2 4 6 2 12 Modern periodic table has been divided in --------------______________ blocks 2 4 8 2 12 Metals form ____________ oxides usually acidic basic both a & b 2 12 Amphoteric oxides are those which possess ______________ properties acidic basic both a & b 2 12 Best position of hydrogen in the periodic table is above I.A group which is mainly due to both are electro positive similar electronic configuration both are not found in free state 2 12 Hydrogen resembles with Carbon because of having same number of electrons in the valence shell similar physical state remarkable reducing properties 2 12 Which one of the following sets consists of all coinage metals? Cu, Hg, Au Cu, Ag, Au Ag, Au, Hg 2 12 In which of the following pair are elements belonging to the same group? boron and beryllium nitrogen and phosphorous magnesium and aluminum 2 12 Many properties of an element and its compounds can be predicted from the position of an element in the periodic table. when property could not be predicted in this way? the acidic or basic and nature of its oxides the charge on its ions the formula of its oxides 2 12 Which one of the following is not a periodic property? melting point of elements boiling point of elements ionization energy of elements 2 12 The atomic radii decrease by increasing atomic number in alkali metal alkaline earth meta elements from Li to Ne 2 12 Which discovery caused a revision in the periodic law as stated by Mendeleev's location of nucleus by Ruther ford atomic number by Mosley X-rays by Roentgen 2 12 The property which increases up to the middle of the period and then decreases is ionization energy atomic radii melting and boiling points 2 12 The atoms of same elements having same atomic number but different mass number are called isobars isomers isotopes 2 12 Deuterium reacts with oxygen to form hard water heavy water soft water 2 12 Elements with greater number of electrons have __________ values of ionization energy only one more than one equal to atomic no. 2 12 Ionization energy depends upon nuclear charge atomic size shielding effect 2 12 Shielding effect across the period increases decreases can not be predicted 2 12 Addition of 2nd electron to a uni negative ion is always exothermic endothermic a or b 2 12 Higher value of electron affinity means atom will lose electron easily atom will gain electron easily atom may form di- positive ion 2 12 Metallic characters of alkali metals increases down the group decrease down the group no regular trend 2 12 Melting points of VII-A group ___________ down the group increase decrease remains constant 2 12 Oxidation state of an atom represents no. of electrons gained no. of electrons lost no. of electrons gained or lost 2 12 Halides in which halogen atoms act as a bridge between two atoms of the other elements are called covalent halides electronegative halides polymeric halides 2 12 Less electronegative elements such as Be, Ga, Al etc form polymeric halides covalent halides ionic halides 2 12 Ionic is solid due to strong covalent character strong dipole moment high polarization 2 13 Alkali metals are named so because their oxides are basic their oxides and hydroxides are water soluble both a & b 2 13 The word alkali means base basic salt ashes 2 13 The oxides of Be are acidic basic amphoteric 2 13 Which element is present in excess in skeletal material? Si Ba Mg 2 13 Li is different from its family members due to small size high charge density less electro positivity 2 13 Carbonates of lithium are not stable like that of sodium due to low electro negativity low electropositivity low charge density 2 13 Nitrates of which element give same products? Li, Na, K Li, Mg, Ca Li, Na, Be 2 13 Which one of the following is not an alkali metal? francium caesium rubidium 2 13 Which of the following sulphate is not soluble in water? sodium sulphate potassium sulphate zinc sulphate 2 13 The element cesium bears resemblance with Ca Cr both of the above 2 13 Down‟s cell is used to prepare sodium carbonate sodium bicarbonate sodium metal 2 13 Which one of the following substances conducts electricity by the movement of ions? graphite copper molten sodium chloride 2 13 The deliquescence is a process in which a solid absorbs moisture and remains solid absorbs moisture and turns to liquid form loses water of crystallization 2 13 In diaphragm cell, level of brine in anode compartment is kept slightly higher which prevents hydroxide ions to reach anode chlorine gas to mix anode to decay 2 13 Gypsum si applied to the soil as a source of Ca S Ca & S 2 13 Alkali and alkaline earth metals impart colors when heated over burner. It is due to smaller electro negativity of alkali metals smaller ionic radius of these metals De- excitation of electrons from higher energy levels to low energy levels 2 13 First ionization potential of alkaline earth metal is greater than alkali metal because they are more reactive they have greater atomic radii they have smaller atomic sizes 2 13 Which one of the following pairs shows diagonal relationship in the periodic table? sodium and lithium lithium and magnesium lithium and beryllium 2 13 NaOH is named as caustic soda because it corrodes the organic tissues it is used in soda water it reacts with chlorine gas 2 13 Sodium is not observed in +2 oxidation state because of its high first ionization potential high second ionization potential high ionic radius 2 13 The oxides of beryllium are acidic basic amphoteric 2 13 Electrolysis of dilute solution of NaCl results at the cathode sodium hydrogen chlorine 2 13 Second ionization potential of alkali metal are very high due to these are s- block elements inert gas configurations ns‟ electronic configurations 2 14 Boron is no metal whereas Al is metal, it is due to small size high nuclear charge both a and b 2 14 Boron in soil has been considered essential specially for soil porosity proper growth of plants alkalinity of soil 2 14 One of the outstanding features of boron is its ability to form molecular addition compounds molecular crystals semiconductor s 2 14 Substances which is found in dried up lakes of Tibet and California is Tincal Boric Acid Calcium carbonate 2 14 Borax is a white crystalline solid and it is more soluble in cold water more soluble in hot water not soluble in water 2 14 Which of the following does not gives Borax bead test? Cu Cr Ni 2 14 Special features of borate glass is that it is heat resistant low melting used to prepare chemical garden 2 14 The metal which is used in thermite process because of its activity, is iron copper aluminum 2 14 Aluminum oxide is acidic oxide basic oxide amphoteric oxide 2 14 Which of the following shows inert pair effect? boron carbon silicon 2 14 Tincal is a mineral of Al Si B 2 14 Which one of the following is not a semiconductor? Si Ge Se 2 14 The process of aluminum extraction is called Hall process thermite process Haber process 2 14 Because of its ability to combine with both oxygen and nitrogen, aluminum metal is used as nitrometer to remove air bubbles from molten metal to produce alloy 2 14 Which of the following is not a use of silicon? Lubricants hydraulic brakes antifreeze 2 14 Boron is no metal while other elements of IIIA group are metals. This is because it has small size it has high nuclear charge it forms molecular addition compounds 2 14 The colored glassy mass in borax bead test is due to the formation of metal borate metal meta borate metal boride 2 15 Which of the following is different with respect to physical appearance? arsenic phosphorous antimony 2 15 Which of the following possesses melting point below 0c0 nitrogen phosphorous carbon 2 15 Compounds of nitrogen and phosphorus are mostly ionic Covalent Polar 2 15 The most electro negative element among the following is Sb N As 2 15 Which one of the following is not a property of quartz? colored solid brittle hard 2 15 Phosphorous is a Greek word and it means light bearing fire impure 2 15 Which of the following does not contain phosphorous? yolk of egg bone nerves 2 15 Allotropic form of phosphorous that is poisonous is white red balck 2 15 Which one of the following in not the use of Graphite? lead pencil abrasive lubricants 2 15 Which of the following element can follow extended octet rule? P C B 2 15 Phosphorous acid upon thermal decomposition yields phosphoric acid and phosphine phosphorous water 2 15 The element of group VIA which is non metal is S Se Te 2 15 Phosphorous acid is a weak acid and its basicity is 1 3 zero 2 15 All the elements in group VIA are hygroscopic metals polymeric 2 15 Which of the elements show passivity when treated with con. HNO3 Fe Al Cr 2 15 Which allotropic form of phosphorous is the most stable? white black red 2 15 The chemical composition of cinnabar is Zn S Pb S Hg S 2 16 In the halogens the element which is found rarely is fluorine chlorine astatine 2 16 The progressive deepening of color from F2 to I2 is due to valence electron atomic number molecular mass 2 16 Which of the following statement is incorrect about fluorine? restriction of fluorine is to follow octetrule high first ionization energy and electro negativity low dissociation energy of fluorine 2 16 Which one of the following is the weaker acid in water? HF Hcl HBR 2 16 The halogens, which reacts very slowly with halogens is fluorine chlorine bromine 2 16 The halogen which occurs naturally in positive oxidation state is fluorine chlorine bromine 2 16 Bromine can be liberated from KBr solution by the action of iodion solution chlorine NaCl 2 16 Bleaching powder is an example of normal salt double salt mixed salt 2 16 Which of the halogen has highest bond energy? fluorine chlorine bromine 2 16 Which of the halogen can displace other three elements? fluorine chlorine iodine 2 16 Which of the following statement is incorrect about halogens? all are non metals all the halogens have electronic configuration ns2p5 they have high electron affinity and ionization energy 2 16 The halogen which reacts with Kr, Xe, or Rn is iodine bromine chlorine 2 16 Bleaching powder is not used for bleaching cotton costly fabrics lines 2 17 Co- ordination number of (Pt Cl No2 (NH3)4)2- 2 6 4 2 17 The co ordination number in tetra ammine chloro nitro platinum IV sulphate is 2 4 6 2 17 Group VIB of transition elements contains Zn, Cd, Hg Fe, Ru, Os Cr, Mo, W 2 17 The elements in which d and f orbitals are in the process of completion are alkali metal alkaline metals halogens 2 17 The location of transition elements is in between lanthanides and actinides s and p block elements chalocogens and halogens 2 17 The behavior of melting point and boiling point upto middle of series increase decrease remains same 2 17 Radii of transition elements decreases rapidly at end at middle at start 2 17 Compounds attracted by applied magnetic fields are called diamagnetic paramagnetic good conductor 2 17 Transition elements usually shows paramagnetism diamagnetism ferromagnetis m 2 17 Transition elements shows ___________ oxidation state variable constant single 2 17 When light is exposed to transition element, when electrons jumps from lower orbitals to higher orbitals in f- orbitals s- orbitals p- orbitals 2 17 Non- stoichiometric compounds are called hydrates hydrides binary compounds 2 17 When a compound of transition elements is dissolved in a solution then it produces simple ions complex ions double salts 2 17 The specie which donates electrons to central metal atom in co ordination sphere is called anion cation ligand 2 17 The compounds which donate two electrons pairs in a compounds is called lignad monodentate lignad polydentate lignad 2 17 Following ion is a bidentate ligand? ammonia oxalatae carbonyl 2 17 The central atom along with ligands is called complex ion coordinate sphere ligand 2 17 The ligand which has a ring in its structure when it combines with central metal is called polydentate ligand chelate monodentate ligand 2 17 In complex compounds the oxidation number is written in English Greek roman numeral 2 17 Geometry of complex compounds depends upon no. of ligands no. of chelates hybridization of central metal 2 17 In production of wrought iron, Mg, Si and P are removed in the form of oxides silicates slag 2 17 Bessemer‟s converter furnace is used in open hearth furnace Down‟s method Bessemer‟s process 2 17 Any process of chemical decay of metals due to action of surrounding medium is called surrounding enamel corrosion 2 17 When an active metal like Al come in contact with less active element like Cu, then it produces voltaic cell galvanic cell electrolytic cell 2 17 Which of the following is a typical transition metal? Sc Y Ra 2 18 Main source of organic compounds is animal fossil coal 2 18 Reforming can be carried out by isomerism cracking addition of aromatic compounds 2 18 Hydro carbons which burn with smoky flame are called aliphatic alicyclic aromatic 2 18 Octane number can be improved by pyrolysis polymerization reforming 2 18 Geometric isomerism is usually found in alkanes alkenes alkynes 2 18 Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have low melting point low vapor pressure high boiling point 2 18 Pentane and 2-methyle butane have the same boiling point melting point percentage composition 2 18 The first organic compound was synthesized in laboratory by Wohler Kolbe Berzillius 2 18 According to vital force theory organic compounds can be synthesized from inorganic compounds organic compounds cannot be synthesized from inorganic compounds organic compounds can be synthesized by animals 2 18 First organic compound synthesized in laboratory was tartaric acid ethyl alcohol methanol 2 18 Carbon in neither electro positive nor electro negative as it belongs to group III-A IV-A V-A 2 18 The property of carbon chain formation is called catenation hybridization c. chain structure 2 18 Chemical properties of first member of homologous series with respect to other members are same different depend upon number of C atoms 2 18 The organic compounds having very high molecular weight are called carboxylic acid ketones aldeydes 2 18 Compounds having same molecular formula but differ in structural formula is called polymer monomer isomer 2 18 Rate of reaction of most organic compounds are very slow very fast medium 2 18 Organic compounds are soluble in polar solvent non polar solvent benzene 2 18 Coal is produced after a long time decay of animals fossils wood 2 18 Methane is used in power generation in chemical industries being a natural gas good caloric value cheaper 2 18 Crude oil is blackish colored liquid produced after the decay of organic matter present between earth layer mountains sedimentary rocks 2 18 The process in which larger molecule with higher molecular weight breaks down into smaller molecules with lower molecular weight polymerization pyrolysis isomerism 2 18 Metallic sound of engine is knocking reforming cracking 2 18 Which one of the following compounds shows high knocking? n-pentane iso-heptane iso-octane 2 18 Ether functional group can be represent as -OH R-CO-R R-O-R 2 18 Isomerism which is present only in alkene is structural isomerism metamerism cis-trans isomerism 2 18 A single atom or group of atoms give characteristics properties to a compound is called radical hydrocarbon functional group 2 18 Compound containing benzene ring in their structure are aliphatic aromatic carboxylic acid 2 18 2-propanol can show isomerism as metamerism functional group isomerism geometric isomerism 2 18 The hydrocarbons which give smoke on burning is called aliphatic aromatic carboxylic acid 2 18 Only sigma bonds are present in propene butanoic acid butanal 2 18 The structure of ethyne is angular trigonal linear 2 19 Valecies in paraffins alkanes are completely satisfied partially satisfied no satisfied 2 19 Alkanes containing one branch on main chain are called iso normal neo 2 19 When one hydrogen atom of alkane is removed then it is called alkene alkyl aldehyde 2 19 Alkanes are also known as saturated hydrocarbons unsaturated hydrocarbons paraffins 2 19 Hydrogenolysis results in alkane alkene alkyne 2 19 Zn is a good metal oxidizing agent non metal 2 19 Removal of Co2 is called carboxylation decarboxylatio n esterification 2 19 Sod lime is a mixture of Cao and KOH Cao and NaoH NaoH and Nao 2 19 R-Mg-Br is called Grignard reagent Wurtz reaction Tollen‟s reagent 2 19 Up to ______________ C atoms, alkanes are gases 2 3 4 2 19 Alkanes are less reactive than alkanes due to presence of sigma bond absence of pi bond presence of sigma and pi bond 2 19 Introduction of nitrogen group is called nitration halogenation sulphation 2 19 Removal of halogen and hydrogen atom is halogenation dehalogenation dehydrohaloge nation 2 19 Reacticity due to pi- electrons is present in alkane alkene alkyne 2 19 Raney nickel is an alloy of Ni-Cu Ni-Fe Ni-Al 2 20 In benzene sulphonic acid the sulphonic group is attached with benzene ring though hydrogen oxygen sulphur 2 20 Phenanthrene is a fused polycyclic compound contains___________ Benzene rings two three four 2 20 Aniline is a derivative of benzene which contains hydroxyl group amino group amide group 2 20 How many ╥ electrons are there in benzene? 3 4 6 2 20 When benzene is substituted by halogens only, which one of the following halogens is given the number one position in the ring while writing the name of compounds? Bromine Chlorine Fluorine 2 20 Michael Faraday discovered benzene in the gas which was produced by destructive distillation of vegetable oil done in the presence of oxygen the presence of hydrogen the absence of oxygen 2 20 By which method, the molecular mass of benzene was determined as 78.108? specific gravity method vapor density method X-ray diffraction method 2 20 How many moles of H2 are added up when benzene is heated with hydrogen in the presence of platinum? two three four 2 20 The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexane is -219.5 KJ/mole 219.5K Calories/mole -119.5 KJ/mole 2 20 The resonance energy of benzene is 150.5KJ/mole 250.5 KJ/mole 150.5Cal/mole 2 20 Which one of the following methods will not give benzene? heating sod. Salt of benzoic acid with soda lime distilling phenol with Zn dust Chlorobenzene with NaoH at 3600C and 300 atm 2 20 In Friedel Craft Alkylation, AlCl3 is used to generate strong nucleophile weak nuclephile strong electrophile 2 20 Acetophenone is a Quinone Ketone aldehyde 2 20 Reaction bromine with benzene in the presence of sunlight will result in the rupturing of benzene ring substitution rection addition reaction 2 20 Benzene does not undergo substitution reaction addition reaction polymerization reaction 2 20 Which compound will rapidly undergo sulphonation? Benzene Nitro benzene toluene 2 20 The preparation of benzene from acetylene can also be said as oxidation polymerization dehydration 2 20 Replacement of hydrogen of benzene by alkyl group in pressure of alkyl halide and ferric chloride is known as Dow‟s process Friedel and Craft acylation Friedel and Craft alkylation 2 20 Which compound form benzoinc acid on oxidation with strong oxidizing agent? toluene ethyl benzene n-propyle benzene 2 20 The hydrolysis of benzenetrizonide will yield three moles of glyoxime benzaldehyde glycol 2 21 Which C-X bond has the highest bond energy per mole? C-F C-Cl C-Br 2 21 Which alkyl halide has the highest reactivity for a particular alkyle group? R-F R-Cl R-Br 2 21 2.8 is the electro negativity of F Cl Br 2 21 The number of molecules taking part in the rate determining step is called order of reaction rate of reaction molecularity of a reaction 2 21 What is the order of kinetics in the SN 1 mechanism? zero first second 2 21 When two moles of ethyl chloride reacts with two moles of sodium in the presence of ether, what will be formed? 2 moles of ethane 1 mole of ethane 2 moles of butane 2 21 When Co2 is made to react with ethyl magnesium iodide, followed by acid hydrolysis, the product formed is propane propanic acid propanol 2 21 Grignard reagent is reactive due to the presence of halogen atom the presence of magnesium atom the polarity of C-Mg bond 2 21 Elimination bimolecular reaction involve First order kinetics second order kinetics Third order kinetics 2 21 The rate of E1 reaction depends upon the concentration of substrate the concentration of nucleophile the concentration of substrate as well as nucleophile 2 21 Alkyl halides are considered to be very reactive compounds towards nucleophile because they have an electrophilic carbo they have an electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group they have an electrophilic carbon and a bad leaving group 2 21 Which one of the following alcohols will be formed when ethyl magnesium bromide reacts with acetone? primary alcohol secondary alcohol tertiary alcohol 2 22 Which one of the following is also known as lactic acid? 3-hydroxy propanoic acid 2-hydroxy propanoic acid 2-hydroxy butanic acid 2 22 Which one of the following is also known as tartaric acid? 2, 3- dihydroxy butanedioic acid 2, 2- dihydroxy butanedioic acid 2, 3- dihydroxy butanoic acid 2 22 The residue obtained after the crystallization of sugar from concentrated sugar cane juice is called mother liquor filterate extract 2 22 The process of fermentation of starch involve many enzymes the sequence of enzymes used are diastase- maltase- zymase zymase- maltase- diastase maltase- diastase- zymase 2 22 The rectified spirit contain 12% alcohol 90% alcohol 91% alcohol 2 22 The oxidation of isopropyl alcohol will yield propane popanol propnone 2 22 Which alchol will undergo elimination reaction to give alkene in the presence of acidic dichromate? primary alcohol secondary alcohol tertial alcohol 2 22 Heating phenol with Zn will yield Benzene benzoic acid phenoxide acid 2 22 Which phenol is heated with nitric acid the product is picric acid nitrobenzene 2,4,6- trinitro benzene 2 22 Treating phenol with formaldehyde in the presence of dilute base forms bakelite, the process involved is oxidation elimination condensation 2 22 Ethanol can be converted into ethanoic acid by hydrogenation hydration oxidation 2 22 Methyl alcohol is not used as a solvent as an antifreezing agent as a substitute for petrol 2 23 Which of the following will have the highest boiling point? methanal ethanal propananl 2 23 Which of the following substance do not give iodoform test? acetaldehyde ethyl alcohol methyl alcohol 2 23 Formation is ___________ % solution of formaldehyde in water 10% 20% 40% 2 23 Which of the following aldehydes shows rapid reaction with sodium nitroprussside? formaldehyde acetaldehyde benaldehyde 2 23 Acetone reacts with HCN to form a cyanohydrin. It is an example of electrophilic addition electrophilic substitution nucleophilic addition 2 23 Which of the following reactions are associated with aldehyde and ketone? nucleophile addition polymerization oxidation 2 23 Cannizzaro‟s reaction is not given by formaldehyde acetaldehyde benzaldehyde 2 23 Which of the following reagents will react with both aldehydes and ketones? Grignard reagents tollen‟s reagent Fehling‟s reagent 2 23 Ketones are comparatively less reactive than aldehyde. It is due to alkyl group are electron donating steric hindrance both 2 23 Which of the following do not give aldol condensation reactions? formaldehyde adetaldehyde diemethyle ketone 2 23 Which of the following is not a use of formaldehyde? in silvery mirror in making medicine urotropine in making throat logenzes 2 23 Formaldehyde and lactose are combined to produce throat lezengs named as formamint lactomint aldomint 2 23 Which of the following is not a use of acetaldehyde? formation of phenolic resins formation of looking glass antiseptic inhalant 2 23 Formalin consists of mixture of formaldehyde, methyl alcohol and water percentage of water in it is 60% 50% 52% 2 23 On heating aldehydes with Fehling‟s solution, we get a precipitate whose color is pink black yellow 2 23 Which of the following compounds has the empirical formula CH2O and reacts with sodium hydroxide? carbonic acid phenol acetic acid 2 23 Oxidation of P0 alcohol gives? ketone aldehyde alkene then –COOH 2 23 Nucleophilic addition reactions are catalysed acid base both a and b 2 23 Acetaldehyele cyano hydrin on acid hydrolysis yields tartaric acid propionic acid lactic acid 2 23 Crotonaldehyde is obtained on the rax of ____________ in B. medium formaldehyde acetone + acetone acetone + acetaldehyde 2 24 When carboxylic group is attached directly to benzene ring, the acid is calld aliphatic alicyclic carbonyl 2 24 The common name of propane 1,3- dioic acid is oxalic acid aromatic acid malonic acid 2 24 The common thing in phthalic acid and oxalic acid is that both are aromatic dicarboxylic hydrocarbons 2 24 The irritation caused by an ant‟s bite is due to lactic acid formic acid uric acid 2 24 The acid which is used as ink remover is oxalic acid succinic acid adipic acid 2 24 Which of the following is the strongest acid? water formic acid acetic acid 2 24 Which acid is used in the manufacture of synthetic rubber? acetic acid formic acid carbonic acid 2 24 Acidic amino acids have 2 amino groups 1 amino and 1 carboxylic groups 2 carboxylic groups 2 24 In the formation of Zwitter ions, proton goes from Carboxylic to amino group amino to carboxylic group amino group only 2 24 The term “internal salt” refers to acidic character of amino acids basic character of amino acids dipolar character of amino acids 2 24 The organic acid that does not has COOH group is hydrazine carbolic acid maleic acid 2 24 Which one of the following acids is present in lemon juice? citric acid benzoic acid tartaric acid 2 24 The test which is used for the identification of amino acids is ninhydrin test molisch test biuretic test 2 24 Which one of the following is not a basic amino acid? lysine histidine praline 2 24 Lysine is named so because it has sweet taste bitter taste shining appearance 2 24 The organic acid that can be made from ethanol is acetic acid formic acid butanoic acid 2 24 Melting points of carboxylic acids containing even no. of carbon atoms are _____ that the acids with odd no. of carbon atoms. lower higher same 2 24 Which acid is used in the manufacture of synthetic rubber? formic acid acetic acid carbonic acid 2 24 Which compound is the reference for the relative configuration of sugar and amino acids? D- glucose D- glyceraldehyde s D- glycine 2 24 Which of the following is not a fatty acid? propanoic acid acetic acid phthalic acid 2 25 Polymers described as large molecules built up from small repeating units called Biopolymers dimmers monomers 2 25 Three different monomers are polymerized in copolymer terpolymer Homopolymer 2 25 The important monomers of acyclic resins is vinyl chloride styrene methylmethacr ylate 2 25 Polyester resins are the product of the reaction of alcohol and aromatic acids polyamines with aliphatic dicarboxylic acids styrene in the presence of catalyst 2 25 Industrial materials, thermal power stations are coated with polyester resins epoxy paints polyaride resins 2 25 Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy compound of glucose glyceraldehyde s c.oligosacchari des 2 25 Common examples of carbohydrates are? cellulose, glycogen, galactose glyceraldehyde s, glucose, peptone glycerol, phosphor- lipids, collagen 2 25 Nylon is obtained by heating acrylic acid epichlorohydrin vinyl chloride 2 25 Hydrolysis of an oligosaccharide in the presence of acid yields one monosaccaride unit no monosaccharid e unit 2- 10 monosaccharid e unit 2 25 Amylase is soluble in water insoluble in water soluble in alcohol 2 25 The carbohydrate that serves to satisfy the appetite and stimulates peristalsis is cellulose glycogen starch 2 25 Protein attached to some non protein group is called derived protein sample protein proteoses 2 25 Regular coiling or zigzag of polypeptide is its quantum structure secondary structure tertiary structure 2 25 Tanning of hides is carried out by heating bones in water heating bones in alkali precipitation of proteins with tannic acid 2 25 Lipids are soluble in organic solvents organic and inorganic solvents inorganic solvents 2 25 Animal fats are located particularly in skeleton tissues cardiac tissues connectivity tissues 2 25 Animal and vegetable fats are glycerols fatty acids trimesters formed from glycerol and fatty acids 2 25 Lipopolysaccharides are examples of derived lipids sample lipids composed lipids 2 25 Triglycerides are easily hydrolyzed by enzymes called lyases ligases lipases 2 25 Saponification is the hydrolysis of fat or oil with an acid alkali enzyme and alkali 2 25 Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of groups with in molecules to yields isomeric forms are called isomerases lyases transferases 2 25 Enzymes from the same organism which catalyze same reaction but are chemically and physically distinct from eah other are called oxidoreductase s hydrolases isoenzymes 2 25 Rate of enzymatic reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of enzyme substrate enzyme and substrate 2 25 Enzyme proved useful in cancer treatment is lactic dehydrogenase alkaline phosphates L- asparaginase 2 25 Purines and pyrimidines are enzymes nitrogenous bases carbohydrates 2 25 Combination of nitrogenous base with sugar is called nucleotide nitrogenous bases poly nucleotide 2 25 Nucleic acids direct the synthesis of glucose triglycerides proteins 2 25 The mechanism by which the genetic information can be duplicated is called duplication transcription replication 2 25 The nitrogenous base different is RNA as compared to DNA is cytosine thymine adenine 2 26 The fertility of the soil is improved by rotation of the corps adding lime to the acid salts adding manure and growing legumes 2 26 Which of the following is incorrect statement about nitrogen importance? it enhances plant growth it is involved in the synthesis of protein and nucleic acids it accelerates fruits and flower growth 2 26 The fertilizers which provide single nutrients from NPK, are called_________Fertilizers straight compound both a and b 2 26 Addition of urea to the soil is _______________ reaction. endothermic exothermic both a and b 2 26 The cooling of molten urea by air in the tower is called prilling evaporation condensation 2 26 Which of the following fertilizers is more useful for paddy rice? urea DAP ammonium sulphat 2 26 DAP (diammonium hydrogen phosphate) contains __________ plant nutrients. 60% 65% 70% 2 26 Calcarious materials includes lime stone marble slated 2 26 Argillaceous material does not include clay marine shells slated 2 26 Which of the following processes is used for the synthesis of cement? dry process wet process both 2 26 Phosphorous helps in the growth of root leave stem 2 26 How many zones through which the charge passes in a rotary kiln? 4 3 2 2 26 The nutrients which are required in very small amount for the growth of plants are called nitrogenous fertilizers micronutrients phosphorus fertilizers 2 26 Which of the following statement is correct for urea? it is a synthetic fertilizer it is a natural fertilizer it provides micronutrients to the plants 2 26 The percentage of nitrogen in urea is 36% 46% 56% 2 26 Which one of the following is an inorganic fertilizer? manure urea ammonium nitrate 2 26 Which one of the following fertilizers provides the nitrogen and phosphorous to the plant? urea calcium super phosphorous Di ammonium phosphate 2 26 The potassium present in plant, help the plant to form starch sugar and fibrous materials ripen the seeds and fruits increase the resistant against disease 2 26 Cement is a mixture of clay and clinker clay lime stone and gypsum lime stone and gypsum 2 26 What is clinker? roasted calcareous material roasted argillaceous material roasted calcareous and argillaceous material 2 26 Which one of the following raw material is not present in the cement? lime stone gypsum blast furnace 2 26 Which sequence of steps is correct for the manufacture of cement? crushing, heating, mixing, grinding crushing, mixing, heating, grinding crushing, grinding, mixing, heating 2 26 The sequences of zones in the rotary kiln are as? dry zone, burning zone, decomposition zone, cooling zone cooling zone, burning zone, decomposition zone, dry zone burning zone, cooling zone, decomposition zone, 2 26 The composition of mixture of clay and lime stone in the raw material is 75% lime stone and 25% clay 25% lime stone and 75% clay 15% lime stone and 55% clay 2 26 The important unction of burning zone in the rotary kiln is to dry the moisture of slurry to decompose lime stone to unslaked lime combination of different oxides like CaO2, SiO2, Fe2O3 and Al2O3 2 27 Which of the following is not a heavy industry? iron fertilizer paper 2 27 Which of the following is not a macronutrients? boron iron copper 2 27 Requirements of macronutrients per acre of the land are 5 to 200 Kg 20 to 200 kg 200 to 400 kg 2 27 Three elements needed for the healthy growth of plants are N, P, K N, K, C N, S, P 2 27 Which of the following is not a secondary pollutant? ozone carbonic acid sulphuric acid 2 27 Residence time of NO in the atmosphere is 2 days 4 days 3 days 2 27 Major cause of SO2 on glolsal scale is volcanoes electric sparks combustion 2 27 The yellow color in photochemical smog is due to presence of carbon dioxide nitrogen dioxide chlorine gas 2 27 Which of the following is not a condition for the formation of smog? sufficient no sunlight less movement of air 2 27 Incineration of industrial and hazardous waste is carried out in the temperature range of 250 to 500oC 500 to 900oC 950 to 1300OC 2 27 In which of the following layer of atmosphere there is more thickness of ozone layer? stratosphere troposphere mesosphere 2 27 Which statement is wrong? the amount of ozone layer is greater in the region close to the equator ozone acts as filter for UV radiations in the polar region it acts as pollutant 2 27 Which of the following factors help to measure quality o water? DO BOD COD 2 27 In the purification of portable water, the coagulant used is alum nickel sulphate copper sulphate 2 27 Newspaper can be recycled again and again how many times? 2 3 4 2 27 The main pollutant leather tanneries in the waste water is chromium III chromium II sodium 2 27 A single chloride free radical can destroy how many ozone molecules? 10 100 10000 2 27 Chlorination of water may be harmful if the water contains? ammonia dissolved oxygen carbon dioxide 2 27 Which one of the following makes the bulk of hydrosphere‟s content? oceans glaciers and ice fresh water lakes and ponds 4 1 The study of life in oceans and seas is Freshwater biology marine biology environmental biology 4 1 The branch of biology in which structure, mode of transmission, life histories and host- parasite relationships are studied is termed microbiology parasitology biotechnology 4 1 The branch of biology that deals with study of social behaviour and communal life of human beings is human morphology social biology environmental biology 4 1 The molecules of low molecular weight such as water and carbon dioxide are termed organic molecules micromolecule s macromolecule s 4 1 Groups of similar cells organized into loose sheets or bundles that perform similar functions are called tissues organs organelles 4 1 The formation of organs is far more complex and defined in plants animals protozoans 4 1 In Flowering plants, the reproductive structures involved in producuing the next generation are cones spores conidia 4 1 Members of one species inhabiting the same area make a population ecosystem community 4 1 The community together wih its non-living surroundings is an population ecosystem community 4 1 The unit of life is sub-atomic particles atom cell 4 1 Protons, electrons and neutrons are atoms subatomic particles micromolecule s 4 1 Most common atoms found in biological molecules is (are) hydrogen carbon oxygen 4 1 A combination of atoms such as water, glucose and DNA are atoms micromolecule s macromolecule s 4 1 The branch of Science dealing with life Ecology Cytology Biology 4 1 Man has been able to produce food in greater quantities due to advancement in: Mathematics Space science Physics 4 1 the word malaria has been derived from the combination of two words which are Latin Italian Greek 4 1 Man can now be saved from fatal diseases by using Vaccine Bacteria hydroponics 4 1 When sporozoites of Plasmodium pass from the blood to liver cells, they multiply for 8 days 10 days 12 days 4 1 The study of living thing human biology biology microbiology 4 1 In the life cycle of Plasmodium fusion of gametes and formation of gametes and formation of zygote take place in Body of Man Body of Mosquito Air 4 1 Inside human body Plasmodium attacks Nerve cells Red blood cells White blood cells 4 1 The study of parasites is parasitology Microbiology Biotechnology 4 1 The study of different aspects of life in human beings is Molecular Biology Human biology cell biology 4 1 Sexual reproduction of the malaria parasite occurs in Man Mosquito Red blood cells 4 1 Which of the following stages of Plasmodium is diploid Merozoite Sporozoite Zygote (ookinete) 4 1 A branch of science that is a way of understanding the nature is biochemistry organic chemistry biology 4 1 The entry of Plasmodium into the blood of Man was discovered by: A. F. A. King Laveran Ronald Ross 4 1 One who deals with living part of the world and non-living things which affect the living things is a Ethologist Embryologists Biologist 4 1 Which of the following stages of Plasmodium is spindle shaped Sporozoite Merozoite Gametocyte 4 1 They are highly organized complex entities composed of one or more cells and contain genetic programme of their characteristics the statement refers to Biologists living organisms Human biologists 4 1 People who slept outside in open spaces suffered from malaria more frequently than those who slept indoors, indicates that: Bad air is involved in the spread of Malaria Bacteria are involved in the spread of Malaria Mosquitoes are involved in the spread of Malaria 4 1 The branch of biology that deals with the structure of oganisms,the cells and their organelles at molecular level is cell biology Molecular Biology Microbiology 4 1 The study of organisms that includes interaction between the organisms and their inorganic and organic environment especially as it relates to human activities is freshwater biology Marine biology Environmental biology 4 1 Which of the following is involved in the spread of malaria ? Bacterium Bad Air Virus 4 1 The branch of biology that deals with life in rivers, lakes and physical and chemical parameters of these water bodies is called freshwater biology marine biology environmental biology 4 1 The statement made by a scientist, which may be the possible answer to the problem. Deduction Theory Hypothesis 4 1 Pollution of our surroundings in the recent past has resulted because of: Biological Research Rapid industrialization Information 4 1 Anatomy deals with the study of: Relationship between organisms and their environment a. Development of an organism from a fertilized egg or zygote Structure and function of molecular components of the cell 4 1 Taxonomy is the study of Functions of different parts of organisms Naming and classification of organisms Hereditary characters 4 1 They are the remains or impressions of living organisms preserved in rocks Tissues Fossils Calcium 4 1 They are the remains or impressions of living organisms preserved in rocks Embryology Taxonomy . Physiology 4 1 In case of typical attack, malarial patient feels: Very cold and chilly Very Warm Sleepy 4 1 The study of hereditary characters transmitted from parents to offspring is called genetics cytology Ecology 4 1 Which of the following forms of Plasmodium is present in the saliva of mosquito? Merozoites Sporozoites Gametocytes 4 1 Which of these attack red blood cells Ookinetes Gametocytes Sporozoites 4 1 Which of the following is not true of malaria patient Feels cold and chilly Feels headache Feels appetite 4 1 The study of microorganisms is known as Paleontology Molecular biology Ecology 4 1 Which of the following is not an anti-malarial drug Pouldrine Quinine Penicillin 4 1 Main symptom of malaria is Shiver and chill Diarrhoea Constipation 4 1 Quinine is the chemical substance present in the bark of Oak Cinchona Dalbergia 4 1 The life cycle of malarial parasite in Anopheles mosquito was discovered Laveran King Grassi 4 1 the sporozoites of plasmodium enter the liver of man through skin food blood 4 1 The effective drug present in the bark of cinchona is penicillin erythrocine neurobion 4 1 Which one of the following best describes the scientific method Doing experiments in laboratories Collecting all known facts on a subject Developing and testing hypothesis 4 2 The aldehyde form of glyceraldehydes is dihydroxyaceto ne polysaccharide amylose 4 2 The branch of biology that deals with the study of chemical components and the chemical processes in living organisms is physiology Taxonomy taxonomy biochemistry 4 2 Glucose and fructose are which of the followings of sugars reducing non-reducing oligossachacid e 4 2 Those reactions in which simpler substances are combined to form complex stbstances are anabolic reaction catabolic reacion Oxidation reaction 4 2 The basic element of organic compounds is Hydrogen Oxygen Sulphur 4 2 When an electron pair is shared between two atom, the resultant bond is covalent bond lonic bond hydrogen bond 4 2 Water is an excellent solvent for polar substances due to its Polarity Specific heat capacity Water potential 4 2 which bond is potential source of energy? C-C C-H C-N 4 2 Water is a power protection against damage from friction because it is an effective Lubricant Solvent solute 4 2 Carbon combines with nitrogen in amino acid linkages to form which of the following bond. Glycosidic linkage peptide bond C-H bond 4 2 The carbohydrates are primary products of photosynthesis respiration transpiration 4 2 All the chemical reactions taking place in a cell are collectively called Metabolism Catabolism Anabolism 4 2 Aldo-sugars are carbohydrates with an ketose group aldose group OH ions 4 2 Which reaction needs energy Catabolic Anabolic Metabolic 4 2 Carbon is Monovalent Bivalent Trivalent 4 2 The covalent bond between two monosaccharides is __________bond Peptide Glycosidic hydrogen bond 4 2 One of the followings is also called animal starch Matltose Glucose Lactose 4 2 Chitin is a example of Polysaccharide Oligosaccharid e Monosaccharid e 4 2 Saccharide is another word for Carbohydrates Lipids Proteins 4 2 The source of carbohydrates is Green plants Bacteria Animals 4 2 The breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones utilizing water molecules is Hydration Hydrolysis Condensation 4 2 A six- cornered ring structure formed by a monosaccharide when in solution is Furanos pyranose Amylopectin 4 2 An example of reducing sugar is Fructose Starch Chitin 4 2 The sugar comparatively less in taste and less soluble in water is Monosaccharid es Oligosaccharid es Polysaccharide s 4 3 An enzyme is a three dimensional ______ protien Globular Fibrous Beta Pleated Sheets 4 3 A biochemical reaction would proceed at a very slow speed making life impossible in the absence of Enzyme Cofactor Coenzyme 4 3 One of the followings acts as a bridge between the enzyme and its substributes directly to the chemical reaction which brings about catalysis Enzyme Substrate Co- factor 4 3 Generally a single enzyme catalyzes only a single substrate or a group of related substrates, there fore the enzyme is Specific Reactive Activator 4 3 The enzymes involved in cellular respiration are found in Cell membranes Mitchondria Chloroplast 4 3 Every enzyme by virtue of its specificity recognizes and reacts with a special chemical substance called Substrate Apoenzyme Holoenzyme 4 3 Pepsin is a powerful protein digesting enzyme that is produced in an inactive form, the Malonic Acid Trypsinogen Pepsinogen 4 3 At low concentration of substrate the enzyme catalyzed reaction rate is directly proportional to the availability of Substrate Enzyme Coenzyme 4 3 Every enzyme function most effectively over a narrow range of pH known as Maximum Minimum Optimum 4 3 The substance that sometime acts as a source of chemical energy helping to drive reaction that would otherwise be difficult or impossible is Substrate Coenzyme Cofactor 4 3 If non-protein part of the enzyme is loosely attached to the protein part it is known as Cofactor Prosthetic group Metal activator 4 3 The essential raw material from which the coenzyme is made Metal ions Vitamins Proteins 4 3 The enzyme involved in the synthesis of protein is integral part of Chloroplasts Mitochondria Golgi complex 4 3 The active site of enzyme is made up of how many regions Two Three Four 4 3 Pepsinogen, the inactive from of pepsin, is produced enclosed in membrane bound body, the Ribosome Lysosome Glyoxisome 4 3 Enzymes are sensitive to minor changes in pH substrate concentration temperature 4 3 Most enzymes lie freely in cytoplasm are bound to certain organelles are present in the nucleus 4 3 The chemical substance with which an enzyme reacts is called its substrate active site inhibitor 4 3 The "Induce Fit Model" for enzyme action was put forward by Emil Fisher F. Sanger Koshland 4 3 Enzymes require which medium for its activity Solid semi solid aqueous 4 4 The smallest unit that can carry out activities of life is an organelle a bacterium a cell 4 4 According to Robert Hooke, the empty space bounded by a thick wall is called cytosol cell cytoplasm 4 4 All living beings originate from vesicles or cells was belief put forward by Robert Hooke lorenz Oken robert brown 4 4 The idea that living things arise spontaneously fron non living things is known as Germ Theory Cell Theory Abiogenesis 4 4 One of the followings reported the presence of nucleus in the cell Robert Hooke robert brown theodor schwan 4 4 A cell consists of nucleus cytoplasm plasma membrance 4 4 Cell theory came out as a result of independent working of robert brown and robert hooke theodor schwann and schleiden lorenz oken and de lamarck 4 4 All living organisms are composed of cells and cell products refers to cell theory germ theory of disease koch's postulate 4 4 One of the most fundamental generalizations in biology is cell theory germ theory of disease koch's postulate 4 4 New cells arise only by the division of pevious existing living cells was proposed by De lamarck Roudolph virchow louis pasteur 4 4 One of the followings provided experimental proof for virchow's hypothesis by demonstrating that bacteria could be formed only from existing bacteria. de lamarck rudolph virchow louis pasteur 4 4 The magnification power of microscope with 10x ocular lens and 40x objective lens would be 400 x 4000 x 40,000 x 4 4 The source of illumination in a typical laboratory microscope is visible light beam of electrons beam of photons 4 4 In electron microscope the source of illumination is a beam of electrons visible light a beam of green and red light 4 4 The resolution of electron microscope ranges from 2-4 angstron 3-5 angstron 2-3 angstron 4 4 The process by which various components of cells including its organelle can be isolated is called cell fractioning ultra centrifugation homogenizatio n 4 4 Various parts of the cells are separated by spinning the disrupted cells in a special medium in a centrifuge ultracentrifuge pestle and morter 4 4 The membrane that allows only selective substances to pass through it is called permeable membrane selectively permeable membrane impermeable membrane 4 4 Taking in of liquid material into the cells is known as phagocytosis pinocytosis exocytosis 4 4 the cell membrane is composed of a lipid bilayer sandwiched between inner and outer layers of proteins. This basic structure is called unit membrane model fluid mosaic model leaflet model 4 4 One of the characteristics of the living things is that they require oxygen for respiration originate from pre existing life carry on autotrophic nutrition 4 4 plants and animals cells are alike in possessing chiorophyll cell wall cell membrane 4 4 which of the following cell components are shared by both plants and animal cells plastids cell wall cell membrane 4 4 The layer of cell wall next to cell membrane is the primary wall secondary wall tertiary wall 4 4 Most cells lacking a cell wall also lack mitochondria vacuole chloroplasts 4 4 The entire cell wall of a prokaryotic cell is often regarded as a single huge molecule known as: cellulose murein lipoprotein 4 4 The space of cell between the nucleus and the cell wall is occupied by protoplasm nucleoplasm cytoplasm 4 4 The most abundant substance in the protoplasm is protein fats carbohydrates 4 4 All the following are cell organelles except the endoplasmic reticulum mitochondria ribosome's 4 4 Different responses of the cell to various stimuli are the functions of the protoplasm cytoplasm nucleoplasm 4 4 Centrioles are present in the cells of: Algae and fungi fungi and bryophytes bryophytes and algae 4 4 Which statement concerning ribosomes is true they are involved in the release of energy they contain DNA they are the sites of carbohydrate synthesis 4 4 Protein synthesis involves which of the following cell organelles lysosomes golgi complex ribosomes 4 4 An organelle that is visible only with the aid of an electron microscope is the ribosome nucleus chloroplast 4 4 80S ribosomes are composed of two subunits of: 40S and 40S 60S and 40S 70S and 10S 4 4 New ribosomes are synthesized by the mitochondria nucleolus Glogi apparatus 4 4 The smaller subunit of a ribosome is measured as: 20S 30S 40S 4 4 Mitochondria are self replicating units because it has mRNA IRNA proteins 4 4 Which of the physiological processes take place in mitochondria respiration photosynthesis transpiration 4 4 The cell organelle which make plants autotrophic is: ribosomes chloroplast Golgi bodies. 4 4 The cell organelle which performs the function of starch storage centre is the endoplasmic reticulum chloroplasts chromoplasts 4 4 Cell organelle bounded by a single membrane is the mitochondrion lysosome nucleus 4 4 Autophagy is linked with which of the following cell organelle. lysosomes endoplasmic reticulum ribosomes 4 4 The cell organelle concerned with cell secretions and disposal is the lysosomes endoplasmic reticulum golgi complex 4 4 The nucleus contain all the following components except mitochondria genes nucleuolus 4 4 Chromosomes are made up of DNA and proteins RNA and proteins DNA and RNA 4 4 Nucleus in plant cells was discovered by Dutrochet Robert Brown Robert Hooke 4 4 The pushing out of materials by the cell against the concentration gradient is Low transport Passive transport Active transport 4 4 Robert Hooke examined thin slices of cork made up of the bark of Pine Sheesham Oak 4 4 In thin slices of cork Robert Hooke noticed Tiny creatures Small holes Small chambers 4 4 Henri Dutrochet confirmed Robert Brown observations on Nucleus Robert Hooke‟s observations on Cells Schwann observations of cells 4 4 They provide support to the plant body Phloem cells Parenchyma cells a. Sclerenchyma cells 4 4 Parenchyma cells are concerned with Secretion Support Carry Oxygen 4 4 Substances cross the cell membrane more easily when they are Water soluble Protein soluble Alcohol soluble 4 4 Many substances that are not needed constantly enter the cell by Passive transport Active transport Negative transport 4 4 It is a true cell wall in a newly growing cell Middle lamella Secondary wall Primary wall 4 4 It is the first to be formed Primary wall Secondary wall Tertiary wall 4 4 It is a site of certain metabolic pathways Cell wall Plasma membrane Cytoplasm 4 4 The water percentage of cytosol in the cytoplasm is 50 60 70 4 4 New Ribosomes are assembled in the Nucleolus Mitochondria Endoplasmic Reticulum 4 4 Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum helps to Synthesize proteins Detoxify the harmful drugs Prepare food 4 4 Morphologically Endoplasmic Reticulum exists in Four forms Three forms Two forms 4 4 The 60S and 40S subunits on attachment with each other form 100S particle 90S particle 80S particle 4 4 Proteins are synthesized in the Ribosome Mitochondria Nucleus 4 4 They are absent in higher plants Plastids Golgi Apparatus Cell Membranes 4 4 Amino acids (proteins) are present in the cell walls of Gymnosperms Bacteria Mosses 4 4 Which of the following organelles is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells Chloroplast Ribosomes Mitochondria 4 4 Which of the following features is not shared by prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells Ribosome Cytoplasm Cell membrane 4 4 Which of the following cell organelles is present in both plant and animal cells Chlorophyll Plasma membrane Plastids 4 4 Which of the following pair is incorrect Ribosome _____Protein synthesis Chloroplast ____Photosynt hesis Mitochondria ___Fermentati on 4 4 Which of the structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell ? Plasma membrane Nuclear envelope Ribosome 4 4 How many membranes comprise the nuclear envelope ? None One Two 4 4 Which of the following molecules move regularly from the nucleus to the cytoplasm ? Glycogen DNA RNA 4 4 Which of the following cellular organelles extracts energy from glucose and forms ATP molecules Lysosome Chloroplast Mitochondrion 4 4 Lysosomes contain enzymes capable of Aerobic cellular respiration Digesting part of the cell Synthesizing protein 4 4 Mitochondria are found in all cells only in plant cells only in animal cells 4 4 pigments capable of capturing the energy of sunlight are located within the Golgi complex Endoplasmic complex Chloroplast 4 4 The two types of cellular organelles that transform energy are Chromoplasts and leucoplast Mitochondria and chloroplast Mitochondria and Chromoplasts 4 4 The plastids that give fruits and flowers their orange and yellow colours are the leucoplasts chloroplasts Chromoplasts 4 4 The main function of the plasma membrane is to synthesize ribosomes Control what goes into and out of the cell Allow all kinds of substances to enter the cell 4 4 Plant cells are connected by channels through their walls called Plasmodesmat a desmosomes middle lamella 4 4 In the fluid mosaic membrane model the lipid bilayer is sandwiched between two protein layers has protein embedded in it lies on top of a single protein layer 4 4 An input of energy is required for which one of the following ? diffusion osmosis passive transport 4 4 Which of the following cytoplamic organelles is not bounded by membrane Mitochodrion Lysosome Ribosome 4 4 Which of the following bodies is not bounded by a double membrane structure ? mitochondrion chloroplast Lysosome 4 4 Which of the following cell organelles cause a decrease in the concentration of organic material in the cell ? Golgi bodies Chloroplast Ribosome 4 4 Which of the following cell organelles is not involved in the sequence of events from synthesis of an enzyme to its excretion ? Ribosome Lysosome Golgi apparatus 4 4 A lipid molecule in the plasma membrane has a head and two tails. The tails are found At the surfaces of the membrane In the interior of the membrane Both at the surfaces and interior of the membrane 4 4 Which of the following organelles and their contents are incorrectly paired Ribosome – RNA Mitochondrion – Chlorophyll Lysosome – digestive enzymes 4 4 Which of the following properties is incorrect for both mitochondria and chloroplast Both have an electron transport system ATP synthesis Both are present in all cells 4 4 Which of the following cell organelles release oxygen ribosome Golgi complex Mitochondria 4 4 Active transport requires a protein carrier moves a molecule against its concentration gradient requires a supply of energy 4 5 Carolous Linneaus divided all known forms of life into two kingdoms, the plants and animals prokaryotes monera 4 5 Carolous linneaus placed bacteria in the kingdom monera plantae protista 4 5 Biologists have classified all the living things into groups showing similarities based upon which of the followings homologies comparative biochemistry genetics 4 5 The term "eucaritique" was first used to describe animal and plant organs tissues cells 4 5 According to whittakar's five kingdom system of classification the bacteria and cyanobacteria are placed in monera protista plantae 4 5 Whittaker placed eukaryotes that did not fit the definition of plants, fungi or animals in monera protista plantae 4 5 A special form of heterotrophs that obtains energy and structural material by decomposing and absorbing food substances from the surroundings, and possesses chitin as a major structural component in its cell wall is a virus bacterium alga 4 5 Whittakar placed the organisms that live mostly by ingesting food and digesting it within in special cavities in monera protista plantae 4 5 Margulis and schwartz renamed whittekar's kingdom protista as prokaryotae protoctista plantae 4 5 A group of natural population that can intrbreed freely among themselves and produces fertile offspring is family species class 4 5 The basic unit of cassification is species genus phylum 4 5 In linneaus binomial nomenclature system the first name refers to the genus and is called generic name species name common name 4 5 The common name of Allium cepa is piyaz bathu amaltas 4 5 The word 'black bird' refers to which of the following crow raven maina 4 5 In the binomial system of taxonomy, developed during the 18th century by Carlous Linnaeus, the First word of an organism's name (e.g., Homeo sapiens) is its species genus race 4 5 the word virus is derived from which of the followigns latin words meaning poisnous fluid venom viron phage 4 5 the branch of biology that deals with the study of virus is known as microbiology algalogy virology 4 5 the first infectious disease against which effective method of prevention was developed was a bacterial disease fungal disease viral disease 4 5 the filterable agent that caused tobacco mosaic disease was discovered by Louis pasteur twort W.m stanley 4 5 one of the followings found that agent responsible for rabies can pass through porcelain filters through which bacteria cannot pass louis pasteur charles chamberland twort 4 6 leeuwenhoek assigned the term 'animalcules' to viruses bacteria protozoans 4 6 Louis pasteur made significant contribution in development of the process of fermentation pasteurization vaccination 4 6 robert koch discovered the bacteria that caused cholera and tuberculosis AIDS typhoid 4 6 one of these postulated germ theory of disease louis pasteur robert koch leeuwenhoek 4 6 one of the followings proved that microorganisms could cause disease and also made significant contribution in the development of fermentation industry Robert Hooke leeuwenhoek louis pasteur 4 6 the ancient bacteria are placed in a small division eubacteria archaeobacteri a mycoplasma 4 6 the smallest bacteria belongs to genus mycoplasma esherichia coli streptococcus 4 6 the bacterial cells that are spherical or oval are called bacilli spirilla streptococci 4 6 when the division of a coccus bacterium is in two planes, it will produce an arrangement called tetrad sarcina staphyllococcu s 4 6 if the cocci bacteria are arranged in irregular manner like clusters of grapes. They are called diplococci sarcina staphylococci 4 6 diplococcus pneumoniae is an example of which of the following type of arrangement in bacteria diplococcus staphylococcus streptococcus 4 6 when cocci form a long chain of cells, the arrangement is said to diplococcus streptococci sarcina 4 6 the rod shaped bacteria are called cocci bacilli vibrios 4 6 when rod shaped bacteria occur in pairs, the arrangement of the cells is called diplobacilli streptobacilli staphylobacilli 4 6 a thin, flexible spiral shaped bacterium is called spirillum vibrio spirochete 4 6 a thick, rigid spiral shaped bacterium is called vibrio spirochete spirillum 4 6 a flagellum is composed of a protein called pillin tubulin flagellin 4 6 a structure beneath the cell membrane in the cytoplasm from which a flagellum originates is basal body pilli plasmid 4 6 the bacteria without flagella are called atrichous lopotrichous peritrichous 4 6 if a tuft of flagella is present only at one pole of bacteria they are called monotrichous lopotrichous amphitrichous 4 6 a condition in which a tuft of flagella is present at each of two poles is known as amphitrichous lopotrichous atrichous 4 6 one of the followings very rarely has flagella bacilli cocci spirilla 4 6 which of the following bacteria can detect and move in response to chemical signals atrichous flagellate aerobic 4 6 hollow, non-helical, filamentous appendages that are smaller than flagella and primarily involved in conjugation are pillin plasmids flagella 4 6 pilli are made up of a special protein called pillin tubulin flagellin 4 6 the structures involved in mating process between bacterial cells (conjugation) are palsmids pilli mesosomes 4 6 in bacteria the complexes of layers external to the cell protoplasm are called cell envelope cell wall slime 4 6 some bacteria are covered within loose, soluble shiled of macromoleucles called capsule slime cell wall 4 7 Unicellular, colonial or simple mutticellular organisms that possess eukaryotic cell organization are called eukaryotes protists protozoans 4 7 Protists have evolved from eukaryotes algae fungi 4 7 Eukaryotic kingdoms, the Fungi, Plantae and Animalia, arose in various ways from prokaryotes protists protozoans 4 7 Unlike plants and animals, the protists do not develop from a blastula or an egg embryo zygote 4 7 The organisms having characteristics that exclude them from the other four kingdoms are included in the kingdom protista plantae animalia 4 7 Protists are difficult to characterise because of their diverse body form tpes of reproduction modes of nutrition 4 7 Most protozoans ingest their food by the process of exocytosis phagocytosis pinoantosis 4 7 Trypanosoma and euglena are commonly called zooflagellates actinopods ciliates 4 7 the african sleeping sickness disease is caused by euglena amoeba trypanosoma 4 7 Choanoflagellates are named so because of presence of collared cells flagellated cells ciliated cells 4 7 The water regulation in fresh water ciliates is controlled by special organelle called central vacuole contractile vacuole Egestion vacuole 4 7 Macronucleus in ciliates is haploid diploid ployploid 4 7 An example of sessile ciliate is paramecium stentor vorticella 4 7 paramecium, Vorticella and Stentor belong to which of the following group of Protozoa. Zooflagellates Apicomplexans Actinopods 4 7 The members of one of the folloing protozoan groups lack specific structure for locomotion, but move by flexing. Ciliates zooflagellates amoebae 4 7 One of the following is called giant amoeba Amoeba proteus Entamoeba hitolytica Pelomyxa palustris 4 7 One of the following zooflagellates is a free living symbiont that lives in guts of termites and help in digestion of dry wood. trypanosoma trichonymph Euglena 4 7 The vast limestone deposits is believed to be created by zooflagellates foraminiferans apicomplexans 4 7 A body that is not differentiated into true root stem and leaves and lacks vascular tissue is called a sporophyte gametophyte thallus 4 7 Photosynthetic pigments in algae include chlorophylls carotenes phycoerythrin 4 7 One of the following algae is used as experimental tool as well chlamydomona s chlorella volvox 4 7 A green alga having sheet like body is chlamybomona s desmids spirogyra 4 8 How many species of fungi are known approximately 50,000 70,000 80,000 4 8 Mycology is the study of algae bryophytes pteridophytes 4 8 Scientists who study fungi are known as physiologists mycologists monerologist 4 8 the cell wall fo fungi contains cellulose murein lignin 4 8 fungi store surplus food usually as oil droplets or sugar Starch glycogen 4 8 all of the following fungi are pathogens except rusts smuts molds 4 8 the fungi used in bakeries and breweries is mushrooms yeasts neurospora 4 8 the fungus that is source of antibiotic penicillin is streptomyces pencillium aspergillus 4 8 the most common rust fungi are puccinia ustilago morchella 4 8 fungi play important ecological role as decomposers bioindicators nitrogen fixers 4 8 fungi resemble plants in that it possesses cell wall lacks locomotion the centrioles are absent 4 8 fungi resemble animals in that it is lacks cellulose in cell wall heterotrophic contain chitin in the cell wall 4 8 fungi are now a days placed in kingdom protista protoctista fungi 4 9 the eukaryotic, autotrophic, multicellular, non motile organism which develop from embryos are placed in kingdom monera protista animalia 4 9 the whisk ferns belong to which of the followign sub divisions of kingdom plantae psilopsida lycopsida sphenopsida 4 9 which of the following classes of kingdom plantae includes naked seeded plants filicinae gymnospermae angiospermae 4 9 the first plants to colonize land were the fungi pteridophytes bryophytes 4 9 bryophytes are generally thought to have evolved from red algae green algae brown algae 4 9 the male sex organs in bryophytes are called antheridia antheridiophore archegonia 4 9 male sex organs in marchantia develop at the tip of special branches named sporangiophor e conidiophore archegoniopho re 4 9 each moss plant is a gametophyte sporophyte thallus 4 9 one of the followings is commonly called a hornwort because of its horn shaped sporophyte marchantia riccia anthoceros 4 9 bryophytes need water for producing gametes reproduction development of embryo 4 9 in bryophytes the alternation of generation is isomorphic heteromorphic semimorphic 4 9 in moss plant the gametophyte consists of rhizoids stem leaves 4 9 in bryophytes the sporophytes generation consists of foot seta capsule 4 9 bryophytes are generally thought to have evolved from homosporous heterosporous asporous 4 9 in bryophytes the male and female sex organs are unicellular multicellular acellular 4 10 virtually all biologists agree that animals evolved from monera protoctists algae 4 10 the simplest of the animals belong to parazoa eumetazoa protozoans 4 10 which of the following phyla is included in parazoa? porifera Cnidaria platyhelminthes 4 10 the sub kingdom that includes animals of all the phyla except simplest animals is parazoa protozoa eumetazoa 4 10 the animals with bilateral symmetry have been included in group Radiata bilateria determinate 4 10 the members of phylum echinodermata exhibit bilateral symmetry during their embryonic stage larval stage adult stage 4 10 in triploblastic animals muscular, skeletal and reproductive systems develop from which of the followings during embryonic development ectoderm endoderm mesogloea 4 10 which of the following phyla belongs to proterostomia aschelminthes annelida mollusca 4 10 which of the followign phyla belong to duterstomia echinodermata hemichordata chordata 4 10 only excretory system is developed for the transport of excretory products in coelomates acoelomates pseudocoelom ata 4 10 the animals that have a false coelom have been grouped under coelomata acoelomata pseudocoelom ata 4 10 the members of which of the following phyla is coelomates cnidaria platyhelminthes aschelminthes 4 11 energy transformation in living systems is known as biosynthesis photosynthesis bioenergetics 4 11 one of the following kind of energy in food is used by all organisms light chemical kinetic 4 11 which of the following plant organelles catches the sunlight energy and transofrm it into chemical energy? mitochondria golgi complex chloroplasts 4 11 the products of respiration are used by one of the following processes photosynthesis electron transport chain krebs cycle 4 11 which of the followings is a reactant in photosynthesis? carbon dioxide water light 4 11 The compensation point reaches during day night dawn and dusk 4 11 The fact that oxygen released during photosynthesis comes form water was hypothesized by Van Neil Melvin Calvin Has Krebs 4 11 The fluid filled region present in the chloroplast is known as thylakoid grana stroma 4 11 A system of membrane forming an interconnected set of flat disc like structure sin stroma is known as thylakoid stroma grana 4 11 Thylakoid sacs stacked in columns are stroma grana cisternae 4 11 Light can work in chloroplasts only if it is reflectd refracted absorbed 4 12 The term used for the food of any substance that supplies the body with elements necessary for metabolism nutrition nutrient food 4 12 Organisms that can exist in exclusively inorganic environment are autotrophic heterotrophic symbiotic 4 12 The predominant elements that the plants need for synthesis of organic molecules is carbon oxygen hydrogen bond 4 12 An element present in proteins is nitrogen phosphorus magnesium 4 12 Chlorophyll contains which of the following proteins chlorophyll cytochromes 4 12 Chlorophyll contains which element in the centre of its head structure phosphorus nitrogen iron 4 12 The crops if grown repeatedly in the same field fail to grow fail to florish flourish 4 12 The chemical fertilizers commonly used in Pakistan is Urea Super phosphate Ammonium nitrate 4 12 Chlorosis refers to stunted growth lack of chlorophyll deficiency of nitrogen 4 12 Deficiency of magnesium results in chlorosis premature death of plant yellowing of leaf margins 4 12 The deficiency of which of the followign results in premature death of plant nitrogen potassium magnesium 4 13 The transport of gasses in plants is by intercellular spaces stomata lenticels 4 13 In older stems the cork tissue has special pores for exchange of gases called hydathodes lenticels stomata 4 13 Air spaces between mesophyll cells comprises how much of the total volume of the leaf 10% 25% 40% 4 13 A process in green plants that occurs during daytime and is characterized by absorption of oxygen aand release of carbon dioxide is respiration photosynthesis photorespiratio n 4 13 Photorespiration starts when the quantity of oxygen becomes more quantity of oxygen becomes less amount of carbon dioxide increases 4 13 The process of photorespiration uses oxygen light energy ATP and NADPH2 4 13 which gas is released during photorespiration Oxygen carbon dioxide hydrogen bond 4 13 In the first step during photoresiration ribulose disphosphate reacts with oxygen. The reaction is carried by ribulose ribose deoxyribose 4 13 The pathway in which ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) is converted into serine is called calvin bensin cycle Krebs cycle photorespiratio n 4 13 Rubisco is carboxylase oxygenase reductase 4 13 the active site of rubisco is evolved to bind oxygen carbon dioxide both and b 4 13 when ribulose disphosphate reacts with oxygen, a 2-c compound glycolate is formed that diffuses into mitochondria chloroplasts peroxisomes 4 13 in peroxisomes the glycolate is converted into glycine serine glucose 4 13 Two molecules of glycine produced in glycolate cycle combine to form serine. The reaction occurs in mitochondria chloroplasts peroxisomes 4 13 In most plants photorespiration reduces the amount of carbon fixed by 10% 15% 20% 4 14 The processes involved for getting the materials into and out of the cells are Diffusion Osmosis Active 4 14 In plants which of the following processes is involved in movement of materials into, within and out of the body. Absorption by roots Conduction of water Transportation 4 14 The nutrients needed by plants is Carbon dioxide Water Minerals 4 14 The site where most of the uptake of water and minerals takes place is Entire root surface Apical region of root Root hairs 4 14 Minerals are absorbed primarily as Inorganic ions Organic ions macromolecule s 4 14 The uptake of minerals by root cells is by Active uptake passive uptake Facilitated diffusion 4 14 the diffusion of ions along with water also takes place by Facilitated diffusion Osmosis Mass flow 4 14 Most of ions are taken up by the roots by the process of Mass flow Active uptake Osmosis 4 14 At incipient plasmolysis the cell is Turgid Flaccid Partially turgid 4 14 Pressure exerted by the protoplast against the cell wall is called Osmotic potential Pressure potential Water potential 4 14 Maximum pressure potential is achieved when a cell is placed in Hypotonic solution Isolonic solution Hypertonic solution 4 14 Which of the following is most plausible theory for ascent of sap ? Cohesion- Tension theory Root pressure theory Imbibition theory 4 14 The attraction among water molecules that holds water together forming a solid chain- like column within the xylem tubes is Cohesion- Tension theory Tension Adhesion 4 14 How may different types of transpiration exist in nature One Two Three 4 14 In biennials, e.g , root of beet, acts as Sink in first growing season Source in the next growing season Both a and b 4 14 In Earthworn, respiratory pigment haemoglobin is present In RBCs In nucleated WBCs In platelets 4 14 One cubic millimeter of blood contains how many white blood cells 7000 8000 7000 to 8000 4 14 T-cells recognize antigen then combat microorganisms and /or effect the rejection of foreign tissues in case of tissue transplant. This is called Active immunity Passive immunity Autoimmune response 4 15 The mechanism of regulation, generally between organism and its environment, of solute and gain and loss of water is Coordination Homeostasis Osmoregulatio n 4 15 Detection of change and signaling for effector's response to control system is a Feebback mechanism Negative feedback Coordination 4 15 The aninmals that do not require to adjust their internal osmotic state are termed Osmoconforme rs Osmoregulator s Thermoregulat ors 4 15 The plant organs that help in getting rid of accumlated wastes during autumn are Osmoconforme rs Execretophore Ureotelic 4 15 One of the following is named body's " central metabolic clearing house " Liver Kidney Sweat glands 4 15 Plants respond to cold stress by Synthesizing cold-shock proteins Increasing proportion of unsaturated fatty acids Bringing changes in solute composition 4 15 the animals that generate their own body heat through heat production as by-product during metabolism are called Endotherms Ectotherms both a and b 4 15 Bats and humming birds are Endotherms Ecotherms Heterotherms 4 15 In humans the insulating material against heat loss is Blubber Hair on the body A layer of fat beneath the skin 4 15 The evaporating cooling in the respiratory tracts of dogs is called Vasodilation Vasoconstrictio n Panting 4 15 body temperature regulation in humans is based on coples homeostatic mechanisms facilitated by Feedback mechanism Homeothermy Heterothermy 4 15 In humans beings the temperature receptors are present in Brain Skin Blood vessels 4 16 In most terrestrial plants the major mechanical stress is imposed by Gravity Ascending water Wind 4 16 The actively conduction portion of the secondary xylem is termed Sapwood Heartwood Primary wood 4 16 The plant movements because of external causes are Paratonic movements Autonomic movements Growth movements 4 16 The movement during which growth in the lower surface of leaf in bud condition is more than that of the upper surface and the bud remains close is called Epinasty Hyponasty Nyctinasty 4 16 The movement in response to stimulus of touch, for example climbing vines is Thigmotropic movement Haptonastic movement Nutation 4 16 Which of the following hormones plays major role in phototropism ? Auxin Gibberellin Abcissic acid 4 16 A tough and rigid framework of the body of animals that provides protection , shape and support to body organs is Skeleton Muscles Tendons 4 16 All of the following are adaptations that helped an arthropod to live and grow within an exoskeleton EXCEPT Invaginations in the form of redges and bars for muscle attachment Presence of soft and flexible joints for free movements Presence of sensory receptors 4 16 The collagen fibres of bone are hardened by deposition of Calcium phosphate Lipoprotein Calcium carbonate 4 16 How many bones make skull ? Eight - All single and unpaired Eight - 2 paired, 4 unpaired Twenty two - 8 paired, 6 unpaired 4 16 The seven vertebrae that lie in the neck region are Cervical Thoracic Lumbar 4 16 The muscles that show alternate light and dark bands are Voluntary muscles Involuntary muscles Striated muscles 4 16 The isotropic or non-polarizing bands present along the length of each myofibril are A bands I bands H - Zone 4 16 Euglena moves with the help of Pseudopodium Flagellum Cilium 4 16 The paramecium moves by Flagella Cilia Pseudopodia 4 16 The wings act as aerofoils when birds Glide Fly Walk 4 17 The growth in a plants that is induced by parasites , for example bacteria is Tumors Galls Calluses 4 17 The biological rhythm is in one's Nervous coordination Chemical coordination Behaviour 4 17 it is responsible for promotion of fruit ripening Auxins Abscisic acid Ethene 4 17 A receptor may be a Cell Neuron ending Receptor organ 4 17 One of the following are known as electromagnetic receptors Photoreceptors Noice receptors Chemoreceptor s 4 17 A measure of capacity to do electrical work is Membrane potential Electrical potential Resting potential 4 17 There is a beginning of centralized nervous system in one of the followings Hydra Jelly fish Planaria 4 17 Limbic system in forebrain consists of Hypothalamus Amygdala Hippocampus 4 17 L-dopa is an effective drug to control which of the following disease Alzheimer's disease Drug abuse Parkinson's disease 4 17 The most important test in the study of epilepsy is Electrocardiogr am Electroenceph alography Alcohol tolerance test 4 17 Chemically hormones may be Proteins Polypeptides Steroids 4 17 All plant behaviour is Learned Innate Imprinting 4 18 The reproduction that requires a single parental organism which give rise to offspring by mitosis Asexual Sexual Amitotic 4 18 Meiosis is also called Equational division Reductin division Crossing over 4 18 Double fertilization is a characteristic of Bryophytes Pteriodphytes gymnosperms 4 18 In seed plants megasporangium is represented by Stanmen Carpel Ovary 4 18 Auxins, Gibberellizns and Cytokinins are associated with Development of embryo Accumulation of food reserves in seed Accumulation of food reserves in fruit wall 4 18 Effect of photoperiodism was first studied by Garner and Allard Watson and Crick Schleiden and Schwann 4 18 All the following are short day plants EXCEPT Xanthium Hayoscyamus Strawberry 4 18 In animals the advance mode of sexual reproduction is Unisexuality Bisexuality Hermaphroditis m 4 18 Fertilization in frog and fish is Internal External Both a and b 4 18 Seminiferous tubules consist of Germinal epithelium Spermatogonia Spermatocytes 4 18 The primary oocyte divides meiotically into Primary oocyte Secondary oocyte Oogonia 4 18 How many follicles continue to grow with their primary oocytes in a human female ? One Three Few 4 18 A sexually transmitted disease in humans that produces genital soreness and ulcers in the infected areas is Gonorhea Syphilis Genital Herpes 4 19 The growth in plants may be Primary Secondary Tertiary 4 19 Vascular cambium gives rise to Lateral shoots Lateral roots Xylem and phloem 4 19 Increase in intensity of light Increases number of cell divisions Increases Cell elongation Brings cell maturation 4 19 The red light favours Cell division Elongation of cells Cell maturation 4 19 At optimum temperature the chick completes it development and is hatched on the 21st day 40th day 230th day 4 19 The stage during the development of chick in which the movement and rearrangement of cells in the embryo takes place is Morula Blastula Gastrulation 4 19 In developing chick embryo the cavity between the yolk and endoderm is Blastocoel Gastrocoel Coelom 4 19 The study of aging is called Ethology Etiology Gerontology 4 19 Degeneration of cartilage leads to Arithritis Arteriosclerosis Blood clothing in coronary arteries 4 19 Limbs are regenerated throughout life in Lizards Salamander Planaria 4 19 In plants regeneration is Not common Absent Basis of propagation 4 19 Cell elongation in plants is caused by florigen gibberellins auxins 4 19 opening and closing of flowers represents a kind of nastic movement topic movement nutation 4 19 which one of the following is energy releasing process? photosynthesis respiration osmosis 4 19 sunflower plant is a short day plant long day plant day neutral plant 4 19 in aerobic respiration the oxygen taken is reduced to CO2 H2O C6H12O6 4 19 lactic acid is the end product of aerobic respiration anaerobic respiration in plants anaerobic respiration in animals 4 19 one glucose molecule during glycolysis yields two molecules of pyruvic acid one molecule of pyruvic acid three molecules of pyruvic acid 4 19 the total number of ATP produced during anaerobic break down of one Glucose molecule 2 4 8 4 19 apical dominance in plants is caused by vernalin auxins gibberellins 4 19 gibberellins were first obtained from rice fungus bacteria flowering plants 4 19 the weed killer 2,4-d is a synthetic gibberellins auxins cytokinins 4 19 the gibberellins were first discovered by kurosawa overbeek F.W went 4 19 an example of short day plant is chrysanthemu m larkspur sugar beet 4 19 the growth movement of plants induced by the external stimuli are called autonomic turgor photoastic 4 19 during glycolysis, at first glucose under goes decarboxylatio n hydrogenation Substrate level phosphorylatio n 4 19 in krebs cycle succinic acid is converted to fumaric acid malic acid oxaloacetic acid 4 19 what is the number of carbon atoms in oxaloacetic acid 2 3 4 4 19 number of ATP formed during ETC of one molecule of NADPH2. 2 3 4 4 19 Respiration occurs during growth of plant only night daytime 4 19 some of the first experiments on plant homones were conducted by F.W. went over beek kurosawa 4 19 cocount milk contains hormones called auxin cytokinins gibberellin 4 19 growth movement in response to gravity is called geotropism thigmotropism chemotropism 4 19 a short day plant has a photoperiod of 9 light / 15 dark hours. Which one of the following will initiate flowering in it. 12L/12D 10L/14D 8L/16D 4 19 in yeasts the respiratory products are CO2 and citric acid ethyl alcohol methanol 4 19 In animals the product of anaerobic respiration is Butyric acid Alcohol Glucose 4 19 The process of Glycolysis takes place in Mitochondria Cytoplasm Stroma 4 19 In electron transport chain, one pair of electrons passing from NADreduced to oxygen produces 4 ATP 3 ATP 2 ATP 4 19 From which of the following plants gain weight Respiration Transpiration Photosynthesis 4 19 Cambium is responsible for increase in Length Photosynthesis Diameter 4 19 In which of the following cells elongate parallel to the long axis of the stem or root Pith Trachieds Cortex 4 19 Spiral thickenings of the walls of cells occur in Parenchyma Chlorenchyma Xylem vessels 4 19 The molecule which actually enters the Krebs cycle is Pyruvic acid Acetyl-CoA Oxao acetic acid 4 19 In the Krebs cycle oxaloacetic acid reacts with Pyruvic acid Citric acid Acetyl-CoA 4 19 One ATP molecule is generated during the Krebs cycle in the step citric acid ------- ---- lpha Ketoglutatic acid Alpha Ketoglutatic acid ------- Succinic acid Succinic acid -- -------------- Fumaric acid 4 19 At the end of the electron transport chain during respiration, electrons are accepted by NAD FAD Oxygen 4 19 During growth fibers elongate greatly At right angle to the long axis Parallel to the long axis Obliquely to the long axis 4 19 Which of these is the naturally occurring auxins Indole acetic acid 2, 4-D Abscisic acid 4 19 The application of Auxin in small amount Stimulate the growth of leaves Retard the growth of leaves Suppress the growth of leaves 4 19 Which of these increases the growth rate of isolated cells in a test tube Auxins Cytokinins Gibberellins 4 19 Chrysanthemum indicum is a Short day plant Long day plant Day neutral plant 4 19 Thigmotropism is a growth movement in response to sunlight gravity water 4 19 The function of cellular respiration is to make ATP make NADPH get rid of glucose 4 19 Each chemical reaction in cellular respiration requires a molecule of ATP a molecule of FAD a molecule of NAD 4 19 The term anaerobic means with glucose with oxygen without glucose 4 19 Which of the following processes makes direct use of oxygen Glycolysis Fermentation Electron transport chain 4 19 How many ATP molecules are formed during one turn of Kreb‟s cycle zero 1 2 4 19 Glycolysis is a process found in only eukaryotic cells only prokaryotic cells only most muscle cells 4 19 How many molecules of oxygen gas are used during the Glycolysis of one glucose molecule none 1 6 4 19 Phosphoglyceraldehyde is oxidized during Glycolysis. What happens to the hydrogen atoms that are removed during this oxidation They oxidize NAD They reduce NAD They are transferred to Pyruvic acid 4 19 During the first step of Glycolysis, glucose is converted to glucose phosphate. The phosphate group comes from inorganic phosphate phospholipids of the membrane ADP 4 19 Which of the following is not true of Glycolysis substrate level phosphorylatio n takes place the end products are carbon dioxide and water ATP is formed 4 19 Which of the following is not formed during alcohol fermentation acetyl coenzyme A Pyruvic acid Ethanol 4 19 Which of the following is the end product of anaerobic respiration in animals ethyl alcohol lactic acid carbon dioxide 4 19 In the conversion of Pyruvic acid to acetyl coenzyme A, Pyruvic acid is oxidized reduced broken into one carbon fragment 4 19 In the electron transport system, the final acceptor electrons is cytochrome c cytochrome a oxygen 4 19 In aerobic respiration, most of the ATP is synthesized during Glycolysis Oxidation of Pyruvic acid The Krebs cycle 4 19 How may ATP molecules are formed inside mitochondria from the breakdown of one glucose molecule 32 ATP 36 ATP 38 ATP 4 19 During electron transport, each molecule of FADH2 produces a maximum of 2 ATP 3 ATP 6 ATP 4 19 Fatty acids enter cellular respiration as one carbon fragment two carbon fragments three carbon fragments 4 19 In a eukaryotic cell, the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain take place on the rough endoplasmic reticulum in the cytoplasm with in the nucleus 4 19 The main advantage of aerobic respiration over anaerobic respiration is that less carbon dioxide is released more energy is released from each glucose molecule fats and proteins are not used 4 19 A molecule of ADP differs from a molecule of ATP in that it has diamine instead of thymine fever phosphate groups more phosphate groups 4 19 Shoot apical meristem cells are distinct from other stem cells because of their small size enlarged water vacuole thick cell wall 4 19 New leaves are formed from the shoot apical meristem vascular cambium lateral buds 4 19 Most of a plant‟s auxin is produced in its leaves lateral buds shoot apex 4 19 The main effect of auxin is to stimulate division enlargement differentiation 4 19 Cytokinins stimulate cell division enlargemen wall thickening 4 19 When its terminal bud is removed, plant grows more tall bushy slowly 4 19 Which of the following delays the normal process of aging in leaves auxins gibberellins insulin 4 19 Ethylene is an unusual hormone in that it is a gas solid transported by the xylem 4 19 An important effect of ethylene is to cause maturation of leaf primordial flower fruit 4 19 If a short day plant is grown under conditions of long nights and short days and the dark period is interrupted in the middle by a brief exposure to red light, the plant will wilt flower fail to flower 4 19 If a long day plant is grown under conditions of long nights and short days and the dark period is interrupted in the middle by a brief exposure to red light, the plant will die flower fail to flower 4 19 Which of these is not true of fermentation (anaerobic respiration) net gain of only 2 ATP occurs in the cytoplasm NADH donates electrons to the electron transport system 4 19 The transfer of high energy phosphate bonds to ADP by the substrate is called oxidative phosphorylatio n substrate level phosphorylatio n photophosphor ylation 4 19 Which of the following property are shared by fermentation, aerobic respiration and photosynthesis all need Oxygen all require CO2 all need 37 C Temp 4 19 The asexual production of seeds is called fragmentation fertilization parthenocarpy 4 19 A hormone that controls closure of stomata in response to water stress is gibberellins Abscisic acid Auxins 4 19 Which of the following cellular organelles extracts energy from carbohydrates and forms ATP molecules Lysosome Chloroplast Mitochondrion 4 19 The value of respiratory quotient of amino acids is 0 1 more than 1 4 19 The primary plant body is covered with a layer of cells called cuticle epidermis periderm 4 19 Root hairs are formed from extension of the ground tissue periderm epidermis 4 19 Secondary growth involves activity of the root tips shoot tip apical meristem 4 19 The function of root cap is to produce embryonic cells protect the root apical meristem from damage absorb water 4 20 Chromosomes are composed of DNA Histone proteins RNA 4 20 How many pairs of chromosomes are present in surgarcane ? 13 20 23 4 20 The string of nucleosomes wraps into highter order Euchromatin Heterchromatio n Solenoid 4 20 Oswald Avery along with Coli Macleod and Maclyn McCarty found " transforing principle " to be Protein DNA Chromosomes 4 20 DNAse is A protein- digesting enzyme A DNA digesting emzyme Both protein and DNA digesting enzyme 4 20 Watson and Crick model for DNA suggested that basis of copying the genetic information is Base pairing Complementari ty Semi- conservation 4 20 The DNA replication begins at One specific site on DNA More than one site on DNA More than one site on DNA where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides 4 20 A disease in which patients produce urine that contains homogentisic acid is Alkaptonuria Diabetes insipidus Phenylketonuri a 4 20 Beadle and Tatum worked with Saccha romycis Streptococcus penumoniae Neurospora 4 20 One of the following discovered the molecular basis of sickle cell anemia in 1956 Frederick Sanger Vernon Ingram T.H Morgan 4 20 The process of production of an mRNA copy of the gene is called Translation Trascription Central dogma 4 20 The initiation codon for every gene is UUU AUG GCT 4 20 One of the following disorder is because of point mutation Phenylketonuri a Alkaptonuria Down's syndrome 4 21 A Period of non-apparent division during cell cycle is termed Interphase Growth phase No growth phase 4 21 In a human cell average cell cycle is about 35 minutes 4.5 hours 10 hours 4 21 The phase of mitosis that involves division of nucleus is Cyto kinesis Karyokinesis Mitotic phase 4 21 The mitotic apparatus is organized at the end of Prophase Metaphase Anaphase 4 21 Cancer is because of Mutations in somatic cells Mutations in genes that regulate cell division Exposure to radiations 4 21 A special type of cell division that occurs at the time of gamete formation in animals and spore formation in plants is Mitosis Meiosis Gametogenesi s 4 21 During meiosis each paired structure consisting of two homologous chromosomes is called Chiasmata Brivalent Tetrad 4 21 In human beings one of the followings results because the 21st Chromosome fails to segregate resulting in abnormal gamete with 24 chromosomes. Down's syndrome Klinefelter's syndrome Turner's syndrome 4 21 Males with 48 chromosomes (44 auto some + XXXY), with 49 chromosomes ( 44 auto some = XXXX) are also observed in case of Down's syndrome Klinefelter's syndrome Patau syndrome 4 21 Cell death due to tissue damage is termed Necrosis Apoptosis Cancer 4 22 Partners of a gene pair are called Loci Alleles Genotypes 4 22 All the genes or alleles found in a breeeding population at a given time are collective called Genome Genotype Gene pool 4 22 Mendel, a priest, performed series of breeding experiments on Edible pea Garden pea Drosophila 4 22 When both the alleles of a gene pair in an organism are same, the organism is __________ for that gene pair. Recessive Dominant Homozygous 4 22 Test cross is used to find out Homozygous nature of the genotype Heterozygous nature of the genotype Segregatio of gametes 4 22 Incomplete dominance was first studied by Carl Correns while working on a flowering plant named Rosa indica 4 O'clock Jasmine 4 22 A man of B phenotype marries a woman of phenotype O, their children cannot be of Blood type A Blood type B Blood type O 4 22 Rh blood group system is named after The discoverer of its antigen Rhesus monkey Both a and b 4 22 When a single gene affecs two or more traits, the phenomenon is called Epistasis Apoptosis Pleiotropy 4 22 Human skin colour is a quantitative trait that is controlled by Three genes Six genes Three to six genes 4 22 Frequency histograms illustrate Polyenic traits Polygenic inheritance Variations 4 22 In one of the following Y chromosome appear to have very little influence on sex. Grasshopper Drosophila Human beings 4 22 Diabetes mellitus is a X-linked trait Y-linked trait Multifactorial trait 4 23 Genetically engineered bacteria have been used to Clean up environmental pollutants Increase the fertility of the soil Kill insect pests 4 23 Genes can be isolated from the chromosomes by cutting the chromosomes on the flanking sites of the gene using Polymerase chain reaction Restriction endonuyclease s Recombinant DNA technology 4 23 The nature enzymes of bacteria that they use for their own protection against viruses are Restriction endonucleases Reverse transciptases RNA polymerases 4 23 one of the following is used as evidence for paternity DNA Test DNA fingerprints Gene sequencing 4 23 The biotechnology products by bacteria include Tissue plasminogen activator Haemphillia factor VIII Insulin 4 23 Which of the following means can be used to insert genes into eggs of animals By hand By vortex mixing By plasmids 4 23 The insertion of genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder is Gene cloning Gene pharming Gene therapy 4 23 Plantation of herbicide resistant plants helped in which of the following Controlling weeds Minimizing soil erosion Both a ad b 4 23 An antibody produced by one of the following plant can deliver radioisotopes to tumor cells Corn Soybeans Sugar-beets 4 23 One of the following plants produces an antigen to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphona Tobacco Sugarcane Potatoes 4 24 Natural selection refers to Mechanism of evolution Survival of the fittest Origin of new species 4 24 Eukaryotes are thought to have first appeared about 1.5 billion years ago 3.5 billion years ago 420 million years ago 4 24 Endosymbiont hypothesis was first proposed by Carlous linneaus Whittakar Lynn Margulis 4 24 The major features of theory of natural selection is Adaptation to the environment Overproduction Survival in the struggle for existence 4 24 In terrestrial animal s the gill pouches develop into Eustachian tubes Ears Nose 4 24 The total aggregate of genes in a population at any one time is called the population's Gene pool Genome Genetic makeup 4 24 Which of the following factors can affect the gene frequency ? Mutation Migration Genetic drift 4 24 In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 16% of the individuals show the recessive trait. What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population? 0.84 0.48 0.36 4 24 A species that is in imminent danger of extinction throughout its range is Threatened Endangered Endangered Extinct 4 25 The major unit of ecology is Community Biome Ecosystem 4 25 All populations within an ecosystem are known as a System Population Community 4 25 If we study a single population's relationship to its environments it is Ecology Autecology Synecology 4 25 The succession ends with a diverse and relatively stable Community Climax community Ecosystem 4 25 The primary succession that starts on a dry soil or rock is termed Hydrosere Psammosere Derosere 4 25 A predator is a Producer Consumer Decomposer 4 25 The mode of feeding in which the animals feed on grass is termed Commensalis m Parasitism Symbiosis 4 25 The reduction of nitrate in a plant cell into ammonium is called Ammonification Nitrification Denitrification 4 25 The total amount of energy fixed by plants is Gross primary productivity Net primary productivity Secondary primary productivity 4 26 The most common features exhibited by aquatic ecosystems is because of Slower changes in its temperature Capacity of water to absorb radiant enerygy Concentration of nutrients near the bottom sediments 4 26 Aquatic ecosystems exhibit which of the following features Absorption of considerable amount of light energy Concentration of nutrients near the bottom sediments Abundant water supply 4 26 The distribution of light in lakes depends on Access to light Access to nutrients Place for attachment 4 26 The producers in limnetic zone are Photosynthetic protista Cyanobacteria Water lilies 4 26 The ecosystem present on land is called Lithospheric Atmospheric Biome 4 26 Which of the following ecosystems is NOT found in pakistan ? Grasslands Tundra Desert 4 26 Coniferous forests located at high altitude are called Deciduous forests Temperate forests Boreal 4 26 Herbivores are dominant animal species in Temperate deciduous forests Coniferous forests Deserts 4 26 There is virtually no rain and no vegetation at all The statement is true for Taiga Thal Thar 4 26 The ground is carpeted with small perennial flowers and dwarf willows no more than a few centimeters fall in Alpine forests Boreal forests Grasslands 4 27 Environment is direct or indirect source for Food Shelter Fuel 4 27 One of the following is non-renewable resource Air Land Metals 4 27 The driving force behind all the natural cycles is Lands Plants Sun 4 27 The inactive gases in the air are termed Fossil fuels Inert Trace gases 4 27 Which of the following are termed basic constituents of the soil ? Soil particles Soil water Soil organisms 4 27 Nuclear energy is source of Air pollution Radiation pollution Domestic pollution 4 27 The earth's natural resources include Water and soil Chemical elements Living organisms 4 27 Early man had a niche in the ecosystem as Primary consumer Secondary consumer Tertiary consumer 4 27 the study of human population is called Dendrochronol ogy Demography Dendrography 4 27 Population increase leads to Social diseases Starvation destruction of natural habitats 4 21 chromosomes were discovered by bradford huxley W.S. Sutton 4 21 which of these chromosomes have centromere located at one end metacentric submetacentric telocentric 4 21 in animals, meiosis occurs during the formation of spores zygote gametes 4 21 crossing over occurs during diplotene pachytene diakinesis 4 21 if there were 8 chromosomes in the parent cell, how many chromosomes, would there be during prophase II in each cell? 2 4 8 4 21 during which phase of meiosis do tetrads form? Prophae I metaphase I prophase ii 4 21 the phenomenon permitting exchange of chromosome segments is called? crossing over segregation linkage 4 21 which protein complexes are associated with DNA in chromosome composition? tubulin histones non histones 4 21 in pea, pollen grain has 7 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in the zygote?\ 7 14 28 4 21 who ws the first person to study the cell divisoin in plant walter morgan stressburger 4 21 Which of these established that the units of inheritance are located on the chromosome Sutton Waldeyer Watson and Crick 4 21 Which of the following determines the shape of the chromosomes chromatids chromatin material shape of the centromeres 4 21 The morphology of the chromosome is best studied during interphase prophase telophase 4 21 Telocentric chromosomes have centromere located at one end both ends center 4 21 Which of these chromosomes have centromere located at one end acrocentric Telocentric Metacentric 4 21 Which of these chromosomes have a very short arm Telocentric Metacentric Acrocentric 4 21 Which of the following chromosomes have arms of unequal length Telocentric Metacentric Acrocentric 4 21 Which of the following types of chromosomes have arms of equal length Metacentric Submetacentri c Acrocentric 4 21 The total chromosome complement of a cell is called Karyosome Karyokinesis Karyogamy 4 21 DNA and histones together form a structure called Centromeres Nucleosome Nucleoplasm 4 21 Which of the following number of molecules of various types of histones form Nucleosome 8 10 16 4 21 Which of these studied mitosis in plant cells Strassburger Flemming Sutton 4 21 Which of these studied mitosis in animal cells Strassburger Flemming Sutton 4 21 During mitosis the process of cytoplasmic division is called Cytomeiosis Cytoplasmosis Cytokinesis 4 21 DNA replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle prophase interphase metaphase 4 21 Which of the following is part of mitosis in cells of seed plants Centrioles Asters Spindles 4 21 In plants, meiosis occurs during the formation of gametes seeds spores 4 21 The prophase I of Meiosis completes in Two stages Three stages Four stages 4 21 The number of chromosomes in a fertilized egg is half as many as in unfertilized egg the same as in sperm twice the number as in a sperm 4 21 All the somatic cells of a diploid organism originate from a single cell called gamete autosome spore 4 21 If at the end of meiosis, each of the four daughter cells has four chromosomes, how many chromosomes were in the mother cell 2 4 8 4 21 At what phase of meiosis are homologous chromosomes separated Prophase I Anaphase I Prophase II 4 21 The process by which homologous chromosomes being to pair with each other is called chiasma interkinesis crossing over 4 21 The points at which crossing over has taken place between homologous chromosomes are called Chiasmata Centromeres Synapsis 4 21 Crossing over occurs during leptotene zygotene pachytene 4 21 During what phase of meiosis tetrads are form prophase I prophase II metaphase I 4 21 During what phase of meiosis the nuclear envelop breaks down prophase I metaphase anaphase I 4 10 a common cloacal chamber instead of separate anus and urinogenital operture is found in prototheria metatheria eutheria 4 10 Salamander is an example of bony fishes jawless fishes amphibians 4 10 Which of these is not true of amphibians breathing by gills in the larval stage breathing by lunge in the adult stage mostly internal fertilization 4 10 Which of the following is the character of amphibians living both in water and on land cold blooded least numerous of the terrestrial vertebrates 4 10 Which of these has cartilaginous skeleton sharks eel pike 4 10 Which of the following are without jaws dogfish trout pike 4 10 Jellyfish fish belongs to bony fishes cartilaginous fishes jawless fishes 4 10 Sharks belong to cartilaginous fishes bony fishes jawless fishes 4 10 Which of these are regarded as the first of the vertebrates bony fishes jawless fishes cartilaginous fishes 4 10 Which of these is not true of Pisces presence of gills for breathing tail as organ of locomotion undeveloped skull 4 10 Which of the following is not the character of amphibians cold blooded do not depend on water for reproduction hibernate in winter 4 10 The characters of vertebrates are presence of vertebral column internal living skiliton three main body parts 4 10 true placenta is found in prototheria metatheria eutheria 4 10 the muscular partition between thorax and abdomen of a man is called pleura mesentry Pericardium 4 10 how many occipital condyles are present in birds 1 2 3 4 10 the heart of a reptile is three chambered four chambered imperfectly four chambered 4 10 all of the following are cold blooded except frog whale lizard 4 10 in which of the following, the tail persists through out life frog tree frog salamander 4 10 which of the following is not present in the fish middle ear internal ear Gills 4 10 generally hibernation is an inactive phase of life during spring summer autumn 4 10 the lid like operculum is not present around the gills of sea horse bony fish cartilaginous fish 4 10 the amphioxus belongs to protochordata vertebrata pisces 4 10 The vertebrates are all unisexual all hermaphrodite some unisexual and some hermaphrodite 4 10 Vertebrates are bilaterally symmetrical radially symmetrical vertically symmetrical 4 10 Which of these is not the mammalian character presence of hairs right aortic arch diaphragm 4 10 which one of the followign is without teeth frog snake crow 4 10 Reptiles are warm blooded cold blooded with internal fertilization 4 10 Artiodactyla include moles cattle horses 4 10 Elephants are included in carnivore perissodactyla artiodactyla 4 10 Flying mammals are included Rodentia Chiroptera Primates 4 10 Metatherians lay eggs have to teeth in the adult do not have true placenta 4 10 Which of these is not true of the egg laying mammals feeding young with milk presence of hairs diaphragm 4 10 In Which of the following young are born in rudimentary conditions kangaroos zebras elephants 4 10 The skin of mammals is provided with sweat glands for respiration temperature regulation oily secretion 4 10 The ear of mammals is divided into three parts four parts five parts 4 10 In mammals fertilization is absent internal external 4 10 Which of the following is the character of reptiles dipods tetrapods pentapods 4 10 Which of these is not true of reptiles internal fertilization predominantly terrestrial tetrapods 4 10 Which of these are the placental mammals prototherians metatherians eutherians 4 10 Which of these is not the character of reptiles fertilization is internal eggs are large shelled lay eggs in water 4 10 Which of the following birds cannot fly Rhea Cassowary Penguin 4 10 The heart of reptiles is imperfectly two chambered imperfectly three chambered imperfectly four chambered 4 10 Which of the following is true of reptiles do not lay eggs lay eggs in water lay eggs on land 4 10 In reptiles amnion and allantois are extra membranes of egg sperm zygote 4 10 Which of these is an example of amphibian sea horse rohu newt 4 10 Which of these is extinct reptile Turtles Brontosaurus Snake 4 27 which one of the following is a non renewable resource forest land Water Pollinated 4 27 acid rains are caused by excessive atmospheric pollution due to NH3 CO2 SO2 4 27 the deficiency of calcium in the diet causes rickets pneumania goiter 4 27 the conditions under which an organism lives is known as environment atmosphee space 4 27 all non cultivated plants and non domesticated animals are called urban life wild life global life 4 27 iodine deficiency in human causes rickets anemia goiter 4 27 the removal of top soil by the action of water or wind is called soil depletion soil erosion sod bound 4 27 stress and anxiety of fast life may result in the development of T.B small pox Cancer 4 27 which of the following is not a long term consequence of exposure to radiations skin cancer leukemia bone cancer 4 27 the amount of fresh water on our planet is 1% 2% 5% 4 27 in which one of the followign countries are windmills still used as energy resource america pakistan australia 4 27 Green house effect is the result of Air pollution Forestation Ultra violet radiations 4 27 Acid rains in the result of Clear air Burning of fossil fuels Forestation 4 27 Stone cancer is caused by Bacteria Virus Acid Rain 4 27 Repeated crop production result in Increase in soil fertility Decrease in soil fertility Accumulation of more organic matter 4 27 Which of the following groups of crops grown continuously is not suitable Wheat, Pea and Corn Corn, Pea and Rice Wheat, Rice and Corn 4 27 The removal of surface soil by the action of water or wind is called Soil depletion Sod Bound Pollution 4 27 Man cut down forests and has Disturbed native plants and native animals Contributed to the cleanliness of air Produced good effects on natural environment 4 27 Fossil fuels are Geothermal, Biomass and natural gas Ocean-thermal gradient, waves, oil and tides Coal, oil and natural gas 4 27 Splitting of the nucleus of radioactive atom releases Energy Electricity Water 4 27 The real problem and difficulties of depending upon nuclear energy is that it is extremely expensive it is exhaustible it has environmental hazards 4 27 An accident in a nuclear reactor at Chernoble Nuclear Power Plant occurred during 1986 in USA USSR China 4 27 the average flow of solar energy per square kilometer on earth‟s surface is 80,000 Kilowatts 180,000 kilowatts 200,000 kilowatts 4 27 The digestion of organic wastes by bacteria for the generation of energy is termed Hydrogenation Pyrolysis Biodegradation 4 27 The recommended diet per day for an average young man should contain 2400 calories 1400 calories 24000 calories 4 27 Minimum protein requirement for an average adult is between 75 – 100 grams 50 – 75 grams 37 – 62 grams 4 27 Protein deficiency in early childhood mainly affects Bone formation Learning capacity Digestive system 4 27 Calcium deficient diet in early childhood causes bones deformation which may lead to disease called Leprosy Tuberculosis Rickets 4 27 Which of the following groups is infectious diseases Goiter, Small Pox and Tetanus Tetanus, Measles and Diphtheria Anemia, Small Pox and Pneumonia 4 27 Stresses and anxiety of fast life may contribute to the development of Tuberculosis Small pox Pneumonia 4 27 The first insecticide used on a large scale was 2, 4-D DDT Methane 4 27 The accumulation of carbon dioxide on global scale tends to warm the air in the lower level of the atmosphere. Which of the following factor does not contribute to this phenomenon heavy industrialization urbanization burning of fossil fuel 4 27 Due to the repeated crop production in the same soil, some nutrients are not returned to the soil and as a result soil fertility is reduced. This is called soil erosion soil depletion sod bound 4 27 As a result of destruction of natural habitat of the living organisms by the activity of man, these organisms, either die out or on the verge of extinction. Therefore these organisms are known to be the endangered species cultivated species hybrid species 4 27 Which of the following is advantage of the hydro electric power as compared to other sources of energy more expensive hazardous clean and pollution free 4 27 The energy produced due to natural radioactive decay in the earth‟s core is called Ocean thermal gradient Geothermal Tidal power 4 27 Which of the following is the option (possibility) before the biologists to be used as human food in future farm industry seaweeds (kelps) cigarettes industries 4 27 Which of the following is approximate rate of child mortality in Pakistan due to malnutrition 10% 20% 30% 4 27 The deficiency of which of these causes anemia in man Ca Iron Na 4 27 The deficiency of iodine in the diet causes malfunctioning of salivary glands liver thyroid gland 4 27 Which of the following was totally eradicated from the world by the year 1980 tuberculosis small pox pneumonia 4 27 which of the following is an infectious disease tuberculosis blood pressure goiter 4 27 According to health reports, a smoker runs a risk of reducing his/her life expectancy for every cigarette he/she smokes by about zero minutes one minute five minutes 4 12 Fine vesicles in Amoeba, which Secrete digestive enzymes are Lysosomes Centrosomes Contractile vacuoles 4 12 The digestion in Hydra and Planaria is Intercellular Extracellular Both intracellular and extracellular 4 12 In earthworm typhlosole is a part of Reproductive system Circulatory system Excretory system 4 12 In Earthworm the part of esophagus behind the gizzard is sometimes called Pharynx Stomach Colon 4 12 How many pairs of salivary glands are present in the buccal cavity of man 1 2 3 4 12 Ptyalin of salivary juice hydrolyses starch and glycogen into Amino acids Maltose Peptides 4 12 the cardiac sphincter is present in heart lungs urinary bladder 4 12 Pepsin of gastric juice is responsible for the digestion of Carbohydrates Fats Proteins 4 12 A Kind of hormone secreted by the stomach is Enterokinase Gastrin Renin 4 12 The bile of the liver contains 1 enzyme 2 enzymes No enzyme 4 12 Appendix is a small blind finger like projection of the Caecum illeum Rectum 4 12 Which one of the following has no anus but mouth present Hydra Jelly Fish Planaria 4 12 The largest gland in the human body is Thyroid Pancreas Kidney 4 12 In Hydra the internal environment of digestive cavity is kept in motion by the beat of Tube feet Flagella Tentacles 4 12 The medium of the food vacuole in the unicellular animals is first: Basic Neutral Acidic 4 12 Which of the following has no digestive cavity? Hydra Planaria Earth worm 4 12 Which of the following has one way passage of the food material in the digestive tract? Amoeba Hydra Planaria 4 12 The oesophagus has internal glands which secrete: Protolytic secrete: Hydrolytic enzyme Bile 4 12 The living cells of earth worm intestine secrete: Water Base Acids 4 12 The enzyme secreted by saliving glands is Sucrase Cellulase Pepsin 4 12 Which of the following does not take part in the pushing of food from the buccal cavity into the pharynx? Cheek muscles Floor of buccal cavity Nose muscles 4 12 Norma direction of the waves of contraction of the muscle (Paristalisis) is from: Stomach to oesophagus Intestine to stomach Oesophagus to pharynx 4 12 The inner lining of the stomach consists of Salivary glands Pituitary glands Gastric glands 4 12 Which of the following is present in the gastric juice: Lipase Amylase HCI 4 12 Which of the following is not present in the pancreatic juice? Amylase Cellulase Lipase 4 12 Which of the following acts upon cellulose? Lipase Trypsin Pepsin 4 12 Which of the following is absorbed by the lacteals? Fats Glucose Amino acids 4 12 Which of the following releases Trypsin? Gastric glands Adrenal glands Enterokinase 4 12 Dipeptiase acts on Disaccharide ADP Diglyceride 4 12 Which of the following is not part of a villus? Red blood cells Blood capillaries Lacteals 4 12 Villi are found on the inner surface of: Pharynx Stomach Oesophagus 4 12 The lack of absorption of water & salt by the large intestine result in: Constipation Diarrhea Vomiting 4 14 The blood is red but there are no red blood cells in Frog Grasshoper Earthworm 4 14 In Earthworm the hearts pump the blood from the dorsal blood vessel in to the Pulmonary Artery Ventral blood vessel Lateral blood vessel 4 14 the body cavity in which the blood flows, freely is called Coelom Entron Coelenteron 4 14 Each chamber of the heart in Grosshopper contains a pair of lateral openings called Atria Spiracles Ostia 4 14 the opening of the left atrium into the left ventricle is guarded by a valve called Tricuspid valve Aortic valve pulmonary valve 4 14 the special muscles of the heart of vertebrates are called Cardiac muscle Smooth muscles Voluntary muscle 4 14 When the right ventricle of human heart contracts, the blood is sent into the Aorta Pulmonary arteries Pulmonary veins 4 14 Major part of the plasma consist of Protein Water Red Blood Cell 4 14 the blood from the digestive system is carried by Hepatic veins Hepatic portal vein Subclavian vein 4 14 the contraction of heart ventricles in man produces highest arterial pressure called Diastole Systole Peristaltic pressure 4 14 The protein which helps in the blood clotting is Fibrinogen Albumin Haemoglobin 4 14 The human blood plasma constitute about how much percent by volume of blood 45% 60% 55% 4 14 In the 1st 13 segments of earthworm, the dorsal vessel acts the function of Collection Distribution Both a & b 4 14 From the 14th segment backward, the dorsal vessel acts as Collecting blood Distributing blood Both a & b 4 14 The dorsal vessel in earthworm sends the collected blood to Ventral vessel Sub-neural vessel Hearts 4 14 Which of the following vessel runs below the intestine in earthworm ? Dorsal vessel Ventral vessel Sub-neutral vessel 4 14 The direction of flow of blood in the sub- neutral vessel is Lateral Vertical Forward 4 14 The colour of blood plasma is black green red 4 14 Which of the following is absent in grasshopper Heart Blood Capillaries 4 14 The blood enters the heart through the Aorta Ventral vain Ostia 4 14 Which of the following is true of man ? Open circulatory system One circulatory fluids Two circulatory fluids 4 14 Heart is enclosed by a tough membrane called Diaphragm Pericardium Pericardium 4 14 Which of the following number of chambers compose heart of man ? Two Four Seven 4 14 Atria are located Above the ventricle Blow the ventricle One left of the ventricle 4 14 The right side of the heart contains Oxygenated blood Deoxygenated Mixed blood 4 14 Which of the following received blood from the body ? Ventricle Atria Both Ventricle and atria 4 14 From the right ventricle blood is pushed towards the Aorta Left atrium Lungs 4 14 By the contraction of the left ventricle the blood is pumped into the Right atrium Left atrium Lungs 4 14 The tricuspid valve guarding the opening between the right atrium and right ventricle is made up of Three flaps Two flaps Four flaps 4 14 The aerated blood returns from the lungs by means pulmonary veins into the Right atrium Right ventricle Left atrium 4 14 The whole heart cycle takes about 0.2 seconds 0.4 seconds 0.6 seconds 4 14 The heart muscles take rest for about 0.1 -0.3 seconds 0.4 -0.5 seconds 0.6 -0.8 seconds 4 14 Arteries are formed of tissues arranged in Single layer Two layers Three layers 4 14 The thickness of blood capillaries is One cell Two cells Three cells 4 14 The average diameter of a blood capillary is about 1um 3um 5um 4 14 Aorta arises from left atrium left ventricle right atrium 4 14 Which of the following supply blood to the heart itself ? Pulmonary Lliac Cutaneus 4 14 Superior vena cave carries blood to the Left atrium Right ventricle Right atrium 4 14 Which of the following carry blood from the kidneys ? Hepatic vein Hepatic portal vein Renal vein 4 14 Which of the following has the lowest blood pressure ? Arteries Arterioles Capillaries 4 14 Blood pressure from arteries towards veins increase Decrease Remains unchanged 4 14 Normal range of diastolic blood pressure is 70-85 85-95 90-100 4 14 Which of the following has the high rate of blood flow ? Veins Capillaries Aorta 4 14 Which of the following has the reduced rate of blood flow ? Aorta Arteries Capillaries 4 14 Which of the following brings about the transits of nutrients hormones etc between the blood and tissues Aorta Capillaries Veins 4 14 Which of the following has greater cross sectional area ? Aorta Capillaries Veins 4 14 Which of the following is not the characteristics of the blood ? Circulates in the vessels Complex substance Composed of plasma and blood cells 4 14 The percent by volume formed by the plasma of the blood about 45 55 65 4 14 The water percentage (by wt) of the plasma is almost 50 60 80 4 14 How many nucleoli are present in the red blood cells One Two Three 4 14 Which of the following is the shape of human RBC Biconcave Biconvex Spherical 4 14 In embryonic stages RBC are formed in heart liver and spleen head 4 14 RBC present in one cubic millimeter of blood are almost Two million Four million Five million 4 14 WBC present in a cubic millimeter of blood are almost 20,000 30,000 3,000 4 14 Which of the following is the main function of the WBC ? helps in blood clotting carry oxygen protection against microorganims 4 14 Which of the following are the smallest in size ? Erythrocytes Lymphocytes Neutrophills 4 14 Which of the following is absent in the lymph ? RBC WBC Protein 4 14 Which of the following is the function of lymph node ? Carrying of 02 Producing RBC Producing lymphocytes antibodies 4 13 In Hydra, planaria and Earthworm, the exchange of gasses occurs through the Lungs General body surface Gills 4 13 In insects the oxygen and carbondiioxide are carried to and from the cells by means of Trachea system Alveoli Bronchioles 4 13 In Earthworm the blood is red due to heomoglobin dissolved in Red Blood Cells White bllod cells Plasma 4 13 The C-shaped rings of the cartilage in human trachea are incomplete Ventrally Laterally Dorsally 4 13 In human the trachea is present on which side of the oesophagus Lateral Posterior Dorsal 4 13 The thin covering of the human lung is called Terga Pleura Pericardium 4 13 Breathing or pumping the air in and out of the lungs is a Mechanical process Chemical process Cardiac Process 4 13 Which of the following in mostly carried in blood as bicarbonate inons Nitrogen Oxygen Carbondioxide 4 13 Which of the following is not present in Hydra Gaseous exchange takes place through the whole surface Specialized organs for respiration present Oxygen diffuses from the water in the digestive cavity 4 13 Which of the following has respiratory surface of large area Hydra Planaria Grasshopper 4 13 Which of the following has a respiratory pigment Earthworm Amoeba Planaria 4 13 Each nasal cavity is subdivided into air passage ways the number of which is 3 4 5 4 13 The cavity of larynx is called Pharynx Trachea Glottis 4 13 Vocal cords are located in the Pharynx Glottis Trachea 4 13 Which of the following has no c-shaped cartilage ring Bronchioles Trachea Bronchi 4 13 Which of the following acts as functional units of lungs Bronchioles Air sac Bronchus 4 13 The membrane covering the lungs is called Diaphragm Pericardium Epicardium 4 13 Which of the following acts as pumps for moving air in and out of lungs Lungs Heart Kidneys 4 13 With the increase in volume of the chest cavity its internal pressure Decrease Increase Remain unchanged 4 13 Which of the following is not correct for inspiration Elevation of chest wall Lowering of diaphragm Lowering of chest wall 4 13 Which of the following is the maximum amount of oxygen absorbed by 100 ml of human blood 10 ml 15 ml 20 ml 4 13 The amount of Carbon dioxide given off by 100 ml of blood when it passes through the lungs is 1 ml 2 ml 3 ml 4 15 In Grasshopper the Malpighian tubules arise form the beginning of Proctodaeum Stomodaeum Mesenteron 4 15 The flame cells are the excretory argans of Hydra Planaria Earthworm 4 15 The excretion in Earthworm occurs through the Malphigean tubules Flame cell kindneys 4 15 In human the position of the right kidney as compared to left kidney is a little Upper dorsal ventral 4 15 The numebr of nephrons in a human kidney is about 1 million 3 million 1/2 million 4 15 The thick cluster of capillaries within the Bowman's capsule of human kideny is called Henle's loop Cortex Medulla 4 15 Henle's loop is a part of a Nephron Neuron Oviduct 4 15 the percentage of urea in human urine is about 1% 2% 50% 4 15 The lowest concentration of the nitrogenous wastes may be found in blood passing through Pulmonary artery Hepatic vein Renal artery 4 15 The maintenance of the constant internal environment despite changes in the external environment is termed as Homeostasis Homology Anastasis 4 15 The nitrogenous waste product of metabolism in mammalian kidney is chielfly Ammonia Amino acid Urea 4 15 Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous waste matter formed by the Planaria Earthworm Grasshopper 4 15 The chief nitrogenous waste products in grasshopper is Ammonia Nitric acid Uric acid 4 15 Which of the following emerges from the hilus in human kidney Urinary bladder Ureter Urethra 4 15 Each nephron is Blind at one end Blind at both ends Open at both ends 4 15 A cluster of capillaries present in the Bowman, capsule is called Cortex Medulla Glomerulus 4 15 How many processes are involved in the functioning of kidney to form urine None One Two 4 15 The percentage of dissolves solids in urine is almost 20 10 5 4 15 Which of the following controls the reabsorption of glucose in the urinary tubule Testeoron Thyroxin Insulin 4 15 The insufficiency of insulin results in incomplete metabolism of Carbohydrate Fats Protein 4 15 Which of the following Disease results when carbohydrates metabolism is incomplete in the body Goiter Colour blindness Diabetes mellitus 4 15 Which of the following is the waste product formed during metabolic process Sucrose Heat Glucose 4 15 Which of the following plays a part in temperature regulation Skin Kidney Lungs 4 15 Which of the following phenomenon occurs if the body begins to lose more heat than it is generating More blood supply to skin More sweating Reduction in metabolic activity 4 17 The coordination in animals is brought about by the nervous system and Endocrine System Exocrine Systme Reproductive system 4 17 The structures that are specialized for detecting the stimuli are called Effectors Muscles Receptors 4 17 The fundamental unit of structure and function in the nervous system is Nephron Ganglia Schwann cell 4 17 The beginning of the centralized nervous system is found in Hydra Planaria Amoeba 4 17 The neurons that conduct the impulses form the central nervous systme to the effectors are called Sensory neurons Motor neurons Associative Neurons 4 17 The cells which lack the ability to divide to form new cells are Blood cells Epidermal cells Epithelial cells 4 17 The neurotransmitter is released by Axon terminals Dendrites terminals Schwann cells 4 17 The largest part of human brain is Medulla oblongata Cerebellum Cerebrum 4 17 The cerebellum consists of two lateral lobes and a central narrow lobe called Pineal gland Vermis Epiphysis 4 17 action potential in the nerve fibre results from the increased permeability of the membrane to potassium ions sodium ions hydrogen ions 4 17 vital centre for the control of heart beat, breathing, constriction and dilation of blood vessels are located in the pons medulla oblongata cerebellum 4 17 how many pairs of spinal nerve arise from the spinal cord 11 21 31 4 17 how many pairs of cerebrol nerves arise from the brain 12 10 8 4 17 at least how many endocrine glands are present in man 6 10 16 4 17 the glands that directly pour their secretion into the blood are called Endocrine exocrine epicrine 4 17 the thyroid gland has the remarkable ability to store calcium sodium chlorine 4 17 insufficient scretion of thyroid in infants causes dwarfed condition known as gigantism goiter myxedema 4 17 which one of the following is exocrine as well as endocrine in function thyroid gland parathyroid gland pancreas 4 17 an endocrine tissue, islets of langerhans are present within the thyroid gland parathyroid gland liver 4 17 cortisone is an important hormone of adrenal cortex adrenal medulla cerebral cortex 4 17 which of the following hormones prepare the body for situation of stress and emergency thyroid and parathyroid insulin and glucagon oestrogen and androgen 4 17 the production of milk for nursing the baby is stimulated by LTH STH FSH 4 17 The hormone which causes the powerful contractions of the uterus during and after the birth is called Vasopressin SH cortisone 4 17 the 'feed back' of TSH and FSH reaches to the pancreas liver pituitary gland 4 17 Which of the following is not the character of multicellular animals Tendency towards division of labour Better organization Less inter dependency of organs 4 17 Which of the following does not come under the coordination in multicellular animals Deregulation Organization Integration 4 17 Which of the following consists of secretary tissues Nervous system Endocrine system Circulatory system 4 17 How many steps are involved in a response None One Two 4 17 Which of the following are structures that respond when they are stimulated by nerve impulses Neurons Receptors Effectors 4 17 Which of the following lacks central nervous system Planaria Hydra Man 4 17 Each sense organ is specialized to receive Specific type of stimulus Different types of stimuli All types of stimuli 4 17 Which of the following light does not stimulate our eyes Green Blue Violet 4 17 Which of the following carry impulses from the central nervous system Sensory neurons Effectors Association neurons 4 17 Which of the following lie exclusively in the spiral cord and brain Sensory neurons Motor neurons Association neurons 4 17 The contact point between the axon endings of one neuron and the dendrites of another neuron is called transmitter Acceptors Synapse 4 17 The chemical liberated by the axon ending due to the arrival of an impulse are called acceptors transmitters absorpters 4 17 Which of the following is incorrect Now neurons are formed by the division of old ones Neurons lack the ability of division Neuron can regenerate axons if cell body is not damaged 4 17 Which of the following is the normal rate in meter per second of an impulse 10 50 100 4 17 How many types of actions are usually performed by human body Two Three Four 4 17 Which of the following conditioned reflexes Inborn Inherited Unlearnt 4 17 Which of the following is not the part of brain Lateral brain Fore brain Midbrain 4 17 Which of the following is not part of the forebrain Cerebrum Thalamus Epithalamus 4 17 Which of the following is the largest part of human brain Midbrain Hindbrain Thalamus 4 17 Which of the following is the control centre of sight and hearing Cerebrum Thalamus Hypothalamus 4 17 Which of the following is not controlled by cerebrum Smell Hearing Water balance 4 17 Which of the following is not controlled by the hypothalamus Appetite Sleep Body temperature 4 17 Which of the following receives most of the impulses arriving from different sensory areas of the body Midbrain Hindbrain Thalamus 4 17 Which of the following forms the second largest part of the brain Cerebellum Cerebrum Pone 4 17 Which of the following controls and coordinates the balance among organs and the muscles Thalamus Hypothalamus Cerebellum 4 17 Which of the following is controlled by medulla oblongata Muscular activities Heart beat Judgment 4 17 How many pairs of cerebral nerves arise from the brain 12 15 20 4 17 How many spiral nerves come out of the spiral cord 25 31 35 4 17 Which of the following types of nerves cerebral arise from the brain Sensory Motor Mixed 4 17 Which of the following types of spiral nerves arise from the spiral cord Sensory Mixed Motor 4 17 Which of the following is not controlled by the nervous system Body equilibrium Rate of heart beat Rate of growth 4 17 Which of the following controlled by hormones Rate of growth Rate of activity Sexual maturity 4 17 Which of the following generally not the function hormone Initiate a process Simulate Inhibit 4 17 Which of the following is true of hormones All are proteins All are inorganic compounds All are Organics substances 4 17 Thyroid gland lies Near liver In the middle portion of neck Top of kidney 4 17 What would happen to the sugar metabolism in the absence of insulin in the body Stops Not affected Rate increases 4 17 Which of the following is not regulated by iodothyroxines balance of salts Maturation Sexual development 4 17 Which of the following will occur as a result of insufficient secretion of the thyroid gland at infancy Dwarf growth Incomplete mental development Retarded sexual development 4 17 Which of the following occurs as a result of myxedema in adults Incomplete carbohydrate metabolism Dwarf growth Disturbance in salt metabolism 4 17 Which of the following results due to the deficiency of iodine Exophthalmic goiter Goiter Mental lethargy 4 17 What happens to the blood glucose level as a result of insufficient insulin production Increase Decrease Remains normal 4 17 Which of the following is secreted by adrenal glands Cortisone Adrenaline Cortisone 4 17 Which of the following secreted by adrenal glands Cortisone Adrenaline Cortisone 4 17 Which of the following functions effectively during emotions and emergencies Adrenaline Noradrenalin Cortisone 4 17 Which of the following is male sex hormones Testosterone Estrogen Cortisone 4 17 Which of the following is produced by the ovaries Iodothyorine Testosterone Estrogen 4 17 Which of the following is located at the base of the brain Ovaries Liver Adrenal glands 4 17 Which of the following is secreted by the posterior pituitary lobe of pituitary gland oxytocin lactogenic hormone thyroid stimulating hormone 4 17 Which of the following is not regulated by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland Growth hormone Lactogenic hormone Antidiuretic hormone 4 17 Which of the following results due to under secretion of antiduiretic hormone Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus Goiter 4 17 Which of the following stimulates the development of egg Luteinizing hormone Testosterone Oxytocin 4 17 Which of the following will fail to appear as result of castration Development of egg Mammary gland Moustache 4 17 By the action of glucogon, the blood glucose level decreases increase remains the same 4 16 The symmetry in which the body can be divided into two similar halves in more than one plan is called dorsal symmetry ventral symmetry bilateral symmetry 4 16 the euglena moves by the whipping action of tail pseudopodia flagella 4 16 the tube feet are the locomotary organs of jelly fish cuttle fish star fish 4 16 in which of the following the foot is modified into funnel or siphon earthworm grasshopper Amoeba 4 16 muscles are attached to the bones by tendon ligament sphincter 4 16 the only muscle that causes extension at elbow joint is biceps brachii triceps brachii brachialis 4 16 the thick myofilaments of striated muscles are made of a protein called actin myosin albumin 4 16 the hypothesis of 'sliding filament model of muscle contraction' was suggested by hershey beadle huxley 4 16 the bone of the lower jaw of man is called maxilla pre maxilla palate 4 16 the cervical region of human vertebral column contains seven vertebrae ten vertebrae twelve vertebrae 4 16 the ilium, ischium and pubis constitute the pectoral girdle pelvic girdle fore gut 4 16 carpals are the bones of hand wrist foot 4 16 the mammals that walk on the tips of their hoofed toes are known as plantigrade digitigrade unguligrade 4 16 Which of the following is an advanced character Asymmetrical body Bilateral symmetry Radial symmetry 4 16 Which of the following animals inhibit land environment Asymmetrical Bilateral symmetry Radial symmetry 4 16 How many central smaller fibrils are present in a cilium None 2 5 4 16 Which of the following moves by means of tube feet Planaria Starfish Hydra 4 16 Which of the following moves by means of foot Earthworm Amoeba Snails 4 16 Which of the following is correct for arthropods Skeleton internal to the muscle Skeleton absent Skeleton external to the muscle 4 16 The bones are held together by a tissue called: Tendons Ligament Joints 4 16 Which of the following are voluntary muscles Skeletal Cardiac Smooth 4 16 Which of the following are involuntary muscles Cardiac Smooth Skeletal 4 16 Which of the following muscles contract relatively quickly Cardiac Smooth Skeletal 4 16 Which of the following is the range of diameter of a skeletal muscle fibre 10-100 um 100-200 um 300-400 um 4 16 Which of the following are contractile subunits present in each muscle fibre Myofilaments Myofibrils Myosin 4 16 The cell membrane enclosing the fibre is called: Plasmolema Endolema Sarcolemma 4 16 Myofilaments within the sarcoplasmic envelope run: Transversally Longitudinally Obliquely 4 16 The Myofilaments are made up of: Glycogen Steroids Cellulose 4 16 Which of the following make up thick filament of the myofibril actin Pectin Myosin 4 16 The impulse received from the supply to the muscle release: K++ Na+ Mg+ 4 16 When a muscle fibre receives an impulse from the nerve it Contracts Expands Remains unaffected 4 16 The tricep brachii muscle possesses: One head Two heads Three heads 4 16 How many bones take part in the formation of cranium in man 8 10 15 4 16 How many bones support the fact in man 5 7 9 4 16 Which of the following bone is not the part of cranium in man occipital temporal ethmoid 4 16 Which of the following takes part in the formation of cranium Frontal bone Occipital bone Sphenoid 4 16 The atlas vertebrae lie in the Back Thoracic region Neck 4 16 Which of the following number of vertebrae are present in the thoracic region 12 14 16 4 16 Which of the following number of vertebrae are lying in the lower back region 3 5 7 4 16 Which of the following vertebrae are present in the lower back Atlas Cervical Lumber 4 16 Which of the following vertebrae are lying in the neck region lumber cervical thoracic 4 16 Which of the following number of vertebrae are present in the pelvic region 3 5 7 4 16 Which of the following number of rib pairs compose the chest cage 12 15 18 4 16 Which of the following attaches the arms to the trunk Pelvic girdle Pectoral girdle Hip girdle 4 16 Which of the following connects the scapula to the sternum Axis Atlas Coccyx 4 16 The joint formed by the humerus with the scapula is: Hinge joint Ball and ocket joint Multistage joint 4 16 Which of the following joint is formed by the radius and ulna at their distal end with the wrist bones Hinbge Ball and socket Multistage 4 16 With how many wrist bones ulina and radius form a joint 4 8 10 4 16 Which of the following from knee joint with the femur Illium radius and ulna Tibia and Fibula 4 16 The ankle bones are called: Tarsal Carpels Metacarpels 4 16 The number of ankle bone is: 2 8 16 4 16 Which of the following is the characteristic of endoskeleton Primitive Inert Non-living 4 16 Which of the following is the character of exoskeletion Rigid Heavy Non-living 4 16 Which of the following is not the characteristics of endoskeleton Secreted by endodermal cells Poses no hindrance to the growth Present in advanced animals 4 16 The bones forming endoskeleton in vertebrates are: living non-living secreted by endodermal cells 4 16 Which of the following have plantigrade locomotion Bears Fishes Goat 4 16 Which of the following have unguligrade type of locomotion Goat Man Rabbits 4 16 Which of the following locomotion is present in horse Plantigrade Digitigrades Unguligrade 4 16 Which of the following have bipedal locomotion Horse Bear Rodents 4 18 under unfavourable condition the amoeba reproduces by conjugation budding binary fission 4 18 which one of the following animals is hermaphrodite amoeba earthworm round worm 4 18 the external fertilization is more prevalent in land animals aerial animals aquatic animals 4 18 the protective coats of the embryo, amnion and chorion appeared for the first time in amphibia reptiles birds 4 18 the developing embryo of reptiles, birds and mammals is provided with the watry medium and physical support by amniotic fluid chorionic fluid allantoic fluid 4 18 numerous convoluted tubles within the testes are called nephrons uriniferous tubules epididymis 4 18 after ovulation the ruptured follicle does not degenerate at once but tranforms into a glandular structure called corpus callosum corpus luteum placenta 4 18 in human female the total gestation period is usally about 6 months 7 months 9 months 4 18 at birth the baby is still attached to maternal uterus through the umbilicus umbilical cord Oviduct 4 18 the milk produced initially by the mammary glands contains a special lymph like fluid called amniotic fluid pleural fluid serum 4 18 the matured follicle of human ovary is commonly called corups luteum graafian follicle gonadotrophin 4 18 in human female ovulation ordinarily occurs near which day after the start of menstruation 7th 10th 14th 4 18 Which of the following is not involved in asexual reproduction Binary fission Multiple fissions Budding 4 18 The gametes produced by female are called: Ova Sperms Spores 4 18 Sperms are produced in male inside: Ovaries Kidney Embryo 4 18 An individual possessing both male and female reproductive organs is called: imperfect hermaphrodite Unisexual 4 18 Which of the following conditions need huge supply of yolk to the egg viviparity Oviparity Both A & B 4 18 Which of the following animals are viviparous Birds Deer Frog 4 18 Which of the following lies to the extreme outside completely covering the embryo Amnion Allantois Chorion 4 18 Which of the following acts as a reservoir for undigested food and nitrogenous waste products Allantoic cavity Amnoitic cavity Chorion cavity 4 18 Which of the following have no elaborate contact between the maternal and the foetal tissues sharks cats dogs 4 18 Which of the following mammals lay eggs Eutherians Prototherians Metatherians 4 18 Which of the following expel imperfectly develop embryo out of the body Prototherians Eutherians Metatherians 4 18 Which of the following have developed placentas for the nourishment of embryos eutherians Prototherians Metatherians 4 18 Which of the following are metatherians birds fishes kangaroos 4 18 Which of the following is eutharian Man, shark, cat Cat, monkey, man Cat, monkey, birds 4 18 The maturation of spermatozoa in man takes place in: Duct system Seminiferous tubules Vas deferens 4 18 The number of ova discouraged at one time from the ovary in human is: none one two 4 18 The fertilized ovum or zygote enters into: Ovary Kidney Uterus 4 18 Which of the following is the approximate gestation period in humans seven months nine months ten months 4 18 Which of the following is involved in the control of menstrual cycle Pituitary gland Pancrease Thyroid gland 4 18 How many types of cells composed a human ovary 10 7 4 4 18 Which of the following is the function of follicle cells reproduction growth support and nutrition 4 18 Which of the following occurs if fertilization fails to takes place in human female Corpus luteum starts regenerating Progesterone secretion increases 4 18 Which of the following stimulates the development and secretion of family in the mammary glands Progesterone Luteotropic hormone Estrogen 4 18 Which of the following stimulates the release of the egg Luteinizing hormone Follicle stimulating hormone Luteotropic hormone 4 18 In which of the following abortion of embryo occurs if ovary is removed at any stage to pregnancy Rabbits Horses Monkeys 4 22 Which of the following is a condition known for small skull cleft plate colour blindness microcephaly 4 22 branch of biology which deals with the study of the development of the zygote upto hatching or birth is called cytology entomology embryology 4 22 Which of the following happens when the two blastomeres of a sea urchin are separated Not develops into larva Each one develops into a larva Only one develops into a larva 4 22 The nucleus of Acetabularia lies: at the tip in the stalk in the cap 4 22 Muscle cells acquire special kinds of proteins called: Actin Insulin Pectin 4 22 Which of the following has a complete genetic information in its nucleus for formation of a complete individual egg sperm zygote 4 22 Which of the following is a condition known for hare-lip Microcephaly Cleft palate Microspory 4 22 Which of the following tissues are regarded as organizers notochordal somatic reproductive 4 22 Which of the following is organizational change in frogs development disappearance of gills development of limbs shortening of intestine 4 22 The process by which the tail of tadepole is lost is called: Progressive Retrogressive Organizational 4 22 Which of the following is formed by the ectoderm urinary system respiratory system nervous system 4 22 Which of the following is formed from the somatic mesoderm lying on the two lateral sides of the notochord vertebral column muscles of the back dermis of the skin 4 22 Which of the following region of ectoderm gives rise to the neural plate mid dorsal mid ventral anterior ventral 4 22 The initiation of Gastrulation is the appearance at one side of a: bud cleft outgrowth 4 22 The embryo at the transitory period between cleavage and Gastrulation is called: blastocoele blastuala blastomere 4 22 the changes in which the existing structures are lost during metamorphosis are called retrogressive progressive organizational 4 22 Which of the following has a complete genetic information in its nucleus for formation of a complete individual Thyroid gland Pituitary gland Liver 4 22 The two cells formed after first cleavage of the zygote of frog are called: micromeres macromeres centromeres 4 22 the segmentation cavity which appears in the dividing blastomeres during development is called Coelom haemocoel blastocoel 4 22 the space between the parietal and visceral layers of mesoderm is known as Coelom haemocoel blastocoel 4 22 the whole process by which the tadpole of frog changes into an adult frog is called parthenogenesi s metamorphosis endomorphosis 4 22 the ability to reform a part of the body which had been removed is called parthenogenesi s fission conduction 4 22 during development of frog three germinal layers are clearly evident in the zygote morula blastula 4 22 some individuals have small skull and this condition is called cleft palate megacephaly microcephaly 4 22 the concept of differentation and organizer was put forth by spemann beadle tatum 4 22 the hollow ball stage during the development of frog is called morula neurula blastula 4 22 In which of the following the zygote divides very rapidly to become Multicellular Gastrulation Cleavage Organogenesis 4 22 In which of the following the newly formed cells move from one place to other Cleavage Organogenesis Gastrulation 4 22 Which of the following is not true of frog Lays eggs Embryo is formed outside the body Eggs are laid on land 4 22 Four micromeres and four macromeres are formed in the developing zygote of frog after First cleavage Second cleavage Third cleavage 4 22 in a cross BB x bb what percent of offsprings will have the same genotype as their parents in the F1 generation. 0% 25% 50% 4 22 which one of the followign blood groups is called universal donor O AB B 4 22 Which of the following trait is obtained in F1 generation when true breeding plants producing purple flowers is crossed with true breeding plants producing white flowers All purple flowers All white flowers Half purple and half white 4 22 Which of the following trait appears in the F1 generation when true breeding plants producing round seeds are crossed with true breeding wrinkled seeds All wrinkled Half round and half wrinkled All round 4 22 In nature garden pea plant is Self fertilized Cross fertilized Both self and cross 4 22 if a normal Rh-negative person is mistakenly given Rh-positive blood, this will stimulate the formation of Rh-antigens Rh-antibodies blood clots 4 22 the inheritance of trait which is controlled by two or more separate pairs of genes in additive fashion is called monogenic inheritance dominant inheritance polygenic inheritance 4 22 Which of the following F2 talls will behave like F1 hybrid talls all 01-Mar 02-Mar 4 22 parents with which two genotypes could most accurately predict the blood type of their first child O,O A,A AB,O 4 22 how many antigens are responsible for the human ABO-blood groups 2 3 4 4 22 the alleles that exist in more than two different forms are called polygenic alleles multigenic alleles multiple alleles 4 22 the allele that makes its appearance only in homozygous combination is called recessive dominant complete 4 22 the alternative forms of a given gene are called dominant recessive phenotype 4 22 one of the followign ratios represents a test cross 3:1 9:7 1:1 4 22 in a monohybrid cross the genotypic ratio of the off springs in F2 generation is 9:3:3:1 1:2:1 1:1 4 22 The alternative form of a given gene is called: trait phenotype allele 4 22 During gamete formation the two different alleles of a trait separate stay together disappear 4 22 which of the followign is heterozygous for two pairs of alleles TTRR TtRR Ttrr 4 22 How many possible phenotypes are there for the ABO blood group 4 6 8 4 22 Which of the following F2 talls will behave like F1 hybrid talls none all 02-Mar 4 22 The genotypic expression seen in a person of blood group AB is called: dominant- recessive codominance incomplete dominance 4 22 In the above question, if the couple has normal child, without phenylketonuria, what is the probability this child is carrier of the disease 0.33 0.5 67 4 22 The offspring of mating between two pure stains are called: hybrid mutants the P generation 4 22 The inability of the body to utilize the sugars properly is due to: a dominant gene a recessive gene two dominant genes 4 22 Baldness in human beings is hereditary which is: Recessive in males Recessive in females dominant in males 4 22 Which of the following controls the colour of eyes in human beings brown pigment Red pigment Blue-pigment 4 22 Which of the following possible number of gene pairs control the skin colour in man 2 4 6 4 22 How many types of gametes are possible to be produced by a hybrid (heterozygous) pea plant producing yellow round seeds 1 2 3 4 22 In the cross of question No. 45, what will be the percentage of plants in F2 generation producing yellow wrinkled seeds 18.75% 30.75% 40% 4 22 In the above cross what will be the percentage of plants in F2 generation producing yellow round seeds 20% 36% 46% 4 22 The gametes produced by a homozygous dwarf plant would of one type two type three type 4 22 When red-flowered snapdragons were crossed with white-flowered plants, their offspring have pink flowers. This type of genotypic expression is called: dominant- recessive co-dominance incomplete dominance 4 22 Which of the following is the symptom of Down‟s syndrome physical and mental bnormality sexual immaturity criminal tnndency 4 22 A man receives his x chromosome from his mother only his father only part from his father and part from his mother 4 22 In which of the following, egg determines sex of the offspring Drosophila Man Grass hopper 4 22 In the cross of male and female of F1 generation in Drosophila, what will be the ratio of red eyed males among all the offspring of F2 generation 25% 33% 50% 4 22 Which of the following is sex-linked trait in man Eye colour Skin colour Colour blindness 4 22 Colour blindness is a condition in which the individuals have difficulty in distinguishing: Black from white White from green Yellow from red 4 22 Gene for the trait of colour blandness in man is located on autosomes x chromosome y chromosome 4 22 A woman receives her x chromosome from her mother only her father only both her mother and her father 4 22 Genes located on the same chromosome are assorted independently obey Mendel‟s law of independent assessment are not lined 4 22 Crossing over occurs when genetic information is exchange between tow chromatids of a chromosome long arms of a chromosome chromatids of two homologous 4 22 The failure of homologous chromosomes to detach and segregate during meiosis is called: crossing over no disjunction sysnapsis 4 22 Which of the following defects is not caused by non disjunction Down syndrome Turner syndrome Klinefelter‟s syndrome 4 22 Individual having Down‟s syndrome, contains chromo-some number 47 45 46 4 22 Which of the following determines sex of the following in butterflies sperm egg somatic cell 4 22 In Klinefelters syndrome females posses xx xy xxy 4 22 in klinefelter's syndrome the male receives an extra x-chromosome y-chromosome autosome 4 22 Females with Turner‟s syndrome have chromosomes xx x xxx 4 22 down's syndrome is the result of an extra chromosomes on autosome pair number 9 11 21 4 22 In drosophila the giant chromosoms are found in the cells of gastric glands salivary glands hepatic caeca 4 22 how many pairs of autosomes are present in drospophila 2 3 4 4 22 in which one of the following animals the female contains Xy-chromosomes man drosophila butter fly 4 22 a trait that is controlled by a gene found on x_chromosome is called sex linked multiple autosomal 4 22 a colour blind person cannot distinguish red from blue green yellow 4 22 a colour blind father will most probably transmit the gene for colour blindness to 50% of his sons 100% of his sons 50% of his daughters 4 22 in turner's syndrome which one of the following is missing one x- chromosome autosome nucleosome 4 22 the linked genes do not obey law of segregation law of independent assortment law of dominance 4 22 Which of the following determines sex of the offspring in human beings Sperm Egg Somatic cell 4 22 In which of the following females have 45 chromosome number Down‟s syndrome Turners syndrome Klinefelter‟s Syndrome 4 22 in the formation of gametes each gene pair contributes 2 members dominant members receissive members 4 22 bacteriophage is a virus bacteria protozoan 4 22 The Mendel factors which control the inheritance of characters are called: Chromosomes RNA Genes 4 22 Gametes have: the same number of chromosomes as the body cells twice the number of chromosomes as the body cells half the number of chromosome, as the body cells 4 22 Which of the following number of chromosomes are present in the somatic cells of Drosophila 4 8 16 4 22 the genes located on the same chromosome are called alleles homozygous linked genes 4 21 Chromosome is composed of DNA and basic proteins called actin myosin histones 4 21 units of chromosomes formed by DNA and histones are called nucleosomes nucleotides centrosomes 4 21 mitotic spindle mainly contains a protein called tubulin albumin fibrin 4 21 during which phase of mitosis, the chromatids separate and begin to move towards their respective poles prophase metaphase anaphase 4 21 telephase is the reverse of interphase prophase metaphase 4 21 at which of the following stages the process of synapsis will occur zygotene leptotene pachytene 4 21 a chromosome at anaphase of mitosis contains how many chromoatids 2 3 4 4 21 one of the following chromosomes has only one arm acrocentric metacentric telocentric 4 21 in which of the following stages of mitosis, the DNA content is doubled prophase metaphase anaphase 4 21 the homologous chromosomes get separated towards the poles during metaphase I anaphase I metaphase II 4 21 during which phase of mitosis an equatorial plate is formed prophase anaphase I metaphase 4 21 the division of cytoplasm is known as meiosis karyokinesis nucleokinesis 4 10 Which of these do the Reptiles and Aves not share Similar embryonic development Presence of forelimbs Shelled eggs 4 10 Which of these is not true of birds cold blooded heavy bones weak pectoral muscles 4 10 Which of the following is polymorphism in coelenterates production of one type of zooids production of two types of zooids production of may types of zooids 4 10 Which of the following is the asexual method of reproduction in Protozoa Isogamy An-isogamy Oogamy 4 10 Which of the following sexual method of reproduction is absent in Protozoa Oogamy Isogamy Anisogamy 4 10 Which of these is shelled protozoan Plasmodium Paramecium difflugia 4 10 Which of these is not the characteristic of Proifera aquatic habitat pores Multicellular 4 10 Members of the porifera reproduce sexually by Oogamy Isogamy As-isogamy 4 10 Which of these is a fresh water sponge Sycon Leucosolenia Spongilla 4 10 Which of these is the characteristic of coelenterates digestive cavity with a single aperture presence of nematocytes presence of tentacles 4 10 Which of these is not the character of Coelenterates primitive plan of organization no left and right sides of the body radical symmetry 4 10 which one of the following phyla is exclusively marine porifera coelenterata molusca 4 10 The sac-like internal digestive cavity of coelenterates is called enteron nematocytes exeron 4 10 The units of the colonies of coelenterates is called zoospores zooids cysts 4 10 Coelenterates are predominantly freshwater predominantly marine predominantly terrestrial 4 10 the percentage of arthrpods in animal kingdom is 45% 60% 75% 4 10 mantle is an envelope of glandular epithelium covering entire body of the animal belonging to the phylum annelida mollusca arthropoda 4 10 which one of the following in an ectoparasite tape worm leech ascaris 4 10 the first group with definite blood vascular system is platyhelminthes annelida nematoda 4 10 which one of the followign contains a definite alimentary canal, with mouth and anus round worm tape worm liver fluke 4 10 which one of the following has no digestive tube liver fluke Planaria tape worm 4 10 the platyhelminthes are blastocoelomat es pseudocoelom ates acoelomates 4 10 most coelenterates are joined together to form colonies, the units of which are called rhizome gametocytes zooids 4 10 in Coelenterates a non cellular layer between the ectoderm and endoderm is called mesoderm mesenchyma parenchyma 4 10 pinnacocytes and choanocytes are the cells found in coelenterates sponges echinoderms 4 10 it is generally believed that multicellular animals evolved from unicellular sporozoans flagellates ciliates 4 10 the protozoans comprise about 45000 species 30000 species 50000 4 10 which of these are sexually reproductive zooids medusae hydroids nematocytes 4 10 Most sponges are bilaterally symmetrical radially symmetrical vertically symmetrical 4 10 a large opening of the sponges through which water leaves is called Osculum Atrium Ostium 4 10 Which of these is not true of Annelida Presence of cuticle around the body Segmented body Lack of blood vascular system 4 10 The body cavity of roundworms is called acoelom pseudo- acoelom pseudo coelom 4 10 Which of the following is a radially symmetrical animal Planaria Rotifer Fluke 4 10 Water exits from a sponge through the spicule osculum choanocyte 4 10 Which of the following protozoans lives in the gust termites and helps them digest cellulose Plasmodium Amoeba Trichonympha 4 10 the arrangement of animals into groups and subgroups due to the similarities in their structure and physiology is called cytology ecology taxonomy 4 10 Which of the following are exclusively marine Mollusca Annelida Nematoda 4 10 Coiled shell is present in bivalves gastropods cephalopods 4 10 Which of these is the habitat of mollusca freshwater marine mountains 4 10 Mollusks are presence of envelop around the body highly organized body with complex systems segmented body 4 10 The number of pairs of legs in insects are one two three 4 10 Of all the animal species in the animal kingdom the number of arthropod species constitutes almost 75% 50% 25% 4 10 Which of these is not true of Echinodermata coelomata bilaterally symmetrical absence of brain 4 10 Which of these possesses true body cavity (coelom) Annelia Nematoda Platyhelminthe s 4 10 which of the following produce hard exoskeletion jelly fish Hydra Obelia 4 10 Which of the following has segmented body coelenterate protozoa platyhelminthes 4 10 Which of the following causes sleeping sickness vorticella Ascaris Trypanosome 4 10 Which of these belong to the phylum nematode planaria dracunculus corals 4 10 Which of the following is parasite in the intestine man Fasciola Plasmodium Taenia 4 10 Which of the following has a body cavity called pseudocoelom platyhelminthes coelenterate protozoa 4 10 Trichinella belongs to protozoa platyhelminthes nematode 4 10 Which of these belong to platyhelminthes Ascaris Fasciola Trichinella 4 10 Which of the following character is exhibited by platyhelminthes eggs without yolk simple reproductive system all are parasites 4 10 Which of these are acoelomatic triploblastic animals corals porifera platyhelminthes 4 10 Organisms possessing true body cavity are called acoelomata coelomata monoblastic 4 10 Which of these develops from the mesoderm circulatory system integumentary system nervous system 4 10 Which of these develops from the endoderm nervous system lining of the gut reproductive system 4 10 Which of these is an example of Annelida Ascaris Chaetopteris Trichinella 4 24 the 'descent with modification through times' is called special creation organic evaolution heredity 4 24 the theory of evolution which states that acquired characters present during the life time could pass on to the offspings is called lamarckism darwinism mutation theory 4 24 the heart core of darwin wallace theory is variations over production struggle for existence 4 24 all of the following are vestigial organs except wing of Kiwi nicititating membrance in humans appendix in human 4 24 the structures that show superficial differences but are basically similar are called homologous analogues vestigial 4 24 who proposed that 'under cetain condition of stability both allelic frequencies and genotypic ratios remain constant from generation in a sexually reproducing population. darwin and wallace beadle and tatum hutton and lyell 4 24 the idea embryological development repeats the developmental history of the species is known as mutation theory lamarckian theory weinberg theory 4 24 change in allelic frequency of a small population purely by chance is called genetic equilibrium genetic drift gene pool 4 24 the dramatic darkening in colour of original light colored moths in the industrial areas of England is the example of protective resemblance vestigial organs homology 4 24 Which of the following is the age of the earth according to the scientific belief one million years 5 million years 6 billion years 4 24 Variations in the living organisms are absent of two kinds of three kinds 4 24 Which of the following is true of a population all individuals are exactly alike 50% individuals are exactly alike 10% of individuals are exactly alike 4 24 Paramecium divides three times a day ten times a day after three days 4 24 During one breeding season a code fish lays one egg hundred eggs thousand eggs 4 24 Elephants begin to breed at age of six months six years thirty years 4 24 Elephants are considered to one of the slowest breeders among vertebrates fastest breeders among vertebrates slowest breeders among invertebrate 4 24 Organisms fully adapted to their environment will gradually perish can not survive have low survival chances 4 24 Organs that serve no apparent purpose are called abortive vestigial reproductive 4 24 Which of the following is the vestigial organ in human body nose radius ear muscle 4 24 Different sorts of remains of organisms that live in the past era are called microorganism s fossils birds 4 24 Which of the following has greatest diversity of living things palearctic nearctic Australian 4 24 Which of these show an unusual fauna and flora Ethiopian Palearctic Neotropical 4 24 In which of the following the spread of fauna and flora has often been greatly limited by the harshness of the climate Oriental Nearctic Ethiopian 4 24 It was observed in England that before industrial expansion the colour of the wings and bodies of the prevalent variety of moth was light red green 4 24 In heavy industrial areas the colours of moth was changed to yellow green brown 4 24 The absence of lichens from tree trunks in an area is an indication of absence of pollution presence of pollution absence of industries 4 24 The gradual process of change that occurs in populations of organisms over along period of time, leading to the formation of new species is called organic evolution inorganic evolution genetic drift 5 1 Yen is the currency of _____. China Japan Taiwan 5 1 The biggest desert of the world is _____. Gobi Sahara Thar 5 1 The official reports of the British govt are called _____. White Book Red Book Blue Book 5 1 _____ gave the theory of population. Thomas Malthus Karl Marx Fredich Angels 5 1 China is state based on _____. Siongle Party system Bi Party System Multy Party system 5 1 The Pearl 0f East is called to _____. Tokyo Beijing Bombay 5 1 King Abdul Aziz is the father of the nation of _____. Iraq Turkey Saudi Arabia 5 1 The world scout day is celebrated on February_____. 19th 20th 21st 5 1 The largest ocean of the world is _____. Indian Ocean Pacific Ocean Atlantic Ocean 5 1 _____ is the largest ocean Islamic country in area wise. Indonesia Pakistan Kazakhstan 5 1 _____ is the smallest of the all ocean . Indian Ocean Pacific Ocean Atlantic Ocean 5 1 _____ is the most populous country of the world India China Russia 5 1 _____ was the first elected Prime Minister of Pakistan Liakat Ali Khan Ch Muhammad Ali Muhammad Ali Bogra 5 1 The b Ex - Soviets states in central Asia are also know as _____ . CARs ECO USSR 5 1 Sigmund Freud was one the great _____ . Politician Painter Physicist 5 1 Hypocratic Oath is Used in _____ . Medical Science Literature Law 5 1 S . A . S . Is the name of _____ . Intelligence Agency Political Party A Medical Company 5 1 The leading world banking Centre is _____ . Tokyo Zurich New York 5 1 A white flage represents _____ Surrender War Pact 5 1 The highest wicket -- taker the in one day international cricket is _____ . Kepil Dev Wasim Akram Ambrose 5 1 The biggest bird in the world is _____ . Ostrich Sky Lork Albatross 5 1 Olympic games are held every . Two Years Four Years Three Years 5 1 A black flag represents _____ . War Protest mourning 5 1 The world 's most populous continent is _____ . Asia Africa North America 5 1 The currency of Bangladesh is _____ . Frank Rupee Takka 5 1 The official languages of the UNO is _____ French / English German / English Arabic / English 5 1 After the World War II, the city of Berlin was divided into _____ military zones One Two Three 5 1 After the fall of Taliban_____ become chairman of Afghanistan Hamid Karzai Burhan u din Rabbani Rasheed Dostum 5 1 Post Taliban interim -- setup was decided in _____ conference Peshawar Islamabad Bonn 5 1 Agra Summit between Pakistan and India was held on _____ 1 st July 2001 14 July 2001 13 July 2001 5 1 _____ is the only secretary General UN , Who visited , Pakistan Butrus Gali Vijay Lakshmi Shamshad Ahmad 5 1 China become member of world trade Organization in _____ . 1945 1960 1990 5 1 Lira is the currency of ….. Iran Italy Australia 5 1 France is the currency of …. Mexico Belgium Australia 5 1 Pound is not the currency of ….. U . K . U . A . R . Israel 5 1 Rupee is the currency of Singapore Saudi Arabia Nepal 5 1 Dinar is not the currency of …. Yugoslavia Kuwait Iraq 5 1 Peso is the currency of ….. Mexico Kenya Sweden 5 1 Manila is the Capital of …. Malaysia Philippines Singapore 5 1 The Capital of Bhutan is Jakarta Riyadh Honoi 5 1 Bangkok is the Capital of Sri Lanka Malaysia Thailand 5 1 ______ was the only civilian Martial Law administrator of Pakistan. Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto Ayub Khan Yahya Khan 5 1 Henry Kissinger was the former US ______. PM President Secretary of State 5 1 The largest River of the world is ______. Indus Amazon Nile 5 1 In 2000, East Timor became. Part of Indonesia Member of European Union Part of Russia 5 1 The first World war started in ______. 1920 1914 1916 5 1 ______ was the first recipient of Nishen-e- Haider. Major Aziz Bhatti Mohammad Sarwar Sarwar Hussain 5 1 Ramzan is the ______ month of Islamic Calendar 8th 9th 10th 5 1 ______ is called as Pandatji Gandhi Nehru Avani 5 1 Taj Mahal is Located in ______. Ajmeer Agra Aligarh 5 1 ______ is not member of ECO Pakistan Kirgistan Iraq 5 1 The largest USA aid receiver country in the world is ______. Israel India Pakistan 5 1 The head office of SAARC is in ______. Islamabad Delhi Katmandu 5 1 Second World war stated in ______. 1914 1939 1941 5 1 Pakistan had ______ vice president (S). 1 2 3 5 1 ECO came into force in January ______. 1985 1986 1970 5 1 The Headquarters of UNO is in ______. Hague Washington London 5 1 RCD (Regional Cooperation for Development: 1964) is an old name of ______. OIC NAM ECO 5 1 The Headquarters of Islamic Conference, is located in ______. Cairo Baghdad Jakarta 5 1 ______ is the secretary General of UN General Assembly. Donal Johnson Kofi Anan Butrus Gali 5 1 GATT is an old name of ______. IMF WTO IFC 5 1 The headquarters of International Court of Justice are in ______. Washington New York Paris 5 1 UNESCO was established in 4 November 1946. Its headquarters are in ______. Paris Berne Geneva 5 1 The headquarters of world Health Organization are in ______. Hague Geneva Washington 5 1 The headquarters of UNICEF are in ______. Hague Geneva New York 5 1 International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established in 27 December 1945. Its head office is located in ______. New York Washington Geneva 5 1 The head office of WTO is in ______. Geneva Paris Washington 5 1 European Union (EU) was established in ______. 1945 1960 1990 5 1 North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) was established in 24 August 1949. It has 19 members and its headquarters is in ______. Brussels London Moscow 5 1 The Headquarter of Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is in ______. Washington Baghdad Vienna 5 1 Which of the following is not a Baltic state? Lithuania Latvia Netherlands 5 1 ______ is not scandal Navian Country. Norway Sweden Denmark 5 1 ______ is not a Nordic Country. Finland Norway and Sweden Finland and Iceland 5 1 Which of the following Country is the equatorial Country. Indonesia India Iran 5 1 Suez Canal was made by ______. UK France US 5 1 Which of the following Country has the largest regular armed forces in the world? USA UK China 5 1 Which of the following country is called play ground of Europe? Spain UK Switzerland 5 1 The first nuclear disaster of the world took place in Pentagon Hiroshima Nagasaki 5 1 The Smallest Country in the world is ______. Kuwait Maldives Vatican City 5 1 Which of country is not in the Balkan states. Greece Bulgaria Romania 5 1 The largest producer of electricity in the World is ______. Tajikistan Uzbekistan Kazakhstan 5 1 The largest producer of Wheat in the World is _______. China India US 5 1 The largest producer of Oil in the world is ______. Iran Saudi Arabia Iraq 5 1 The largest producer of Rubber in the world is _______. Indonesia China Malaysia 5 1 The largest producer of Tea in the world is ______. China Sri Lanka Bangladesh 5 1 The largest producer of Uranium in the world is _______. USA Austria Australia 5 1 The largest producer of Tobacco in the world is ______. China Bangladesh Pakistan 5 1 The largest producer of sugar in world is ______. Pakistan India Bangladesh 5 1 The largest producer of gold in the world is _______. South Africa Russia Japan 5 1 The largest producer of diamond in the world is _______. Austria Japan Australia 5 1 The largest producer of Natural Gas in the World is ______. Iran Tanzania Norway 5 1 The largest producer of Nuclear energy in the world is ______. USA UK Russia 5 1 The largest producer of Cars in the world is _____. Germany Japan France 5 1 The largest producer of Dry Milk in the world is ______. Netherlands Norway Switzerland 5 1 The gulf of Myanmar is in Bhutan and Maldives Indian and Sri Lanka Pakistan and India 5 1 Cyprus lies south of _____. France UK Greece 5 1 Nizam-e-Mustafa Movement in Pakistan was launched in 1971 1975 1977 5 1 European Community has _____ members. 12 1 10 5 1 Women's Liberation Movement was started in _____. China Afghanistan USA 5 1 The Silk Rout border is between in which of the two countries? India / Pakistan China / Pakistan Iran / Pakistan 5 1 The Country Called as Boot of Europe is _____. Italy UK France 5 1 The country known as "Land of Midnight Sun" is _____. Switzerland Italy France 5 1 Cyprus is disputed island between Turkey and_____. UK Greece USA 5 1 Which among the following is the largest lake in the world? Victoria Manchar Caspian 5 1 Which of the following country is a Key Military Ally of Israel? Indonesia Azerbaijan Armenia 5 1 _____is called father of Modern Turkey. Kamal Ataturk Sultan Ayubi Abdul Salam 5 1 _____ was the famous Mangol Conquered who invaded across the world Kabul Khan Halakoo Khan Gengis Khan 5 1 _____ is called the land of the Rising Sun Japan Russia India 5 1 Hong Kong was formerly Colony of _____. U SA UK Russia 5 1 The Noble Prize is awarded in _____ country. Switzerland France Sweden 5 1 Myanmar is an old name of _____. Burma SriLanka Bangladesh 5 1 _____ was known as Persia until 1935. Iraq Iran India 5 1 The Kabul River enters Pakistan and joins Indus at _____. Jehlum Sukkur Peshawar 5 1 Vatican City is an independent state in Rome (Italy) ruled by _____. Pope King Chancellor 5 1 _____ is the largest peninsula of the world ,located almost in the centre of the world . Iran Saudi Arabia Iraq 5 1 _____ is the largest continent among the total seven continents of the world. Asia Africa Europe 5 1 _____ is the highest peak of the world, which is part of Himalayan range. K2 Nanga Parbat Kohe - Sulaiman 5 1 The Great Wall of China is the greatest wall of the world. It was built in _____. 711AD 7AD 214BC 5 1 _____ is the largest country of the world. Russia Canada India 5 1 Which religion ranks first, population wise in the world? Islam Hinduism Buddhism 5 1 Modern Olympic Games were first started in 1896 in _____. Australia Austria Greece 5 1 Knesset is the name of the parliament of _____ ? Israel Philippine Peru 5 1 Magna Carta, which granted rights and liberties to people of England was signed in _____. 1215 AD 1700 AD 1425 AD 5 1 Renaissance was movement of _____ in Europe in the 16th century. Culture Art and Literature Science 5 1 Balkan war was against _____ dynasty by the Bulgarian and Serbian in 1912. Dependant Usmanian Mughal 5 1 Phobia means _____. Love for every one Strong hatred A strong fear of a particular thing 5 1 Vasco De Gama was a _____. Scientist Sailor Poet 5 1 Calligraphy is an art of _____. Hand writing Drawing Machines 5 1 White House is an official residence of _____. UK Prime Minister Australian Prime Minister Russian President 5 1 Diet is the name _____ Parliament Chinese Japanese Korean 5 1 The Statue of Liberty in _____ is the highest statue of the world with the height of 152 feet. New York Washington London 5 1 Baleve Line Connects Israel with _____. Jordon Egypt Philistine 5 1 49th Parallel is a boundary between _____. America and Canada China and India India and Bangladesh 5 1 Curzen Line is the border between _____. America and Canada Poland and Lithuania India and China 5 1 Macmohan Line is the border between _____. India and Pakistan India and Bangladesh India and China 5 1 _____ is the oldest written language of the world. Chinese Sindhi Sanskrit 5 1 Berlin Wall (47 km long), kept East and West Germany divided 28 years. It was dismounted on Nov. 18 _____. 1987 1988 1989 5 1 There are _____ players in a hockey game 9 10 11 5 1 Hockey is played with two balves of _____ minutes and break 5 to 10 minutes. 30 35 25 5 1 The sixth Cricket World Cup (1996) was played in _____. Pakistan India Sri Lanka 5 1 Jan Sher Khan is a Pakistan _____ player. Squash Cricket Hockey 5 1 Lenin and Stalin were the revolutionaries of _____. France China Russia 5 1 Karl Marx was born in _____. UK Germany Italy 5 1 Dalai Lama is a spiritual leader of Buddhism in ____. India Korea Japan 5 1 Dove is the symbol of _____. Peace Love Liberty 5 1 The USSR officially broke up in December 24, _____. 1991 1990 1989 5 1 The First war between Arabs and Israel was fought in _____. 1991 1990 1948 5 1 Green revolution means _____. Revolution for New State Agricultural revolution Big Green buildings 5 1 Mr. Kofi Anan the secretary General of UNO belongs to _____. Ghana Somalia US 5 1 Mr. Nelson Mandela is former president of _____. Cuba Vatican City South Africa 5 1 Holland is the old name of _____. New Zealand Netherlands England 5 1 _____ was the called dark continent Asia Europe Antarctica 5 1 _____ is called Queen of south. London Rome Paris 5 1 The old name of Libya was _____. Ethiopia Tripoli Siam 5 1 Mesopotamia is an old name of _____. Iraq Iran Afghanistan 5 1 Canberra is the Capital of _____. Armenia Austria Australia 5 1 Ottawa is the Capital of _____. Cambodia Cameroon Chad 5 1 Dinar is the Currency of _____. Algeria Iraq Jordan 5 1 Sofia is the Capital of _____. Brazil Bulgaria Bolivia 5 1 Santiago is the Capital of _____. Chile China Chad 5 1 The Capital of Greece is _____. Budapest Berlin Athens 5 1 Peso is the Currency of _____. Argentina Chile Colombia 5 1 The Capital of Japan is _____. Tokyo Seoul Berlin 5 1 Hanoi is the Capital of _____. Zambia Uganda Vietnam 5 1 Congress is name of the parliament of _____. USA India Australia 5 1 Majlis is name of the Parliament of _____. Iraq Iran Pakistan 5 1 Jatiyo Sangsad is name of the parliament of _____. India Nepal Bhutan 5 1 Yuan is name of the parliament of _____. Taiwan China Hong Kong 5 1 Mao Zedong was revolutionary leader of _____. Taiwan North Korea China 5 1 Vienna is the name of the Capital of _____. Austria Angola Albania 5 1 The People's Republic of China was established in Beijing on 1st October _____. 1947 1948 1949 5 1 The land of thousand Island is called to _____. Thailand Finland Cuba 5 1 Ruble is the name of the Currency of _____. Russia Brazil Fiji 5 1 Oscar wild was famous English Scientist Autho Politician 5 1 Leo Tolestoy was _____ Novelist and Philosopher. Russian English German 5 1 _____ started Romantic Movement in English Literature. William Shakespeare John Milton William Blake 5 1 Chancellor is the head of the state in. Germany Austria Both of these 5 1 The capital of Uzbekistan is _____. Tashkent Ashkabad Almaty 5 1 _____ is the king of Saudi Arabia King Abdullah King Fahad Sultan Qaboos 5 1 _____ is the president of the USA George Bush George W.B. Bush George W. Bush 5 1 _____ is Russian president. MiKhail Kasyanor Boris Yeltsin Segei Kiruyenko 5 1 Islam ranks _____ in the world religions. first second third 5 1 HAMAS is the name of an Islamic resistance movement in _____, Palestine Kashmir Dagestan 5 1 The light of Islam dawned in the _____ century. 6th 5th 7th 5 1 The legendary Abbasidis Caliph Haroon-al- Rashid ruled _____ from 768 to 809. Persia Baghdad Spain 5 1 The world Health day is observed on _____. 07-Mar 07-Apr 07-May 5 1 The International labour day is observed on _____. 07-Apr 08-Mar 20-Nov 5 1 Angora is the old name of _____. Ankara Albania Angola 5 1 Uncle Sam is an old name of _____. UK Australia Portugal 5 1 Bange-Dara, Bale-Jibril, Zarbe-Kalim, Zabure-Ajam and Ramoze-Bekhudi are the books of _____. Abdul Kalam Azad Allama Iqbal Hasrat Mohani 5 1 The legislative Assembly of Kashmir consists of _____ seats. 50 55 48 5 1 Australia won the 1999 Cricket world cup from _____. Pakistan Sri Lanka England 5 1 The govt. of people, by people, fro people is called ______ Kingdom Democracy Dictatorship 5 1 X mass is a world for _____. Christmas Computer Math 5 1 Tony Blair, Britain Prime Minister belongs to _____ party. Conservative Democratic Labour 5 1 Australians have organized Olympic games twice. First in 1956, second in _____. 1996 1997 1999 5 1 Fiddle Castro is president of ______ for more than thirty five years. Poland Cuba Spain 5 1 Lady Diana was the princes of _____. Wales Lancaster Belize 5 1 Brittan's are dynasty of the _____. Anglo Normans Anglo Saxons Plantagenet's 5 1 Battle of water Loo was fought in _____. 1914 1930 1845 5 1 Mr. Yasir Arfat is the chairman of _____. WHO UNESCO ECO 5 1 Total number of SAARC countries is ____. five six seven 5 1 Jahangir Khan of Pakistan won British Open Squash _____ times. five ten six 5 1 Mujeeb-ur-Rehman was killed on 15 August 1975. He was leader _____. BNP AL BJP 5 1 _____ dynasty of the sub-continent can be treated as first Muslim dynasty. slave khilgi tughlaq 5 1 _____ is consider to be oldest city and capital of the world. Rome of Italy Yaunda of Cameroon Baghdad of Iraq 5 1 Eiffel Tower is great tourist attraction in _____. Paris London Rome 5 1 Pentagon is the military head quarter of _____. UK USA Russia 5 1 _____ is consider to the biggest democracy of the world. UK USA India 5 1 Famous drama Hamlet was written by _____. Marlowe Goethe Bernard Shaw 5 1 Famous books Das Kapital and Communist Manifesto were written by ____. Karl Marx Darwin Oscar Willd 5 1 Socrates, Plato and Aristotle were ____. English authors Greek Philosopher French Scientist 5 1 Gen Ayub Khan visited USSR on 3rd April _____. 1962 1963 1964 5 1 There are only _____ countries which have nuclear power. five six seven 5 1 Robert Walpole was the first prime minister of ____. USA England France 5 1 Pigeon is the symbol of ____. Peace revolution revolt 5 1 In _____ the Russian revolution was established when the Czar was overthrown. 1921 1917 1919 5 1 East and west Germany re-united on October 3, ______. 1987 1988 1989 5 1 _____ discovered America in 1499. Columbus Vasco da Gama Marko polo 5 1 _____ came into power in French revolution. Winston Churchill Nepoleon George Washington 5 1 There are _____ railway stations in Pakistan. 900 850 965 5 1 Lok Sabha is the name of the lower house of _____ parliament. Nepal India Bangladesh 5 1 A poem expresses emotions is called _____. Elegy Ballad Lyric 5 1 Omar Khayyam was a Persian _____. Novelist Poet Actor 5 1 John Keats and Shelley were English _____. Scientists Statesmen Poets 5 1 Famous poet hafiz Shirazi belonged to _____. India Pakistan Syria 5 1 _____ is the poet of paradise lost and paradise regained. Milton Pope Words worth 5 1 The first meeting of NAM was held at ____. Islamabad New Delhi Jakarta 5 1 Jiang Zemin is the president of _____. Cuba China Morocco 5 1 The longest day of each year is ______. 13-Mar 21-May 21-Jun 5 1 The shortest day of each year is ____. 22 December 5 January 21 November 5 1 Thousand died as plans crashed into WTC, Pentagon in New York and Washington on _____. 9 September 2001 10 September 2001 11 September 2001 5 1 The famous book "Jinnah of Pakistan" is written by ____. Hector Bolitho K.K Aziz Stanly Wolpert 5 1 The famous book "The origin of species is written by ____. Tennyson Charles Darwin Karl Marx 5 1 The USA consists of ____ states. 42 52 32 5 1 The largest stock market of Asia is _____. Nikkei Heng Seng Strait Times 5 1 Sugar Bowl of the world is called _____. India China USA 5 1 Pride and Prejudice is written by _____. George Eliot Jane Austen T.S. Eliot 5 1 Col: Moammar Al-Qazafi is the president of _____. Fiji Vietnam Libya 5 1 Prague is the Capital of ….. Belgium Czech Republic Denmark 5 1 Brussels is the Capital of ….. Austria Belgium Brazil 5 1 Warsaw is the Capital of ….. Poland Norway Sweden 5 1 Berne is the Capital of -- Turkey Spain Switzerland 5 1 The Capital of , Yugoslavia was … Ankara Belgrade Berne 5 1 The National Emblem of Spain is . Eagle Wyilelily Cornflower 5 1 Cresent moon with a star is the National Emblem of Iran Turkey Afghanistan 5 1 National Emblem of India is constituted by Lion Capital Dharam Chakra a horse at the base plate 5 1 The National Emblem of Germany is Golden rod Cornflower Beach 5 1 National Emblem of Denmark is Rose Eagle Beach 5 1 National Emblem of Australia is Eagle Corneflower lily 5 1 Panchsheel Agreement was signed between China and Russia India and Pakistan India and China 5 1 Panchsheel Agreement was signed In 1951 1950 1954 5 1 The headquarters of U . N Universal Postal Union is in _________ ? Hague New York Berne 5 1 Renaissance was …… atready revival of learning a book 5 1 The Glorious Revolution started in …. 1688 1749 1660 5 1 In which century Jesus Christ was crucified ? 3rd (BC) 1st (AD) 1st (BC) 5 1 Mr. Jawaharlal Nehru , the first Prime Minister of India died on 11th Jan . , 1966 3rd Feb . , 1966 15th July , 1963 5 1 Sorrow of China is name given to a city a river a lake 5 1 Island of Pearls is England Cuba Thailand 5 1 Turkey is called The holy Land The Quaker City The Sickman of Europe 5 1 The land of Midnight Sun is -- Norway Turkey Japan 5 1 The city of Skyscrapers is -- Washington New York Warsaw 5 1 The smallest state : in the world is ….. Bhutan and Maldive Mayanmar Vatican City 5 1 On what day did the U . N . Came into being 21st Sep . , 1944 7th Oct . 1944 26th June , 1944 5 1 Which of these is not among the purpose of the U . N . ? Tomaintian internatioanal peace and security To promote and encourage respect for human rights To resolve all inter - state disputes by application of international law 5 1 What is the number of non -- permanent members of the Security Council ? 6 10 28 5 1 Which of these is not a necessary for the states to become members of U . N . ? Must be a sovereign state Must be peace -- loving Must be willing to discharge its responsibilities under the Charter and international law 5 1 Who appoints the non -- permanent members of security council ? General Assembly secretary -- general International Court of Justice 5 1 of non -- permanent of the Security Council ? One year Two years Three years 5 1 Who appoints the judges of the international Court of Justice General Assembly Security Council General Assembly and the Security 5 1 How many members are there in the Economic and Social council ? 27 54 21 5 1 Which of these is not a one of the main organs of the U . N ? General Assembly Security Council Internal Labor Organization 5 1 The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the U . N . General Assembly in ….. 1946 1950 1948 5 1 Gulliver's Travels was written by ….. Jonathan Swift Shakespeare Oliver Goldsmith 5 1 SAPTA is a trade agreement by _____ . Asean Nations APEC Nations SAARC Nations 5 1 The Hippocratic Oath is an _____ Ethical Ancient Greek Law Oath of allegiance 5 1 Homer was author of _____ ILLIAD Odesy Both of these 5 1 The author of "War and Peace was _____ . Leo Tolstoy AlferedTennys on Charles Dickens 5 1 U . N . Environmental control headquarters are located in _____ . Jamaica New York Nairobi 5 1 THE UN Convention on Law of seas was signed in _____ . 1982 1987 1945 5 1 Cathay is an old name of _____ . China and Russia Japan Hong Kong 5 1 Who was the first to state geometrical principles formally ? Nicholas Copernicus Galileo Euclid 5 1 Who was first to perform human heart transplant surgery ? Dr : David Baltimore Dr Christian Bernard Dr James D . Watson 5 1 Psoriasis is a _____ . Learning disability Skin disease Ear Infection 5 1 Who was father of boy -- scout Movement ? Florence Nightingale Lord Byron Lord Baden Powell 5 1 What is Yeti ? An Animal A bat A moumain man 5 1 Who was sun yat sen ? First President of Chinese Republic The President of Cuba The president of Vietnam 5 1 Who was Begum Akhtar _____ ? Classical Singer A dancer An Artist 5 1 Group of 77 was previously called : APEC OPEC NAM 5 1 Who was Dr Abdul Salam A Poet An Artist A Physician 5 1 Shakespeare belonged to the period of _____ in English literature. Renaissance reformation restoration 5 1 Who was Abu Fazal _____? an adviser of Akbar a great muslim reformer a leader of congress 5 1 Who was the first Indian to become the Governor of an Indian State? C. Rajagopalacha ri Lord Sinha Dr. Rajendera Prasad 5 1 Why are the mountains cooler than Plains? Air on the mountains is less dense, so it absorbs less heat there are thick forests on the mountains and these cool the atmosphere there is snow on the mountains which keeps the air cool. 5 1 Why does a lift pump fail beyond a particular height? since the water in a lift pump is raised by the atmospheric pressure, so height of the lift pump will be lower than the height of the water barometer. beyond a particular height upward thrust of air becomes less. the rarefied air of the higher heights cannot keep it aloft. 5 1 Why should a parachute have a hole in it? if there is no hole the parachute will be torn out while descending, the changing currents may cause oscillation of the parachute, the hole allows the air to run out. if there is no hole, descending is not possible because upward ward thrust of the air will be balanced with the downward thrust pull of the earth. 5 1 Why do people prefer to wear white clothes during summer? white clothes reflect and do not observe, heat these clothes shine in sunlight. one am detect the spots of sweat on them 5 1 Why do the electricians wear rubber gloves while touching wires? with rubber gloves he can hold wires properly rubber is a bad conductor of electricity and electrician does not get shocks. It helps in the smooth flow of the current 5 1 Why does water sing when it is heated in a kettle? on heating, the molecules of water strike against one another and produce a sound. on heating certain currents are produced in water which cause sound. bubbles which rise to the surface collapse with a sound 5 1 How does a lightening conductor protect the buildings? It absorbs the charge released by lightening it helps the charge to pass into the earth without damaging the building it scatters the charge from lightening 5 1 How does a man die by touching alive wire? the current passes into the earth through the man's body. As the circuit is complete it burns the body the current stops the flow of blood through the heart it affects the nervous system and so kills brain cells 5 1 Why are two blankets warmer than one? two blankets have more wool and so warmer two blankets enclose air which does not allow the cold to penetrate two blankets compress the air in between the body and the blankets and this compression produces heat. 5 1 Why does white light passing through a coloured prism give rise to coloured pattern on a screen? white light breaks up into its parent seven colored rays refracted along different paths prism glass has fibers of different colours, so the light that passes through it breaks into different colours light passing through a prism is broken up into colors because glass cannot absorb any colour 5 1 How does a bulb emit light? as the electricity passes into the bulb its glass begins to shine as electricity passes in the vacuum of the bulb it changes into heat, so glows the current passes through a tungsten wire of high resistance which becomes so hot as to glow 5 1 Why does boatman push the bank with pole to make the boat move? when he pushes the bank, the bank pushes him, action and reaction are equal and opposite the bank cannot move but the boot moves by pushing the bank he tries to overcome the attraction of the bank for the boat 5 1 When a piece of stone gets hot in fire, its has tendency to fly from it. Why? heated stone gets the energy which makes it to fly. the outer layer expands before the inner part, so they break due to the unequal expansion heated stone breaks because the binding of the elements melt 5 1 Why has a metal teapot an ebony handle? it being black in colour, does not allow heat to escape ebony is a bad conductor of heat, so the handle does not become hot it looks beautiful 5 1 Why does a cyclist bend while taking a curved turn? movement to the cycle and the man must be same otherwise the cycle will slip off. he bends in order to make the centre of gravity remain within the base. This will save him from falling he bends in order to put pressure on the wheels to take the curved course 5 1 Why does a coin lying at eh bottom of tall cylinder full of water seem to be raised? rays coming out from the coin bend outward due to refraction, so they seem to come from a higher place than actually it is our eyes cannot see this coin clearly due to movement of water molecules the coin is actually lifted up by the upward thrust of water 5 1 Why do diamonds shine at night? diamonds are radioactive so there are radiations on account of high refractive index the rays of light get internally reflected diamonds shine because they have some amount of radium in them 5 1 Why do the front wheels of motor cars lean outward slightly? it is done to allow for difference in angles, this gives stability to the car while taking a turn it gives a broader base to the car it helps to avoid bumping on uneven roads 5 1 Why is one's breath visible in cold but not is hot weather? water vapours in the exhaled breath condense into small droplets which become visible during winter visibility is clearer and water vapour in breath can be seen during hot weather water drops in breath evaporate 5 1 Why is it easier to swim in sea water than in river density of sea water is higher currents in sea water keeps the person afloat sea water is selfish and so has an upward thrust 5 1 The bird _____ has feathers but no wings. Kiwi Ostrich Penguin 5 1 Pshymometer is used to measure : Weight Length Blood Pressure 5 1 The constitution 1973 of Pakistan has _____ articles 300 290 250 5 1 _____ has headquarters of the UN 's specialized agencies more than any other country in the world . America France England 5 1 Anti Ballistic Missiles Treaty (ABMT) was signed in _____ . 1971 1972 1973 5 1 NMD Stand for National Missiles Defense of _____ . India US Israel 5 1 Kashmir issue was taken to the UNO by India on _____ . 1st January 1948 1st February 1948 1st March 1948 5 1 One horse - power is equal to 745 . 7 _____ . Volts kilo Amperes Watts 5 1 Pakistan is located in _____ of India North South East 5 1 Malamjuba is skiing resort in _____ . India Japan Korea 5 1 Metrology is the scientific study of _____ . Atmosphere Universe Earthquake 5 1 Aligarh Muslim University produced eminent Muslims like _____ . Ch . Rehmat Ali Liaquat Ali Khan Sir Agha Khan 5 1 Independence day f the USA is _____ . 6th June 15thAugust 4th July 5 1 WTO Stands for : Water Treaty Organization World Trade Organization Western Trade organization 5 1 NPT (Non Proliferation Treaty ) was signed in 1st July _____ by 62 Nation . 1960 1965 1968 5 1 The first man to set foot on the moon was : Niel Armstrong Luis Armstrong Edwin Armstrong 5 1 Chechnya lies in East Asia Middle East South Asia 5 1 Cleopatra ' and ceaser were conceived by : Tolstoy Shakespeare Ben Johnson 5 1 Judo is the Nation game of : Japan South Korea China 5 1 " Acoustic " is the science of : Light Maps Water 5 1 ECG stands for : Electro - Cardiograph Electronic Cosmography Elementary Cellular Growth 5 1 IMF stands for International Manufacturing and Finance International Money and Fund International Mutual Fund 5 1 Quark is _____. An Animal a fruit an atomic particle 5 1 Hippopotamus is name of a city al flower an animal 5 1 The founder of Sikh Religion was Ranjit Singh Buddha Kabir 5 1 Wimbledon is an annual tournament played for the game of Tennis Hockey Squash 5 1 Seismograph is the instrument used to measure strength of wind earthquakes specific gravity 5 1 Which treaty was signed after 1965 Indo- Pak war simla pact lucknow pact Tashkent declaration 5 1 The year 1997 is important for Hong Kong because it becomes independent state it becomes part of China it becomes member of UNO 5 1 The world largest computer manufacturing company is Java Pentium IBM 5 1 Name the Ocean which is situated between Europe and Asia black sea Mediterranean sea Arabian sea 5 1 Babur founded Mughal dynasty in India defeating Ibraheem Lodhi at _____. plassey paniput buxar 5 1 Name the ruler who introduced Din-e-Ilahi in India Jehangir Humayun Akbar 5 1 The Economies of the developing nations are monitored by _____. ILO WTO IMF 5 1 Khewra is famous for coal mines oil and gas services iron ore deposits 5 1 Name the rays which are considered death rays: X-rays laser rays gama rays 5 1 Name the Mughal ruler who is considered the architect king. Akbar Humayun Jehangir 5 1 Who made the first test century from Pakistan in 1954 in Lucknow (India) test: Hanif Mohammad Nazar Mohammad Fazal Mehmood 5 1 Name the country whose citizens call themselves the children of sund god: Japan Kenya Sri Lanka 5 1 Which of the following country is not in Asia: China Germany Japan 5 1 The currency of European Union is ______. Pound Dollar Euro 5 1 Gaza strip lies in _____. Libya Jordan Egypt 5 1 The architect of Taj Mahal was: Akbar Humayun Dara 5 1 The largest quantity of fish in the world is produced by _____. Brazil and USA Japan and Russia Pakistan and India 5 1 The oldest era is _____. Hijri era English era Saka era 5 1 Good Friday celebration signifies: birthday of prophet Christ the day of Christ's crucifixion Immortality of Christ 5 1 The first head person of the Chinese Republic was _____. Chou En Lai Mao Tse Tung Sun Yat Sen 5 1 First European to visit China was _____. Marco Polo Vasoda Gama Columbus 5 1 The first woman Prime Minister was _____. Mrs. Thatcher Mrs. S. Bhandarnaike Mrs. Ghandhi 5 1 The study of symbolic representation is called _____. Ethology Geology Etymology 5 1 White Oil pipeline project (WOPP) is being built by _____. Shell PSO Caltex 5 1 Where are the headquarters of Interpol are located _____. Brussels Geneva New York 6 2 Fickle diseased fast constant 6 2 Filthy stainless shining sterilized 6 2 Flaccid upright taut uneven 6 2 Flagitious frivolous ignorant vapid 6 2 Flexible brittle rigid hard 6 2 Flurry disclose soothe pelt 6 2 Forbid provoke appreciate celebrate 6 2 Forbidden allowed prohibited agreed 6 2 Foreigner national stranger native 6 2 Former subsequent later resultant 6 2 Foster repress curb check 6 2 Frail vigorous sturdy hardy 6 2 Frailty emaciation strengthen health 6 2 Frantic calm hopeful active 6 2 Haughty pitiable scared humble 6 2 Hawk conciliation dove pacifist 6 2 Hesitate proud confident certain 6 2 Hindrance agreement cooperation persuasion 6 2 Hoard deposit supply satisfy 6 2 Holy offensive orthodox profane 6 2 Host accomplice enlarged spread 6 2 Humble dominant proud despotic 6 2 Ignore supporters favor redress 6 2 Illegible clear imitable clean 6 2 Illusory deceptive real imaginary 6 2 Illustrious uneducated uncivilized unintelligent 6 2 Immediate delayed gradual leisurely 6 2 Immerse disinter douse engross 6 2 Impervious penetrable hidden tolerable 6 2 Impound generate strengthen stimulate 6 2 Impound release strength generate 6 2 impropriety decorum purity ideal 6 2 Impulsive cautious considerate clever 6 2 Indigenous native cheap foreing 6 2 Indolent desirable adequate energetic 6 2 Indulge avoid abstain forego 6 2 Infallible erring untrustworthy dubiousness 6 2 Inimical friendly cheerful neutral 6 2 Innocence crime mischief fault 6 2 Innocent sinful guilty deadly 6 2 insanity sanity normality lucidity 6 2 Insipid nervous pungent saucy 6 2 Insolent agreeable cowardice polite 6 2 Intransigent ever-ready faithful flexible 6 2 Intricate foolish simple straightforward 6 2 Intrude withhold withdraw accept 6 2 Inveterate stupid uneducated ignorant 6 2 Jeer mourn praise mock 6 2 Jettison rejoice surrender accept 6 2 Jittery profuse tense bold 6 2 Jocose dull humorous playful 6 2 Jubilant scared disturbed gloomy 6 2 Judicious unequal unlawful impure 6 2 Justify accuse infuriate absolve 6 2 Juxtaposition difference opposition separation 6 2 Keen dull rogue ardent 6 2 Kill azure relief execute 6 2 Kindle ignite encourage ignore 6 2 Knack dullness balance talent 6 2 Knowledge ignorance illiteracy foolishness 6 2 Kook illiterate sane peculiar 6 2 Laconic prolix profligate prolific 6 2 Languid smart energetic fast 6 2 Leap plunge sink immerse 6 2 Legato uneven brief silent 6 2 Lend hire pawn cheat 6 2 Lenient obstinate annoyed rude 6 2 Lethal safe playful virulent 6 2 Levity stupidity gravity lofty 6 2 Liability assumption exemption consumption 6 2 Liability treasure debt assets 6 2 Liberalism humanism dynamism sectarianism 6 2 Lissome ungainly huge pungent 6 2 Loyal rebellious courageous faithful 6 2 Luscious dry sour ugly 6 2 Luxuriant barren small ghastly 6 2 Luxury sadness treachery duplicity 6 2 Magnanimous selfish naïve generous 6 2 Magnify induce diminish destroy 6 2 Malformed fetid sketchy curvaceous 6 2 Malice honor ecstasy goodwill 6 2 Malicious boastful indifferent kind 6 2 Mammoth dull weak tiny 6 2 Manage direct avail bungle 6 3 Anger : Insult :: business : judgment admiration : happiness conduct : behavior 6 3 Hospital : Nurse :: college : professor theater : dramatist artist : studio 6 1 A Bolt from the blue bad luck God sent gift a feared event 6 1 A French leave a leave with permission a leave without permission privileged leave 6 1 Abandon give up pursue collect 6 1 Abasement incurrence taxation humility 6 1 Abate rebate lessen essence 6 1 Abbreviation short form long form medium form 6 1 Abdicate to resign refuse disperse 6 1 Abduct kidnap deliver collect 6 1 Abeyance obedience discussion excitement 6 1 Abhor adorn difference hate 6 1 Abjure discuss renounce run off secretly 6 1 Ablution censure mutiny survival 6 1 Abolish nullify build erase 6 1 Abortive unsuccessful consuming financing 6 1 Abrogate cancel established decorate 6 1 Abscond conceal one self remain abstract 6 1 Absolve discharge penalize digest 6 1 Abstemious moderate diligent indulgent 6 1 Abstinence restrained eating or drinking vulgar display department 6 1 Abstruse complex disgusting stubborn 6 1 Abundance scarcity plenty excess 6 1 Accentuate to speed up emphasize agree 6 1 Access an elongated addition means of entering large surplus 6 1 Acclamation harmony of feeling possession of something new appointment 6 1 Acclimation storm's end keenness decline 6 1 Accolade balcony outer garment drink 6 1 Accomplice friend fatalist companion in crime 6 1 Accrue come about by addition reach summit create a crisis 6 1 Accumulate to select to collect to pile 6 1 Acerbic boorish bitter inane 6 1 Acidulous witty realistic slightly sour 6 1 Acquaintance familiarity ignorance connection 6 1 Acquittal clearance conviction execution 6 1 Acrimonious bitter agitate expansive 6 1 Acumen cleverness obtuseness adamant 6 1 Adamant good natured lovely stubborn 6 1 Addicted habitually dependent furiously concentrating upset or disturbed 6 1 Addle to confuse shake up increase 6 1 Attrition addition regret attitude 6 1 Attune to stretch bring into harmony humility 6 1 auditory checking of hearing regulated 6 1 Aural ear throat sky 6 1 Auspicious fortunate despairing impressive 6 1 Auxiliary accessory chasteness authentic 6 1 Averse anxious unwilling unhappy 6 1 Aversion revert subvert diversion 6 1 Avert hartred avoid degenerate 6 1 Baffle to joke knock about confuse 6 1 Baleful arrogant sarcastic ominous 6 1 Balm soothes covers irritates 6 1 Banish recall black list disgust 6 1 Baroque polished constant transformed 6 1 Barrister specialist teacher attorney 6 1 Bearing background weight difficulty 6 1 Befit to equip place beside be suitable for 6 1 Beguile to amuse charm paralyze 6 1 Belittled illuminated disparaged declared 6 1 Bemuse to tease entertain deceive 6 1 Benediction denunciation marriage original 6 1 Benevolence kindness inhumanity marline 6 1 Beneficiary successor devoted subordinate 6 1 Benign tenfold peaceful blessed 6 1 Berate to underestimate classify scold 6 1 Beveled smooth sloping enjoyable 6 1 Bewilder mystery enlighten frightened 6 1 Bias implied prejudice deputy 6 1 Bicker to bargain offend frightened 6 1 Biennial yearly every two years favorable 6 1 Bigot racist individual strong 6 1 Bigotry arrogance approval mourning 6 1 Belligerent aggressive friendly dishearted 6 1 Binary complicated elements two things binding force 6 1 Biofeedback structural analysis control of brain waves nutrition 6 1 Bland mild meager soft 6 1 Blatant conspicuous hidden ruthless 6 1 Bleary blurred bloated boorish 6 1 Blemish defect visible gloat 6 1 Bliss pleasure pain slow 6 1 Blithe spiritual profuse gay 6 1 Bluff rocky island cliff deceive 6 1 Blustering speaking loudly lying or misleading noisily aggressive 6 1 Boisterous conflicting noisy testimonial 6 1 Cadge to enclose track trick 6 1 Caesarean craftiness short tempered surgical operation 6 1 Cajole coax capacity slander 6 1 Calamity disaster cold weather scourge 6 1 Callous liberal ignorant responsible 6 1 Callow rough inexperienced superficial 6 1 Cameo Comedy role witty saying minor role 6 1 Candid straight forward and simple candidature frank and honest 6 1 Capacious cramped extensive enchanting 6 1 Comparison to adorn jump in contrast 6 1 Captivate enchant disgusting enslave 6 1 Carapace soft covering thin layer bony covering 6 1 Cardinal principal antique obvious 6 1 Caress erase scratch love 6 1 Castellated like a castle imprisoned disgraced 6 1 Casuistry offhand manner dishonest reasoning emergency 6 1 Catastrophe expedition courtly calamity 6 1 Catatonic stupor teasing violent 6 1 Cater to control degrade oneself try to satisfy 6 1 Catharsis emotional release extreme exhaustion personality analyses 6 1 Celebrated function cleared famous 6 1 Celerity quickness resourcefulnes s pragmatism 6 1 Celibacy bachelorhood important married state 6 1 Censor type of vase official who examines information consultant 6 1 Centenary central necessary hundred years 6 1 Centrifugal inward movement rapid moving away from a centre 6 1 Cessation strictness annexation stoppage 6 1 Chafe to become irritated tease outer covering of grain 6 1 Chaos avoid abyss complete disorder 6 1 Chaotic disordered fervent unclear 6 1 Chasten disciplined pursue sanctify 6 1 Chip image satellite silicon wafer 6 1 Choke strangle tighten throttle 6 1 Chronic short lived temporary up-tight 6 1 Circumlocution grammatical error caution diversity 6 1 Cite area analyze quote 6 1 Clumsy heavy slow awkward 6 1 Co-incidence deliberate chance adversity 6 1 Coagulate collect solidify melt 6 1 Coalition intimidation affiliation composition 6 1 Coarse unrefined elegant passage 6 1 Coax indulge beguile force 6 1 Dedicate love transfer devoted 6 1 Defamation derogation accusation laziness 6 1 Deference obedience indifference inference 6 1 Deficient deface lacking discover 6 1 Defraud to undress to undermine cheat 6 1 Delectable dainty elaborate healthful 6 1 Delete to register to include to remove 6 1 Delicacy refinement inelegance joy 6 1 Delinquent criminal delicate intelligent 6 1 Delirious frantic brave coherent 6 1 Deliverance sincere freedom transfer 6 1 Demise residence dismissal accident 6 1 Democracy republic monocracy autocracy 6 1 Denunciation accusation elaboration announcement 6 1 Deprivation disspcoatopm displeasure departure 6 1 Derogatory insulting attractive flattering 6 1 Despair dejection ride optimism 6 1 Despondent dejected gay hopeful 6 1 Despotic inflexible destructive tyrannical 6 1 Desultory disconnected decisive slanderous 6 1 Detention lessening of concentration easing of tension safe keeping 6 1 Deteriorate to expose to danger scold become worse 6 1 Detestable abhorrent variable adorable 6 1 Detrimental harmful ingenious outrageous 6 1 Deterrent checking injurious fiendish 6 1 Deviate move away devise divide 6 1 Devise to amend move plan 6 1 Devoid deficient inept endowed 6 1 Dexterous dangerous skilful just 6 1 Diagnosis identification of an illness prophecy plan 6 1 Dicker to complain waver instigate 6 1 Dictate delusion learned treatise guiding principle 6 1 Dictatorial offensive wordy cranky 6 1 Diction pronounce words edition command 6 1 Dictum command expression grasp 6 1 Diffidence ignorance timidity indifference 6 1 Digit gadget murmur two-sided object 6 1 Dispense with relinquish accept consume 6 1 Dire extreme straight humiliating 6 1 Discard reject renounce accept 6 1 Discern discard arrange determine 6 1 Disconcert sing in harmony pretend cancel programme 6 1 Discord cordless insult disagreement 6 1 Discreet separate cautious mixed 6 1 Discrete charming tactful different 6 1 Discretionary forget to do pay for meet unexpectedly 6 1 Elaborate detailed simple complicate 6 1 Elated debased respectful drooping 6 1 Electrode polling booth electric conductor electrical terminal 6 1 Elevated excited attenuated dejected 6 1 Elicit to evoke explain break the law 6 1 Elucidate clarify obscure remind 6 1 Elusive deadly eloping evasive 6 1 Emaciated garrulous primeval vigorous 6 1 Emanates fluctuates merges mitigates 6 1 Emancipate deliver enslave debilitate 6 1 Embark to enforce to board a ship to develop 6 1 Embellish to flourish insult enfold 6 1 Emend cherish repose correct 6 1 Eminent purposeful famous delectable 6 1 Emission warning discharge allow 6 1 Emolument allowance indulgence allegation 6 1 Emphasis importance activity bother 6 1 Enchanted fascinated fatigue repulsed 6 1 Encroach to infest soared out weaken 6 1 Encumber to take control resist unload 6 1 Endeavor effort captivate intrude 6 1 Endorse ratify support criticize 6 1 Endowed wedded blessed enquiry 6 1 Endure ensure tolerate attach 6 1 Evolution gradual development investigation revelation 6 1 Exacerbate to grind thoroughly make wares demand 6 1 Exaggerate to make great overemphasize to play 6 1 Exalt to oppose specialize praise highly 6 1 Exasperation disgust calmness embellish 6 1 Execrable dispensable detestable painful 6 1 Exhilarate energies discourage inflame 6 1 Exonerate absolve incriminate instigate 6 1 Expedient precise expert expendable 6 1 Expedite do to complete run 6 1 Expend to spend discredit overload 6 1 Expletive self explanatory swear word detailed description 6 1 Expose repose depose disclose 6 1 Expound to be angry release explain 6 1 Expunge rationalize purge exhale 6 1 Exquisite admirable poor adaptable 6 1 Extravagant spendthrift miser mean 6 1 Extrinsic external extraordinary inborn 6 1 Extrude to leak force out untangle 6 1 Exult to love or admire rejoice greatly mourning 6 1 Facetious take poison ness grimacing 6 1 Facsimile duplicate similar refractory 6 1 Factitious fabricated genuine dissident 6 1 Faculty ability department disguise 6 1 Falderal folk dance mere nonsense an unfolding 6 1 Fallacious illogical FALSE unassuming 6 1 Falsification adulteration purifying accusation 6 1 Fanatical obsessive moderate eager 6 1 Fanfare mobile markets exaggeration ostentatious display 6 1 Farce unattainable unsuitability absurd sham 6 1 fastidious critical undemanding deceptive 6 1 Fatuous silly avarice nefarious 6 1 Faze to upset period harm 6 1 Feasible theoretical impatient practical 6 1 Fecund fruitful moveable decayed 6 1 Feeble frail robust meek 6 1 Feign deserve condemn pretend 6 1 Felicity happiness importance witty 6 1 Ferment to separate press down form alcohol 6 1 Fervour eagerness apathy merciless 6 1 Fiasco festival lucky stroke failure 6 1 Fickle dishonest steadfast magnificent 6 1 Fiction fabrication reality foul 6 1 Fidelity dedication conviction treachery 6 1 Finicky choosy easy-going foolish 6 1 Flabbergasted astonished adamant animated 6 1 Flimsy inadequate sturdy flabby 6 1 Flounder to struggle awkwardly come apart to mismanage 6 1 Flurry diffusion foggy commotion 6 1 Folklore folk songs rumours whimsical notion 6 1 Foolhardy strong unwise brave 6 1 Foretaste bitterness anticipation strength 6 1 Forfeit to destroy waste lose 6 1 Formidable dangerous outlandish grandiloquent 6 1 Fortitude braveness cowardice obliged 6 1 Fortuitous lucky accidental rich 6 1 Fossil bit of pottery prehistoric ruins of buildings cave painting 6 1 Foster speed fondle become infected 6 1 Founder to sink waver search out 6 1 Franchise subway kiosk license 6 1 Frivolous foolish serious miser 6 1 Frugality extravagance ripening thrift 6 1 Frustration satiety facility thwarting 6 1 Functionary an official an architect an administrator 6 2 Abdicate claim snatch plunder 6 2 Abhorrence aversion liking appreciation 6 2 Aboriginal modern popular current 6 2 Absolute scarce limited faulty 6 2 Accelerate creep drag lag 6 2 Acclamation denunciation suppression termination 6 2 Accomplice friend accessory escort 6 2 Accord solution activity dissent 6 2 Acquisitive miserly frugal simple 6 2 Acquittal confirm blame punish 6 2 Acquitted entrusted convicted burdened 6 2 Acumen intelligence imbecility potentiality 6 2 Acute sharp critical dull 6 2 Addition multiplication subtraction enumeration 6 2 Adequate profuse abounding scanty 6 2 Adherent rival alien detractor 6 2 Admonish commend tolerate flattering 6 2 Advance retreat restrain withhold 6 2 Adversity diversity affliction prosperity 6 2 Adversity enmity severity prosperity 6 2 Affectation love good likable 6 2 Agony pleasure bliss ecstasy 6 2 Alien resident natural domiciled 6 2 Alienate gather identify assemble 6 2 Alive passive dead asleep 6 2 Alleviation exaggeration exasperation magnification 6 2 Allure repulse develop entice 6 2 Amalgamate generate repair materialize 6 2 Ambiguous obscure secular explicit 6 2 Ameliorate lessen hasten expedite 6 2 Amenable stubborn docile obedient 6 2 Amicable cunning shy hostile 6 2 Amnesty hostility punishment immunity 6 2 Amplify mummify shock curtail 6 2 Anathematize radiate regulate deceive 6 2 Ancestors supporters disciples followers 6 2 Anfractuous devious straight remote 6 2 Base roof height tip 6 2 Bashful daring boastful upright 6 2 Batty prudent same cunning 6 2 Baulk admire strengthen clamour 6 2 Beautiful ugly dark rough 6 2 Beguile persuade cheat flattering 6 2 Belie argue justify admire 6 2 Benevolence contempt malevolence hatred 6 2 Benign gracious sinister novel 6 2 Beseech bully solicit demand 6 2 Badge divide bind release 6 2 Bizarre soft usual gentle 6 2 Blatant noisy quiet barren 6 2 Blemish preserve purify defect 6 2 Bliss anguish sorrow agony 6 2 Bliss paradise heaven misery 6 2 Boisterous calm comfortable good 6 2 Boorish handsome happy quite 6 2 Boost hinder obstruct discourage 6 2 Brazen respectful innocent delicious 6 2 Brilliant dusty dull dumb 6 2 Bury examine open disinter 6 2 Cajole dissuade detract disclose 6 2 Callous confident sentimental sensitive 6 2 Capacious changeable foolish caring 6 2 Capitulate conquer venerate destroy 6 2 Capricious fixed solidify firm 6 2 Capricious satisfied scattered steadfast 6 2 Carnal sensuous spiritual visionary 6 2 Catholic rigid orthodox strict 6 2 Celibacy chastity misogyny matrimony 6 2 Celibate profligate reprobate extravagant 6 2 Chaffing expensive achieving capitalistic 6 2 Challenge admire accept favorable 6 2 Chide praise fear criticize 6 2 Choice refusal dilemma harm 6 2 Churlish accommodatin g polite helpful 6 2 Clarity exaggeration candor confusion 6 2 Coarse beautiful soft fine 6 2 Comic painful fearful tragic 6 2 Commend suspend admonish hate 6 2 Commend censure condemn defy 6 2 Commodious limited expensive numerous 6 2 Communicative primitive passive dumb 6 2 Compact shattered enlarged spread 6 2 Comply refuse agree disagreement 6 2 Conceal unfold reveal open 6 2 Concealment identification broadness evidence 6 2 Condense lengthen expand distribute 6 2 Confess deny refuse contest 6 2 Confident diffident timidity reserved 6 2 Conform disappoint reform deform 6 2 Considerate harsh infuriated opposed 6 2 Consolidate isolate weaken divide 6 2 Conspicuous indifferent harmless insignificant 6 2 Contented rash narrow-minded gloomy 6 2 Convene cancel adjourn dissolve 6 2 Convex flat protuberant full 6 2 Co-Operation rebellion resistance hindrance 6 2 Co petition rivalry compromise monopoly 6 2 Cosset neglect divert pamper 6 2 Covert clandestine open virtuous 6 2 Crass gross refined coarse 6 2 Criticize judge appreciate flattering 6 2 Crowded deserted lonely empty 6 2 Cryptic superficial secret artificial 6 2 Culminate frustrate fail abort 6 2 Culpable irresponsible careless blameless 6 2 Culprit jury witness accused 6 2 Dainty splendid aggressive vigorous 6 2 Dauntless Cautious thoughtful weak 6 2 Dear cheap worthless free 6 2 Dearth extravagance scarcity abundance 6 2 Debacle regain progress rise 6 2 Debauchee moralist thinker schemer 6 2 Debilitating strengthening enfeebling occupying 6 2 Debonair worried pensive grimacing 6 2 Deceit reality trust truthfulness 6 2 Deep elementary superficial shallow 6 2 Defection resignation invitation joining 6 2 Defiance dismay suspicion obedience 6 2 Deficit superfluous surplus explicit 6 2 Degenerate create progress restore 6 2 Delete impound insert inspire 6 2 Deliberate premeditated sparking methodical 6 2 Demon charitable kind-hearted angel 6 2 Denounce defend gather fight 6 2 Density brightness clarity intelligence 6 2 Deplete refund replenish fulfill 6 2 Deprived great enhanced moral 6 2 Derogatory immediate praising opinionated 6 2 Despondency humility pleasure cheerfulness 6 2 Destiny vulnerability chance self- dependence 6 2 Destroy invent make produce 6 2 Deviate follow locate break the law 6 2 Devout irreverent sincere homely 6 2 Diabolic patient generous kind 6 2 Dim bright understandable loud 6 2 Discount interest premium profitability 6 2 Discrepancy variance inappropriate consistency 6 2 Disdain depreciate admiration penitence 6 2 Disingenuous industrious cumbersome slothful 6 2 Disperse collect assemble hoard 6 2 Dissent agreement dispute disunity 6 2 Dissipate sustain conserve preserve 6 2 Dissuade incite persuade advice 6 2 Dither cry refer decide 6 2 Diverge repulse converge resurge 6 2 Doleful poor happy rich 6 2 Dormant active modern permanent 6 2 Dorsal inactive venereal peripheral 6 2 Dour radical active young 6 2 Dreary plenty monotonous unhappy 6 2 Dusky visible fair obscure 6 2 Eclipse shine enlarge goggle 6 2 Edacious smart gluttonous fasting 6 2 Edification lamentation annotation corruption 6 2 Effete adamant strong courageous 6 2 Effete strong adamant bold 6 2 Embrace suspect harmless reject 6 2 Encourage warn discourage dampen 6 2 Endow borrow steal snatch 6 2 Engulfed encircled groped disfigured 6 2 Engulfed detached dislocated devastated 6 2 Enough inadequate scarce deficit 6 2 Epilogue conversation dialogue dramatic 6 2 Equanimity excitement duplicity dubiousness 6 2 Erratic reliable right punctual 6 2 Erudite professional immature unimaginative 6 2 Escalate lessen subside reduce 6 2 Establish disrupt uproot corrode 6 2 Euphonious strident lethargic literary 6 2 Evacuate admit emerge abandon 6 2 Evanescent blooming growing twinkling 6 2 Evident suspected disagreed doubtful 6 2 Evolving retreating stifling stagnating 6 2 Exalt depreciate ennoble glorify 6 2 Exasperate belittle annoy please 6 2 Execrable importable acceptable desirable 6 2 Execrate care praise love 6 2 Exhibit conceal prevent withdraw 6 2 Exodus restoration return home-coming 6 2 Exonerate compel accuse imprison 6 2 Exotic poor inexpensive ugly 6 2 Explicit inspiring plain invigoration 6 2 Extension condensation subtraction diminution 6 2 Exterior internal inner interior 6 2 Facsimile reproduction sincere original 6 2 Fact fable story illusion 6 2 Factitious ridiculous genuine engineered 6 2 Fecund barren solid unplugged 6 3 Tepid : Hot :: cool : frigid spotless : clean warm : comfortable 6 3 Surface : Submerge :: sail : navigate conceal : reveal mount : ascend 6 3 Juror : Judge :: criminal : sentence doctor : care umpire : strikeout 6 3 Strike : Production :: manufacture : merchandise injure : repair employ : inflation 6 3 Preserve : animal :: lighthouse : signal reservation : wigwams orphanage : institution 6 3 Agenda : Conference :: teacher : class agency : assignment map : trip 6 3 Turtle : reptile :: oak : tree leaf : branch trout : fish 6 3 Disinterested : Biased :: pious : gullible affluent : impecunious ruthless : vicious 6 3 Authenticity : counterfeit :: argument : contradictory reliability : erratic anticipation : solemn 6 3 Guile : Ingenuous :: appetite : voracious chivalry: natural prudence : demanding 6 3 Walk : Stumble :: trot : race look : ogle hear : ignore 6 3 Backlog : Merchandise :: jam : traffic intermission : play deficit : money 6 3 Imitation : Individuality :: veneration : defense determination : success recklessness : courage 6 3 Emancipate : Slavery :: erase : document inveigle : agreement exonerate : blame 6 3 Eternal : Duration :: temporary : time weak : control harmonious : music 6 3 Submissive : Defiance :: agile : alertness courageous : fear doubtful : indecision 6 3 Profligate : Moral :: crook : fearful carpenter : patient lawyer : placid 6 3 Infinite : End :: spontaneous : occur isolated : envision buoyant : sink 6 3 Coerce : Coax :: avenge : reform suggest : demand declaim : argue 6 3 Rejuvenate : Youth :: recuperate : disease reelect : provident reiterate : item 6 3 Sneer : Contempt :: stalk : prey applaud : approval cringe : fear 6 3 Enigmatic : Clear :: copious : scarce academic : masterful lucrative : monetary 6 3 Drizzle : Cloudburst :: grass : dew wind : air shore : waves 6 3 Enervate : Strength :: encourage : motivation conserve : excitement persecute : indulgence 6 3 Fish : Bird :: rifle : tank master : eagle submarine : airplane 6 3 Lion : Carnivorous :: jackal : herbivorous invalid : omnipotent human : mortal 6 3 Teacher : Ignorance :: light : darkness wattage : bulb lightening : electricity 6 3 Scissors : Sever :: scales : average barrel : rolls stapler : cu 6 3 Dusk : Dawn :: senility : childhood adolescence : infancy loquaciousness : garrulity 6 3 Plagiarism : Embezzlement :: writing : banking brushes : painting blue print : etching 6 3 Ocean : Bay :: archipelago : atoll island : peninsula headland : promontory 6 3 Vaccine : Antidote :: preventive : cure smallpox : poison horse : cow 6 3 Anarchy : Government :: penury : wealth chaos : disorder monarch : president 6 3 Tirade : Abusive :: diatribe : laudatory satire : pungent panegyric : laudatory 6 3 Charity : Virtue :: greed : evil avaricious : vicious penury : crime 6 3 Vindicate : Condemn :: charge : accuse indict : convict judge : jury 6 3 Industrious : Assiduous :: affluent : impoverished mendacious : beggarly fortuitous : fortunate 6 3 Silk : Nylon :: Japan : America natural : synthetic synthetic : natural 6 3 Sophisticated : Urbane :: suave : naïve ingenuous : clever callow : rustic 6 3 Porter : Terminal :: clerk : store cashier : restaurant lawyer : court 6 3 Decibel : Light Year :: distance : time sound : time sound : distance 6 3 Cylinder : Circle :: cone : triangle prism : spectrum cone : circle 6 3 Team : Athletes :: game : series alliance : nations delegated : convention 6 3 Entrepreneur : Laborer :: profits : wages arbitrator : capitalist mediator : conflict 6 3 Seldom : Frequently :: always : never occasionally : constantly occasionally : intermittently 6 3 Dense : Sparse :: Punjab : balochistan balochistan : N.W.F.P stupid : clever 6 3 Gold : ORE :: dear : cheap iron : steel pears : oysters 6 3 Intrinsic : extrinsic :: intentional : unintentional vivid : dull real : simulated 6 3 Callow : Maturity :: incipient : fruition spoiled : purity young : old 6 3 Carelessness : Accident :: assiduity : success indifference : fruition care : avoidance 6 3 Hypochondriac : Health :: addict : drugs miser : money glutton : food 6 3 Brake : Automobile :: choke : carburetor conscience : man detergent : society 6 3 Mason : Wall :: doctor : cure magician : magic stranger : friendship 6 3 Enigma : Riddle :: labyrinth : maze dilemma : alternatives sphinx : Egyptian 6 3 Constellation : Stars :: earth : moon center : circle archipelago : islands 6 3 Immortal : Death :: anonymous : fame hopeless : situation vital : life 6 3 Tapestry : Thread :: pizza : pie mosaic : situation ruler : divisions 6 3 Lubricant : Friction :: motor : electricity speed : drag insulation : heat 6 3 Comet : Tail :: traffic : lane missile : trajectory vessel : wake 6 3 Addendum : Book :: signature : letter vote : constitution codicil : will 6 3 Meritorious : Praise :: captious : criticism kind : admiration questionable : response 6 3 Snare : Animal :: nest : bird pouch : kangaroo net : fish 6 3 Cacophonous : Ear :: outrageous : order objectionable : commotion erroneous : mind 6 3 Belligerence : Aggressor :: insensitivity : boor confidence : prelate irascibility : pacifist 6 3 Incorrigible : Reform :: immutable : speak intractable : manage impartial : decide 6 3 Stocking : Leg :: waistband : skirt ankle : foot button : lapel 6 3 Park : Recreation :: kitchen : cooking fence : sitting tree : climbing 6 3 Crest : Wave :: climax : action elegy : memory example : paradigm 6 3 Malleable : Shaped :: flexible : bullied amenable : persuaded tolerable : handled 6 3 Novice : Experience :: questioner : knowledge invader : bravery narrator : objectivity 6 3 Secrete : Find :: muffle : hear cover : open exude : ignore 6 3 Indelible : Permanence :: united : individuality qualified : employment unavoidable : toleration 6 3 Doctor : Disease :: motion : imbecility pediatrician : senility psychiatrist : maladjustment 6 3 Clock : Second :: calendar : year calendar : month calendar : day 6 3 Stethoscope : Physician :: canvas : sculptor pestle : pharmacist scalpel : teacher 6 3 Author : Inventor :: copyright : patent plot : machine book : factory 6 3 Team : Coach :: corporal : squad army : general team : member 6 3 Carelessness: Accident :: assiduity : success indifference : fruition care : avoidance 6 3 Area : Volume :: plane : circle circle : triangle sphere : box 6 3 Analgesic : Pain :: anesthetic : surgery palliative : violence operation : health 6 3 Poison : Death :: purgative : disease experience : knowledge growth : maturation 6 3 Mice : Rice :: doe : rye mice : berries fauna : flora 6 3 Journalist : Typewriter :: surgeon : bones carpenter : lumber poet : beauty 6 3 Passed : Elation :: failed : dejected Failed : dejection rejected : angry 6 3 Soldier : Carbine author : book chemist : test tube sailor : pirate 6 3 Exuberant : Downcast :: exultant : lavish parsimonious : abundant congregation : dispersal 6 3 Tolerance : Bigotry :: prodigality : ribaldry avocation : profession magnanimity : parsimony 6 3 Abhor : Dislike :: rebuke : ridicule torture : distress calcify : petrify 6 3 Conviction : Persuasion :: thought : emotion arrest : jail arrest : fine 6 3 Simile : Metaphor :: prose : poetry poetry : prose real : suggested 6 3 Literal : Figurative :: connotative : denotative allegory : fable photograph : painting 6 3 Amulet : Evil :: fort : attack fire : hose eggs : rotten 6 3 Assurance : Fear :: opiate : pain opiate : dreams cigarette : nerves 6 3 Felicity : Sorrow :: agility : skill agility : clumsiness concept : scheme 6 3 Policeman : Criminal :: patient : doctor officer : private educator : ignorance 6 3 Large : Immense :: zero : infinity mauled : battered dislike : hatred 6 3 Chauvinism : Country :: frugality : money patriotism : country gluttony : food 6 3 Automobile : Gasoline :: fire : fuel man : angry airplane : propeller 6 3 Allay : Pain :: mollify : fright cancel : order arbitrate : dispute 6 3 Wearisome : Refreshing :: choleric : apoplectic tedious : dull original : scintillating 6 3 Exertion : Fatigue :: school : graduation exercise : muscles carelessness : accident 6 3 Prism : Triangle :: cylinder : circle cylinder : sphere pyramid : cone 6 3 Enmity : Hate :: emulation : jealousy glory : envy intimidation : fear 6 3 Confidence : Deception :: hostility : kindliness walking : running dissent : commotion 6 3 Lend : Borrow :: abridge : lengthen award : deserve begin : start 6 3 Glove : Hand :: teeth : chewing neck : collar coat : pocket 6 3 Chapter : Novel :: piano : orchestra diamond : gem scene: drama 6 3 Strike : Production :: manufacture : merchandise injure : repair employ : inflation 6 3 Wealth : luxuries :: enemies : friend sandwich : bread ticket : admission 6 3 Impregnable : Penetration :: munificent : extravagance inscrutable : understanding incoherent : confusion 6 3 Inflate : Magnitude :: measure : weight extend : duration magnify : coin 6 3 Web : Entangle :: spider : spain trap : ensnare treason : betray 6 3 Lethargy : Energy :: appetite : hunger sorrow : pity merit : remuneration 6 3 Baleful : Evil :: fulsome : refinement disjointed : compatibility mandatory : requirement 6 3 Incision : Scalpel :: hospital : patient playground : swing kitchen : knife 6 3 Altimeter : Height :: speedometer : velocity observatory : constellation racetrack : furlong 6 3 Caravan : Procession :: merchant : commerce wedding : ceremony menagerie : animal 6 3 Ungainly : Elegance :: stately : majesty suitable : propriety vacuous : temerity 6 3 Conservator : Waste :: sentinel : vigilance monarch : subject chaperon : transgression 6 3 Dislike : Abhorrent :: trustworthy : helpful difficult : arduous silly : young 6 3 Uniform : Soldier :: silks : jockey leash : dog pasture : cow 6 3 Regrettable : Lament :: praiseworthy : applaud verbose : rejoice incongruous : detect 6 3 Trap : Game :: novel : author net : fish leash : dog 6 3 Mansard : Roof :: ice : igloo spine : book closet : hallway 6 3 Prohibited : Refrain :: innocuous : forbid deleterious : embark required : decide 6 3 Resolved : Doubt :: confirmed : suspicion announced : candidacy included : guest 6 3 Exemplary : Reproach :: erroneous : correction accomplished : praise unimpeachable : criticism 6 3 Mendicant : Begging :: competitor : joining legislator : funding miser : donating 6 3 Rain : Deluge :: pond : ocean desert : camel ore : iron 6 3 Lubricant : Friction :: balm : pain eraser : correction solvent : paint 6 3 Pomposity : Boastful :: courage : cowardly silence : mature forgetfulness : youthful 6 3 Theology : Religion :: astronomy : stars politics : ethics sociology : individuals 6 3 Chalk : Blackboard :: handle : door pen : paper note : music 6 3 Funeral : Somber :: celebration : joyful graduation : mature wedding : impressive 6 3 Explosion : Debris :: flood : water famine : food fire : ashes 6 3 Funds : Embezzlement :: cashier : accounting land : deed education : teacher 6 3 Documents : Archive :: artifacts : museum actors : stage tools : worker 6 3 Miscalculate : Assess :: mislead : reaffirm misinform : correct misappropriate : punish 6 3 Auger : Bore :: oven : bake knife : sharpen engine : power 6 3 Stutter : Speak :: stumble : run amble : walk chew : gag 6 3 Counterfeiter : Money :: forger : document arsonist : building deceiver : fraud 6 3 Heat : Calorimeter :: speed : altimeter distance : odometer fuel : tachometer 6 3 Emollient : Irritation :: analgesic : pain anesthesia : sleep balm : euphoria 6 3 Auger : Carpenter :: cement : mason apron : chef awl : cobbler 6 3 Elm : Tree :: whale : mammal cart : horse cloud : rain 6 3 Mendacity : Honesty :: turpitude : depravity courage : fortitude truth : beauty 6 3 Judge : Courthouse :: lawyer : brief carpenter : bench landlord : studio 6 3 Goose : Gander :: hen : chicken duck : drake sheep : flock 6 3 Fire : Ashes :: event : memories accident : delay wood : splinters 6 3 Loyalty : Traitor :: truthfulness : liar longevity : crone hope : optimist 6 3 Marathon : stamina :: hurdle : perseverance relay : independence sprint : celerity 6 3 Mumble : Speak :: adorn : denude convert : preach plagiarize : write 6 3 Horns : Bull :: hoofs : horse wing : eagle mane : lion 6 3 Toss : Hurl :: speak : shout sense : flourish prepare : emit 6 3 Helmet : Head :: pedant : neck breastplate : chest pedal : foot 6 3 Indigent : Wealth :: emaciated : nourishment aristocratic : stature variegated : variety 6 3 Hobble : Walk :: gallop : run stumble : fall sniff : smell 6 3 Infraction : Law :: renovation : structure punishment : crime enactment : amendment 6 3 Rehearsal : Performance :: applause : audience engagement : marriage entrapment : game 6 3 Signature : Illustration :: reference : recommendatio n note : scale credit : purchase 6 3 Retirement : Service :: exchange : communication arrangement : flowers graduation : studies 6 3 Umpire : Playing Field :: farmer : city plumber : wrench carpenter : cabinet 6 3 Scales : Justice :: balance : equity weights : measures torch : liberty 6 3 Pride : Lions :: snarl : wolves gaggle : geese honor : thieves 6 3 Alarm : Trigger :: tunnel : dig criminal : corner prison : escaper 6 3 Yawn : Boredom :: sigh : hope wince : pain smile : hatred 6 3 Surprise : Exclamation :: happiness : grimace dismay : groan insolence : bow 6 3 Fox : Cunning :: vixen : cute colt : sturdy beaver : industrious 6 3 Excessive : Moderation :: expensive : cost extensive : duration impulsive : reflection 6 3 Range : Mountains :: novel : short stories atlas : map sea : rivers 6 3 Rubber : Elastic :: dust : allergic diamond : hard paper : brittle 6 3 Continent : Island :: river : canal ocean : lake plateau : plain 6 3 Perforate : Holes :: speckle : spots decorate : rooms filters : water 6 3 Moisten : Drench :: scrub : polish head : chill disregard : ignore 6 3 Stare : Glance :: confide : tell participate : observe scorn : admire 6 3 Ponderous : Weight :: eternal : temporarily convincing : decision gargantuan : size 6 3 Blueprint : Construction :: itinerary : trip signal : light tenant : premises 6 3 Graceful : Movement :: articulate : speech fastidious : grime humorous : laughter 6 3 Cone : Pine :: fruit : berry bulb : flower acorn : oak 6 3 Trickle : Spew :: breathe : inhale saunter : run sing : harmonize 6 3 Capricious : Predictability :: barbaric : warfare solvent : finance subsisting : viability 6 3 Calories : Reducing :: paint : brushing edible : eating stone : sculptor 6 4 The players agreed to abide _____ the redress's decision with by in 6 4 Modern industry abounds _____ opportunities for young people with good scientific qualifications. in for into 6 4 A junior cashier has absconded _____ ten thousand rupees. in for to 6 4 The children were so absorbed _____ their game that they did not notice the passage of time. into for in 6 4 He was abstained _____ salted food by the doctor. from for in 6 4 The committee regrets that it cannot accede _____ your request for a month's unpaid leave. for to in 6 4 My information does not accord _____ the report which has just been presented. to in with 6 4 I have been accused _____ many things in my life, but never of cowardice. for of with 6 4 You will soon get accustomed _____ the change of climate. to for in 6 4 The new teacher was very slow to adapt _____ the unusual rules of the school. in for into 6 4 He became addicted _____ drugs at quite an early age. for into to 6 4 This paint will adhere _____ any surface, whether rough or smooth. to in with 6 4 It is awful to be afflicted _____ a sense of inferiority. for with into 6 4 The debate adjourned _____ the following week. with for into 6 4 This college is affiliated _____ the Punjab University. to in for 6 4 Whether I pay or my wife pays amounts _____ the same thing. to in into 6 4 The condemned man appealed _____ the court for mercy. in into with 6 4 Several committee members had not been apprised _____ the contents of the document. with of into 6 4 I certainly do not approved _____ your riding your motorbike over the speed limit. in with of 6 4 The success of the project can be ascribed _____ to the dogged efforts of ordinary members of the team. to in for 6 4 My father will never assent _____ my spending a holiday abroad before I am 16. for to with 6 4 The defense of the oil installation had been assigned _____ my regiment. to with into 6 4 In less than sixty years the refugees from India had become fully assimilated _____ the local community. with into in 6 4 His mind is well attuned _____ to mine. to for into 6 4 This record enables me to balance _____ the facts of my life and decide what to do with it. up in with 6 4 Realizing he could do nothing to save his aircraft, the pilot bailed _____. out in for 6 4 We did not exactly bargain _____ him turning up like that, out of the blue. with for in 6 4 They had few essential supplies to begin _____, so they had to improvise. with to in 6 4 We are trying to make sure that children who can best benefit _____ foster care, do get. with from by 6 4 In their anxiety, prisoners would often blurt _____ pieces of vital information. out in with 6 4 She shows the stain of bottled _____ emotion. up in from 6 4 He decided to break _____ from the party and seek re-election as an independent. with away up 6 4 There has been a complete break _____ of law and order. up off down 6 4 The plague broke _____ in London that summer and hundreds died. out down up 6 4 There has been an exciting new techno- logical break _____. through down in 6 4 Three minutes could bring _____ this transformation. forth about into 6 4 I think we are agreed on the main points. Does anyone want to bring _____ anything further. up around down 6 4 South Africa brushed _____ the threat of tougher economic sanctions. off of down 6 4 Jamil, who has been nervous and jumpy lately, suddenly burst _____ tears. in into on 6 4 The eagle swooped and carried _____ a sleeping lizard. up down off 6 4 When one is adolescent one often gets caught up _____ one's thoughts and dreams. into on in 6 4 When Britain adopted the decimal system for its money, it changed _____ relatively smoothly. over for to 6 4 A young officer \was charged _____ the task of taking 200 prisoners to the rear. for by in 6 4 When the man saw the police car, he cleared _____ as fast as his legs could carry him. away of off 6 4 I am not saying I am useless, but machinery and modern techniques have come _____ to make me the odd man out. about around in 6 4 I came ____ an old friend in liberty market this morning. around round across 6 4 When he finally came round _____ writing the letter, he found his feelings were easier to express than he had expected. to in against 6 4 The modern child finds it difficult to conceive _____ a time when there was no radio or TV. for of in 6 4 The two were found guilty of robbery, and condemned _____ four years imprisonment. with for to 6 4 When everyone has been conferred _____ perhaps I can give you an answer. with to for 6 4 The policemen's story conflicts _____ that of the accused. from to with 6 4 Confronted _____ the evidence of half a dozen witnesses, the accused broke down and confessed. to with in 6 4 If you want to converse _____ Japanese people, why don't you start learning Japanese? in to with 6 4 In this engine the rotary section corresponds _____ the cylinders of conventional model. to with in 6 4 You can always count _____ Zaheer for help when you are in difficulties. in into to 6 4 Why are so many of us credited _____ so little intelligence and self-determination? with upon for 6 4 The truth about the human condition dawns _____ those who have the humility to recognize their unimportance. upon in with 6 4 They are bad people to deal _____ always late in delivery date. in with into 6 4 You will notice water sizing in the tube, now what do you deduce _____ that? from in with 6 4 I felt I must defer _____ my host's judgment. in for to 6 4 He was momentarily deflected _____ this train of thought by a knock on the door. with in into 6 4 The rules were rigid in principle, sometimes departed ______ in practice. upon on from 6 4 But the splendid occasion reminded him bitterly of the opportunities he had himself been deprived _____. of from with 6 4 After being cut off from the main party for two weeks they began to despair _____ rejoining their companions. from in of 6 4 They could not be deviated _____ what they believed to be their duty. for with from 6 4 As boys, we had various ways of making the history professor distress _____ the subject of the lesson. in on with 6 4 You may dislike having to depend upon him, but it will be sometime before you can dispense _____ his help altogether. with in to 6 4 The upper classes may be dispossessed _____ their special powers and privileges by a slow 75 process of evolution. from of with 6 4 The main cylinder will have to be drained _____ before I can change the fittings. from with off 6 4 He looked causally to left and right and when the flow of traffic had eased _____, crossed the road. off from of 6 4 The strength of the European community emanates _____ the prosperous economies of relatively few member states. with from around 6 4 I apologize for encroaching _____ your valuable time, but I should appreciate your advice in an important matter. upon in from 6 4 The estate was so encumbered ____ debts that it was not worth buying. with in from 6 4 That a man should become so engrossed _____ a pursuit that he risks his life on a mountains needs explanation. with for into 6 4 He had become a sort of sub-editor, entrusted _____ hiring other members of staff. in for with 6 4 The young women was escorted _____ the court by her solicitor. from with up 6 4 After a lengthy inquiry, the management was exonerated _____ any responsibility for the fire that destroyed the factory. in from for 6 4 Time has expunged _____ his memory all recollections of these terrible events. from with in 6 4 Naeem neatly fended _____ a thrust at his chest. in off of 6 4 No, he cannot go, I have not finished _____ him yet! with in from 6 4 Do not flinch _____ the facts! with in from 6 4 Do not rest on your success follow _____ your success and start looking for new markets. up in to 6 4 Bandits raided the Habib Bank in Lahore this morning and got away _____ over 10 million rupees. from with to 6 4 If it is very urgent, I may be able to got hold _____ the doctor for you during the lunch hour. of in off 6 4 It was amazing that preparations for the landing were not got wind _____ by the enemy. in from of 6 4 Raza has to get off _____ people because he cannot get on with them. from among to 6 4 If the fire-station had been got on _____ at once, the hotel might have been saved. to into with 6 4 He insisted that she remained in house, and got on _____ her book. to with from 6 4 I wish I could get out _____ going to the party this evening, I don't feel like standing around making polite conversation for three hours. of from with 6 4 There were a number linguistic problems to be got _____ in preparing the text of the treaty. with off from 6 4 Ammunition could not be got through _____ the garrison, and they were forced to surrender. in to over 6 4 General Zia was a much more able president then he is given credit _____. in for to 6 4 All papers must be given _____ before 12:30 p.m. Candidates failing to observe this rule may be disqualified. in on to 6 4 Give _____ shoving! You will have me off this chair in a minute. to upon in 6 4 The general was content to give ______ a few miles of desert and retreat to a stronger, fortified line. up in on 6 4 The public were warned not to grappled ______ the fugitive, as he was armed and dangerous. with in on 6 4 When Farooq was offered a trip to Hong Kong by his employers he grasped ______ it with both hands. over on at 6 4 Don't let go, hang _____ tight. on in over 6 4 His temperament does not harmonize _____ a slow, even pace of life. with in to 6 4 Starting a new business is hedged _____ with financial and staffing problems. in about out 6 4 Their life was hedged ______ with petty restrictions. around about round 6 4 The best one could hope _____ was to attract no attention either way. for with in 6 4 The streets were littered with stones and bottles hurled _____ the policemen. on at upon 6 4 When a body is immersed _____ a fluid it apparently loses weight. with to on 6 4 The cabinet was impelled _____ extreme measures. to on with 6 4 The revolutionary leaders implanted _____ the peasants the determination to take and own the land on which they worked. on down in 6 4 As there was no train until the late evening he had to imposed himself ______ his hosts for longer than he had intended. on in with 6 4 All the swimmers have improved _____ their previous best performance. from on in 6 4 The Government has incorporated _____ the bill many suggestions put forward by the opposition. into in from 6 4 Raza would indulge _____ a short sleep in his arm chair. in on upon 6 4 He was profoundly and physically infatuated _____ her. to with from 6 4 The whole class was infected _____ the teacher's enthusiasm for the subject. with to from 6 4 It is reassuring to have friends enquire _____ you when you are ill. from in for 6 4 An attractive feature of the course was the way the practical work had been integrated _____ the theoretical aspects. with in into 6 4 Nothing must be allowed to interfere _____ our search for the truth. with into from 6 4 My lord, it is obvious that the witness is being intimidated _____ remaining silent. upon into for 6 4 The director was aware that he was being intrigued _____, but he had no means of finding out how and by whom. against upon with 6 4 Recent events were jumbled _____ in her mind with scenes recalled from early childhood. with upon over 6 4 Is this the way to Lahore? Yes just keep _____ till you reach Ravi Bridge, then you will see the signs of Lahore. on upon onto 6 4 The woman threw her coat on a chair kicked _____ her shoes. on of off 6 4 Our elder son has been knocking _____ the Europe for several months. We don't know exactly where he is or what he is doing. about round into 6 4 The driver was knocked _____ at the moment of impact and could remember nothing of how the accident happened. out in about 6 4 The editor laboured _____ the manuscript till early morning. in over into 6 4 It seemed that he was going to lash out _____ her but he controlled himself. at in on 6 4 If he offered me a small part in his production, I'd leap _____ the chance. at on onto 6 4 The decorations can be left _____ for another day. up over on 6 4 I'll be lenient this time, but you won't be left _____ again. off in from 6 4 Who let _____ the details of the reshuffle in the department? to out over 6 4 If you won't level _____ me we are not going to get anywhere. with in from 6 4 He always limbered _____ before his afternoon match. on up into 6 4 Today these practices are no more, but their memories longer _____. off in on 6 4 I wish you'd stop listening _____ to my private conversations. in on upon 6 4 You have lost all your money, now you must learn to live _____ the situation. into in for 6 4 We can not live _____ our moral pretension. upto into upon 6 4 A formal complaint is being lodged _____ the police inspector. to with on 6 4 It is a bleak look _____ for anyone hoping for quick profit. on in out 6 4 Her letters betray a desperate desire not to lose touch _____ her beloved. in from to 6 4 I have heard many stories of bright young research workers being lured _____ only to find their position change for the work. out from away 6 4 She was marked _____ by a fiery temper and a strain of intolerance. of off in 6 4 He was keen enough, but he simply did not match _____ the demands of the job. into up to from 6 4 Some body has been meddling _____ the photographs I laid down so carefully. from up to 6 4 It would take someone with the wisdom of Solomon to mediate _____ these two: both are so uttering convinced they are in the right. between in among 6 4 As a bright young recruit, he was moved _____ from out department to author to gain experience. round around away 6 4 We are moving _____ to new examination system. in with over 6 4 The region is noted _____ its cattle. for in with 6 4 He is totally opposed _____ any change in the existing law. in from to 6 4 Javed was ousted _____ his post as a result of maneuverings by departmental rivals. upon off into 6 4 He is not easily parted _____ his money. from with to 6 4 There high standards of craftsmanship have been passed _____ ever four generations. on down in 6 4 All this anger that's pent _____ inside him has to break out from time to time. in on with 6 4 He was very worried, so I suggested he could use some of the money, she perked _____ at that. up on upon 6 4 The line of action, if persisted _____ could lead to disaster. into from in 6 4 She is not very quick at picking _____ the language. with on up 6 4 After a day out in the field, they pitched _____ the food with a rare appetite. onto into upon 6 4 Local businessmen pitched _____ an offer of Rs. 1,00,000 to cover advertising cost. in on into in with 6 4 They are planning _____ a three-fold increase in student number. for into to 6 4 Do you plan _____ staying with us for ever? with in into 6 4 At this age, children enjoy playing _____ pirates or kings. at on into 6 4 The ravi broke through the bridge railing and plunged _____ twenty feet of water. in over into 6 4 He plunged _____ every debate organized by the society. to in upon 6 4 What are you doing poking _____ among my private papers. about around in 6 4 The rest of the pudding was polished _____ by the children. away in off 6 4 The class teacher would pounce _____ every slip the child made, however, slight. with on in 6 4 Retiring members of the Board were precluded _____ seeking re-election for three years. for with from 6 4 He was presented _____ the keys of the city. with in for 6 4 They appear deter-mined to press ahead _____ plans to increase the rate of Income Tax. in with to 6 4 It is helpful in probing _____ the problem to make a statement about (the patient's) mental health and ill health. into in on 6 4 May we proceed _____ the election of the committee. in from for 6 4 A clause in the agreement provides _____ the arbitration of all disputes by an independent body. for with in 6 4 She felt purged _____ all feelings of guilt. of with from 6 4 His arrival put heart _____ his subordinates. to with into 6 4 They did not put their trust _____ the information they received from the well tried and veteran staff of eighth army. in on with 6 4 Your proposal looks good on the paper, but I am not yet convinced it can be put _____ effect. in into to 6 4 There is not much optimism in the air, but at least both sides are putting a brave face _____ proceedings. to in upon 6 4 Then what is the trouble? Nothing explicit that I can put my finger _____. on in into 6 4 A description of the wanted man has been put _____ to all mobile police petrol. on about around 6 4 The committers pro-posals were put _____ us briefly and force-fully. with to on 6 4 I am sure we can solve this problem if we can put our mind _____ it. to in on 6 4 He has puzzled _____ the figures for hours without being able to make head or tail of them. on over with 6 4 You qualify _____ the vote, but Humza won't qualify till he is eighteen. for to with 6 4 Dangerous missions radiate _____ plutonium. in from to 6 4 I tried to raise objection _____ the situation, but it was no good. to in for 6 4 He rank _____ one of the most remarkable president of our time. with as on 6 4 Mr. Latif rattled _____ a list that seemed to contain everyone of any celebrity. in on off 6 4 I found his company unbearable. He could rattle _____ for hours about absolutely nothing at all. on off in 6 4 I am afraid he can not be reasoned _____ making a public protest. to into for 6 4 Investment in this area is reckoned _____ money poured down the drain. as for with 6 4 When you submit your claim, don't forget to reckon ______ the money spent on petrol. on in over 6 5 You must apply _____ the judge for pardon. to with upon 6 5 I insisted _____ my fee paid. to have on having to having 6 5 I am intent _____. to win of winning on winning 6 5 Death is preferable _____ dishonor. than to from 6 5 The officer waited until the clerks _____ busily. worked were working had worked 6 5 If I _____ worked hard, I would have passed. would have had should have 6 5 You _____ respect your parents and teacher. should would should have 6 5 the child _____ crying for three hours. is has has been 6 5 If I _____ more time, I would have checked my paper again. had have had had 6 5 We _____ friends since we were children. had been have been are 6 5 If one know the facts one _____ not be so quiet to criticize. could can would 6 5 Whatever he does is always contrary _____ my wishes. with from to 6 5 I am astonished _____ his behavior. to from with 6 5 He told me that he was not familiar _____ that subject. to on with 6 5 She _____ for Karachi three days ago left is leaving had left 6 5 In one fierce battle the enemy were completely wiped _____. out off away 6 5 All communication with outside world has been cut _____. out away down 6 5 You will feel better when you _____ that tooth out. had have have had 6 5 When he _____ his hair cut, he went to the cinema. has had have had will have had 6 5 If you wait here, I _____ if the Manager is in. would see will have seen would have seen 6 5 I would like to have the newspaper as soon as you ____ it. finished are finish will finish 6 5 He was quite able _____ after himself. to looking for looking to look 6 5 Her fears were first _____ when her son did not come here. arise arisen arouse 6 5 I _____ him for a long time. am not met did not meet do not meet 6 5 He _____ satisfactory progress in the school. makes has made had made 6 5 He was _____ a member of Assembly. formerly formally lastly 6 5 That new law went into _____ last month. affect effect action 6 5 The _____ from the mountain is dangerous. decent descent ascent 6 5 The ____ of the rocket was so swift that it was out of sight in a few seconds. assent ascent descent 6 5 Thermometer is a _____ to measure one's temperature. philosophy conviction device 6 5 What a _____ you were not hurt in the accident. prayers praise blessing 6 5 His argument is quite _____. sickly unconvincing fragile 6 5 So long you are not well avoid _____ exercise. strong lusty vigorous 6 5 We were caught in the storm and got _____. soaked drenched damped 6 5 Govt must hold a _____ inquiry. intelligent judicial sensible 6 5 The ____ of the headlights of the car almost blinded me. shine glare dazzle 6 5 The chair is in the garden, please _____ it. bring fetch carry 6 5 Urge people who smoke to _____ the habit. surrender abandon discontinue 6 5 Napoleon's army was completely _____ in the battle of Waterloo. annihilated destroyed repeated 6 5 We have _____ trust in you. perfect entire imperative 6 5 You must _____ enough evidence to ensure his conviction. hoard store rallied 6 5 The government was _____ of incompetence. charged accused impeached 6 5 The jury _____ him of murder. discharged acquitted absolved 6 5 You must _____ yourself to the new conditions. adopt adept adapt 6 5 Face _____ with courage. misery poverty adversity 6 5 The Govt must _____ the suffering of the people. ally allay rid 6 5 The police arrested him and his one _____. friend colleague accomplice 6 5 He _____ our help. resents recants remove 6 5 We will do out work _____. latter later long 6 5 Here is a _____ for chocolate cake. receipt recipe formula 6 5 Get a _____ for the merchandise. recipe receipt slip 6 5 I have no _____ motive in offering this advice, I seek no personal advantage. ulterior nominal disinterested 6 5 It is _____ that students do not repay their loans. laudable unfortunate unforgivable 6 5 It became _____ that he was going to die. visible distinct apparent 6 5 Those cottages _____ perfectly with the landscape. mix blend unite 6 5 Failing the exam was a _____ disappointment to him. sour tart bitter 6 5 You must _____ after hard work. relax repose compose 6 5 After his operation he was _____ to bed for a week. circumscribed cramped confined 6 5 He was fined Rs. 100 for _____ driving. lavish prodigal reckless 6 5 The sea at that time was perfectly _____. harmonious concordant calm 6 5 He felt great _____ for his daughter. affection affectation love 6 5 Nadim met a _____ accident and died at the spot. fatal fateful crucial 6 5 Although buses are _____ to depart at a certain hour, they are often late. scheduled requested obligated 6 5 Because light travels faster then sound lightning appears to _____ thunder. prolong traverse go before 6 5 If one helps a criminal, he is also considered _____ of the crime. suspicious daring guilty 6 5 The Supreme Court has a reputation for being _____. stubborn capricious just 6 5 The _____ motion of the earth as it turns on its axis creators the changes of seasons. accident rhythmic leisurely 6 5 If the teams were not so evenly matched, it would be easier to _____ the outcome of the match. argue predict discuss 6 5 They refuse to _____ defeat. grant yield own 6 5 All the family members will get together on the _____ day of Eid. suspicious obvious auspicious 6 5 Advertisement will _____ your sale. boost hoist lift 6 5 We _____ ourselves for difficult times. prop support brace 6 5 I can not _____ that he would wish to harm us. hatch produce breed 6 5 Getting this contract is _____ to the future of our company. humane crucial reciprocal 6 5 There was a lot of hustle and _____ in the market. bustle stir flutter 6 5 Rashid walked boldly upto the platform without _____. faltering flexible unsteady 6 5 It is _____ to steal. sinful corrupt immoral 6 5 We must _____ this accord. greet hail salute 6 5 You must show _____ for out teachers. reverence adoration homage 6 5 The book is out of print and difficult to _____. achieve procure acquire 6 5 His knowledge of the subject is _____. expensive extensive spacious 6 5 The war has seriously _____ attempts to achieve peace. impaired attenuated enfeebled 6 5 Vitamin _____ can lead to illness. shortage deficiency poverty 6 5 He often _____ from the subject while lecturing. rambles roams digresses 6 5 There is _____ among the members of the party. contention discord battle 6 5 Do not keep asking me what to do, use your own _____. unconstrained voluntary discretion 6 5 The description of the accident given by him was quite _____. bright vivid glaring 6 5 We can not _____ any of out territory. exceed accede concede 6 5 In the hot sun the surface of the road seems wet, but that is only an _____. illusion allusion delusion 6 5 An _____ agreement was reached between both the parties. amiable amicable likeable 6 5 This disease is _____ do not sit near him. contagious contiguous infectious 6 5 He has _____ all the miseries heroically. born borne bane 6 5 His _____ simplicity is one of his qualities. childish childlike infantile 6 5 I do not have any _____. confident confidant confidential 6 5 My land is _____ to your Land. contagious contiguous infectious 6 5 I _____ have to remind him of his responsibilities. continually continuously continually 6 5 Time alone will ____ those unpleasant memories. efface deface erase 6 5 He is _____ for promotion. illegible legible eligible 6 5 An announcement of further increase in taxes is _____. imminent eminent immanent 6 5 He has _____ knowledge of the subject. exceptional exceptionable exhaustible 6 5 God is kind and _____ to all sinners who repent. graceful gracious gaseous 6 5 He flew into a _____ when I would not lend him any money. overt sporadic furtive 6 5 _____ is a person who produces works of art, especially painting. beautician writer artistic 6 5 About fifty workers were declared _____ by the factory management. adulatory avid rhetorical 6 5 He is such an _____ that he's sure he will soon find a job. pessimist optimist philanthropist 6 5 Government did not realize the _____ of people's feeling on this issue. fragments attrition intensity 6 5 Your remarks are not _____ to the matter we are discussing. pertinent prolix prolonged 6 5 His ______ capacity for food was abnormal. venal venial voracious 6 5 The price of food here is _____. askance exorbitant outlandish 6 5 The reduction of unemployment should be ______ in government's economic policy. paragon paramount paradox 6 5 Enemy movement on the border look a bit _____. acute ominous unusual 6 5 There seems to be a _____ of good young players at the moment. plague series plethora 6 5 When the hotel burned down, fifty people died in the _____. sirocco typhoon maelstrom 6 5 He could not _____ the incident from his memory. emboss paramount exculpate 6 5 Union leader tried to calm down _____ workers. turbid turgid torpid 6 5 Because of his _____ personality he is always very difficult to handle. voluble volatile voluptuous 6 5 A _____ of the medal was put on show at the museum. fable facsimile allegory 6 5 Heavy _____ were reported in the battle depreciation despoliation obsolescence 6 5 Slavery is the ____ of freedom. oxymoron paradox metaphor 6 5 He keeps forgetting things: I think he is getting _____. feeble an octogenarian forgetful 6 5 At its _____ the Roman empire covered almost the whole of Europe. equinox nadir zenith 6 5 He worked _____ for ten year to make the project successful. deliberately assiduously ingenuously 6 5 Honest poverty is better than dishonest _____. riches wealth person wealth 6 5 We should try to avoid one who is brave in words but not in _____. actions reaction job 6 5 Meekness is more attractive than _____. sickness naughtiness laziness 6 5 Some flowers bloomed, while others _____. withered delivered gathered 6 5 A legislation was passed to punish brokers who _____ their clients funds. defalcate devastate devour 6 5 Non-violence is the law of saints as violence is the law of the _____. coward foolish brute 6 5 Beauty is to ugliness and adversity is to _____. prosperity cowardice miser 6 5 He said that there was no going back because his decision was _____. palatable peremptory premeditated 6 5 The average height of Himalayas is twenty thousand feet, and Mount Everest _____ to more than twenty-nine thousand feet at its apex. raise rises roses 6 5 Political dissidents complained of being _____ by the police. capitulated desecrated minimized 6 5 He became very _____ and started arguing with me angrily. subservient truculent pellucid 6 5 Praise always _____ him to make greater efforts. bores stimulates entices 6 5 The results of this policy will remain _____ for some times. outstanding dubious impressive 6 5 Your conduct is most _____. reprobate recidivist reprehensible 6 5 Knowledge is like a deep well fed by _____ springs and your mind in the little bucket that you drop in it. external perennial immortal 6 5 The _____ arguments put forth for not disclosing the facts did not impress anybody. specious intemperate spurious 6 5 Wasim was so good at Mathematics that his friends considered him to be a _____. prodigy prodigal primeval 6 5 The controversy is likely to create _____ between the two rival. doubt amity bitterness 6 5 He suggest that the meeting _____ postponed. be is leaving must 6 5 Everyone in this universe is accountable to God _____ his actions. of against for 6 5 I don't know _____ to value your qualities. only how how so how 6 5 So many servants attended _____ him during his illness. only how with at 6 5 ____ the events of Aslam's resigning his job, his family would starve. intelligent on at 6 5 The principal along with the students _____ gone on the picnic. has have were 6 5 Neither the officer nor the clerks _____ absent. was were have been 6 5 He never _____ and never will do such a work. has has done had done 6 5 If a ruby is heated it _____ lose its colour. would will does 6 5 Lahore is a city of gardens _____? doesn't it isn't it hasn't it 6 5 He's been elected _____? hasn't he didn't he isn't he 6 5 Though Aslam is poor, _____ he is honest. but nevertheless yet 6 5 Penguins an aquatic bird, may live _____ twenty years. since before for 6 5 The jaw structure of a snake permits it to eat much larger than. it itself its 6 5 The task seemed impossible but some-how Rashid _____ very skillfully in the end. pulled it up pulled it off pulled it away 6 5 It is important that the office _____ your registration. will confirm confirm confirms 6 5 We _____ go to movies quite frequently. used to was used to used 6 5 He _____ get up early. used used to is used to 6 5 We congratulate him _____. on his success for his success at his success 6 5 Like human, animals must have a dentist _____ their teeth. fill filled filling 6 5 _____ owe much of their success as a group to their unusual powers of migration. that birds a bird the bird 6 5 If teaching _____ more, fewer teachers would leave profession. pays is paying paid 6 5 The belief in life after death is prevalent in both primitive societies _____ advanced culture. and and in and also 6 5 It is usually _____ lava but gas that kills people during volcanic eruptions. not only not neither 6 5 _____ the gulf stream is warmer than the ocean water surrounding it. wholly whole as whole 6 5 He worked ____, because he aspired to stand first in the examination. very hard harder much hard 6 5 Although we often use "speed" and "velocity" interchangeably, in a technical sense "speed" is not always _____ "velocity". alike the same as similar 6 5 Prices for bikes can run _____ Rs. 30000/-. as high as as high to so high to 6 5 The greater the demand, _____ the price. higher high the higher 6 5 A seventeen-year-old is not _____ to vote in an election. old enough as old enough enough old 6 5 _____ is necessary for the development of strong bones and teeth. it is calcium that calcium calcium 6 5 The examiner made us _____ our identification in order to be admitted to the test center. showing show showed 6 5 This legend has been _____ from father to son. handed down handed for handed in 6 5 By the twenty-first century, the computer _____a necessity in every home. became becoming has become 6 5 _____ at 212 degrees F and freezes at 32 degrees F. waters boils the water boils water bills 6 5 The bacteria in milk is destroyed when _____ to at least 62 C. it be heated it heated it is heated 6 5 We were _____ by the result. surprise surprised surprising 6 5 The laboratory has a _____ of equipment. large amount large number little amount 6 5 The general public _____ a large number of computers now, because prices are beginning to decrease. must buy must have bought must be buying 6 5 He _____ a few steps when it started raining. had hardly taken hardly took hardly taken 6 5 You _____ care of your health. had better to take had better take had better taken 6 5 Unless protected areas are established, the Bengal tiger, the blue whale, face _____ of extinction. possible the possibility to be possible 6 5 I will meet him when he _____ . will come had come would have come 6 5 When your body does not get _____ it can not make the glucose it needs. enough food food as enough food enough 6 5 Many chemicals react _____ in acid solutions. more quickly more quick quickly 6 5 It is now believed that some damage to tissues may result _____ them to frequent X- rays. the exposing from exposing from exposure 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Tomorrow be Sunday and it will be a holiday. Tomorrow will Sunday and it will be a holiday. Tomorrow shall Sunday and it will be a holiday. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below You do not understand this point. You does not understand this point. You do not understands this point. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below She does not come here every week. She do not come here every week. She does not comes here every week. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Do children like riding on top of the bus. Does children like riding on top of the bus. Do children liked riding on top of the bus. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Does he likes traveling by train. Do he likes traveling by train. Does he like traveling by train. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Does you know the place with colored light. Do you know the place with colored light. Do you knows the place with colored light. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Will we got off the bus here. Will we get off the bus here. Shall we get off the bus here. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The policeman holds up his hand and stops the stream of traffic. The policeman holds up his hand and stopped the stream of traffic. The policeman held up his hand and stops the stream of traffic. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below They had arrived at the station before we reached. They has arrived at the station before we reached. They had arrived at the station before we reaches. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The teacher had entered the room when the bell rang. The teacher has entered the room when the bell rang. The teacher had entered the room when the bell rings. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below You will have recover by the time I come back. You will have recovered by the time I come back. You will have recovered by the time I came back. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The train had not left when we reaches. The train has not left when we reached. The train had not left when we reached. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The train had not reached the station before it grew dark. The train has not reached the station before it grew dark. The train had not reaches the station before it grew dark. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He would not have spent all the money by the time his father comes. He will not have spent all the money by the time his father comes. He will not have spend all the money by the time his father comes. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Had he packed up before he received the orders? Has he packed up before he received the orders? Had he pack up before he received the orders? 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Has the boys entered the room when the bell rang? Had the boys entered the room when the bell rang? Had the boys enter the room when the bell rang? 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Shall I had recovered by the time the month ends. Shall I have recovered by the time the month ends. Shall I has recovered by the time the month ends. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Will Anees has spent all the money before his father finds it out. Will Anees have spend all the money before his father finds it out. Will Anees had spent all the money before his father finds it out. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Ahmad had been waiting for the bus since full twenty minutes. Ahmad had been waiting for the bus for full twenty minutes. Ahmad have been waiting for the bus for full twenty minutes. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below They have been living in this tent for many months. They have been living in this tent since many months. They has been living in this tent for many months. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I have not been feeling well for many days. I have not feeling well for many days. I has not been feel well for many days. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Boys had not doing anything since December. Boys have not been doing anything since December. Boys has not been doing anything since December. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Has you not keeping good health for a long time. Has you not been keeping good health for a long time. Had you not been keeping good health for a long time. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He had not opening his shop for many days? He has not opening his shop for many days? He had not been opening his shop for many days? 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Hamid did not go to bed till eleven. Hamid do not go to bed till eleven. Hamid did not went to bed till eleven. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below We did not like his manners. We did not liked his manners. We did not likes his manners. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He have saved their lives before the scouts reached. He had saved their lives before the scouts reached. He has saved their lives before the scouts reached. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Babar had won the battle before rain came. Babar had won the battle before rain come. Babar has won the battle before rain came. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He has been living in this house for six years. He has been living in this house since six years. He has living in this house for six years. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below If you listen to the question carefully, you will answer them easily. If you listen to the question carefully, you would answer them easily. If you listened to the question carefully, you will answer them easily. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He live in this house for six years. He has been living in this house since six years. He is living in this house since six years. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The child is crying for three hours. The child is been crying for three hours. The child has been crying since three hours. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below You should help a poor. You should help the poor. You should help an poor. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below His glorious success is the honour to Pakistan. His glorious success is honour to Pakistan. His glorious success is an honour to Pakistan. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below How beautiful moon is! How beautiful the moon is! How beautiful that moon is! 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below India attacked on Pakistan in 1965. India attacked Pakistan in 1965. India attacks Pakistan in 1965. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below When you came from college. When were you come from college. When did you come from college. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below We use to go to the movies quite frequently. We used to go to the movies quite frequently. We used to went to the movies quite frequently. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He was used to drink too much. He use to drink too much. He used to drink too much. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below She was used to get up early. She use to get up early. She used to got up early. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below If you put too much water in rice when you cook it, it got sticky. If you put too much water in rice when you cook it, it gets sticky. If you put too much water in rice when you cook it, it will get sticky. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below If you listen to the question carefully, you will answer them easily. If you listened to the question carefully, you will answer them easily. If you listen to the question carefully, you answer them easily. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below If I had more time, I would have checked my paper again. If I had had more time, I would have checked my paper again. If I have more time, I would have checked my paper again. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Her watch needed repaired. Her watch needed repairing Her watch is needing repairing. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Have you wrote your mother a letter? Have you write your mother a letter? Have you written your mother a letter? 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I have been taking this medicine for last six year. I has been taking this medicine for last six year. I have been taking this medicine since last six year. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below We been friends since we were children. We were friends since we were children. We have been friends since we were children. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He play very well, didn't he? He played very well, doesn't he? He played very well, will not he? 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below It isn't far from the university, isn't it? It isn't far from the university, is it? It isn't far from the university, doesn't it? 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below She understood the question, doesn't she? She understand the question, hadn't she? She understood the question, didn't she? 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He should be as strong enough to get out of bed in a few days. He should be strong enough so that to get out of bed in a few days. He should be strong enough to get out of bed in a few days. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He drives so fast as no one likes to ride with him. He drives so fast that no one likes to ride with him. He drives as fast as no one likes to ride with him. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below This composition is more good than your last one. This composition is best good than your last one. This composition is good than your last one. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The fast we finish, the sooner we can leave. The faster we finish, the soon we can leave. The faster we finish, the sooner we can leave. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The rainy season begins on July. The rainy season begins at July. The raining season begins in July. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Raza have a part-time job in the night. Raza has a part-time job at night. Raza have a part-time job at night. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Haris has lots of friends beside his roommate. Haris have lots of friends besides his roommate. Haris have lot of friends beside his roommate. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He borrowed the pen so that he finish his essay. He borrowed the pen so that he can finish his essay. He borrowed the pen so that he could finish his essay. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I thought that he is coming today. I thought that he will come today. I thought that he was coming today. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below We shall not receive mail yesterday because it was holiday. We do not receive mail yesterday because it was a holiday. We did not receive mail yesterday because it was a holiday. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below There have been very little rain this summer. There has been very little rain this summer. There been very little rain this summer. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Four miles are the distance to the office. Four miles is distance to the office. Four miles is the distance to the office. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The staff are meeting in the conference room. The staff is meeting on the conference room. The staff is meeting at the conference room. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Whoever called did not leave his name and number. Whoever called he did not leave his name and number. Whoever called did not leave their name and number. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below If one does not work hard, one cannot expect to succeed. If one does not work hard, you cannot expect to succeed. If one does not work hard, he cannot expect to succeed. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below If one knew the fact he would not be so quick to criticize. If one knew the facts, one would not be so quick to criticize. If one have knew the facts one would not be so quick to criticize. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The money that I have is sufficient for my needs. The money that I have is sufficient enough for my needs. The money that I have is enough sufficient for my needs. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The class advance rapidly. The class advanced forward rapidly. The class advanced ahead rapidly. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below The smoke that is raising from that oil refinery is black. The smoke that rising from that oil refinery is black. The smoke that is rising from oil refinery is black. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He said that he will get up early in the morning. He said that he would get up early in the morning. He asked that he would get up early in the morning. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Tariq exclaimed with joy that he has won the match. Tariq told with joy that he had won the match. Tariq exclaimed with joy that he had won the match. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Either of the boys has done this. Either of the boys have done this. Either of the boy has done this. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I, you and he should do it. You, he and I should do it. He, you and I should do it. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I have bought ten dozens eggs for two hundred rupees. I have bought ten dozen egg for two hundreds rupees. I have bought ten dozen eggs for two hundred rupees. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I have been confined in bed for a month. I have been confined to bed for a month. I has been confined to bed for a month. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below In my opinion, too soon to make a decision. In my opinion, this is too soon to make a decision. In my opinion, it is too soon to make a decision. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I have been looking forward to meet you. I has been looking forward to meeting you. I have been looked forward to meeting you. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below You had better to hurry if you don't want to miss the bus. You had better hurry if you don't want to miss the bus. You have better hurry if you don't want to miss the bus. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I shall buy a pen and pencil. I shall buy pen and pencil. I shall buy a pen and a pencil. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Higher you go, cooler it is. Higher you go, the cooler it is. The higher you go, the cooler it is. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below We met neither of these eight persons. We met none of these eight persons. We have meet none of these eight persons. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Which is nearest post office from here? Which is a nearest post office from here? Which is the nearest post office from here? 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below Harder you work, better will be your result. The harder you work, better will be you result. The harder you work, the better will be your result. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He makes her to obey his orders. He makes her obey his orders. He make her obey his orders. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below You should regard him as your friend. You should regard him your friend. You should regard him to your friend. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below He speaks always the truth. He speaks the truth always. He always speaks the truth. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I often meet him at the corner of the street. I meet him at the corner of the street often. Often I meets him at the corner of the street. 6 6 Choose the correct sentence out of four sentences given below I does not remember not having done it. I never remember having never done it. I do not remember never having done it. 6 7 An office or post with no work but high pay honorary sinecure gratis 6 7 One who is ell-versed in any subject, a critical judge of any art, particularly fine arts veteran philistine dilettante 6 7 Person who is indifferent to both pleasure and pain saint ascetic stoic 6 7 A person who is against the standards of ordinary society especially in dressing joker hippy scapegoat 6 7 Murder of a brother patricide regicide homicide 6 7 Mania for stealing articles logomania nymphomania kleptomania 6 7 Mental weariness for want of occupation fatigue ennui languor 6 7 One who loves all and sundry optimist humanist altruist 6 7 Mania for travel dromomania pyromania bibliomania 6 7 A person living permanently in a certain place native resident domicile 6 7 Paying back injury with injury vendetta repression subjugation 6 7 Acutely affected by external impressions ingenious impressionable credulous 6 7 To slap with a flat object hew swat chop 6 7 An assembly of hearers audience crowd congregation 6 7 An associate in an office or institution companion ally colleague 6 7 One who is unrelenting and cannot be moved by entreaties inexorable infallible impregnable 6 7 Regard for others as a principle of action cynicism nepotism philanthropy 6 7 Person who claims to have great love and understanding of what is beautiful in nature, art etc. critic aesthete connoisseur 6 7 A disease which spreads by contact infectious contagious contiguous 6 7 An animal story with a moral fable tale anecdote 6 7 To change shape, nature or substance of modulate substitute remodel 6 7 Person who believes that God is everything and everything is God agnostic theist pantheist 6 7 Person who pilots or travels in a balloon, airship or other aircraft aeronaut astronaut aerobat 6 7 Witty, clever retort sarcasm repartee platitude 6 7 Words different in meaning but similar in sound homonym synonym acronym 6 7 Simplest and smallest form of plant life, present in air, water and soil, essential to life but may cause disease virus amoeba bacteria 6 7 A girl or woman who flirts, that is, tries to attract people and make advances in love simply to satisfy her vanity prostitute coquette spinster 6 7 A person who regards the whole world as his country patriot nationalist cosmopolitan 6 7 Relationship by blood or birth parentage affiliation consanguinity 6 7 A story in which ideas are symbolized as people allegory fable legend 6 7 The cessation of warfare before a treaty is signed affidavit agreement armistice 6 7 A person who makes love without serious intentions consort philanderer rodeo 6 7 Opposed to great or sudden change static revolutionary conservative 6 7 Having no beginning or end to its existence eternal obscure universal 6 7 The art of cutting trees and bushes into ornamental shapes horticulture bonsai pruning 6 7 Walking in sleep somniloquism somnambulism obsession 6 7 One who cannot die stable immortal perpetual 6 7 A formal written change against a person for some crime or offence accusation indictment allegation 6 7 Language difficult to understand because of bad form rhetoric jargon pedantic 6 7 Belief or opinion contrary to what is generally accepted unbelief superstition non-conformity 6 7 A person obsessed with exclusively one idea or subject crazy kleptomaniac monomaniac 6 7 A child of unusual or remarkable talent scholar diligent freak 6 7 A disease which ends in death contagious lethal fatal 6 7 A person who kills somebody especially for political reasons criminal murderer assassin 6 7 One who loves making anthropologist philanthropist seismologist 6 7 A small piece of potato chunk chip scrap 6 7 A child who stays away from school without any good reason vagabond delinquent schizophrenic 6 7 A common place remark dialogue platitude epigram 6 7 Line at which the earth or sea and sky seem to meet horizon zenith fringe 6 7 A person who rules without consulting the opinion of others democrat bureaucrat autocrat 6 7 A person who speaks for or supports an idea pioneer adviser advocate 6 7 A man of odd habits eccentric cynical introvert 6 7 A thing or person behind time lazy sluggish indolent 6 7 One whose attitude is : eat, drink and be merry Epicurean cynic materialistic 6 7 Science of printing calligraphy typography topography 6 7 Man whose wife has been unfaithful dandy bastard concubine 6 7 Deriving pleasure from inflicting pain on others sadism malevolence bigotry 6 7 One who robs smuggler of his smuggled goods after the border has been crossed pirate malefactor hijacker 6 7 Course for chariot races sanatorium hangar hippodrome 6 7 One who pretends illness to escape duty truant malingerer hypocrite 6 7 The power of reading the thoughts of others psychopath telecommunica tion psychology 6 7 use of more words than are needed to express the meaning circumlocution verbatim ventriloquism 6 7 The science of judging a person's character, capabilities, etc. from an examination of the shape of his skull physiology anthropology phrenology 6 7 One filled with excessive and mistaken enthusiasm in cause martyr pedant fanatic 6 7 A person who rarely speaks the truth scoundrel liar crook 6 7 Time after twilight and before night evening dawn dusk 6 7 Custom of having many wives polyandry polygon matrimony 6 7 To bring peace, and end violence soothe harmonies pacify 6 7 Animals living on land and in water ambiguous amphibian amorphous 6 7 One who plays a game for pleasure and not professionally veteran player connoisseur 6 7 That which can be interpreted in any way ambient ambivalent amphibious 6 7 A political leader who tries to stir up people demagogue dictator statesman 6 7 A light sailing boat built especially for racing dinghy canoe yacht 6 7 Person who has long experience stalwart pedantic itinerant 6 7 Atonement for one's sins redemption repentance salvation 6 7 An instrument for viewing objects at a distance microscope telescope periscope 6 7 Be the embodiment or perfect example of signify characterize personify 6 7 A general pardon of political offenders parole forgiveness clemency 6 7 A man who operates on sick people physician operator surgeon 6 7 A person who maliciously destroys by fire antagonist activist terrorist 6 7 A house for strong grains cellar store go down 6 7 A person very hard to please obstinate unconquerable fastidious 6 7 A person claiming to be superior in culture and intellect to others intellectual aristocrat elite 6 7 One who totally abstains from alcoholic drinks puritan Samaritan pedantic 6 7 A name adopted by an author in his writings title nomenclature nickname 6 7 The line which a plough cuts in the ground vale trench furrow 6 7 A man who pays too much attention to his clothes and personal appearance snob duffer dandy 6 7 A person who forsakes religion charlatan apostle renegade 6 7 Of unknown and unedited authorship gullible anonymous unanimous 6 7 Contempt of God Atheism nihilism blasphemy 6 7 Person holding a scholarship at a university intellectual pedant scholar 6 7 A person concerned with practical results and values plagiarist realist pragmatist 6 7 Member of a band of robbers dacoit brigand thief 6 7 A person without manners or polish rustic naïve boorish 6 7 A speech by an actor at the end of a play epilogue monologue duologue 6 7 Responsible according to law liable eligible legalized 6 7 A funny imitation of a poem counterfeit sonnet caricature 6 7 Decision made upon a political question by the votes of all qualified persons veto suffrage plebiscite 6 7 Wistful longing for something one has known in the past hysteria megalomania nostalgia 6 7 A person who is made to bear the blame due to others innocent scapegoat ignoramus 6 7 Act of taking one's life suicide slaughter homicide 6 7 A person who brings goods illegally into the country (Asst. Grade 1994) exporters importers smuggler 6 7 A man who dances to the tunes of his wife effeminate slave henpecked 6 7 A place of ideal peace and happiness asylum utopia el dorado 6 7 One who stirs people for personal politics or profit pedagogue demagogue dictator 6 7 One who is honorably discharged from service emeritus honorary sinecure 6 7 Shining, brilliant and magnificent luminous gleaming resplendent 6 7 Cutting for stone in the bladder dichotomy tubectomy vasectomy 6 7 A heavy unnatural slumber nap insomnia coma 6 7 Changing one's mind too quickly adaptability instability versatility 6 7 A person who travels to a sacred place as an act of religious devotion hermit pilgrim saint 6 7 To do away with a rule cancel repeal obliterate 6 7 One who talks very little reserved mute phlegmatic 6 7 A person sharing responsibility for a political party's discipline and tactics statesman diplomat whip 6 7 Food which agrees with one's taste pungent palatable sensuous 6 7 Government by the representatives of the people diplomacy democracy socialism 6 7 Informal business communication with a personal signature agendum corrigendum plagiarism 6 7 One who loves books bibliophile bibliographer bibliophile 6 7 One knowing everything learned omnipresent omnipotent 6 7 A story in verse elegy hymn sonnet 6 7 Plain or self-evident truth proverb precept truism 6 7 The list of courses at a meal or of dishes that can be served in a restaurant agenda menu biodata 6 7 Parts of a country behind the coast or a river's banks swamps archipelago hinterland 6 7 Printed notice of somebody's death condolence calumny obituary 6 7 A room leading into a large room or hall anteroom lounge lobby 6 7 Just punishment for wrong doing nemesis purgation wrath 6 7 A person who has just started learning foreman accomplice novice 6 7 A low-area storm with high winds rotating about a centre of low atmospheric pressure cyclone tornado typhoon 6 7 To break off proceedings of a meeting for a time convene terminate adjourn 6 7 A fault that may be forgiven mercenary venial pardonable 6 7 One who promotes the idea of absence of government of any kind, when every man should be a law unto himself anarchist belligerent iconoclast 6 7 One who is likeable amicable amiable effusive 6 7 Person who gives himself upto luxury and sexual pleasures masochist voluptuary debauch 6 7 A field or a part of a garden where fruit trees grow park nursery yard 6 7 Something which is not thorough or profound superficial superstitious superfluous 6 7 A woman of lax moral prostitute harlot concubine 6 7 A slow-witted and incompetent person nigger dud snotty 6 7 using of new words coinage vocabulary neologism 6 7 Indifference to pleasure or pain docility stoicism patience 6 7 One who is neither intelligent nor dull tolerable commoner mediocre 6 7 Equal in rank, merit or quality chum contemporary peer 6 7 Person who gives written testimony for use in a law court deponent appellant witness 6 7 Present opposing arguments of evidence rebut criticize rebuff 6 7 Books, pictures etc. intended to arouse sexual desire lewd licentious pornography 6 7 A person who makes and sells ladies hats, etc. draper tinker milliner 6 7 Careful in performing duties punctual punctilious sincere 6 7 To mediate between two parties in depute interfere interact interrupt 6 7 A thing liable to be easily broken breakable ductile brittle 6 7 The place where bricks are baked foundry mint cemetery 6 7 The branch of problems of the old oncology geriatrics obstetrics 6 7 One who specializes in the study of birds biologist naturalist zoologist 6 7 Property inherited from one's father or ancestors alimony patrimony legacy 6 7 Connoisseur of choice food greedy glutton gourmet 6 7 Person who makes love for amusement without serious intentions concubine philanderer dandy 6 7 A person pretending to be somebody he is not imposter mar rogue 6 7 One who eats human flesh beast savage cannibal 6 7 Allowance due to a wife from her husband on separation bail alimony dole 6 7 Fear of going to bed clinophobia ballistophobia xenophobia 6 7 Official incharge of a museum dean warden curator 6 7 The doctrine that human souls pass from one body to another at the time of death metamorphosis transition transmigration 6 7 People at a lecture or concert congregation audience mob 6 7 A person's first speech preface maiden opener 6 7 To come as a settler into another country alienate emigrate migrate 6 7 A drawing on transparent paper red print blue print negative 6 7 Giving undue favours to one's own kith and kin favoritism nepotism corruption 6 7 A person who is very fond of sensuous enjoyments epicure stoic lusty 6 7 A person who pretends to have more knowledge or skill than he really has renegade apostle charlatan 6 7 The act of violating the sanctity of church heresy desecration sacrilege 6 7 One who sacrifices his life for a cause soldier revolutionary martyr 6 7 Bring to an end hurl hustle final 6 7 An old unmarried woman virgin bachelor spinster 6 7 A style in which a writer makes a display of this knowledge pedantic ornate verbose 6 7 A person guilty of malicious setting on fire of property etc. plagiarist anarchist arsonist 6 7 One who thinks that human nature is essentially evil agnostic cynic septic 6 7 Science of bodily structure anthropology neurology hygiene 6 7 That which makes it difficult to recognize the presence of real nature of somebody or something cover mask pretence 6 7 A person who lives by himself venerable sage quietus 6 7 A written declaration made on oath in the presence of a magistrate voucher dossier affidavit 6 7 A physician who delivers babies pediatrician obstetrician gynecologist 6 7 The loop of rope with a running knot used to hand a person noose cable cord 6 7 Yearly celebration of a date or an event centenary jubilee anniversary 6 7 Public building where weapons and ammunition are made or stored godown cellar armory 6 7 The caretaker of a public building dean caller custodian 6 7 Interested mainly in a small group, country etc. fanatic patriotic insular 6 7 One who cannot be corrected invulnerable hardened incurable 6 7 A person who enters without any invitation burglar intruder thief 6 7 The period between two reigns lapse intermission anachronism 6 7 Poem in short stanzas narrating a popular story ballet epic ballad 6 7 Lack of enough blood amnesia insomnia anemia 6 7 A man who is having the qualities of woman loquacious celibate effeminate 6 7 A word no longer in use exotic primitive obsolete 6 7 One who does not know how to save money reckless lavish careless 6 7 A person 70 to 79 years old nonagenarian centenarian octogenarian 6 7 A person who sneaks into a country infiltrator sniper invader 6 7 A short journey made by a group of persons together hike excursion picnic 6 7 People in a rowdy scene mob crowd rabble 6 7 Creature having both male and female organs sodomite homosexual masochist 6 7 One who has suddenly gained new wealth, power or prestige aristocrat affluent maverick 6 7 A person working in the same place with another comrade colleague assistant 6 7 Interval between two events or two periods of time of different character intermission interlude interpolation 6 7 One who comes from a country area and is often considered to be stupid villager rustic bumpkin 6 7 murder of a new-born child homicide regicide fratricide 6 7 Walk in a vain, self-important way jog trek trudge 6 7 Place which provides both board and lodging café inn restaurant 6 7 Clumsy or ill-bred fellow boor oaf lout 6 7 A small shop that sells fashionable clothes, cosmetics etc. booth stall boutique 6 7 Thing that can be felt or touched pandemic palpable paltry 6 7 A person who readily believes others credible credulous sensible 6 7 A book containing summarized information on all braches of knowledge dictionary anthology encyclopedia 6 7 The normal abode of any animal or plant environment habitat settlement 6 7 Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool dotage imbecility virago 6 7 A violent and bad-tempered woman prostitute concubine voracious 6 7 One who talks continuously impecunious loquacious voracious 6 7 A person who is skilled in horsemanship cavalier equestrian jockey 6 7 To atone for one's sins apologies ingratiate expiate 6 7 The rule of a person who is tyrant despotism anarchy tyranny 6 7 A paper written in one's own handwriting manuscript scroll parchment 6 7 To congratulates someone in a formal manner wish solemnize celebrate 6 7 Interested in and clever at many things manicure manifest intelligent 6 7 Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence formalism statesmanship protocol 6 7 People in a riot crowd rabble mob 6 7 That which can be carried handy portable potable 6 7 Of outstanding significance meaningful ominous evident 6 7 A small, named group of fixed stars galaxy cluster constellation 6 7 Run away from home with lover ostracize vanquish abscond 6 7 A place of good climate for invalids asylum hospital cemetery 6 7 A tumor which is not likely to spread benign localized dead 6 7 Place where bankers exchange cheques and adjust balance exchequer clearing house bank 6 7 One who promotes the idea of absence of government of any kind, when every man should be a law unto himself anarchist belligerent iconoclast 6 7 To remove the skin of a potato or an orange rinse peel scrub 6 7 Irrational fear of crowds ochlophobia claustrophobia sitophbia 7 1 1250 / 25 X 0.5 = ? 250 50 2.5 7 1 ? X 12 = 75% of 336 48 252 28 7 1 12% of …..= 48 250 100 400 7 1 2244 / 0.88 = ? X 1122 20.02 20.2 19.3 7 1 0.027 / 90 = ? 0.0003 0.03 3 7 1 25% of 4/4% of 25 = ? 1 3 0 7 1 if x % of 60 = 48 then x = ? 80 60 90 7 1 72 + 679 + 1439 + 537+ ? = 4036 1309 1208 2308 7 1 1.02 - 0.20 + ? = 0.842 0.222 232 2 7 1 ? % of 60 = 24 40 48 45 7 1 if a > b and b > c then: a = c a > c c > a 7 1 5.41 - 3.29 X 1.6 = ? 14.6 0.3392 0.146 7 1 5.76/1.6 - 2.4 = ? 1.2 2.4 7.2 7 1 350 x ……? = 4200 12 24 15 7 1 60% of 37 = ? 20 21 22 7 1 8 : ? :: 1 : 4 24 16 0 7 1 396/11 + 19 = ? 19.8 36 55 7 1 63.84 / ? = 21 3.04 3.4 30.4 7 1 42.98 + ? = 107.87 64.89 65.89 64.98 7 1 1015 / 0.05 / 40 = ? 50.75 507.5 506 7 1 5873 + 12034 + 1106 = ? 19016 20001 19013 7 1 5789 - 2936 + 1089 = ? 3942 4041 2626 7 2 A retailer bought a compact disc. From a manufacturer for Rs. 200. In addition to that, he paid a 15% sales tax. If he sold the disc to a customer for Rs. 260, calculate the cash profit he made. Rs. 30.00 Rs. 35.00 Rs. 32.50 7 2 A shopkeeper bought a radio from a wholesaler for Rs. 250.00. In addition, he paid a sales tax of 15% on the cost price. He then sold the radio for Rs. 315.00. Calculate the cash profit made by the shopkeeper. Rs. 20.00 Rs. 22.50 Rs. 25.00 7 2 A shopkeeper buys 300 identical articles at a total cost of Rs. 1500. He fixes the selling price of each article at 20% above the cost price and sells remaining articles, he sells them at 50% of the selling price. Calculate the shopkeeper's total profit. 180 185 200 7 2 10 men can complete a job in 14 days. How long will it take 4 men to finish the same job if they work at the same rate? 33 days 35 days 37 days 7 2 15 men can complete a job in 10 days. How long will it take 8 men to finish the same job if they work at the same rate? 14 3/4 days 16 3/4 days 18 3/4 days 7 2 40 men can build a wall 4 metres high in 15 days. The number of men required to build a similar wall 5 metres high in 6 days is 115 125 105 7 2 A and B can reap a field in 30 days, working together. After 20 days, however, B is called away and a takes 20 days more to complete the work. B alone could do the whole work in 48 days 50 days 56 days 7 2 A and B enter into a partnership contributing Rs. 800 and Rs. 1000 respectively. At the end of 6 months they admit C, who contributes rs. 600. After 3 years they get a profit of Rs. 966. Find the share of each partner in the profit. 336,420,210 360,400,206 380,390,196 7 2 A man takes 50 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 6 km/hr. If he walds with a speed of 10 km/hr, he covers the same distance in 1 hour 30 minutes 20 minutes 7 2 A train takes 50 minutes for a journey if it runs at 48 km/hr. The rate at which the train must run to reduce the time to 40 minutes will be 50 km/hr 55 km/hr 60 km/hr 7 2 Rashid buys three books for Rs. 16.00 each and four books for Rs. 23.00 each, what will be the average price of books 18 20 22 7 2 A boy of height 165 cm is replaced by another, which decreases the average height of the group of 34 students, by 1 cm. The height of the new student is 129 cm 130 cm 131 cm 7 2 A car traveled 100 km with half the distance at 40 km/h and the other half at 80 km/h. Find the average speed of the car for the whole journey. 53 km/hr 53.33 km/hr 54 1/4 km/hr 7 2 A rectangular room is 6 m long, 5 m wide and 4 m high. The total volume of the room in cubic meters is 24 30 120 7 2 A single discount equivalent to a discount series of 20%, 10% and 25% is 55% 54% 46% 7 2 40 arithmetic questions, each carrying equal marks, were given in a class test. A boy answered 25 questions correctly. What percentage was this? To pass a test a student must answer at least 45% of the questions correctly. Find the least number of correct 62.5% 18 63.5% 16 64.5% 20 7 2 A boy scored 90 marks for his mathematics test. This was 20% more than what he had scored for the geography test. How much did he score in geography? 71 marks 73 marks 75 marks 7 2 A fruit-seller has 120 oranges. Given that he has 20% more apples than oranges and 40 % less oranges than pears, find the number of apples and the number of pears the fruit seller has. 144, 200 148, 380 149, 220 7 2 A man earned an annual income of Rs. 245000 in 1990. He was allowed a deduction of Rs.15000 relief for each of his three children and a personal relief of Rs. 30000. If he was charged a tax rate of 4% on first Rs. 50000 and 6% on his remaining income, cal Rs. 9200 Rs . 8700 Rs. 9500 7 2 A man pays 10% of his income for his income tax. If his income tax amounts to Rs. 1500, what is his income? Rs. 13000 Rs. 15000 Rs. 17000 7 2 A certain number was doubled and the result then multiplied by 3. If the product was 138, find the number. 21 23 25 7 2 A man is 5 times as old as his son. 2 years ago the sum of the squares of their ages was 11 , 14. Find the present age of son. 7 years 9 years 8 years 7 2 Rashid's salary was reduced by 20%. In order to restore his salary at the original amount, it must be raised by 20% 22.50% 25% 7 2 A bank exchanges British currency for Singapore currency at the rate of S$ 3.20 to pond 1. Calculate, in Pond, the amount exchanged for S$ 1,600 by a customer who also had to pay an extra 3% commission for this transaction. Pond 475 485 495 7 2 A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do it in 15 days. The number of days required by them to finish it, working together is 8 7 6 7 2 A certain solution is to be prepared by combining chemicals X, Y and Z in the ration 18:3:2. How many liters of the solution can be prepared by using 36 liters of X? 46 liters 47 liters 45 liters 7 2 A group of boys were to choose between playing hockey and badminton. The number of boys choosing hockey ws three times that of those choosing badminton, asking 12 boys who chose hockey to play badminton would make the number of players for each game equal 12 14 11 7 2 A man bought a flat for Rs. 820000. He borrowed 55% of this money from a bank. How much money did he borrow from the bank? Rs. 451000 Rs. 452000 Rs. 453000 7 2 A man saves Rs. 500, which is 15% of his annual income. How much does he earn in one year? 3542.5 3333.33 3132.3 7 2 A primary school had an enrollment of 850 pupils in January 1970. In January 1980 the enrollment was 1,120. What was the percentage increase for the enrollment? 31.76% 33.50% 30.65% 7 2 A bank increased the rate of interest which it paid to depositors from 3.5% to 4% per annum. Find how much more interest a man would receive if he deposited Rs. 64000 in the bank for 6 months at the new interest rate Rs. 160 Rs. 180 Rs. 200 7 2 The difference between simple and compound interest on Rs. 1625 for 3 years at 4 % per annum in rupees is 7.95 7.9 7.7 7 2 The difference in simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money in two years at 15% per annum is Rs. 144. The sum in rupees is 6000 6200 6400 7 2 A tour guide earns commission by bringing tourists to patronize a certain handicraft shop. Given that the commission he receives is 3% of the total sales, calculate his commission on a particular day when the 12 tourists he brought to the shop spent an av Rs. 500 Rs. 700 Rs. 900 7 2 Mr. Rehman ordered a car worth Rs. 600000 and was given a discount. Given that he paid Rs. 570000 for his new car, calculate the percentage discount her receive (d). 5% 7% 9% 7 2 A person's net income is Rs. 1373.70 and he pays an income tax of 5%. His gross income in rupees must be 1446 1118.96 1308.29 7 2 A girl is 18 years younger than her mother. In 6 years time, the sum of their ages will be 54.How old is the girl now? 10 years 11 years 12 years 7 2 A group of laborers accepted to do a piece of work in 20 days. 8 of them did not turn up for the work and the remaining did the work in 24 days. The original number of laborers was 47 48 49 7 2 A sum of money is divided among three persons. X, Y and Z, in the ration Z, how much will X get? Rs. 700 Rs. 750 Rs. 735 7 2 A, B and C can do a work in 20, 25 and 30 days respectively. The undertook to finish the work together for Rs. 1110. The share of A exceeds that of B by Rs. 60 Rs. 90 Rs. 75 7 2 An oil tanker contained 5500 liters of oil. Three-fifth of the oil was deliver to a customer and two-fifth of the remaining was delivered to another customer. The number of liters of oil that remains in the tanker is 0 440 880 7 2 A man's new income is Rs. 8400 per month. Given that his original income was Rs. 7500 per month, find the percentage increase in his monthly income. 11% 12% 13% 7 2 A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 40 marks and fails by 40 marks. The maximum number of marks is 300 250 200 7 2 After spending 88% of his income, a man had Rs. 2160 left. Find his income. Rs. 18000 Rs. 19000 Rs. 20000 7 2 At a clearance sale, an article was reduced in price from Rs. 180 to Rs. 171. If the article sold at eh original price yielded the dealer 25% profit, what was the percentage of profit if the article was sold at the reduced price? 17.75% 18.75% 19.75% 7 2 By selling a fan for Rs. 475, a person loses 5%. To get a gain of 5%, he should sell the fan for: Rs. 500 Rs. 525 Rs. 535 7 2 During a month in 1970, a family spent Rs. 2500 on food. In 1980 in the same month the same family spent Rs. 3750 on food. What was the percentage increase in the money spent on food? 25% 50% 75% 7 2 In an examination, 900 candidates were boys and 1100 were girls. If 32% of the boys and 38% of the girls passed the examination, the total percentage (of boys and girls together) of candidates that failed will be 35.30% 62.00% 64.70% 7 2 Javed read 60 pages of a book on the first day. This was 20% more than the number of pages he read on the second day. Given that he read 1/6 of the book on the second day, find the number of pages in the book he had read. 300 290 325 7 2 Price of sugar is increased by 25%. The percentage of consumption to be decreased so that there would be no increase in the expenditure is 18% 20% 22% 7 2 The enrollment in a certain secondary school was 450 in 1979. By 1980 the enrollment had increased by 16%. What was the enrollment in 1980? Rs. 512 Rs. 518 Rs. 522 7 2 A group of students volunteered to finish a construction work in 25 days. 10 of the students did not come and the work could be finished in 35 days. The original number of students in the group were. 25 32 35 7 2 A man borrowed Rs. 3000 at 8% per annum compound interest compounded annually. How much must her repay in all at the end of 3 years? Answer to nearest rupee. 3699 3779 3889 7 2 A man has a number of ducks costing Rs. 100 each and three times as many chickens costing Rs. 60 each. If the total cost of ducks and chickens is Rs. 4200, find the number of chickens the man has. 43 45 47 7 2 A man is rowing a boat at a uniform speed. The speed with the current is 2 km/h greater than against it. He takes a total of 4 hours to row with the current from A to B and then against it from B to A. If the distance between A and B is 15 km, find the sp 7.85 km 8.65 km 9.65 km 7 2 A man normally takes 5 hours to travel at a certain speed from city A to city B. One day, he increases his speed by 4 km/h and finds that the journey from A to B takes half and hour less than the normal time. Find his normal speed. 36 km/h 37 km/h 38 km/h 7 2 A man travelled 120 km to a town. He could have reached the town 4 1/2 hours earlier had he increased his speed by 3 km/h. Find the speed at which he travelle(d). 6.56 km 7.57 km 8.58 km 7 2 A reduction of 25% in the price of rice will enable a trader to buy 50 kg more for Rs. 450. What was the price per kg before reduction? Rs. 3.00 Rs. 3.50 Rs. 2.90 7 2 If 10% is deducted from a bill, Rs. 585.00 remains to be paid. How much is the bill? Rs. 650 Rs. 675 Rs. 700 7 2 A man buys 5 kg of tea at Rs. 125.00 per kg. In addition, for every kilogram of tea purchased, he has to pay a sales tax of 6% on the selling price. Calculate the total amount of money that he had to pay. Rs. 332.50 Rs. 552.50 Rs. 662.50 7 2 A bookseller sold a book for Rs. 40.00 to make a profit of 15% percent. In order to earn a profit of 20%, he should have sold it for 41.74 43.75 42.25 7 2 A man bought 400 dozen pencils at Rs. 8.00 a dozen. He sold half of them at Rs. 10.50 a dozen and the rest at Rs. 7.50 a dozen. Find his profit. Rs. 375 Rs. 400 Rs. 450 7 2 A man sells two houses for Rs. 2 lakh each. On one he gained 20% and on the other he lost 20%. His total profit or loss % in the transaction will be 4% profit 5% loss 6 2/3% profit 7 2 A shopkeeper sold two articles for Rs. Each. He made a 25% profit on one article and a loss of 20% profit on one article and a loss of 20% on the other. What was his net gain or loss on the sale of the two articles? loss of Rs. 1.40 profit of Rs. 2.40 loss of Rs. 2.40 7 2 At a book fair, a book was reduced in price from Rs. 75.00 to Rs. 60.00. If the first price gives a 50% profit, find the percentage profit of the book sold at the reduced price. 20% 30% 40% 7 2 By selling 60 chairs, a man gains an amount equal to selling price of 10 chairs. The profit percentage in the transaction is 10% 15% 16.67% 7 2 How much would I have to pay for a book which cost Rs. 72 to product, if the printing company sold it to a bookseller at 20% profit and in return the bookseller sold it to me at a profit the bookseller sold it to me at a profit of 25%? Rs. 104.00 Rs. 106.00 Rs. 108.00 7 2 A man walked for 3 hours at 4.5 km/h and cycled for some time at 15 km/h. Altogether, he traveled 21 km. Find the time taken for cycling. 1/2 hour 1 hour 1 1/2 hours 7 2 A man was 32 years old when his daughter was born. He is now five times as old as him daughter. How old is his daughter now? 7 years 8 years 9 years 7 2 A shop owner blends three types of coffees, A, B and C, in the ratio 3:5:7. Given that type A coffee costs Rs. 70 per kg, type B coffee costs Rs. 100 pr kg and type C coffee costs Rs. 120 per kg, calculate the cost per kg of the blended mixture. Rs. 106 Rs. 108 Rs. 109 8 1 5 9 17 33 65 71 74 8 1 1 9 2 8 3 7 4 8 4 6 6 4 8 1 1 2 2 4 4 8 8 16 16 32 32 16 32 64 8 1 2 8 5 6 8 ? 11 6 5 7 8 1 7 9 13 21 37 38 31 8 1 1 8 64 512 4096 604 4069 8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 2 4 3 8 1 17 35 72 147 198 298 294 8 1 10 50 250 1250 6250 2500 5112 8 1 10 15 22.5 75.67 32.67 32.5 8 1 1 7 49 343 4201 1024 2410 8 1 3 7 14 18 36 40 80 84 168 170 168 172 172 176 8 1 3 4 5 6 5 6 7 8 7 8 9 10 8 9 10 11 9 10 12 13 9 10 11 12 8 1 3/7 6/11 10/19 15/35 21/67 20/65 21/68 8 1 7 9 13 21 37 53 35 8 1 7 9 13 21 37 53 35 8 1 5 13 7 15 9 17 11 13 17 19 15 13 19 8 1 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 2 8 1 20 25 23 28 26 31 29 34 32 33 31 8 1 3 6 9 12 15 21 42 18 8 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 5 4 1 5 1 8 1 2 8 3 7 5 6 8 5 10 6 11 3 11 4 8 1 3 13 4 15 5 17 6 19 7 20 23 21 8 1 20 25 23 28 26 31 29 34 33 32 31 8 1 3 4 3 5 3 6 3 7 3 8 3 9 3 9 5 8 1 10 15 12 17 14 19 21 24 16 8 1 4 20 35 49 62 74 82 83 85 8 1 9 24 39 54 69 84 99 114 129 24 128 8 1 50 51 49 43 47 56 44 60 40 35 60 60 35 60 40 8 1 20 29 37 44 50 55 59 61 62 63 8 1 20 21 23 26 30 35 41 48 55 54 56 8 1 3 8 15 24 28 58 33 8 1 16 15 17 14 19 16 18 8 1 32 23 31 34 30 36 32 8 1 8 10 14 18 24 32 34 36 8 1 1 13 25 37 49 62 51 60 8 1 7 9 12 14 17 19 22 24 27 23 26 25 27 8 1 2 7 24 77 144 236 238 8 1 8 12 16 20 28 24 26 8 1 4 7 5 9 6 11 7 13 8 16 7 14 8 11 8 1 25 36 47 58 60 59 69 8 1 10 15 20 11 17 23 12 19 26 13 21 29 14 16 29 23 32 32 23 8 1 6 9 18 21 39 33 42 45 61 64 56 59 8 1 3 5 8 13 12 34 20 23 8 1 4 6 9 13 18 22 16 8 1 7 10 15 22 29 28 31 8 1 7 9 11 9 11 10 13 15 8 1 3 10 7 14 13 12 11 8 1 3 8 13 18 23 27 28 29 8 1 1 4 4 1 16 16 1 32 32 32 1 1 32 8 1 25 20 15 10 5 10 15 8 1 7 10 15 22 29 28 25 8 1 85 70 55 40 35 25 30 8 1 2 3 5 9 17 34 31 32 8 1 1/9 2/5 2/9 3/5 3/9 4/5 4/9 5/5 4/9 4/5 5/5 5/9 8 1 3 10 7 14 11 13 12 8 2 AB XDE XGHXJ___ X KX KL 8 2 ZA YB XC__ WE DW WC 8 2 F E I H G L K J MN NO ON 8 2 L B M C N D O E 8 2 A E I M Q K U N 8 2 K L N Q U Z X V 8 2 C H L O Q P S R 8 2 B D E G H I K L 8 2 C I D P E X W F 8 2 S W T X U Y V X 8 2 A G L P S T V X 8 2 Z X V T R P Q O 8 2 R I P H N O F G 8 2 T S R T S R TS R T S 8 2 A D H M R T S 8 2 K I M G O E Q S C R 8 2 M O R T W X Z V 8 2 S V Y B D A E 8 2 Q N K H E A F B 8 2 U S P N K J K H 8 2 HV GT FR ES EP SP 8 2 J E Z U T P Q 8 2 B D F H I K H 8 2 W R U P S N O T 8 2 B C H I N OT QT TO 8 2 C E X F I X J N O P X 8 2 L E M F O H Q R I S 8 2 A E J P W P N 8 2 A B D E G H I J L 8 2 T L P H L K G E 8 2 A B C Z A B C Y A B C J L G 8 2 D E F D E G D E H F G 8 2 E F G E F G E F G H I G J E 8 2 A B C C D E F F G F I G 8 2 A I B C I D E ? F G I H 8 2 D F H J L M NO KL 8 2 P Q Q R Q Q S Q Q S Q T 8 2 C D D E E E F F F G E 8 2 T T T S S R Q Q Q P Q R O 8 1 36, 30, 24, 18, ? 22 12 21 8 1 7 9 12 14 17 19 22 ? 24 26 18 8 1 7 11 16 22 26 31 23 24 37 8 1 15 11 7 14 10 6 4 6 8 8 1 7 4 12 9 27 24 11 36 8 8 1 11 8 16 17 14 28 20 29 32 8 1 8 12 17 24 28 33 36 37 38 8 1 3 12 6 24 12 48 24 32 36 8 1 18 15 23 20 28 23 24 25 8 1 24 12 36244836 40 50 52 8 1 8 10 14 18 26 32 34 36 8 1 10 15 20 11 17 23 12 19 26 13 21 29 14 ……, …… 16 29 15 23 23 32 8 1 14 6 21 9 28 12 ……., ……. 36 15 35 15 34 17 8 1 17 19 22 26 31 37…….., …….. 41 42 43 8 1 48 24 20 10 6 3 2 1 0 8 1 1 6 36 3 18 108 7 8 9 8 1 2 6 12 36 72216 288 376 432 8 1 1 2 4 8 16 32 48 56 64 8 1 15 13 11 14 17 15 11 12 13 8 1 8 7 10 5 4 7 6 4 3 8 1 15 11 7 14 10 6 4 6 8 8 1 8 12 17 24 28 33 38 48 28 8 1 7 10 9 12 11 ….., ……. 14 13 12 14 13 14 8 1 1 6 36 3 18 108……. 7 8 9 8 1 2 4 7 11 16 ……., …… 21 29 22 28 21 28 8 1 3 12 6 24 12 48 24 32 36 8 1 1/16 1/4 1/2 2 4 16 24 32 48 8 1 3 9 14 18 21 23 24 25 26 8 1 20 25 23 28 26 31 39 34 33 32 31 8 1 20 21 23 26 30 35 41 48 55 54 56 8 1 5 3 9 7 21 19 9 36 57 8 1 11 8 16 17 21 26 20 26 32 8 1 11 8 16 17 21 26 18 25 21 8 1 48 24 20 10 6 3 2 1 0 8 1 24 12 36 24 48 36 50 52 58 8 1 16 15 17 14 19 16 18 8 1 5 8 6 97 10 8 …., …. 10 9 11 9 10 11 8 1 10 50 250 1250 6250 2500 5012 8 1 10 18 15 23 20 28 23 24 25 8 1 8 1624 32 40 48 64 96 56 8 1 3 6 18 108 216 648 1946 1944 1296 8 1 4 20 35 49 62 72 82 85 93 8 1 77 76 74 71 67 62 60 59 58 8 1 2 4 8 8 12 6 8 9 10 8 1 1 6 36 3 18 108 7 8 9 8 1 2 6 12 36 72 216 288 376 432 8 1 1 7 49 343 4201 1024 2410 8 1 2 5 4 6 8 8 14 11 22 15 ….. 30 20 32 20 20 32 8 1 1 2 2 4 8 8 32 16 8 1 32 33 31 34 30 36 32 8 1 150 120 149 118 147 144 108 …., …… 104 138 102 136 135 140 8 1 1 2 3 2 4 6 3 6 9 4 12 5……, …… 9 15 9 14 10 15 8 1 1 4 2 8 6 88 24 84 8 1 1 5 17 86 97 249 251 8 1 05 .1 .3 1.2 6 36 48 72 164 8 1 7 6.5 6.25 5.75 5.5 5 4.75 4.5 4.25 8 1 1 2 4 8 16 32 48 56 64 8 1 7 4 12 9 27 24 36 48 72 8 1 .05 .1 .3 1.2 6 36 72 164 216 8 1 729 243 81 27 9 19 18 8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 2 3 4 8 1 8.9 4.45 2.225 0.56625 1.9678 1.1125 8 1 1 2 2 4 4 8 8 16 12 1632 3216 8 1 11 22 88 528 4124 4024 4324 8 1 5 9 17 33 65 71 74 8 1 17 19 2226 31 37 40 41 42 8 1 1/16 1/4 1/2 2 4 16 24 32 48 8 1 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 5 8 1 3 9 14 18 21 23 24 25 26 8 1 12 10 8 64 2 1 0 8 8 1 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 12 20 8 1 23 30 21 33 19 36 ….., …… 17 39 16 39 17 38 8 1 48 24 20 10 6 3 2 1 -1 8 1 17 35 72 147 198 298 294 8 1 3 8 18 33 36 53 35 8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 2 3 4 8 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 5 4 1 51 8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 2 3 4 8 1 10 18 15 23 20 28 23 24 25 8 1 3 13 4 15 5 17 6 19 7 20 23 21 8 1 20 25 23 28 26 31 29 34 33 32 31 8 1 7 6 .5 6.25 5.75 5.5 5 4.75 4.5 4.25 8 1 77 76 74 71 67 62 59 58 57 8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 3 4 5 8 1 2 4 4 8 8 16 16 48 54 32 8 1 20 25 23 28 26 31 29 34 33 32 31 8 1 20 21 23 26 30 35 41 48 55 54 56 8 1 87 56 177 28 357 14 714 1717 537 8 1 129 120 111 102 93 95 98 8 1 9 24 39 54 69 84 99 114 129 124 128 8 1 20 29 37 44 50 55 59 61 62 63 8 1 20 21 23 26 30 35 41 48 55 54 56 8 1 8 10 14 20 28 38 50 64 80 71 72 8 1 2 4 8 4 12 6 8 9 10 8 1 10 18 15 23 20 28 23 24 25 8 1 7 9 13 21 39 37 36 8 1 4 10 8 14 12 18 20 16 24 8 1 53 48 50 45 47 42 96 54 8 1 1 2 5 26 130 488 52 8 1 381 379 373 366 367 356 357 8 1 6 7 9 12 16 21 27 34 49 50 47 8 1 8 11 16 24 34 47 61 62 55 8 1 3 8 14 25 37 54 61 72 55 8 1 0 1 4 9 16 35 27 36 8 1 1 2 4 8 10 12 14 8 1 1 5 17 85 97 166 251 8 1 20 21 23 26 30 35 41 48 54 55 56 8 1 10 13 11 14 12 15 13 16 11 17 8 1 7 49 343 2401 14807 16807 15576 8 1 2 6 18 54 108 162 176 8 1 9 20 31 42 49 52 43 8 1 1 2 4 7 11 16 24 29 22 8 1 2 4 8 16 32 64 128 228 130 256 8 1 8 16 24 32 40 48 54 48 56 8 1 2 4 4 8 8 16 16 54 48 16 8 1 3 6 18 36 108 216 648 1946 1944 1296 8 1 7 11 8 12 9 13 10 ___, ___ 14 10 14 12 14 11 8 1 7 8 6 7 5 6 2 4 3 8 1 11 21 31 41 15 51 14 8 1 3 6 9 12 15 17 19 21 8 1 5 11 19 29 39 41 43 8 1 7 13 19 25 31 32 35 8 1 18 28 36 42 46 42 48 8 1 5 7 7 9 9 10 11 8 1 10 13 11 14 12 15 13 16 11 15 8 1 2 6 18 54 162 486 1556 496 1286 8 1 4 20 5 49 62 74 82 85 93 8 1 10 15 12 17 14 16 24 21 8 1 20 25 23 28 26 31 29 34 33 30 32 8 1 64 32 16 8 4 2 `1/2 1 `1/4 8 1 20 90 40 180 60 270 80 70 8 1 3 8 14 25 37 54 67 76 69 8 1 3 0 5 2 5 7 9 8 1 0 6 20 42 54 62 68 8 1 0 3 8 15 20 21 23 8 1 102 85 68 51 34 108 39 17 8 1 4 10 8 14 12 18 16 20 24 8 1 150 120 149 118 147 114 144 108 140 104 138 102 136 135 140 8 1 10 11 12 11 12 13 12 13 14 13 14 15 14 15 16 13 14 14 15 8 1 2 4 5 6 11 10 20 16 32 24 34 46 47 34 48 32 8 1 6 18 72 360 2160 15120 15210 5260 8 1 3 6 18 36 108 216 648 1296 1692 1946 8 1 1 2 4 8 12 16 14 8 1 1 16 256 4096 65536 56535 65563 8 1 7 10 20 23 46 49 98 88 58 8 1 250 125 50 62 50 10 31.25 2 5 25 8 1 8 10 14 20 28 38 50 64 80 71 72 8 1 10 13 11 14 12 15 13 16 11 15 8 1 1 2 3 2 4 6 3 6 9 4 8 12 5 9 15 9 14 10 15 8 1 1770 680 1590 1500 1910 1520 1320 1220 8 1 1 3 9 27 3 81 243 8 1 `1/8 9/27 25/125 36/343 343/343 343/729 8 1 8 23 38 53 68 83 98 113 128 125 126 8 1 1 4 2 8 6 26 20 48 8 1 4 10 8 14 12 18 16 20 24 8 1 `3/27, 5/24, 7/21, 9/18, 11/15, ___,___ 13/13, 15/13 13/12, 15/13 13/12, 14/13 8 1 10 18 15 23 20 28 23 24 25 8 1 49 36 25 16 9 4 0 1 5 8 1 7 14 28 56 112 224 336 231 448 8 1 `1 1/2 1/4 1/8 1/16 1/32 1/48 1/36 1/64 8 1 1 2 4 8 12 16 14 8 1 0 1 4 9 64 48 16 8 1 2 7 24 77 238 155 255 8 1 3.2 5.9 11.3 22.1 43.7 44.2 36.9 8 1 `1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/16, 1/32, ___ 1/48 1/64 1/62 8 1 5 9 17 33 65 74 66 8 1 1 2 10 9 3 4 8 7 9 8 9 7 8 1 2 4 4 8 8 16 16 64 32 56 8 1 2048 1024 512 256 128 64 72 24 36 8 1 161 13 81 9 121 40 11 17 8 1 8 16 24 32 40 48 64 56 58 8 1 5 15 23 29 39 47 53 63 72 73 71 8 1 3 9 14 18 21 23 27 25 26 8 1 10 13 11 14 12 13 15 14 16 13 8 1 8.9 4.45 2.225 0.55625 1.9678 1.1125 8 1 1 16 256 4096 65536 56535 36565 8 1 1 2 2 4 4 8 8 16 12 16 32 32 16 8 1 3 1.5 0.75 0.375 0.1873 0.1875 1.1875 8 1 1 5 13 29 58 62 61 8 1 1 8 64 512 6904 6049 4069 8 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 5 5 1 6 1 8 1 1 5 13 29 61 58 60 8 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 8 1 1 3 5 3 5 1 2 7 8 1 1 2 10 9 3 4 7 8 9 8 12 11 8 1 8 11 16 23 32 42 43 44 8 1 3 6 18 36 108 216 648 1296 1096 1269 8 2 A B D EH I M N R O S 8 2 M N A M N B M N A B O 8 2 A B C D E D C B C A F 8 2 A G B H C D B I 8 2 C E H L Q M P 8 2 A D H K O Q R P 8 2 M N M N K L O P P Q O 8 2 A M N B O P C Q D R 8 2 A E I B F F H G 8 2 C D H IM N O S P 8 2 A E I B F E C J 8 2 X V S P M J I O 8 2 S W T X U N X Y 8 2 F H D F B A F D 8 2 K L N Q U Y Z W 8 2 C I D P E K S H 8 2 L B M C N R D G 8 2 Q N K H E A F B 8 2 T L P H L D J N 8 2 S V Y B F E D 8 2 B C H I N QT OT TO 8 2 A E J P X Z W 8 2 M N J Q G U S N 8 2 U B I T P W V 8 2 H V G T F R ES SP EP 8 2 E E F G G H I I F G H 8 2 D E F D E F G H I D E F 8 2 C D E X Y Z F G H X Y Z I J K 8 2 D E F D E G D E D F G 8 2 T S R T S R TS R S T 8 2 A R B S C T A R H A B C 8 2 E F H I K L M N O 8 2 A M N B O P C D E P 8 2 M N M N K L O P K L K O O 8 2 C D D E E E F F E F G 8 2 D F H J L J K L 8 2 A B C I J D E F I J G H I 8 2 E F G E F G E F G H I E G I 8 2 A I B C I D E F E F G 8 2 A B D E H I M N P Q R 8 2 B E C F D G E E F G 8 2 A D H K O P Q R 8 2 E F G H J K L N O P P Q R 8 2 A E I B F C D G 8 2 A E IM ? G W L 8 2 S V Y B ? K E D 8 2 N P R T ? S V W 8 2 B Z D 6 J I K 5 ? 9 18 M 8 2 LE MF OH RK ? VO WP UO 8 2 H V G T F R ? ? E and P K and y D and o 8 2 M T W T F ? B D S 8 2 B F J N ? R S Q 8 2 A G M S ? X Y Z 8 2 4/C F/7 11/J ?? L/5 E/4 12/G 8 2 AZ BBZ CCCZ DDD ____ DZ Z ZE 8 2 AB XDE XGH XJ _____ X KX KL 8 2 ZA YB XC____ WE DW WC 8 2 T S R T S R T S R T S 8 2 K I M G O E Q S C R 8 2 F G B H I B J K B M L C 8 2 A Z A Y B Z B Y C B Y X 8 2 C D E X Y Z F G H X Y Z H L K 8 2 E F G E F G E F G H I G J K 8 2 A I B C I D E ? F G I H 8 2 E F G H J K L N O P R S 8 2 AE IBF E C J 8 2 ZD WGT J I R 8 2 A C G M R U M 8 2 DFK FEL HDM JCN ? KAO LBO LDO 8 2 AZ BBZ CCCZ DDD ____ DZ Z ZE 8 2 ZA YB XC ______ WE DW WC 8 2 C D E Y Z F G H X Y Z J L K 8 2 IF "REPOPT" is equivalent to 'QDONQS'then "PERSON"is equivelent to? QDQRNP QDQRNM DOQRNP 8 2 IF "PAKISTAN"is equialent to rbmjnucd then "LAHORE" is equivient to? MCIQSG KBFNPD NBJPTF 8 3 If 12 years are added to 2/3 age of Rani, she will be three years older than today. What is Rani's present age. 25 27 26 8 3 A cyclist covers half as much distance again as a tonga driver, and the tonga driver half as much again as a man on foot. If a man can walk a distance of 3 km in one hour how much will it take a cyclist to cover a distance of 27 km. 3 hours 3 1/2 hours 4 hours 8 3 I drove south for 6 km, then turned left and drove for 2 km and then turned right and drove for 4 km again turned right and drove 2 km. How far am I from my starting point. 2 km 4 km 10 km 8 3 A man walked 3 km towards North, turned West and walked 2 km, then turned North again and walked 1 km and then turned East and walked 5 km. How far is he from his starting point. 4 km 7 km 5 km 8 3 A man faces North and covers 7 km, turns West and covers 2 km then turns South and covers 4 km and turns West again and covers 2 km. How far is he from his starting point. 6 km 7 km 5 km 8 3 A and B start walking in opposite directions A walked 2 km and B walked 3 km. Then each turned right and walked 4 km. Then they turned right. A walked 3 km and B walked 2 km. How far distance apart are they at the end. 9 km 8 km 7 km 8 3 I drove North East for 4 km and then I turned South East and drove another 4 km when again I turned South East. In which direction was I going then. East wards South Wards West wards 8 3 A & B start from a point x. A goes North and covers 3 km then turns right and covers 4 km. B goes West and covers 5 km, then turns right and covers 3 km. How far is B from A. 8 km 11 km 9 km 8 3 Point X is in North of point Y and point Y is East of point Z. To which direction in point X with respect to Z. North East North East 8 3 Point A is located 8 km South of B and C is located 6 km West of A. What is the distance between C and B? 8 km j12 km 10 km 8 3 You are standing with your face towards East. Then you turn right then again right and then left. Which direction are you facing at the end? West South North 8 3 I am sixth in a queue numbering from either end. How many are there in the queue? 11 9 7 8 3 In a cage there are rabbits and pigeons. They have 20 heads and 48 feet. How many rabbits are there 6 rabbits 4 rabbits 8 rabbits 8 3 A clock seen through a mirror reads quarter past three. What is the correct time Quarter to 9 15 past 9 15 to 3 8 3 If a man stands upside down with his face towards South where will be his left hand point East West North 8 3 My Watch which loses 2 minutes in 24 hours showed correct time at 11 a.m. How many seconds could it have lost by 7. P.m. 30 sec 50 sec 40 sec 8 3 A is the father of B, but B is not A's son what is the relationship of B to A daughter father mother 8 3 A party consisted of a man and his wife, their two sons and their wives and four children of each son. How many persons were their in all the party? 24 14 34 8 3 A boy had twice as many sums wrong as right. If he had 24 sums in all how many of them were wrong? 18 20 16 8 3 The old man's son is my son's uncle what is the old man to me brother father uncle 8 3 A is the cousin of the father of B. What is the relationship between B and the son of A? nephew cousin niece 8 3 If Sunday dawned 3 days before yesterday what day will dawn two days after tomorrow Sunday Sunday Monday 8 3 A man pointing to a photograph said" I have no brothers or sisters, but that man's father is my father's son." What relationship he to me father son brother 8 3 A man starts climbing a hill. Every minute he ascends 20 yards but slips down 5 yards. How long will he take to ascend a pt 80 yards high 5 minutes 5 minutes 20 seconds 6 minutes 8 3 An insect starts climbing a wall 11 feet high at 10 a.m. Every minute it ascends 10 feet but descends 6 inches. At what time will it reach the top 10.19 am 10.20 am 10.21 am 8 3 Reaching a party day before yesterday I found my self two days late. If day after tomorrow is Friday on what day was the party scheduled to be held Sunday Monday Saturday 8 3 If X and Y are parents of Z, but Z is not the son of X, what is Z to X nephew daughter father 8 3 Your father says "I have four sons" but you say "I have only three brother." who is wrong? father son none 8 3 A man faces south and walks 10 km, turns west and covers 4 km, then turn north and covers 7 km. How far is he form the starting point 4 km 5 km 6 km 8 3 Horse Powers is a standard unit of power equal to: 370 watts 480 watts 658 watts 8 3 At 12 O' clock noon Pakistan standard time, the time in London (U.K) shall be 4.00 p.m 7 am 5.00 p.m 8 3 If the Doctor gave you 4 tablets and advised you a take each tablet every half an hour, how long will you take to eat all tablets? 2 hours 1 1/2 hours 2 1/2 hours 8 3 It takes 2 minutes to boil a single egg. How many minutes will it take to boil 5 eggs together. 2 minutes 5 minutes 8 minutes 8 3 If Tariq stood on the top step of a ladder and there were six more steps the midway step, how many steps in all did the ladder comprise of : 10 12 14 8 3 How many different three-digit numbers can be formed by 3 and 5, if none of them is repeated in a number : 2 3 4 9 1 What is verbal meaning of word "islam"? Belief on Allah Confidence of Allah Obedience of Allah 9 1 According to the holy quran what is the chosen religion of Allah Jewish Confucianism Islam 9 1 basic pillars of Islam are: 4 6 5 9 1 The Tauheed (Kalmah) is? First Pillar of Islam Second pillar of Islam Third pillar of Islam 9 1 The second pillar of Islam is namaz Fast tauheed 9 1 The third pillar of Islam is? Namaz Fast Tauheed 9 1 The 4th Pillar of Islam is? Namaz Fast Tauheed 9 1 The 5th Pillar of Islam is? Hajj Tauheed Tauheed 9 1 Basic pillar of belief are : Four Five Six 9 1 Opposite of Tauheed is Ablees Idol Shirk 9 1 How many times command of erection of namaz is given in the Quran? 500 times 600 times 700 times 9 1 On which time the Holy prophet (PBUH) was gifted with Namaz? Miraj Hijrat Gzwa Badar 9 1 Five Prayers were declared compulsory in? 9th Nabvi 10th Nabvi 11th Nabvi 9 1 Fajar, Zuhur, Asar, Maghrib and are compulsory Salats? Eid Khasoof Ishaa 9 1 On the Judgement day first question will be about Fast Zakat Hajj 9 1 what is most important ebadat of Islam from the choices given bellow? Fast Namaz Zakat 9 1 Nafl Prayers are: Four Five Six 9 1 The Maghrib (Prayer) is offered? Before sunset At noon Just after the sun set 9 1 The obligations in islam are called? Farz Wajib Nafl 9 1 The part of prayer the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H) did is called? Farz Wajib Nafl 9 1 Muslims must face in the direction of ______ for Namaz? Bait-ul- Maqadas Madina Khana-e- Kabah 9 1 How much Takbeers are recited by Moazin in Azaan? 4 6 8 9 1 The Tasbeeh of subhana Rabi-al-Azeem is recited in Azaan? Sajda Rakuh Qaada 9 1 The tasbeeh of Subhana Rabi-al-Alaa is recited in? Sajdah Jalsa Raku 9 1 salat-e-Istasqa is offered on the Occasion of? Shortage of rain Solar eclipse Famine 9 1 salat-e-istakhara is performed for? Rain Fear Coming Hajat 9 1 The Salat-e-shukar is? Mustahab Nafl Wajib 9 1 To perform Salat-e-Istakhara is? Sunnah Nafl Mustahab 9 1 Name the Nafli Salat which can be offered after sunrise till one-forth of the day? Ishraq Chasht Salat Tasbeeh 9 1 Addictional Takbeers are performed in Eid prayers? 7 6 8 9 1 The funeral prayer (Namaz-e-Janaza) is? Fera-e-Ain Sunnat Farz-e-Kaffaya 9 1 four or eight or twelve rakat offered in the late night is called? Isharq Salat-e- Tahajjud Witr 9 1 which prayer is performed while standing in lines? Funeral Rain Kisoof 9 1 The Namaz-e-Taraveeh can be offered between the salats of? Isha & fajar Zuhar and maghrib Asr and ishah 9 1 The act of shortening ones prayer while on journey is called ? Wajib Khusar Qasr 9 1 What is verbal meaning of Zakat? To purify To stained To adulteration 9 1 What is the number of zakat among the pillars? Second Third Fourth 9 1 The back bone of Islamic economic system is? Fitrana Sadqa Zakat 9 1 In which hijir year zakat was imposed? 2 Hijri 3 Hijri 4 Hijri 9 1 On which of the following zakat money can be spent? Parents Poor muslims Non muslims 9 1 Falqaram (Nisab)for camels is: 4 camels 5 camels 8 camels 9 1 What is falqaram for goats? 30 40 50 9 1 on gold fulqaram is 7-1/2 Tolas 8-1/2 Tolas 9-1/2 Tolas 9 1 on silver falqaram is: 50 Tolas 52-1/2 tolas 54 tolas 9 1 How many times orders for zakat came in Quaran? 20 times 22 times 40 times 9 1 Which Khulifa-e- Rashid announced war against the people who were unwilling to pay zakat? Hazrat Abu Bakar Siddique(R.A) Hazrat Umer Farooq (R.A) Hazrat Usman Ghani (R.A) 9 1 Who said the zakat is treasure of Islam? Rasool Ullah (P.B.U.H) Hazrat Umar Farooq (R.A) Imam Abu Hanifa 9 1 Verbal meaning of Hajj is : To repay The will to visit To device 9 1 In which hijri year Hajj was made compulsory? 8 Hijri 9 Hijri 10 Hijri 9 1 How many Hajj were performed by Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) Two Three One 9 1 which hirfi year Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) Performed Hajj? 8 Hijri 9 Hijri 10 Hijri 9 1 what is meant by Tawaff? To circle around kaaba One attempt between saffa and Marwah Stay at Arfat 9 1 When the first Hajj performed by the Muslims? 9 Hijri 10 Hijri 11 Hijri 9 1 On which date ghrowing of stones is performed on jumeraat? 10th Zulhajj 11th Zulhajj 12th Zulhajj 9 1 Tell the number of farz duties to be performed during Hajj? 4 5 3 9 1 To stay at Arafaat is: Farz Wajib Sunnat 9 1 Muzdalfa is situated: Between khana kaaba and Minna Between minna and Arafat Not between stated above 9 1 At the place of Muzdalfa on 9th Zulhajj which tow prayers are performed together? Zohr and asr Maghrib and Eisha Asr and Maghrib 9 1 From where pabels for throwing on jumrat are obtained Cave sore Muzdalfa Minna 9 1 How much camels were sacrificed on the occasion of Hajj by Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H)? 60 63 65 9 1 Who performed first Hajj Bait-Ullah? Hazrat Ebrahim and Hazrat Ismail Hazrat Adam and Hazrat Hawa Hazrat Ebrahim and Hazrat Hajira 9 1 What is verbal meaning of divine revelation (Wahi)? To point out or to give message To talk To order 9 1 how many kinds of wahi are there? 2 3 4 9 1 which angel came to Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) with Wahi? Hazrat Mekail (A.S) Hazrat Esrafeel (A.S) Hazrat jibbrail (A.S) 9 1 In which Islamic month first Wahi was descended? Rajab-ul- Murajab Safr Rabi-ul-sani 9 1 what was the age of Rasool Ullah (P.B.U.H) at the time of first Wahi? 40 years 4 months 40 years 8 months 40 years 10 months 9 1 On which place first Wahi descended? Sore canve Hira canve Khana-e-kaaba 9 1 how many verses (Ayat) were in the Wahi? 2 3 4 9 1 After first Wahi Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) came home then her wife Hazrat KHudija (R.A) took him with her to which cousin who was the scholar of inspiration books? Warqa bin nophel Umar bin alaas Umar bin khatab 9 1 According to Hazrat Abdullah bin Abbas the last Wahi was descended on Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) how many days before death? 2 days 3days 7 or 9 days 9 1 how many stages of the Quran are there? 2 stages 4 stages 7 stages 9 1 Makki period of the Holy Quran consists of: 12 years 8 months 5days 13 years 9 months 29 days 12 years 9 1 Duration of madni period is _________ 9 years 9months 9days 9 years 10 months 11days 9 years 11 months 3 days 9 1 Quran was descended? 21 years 3 months 21 years 4 months 22 years 5 months 9 1 How much Makke Surahs of the Holy Quran are there? 30 surahs 32 surahs 88 surahs 9 1 Tell the name of suhabi who took first advantage of calligraphy if Wahi? Hazrat Abu Bakar Siddique (R.A) Hazrat Usman (R.A) Hazrat Khalid bin saeed bin Alaaz (R.A) 9 1 Against which perston Yamama war was fought by Muslims? Be aware that this person had false proclaim of prophecy? Aswad unsa Muselama kazab Tahha asadi 9 1 To which suhabi responsibility was given for collection of the Holy Quran by Hazrat Abu Bakr Siddique (R.A)? Hazrat umar bin Wahab (R.A) Hazrat Saeed bin Alaas (R.A) Hazrat Zaid bin Sabit (R.A) 9 1 After Hazrat umar to whom lady script of Musaef Abi Bakr was handed over? This lady is amongst the Umhat-ul-Momenine (R.A) Hazrat Ysha Siddiqa (R.A) Hazrat Memona (R.A) Hazrat hifza (R.A) 9 1 Who was the head of that board which was established for the preparation of copies of Musaef Abi Bakar? Hazrat Zaid bin sabit (R.A) Hazrat Usama bin Qais (R.A) Hazrat usman bin Maznoun (R.A) 9 1 how many rakus are in the Holy Quran? 460 490 558 9 1 In which surah the numbers of Rakus are maximum than other surahs? Surah Al-Baruj Surah Al-Baqra Surah Al-fajr 9 1 How many Rukus are in Surah Al-Baqra? 30 35 39 9 1 Tell the name of that single surah which consists of only one Raku and not included in thirteenth section of the Holy Quran? Surah An-Nisa Surah Al-Imran Surah Fateh 9 1 How many verses are in the Holy Quran? 5555 6666 6667 9 1 How many verses of Ayat-i-Tasbeeh are in the Holy Quran? 200 100 110 9 1 How many Ayat-i-Mutafarqa are present in the Holy Quran? 55 66 77 9 1 Which Ayat of the Holy Quran is called Sardar-ul-Ayat? Surah Yasin Ayat-ul-Kursi Surah Fateh 9 1 Minimum verses in a sura in the Holy Quran are: 2 3 5 9 1 Which Alphabet is mostly used in the Holy Quran? Alif Te Jeem 9 1 Which alphabet is used minimum in number in the holy Quran? Sin Alif Ghain 9 1 No. of Madnin Surahs in Holy Quran are? 26 29 27 9 1 The Holy Prophet Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) was born in? 570 A.D 575 A.D 580 A.D 9 1 The father‟s name of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) is ? Hazrat Abutalib Hazrat Abdullah Hazrat Abdul Mutlib 9 1 The Mother‟s name of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) is Hazrat Saffia Hazrat Marryam Hazrat Haleem 9 1 The Grand father‟s name of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) is ? Hazrat abutalib Hazrat Abdullah Hazrat Abdul Mutlib 9 1 The Real Uncle‟s name of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) who brought him up is? Hazrat Abu Tallib Hazrat Abdullah Hazrat Abdul Mutlib 9 1 who was foster mother of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) ? Hazrat Saffia Hazrat Marryam Hazrat Haleema 9 1 Who was first wife of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) ? Hazrat Saffia Hazrat Marryam Hazrat Haleema 9 1 Year of Nabowwat of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) is? 610 A.D 622 A.D 640 A.D 9 1 Year of Hijrat of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) toward Madina is? 610 A.D 622 A.D 640 A.D 9 1 Year of whafat of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) is? 610 A.D 622 A.D 640 A.D 9 1 At the time of Nabowwat the Age of Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) was? 40 years 50 years 45 years 9 1 Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) was father of_______ sons? Four Two Three 9 1 Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) was father of ________ Daughters? Four Two Three 9 1 Where did Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) lived First 53 years of his life? Madina Taaif Oman 9 1 Where did Hazrat Muhammad (P.B.U.H) lived last 10 years of his life? Abdullah Bin Ubai Varqa bin Naufal Abu Hashim 9 1 Sahi Bukhari was comiled by Muhammad Ismail Bukhari Imam Abu Daud Imam Ahmad Nisai 9 1 Sahi Muslim was compiled by Muhammad Ismail Bukhari Imam Abu Daud Imam Ahmad Nisai 9 1 Sunan Abu Daud was compiled by Muhammad Ismail Bukhari Imam Abu Daud Imam Ahmad Nisai 9 1 Sunan Tirmizi was compiled by Muhammad Ismail Bukhari Imam Abu Daud Imam Muhammad Trimizi 9 1 Sunan Nisai was comiled by Muhammad Ismail Bukhari Imam Abu Daud Imam Ahmad Nisai 9 1 Sunan Ibn-e-Majah was compiled by Imam Muhammad Bin Majah Imam Abu Daud Imam Ahmad Nisai 9 1 Sunan Dar Qatni was compiled by Imam Bu baker ahmed bageeqi Imam ali dar qatni Imam muhamma hakim 9 1 sunan hakim was compiled by imam abu baker ahmed baheeqi imam ali dar qatn imam Muhammad hakim 9 1 sunan baheeqi was compiled by imam abu baker ahmed baheeqi imam ali dar qatni imam Muhammad hakim 9 1 muta mam malik was compiled by imam abu baker ahmed baheeqi imam ali dar qatni imam Muhammad hakim 9 1 mushaqatal m sabeeh was compiled by imam abu baker ahmed baheeqi abu Muhammad hussain baghivi imam Muhammad hakim 9 1 Shamail trimizi was compiled by Saeed bin sakan Imam ali dar qatni Imam Muhammad tirmizi 9 1 shahih ibn-e-sakan was compiled by imam abu baker ahmed baheeqi imam ali dar qatni imam Muhammad hakim 9 1 imam ismail bukhari died in 256 AH 261 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 In which year imam muslim died 256 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 imam abu daud died in 306 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 In which year Imam Muhammad tirmizi died 256 A.H 273 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 Imam ahmad nisai died in 306 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 In which year Imam Muhammad Bin Majah died 256 A.H 273 A.H 405 A.H 9 1 Imam Ali Dar Qatni died in 485 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 In which year imam Muhammad Hakim died 256 A.H 179 A.H 405 A.H 9 1 Imam abu Bakr Ahmed Baheeqi died in 485 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 In which year Imam Malik died 256 A.H 179 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 Abu Muhammad Hussain Bglavi died in 353 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 Saeed Bin Sakan died in 353 A.H 261 A.H 279 A.H 9 1 Six books of Hadith are called Sahah-e-sitta Books of Hadith Majmoa-e- Hadith 9 1 First Article of faith in islam is To believe in the day of Resurrection To believe in all of angels To believe in all of revealed books 9 1 Second Article of faith in islam is To believe in the day of resurrection To believe in all of angels To believe in all of revealed books 9 1 Third article of faith in islam is To believe in the day of resurrection To believe in all of angles To believe in all of revealed books 9 1 5th article in islam is to believe in the day of judgement ( yaum-e-Akhirt) to believe in all of angels to believe in all of revealed books 9 1 First kalima is called Kalima tayyabah Kalima shahadat Kalima tauheed 9 1 named the second kalmia kalima tayyabah kalima shahadat kalima tauheed 9 1 Third kalima is called Kalima tayyabah Kalima shahadat Kalima tauheed 9 1 name the 4th kalmia kalima tayyabah kalima shahadat kalima tauheed 9 1 5th kalima is called kalima radd-I- kufar kalima istighfar kalima shahadat 9 1 6th kalima is called kalima radd-i- kufar kalima istghafar kalima shahadat 9 1 which is the first source of Islamic Law? Qiyas Al-Quran Sunnat 9 1 Second source of Islamic law is Qiyas Al-Quran Sunnat 9 1 Which is third source of Islamic law? Al- Quran Jima Sunnat 9 1 Which is 4th source of Islamic law? Al-Quran Qiyas Jima 9 1 5th source of Islamic laws is al-quran qiyas jima 9 1 who was first caliph of Islamic state? Hazrat usman (R.A) Hazrat Ali (R.A) Hazrat umar (R.A) 9 1 Second caliph of Islamic state was Hazrat usman (R.A) hazrat ali (R.A) Hazrat umar (R.A) 9 1 Who was the third caliph? Hazrat usman (R.A) Hazrat Ali (R.A) Hazrat umar (R.A) 9 1 Who was last caliph (khulfa-e-rashedin) if Islamic state? Hazrat usman (R.A) Hazrat Ali (R.A) hazrat Umar (R.A) 9 1 The duration of Hazrat Abu bakar‟s (R.A) reign was? 632-634 A.D 634-644 A.D. 644-656 A.D. 9 1 The duration of hazrat umar‟s (R.A) khilafat was? 632-634 A.D. 634-644 A.D. 644-656 A.D. 9 1 The duration of Hazrat Usman‟s (R.A) reign was? 632-634 A.D. 634-644 A.D. 644-656 A.D. 9 1 The duration of Hazrat Ali‟s (R.A) khilafat was? 632-634 A.D. 634-644 A.D. 644-656 A.D. 9 1 Hazrat Abu Bakar (R.A) was born in ? 581 A.D. 574 A.D. 573 A.D. 9 1 The real name of hazrat abu baker (R.A) was? abu Muhammad Abdullah zaid 9 1 Hazrat abu baker (R.A) died in ? 656 A.D. 644 A.D. 661 A.D. 9 1 Hazrat umar (R.A) was born in ? 581 A.D. 574 A.D. 573 A.D. 9 1 The surname of Hazrat Umar (R.A) was? Abu Muhammad Abdullah Zaid 9 1 Hazrat Umar (R.A) died in? 656 A.D. 644 A.D. 661 A.D. 9 1 Hazrat Usman (R.A) was born in? 581 A.D. 574 A.D. 573 A.D. 9 1 The surname of Hazrat Usman (R.A) was? Abu amar Abdullah Zaid 9 1 Hazrat usman (R.A) died in? 656 A.D. 644 A.D. 661 A.D. 9 1 The father‟s name of Hazrat Ali (R.A) is Hazrat Abbas (R.A) Hazrat Hamza (R.A) Abu Talib 9 1 The surname of Hazrat Ali (R.A) was? Abu Muhammad Abdullah Zaid 9 1 Hazrat Ali (R.A) died in? 656 A.D. 644 A.D. 9 1 Which is first month of Islamic calendar? Moharram Rajab Rabi-ul-awwal 9 1 The second month of Islamic calander? Rabi-us-sani Rajab Rabi-ul-awwal 9 1 Which is third month of Islamic calander? Jamadi-ul- awwal Rajab Rabi-ul-awal 9 1 The fourth month of Islamic calendar is? Rabi-us-sani Rajab Rabi-ul-awal 9 1 Which is 5th month of Islamic calander? Moharram Rajab Jamadi-ul-awal 9 1 The 6th month of Islamic calendar is? Rabi-ul-sani Rajab Rabi-ul-awal 9 1 Which is 7th month of Islamic calaendar? Jamadi-ul-awal Rajab Rabi-ul-awal 9 1 The 8th month of Islamic calendar is? Shaban Ramzan Rabi-ul-awwal 9 1 Which is 9th month of Islamic calendar? Shawwal Ramazan Rabi-ul-awal 9 1 The 10th month of Islamic calendar is? Ramzan Ziqaad Zilhaj 9 1 Which is 11th month of Islamic calendar? Ziqaad Safar Rabi-ul-awal 9 1 The 12th month of Islamic calendar is? Rabi-us-sani Rajab Zilhaj 9 1 Which angel is incharge of protection and also to bring rains? Hazrat gibraiel Hazrat mekail Hazrat israfil 9 1 Which angel will blow the trumpet on the day of judgement? Hazrat gibrail Hazrat mekail Hazrat israfil 9 1 Which angel is incharge of taking the life of living creatures? Hazrat gibrail Hazrat mekail Hazrat israfil 9 1 Incharge angels of right and left shoulders of man are called? Kiraman- katabin Monkar & nakir Hazrat israfil 9 1 Incharge Angels of grave are called? Kirman-katabin Monkar & nakir Hazrat israfil 10 1 The largest barrage in pakistan is Guddu barrage Cheshma barrage Ghulam muhammad barrage 10 1 Khanpur Dam is located on river Chenab Haro Jhelum 10 1 Simly lake is located near Mirpur Attock Islamabad 10 1 The tanda dam is located in province NWFP Sindh Balochistan 10 1 The hub river is located in Balochistan Punjab Sindh 10 1 The hub dam is constructed in the province of NWFP Balochistan Punjab 10 1 The first barrage in the sindh is Kotri barrage Indus barrage Sukkur barrage 10 1 The sukkur barrage is constructed on Jhelum river Hub river Indus river 10 1 Indus water treaty was signed on 09 Sep.,1960 19 Sep.,1960 19 Oct.,1960 10 1 The Indus water treaty was mediated by IMF USA World bank 10 1 Under indus water treaty the water of three rivers was given to india.These are Ravi,beas & sutlej Ravi & beas, Jhelum Indus, jhelum & chenab 10 1 Under indus water treaty the water of three rivers awarded to pakistan are Ravi,beas & sutlej Ravi & beas, chenab Indus , jhelum & chenab 10 1 Balloki barage is located on Gomal Indus Ravi 10 1 Chasma- Jhelum link canal is supplied water from Jehlum river Terbela dam Indus river 10 1 Kalabagh dam is supposed to be built on river Kabul Kuram Indus 10 1 Rawal dam is located on river Swan Kurrang Rwat 10 1 The largest earth- filled dam of the world is Tarbela dam Warsak dam Mangla dam 10 1 The length of tarbela dam across the top is 2843 m 2643 m 2743 m 10 1 The width of terbela dam at its base is 610 m 650 m 630 m 10 1 The height of tarbela dam is 141 m 142 m 143 m 10 1 The lake of tarbela dam can hold neraly water. 14 m.cub.m 10 m.cub.m 11 m.cub.m 10 1 The world's largest spillways are installed at Gomal zan dam Mink dam Aswan dam 10 1 The maximum electricity generation capacity of ghazi brotha dam is 1550 mw 1450 mw 1650 mw 10 1 The largest irrigation system of the world is in Iran Pakistan Sudan 10 1 The second largest earth-filled dam of the world is Mangla Aswan Tarbela 10 1 The largest electricity producing dam of pakistan is Tarbela Mangla Aswan 10 1 The lake of tarbela dam is 30 km long 40 km long 60 km long 10 1 The total length of irrigation canals in the pakistan is 64,000 km 65,000 km 84,000 km 10 1 The number of major rivers in punjab is 5 7 9 10 1 The length of sutlaj river is 1550 km 1900 km 2000 km 10 1 Ghazi brotha dam is located on river Indus Chenab Ravi 10 1 Gomal zam dam is situated on river Gomal Kuram Swat 10 1 The number of police ranges in balochistan is 5 6 7 10 1 The number of districts in balochistan is 22 24 26 10 1 The area of balochistan is 347056 sq.km 343056 sq. km 377056 sq. km 10 1 The area of balochistan makes up per cent of pakistan 44 50 24 10 1 Liyari river is situated in Balochistan Sindh Karchi 10 1 The east balochistan is divided from the rest of sindh and punjab by Kirthar Ranges Chagai ranges Kirthar & Sulaiman 10 1 According to the census the population of balochistan is 6511358 7511358 7614356 10 1 The largest province of pakistan by area is NWFP Punjab Balochistan 10 1 The oldest inhabitants of balochistan are Balochistan Brahuis Pakhtuns 10 1 Brahuis are centered around Quetta kalat lesbelal 10 1 The largest ethnic group in pakistan baluch pathans Brahui 10 1 The karez is a system of transportation underground irrigation system carriage 10 1 the karez system for irrigation is used in kalat upper punjab sindh 10 1 The important minerals of balochistan are coal, gold chrome, fluorite sulphur, quartz and Common Salt Marble Maganeze 10 1 The pakistan's fruits garden is Balochistan Punjab Chaman 10 1 Which area of pakistan is famous for apples, melons, grapes, apricots, almonds, cherries, and peaches? Balochistan Punjab NWFP 10 1 A deep sea port being built in balochistan, province is Pasni Ormara Jiwani 10 1 Quetta was almost completely destroyed because of the great earthquake on 31-May-35 19-May-35 21-May-35 10 1 How many people were killed in quetta in the earth quake? 35,000 34,000 25,000 10 1 The murdar mountain is situated near Ziarat Pishin Quetta 10 1 Hanna lake is located in AJK Balochistan FANA 10 1 Lake pass is situated in Afghan border Ziarat Chaman 10 1 The Quaid-e-Azam stayed during his last illness in 1948 in Quetta Sibi Ziarat 10 1 Fort Munroe is located on the crest of Sulaiman Mountains Takh-e- Sulaiman Kirthar Range 10 1 The highest railway station in pakistan is Awaran Mastung Kan Mehtarzai 10 1 The Muslimbagh is famous for Chromite mine Natural Gas Coper 10 1 The Gomal pass is one of the most important trade routes from 10 1 The total land area of pakistan is 802,840sq km 803,840, sq km 79,6096 sq km 10 1 The area of azad jammu & Kashmir is 83,216, sq km 83,716 sq km 13, 297 sq km 10 1 Total water area of pakistan is 15,220 km 25,220 km 24,220 km 10 1 Total length of land boundaries of pakisatn is 6,674 km 6,774 km 6,874 km 10 1 Ceasefire Line of Kashmir came in to existence in 1949 1948 1950 10 1 The Line of control came into existence in 1965 1971 1972 10 1 The Ceasefire line was named as line of control according to the agreement Delhi Agreement Tashkent Agreement Simla Agreement 10 1 The length of pak-Afganistan border is 2,330 km 1,430 km 2,252 km 10 1 The length of Pak-China border is 1,912 km 2, 192 km 2,612 km 10 1 The length of Pak-india border is 1,912 km 2,192 km 2,612 km 10 1 The length of Pakistan-Iran border is 709 km 909 km 809 km 10 1 The length of coastline of Pakistan is 1,748 km 1,046 km 1,846 km 10 1 The depth of Pakistan continental shelf is 150 nm 240 nm 230 nm 10 1 The lowest point of the country is (0m). Indus Plain Indian Ocean Cape Monze 10 1 The highest Mountain of pakistan is Koh-I-Suleman K-2 Pamir knot 10 1 The Other name of K-2 is Godwin Austen Barura Killing Mountain 10 1 The highest Of K-2 is 7,611 (m) 8,611 (m) 9,511 (m) 10 1 The highest peak of Hindu Kash Range is Takht-e- Sulaiman K-2 Gasherbrum 10 1 The area which separates pakistan from Tajikistan is called Wakhan Pamir Knot Khyber Pass 10 1 Total%age of arableland of the country is 17% 29% 27% 10 1 The total area of irrigated land is 121,100 sq km 171,100 sq km 151,100 sq km 10 1 In how many natural regions pakistan can be divided? Seven Eight Six 10 1 The Chinese province adjoining pakistan is Minkiang Sinkiang Shanghai 10 1 Which mountain range is called roof of the world Himalayan Hindu kush Pamir 10 1 The range which links pakistan with china Is Hindu kush Kirthar Pamir 10 1 which mountain barrier influences the rainfall pattern in pakistan by intercepting monsoon winds from the south Northen mountains Eastern mountains Southern mountains 10 1 The highest, peak in the salt range is Sakesar Takht-e- suaiman Tilla Jogian Hill 10 1 Salt range starts from dina and ends at Jhelum Noshera Mirpur 10 1 The salt range is situated between rivers soan and Chenab Indus Jhelum 10 1 The khyber pass connects pakistan with Afghanistan Iran South Asia 10 1 Kirthar range separates the indus plain from Balochistan Punjab Sindh 10 1 Pakistan lies in the north west of China Iran Himalaya 10 1 Lawari pass connects peshawar with Babusar Top Mala Kand Der 10 1 The pass which links chitral with gilgit is Babusar pass Shandur pass Tochi pass 10 1 The highest peak of the sulaiman mountains is Takht-I- Sulaiman Koh-e-Safed Nanga Parbat 10 1 Which pass connects the kachhi- sibi plain with Quetta Khyber pass Bolan pass Tochi pass 10 1 Ras Koh range is situated in Balochistan plateau Indus plan Karakoram 10 1 The Chagai Hills are located At China border Near Quetta Near Sibi 10 1 The indus plain covers an area of about 203,000 sq. miles 200,000 sq. miles 206,000 sq. miles 10 1 Pakistan's most prosperous agriculture region is Indus Plain Sialkot Region Punjat Region 10 1 The five tributaries of the indus river in punjab are jhelum, the chenab, the beis the sutlej, and the Ravi Ganga Jamna 10 1 The tributaries of the indus river converge to their confluence with the indus at Rawala Kot Jhelum Mithankot 10 1 Land Situated between two rivers is called Combination Doab Bar 10 1 The Sindh sagar doab is situated between the rivers Jhelum Indus Chenab Jhelum Ravi bias 10 1 The problems of waterlogging and salinity in indus plain is being addressed by the construction of the Right bank outfall drain Left bank outfall drain Both of them 10 1 Lake Manchhar is situated in NWFP Sindh Baluchistan 10 1 Lake Manchhar is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Southeast asia Asia The World 10 1 The sindh sagar doab is also known as Nili bar Thar desert Thal desrt 10 1 The land between the ravi and the old course of the beas and the sutlej is called Ganji bar Nili bar Chaj bar 10 1 High land between the old course of the beas and the sutlej is called Chaj bar Ganji bar Nili bar 10 1 The second largest over populated country of islamic world is Indonesia Pakistan UAE 10 1 The bars are called Barren soils Bara soils riverine soils 10 1 The south asian desert of bahawalpur is known as Cholistan Thal desert Thar desert 10 1 In sindh the south eastern desert is called as Thar desert Cholistan desert Thal desrt 10 1 The nelum valley is 200 km long and runs parallel to the Indus river Jehlum river Chenab river 10 1 The longest glacier outside the polar region is found in India China Pakistan 10 1 The rank of pakistan among the world's largest countries is 30th 32th 29th 10 1 Warsak dam is situated on river Kabul Swat Indus 10 1 The oldest dam of pakistan is Terblla Mangla Warsak 10 1 The largest river of the pakistan is Swat Indus Satluj 10 1 The numbers of barrages constructed on the river indus are 6 0 7 10 1 The kabul river falls into Indus river Jhelum river Kaghan river 10 1 The number of rivers in balochistan is 10 9 7 10 1 The number of rivers in the sindh is 3 4 2 10 1 Gomal rivers starts in Iran Bolochistan NWFP 10 1 Bolan,&rukshan are the rivers flowing in NWFP Punjab Balochistan 10 1 In which province these rivers are located" sawat, gomal, karam & kabul NWFP Punjab Balochistan 10 1 How many dry parts are there in punjab? 3 4 5 10 1 Baran rivers is following in the province of Punjab Balochistan Sindh 10 1 River ravi originates from Tibet Himachal Pradesh Northern areas of pakistan 10 1 The Ravi river falls in? Satluj Indus Arabian sea 10 1 From where jhelum river starts Hemaliah perdash Tibet Indian held kashmir 10 1 The length of ravi river is 740 km 725 km 760 km 10 1 Indus river originates from Ladakh Tibet Jammu 10 1 The length of indus river is 2,900 km 2,500 km 2,800 km 10 1 The tributaries of the indus river in the punjabregion are called Jhelum & chenab Ravi and beas Beas & satluj 10 1 Head Sulamanki is situated on river Satluj Ravi Jhelum 10 1 A palla is A croco dile A Sindhi folk dance Dolphen Fish 10 1 From where jhelum river starts Hemaliah perdash Tibet Indian held kashmir 10 1 Wular lake is situated on the river Jhelum Gomal Indus 10 1 The chaj doab is located between rivers. Jhelum & ravi Chenab & Sutlej Jhelum & Chenab 10 1 The area of Chaj doab is called Sandal bar Neeli bar Ganji bar 10 1 The ganji bar is the area between Sutlej & ravi Ravi & jehlum Chenab & jhelum 10 1 The river which from the part of the border between azad kashmir and NWFP is Indus Neelum Kabul 10 1 The upper chenab canal joins the river ravi near balloki to supplement the water supply of the Lower bari boab Upper bari doab Link bari doab 10 1 The lower chenab canal starts from Rasul Khanki Trimun 10 1 The upper bari doab canal starts from Indian Punjab Pakistani Punjab near amritsar 10 1 Lower bari doab canal starts from Balloki Marala Sidhnai 10 1 Marala barrage is constructed on river Ravi Chanab Kabul 10 1 The longest river in punjab is Indus Beas Sutlej 10 1 The sutlej river originates from Tibet Hemachal Pardesh China 10 1 The chenab river joins the sutlej river near West of bahawalpur Punjab West of Multan 10 1 The jinnah barrage is situated on the river Kuram Kabul Gomal 10 1 Taunsa barrage is situated on Ravi Jehlum Zob 10 1 The Districts irrigated by taunsa barrage are D.G Khan & Muzaffargarh Bahawalpur & Muzaffargrah Multan & Muzaffargarh 10 1 On which river guddu, Sukkur, Taunsa Chashma,Jinnah and kotri barrages are situated Chenab Indus Kabul Opt4 AnsNO radio waves 3 all of them 4 electronics 3 20th century 3 modern physics 1 particle physics 1 any of the above 3 solid state physics 4 information technology 1 information technology 4 conductors 2 water 3 all of them 4 none of the above 3 as many as we can 1 derived quantities 4 Derived quantities 4 derived quantities 3 All of the above 2 mole (mol) 4 none of them 3 downwards 1 none of them 3 joining the tail of the first with the tail of second 2 none of them 3 equilibrant 2 keeep the same direction of B and subtract it from A 2 A-B=A-(+B) 3 opposite direction but same magnitude as of A 1 opposite direction and same magnitude as of A 1 new dimensions different form mass and velocity 3 unit vector 4 arbitrary magnitude and arbitrary direction 2 all of them 3 90 4 none of them 4 none of them 2 non of them 2 [LT-2 3 none of them 3 both of option 1 and 2 4 infinity 1 variable velocity 2 acceleration 4 fixed quantity 3 either speed or direction changes 4 none of them 2 all of them 3 uniform velocity 4 may be all of them 3 average velocity 1 maximum 1 maximum 3 maximum 2 maximum 4 N-m-2 3 (d) none of them 3 22.5 J 4 gravitational field 4 the displacement is zero 2 the displacement is zero 1 all of them 2 neither of them 1 conservative field 4 all of them 4 momentum 2 constant quantity 2 watt 4 kinetic energy 3 angular velocity 2 positive 3 positive 4 all of them 3 fleemings right hand rule 2 none of them 1 none of them 4 all of them 3 57.3 4 90 3 angular velocity 4 all of them 2 none of them 2 radians per minute 3 angular acceleration 4 along the axis of rotation 4 all of them 4 fleemings right hand rule 3 neither in straight line nor in circular path 2 none of them 3 none of them 3 none of them 1 none of them 2 very small viscosity 2 drag force 4 non of them 3 none of them 1 none of them 3 none of them 2 net force = weight + drag force 2 none of them 3 all of them 1 none of them 3 constant quantity 3 none of them 2 2.2 m/s 2 weight 3 none of them 3 streamline 4 neither of them 1 none of them 2 neither of them 3 none of them 1 zero 3 resistive force 1 circular motion 2 simple harmonic motion 4 an acceleration 2 velocity 3 displacement 2 time period 3 total energy remains constant 4 directly proportional to the displacement but in opposite direction 4 electrons revolving sound the nucleus 3 a simple pendulum 3 none of them 3 saw tooth wave 2 one third of the maximum value 2 one third of the maximum value 1 vibration/sec 1 none of them 3 none of them 3 none of them 3 none of them 2 none of them 1 none of them 3 none of them 1 none of them 1 none of them 2 none of them 3 none of them 3 frequency 2 frequency 1 frequency 3 all of them 3 none of them 3 all of them 3 none of them 2 any one of them 3 compressional wave 4 crests 2 crests 1 any one of them 3 spherical 4 none of them 3 none of them 3 elliptical wavefront 1 elliptical wavefront 1 none of them 3 either of them 2 hyugen's principle 4 both of them 2 none of them 2 compton 1 speed of light 2 speed of proton 1 empty medium 2 polarization 1 polarization 1 increase rapidly 2 all of them 4 four colurs 1 any one of them 1 none of them 1 neither of them 1 all of them 3 both of them 4 optical resolution 4 none of them 3 all of them 3 none of them 3 none of them 1 diminished and virtual 2 none of them 1 25 1 none of them 2 two concave lenses 2 very short 4 just beyond the principle focus of eye- piece 3 viertual and diminished image 1 at the focus of objective 3 near point of eye 4 directly proportional to the k.E 4 PV=nRT 4 directly proportional to the P.E. of gas molecules. 3 none of them 3 none of them 2 all of them 1 increases 4 none of them 3 none of them 3 any one of them 1 any one of them 2 none of them 3 both of them 3 has both A and C 4 none of them 1 10J 4 none of them 2 none of them 3 not fixed 2 none of them 3 joule 2 the systeme of units and the medium between the charges 4 one half 3 one fourth 4 variable velocity 2 Newton 4 dipoles 2 non of above 4 none of these 1 none of these 1 Michael Faraday 4 1800-1860 1 electric intensity 4 Volt 2 Mass 2 electric field 4 the force on a charge of one coulomb would experience there 4 Wat/m 1 1 J/C 4 variable velocity 2 none of these 1 none of these 2 ampere 4 none of these 3 ions and electorns 4 electrons revolving sound the nucleus 2 Mass 3 temperature 2 electrical energy 4 electrical energy 4 ohm's law 3 current 3 position 2 atoms 3 all of these 4 one ampere 1 parabola 2 resistance 4 Len's law 3 1 volt/ 1 coulomb 3 voltage resistance and charge 3 ellipse 2 none of these 2 F=DIL sin 3 -1 2 F=BIL cos 1 all of the above 4 IT =104G 4 self inductances 2 6N 1 G=10-1T 3 weber 2 2 F=IL.B 3 F=B/2 3 magnetic flux density 1 weber 4 magnetic field intensity 1 Newton- Amp/Meter 1 weber/meter 1 moving permanent magnet 1 potential difference 4 none of these 3 opposite direction 4 none of these 2 motional emf 4 non insulator 3 all of the above 4 capacitance induced 2 weber 1 all of the above 4 none of these 3 Gauss's law 2 rate of change of magnetic flux 4 the magnitude of induced emf 1 pole strength 2 none of these 1 1874 2 with a great difficulty but at very low cost 2 none of them 2 time constant 3 none of them 3 all of them 2 none of these 3 none of them 1 all of them 2 none of them 2 all of them 3 all of them 2 all of them 1 all fo them 3 none of them 2 none of them 1 any one of them 3 any one of them 3 none of them 2 all of them 3 none of tehm 1 unit cell 2 cubical 2 elasticity 4 neither stress nor strain 3 stress 4 any one of them 2 any one of them 1 sixth group 3 none of them 2 none of them 1 depletion region 4 0.9 v 3 none of them 2 none of them 1 few milli ohms 3 micro amperes 4 micro amperes 1 none of them 1 none of them 2 few mili ohms 3 forward voltage and reversed voltage 3 polarization 2 foure 1 all of the above 3 neither of these 2 none of these 1 none of these 2 none of these 2 none of these 1 none of these 3 none of these 3 none of these 1 none of these 2 four postulates 2 all of these are postulates of special theorty of relativity 2 none of these 2 9.6 s 4 in any direction 2 none of these 2 2.66 m 3 none of these 3 mass and energy are different entities but non interconvertible 3 2000 cm/s 1 none of these 1 all of these 2 none of these 2 any one of them 3 particle physics 3 none of these 2 discrete spectra 2 none of these 1 none of these 3 j.j. balmer 4 1900 1 lies in the far- infra red region 3 Lymann series 4 all of the above 4 Paschen series and Pfund series 2 Lyman series 4 Paschen series and Pfund series 4 Bracket series 1 4 1 visible region 4 one of its electron jumps from a lower energy to a higher energy orbit 3 none of these 2 it has negative charge 1 neither emit nor absorb 1 1920 4 1932 4 Rutherford 3 Chadwick 1 electron 2 antineutrino 2 number of isotopes 2 none of these 1 A+Z 1 none of these 3 A 3 A 3 Rutherford 4 neutral 4 neutral 2 isobars 3 4 2 tritium 1 tritium 4 none of these 1 Number with direction 3 Time 4 A number only 1 Density 4 Positive 2 Position of a vector 3 Position vector 3 None of the above 3 Half magnitude 3 0 4 - k 3 1 2 Subtractive 2 none of them 1 none of them 2 non of them 2 [LT-2] 3 none of them 3 both of them 4 infinity 1 variable velocity 2 acceleration 4 fixed quantity 3 either speed or direction changes 4 none of them 2 all of them 3 uniform velocity 4 may be all of them 3 average velocity 1 maximum 1 maximum 3 maximum 2 maximum 4 N-m-2 3 (d) none of them 3 22.5 J 4 gravitational field 4 the displacement is zero 2 the displacement is zero 1 all of them 2 neither of them 1 conserrvative field 4 change in energy 2 Electron volts 1 754 watts 2 Equal to P.E 1 Angular velocity 3 Nuclear energy 4 Only y- component 2 Electromagneti c force 1 Decreases 1 Decomes equal to horizontal velocity 2 Four components 2 Horizontal 1 Total velocity 2 Threen times the time to reach the highest point 1 At random 1 Elliptical motion 3 Torque 4 Impulse 3 Additionof force and moment arm 3 Directionof torque changes 1 Produces no acceleration 2 Zero 2 Quantity of motion 3 Zero 2 Keep the body stationary 3 Arm of the weight 3 The surface of the body 3 The mid-points of axis 4 None of the above 2 The moment of momentum in a body 4 The applied torque 4 Maxwell 1 Frequency 4 Refraction 3 Light from sun 3 All of the above 4 Refraction 1 Dispersion of light 1 5 3 Photo electric effect 3 Reflection 3 Purple 3 All of them 4 Glass 3 Plano-concave lens 2 Plano-concave lens 2 Principal focus 3 Aperture 3 Aperture 1 Radius of curvature 3 Dioptre 1 1/4 meter 1 Between f and 2f 2 Centre of curvature 2 Within the focal length 4 5 cm 3 q = 3p 1 4 3 2 Biology 4 Biology 2 Four 2 four 3 Decimal 1 Due to all reasons in a, b and c 4 All given in a, b and c 4 all methods explained in a, b and c 3 all accurately known digits and the first doubtful digit 4 significant only if left to a significant figure 1 two 1 none of these 2 only a and b are correct 4 both (i) and (ii) 3 all of a, b and c 3 Neither plane angle nor solid angle 2 only a and b are correct 4 Division of their absolute uncertainties 1 deca 1 newton,N 2 4 2 Amount of substance 2 Classified error 3 Absolute uncertainties are divided 1 None 4 Both a and c 3 None of these 2 D.C current at peak value 3 Surface cracking 1 Conductor 3 Dislocation 3 The external symmetry of form 4 Homogeneity 1 Cleavage 2 Six corners 3 All of the above 4 Empty band 1 Core band 4 Transport impulses 3 Non metals 4 All of the above 1 First increases then decreases 2 All of the above 3 A partly filled valence band, a totally empty conduction band and a wide forbidden band 3 All of the above 3 Neutral 4 Oscilloscope 1 4 3 3 2 directly proportional to the E.E 1 PV=nRT 4 directly proportional to the P.E. of gas molecules. 3 none of them 3 none of them 2 all of them 1 increases 4 none of them 3 none of them 3 any one of them 1 any one of them 2 none of them 3 both of them 3 all of them 1 none of them 1 10J 4 none of them 2 none of them 3 not fixed 2 none of them 3 none of these 2 none of these 1 none of these 3 none of these 3 none of these 1 none of these 2 four postulates 2 all of these are postulates of special theorty of relativity 2 none of these 2 9.6 s 4 in any direction 2 none of these 2 2.66 m 3 none of these 3 mass and energy are different entities but non interconvertible 3 2000 cm/s 1 none of these 1 all of these 2 none of these 2 any one of them 3 particle physics 3 none of these 2 discrete spectra 2 none of these 1 none of these 3 j.j. balner 4 1900 1 lies in the far- infra red region 3 Lymann series 4 all of the above 4 Paschen series and Pfund series 2 Lyman series 4 Paschen series and Pfund series 4 Bracket series 1 4 1 visible region 2 one of its electron jumps from a lower energy to a higher energy orbit 3 none of these 2 it has negative charge 1 neither emit nor absorb 1 Nuclear 4 Beryllium 2 Two neutrons 1 Light rays 1 Light emitting diode 3 Radio phosphorus 1 Alpha particles 2 5 cm 3 Fast moving 3 Cobalt - 60 2 None of them 2 Spherical coordinate system 2 No angle 3 All given laws in a, b and c 4 all a, b and c are correct 4 Infinite 3 Infinite 4 Has magnitude -2 4 Both a and b are correct 1 Triangular rule 2 Up 3 Both a and b are not correct 3 Right hand rule 1 All a, b and c are correct 4 Neither a nor b is correct 1 Direction of motion of the body 3 May be at rest or in motion 3 Both a and c are correct answer 3 Non parallel 1 Mass and moment of inertia 4 Has no relation with torque 2 Couple acts on the wheel 4 its momentum 3 displacement of origin changes 4 infinite 3 velocity is zero 3 acceleration 3 momentum 1 moves in a circle 1 Temperature 3 move with velocity of light 4 both mass and velocity of a body 4 both A and B 1 force , momentum 3 impulse 2 hard and elastic 3 increases his momentum 1 centrifugal force 3 25 m 1 declined curve 1 both momentum and K.E remain conserve 2 -2 2 a base ball shot 1 2 constant for short range rocket 1 law of gravitation 2 circle 2 both A and C 1 all of these 4 gravitational field 2 maximum 4 centripetal force 4 at high rate 3 energy 3 force into small and displacement into large intervals. 2 neither change in K.E nor change in its P.E 3 gravitational field of earth 3 Four times than its translational K.E 1 24 hours 4 18000km 1 None of the above 2 Directed away form the center 2 Centripetal acceleration 3 No work 4 Less than the weight of the stone 3 None 3 Centripetal force 1 Rectilinear path 4 The friction between the tyres of the cycle and road vanishes 2 100N 1 At the point where gravity is not acting 2 Plank 4 Sun 1 Both inertial and non inertial 2 5 2 39.2N 4 10N 1 129days 4 Angular motion 4 Water 4 Neither uniform nor maximum 3 Infinite 1 Square of diameter of the body 4 Straight line 2 Stroke‟s law 4 Volume of the fluid is constant 3 Laminar 2 All 1 Changes continuously 1 All 2 Of rubber 2 75% 3 On himself 3 Lying horizontally 4 04:03 2 fluid 2 None 3 Goes straight 1 Spherical 4 Abnormal blood pressure 2 Sonometer 3 Moving fast 4 Stokes effect 3 Possess all properties 4 Some time high and some time low 1 Both (a) and (b 3 None of these 2 None 3 None 1 None of these 2 None of these 1 Oil (kerosene) 1 None of these 3 60 to 140 torr 1 Total momentum remain constant 3 None 4 Middle between mean and extreme position on the left side 1 Square of amplitude 4 6 seconds 3 98cm 3 Two times 4 Mg 2 2.5 hertz 2 Vibratory motion 4 Loudness 3 None time 2 g/T 1 All positions during SHM 4 4 1 Equal to square of damping force 2 Bulb 4 –mg cos θ 2 Neither displacement nor direction of motion 3 Square root of its length 4 Neither in radio nor in microwave oven 1 4 x amplitude 4 All P.E acceleration & restoring force are zero 4 Neither amplitude nor energy 3 Free vibration 3 Both (a) and (c) 3 Is zero 1 None 1 None S.H.M 2 None 3 All of these 1 7.5cm 2 None of these 1 None 1 Mechanical waves 4 Phase difference 3 Becomes zero 3 Crests 1 Any of above 2 Sometimes a node and sometimes an antinode is formed 1 Diffraction 2 Isochoric 3 They do not have enough energy 3 Ammonia 3 May increase or decrease 2 6000 to 8000 hertz 3 All of the above 2 Resonance 3 The frequency of either of the two tuning forks 2 Destructive interference 2 Resonance 2 Neither sound nor light wave 3 No apparent change in frequency 2 2f 3 selected harmonics are present 3 Interference plane 2 Sodium chlorate 3 Polarized fringes 3 All thickness, nature and angle of incidence 4 Frequency 4 8 minutes 30 seconds 4 Plank 3 It was not his discovery 3 Polarization 4 Bright for large wavelength 1 A plane wave front 3 Wave font 4 3 Diffraction 3 Diffraction 3 Impossible to predict 2 Young 2 central fringes are brighter than the outer fringes 3 polarization 3 polarization 4 less for a sharp edge 3 No vibration at all. 3 elliptically polarized 1 Sound waves 4 They are adjacent with no space in between 3 No scientific reasoning available 1 Bright 1 Interference pattern not disturbed 1 plano convex lens 2 aperture 2 radius of curvature 3 polarized 2 horsepower 3 negative 2 4 f 4 virtual 4 between principle focus and optical center 3 list distance of distinct vision 4 2 2 40cm 4 become infinite after 60 years 2 distortion 1 f/2 2 f1f2/f1-f2 4 virtual and inverted 4 different with refractive index of core higher then cladding 4 monomode step index fiber 3 diffraction 1 all types of fiber 2 neither zero nor one 2 plano concave lens 2 all of the above 4 3f/2 3 infinite 4 How much total absolute energy a body has 3 All of the above 4 The temperatures of frozen and boiling mercury 2 -273 1 2.12 degrees of Fahrenheit scale 2 A straight line 4 Same only along normal directions 2 All of the above 4 All are correct 4 Laboratory 2 Could formation in the atmosphere 3 Data is insufficient 1 Any of above 2 Avagadro‟s law 2 Time 3 Adiabatic processes 3 One fourth 2 Kinetic energy 4 Isothermal 3 Both glass rod and silk acquire positive charge 2 Remains same 3 All of above are same 3 Both electric and magnetic field 4 An electrically neutral body is repelled both positively and negatively charged bodies 4 Any of above 2 All the above 3 Data in insufficient 1 Depends upon case 2 All the above statements are true 1 Both potential difference and capacitance decrease but energy increases 1 Zero 3 Both „a‟ and „b‟ are possible 3 In the direction of electric flux 4 Circular 1 Density of the capacitor plates 2 1 volts 1 None of above 3 Positively and negatively charged 3 Zero 3 Negative 2 A / m 3 100 eV 2 None of above 4 gravitational field 4 still under controversy 3 All of above 3 No specific criterion available 3 Becomes zero 2 Feed back effect 2 Less heat is produced in thick wire 1 120W 1 one hour 4 mechanical energy into heat energy 3 14J 4 12KWh 2 changes with every conductor 4 depends upon nature 4 copper 1 flexibility 2 all of above 4 capacitor 3 all 2 all will burn equally brightly 4 dcpends upon altitude of experimentatio n 1 will depend on none of the above 4 100 3 neutral particles 3 2C 1 straight line 1 tungsten 1 may increase or decrease 4 just to give a good look to circuit 4 kilowatt hour 3 different current and potential differences 2 60 watt 4 over heating 1 the battery is discharged 2 self inductance 3 lOOOA 3 R=qmB/V 2 they cancel out their individual magnetic fields 1 none 1 exerts a force if the charged particle is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field lines 4 0.4 volt 3 soft iron 4 flux density = magnetic flux x area 2 B 4 a helix 4 E = BeV/2 3 ammeter 3 smaller than the restoring couple 2 ABC/N 1 AC transformer and DC generator 4 none of the above 1 a high resistance box is used in one of its gap 3 0.2 mA 1 in parallel with any of the series resistances in the circuit 1 measure potential difference between two points in a circuit 1 use a very strong magnetic field 4 potential difference across galvanometer branch is zero 4 a straight line along its initial direction 3 directly proportional to B 2 radial field disintegration 1 use spiral springs whose force constant is small 4 demagnetize it completely 1 comes to rest after rotation 2 transformer 4 self-inductance 3 mean square current 3 initial magnetic flux 2 all of above 4 changes its magnitude continuously and reverses its direction of flow after regularly recurring intervals 4 magnetic energy into electrical energy 1 all of above 4 all the above 3 all of the above 4 all 4 increase 4 none of these 2 all of the above 1 A.C generator 1 magnetic field 3 heating effect through a resistance 4 Back emf 2 0.03125 volt 4 Motional emf 1 Increases the mutual inductance between the solenoid and the core 3 No resultant force 4 Producing magnetic field 3 Heating effect 2 Accelerating charge 4 Half D.C voltage 2 Transformer 4 6 2 Amplifier is used 3 None of the above 2 Hysteresis 4 Law of conservation of power 3 No back emf 1 changes its magnitude harmonically and reverses its direction of flow after regularly recurring intervals. 3 Artificial gravitational field 3 More than sound waves 1 Parallel to electric and magnetic field 2 Electric and magnetic fields moving perpendicular to each other 4 Heat 1 Modulated waves 2 All the above 3 None 2 Net current 3 Square of 1/2 2 5.66A 4 No phase difference 3 No light 2 Increases 4 Peak value of current 2 At L will be less than at C 1 8.OH 2 Full wave rectifier circuit 2 not definite 3 20mH 3 All of the above 4 One increases whereas that in the other decreases 2 both electric and magnetic fields 3 Copper 2 Pressure 2 l.OJ 1 0.1 OOJ 3 Inversely proportional to extension 1 Polymers 2 The cross sectional area of the wire remains constant 1 Subtraction 2 Deformation 4 conduction band 2 Metals become super conductor 1 Straight line 2 blockers 2 any of above 1 tetravalent 4 n-carriers and p-carriers respectively 3 off switch 4 any of above 2 any of above 3 using a Coolidge tube 3 free electrons in n-type and p- type 1 when temperature varies 1 infinite 3 Forbidden band 1 all of above 1 photons 3 an electron 2 arsenic 3 electrons 2 points form north to south 1 All of the above. 3 Its conductivity increases with rise of temperature. 1 Either positive or negative half of A.C 2 Converter. 2 Oscillator 4 Solar cells. 2 Solar cells. 2 None at all 2 A digital waveform 4 A low resistance amplifier 1 Zero 2 5 4 5 2 None of the above 4 No effect 2 Triode vacuum tube 4 Logic functions 1 Output 2 None of the above 2 None of the above 1 all the above 4 Newton's laws of motion arc valid in an accelerated (non inertial) frame of reference 4 a foolish question 2 250 GWh 2 γ-rays 4 all of the above 4 photo cell 4 all of the above 3 De Broglie 3 zero 3 shifts towards longer as well as shorter wavelengths 2 Einstein 4 angle of scattering is zero 3 refraction 3 a unit of wavelength 3 Increases then decreases 1 First increases then decreases because curvilinear graph 2 The average kinetic energy of the photoelectrons decreases. 4 Quantum property 2 Electromagneti c wave property 1 All the above reasons. 3 Converging source of electrons 4 None of the above. 2 Very high velocity 1 Planck's. 3 Uncertain nature of light. 1 S.H.M like sound. 2 183.6 2 Lymann series 4 any of above 3 emit either invisible or visible light 3 it has a single electron 4 no spectrum 1 radio isotopes 3 all of above 4 -1.5 leV 3 six 3 absorption spectrum 2 visible radiation 3 ultraviolet rays 1 X- rays production 4 all of the above 2 sometimes increases and sometimes decreases 3 A & B 2 Infrared. 2 impossible to predict 1 Increasing the potential difference between the cathode and the target. 4 The absorption of y radiation by the target metal 3 all of above are correct. 2 The wavelengths of X-rays are of the same order of magnitude as the separation between atoms in a crystal 4 All the above. 2 Photoelectric effect. 3 The velocity of electron must by very high according to uncertainty principle. 4 Cause laser production. 2 All the above. 3 Electrons of Ne. 1 All the above. 1 Different for different colours or frequency 3 different for different isotopes 4 mass is reduced due to energy released 2 all of above laws contradict the statement 1 all of above can build up a change reaction 1 all of above 4 quartz 1 don't know 2 A,B&C 3 20MeV 1 greater than 102 3 all of the above 4 all of above are one and same thing 2 moderators reflect the neutrons 1 positron 2 all of above 1 platinum rods 3 Thomson 3 no definite charge 2 photon 2 lsomers 2 isotopes 2 some times smaller some times greater 2 light energy is released 2 half life 4 chemical reaction 3 all of the above 4 nothing 2 elliptical 3 nickel-63 1 10 times less 2 all situations 3 momentum 4 all of above 4 limit 2 C-14 4 all of above 3 charge is not conserved 3 IR-rays 2 Wilson cloud chamber 2 aluminum 3 3 rern per week 2 the charged particle 1 all of them 3 a visible spectrum 1 A bond breaking reaction 1 passing electricity through aqueous solutions 1 18.75 g 1 m/e values of a positive ion 4 electron gas 3 number of atoms 1 Isotopes with even atomic masses and odd atomic numbers are comparatively abundant 3 boiling 4 filteraction 4 miscible liguid from a solid 1 If the paper fits tightly 1 sodium chloride and copper(II) sulphate 1 heat the mixture gently and collect the substance which melts 3 add water to the mixture and filter 4 filtration 4 separate solute from solution 2 the tip of the funnel should not touch the beaker 1 to dissolved large amount of substance at its boiling point 1 It is used to separate organic compound from water 1 avoid premature crystallization of soluts 3 it dissolves a large amount of the substance 3 solvent extraction technique 1 is mixed with an immicible liquid to get the pure crystals of the products 2 immiscible liquids 1 the gives the bigger crystals 2 on hit trial basis 4 ionic and covalent compounds 3 volatile or thermally unstable 4 Trichlorometha ne and water do not mix 4 causing pressure 1 definite shapes 1 cool down 4 the volume of the molecules is negligible 1 a multiple 2 Boyle's law 4 a curve called isotherm 4 be doubled 2 temperature and pressure both are increased 1 gas 4 Grahams law 2 stalagmometer 1 stalagmometer 3 in fractions 3 atomic volume 3 spreading of smell from a scent bottle 4 instantaneous dipole-induced dipole force 4 Ethanol in water 1 Rn atoms are joined by dipole-dipole forces whereas He atoms are joint by hydrogen bonding 3 solution of NaCl in bezene 4 dipole-induced dipole interaction 1 pyramidal structure of NH3 3 none of these 1 lonic bonding 3 both 1 & 3 4 dipole-dipole interaction 3 high dielectric constant 2 ammonia 3 4 4 hydrogen sulphide 3 dipole-induced dipole forces 3 London dispersion forces 3 they comprise neutron particles 4 deuteron 4 hydrogen nucleus 3 compton effect 1 depends on its source 4 all of the above 3 there is actually no space between the nucleus and the electrons 3 all of the above 4 n=2,1=0 1 nearest to the valence shell 3 4f 1 d-orbitals 3 the spin of the electron 1 spin of the electron 2 Cathode rays are material particles having momentum 4 temperature low 3 temperature of cathode rays is higher 3 cathode rays become heated 2 cathode rays remove electrons from gas molecules 4 London force 1 number of protons in an atom of the element 1 heavy substances 1 to make gaseous substances 1 Auf bau principle 1 the two atoms start ionization 2 micrometer 1 increases then decreases 3 first increase then decreases 2 a covalent bond 4 ethane 3 none of these is correct 3 none of this is correct 2 bonding molecular orbitals are formed when the electron waves undergo constructive interference 2 high dielectric constant 3 electronegative character of elemetns 2 their s and p orbitals completley filled 4 volume change 1 temperature increases 2 an energetic reaction 2 watts 1 formation of nitric oxide, NO , form N2 and O2 at room temperature 4 chemical potential 1 all of these 4 reversible process 2 none of the above 1 state function 4 none of these 3 7.184j 3 mechanics 3 none of these 1 thermodynamic s 4 all these 4 none of these 3 none of these 3 None of these 3 heterogeneous 4 irreversible reaction 3 total pressures of the reactants 3 catalyst is added 1 find best conditions for favorable shifting of the position of equilibrium 4 3 4 acid with greater pKa is 100 times stronger acid 3 Lowery Bronsted concept 4 a solution of weak base+salt of this base with strong acid 3 salvation 2 ideal solution 1 mole fraction 3 molarity 2 dehydration 2 dehydration 1 saturated 2 none of these 1 2 M 1 42.7 1 247 4 2.4 moles 3 gas is solute and solid is solvent 1 gas is solute and solid is solvent 3 standard solution 1 11.55% 2 0.25 3 a chemical cell 3 in metals the ions are free to move 1 reduction occurs at cathode 4 none of these 2 dry cell 2 neutralization 2 all of the above cell 2 induction 1 copper electrode 2 electropating 1 ionization potential 2 fuel cells 1 infinite cells 2 none of these occurs 2 overall rate 3 titration 4 lowing the temperature 4 all of these 2 the catalytic activity is poisoned by a co-enzyme 4 specific rate constant 4 half decrease in concentration of reactants 3 rate at any one given instant of time interval 4 final rate 1 active mass of reactants 2 when molar concentrations of reactants are unity 3 molecularity 3 pseudo first order 1 instantaneous rate 2 periodic law 1 atomic numbers 4 sub groups 1 8 3 2,8,8 4 the inert gases 2 f-block elements 4 d & f orbitals 4 S,Si,Na 3 decreases in a period from left to rigth and increase down a group 4 decreases in a period and increases down the group 2 fight 1 s-orbital 3 2nd 3 ten 3 none of these 2 none of these 3 first increases then decreases 2 first increases then decreases 4 amphoteric 3 alkaline earth metals 4 acidic 3 amphoteric 3 neutralization 3 32 3 four 2 none of these 3 s-orbital 4 crimson 1 ionization potential 3 none of these 3 none of these occurs 3 all of these 3 all of these 4 none of these 2 all these 4 none of these 3 none of thdese 3 none of these 1 none of these 1 alkali and alkaline earth metals 4 it is used as furniture polish 3 semi conductors have different resistance under different circumstances 1 zinc 3 none of these 3 oxygen 3 for enamels and glazes 3 oxygen 4 C 2 f-block elements 2 cu 1 aluminum 4 amphoteric 1 pentavalent compounds 3 the stability of +2 oxidation state 1 In 3 aluminium 3 all of these 4 9 3 5 4 catalyst 3 o 4 both are paramagnetic 4 Bi 1 Sb 1 all of the abvoe 4 carbon 3 16 atom of sulphur 3 magnetic 2 hydro sulphuric acid 3 castners process 3 as salt beds in ponds 3 it restricts to oxidatioin state-1 only 3 high atomic number 4 bond energies 4 disproportion reaction 4 for bleaching raw sugar 4 HCI 1 CI2 1 calcium hydroxide 4 a halogen 3 K 4 have no heat of vaporization 1 At 4 all of the above 4 chlorine 2 shiny greyish black solid 1 Te 4 Hf 4 their compounds are diamagnetic 4 5 1 geometry of complex 4 inner transition 4 number of protons 3 case iron=steel>wro ught iron 3 loss of- electrons 1 30 4 p-orbitals 2 none of these 2 80 3 none of these 3 magnetic 1 methane 1 lewis 1 organic compounds are water soluble 4 wood 4 coke 2 1.84 million tonnes 1 methane 4 kerosene,gasol ine, petroleum ether, natural gas 1 normal cracking 4 the combustion product,lead causes air pollutions 4 anthracene 3 10 isomers 4 butyi alcohol 1 isopentene 1 the presence of a triple bond in an compound 1 no hydrogen atom 4 Lavoisier 3 two pi bonds 2 cir-trans isomerism 3 organic 4 partial hydrogenation of alkanes 4 catalytic hydrogenation 1 none of these 1 resonance 3 none of these 3 haloform reaction 1 in all these preparations 4 alcohol 3 hydration 3 vinyl halides 3 ethylene 3 none of these 2 colourless 4 polyethylene 4 acetylene 4 all of these 4 free radical chlorination of benzene 4 delocalized electron charge 4 cyclohexane 3 elimination reactions 4 chlorobenzene 1 ethyne 2 they resist reaction with air 3 rearrangement 2 ortho and para directing 4 ortho and meta directing 1 its enthalpy change of formation is positive 3 ether 1 glycol 3 Aldol cindensation 1 decolorized - element 1 chlorobenzene 1 keto group 4 no such group exists 3 one or no carbon atom 1 bromide > iodide > chloride 1 all the three 1 zero order kinetics 2 E1 and Sn1 4 they have a nuncleophilic carbon and good leaving group 3 none of the above 1 Imides 3 ethene and ethanol 3 ether 1 Clemensen, reaction 2 alkyl halide 4 benzene 3 alchols 3 alkdehyde 2 ether 3 water 4 flame test 1 alcohol>phenol >carboxylic acid 1 phenol and acetone 3 ethoxy methane 3 methanol+Mg+ CH3Br 1 fermentation 3 inverase 3 for denaturing of ethly alcohol 3 benzyne 3 alkanes 1 both o and p- nitrophenol 4 dimethlether 3 alkyl halide 1 butyl alcohol 3 all these 4 acides 1 acetone 4 aldyhydes and ketones with α- hydrogen 4 nucleophilic substitution 3 3-pentanone 4 trimethlyacetal dehyde 1 Benedict's reagent 1 carboxlic acids 1 amines 3 not hybridized 2 60% solution of formaldehyde in water 3 none of these 2 esters 1 all of the above 4 by the hydrolysis of p- amines 4 cohesive forces 2 benzylacetate 3 b-amino acids 1 esterification 1 a carbonyl and an aldehydic group 3 butanoic acid 3 the hydrolysis of methl cyanide 1 hydrolysis 2 is less viscous 3 none of these 1 solvlysis 3 methy butyrate 3 methl butyrate 1 formaldehyde 2 Newton 3 starch 4 nucleic acid 3 synthetic polymer 4 65000 3 terpolymder 3 none of these 3 polyester is an addition polymer 1 phtalic acid and hexethylene diamine 3 PVC 1 diamond 4 nucleus acid 4 keeping pH7.35 4 nucleic acid 4 saoibucfucatio n number 3 a hydrocarbon 1 the hydroglysis of proteins 3 epoxy resin 3 polyester 4 decompose to produce toxic products 3 barium 4 20 3 30 3 20 1 N,K,C 3 rice straw 3 seed 3 4kg-40kg 3 1200 C 3 water hyacinth 3 marine shell 3 5 3 paddy rice 4 none of these 4 50% 2 none of these 3 apoenzyme 3 binder 3 all these 4 none of these 1 statosphere 4 to destroy nitrogen oxide from the atmosphere 3 atmosphere 1 increase of plantation 4 global warming 3 50,000 3 rain 4 7 days 3 the ground water 1 treatmetn with iodine 4 glass 3 less than 5 4 nose 1 kill herbs 1 biosphere 4 chromium (iii) 4 500 to 900 C 1 5 4 It is less stable 1 Reduction 2 C C 1 Benzene 1 Ether 1 2-pentyne 4 Cyclohexane 1 Acylation 3 Benzene 3 Ethyne 3 Methyl hydrogen sulphate 3 Glycol 3 Onion 3 propylene 2 Tetrahedral 1 6 4 > 100 3 100 1 a and b 4 Galactose 1 Glucose 2 Composition and properties of matter 4 30 mol of hydrogen atoms 3 water should be preferred over lemon juice for drinking 1 gram/lit 4 one 2 #NAME? 1 ionic compounds don‟t‟ have any empirical formula 3 all of the above 1 3 2 80 g 4 an observation 3 always smaller than molecule 2 6.8 4 graphite 4 exactly the same as its melting point 4 10.23 4 the gas is chlorine 4 1.087 2 all of them 3 a visible spectrum 1 the charged particle 1 collied with high frequency 2 a bond breaking reaction 1 passing electricity through aqueous solutions 1 18.75 g 1 m/e values of a positive ion 4 number of atoms 1 Isotopes with even atomic masses and odd atomic numbers are comparatively abundant 2 it has different properties from its constituents 3 he will feel warmth 3 nitrogen 3 Both A and C 3 B has 273 degrees greater reading than A 2 Absolute scale is unable to record this temperature 2 4L to 2L 4 much larger than the molar volumes of liquids and solids 4 low temperature and high pressure 4 actual volume of a gas is not negligible at very high pressure 4 less molecular size 4 definite shapes 1 cool down 4 the volume of the molecules is negligible 1 a multiple 2 Boyle's law 4 a curve called isotherm 4 There is no relationship between elastic collision and energy 3 be doubled 2 temperature and pressure both are increased 1 Melted from solid to liquid state 4 Divided by the total pressure 2 gas 4 Atmospheric pressure 3 Grahams law 2 stalagmometer 1 79 cm 1 stalagmometer 3 causing pressure 1 in fractions 3 atomic volume 3 spreading of smell from a scent bottle 4 have different densities 2 HI > Ar > HCI 1 unaffected instead 1 CsCI 1 minimum potential energy 1 NaF 2 meniscus may be concave or convex depending on the nature of the metal 2 Plastic 4 metallic crystals 4 6 4 CdS 4 molecular size 4 greater molecular size 3 petrol molecules have greater size 1 1 – 2 kJ per mole of bonds 1 hydrochloric acid 4 decreasing surface tension 3 hydrogen bonding 1 lattice energy of KBr is 730 kJ/mol and that of KI is 765 kJ/mol 2 instantaneous dipole-induced dipole force 4 no crystalline structure 4 covalent network solids 2 Ethanol in water 1 Rn atoms are joined by dipole-dipole forces whereas He atoms are joint by hydrogen bonding 3 solution of NaCl in bezene 4 dipole-induced dipole interaction 1 pyramidal structure of NH3 2 none of these 1 lonic bonding 3 low pressure 4 dipole-dipole interaction 3 high dielectric constant 2 ammonia 3 4 4 hydrogen sulphide 3 dipole-induced dipole forces 3 London dispersion forces 3 does not depend on the nature of the gas used in the discharge tube 3 actually e/m ratio of canal rays is greater than that of the cathode rays 1 nuclei are unstable 4 increase in the proton number of the metal used as anode 4 ultraviolet radiation 2 may be greater or less than the first ionization energy depending on the nature of the element 2 5th group elements have half filled atomic orbitals 4 photon 2 a sphere 4 3f 2 \radio waves 1 All d orbitals have 4 lobes 4 4 1 2d orbitals 1 the principal quantum number 2 ultraviolet radiation 3 X-radiation, visible, infrared, microwave 2 3, 3, 2 4 Periodic law 2 Electron-pair repulsion 1 Periodic law 3 K < Ca < Ba < Rb 2 Sr 2 Na < Sr < F < O 2 high, very negative 3 -2.96 2 hydrogen nucleus 4 they comprise neutron particles 4 deuteron 4 compton effect 1 depends on its source 4 all of the above 1 there is actually no space between the nucleus and the electrons 3 all of the above 4 n=2,l=0 1 nearest to the valence shell 3 4f 1 d-orbitals 3 the spin of the electron 1 spin of the electron 2 Cathode rays are material particles having momentum 4 temperature low 3 temparature of cathode rays higher 3 cathode rays become heated 2 cathode rays remove electrons from gas molecules 4 Each bonding MO can accommodate only one electron 2 C-I < C-Br < C- F < C-CI 2 8 in bonding MOs, 4 in antibonding Mos 4 London force 1 number of protons in an atom of the element 1 heavy substances 1 to make gaseous substances 1 Auf bau principle 1 the two atoms start ionization 2 micrometer 1 first increases then decreases 2 a covalent bond 4 ethane 3 none of these is correct 3 none of this is correct 2 bonding molecular orbitals are formed when the electron waves undergo constructive interference 2 high dielectric constant 3 electronegative character of elemetns 2 their s and p orbitals are completley filled 4 H 3 Hcondensation < Hsublimation < Hfusion < Hvaporization 3 =+K319 4 are exothermic 1 endothermic processes 4 water will freeze 4 no work is done on the surrounding 1 non- spontaneous endothermic process 2 4kg H2O 4 heat of vaporization 1 activation energy 1 None of the above 2 none of these 3 none of these 3 heterogeneous 4 irreversible reaction 3 total pressure of the reactants 3 catalyst is added 1 find best conditions for favorable shifting the position of equilibrium 4 acid with greater pKa is 100 times stronger acid 3 Lowery Bronsted concept 4 a solution of weak base+salt of this base with strong acid 3 rate constant of the reaction 2 decreases with increase in concentration of the products 1 decreases with increase in concentration of the products 1 Super catalyst 1 quinoline is an activator 2 Decreases the number of collisions 1 Activation energy 4 First activated and then deactivated 1 None of the above 2 Does not take place 1 All the above 4 c 3 f 1 Bi 3 4B 3 3d8 4S2 2 Na 1 Br>CI>F>I 2 Be 2 zero 4 Sixteen 1 NaF 1 Mg 3 Alkali metals 2 Ba 2 Ba 1 F>O>N>C 3 VIIA 1 Reducing power 4 17 2 Lanthanides 4 CI2O7 1 number of neutrons 3 VIIIB 2 VIIIB 2 None of the above 2 None of the above 3 CI 4 F-H 4 None of the above 3 VII 4 CI 2 the atomic number of the both elements differs by less than 8 3 Rubidium is radio active 3 Iron 1 It can be liberated from its salts by chlorine 4 None of the above 1 carbon family 3 atomic numbers 4 alkaline earth metals 4 fight 1 acidic 3 neutralization 3 amphoteric 2 32 3 periodic law 1 sub groups 1 8 3 2,8,8 4 the inert gases 2 f-block elements 4 f-block elements 4 S,Si,Na 3 decreases in a period from left to right and increase down a group 3 decreases in a period and increases down the group 2 s-orbital 3 2nd 3 ten 3 none of these 2 none of these 3 first increases then decreases 2 first increases then decreases 4 amphoteric 3 None of the above 4 Crimson 1 Get pure most AI 1 Moderator 4 None of the above 2 Phosphor pentaoxide 2 Carbon 1 light yellow colored powder 3 Nitrate 2 reduction 2 Pb 1 Indium 1 Ag 3 It does not dissolve in water 1 Amphoteric oxide 4 Soapy to touch 1 one monovalent and are bivalent metal 2 Ionic bonds 3 Sulphur 3 Violet 2 none is stable 2 its is a non metal 1 Sodium 3 zinc and copper 3 Spot - welding 2 Sulphuric acid 4 Glazing 2 16 atoms of sulphur 3 1.86 3 Ammoniacal chlorine 2 Nitrogen gas 3 Carbonating agent 2 it does not lonise 3 Castner- Kellner process 3 Electromagneti c 2 None of the above 4 Sub- bitumenous 1 O 4 same molecular weights 3 1 1 Isomerization 2 Oxidation 1 Decane 3 Iodform 3 PVC 2 arenas 2 crude oil 3 None 3 4 1 Neopentane 1 Cis-trans isomerism 4 lewis 1 methane 1 methane 4 organic compounds are water soluble 4 wood 4 butyl alcohol 1 isopentene 1 no hydrogen atom 4 coke 2 two pi bonds 2 1.84 million tonnes 1 cir-trans isomerism 3 kerosene,gasol ine, petroleum ether, natural gas 1 normal cracking 4 the combustion product,lead causes air pollutions 4 anthracene 3 10 isomers 2 the presence of a triple bond in a compound 1 Lavoisier 3 organic 4 Phenanthrene 3 A and C 4 dehydration 1 No 4 3 single and 3 double 3 Basic 2 Oxidation 1 Ethene 2 Benzene 3 Ethanoic acid 2 Alicyclic 2 Its high electrophilicity 1 109.5 3 Towards the addition reaction alkenes are more reactive than alkynes 4 Amylose 1 green 1 100 kcal 1 Two +ve charges 3 K 1 A and D 2 Steroids 4 Acidic strength 3 Oils 1 1.4 4 Annomers 4 One glucose and one Galactose molecule 1 Phenol complexes 2 have different physical and chemical properties but catalyse the same reaction 4 cancer 1 Hydrogenation reaction 3 Ethene 3 Non-metals 3 Sucrose 2 lyases 1 metallic ion 2 Propanoic acid 3 B and C 2 Ketone 4 Amines 2 Alicyclic hydrocarbon 3 Aldehyde and alcohol 2 Winter green 2 Oxidation 3 Phenol and Benzoic acid 4 0.2pm 3 m/e 4 None 2 Relative atomic mass 3 None of these 4 all 4 Isotopes with even atomic number and odd mass no are abundant 1 Isotopes with even atomic number and odd mass no are abundant 3 All 1 all of the above 4 54 3 charge to mass ratio 3 formula mass 3 relative isotopic mass 1 chlorine 4 gold 2 1.00 2 posses same position in the periodic table 2 300 1 molar volume of elements 1 20% 3 formula mass 1 atomic masses are average masses of isotopes 3 all of the above 1 all of the above are macromolecula r 4 all of the above methods are for different purposes 1 same mass number (nucleon number) 3 contains protons and neutrons 3 all are collected at same time 1 2.00 4 number of isotopes of many elements is 2 2 chromatograph y 1 all 4 decrease the area 3 none of these 2 condensation 2 filtration 3 descending chromatograph y 2 partition or phrase 3 quantum chemistry 3 physical chemistry 2 physical chemistry 2 solvent extraction 3 mud 2 solid particles 2 steel 3 all are equally effective 2 fibre 2 all of the above 2 crystallization 4 crystallization does not involve heating\ 2 any of above 2 gases 1 petrol 3 all the above statements are wrong 2 all are possible 2 solvents 1 vaporization 2 vaporization 2 slow 2 single phase 2 all of the above 3 static phase 2 separation 2 spectacles 3 no specific critirea 1 all represent same 1 Vander walls forces 3 ionic 2 all of the above are correct 2 all of the above 3 b and c 4 Graham‟s law 2 atoms 2 none 2 zero 4 can be liquefied 1 all of the above 4 two 2 semi solid 3 plasma 4 plasma 1 Dalton‟s law of partial pressure 3 all of the above motions 2 curve 3 hydraulic pressure 2 air 1 Greek chemist 2 Bernoulli 4 normal temperature 1 Charles law 3 Vander wall 4 inter molecular attraction only 3 low temperature and high pressure 4 liquification of gases 4 molecule become more further separated 2 rhombohedra 1 any value of pressure 1 cause cooling 3 diethyl ether 4 bravis 2 platinum 2 all 4 dipole induced dipole 3 all are possible 2 sublimation 1 all of the above 2 condensation 4 cracking 2 change of bond length 3 debye forces 1 dipole-dipole forces 2 pressure 1 viscosity 3 fist convex then concave 2 it has nothing to do with surface tension 2 evaporation 2 liquid molecules can slid over each other 4 there will be no boiling 2 a, b and c 4 all of the above 2 sharp boiling points 3 color 1 all of the above 2 no concept of viscosity in solids 1 allotropy 2 vitreous 3 tin 2 brass 4 different physical and chemical properties 4 all of the above 3 10 atmosphere 2 latent heat of that liquid 3 none 3 Electrons radiate energy continuously in a given orbit 3 spin (ms) 1 both a and b 4 hard to locate 1 18 3 hard to locate 4 composition of glass 4 from anode like cathode rays from cathode 3 all 4 Rutherford‟s atomic model 3 Compton effect 1 equals to the square of amplitude 1 spin quantum number 2 Schrodinger 2 0.01 torr 4 cathode 1 perrin 4 Bombardment of electrons on gas molecules 4 meson 3 Perrin 2 neutrons 2 never emit energy 2 blue is more dark color 2 absorption spectrum 3 when electrons jump to 4-orbits 3 Schiff effect 1 orbit asymmetrical 2 gamma rays 3 all are possible 1 Garter 2 electron cloud 1 s 1 none of the above has such capability 3 water 3 neutrons 1 all have little contribution 1 b and c 4 bracket 1 all possible 1 all have a role 1 Heisenberg 3 none of the above 3 does not change in a group 1 can not be determined 2 P 4 Graphite 1 none 3 atomic size 3 all these 4 dipole moment 4 all of the above possibilities are true 4 gun metals 1 all of the above represent same entity 1 impossible to predict 2 first decreases then increases 2 all are right justifications 4 variable trend 1 Ea 1 variable trend 1 solids 2 solids 2 Ea 3 variable trends 1 protons 3 IA is electro positivity, while IIA is electro negativity 2 no specificity exists 2 IA and IB 2 no such acids exist 1 coordinate covalent bond 4 1200 2 pyramida 4 zeeman orbital 1 impossible to predict 2 2 3 lone pair, 1 bond pair 1 unhybrid and un hybrid orbitals 1 octahedral 3 super atomic orbital 2 ferrimagnetism 2 dipole moment 4 newton 1 works 4 all 4 stoichiometery 1 state 3 GJ 1 enthalpy 3 P.E + mechanical energy 1 exothermic 4 eversible process 2 initial and final state 4 volume 3 exothermic 4 manometer 1 manometer 2 790Kj/mole 1 state function 4 3 phase 3 initial state 3 none 3 weak base and its salt with strong acid 4 any one 3 decrease of temperature 3 strong bases dissolve completely in water and produce OH- ions 2 non- spontaneous 1 unidirectional state 1 rate of co- efficient 1 constant 1 no effect 1 Chadwick 3 pI 1 None of these 1 salt 2 dissociation constant for an acid 2 primary solution 1 7.80 2 no. of moles of species decreased 2 catalyst 4 6.40 4 all 2 fog 4 mole fraction of solute 2 all 2 one molal urea solution 3 elevation of polling point 2 none could be said 2 phase 4 ion 1 ion 2 bad solution 3 mole fraction 3 no layer formation takes place 2 unsaturated solution 1 lowering of vapor pressure is not possible 3 non ideal solution 2 ideal solution 2 none 2 ice will melt swiftly 2 polarimeter 2 pressure 2 neutral atom 1 co ordinates compounds 3 by passage of electricity 1 parts of solvent in one million parts of solute 3 evaporation 2 super saturated solution 2 None 3 E.M.F of cell 2 Mn 4 Ni- Cd cell 2 from anode to cathode inside the cell 2 electrical energy is converted into heat 1 none 3 atoms of Na and Cl 3 b+c 4 electrodes 2 all of the above 2 decomposition 1 does not provide any electron 1 no current flows 1 all of the above represent same entity 2 Fe 3 solvent particles 2 by heating it 2 1M solution of HCL 2 multiple of 1 1 Zn has no potential 4 electrochemica l series 4 no effect of position 1 none 1 b and c 4 all are possible 1 Daniel cell 1 voltaic battery 1 1 volts 2 1M 4 charge no. 3 misnomer because it is not a cell 2 50% 3 0.55 2 no connection exists 2 atomic mass 2 group VIII 1 reducing behavior 1 halogens 3 iodine 4 Kr 4 all the metals form acidic oxides 4 all 4 all have contributed a lot 4 Al-Razi 1 germanium 4 no fix position 1 all 4 valence electrons 3 all 4 8 1 7 2 none 2 continuously change character 3 all 4 all 3 Cu, Fe, Au 2 gallium and helium 2 the number of isotopes it has 4 coordination number of ion 4 halogens 3 natural radioactivity by Henry Becquere 2 atomic volume 3 isotropes 3 . Water gas 2 infinite 3 .E depends upon all of the above and the nature of orbital 4 all 3 data is insufficient 2 the reason is unknown 2 remain same 1 no regular trends 1 none of the above correctly represent it 3 none 3 all 1 all 3 they are found in earth 3 spirit 3 none 1 Ca 4 all 4 not known yet 2 all have same products 2 radium 4 barium sulphate 4 none of the above 1 sodium hydroxide 3 mercury 3 increase the number of water of crystallization 2 all 1 we could not apply 3 excitation of electrons from low energy levels to high energy levels 3 all 3 sodium and potassium 2 it reacts with fats to form soap 1 high electro negativity 2 none 3 oxygen 2 they are metals 2 no authorized justification yet 3 all 2 all 1 all 1 soluble only in organic solvents 2 Al 4 all 1 zinc 3 it does not exists 3 tin 4 C 3 Sn 4 contact process 1 all 2 water repellent 3 all of the above 4 metal silicate 2 bismuth 2 Bismuth 1 all varieties are possible 2 P 2 all of above 1 tetrahedral 1 steel 4 yellow 1 electrode of electrolytic cell 2 N 1 phosphorous Penta oxide 1 Po 1 1 and 3 2 all of the above 3 all of the above 4 all of the above 2 Fe S 2 iodine 3 electronegativit y 2 HF is kept in glass container 4 HI 1 iodine 4 iodine 3 KI 2 complex 3 iodine 4 bromine 1 all the halogens react with noble gases to form their halides 4 Fluorine 1 paper pulb 4 8 2 8 2 Mn, Te, Re 3 transition elements 4 d and f block elements 2 no regular trend 1 at start and end 3 ferromagnetic 2 both a and c 4 infinite 1 d- orbitals 4 interstitial compounds 4 strong anions 2 acid 3 bidentate lignad 4 cyanide 2 complex compound 1 hydrate 2 Hebrew 3 all of the above 3 carbonates 3 all of above 3 coating 3 a and b 2 Ro 4 plants 4 all 4 aldehyde 3 condensation 3 esters 2 high electrical conductivity 3 structural formula 1 berthlot 1 organic compounds can be synthesized by plants 2 urea 4 IV-B 2 salvation 1 depend upon number of H atoms 1 polymers 4 allotrope 3 no regular character present 3 water 1 ores 3 all 3 rocks 4 no such process occurs 2 a & c 1 n-heptane 4 R-COOH 3 both b and c 3 ion 3 carbohydrates 2 position isomerism 4 aldehydes 2 ethoxy butane 4 trigonal planar 3 no general rules 1 branche 1 saturated hydrocarbon 2 a & c 3 aldehydes 1 reducing agent 1 hydroxylation 2 Nao and KoH 2 Pinacol Pinacolor reagent 2 6 3 no justification available 2 none 1 carbonation 3 b & c 3 Ni-Mg 2 -OH 3 five 2 halo group 2 8 3 iodine 4 the presence of excessive oxygen 3 distillation method 2 six 2 - 119.5Kcal/mole 3 250.5Cal/mole 1 hydrolysis of benzene sulphonic acid with super heated steam. 3 weak electrophile 3 other 2 no reaction 3 oxidation reaction 3 chlorobenzene 3 condensation 2 Clemenson reaction 3 all 4 glyoxal 4 C-l 1 R-l 4 I 3 extent of a reaction 3 third 2 1 mole of butane 4 propanol 2 all 3 zero order kinetics 2 no dependence 1 they have a nucleophilic carbon and a good leaving group 2 dihydric alcohol 3 3-hydroxy butanic acid 2 2, 2- dihydroxy butanoic acid 1 molasses 4 diastase- zymase- maltase 1 100% alcohol 3 propanoic acid 3 all of the above 3 cyclohexane 1 benzene 1 polymerization 3 fermentation 3 for denaturing of ethyl alcohol 3 hexanone 4 methyl ketone 3 60% 3 acetone 4 nucleophelic substitution 3 all of the above 4 trimethyl acetaldehyde 2 Benedict‟s reagent 1 none 3 propionaldehde 1 in making acetic acid 4 formalacstose 1 formation of throat lozenges 4 8% 3 red 4 methanoic acid 3 Ester 2 none 3 valeric acid 3 acetaldehyde + acetaldehyde 4 aromatic 4 fumeric acid 3 strong acid 2 acetic acid 2 acetic acid 1 propanoic acid 1 benzoic acid 1 2 amino and 2 carboxylic groups 3 carboxyl group only 1 non-polar structure of amino aicds 3 succinic acid 2 oxalic acid 1 benedict test 1 glutamate 3 green color 1 citric acid 1 no specific trend occurs 2 benzoic acid 2 D- alanine 2 butanoic acid 3 propolymers 1 biopolymer 2 hexamethylene diamine 3 epichlorohydrin with diphenylol propane 1 polyvinyl chloride 2 aldehydes and ketones 4 legumin, amylopectin, albumin 1 adipic acid with hexamethylene diamine 4 many monosaccharid e unit 3 partially soluble in alcohol 1 amylase 1 conjugated protein 4 primary structure 2 precipitation of proteins with nucleoproteins 4 solubility has nothing to do with lipids 1 adipose tissues 4 tetraesters formed from glycerol and fatty acids 3 not a type of lipids 3 hydrolases 3 enzyme and acid 2 ligases 1 isomerases 3 enzymes and product 2 cellulose 3 lipids 2 DNA 2 all 3 mutation 3 guanine 1 all 4 it is involved in the chlorophyll synthesis 3 none of the above 1 no heat energy is involved 2 crystallization 1 ammonium nitrate 4 75% 4 blast furnace slag 4 blast furnace slag 2 none 3 seed 4 5 1 surfactant 2 it is an inorganic water soluble compound 1 66% 2 all 3 potassium nitrate 3 all the above statement are correct 4 lime stone and clay 2 roasted gypsum 3 red lead 4 mixing, heating, grinding, crushing 2 dry zone, decomposition zone, burning zone, cooling zone 4 55% lime stone and 15% clay 1 to reduce the impurities 3 none 4 carbon 4 30 to 400 kg 1 N, Ca, P 1 carbondioxide 4 not fix 2 all 1 all 2 winds 4 900 to 1000OC 4 thionosphere 2 CFC play effective role in the removing O3 in the stratosphere 1 all the above 4 barium sulphate 1 5 4 copper 2 100000 2 all 1 all have equal distribution 1 social biology 2 social biology 2 biology 2 inorganicmolec ule 4 systems 1 eukaryotes 2 flowers 4 biosphere 1 biosphere 2 tissue 3 macromolecule s 2 all these 2 both a and b 2 Neurology 3 Biology 4 Arabic 2 Plasmodium 1 14 days 3 social biology 2 Water 2 Kidney cells 2 Molecular Biology 1 social biology 2 Both a and b 2 Gametocyte 3 biotechnology 3 Grassi 2 Biotechnologist s 3 Ookinete 1 Molecular biology 2 Birds are involved in the spread of Malaria 3 Biotechnology 2 social biology 3 Mosquito 4 social biology 1 Law 3 Technology Forestation 2 Internal organs of organisms 4 Structure and functions of cells 2 Statutes 2 None of these 4 Normal 1 embryology 1 Zygote 2 Merozoites 4 Temperature rises up to 106 oF 3 Micro biology 4 Resochine 3 Cough 1 Banyan 2 Ronald Ross 3 water 3 quinine 4 Using sensitive electronic measuring instruments 3 glyceraldehyde 3 anatomy 3 polysaccharide 1 Reduction reaction 1 Carbon 4 peptide bond 1 Lubricancy 2 C-O 2 Organic compound 2 covalent bond 2 evaporation 2 All these 1 H+ions 2 All these 4 Tetravalent 4 Diester linkage 2 Glycogen 4 All these 1 Nucleic acids 1 Fungi 1 Catenation 2 Amylose 2 Glycogen 1 All these 2 Conjugated 1 Substract 1 Co-Enzyme 2 Inhibitor 1 Ribosomes 2 Coenzyme 1 Renin 3 Activator 1 both a and b 3 Metal activator 3 Coenzyme 4 Carbohydrates 2 Ribosomes 4 Five 2 Peroxisome 2 all these 4 some lie freely in cytoplasm and others are bound to organelle 4 cofactor 1 Melvin Calvin 3 jelly like 3 an organism 3 nucleus 2 schleiden 2 Biogenesis 3 de lamarck 2 all these 4 roudloph virchow and louis pasteur 2 theory of cells 1 none of these 1 weismann 2 weismann 4 400,000x 1 beam of blue and red light 1 a beam of blue and red light 1 5-7 angstron 1 centrifugation 1 all these 1 tonoplast 2 both a and b 2 robertson model 1 carry on heterotrophic nutrition 2 contractile vacuole 3 chlorophyll 3 middle lamella 3 golgi complex 3 nucleoprotein 2 cytosol 3 water 4 vacuoles 4 central vacuole 2 bryophytes ad pteriodophytes 1 they are the sites of protein synthesis. 4 mitochondria 3 cell wall 1 50S and 30S 2 cytoplasm 2 60S 3 DNA & Ribosome's 4 chemosynthesi s 1 mitochondria 2 leucoplasts 4 chloroplast 2 golgi complex 1 mitochondria 3 chromatin 1 RNA and Lipids 1 Schleiden 2 Moderate transport 3 Mulberry 3 Bacteria 3 Schleiden observations on cells 2 Chlorechyma cells 3 Storage of surplus food 4 Lipid soluble 4 Fast transport 2 Plasma membrane 3 Middle lamella 4 A & B 3 90 4 Golgi Apparatus 1 Decompose proteins 2 One form 3 70S particle 3 Nucleolus 1 Centrioles 4 Angiosperms 2 Golgi Complex 2 Nuclear membrane 4 Cell wall 2 Plasma membrane___ _Osmosis 3 Cell wall 2 Three 3 Cholesterol 3 Chromoplast 3 Synthesizing lipids 2 in all eukaryotic cells 4 Cell wall 3 Chloroplasts and leucoplasts 2 Proplasts 3 Move the cell from place to place 2 non of these 1 is covered by a single protein layer 2 active transport 4 Plastids 3 Nucleus 3 Mitochondrion 4 Endoplasmic reticulum 2 None of these 2 Nucleus – DNA 2 Both are double membrane structures 3 Chloroplast 4 all of these 4 protista 1 animalia 2 all these 4 membranes 3 animalia 1 animalia 2 fungus 4 animalia 4 fungi 2 kingdom 2 kingdom 1 family name 1 chana 1 both crow and raven 4 family 2 prion 1 biology 3 amoebic disease 1 Ivanowsky 4 D'Hellere 2 bacteria and protozoans 2 chemotherapy 1 rabies 1 robert brown 2 robert koch 3 eukaryota 2 diplococcus 1 cocci 4 streptococcus 1 streptococci 3 sarcina 1 staphylococcus 2 spirilla 2 bacillus 1 spiral shaped 3 coccus 3 All these 3 mesosome 1 monotrichous 1 pertitrichous 2 monotrichous 1 vibrios 2 anaerobic 2 mesosomes 1 fibrinogen 1 flagella 2 capsule 1 cell envelope 1 algae 1 prokaryotes 4 algae 2 gamete 2 monera 1 All these 4 endocytosis 4 apicomplexans 1 plasmodium 3 collared flagellated cells 1 pseudovacuole 4 apolyploid 3 balantidium 2 Ciliates 4 apicomplexans 4 Escherichia coli 2 Entamoeaba 2 ciliates 2 spore 3 all these 4 desmids 3 Ulva 4 100,000 4 fungi 4 protoctologists 2 chitin 4 all thses 3 mushrooms 4 aspergillus 2 agaricus 2 all thses 1 all these 1 all these 4 all these 4 plantae 3 plantae 4 pteropsida 1 none of these 2 agiosprms 3 blue green algae 2 archegoniopho re 1 antheridiophore 4 oospore 1 funaria 3 survival on land 2 amorphic 2 all these 4 all these 4 hemisporous 1 naked 2 fungi 2 bilateria 2 annelida 1 proterostomia 3 indeterminate 2 All these 2 mesoderm 4 All these 4 All these 4 none of these 3 none of these 3 annelida to chordata 4 respiration 3 potential 2 ribosomes 3 chemiosmosis 1 all these 4 all the times 3 Engleman 1 envelope membrance 3 mesophyll 3 cristae 2 transmitted 3 all these 2 symbiotic 1 all these 4 None of these 1 ATP 3 magnesium 4 die at seedling stage 2 all these 4 premature death of plant 2 stunted growth 1 iron 2 all these 4 intercellular spaces 2 55% 3 photooxidation 3 amount of carbon dioxide decreases 1 All these 3 both O2 and CO2 2 glucose phosphate 1 photosnthesis 3 both a and b 4 none of these 3 glyoxisomes 3 fructose 1 glyoxisomes 1 25% 4 Transport 4 All these 1 All these 4 Epidermal cells of root 3 All these 1 A comination of active and passive uptake 4 All these 4 Passive uptake 2 Partially flaccid 2 Solute potential 2 Pure water 4 Vital theory 1 Imbibition 1 Many 3 none of these 3 Dissolved in blood plasma 4 1 million 3 Cell-mediated response 4 Thermoregulati on 3 Homeostasis 2 All these 1 Uricotelic 2 Skin 1 All these 2 None of these 1 Homeotherms 3 Skin 3 All these 3 Osmoregulatio n 1 Sweat glands 2 Turgor pressure 3 Secondary wood 1 Turgor movements 1 Haptonasty 2 Circumnutation 1 Ethylene 1 Ligaments 1 Help the animal to grow larger 4 Polysaccharide s 1 Twenty two - All paired 2 Pelvic 1 Unstriated muscles 3 Z - line 2 All these 2 Tube feet 2 Hop 1 All these 2 Genes 4 Cytokinins 3 All these 4 Thermoeceptor s 2 Action potential 2 Cartilaginous fish 3 All these 3 Epilepsy 3 Lnsulin 2 All these 4 Both a and b 2 Parthenogeneti c 1 Independent assortment 2 Angiosperms 4 Ovule 4 All the above 4 Wilkins and Franklin 1 Chrysanthemu m 2 Genetic recombinations 1 None of These 2 Spermatids 1 Primary oocyte and first polar body 4 Many 1 AIDS 3 Both Primary and Secondary 4 Bark 3 Brings cell differentiation 1 Cell differentiation 4 280th day 1 Neurula 3 Coelenteron 2 Serology 3 All these 1 Amphibian larvae 2 A rule 3 vernalin 3 turgor movement 1 vernalization 2 flowerless plant 3 CO 2 photosynthesis 3 four molecules of pyruvic acid 1 38 1 cytokinins 2 algae 1 florigen 2 wrinkler 1 tomato 1 paratonic 4 photophosphyo rlation 3 citric acid 1 6 3 6 2 both day and night 4 charles darwin and francis 4 florigen 2 hydrotropism 1 14L/10D 3 butanol 2 Lactic acid 4 Granum 2 1 ATP 2 Fermentation 3 Transpiration 3 Parenchyma 2 Cortex 3 Fumaric acid 2 Succinic acid 3 Fumaric acid--- -------- Malic acid 2 Hydrogen 3 In all directions 2 Butyric acid 1 Does not affect the growth of leaves 4 None of these 2 Both A & B 1 touch 4 get rid of carbon dioxide 1 a specific enzyme 4 without oxygen 4 Krebs cycle 3 3 2 virtually all cells 4 38 1 They are eliminated in the form of methane 2 ATP 4 ATP is used 2 Carbon dioxide 1 water 2 isomerized 1 FAD 3 Electron transport chain 4 40 ATP 2 8 ATP 1 long chain carbon 2 within the mitochondria 4 more carbon dioxide is released 2 more energy 2 triploid nuclei 1 pericycle 4 root apical meristem 3 turgor 2 turgor 1 rapidly 2 Cytokinins 4 transported by the phloem 1 stem 3 die 3 wilt 2 Beings with glucose 3 carboxylation 2 all of the above 3 apomixes (parthenogene sis) 4 Cytokinins 2 Chromoplast 3 less than 1 3 ground tissue 2 cuticle 3 lateral meristem 4 absorb minerals 2 DNA and Protiens 4 40 4 Super coils 4 Both DNA and protein 2 Transforming principle 2 Replication 2 More than one site on DNA where specific enzymes are present 3 Diabetes mellitus 1 Acetabularia 3 Mathew Meselson 2 Repression 2 CGC 2 Klineferlter syndrome 1 M-phase 1 24 hours 4 Interphase 2 Telophase 1 Both a and b 4 Sporogenesis 2 Both b and c 4 Jacobs syndrome 1 Edward syndrome 2 Both a and b 1 Phenotypes 2 Genetic library 3 Gorn 2 Heterozygous 3 Both a and b 4 Brassica campestris 2 All these 1 None of these 2 Polygeny 3 More than six genes 3 Genotypes 3 Birds 2 Environmental trait 3 All these 4 Gene cloning 2 Ligase 1 Polymerase chain reaction 2 All these 4 All these 2 Gene technology 3 None of these 2 Rice 1 Soyabeans 4 Origin of eukaryotes 1 5 million years ago 1 Charles Barwin 3 All these 4 Throat 1 Gene frequency 1 All these 4 0.6 1 All these 2 Biosphere 3 Biosphere 3 Ethology 2 Bisophere 2 Xerosere 4 Pioneer 2 Grazing 4 Assimilation 4 Biomass 4 Unique properties of water 4 All the above 4 All these 4 Crustaceans 2 Hydrospheric 1 All are found in Pakistan 4 Alpine 4 Grasslands 4 Sahara 4 Tundra 4 All these 4 Wild life 4 Water 3 Radioactive 2 All these 4 Water pollution 2 All these 4 Quarternary consumer 1 Diostatistics 2 All the above 4 waldeyer 4 acentric 3 pollens 3 leptotene 2 16 2 metaphase ii 1 recombination 1 actin 2 13 2 waldeyer 3 Strickberger 1 position of the centromere 4 metaphase 4 one side 1 Submetacentri c 2 Submetacentri c 3 Submetacentri c 4 Telocentric 1 Karyotype 4 Centriole 2 20 1 Waldeyer 1 Waldeyer 2 Cytomitosis 3 Telophase 2 Cleavage furrows 3 zygote 3 Five stages 4 twice the number as in somatic cell 4 zygote 4 16 3 Anaphase II 2 synapsis 4 Centrosomes 1 diplotene 3 metaphase II 1 telophase I 2 none of above 1 cartilaginous fishes 3 cold blooded 3 all of these 4 rohu 1 none of these 4 none of these 4 none of these 1 all of these 2 absence of middle ear 3 breath by gills in the larval stage 2 all of these 4 all of the above 3 diaphragm 4 0 1 five chambered 3 snake 2 hyla 3 fins 1 winter 4 Eel 3 echinodermata 1 all neuter (without sex) 1 asymmetrical 1 well developed large brain 2 cow 3 with a scaly skin 2 wolves 2 proboscidia 4 Cetacean 2 have spiny skin 3 right aortic arch 4 bats 1 blood movement regulation 2 six parts 1 both internal and external 2 polypods 2 dependent on water for reproduction 4 all of these 3 cold blooded 3 All of these 4 eight chambered 3 eggs are without yolk 3 embryo 4 snake 3 Alligator 2 natural gas 4 O2 3 anemia 1 niche 1 desert life 2 pneumonia 3 pollution 2 Heart disease 4 death within minutes 4 15% 1 holland 4 Water pollution 1 None of these 2 Grazing 3 Increase in soil nutrients 2 Rice, Pea and Wheat 3 Soil erosion 4 Encouraged native plants and animals 1 Coal, geothermal and oil 3 Air 1 None of these 3 Korea 2 280,000 kilowatts 2 Bioconversion 3 3400 calories 1 20 – 30 grams 3 Circulatory system 2 Small Pox 3 Measles, Tuberculosis and Goiter 2 Heart disease and blood pressure 4 Mercury 2 forestation 4 none of these 2 expanding species 1 none of these 3 Hydroelectric power 2 computer 2 40% 1 Iodine 2 pancreas 3 influenza 2 heart disease 1 12 minutes 4 Food vacuoles 1 None of above 3 None of above 4 Rectum 2 4 3 Fatty acid 2 stomach 4 Sterols 3 Glucagon 2 3 enzymes 3 Stomach 1 All of these 4 Liver 4 Pseudopodia 2 None of these 3 Amoeba 4 Earthworm 4 CaCO3 4 Enzymes 4 Amylase 4 Tongue 3 Oesophagus to stomach 4 All of these 3 All of these 3 Trypsin 2 None of these 4 Water 1 Bile 3 Peptide bondys 4 Epithelial cells 1 Small intestine 4 Dysentery 2 Man 3 Sub-neural blood vessel 2 Haemocoele 4 Tracheoles 3 mitral or bicuspid valve 4 Pyloric muscle 1 Precaval 2 Salts 2 Renal vein 2 osmotic pressure 2 Heparin 1 50% 3 None of these 2 None of these 1 None of these 3 None of these 2 Backward 4 yellow 4 Transport system 3 All of these 3 Three circulatory fluids 3 Epicardium 2 Eight 2 Sandwiched by the ventricle 1 All of these 2 None of these 2 Left ventricie 3 Aorta 4 Five flaps 1 Left ventricle 3 0.8 seconds 4 0.8 -1.00 seconds 1 Four layers 3 Four cells 1 7um 4 Right ventricle 2 Coronary 4 Right ventricle 2 All of these 3 Veins 4 None of these 2 100-110 1 Arteries 3 Arterioles 3 Arteries 2 Arteries 4 Gelatinous substance 4 75 2 90 4 None 4 Rod-shaped 1 kidney 2 Seven million 3 7,000 – 8,000 4 Transport iron 3 Platelets 4 All of them 1 Producing platelets 3 Trachea 2 Flame cells 1 Thrombocytes 3 None of the above 3 Ventral 4 Tunica 2 Peristaltic 1 None of the above 3 CO2 diffuses through the general surface 2 Man 4 Hydra 1 6 1 Nostril 3 Nosal cavity 2 None of these 1 Tracheae 2 Pleura 4 Chest wall and diaphragms 4 None of these 1 Moving of air inside 3 30 ml 3 4 ml 4 Rectum 1 Grasshopper 2 Nephridia 4 lower 4 4 million 1 Glomerulus 4 Nephridia 1 90% 2 Renal vein 4 Homeopathy 1 Uric acid 3 Man 3 HCI 3 Nephridiopore 3 None of these 1 Nephron 3 Three 4 2 3 Parathormone 3 All of these 1 Typhoid 3 Fatty acids 2 Liver 1 Reduction of blood supply to the skin 4 Excretory system 1 Glands 3 Neuron 4 Sycon 2 Sensory and motor neurons 2 Nerve cells 4 Nodes of Ranvier 1 Thalamus 3 Hypophysic 2 None of the above 2 hypothalamus 2 41 3 7 1 20 2 ectocrine 1 lodine 4 cretinism 4 Liver 3 pancreas 4 cerebral medulla 1 adrenalin and nor adrenalin 4 LH 1 oxytocin 4 None of the above 3 Integration and regulation of activity 3 Control 1 Excretory system 2 Three 4 All of these 3 Frog 2 None of these 1 Ultraviolet 4 Motor neurons 4 All of these 3 Impulse 3 None of these 2 None of these 1 200 3 Five 2 Acquired 4 Hindbrain 1 Hypothalamus 3 Cerebrum 4 Epithalamus 1 Memory 3 Smell 4 Hypothalamus 3 Medulla oblongata 1 Pons 3 Smell 2 31 1 40 2 All of these 4 None of these 2 Rate of breathing 3 All of these 4 None of these 1 Transferred to the site of action by their own ducts 3 Below the heart 2 Slows down 1 Oxygen consumption 1 All of these 4 Thickness of skin and of hair brittleness 4 Heart attack 2 None of these 1 All of these 3 All of these 4 All of these 1 Glycogon 1 Parathormone 3 Pituitary gland 2 luteinizing hormone 1 Latinizing hormone 3 Dwarf growth 2 Lactogenic hormone 1 All of these 3 none of these 2 radial symmetry 4 cilia 3 silver fish 3 octopus 4 valve 1 brachio radialis 2 fibrin 2 bradford 3 mandible 4 five vertebrae 1 hind gut 2 ankle 2 multigrade 3 None of these 2 None of these 1 10 2 Earthworm 2 Paramecium 3 Skeletons both internal and external 3 All of these 2 All of these 1 Both A & B 4 None of these 3 500-600 um 1 Actin 2 Atolemma 3 Radially 2 Proteins 4 Lysine 3 Ca++ 4 None of these 1 Many heads 3 20 1 10 3 vomer 4 All of these 4 Pelvic region 3 18 1 9 2 Thoracic 3 none of these 2 9 4 20 1 None of these 2 Clavicle 4 None of these 2 All of these 3 12 2 All of these 3 None of these 1 20 2 None of these 4 All of these 4 Can grow (living) 1 do not grow 1 Snake 1 Bears 4 All of these 3 Man 1 multiple fission 4 Grasshopper 2 None of the above 3 mammals 2 yolk sac 1 seminiferous tubules 4 polar body 2 10 months 3 None of the above 2 colostrum 4 corpus callosum 3 28th 2 Gametes formation 4 Ovaries 1 Testes 4 Neuter 2 None of these 2 Snakes 2 None of these 3 None of these 1 deers 1 None of these 2 All of these 3 None of these 1 frogs 3 Kangaroos, cat, shark 2 Dpididymus 2 many 2 Oviduct 3 twelve months 2 Placenta 1 2 4 one of these 3 Uterus remains intact Onset of menstruation 4 Luteinizing hormone 2 Progesterone 1 Humans 1 microphylous 3 palaentology 3 None of these 2 in the base 4 Lignin 1 none of these 3 None of these 2 none of these 1 none of these 3 None of these 2 vertebral column 2 all of these 4 anterior dorsal 1 opening 2 blastopore 2 None of the above 1 Spleen 2 blastomeres 4 pseudocoel 3 pseudocoel 1 mecomorphesi s 2 regeneration 4 gastrula 4 acromegaly 3 hershey 1 gastrula 3 All of these 2 Growth 3 Fertilization is external 3 Fourth cleavage 3 100% 1 A 1 Purple and white in the ratio of 3:1 respectively 1 Round and wrinkled appeared in the ratio of 3.1 respectively 3 None of these 1 none of above 2 None of the above 3 None 2 AB,AB 1 none 1 tetragenic alleles 3 incomplete 1 alleles 4 1:2:1 3 3:1 2 recessive 3 none of these 1 TtRr 4 16 1 01-Mar 3 corecession 2 1 3 the F2 generation 1 multiple genes 2 both b and c 4 Green pigment 1 8 4 4 4 50% 1 56% 4 four type 1 all of these 3 colour blindress 1 either his mother or his father 1 Birds 4 75% 1 Blood group 3 Red from green 4 on both x and y chromosomes 2 extra nuclear DNA in her mother‟s egg 3 are linked 4 non homologues chrorhosomes 3 linkage 2 Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome 4 44 1 all of these 2 xxx 4 nucleosome 1 xxy 2 13 3 malpighian tubules 2 6 2 guinea pig 3 None of the above 1 orange 2 100% of his daughters 4 two x- chromosomes 1 law of purity of gametes 2 None of these 1 Immuno deficiency syndrome 2 1 member 4 sponge 1 Centrosomes 3 one fourth the number of chromosomes as the body cells 3 20 2 polygene 3 haemoglobin 3 autosomes 1 legumin 1 telophase 3 anaphase 2 metaphase I 1 1 4 submetacentric 3 interphse 4 anaphase II 3 telphase 3 cytokinesis 4 Scales on hind limbs 2 all of these 4 all of these 3 Budding 4 Conjugation 1 Amoeba 3 Presence of organs 4 Somatogamy 1 Euplectella 3 all of these 4 bilaterial symmetry 4 echinodermata 4 stomach 1 akinetes 2 terrestrial and freshwater 2 85% 4 echinodermata 2 liver fluke 2 arthropoda 2 planaria 1 round worm 3 coelomates 3 pinnacocytes 3 mesogloea 4 annelids 2 rhizopodes 2 25000 species 1 none of these 1 asymmetrical 4 Spiracle 1 Presence of true body cavity 3 coelom 3 Sea anemone 4 choanocyte 2 Trypanosome 3 embryology 3 Echinodermata 4 all of these 2 all of these 4 bilaterally symmetrical body 3 four 3 10% 1 absence of head 2 Coelenterata 1 Corals 4 annelida 4 Taenia 3 planaria 2 Planaria 3 nematode 4 coelenterate 3 Hydra 2 none of these 4 protozoans 3 diplobalstic 2 digestive system 1 skeleton 2 Taenia 3 reproductoin 2 recapitulation theory 1 natural selection 4 hind limbs in ostrich 4 fossils 1 hardy and weinberg 4 recapitulation theory 4 genotype 2 connecting link 1 15 billion years 3 of four kinds 2 no two individuals are exactly alike 4 after ten days 1 million of eggs 4 fifty years 3 Fastest breeders among invertebrate 1 have high survival chances 4 degenerative 2 humerus 3 horses 2 Ethiopian 4 Nearctic 3 Australian 2 dark 1 coal black 4 clear and pleasant air 2 none of these 1 Korea 2 Kara Kum 2 Green Book 3 Thomas Carlyle 1 No Party System 1 Karachi 2 Yemen 3 22nd 4 Arctic Ocean 2 Bangladesh 3 Arctic Ocean 1 Indonesia 2 Z . A . Bhutto 4 ASEAN 1 Poet 3 Democracy 1 A wireless Massage 4 Washington 2 Dominatian 3 Waqar Younas 2 Swift 1 One Years 2 Peace 2 Europe 1 Lei 3 Chinese / English 1 Four 4 Hazi at Ah Afghani 1 Washington 3 10-Aug-01 2 Kofi Annan 4 2001 4 Sweden 2 Sweden 2 Denmark 4 Kenya 3 Indonesia 4 Norway 1 Indonesia 2 Thimpu 4 Laos 3 Pervaiz Musharaf 1 Defense Minster 3 Sarswati 2 Independent Country 4 1918 2 Major Tufail Ahmed 1 11th 2 Vajpee 2 Jaypur 2 Azerbaijan 3 Bangladesh 1 Colombo 3 1943 2 4 1 1949 1 New York 4 GCC 3 Jeddah 4 Xanana Gusmas 2 WHO 2 Hogue 4 London 1 Paris 2 Paris 3 Paris 2 New York 1 1994 4 Paris 1 Reyyadh 3 Estonia 3 Vienna 4 Ethiopia 4 Iraq 1 Israel 2 Russia 3 France 3 Berlin 2 Albania 3 Hungry 4 Turkmenistan 2 Germany 1 Kuwait 2 Austria 3 India 4 Russia 2 India 1 Sri Lanka 2 Peru 1 US 3 Russia 4 India 1 China 2 Peru 1 Nepal and Japan 2 Turkey 4 1985 3 9 1 Pakistan 3 Russia / Pakistan 2 Germany 1 Norway 4 Italy 2 Nile 3 Turkey 4 Abdul Rahim 1 Tamerlane 3 Iran 1 France 2 Norway 3 Indonesia 1 Indonesia 2 Attock 4 Queen 1 Syria 2 Antarctica 1 Mount Everest 4 1400BC 3 China 2 Christianity 4 Britain's 3 Norway 1 1626 AD 1 All of these 4 None of these 2 Just feeling 3 Doctor 2 Buildings 1 US President 4 Russian 2 Rome 1 Beirut 2 North Korea and South Korea 1 Iran and Iraq 2 India and Sri Lanka 3 Arabic 1 1990 3 12 3 40 2 All of these 4 Foot ball 1 Germany 3 France 2 Tibet 4 Religious Harmony 1 1949 1 1949 3 French Revolution 2 Jordon 1 Thailand 3 Thailand 2 Africa 4 Sydney 4 Foosa 2 Burma 1 Argentina 3 Canada 4 All of these 4 Benin 2 Congo 1 Dublin 3 All of these 4 Nairobi 1 Turkey 3 Japan 1 Indonesia 2 Bangladesh 4 Japan 1 Japan 3 Armenia 1 1950 3 Egypt 2 Haiti 1 Economist 2 Greek 1 William Words Worth 4 None of these 3 Bishkek 1 King Shah Faisal 2 George S. Bush 3 Vladmir Putin 4 fourth 2 Chechnya 1 8th 3 India 2 07-Jun 2 01-May 4 Argentina 1 USA 4 Mirza Galib 2 45 3 South Africa 1 Autocracy 2 Literature 1 People's 3 2000 4 Slovenia 2 Grenada 1 Tudors 2 1850 3 PLO 4 eight 3 nine 2 PEB 2 lodhi 1 Damascus of Syria 4 Washington 1 China 2 France 3 W. Shakespeare 4 Dante 1 German artist 2 1965 4 nine 3 Italy 2 strike 1 1915 2 1990 4 Ibn-Khaldoon 1 Czar 2 950 3 Sri Lanka 2 Sonnet 3 Author 2 Critics 3 Iran 4 Keats 1 Belgrade 4 South Korea 2 17-Aug 3 15 December 1 12 September 2001 3 G. Allana 3 Virgil 2 40 2 Shangai-500 1 Cuba 4 Charles Dickens 2 Korea 3 Thailand 2 Canada 2 Turkey 1 Hungary 3 Rome 2 Shamrock 1 Pakistan 4 a bull at the baseplate 1 Rose 2 Cornflower 3 Kangaroo 4 India and America 3 1964 3 London 3 a religion 2 1701 1 4th (AD) 2 27th May , 1961 4 a mountain 2 Bahrain 4 Land of Lakes 3 USA 1 Tokyo m 2 Ghana 3 24th Oct . , 1945 4 To develop cooperation and friendly relations among the nations of the world 3 12 2 Must guarantee fundamental human rights and freedom to its citizens 4 Member states 1 Six years 2 Council 3 24 2 Trusteeship Council 3 1945 3 Dryden 1 EU Nations 3 Study of Law 1 None of these 3 Adam Smith 1 Washington 3 1947 4 Korea 1 Dr Johnson 3 Dr . Henry 2 Colour blindness 1 Ernest Trump 3 A bird 3 First Chancellor of Germany 1 A play Wright 1 NATO 3 A scientist 4 Victorian 1 a classical singer 1 C.R Das 2 none of these 1 none of these 1 None of these 2 Islamic concept 1 none of these 2 none of these 3 none of these 2 none of these 1 none of these 2 none of these 1 none of these 3 he pushes the bank to produce waves in the water 1 none of these 2 none of these 2 none of these 2 none of these 1 none of these 2 none of these 1 none of these 1 none of these 2 Peacock 1 Heart beating 3 200 2 Switzerland 4 1974 2 N . Korea 2 1st April 1948 1 Newton ' s 3 West 4 Pakistan 4 Water 1 Allama Iqbal 2 9th November 3 World Transport Organization 2 1970 3 William Armstrong 4 Central Asia 4 Goethe 4 North Korea 3 Sound 4 Education ' Culture and Games 1 International Monetary Fund 4 a fish 3 a tree 3 Guru Nanak 4 Foot Ball 1 Gas pressure 2 Moscow declaration 3 it jointed common wealth 2 Compaq 3 Indian ocean 1 ajmeer 2 Dara 3 WB 3 saltmines 4 ultra violet rays 3 Shahjahan 4 Abdul Hafeez Karder 2 India 1 Malaysia 2 France 3 Palestine 4 Shahjahan 4 Bangladesh and Sri Lanka 2 Buddhist era 4 None of these 2 Mao Zondeg 3 Amundeson 1 Mrs. Golda Meir 2 Iconology 4 PAPCO 1 Paris 4 quick 4 clean 3 tough 2 innocent 4 solid 2 achieve 2 permit 4 forsaken 1 alien 3 latter 4 control 1 strong 2 boldness 2 bitter 1 cowardly 3 pigeon 4 reluctant 3 aid 4 accumulate 2 obnoxious 3 diffused 4 pompous 2 accept 3 readable 4 certain 2 unknown 4 slow 4 disappear 1 gentle 1 release 4 stimulate 1 conformity 1 cunning 1 inferior 3 consistent 3 neglect 2 unreliable 3 emotional 1 sin 3 corruption 2 sobriety 1 sour 2 considerate 1 obedient 3 easy 2 surrender 2 inexperienced 4 sneer 2 defend 3 shaky 3 diseased 1 quiet 3 indiscreet 4 vindicate 1 appropriatenes s 3 shrewd 1 animate 4 extinguish 4 dexterity 1 backwardness 1 foolish 2 bucolic 1 ferocious 2 fall 1 smooth 1 borrow 4 harsh 4 forgiving 1 absurdity 2 presumption 4 property 3 totalitarianism 4 crude 1 friendly 1 stale 2 decaying 1 austerity 4 small 1 shrink 2 shapely 4 happiness 3 generous 4 bright 3 wild 3 appreciation : kindness 4 drug : pharmacist 1 sudden unwelcome event 4 casual leave 4 hunt 1 humiliation 4 obvious 2 Para phrase 1 turn aside 1 pickup 1 suspended action 4 unpleasant 3 perjure 2 washing 4 disappear 1 familiar 1 explain 1 fabricate 1 concentrate 1 sophisticated 1 reluctance 1 obvious 1 access 3 act strongly 2 a keeping in repair 2 enthusiastic approval 4 adaptation 4 honour 4 hardworking 3 process 1 to stock 3 ingratiating 2 very generous 3 intelligent 1 conventional 1 volatile 1 astute 1 ugly 3 despairing 1 add 1 abrasion 4 be alert to 2 editing 2 dawn 1 unfortunate 1 primary 1 unable 2 hatred 4 fall 1 resist 3 hefty 3 blesses 1 exonerate 2 ornate 4 conductor 3 relevance 4 upset 3 lament 1 diminished 2 bewilder 4 blessing 4 abundance 1 mendicant 1 gentle 4 corrupt 3 grouped together 2 confuse 4 plot 2 squabble 4 impressive 2 coward 1 intolerance 4 instigator 1 many parts 2 math formula 2 uncooked 1 faulty 1 expansive 1 brusque 1 direct 1 hybrid 3 plateau 3 over powering 3 grateful 2 beg 4 outspokenness 3 profuse 1 injury 1 insensitive 4 sticky 2 type of geometry 3 smooth and fluent 3 overturn 2 weaken 1 freak 1 space object 3 cordial 1 fondle 4 permanently altered 1 casual attitude 2 troublemaker 3 anger 1 lure on 3 exhibition of courage 1 notorious 3 compunction 1 engagement 1 official incharge of census 2 some period 3 airjet fuel 3 death 3 dispute 1 order 3 noisy 1 stop 1 risk 3 stifle 4 happening continually 4 wordiness 4 locate 3 harsh 3 skirmish 2 mix 2 intrigue 2 syllabus 1 compel 2 oblige 2 praise 1 disregard 1 defective 2 insult 3 delicious 4 to translate 3 bliss 1 coreless 1 sane 1 support 2 death 4 aristocracy 1 termination 1 dispossession 4 illustrative 1 vivacity 1 impetuous 1 fearless 3 spreading 1 act of confining 4 overthrow 3 baleful 1 indicative 1 distinctive 1 join 1 counsel 3 invalid 1 honest 2 likeness 1 bargain 4 false statement 3 domineering 4 research 1 reluctant 1 indolence 2 numeral 4 discredit 1 dreadful 4 disagree 1 debate 3 confuse 4 cure 3 sensitive 2 inconsiderate 2 arbitrarily 4 understand 1 gay 4 nucleus 2 illustrated 1 demand 1 recall 1 simple 3 thin 4 originates 4 frustrate 1 to exempt 2 decorate 4 assure 3 curious 2 leaving 2 assuaging 1 assistance 1 flattered 1 trespass 4 burden 4 strengthen 1 reject 1 intrigue 2 delay 2 exaggeration 1 exempt 2 to magnify 2 exaggerate 3 effectuation 1 fine 2 impoverish 1 invigorate 1 advisable 4 to do immediately 4 be careless 1 excuse 2 extort 3 expel 3 eradicate 4 revealing 1 provident 1 valueless 1 bind 2 sing loudly 2 inappropriately humorous 4 real 1 rival 1 proficiency 1 exasperating 2 useless 2 illusion 1 rebellious 1 popular item 3 social blunder 3 assumed 1 impetuous 1 fade away 1 constant 3 strong 1 vigorous 1 condone 3 cordial 1 bake slowly 3 pretend 1 state of confusion 3 changing 4 rigid 1 strength 1 friendly 1 hysterical 1 positively 1 excite or stir up 1 cloudy 3 traditional beliefs 4 futile 2 sweetness 2 agitate 3 impenetrable 4 feebleness 1 prearranged 2 prehistoric remnant of and animal or plant 4 raise 4 fold 3 reason 3 short tempered 1 resentment 3 nostalgia 3 an engineer 1 seize 1 fear 2 contemporary 1 deficient 2 move slowly 4 applause 1 opponent 4 concord 3 austere 4 indict 4 freed 2 unfamiliarity 2 sensitive 3 division 2 abundant 3 enemy 3 approve 1 defend 1 catastrophe 3 calamity 3 natural 4 fear 3 native 4 unite 2 drowsy 2 intensification 2 decoy 1 separate 4 applause 3 worsen 4 offensive 1 crazy 3 acquittal 2 embalm 3 bless 4 descendants 4 attractive 2 climax 3 confident 4 cautious 2 encourage 4 dirty 1 smile 1 approve 2 derision 2 humane 2 dismiss 3 open 4 same 2 slow 2 tarnish 2 suffering 3 happiness 3 happy 1 genteel 4 rebuke 1 helpful 1 dud 2 dig 3 confident 4 capable 3 limited 4 surrender 1 reliable 4 insured 3 imaginary 2 narrow-minded 4 divorce 3 prodigal 2 serious 4 praise 2 flattered 1 approval 2 happy 2 reserve 3 attractive 3 emotional 3 dislike 4 defame 1 leisurely 1 reticent 4 diffused 2 deny 1 discover 2 indication 4 interpret 2 contend 1 shy 1 dissent 4 indifferent 4 identify 2 unknown 3 disappointed 4 postpone 1 indented 4 opposition 4 contest 3 pinch 1 wide 2 dense 2 analyze 2 barren 2 candid 4 defeat 3 defendable 4 victim 4 towering 3 adventurous 4 priceless 1 sufficiency 3 movement 3 dreamer 1 inhabiting 1 serious 4 fact 3 perfunctory 3 co-operation 3 anxiety 3 implicit 4 reproduce 2 injure 2 impulsive 4 fair-minded 3 rally 1 rarity 4 recover 2 prosperous 3 roguish 2 excitement 3 fate 3 create 1 concentrate 1 magnificent 1 simple 3 clear 1 concession 2 inconsistency 3 contempt 2 naïve 4 save 2 controversy 1 maintain 2 instigate 2 defer 3 constrict 2 steady 2 transient 1 central 3 cheerful 4 cheerful 4 shadowy 2 gleam 1 even 3 segregation 3 bold 2 courageous 1 hurt 3 disapprove 2 extort 1 detached 4 disfigured 1 less 1 prologue 4 resentment 1 freed 1 ignorant 4 heal 2 negate 2 musical 1 invade 1 teasing 1 unimportant 3 suffering 3 simplify 1 tarnish 3 irritable 3 bless 4 concede 2 influx 4 boldness 2 conventional 4 implied 4 weakening 1 inward 3 engineered 3 fiction 4 magnificent 2 hard 1 humorous :mature 1 emerge : withdraw 4 decision : vacillate 2 vaccinate : disease 4 vault : money 4 man : woman 3 snake : rattle 3 haughty : careless 2 reserve : reticent 2 Courage : timorous 4 speak : stammer 4 bonus : worker 1 debauchery : morality 4 ratify : contract 3 omnipotent : power 4 confident : poise 2 miser : generous 4 parallel : align 3 shove : nudge 4 reimburse : money 4 grimace : pain 4 slanderous :illegal 1 furry : blizzard 4 incarcerate : freedom 4 aquarium : tree 3 man : omnivorous 4 stream : current 1 milestone : grinds 1 necromancy : magic 1 stillness : motion 1 continent : peninsula 4 infection : elixir 4 verbosity : words 1 eulogy : lament 3 avarice : vice 4 dismiss : indict 4 impecunious : poor 4 dress : stockings 2 native : ingenuous 4 waitress : restaurant 4 volume : length 3 prism : triangle 4 squad : group 2 moonlighting : worker 1 never : always 4 acute : obtuse 1 steel : iron 3 real : extraneous 4 eager : anxiety 1 writer : blot 1 narcotic : sickness 2 stop : horse 2 painter : mural 4 bull : matador 1 rain : water 3 indisputable : agreement 1 computer : switch 2 muffler : noise 4 engine : fuel 3 heading : folder 3 reprehensible : censure 4 kennel : dog 3 rank : nose 4 truculence : ingrate 1 intolerable : criticize 2 glove : hand 4 yard : playing 1 milestone : distance 1 negotiable : sold 2 rube : sophistication 4 smile : sadden 1 flimsy : tenuousness 4 poor man : poverty 3 watch : hour 3 editor : author 2 works : gadgets 1 club : advisor 4 writer : blot 1 box : sphere 4 prosthesis : limb 1 beauty : cosmetics 2 cats : mice 3 electrician : pliers 4 success : emotion 2 knight : spear 4 effusive : melancholy 4 exigency : urgency 3 like : love 2 attach : seize 1 same : different 3 novel : play 3 police : law 1 confidence : man 1 congratulations : benediction 2 evangelist: sinner 4 turgid : bloated 3 jingoism : loyalty 3 main : food 4 mitigate : offense 4 lengthy : brief 4 effort : results 3 glass : metal 1 arbitration : love 3 blanket : heat 1 dictate : govern 1 stocking : leg 4 dictate : govern 3 vaccinate : disease 4 crying : sympathy 3 symbiotic : malignancy 2 limit : speed 2 ransom : kidnap 2 apathy : interest 4 dogmatic : hostility 3 cut : saw 4 vessel : knots 1 hunter : prey 2 perfunctory : attention 4 minister : profanity 3 tender : hard 2 farmer : tractor 1 reliable : defend 1 wall : house 2 dormer : window 4 compulsory : comply 4 suggested : idea 1 fulfilling : control 3 prevaricator : lying 4 street : road 1 reagent : chemical 1 conceit : arrogant 4 economic : theory 1 window : wall 2 ceremony : televised 1 disease : germ 3 merchandise : shoplifting 4 instruments : musicians 1 misconstrue : interpret 4 awl : pierce 4 swing : flail 1 fabricator : alibi 1 degree : thermometer 2 stimulant : energy 1 studio : sculptor 3 painting : artist 1 courage : cravenness 2 physician : infirmary 4 horse : bridle 1 water : waves 4 understanding : rage 1 ramble : directness 3 delimit : expand 3 antlers : stag 4 consider : formulate 1 knapsack : back 2 contended : happiness 1 stammer : speak 2 interruption : continuity 4 antidote : illness 2 byline : column 4 employment : salary 3 judge : courtroom 4 laws : courts 3 arrogance : kings 2 trap : spring 4 grimace : joy 2 contentment : mutter 2 dog : playful 4 arbitrary : courage 3 string : beads 4 metal : heavy 2 country : city 4 evaporate : perfume 1 prick : stab 4 hunt : stalk 4 ancient : value 3 volume : library 1 servile : rebellion 1 needle : fir 3 clean : brush 2 disorient : direction 4 numbers : book-keeping 4 into 2 with 1 with 4 with 3 to 1 with 2 from 3 in 2 with 1 to 4 in 3 for 1 to 2 to 4 with 1 for 1 to 4 for 2 for 3 with 1 in 2 in 1 to 2 in 1 up to 1 with 1 from 2 from 1 for 3 up 1 up to 1 in 2 of 3 in 1 for 1 with 2 about 1 about 1 with 2 in 3 around 3 in 1 with 4 to 2 round 1 with 3 with 1 up 2 into 3 up 1 in 3 of 2 into 3 on 1 on 4 in 1 into 1 upon 2 for 1 from 3 from 4 of 3 out 1 on 3 to 3 from 4 from 1 in 2 in 3 in 1 to 2 on 1 into 1 in 4 to 3 off 1 to 2 out 1 from 2 to 1 off 3 with 1 for 2 from 1 into 3 with 4 from 1 in 2 on 1 over 4 with 2 with 2 with 1 over 4 out 1 to 1 in 3 at 1 into 1 over 2 at 1 to 1 to 2 in 4 in 1 at 3 from 1 to 2 to 2 to 1 after 2 in 1 after 4 to 1 upon 1 in 2 into 1 around 2 about 1 in 3 through 1 off 1 upon 2 to 1 over 1 into 1 with 1 with 2 for 1 in 2 upon 3 over 1 with 4 onto 1 upon 2 into 3 with 4 around 3 into 1 for 2 upto 2 from 1 in 2 from 3 on 1 for 3 from 4 up 1 to 2 up 4 in 1 on 3 in 3 over 2 in for 3 out 1 on 4 onto 1 upon 3 into 4 into 1 of 3 down 2 in 3 to 1 on 2 with 1 to 4 to 1 off 1 in 3 into 1 on 2 on 4 for 1 out 4 over 2 with 1 from 2 on 1 with 2 over 1 at 2 to 3 with 1 out 2 into 1 into 2 over 1 in having 2 for winning 3 of 2 are working 2 have 2 would have 1 have been 3 have had 3 were 2 will 3 for 3 on 3 about 3 will leave 1 over 1 off 4 will have had 2 had had 4 will see 4 have finished 4 of looking 3 aroused 4 have not met 4 is making 2 old 1 selection 2 jump 2 jump 2 tendency 3 consecration 3 infirm 2 powerful 2 moistened 1 discreetly 2 luminosity 3 transport 2 desert 2 finished 1 absolute 4 accumulate 4 censured 2 finished 2 convert 3 affliction 3 palliate 2 operator 3 resign 1 after 2 technique 2 letter 2 incongruous 1 regrettable 2 manifest 3 compound 2 acrid 3 depose 1 limited 3 unthrifty 3 in agreement 3 defection 1 fating 1 loaded 1 repel 3 culpable 4 humorous 3 perpetual 4 influence 2 acknowledge 4 conspicuous 3 aid 1 refresh 3 conceive 3 brutal 2 ado 1 wavering 1 wicked 3 receive 2 veneration 1 attain 2 spatial 2 declined 1 want 2 ranges 3 war 2 gratuitous 3 telling 2 precede 3 conclusion 1 desirable 2 touchy 1 boon 2 puerile 2 confederate 2 touchy 2 persistently 3 wipe away 1 ineligible 3 permanent 1 exhaustive 4 guessful 2 fury 4 artisan 4 redundant 4 profiteer 2 barbarism 3 acrimonious 1 veracious 3 usury 2 partition 2 insipid 2 dearth 4 holocaust 4 expunge 4 turbulent 4 expensive 2 cosmos 2 casualties 4 antithesis 4 senile 4 solstice 3 deliriously 2 work 3 fighting 1 clumsiness 2 scattered 1 embezzle 4 ignorant 3 happiness 2 revolutionary 3 arises 2 harassed 4 stringent 2 enervates 2 remarkable 2 regurgitate 3 inexhaustible 2 convincing 1 profligate 1 revenge 3 would be 1 about 3 that how 2 upon 1 within 1 are 1 are 2 is done 1 had 2 didn't it 2 doesn't he 1 still 3 from 3 it has 2 pulled it out 4 must confirm 2 was used to be 1 was used to be 2 in his success 1 to be filled 1 birds 4 had paid 3 also 1 no 2 a whole as 3 the harder 4 as 2 so high as 1 the high 3 enough old as 1 although calcium 3 to show 2 handed over 1 will have become 4 water boil 3 it will be heated 2 to surprise of 2 big amount 2 must buying 3 taken hardly 1 had taken better 3 possibly 2 comes 4 enough the food 1 as quickly more 1 expose 2 Tomorrow will be Sunday and it shall be a holiday. 2 You do not understood this point. 1 She does not came here every week. 1 Do children likes riding on top of the bus. 1 Does he liked traveling by train. 3 Do you knew the place with colored light. 2 Shall we got off the bus here. 3 The policeman hold up his hand and stops the stream of traffic. 1 They have arrived at the station before we reached. 1 The teacher had enter the room when the bell rang. 1 You will has recovered by the time I come back. 2 The train have not left when we reached. 3 The train had not reaches the station before it grow dark. 1 He will not has spent all the money by the time his father comes. 2 Has he packed up before he receives the orders? 1 Had the boys entered the room when the bell rings? 2 Shall I have recover by the time the month ends. 2 Will Anees have spent all the money before his father finds it out. 4 Ahmad had been waiting for the bus since full twenty minutes. 2 They have been living in this tent from many months. 1 I have not feeling well for many days. 1 Boys have not doing anything since December. 2 Have you not keeping good health for a long time. 3 He have not been opening his shop for many days? 3 Hamid does not went to bed till eleven. 1 We do not likes his manners. 1 He had saved their lives before the scouts reaches. 2 Babar have won the battle before rain came. 1 He have been living in this house for six years. 1 If you listens to the question carefully, you will answer them easily. 1 He has been living in this house for six years. 4 The child has been crying for three hours. 4 You should helped the poor. 2 His glorious success is the honour with Pakistan. 3 How beautiful the moon is. 2 India did attacked Pakistan in 1965. 2 When does you come from college. 3 We use to go to movies quite frequently. 2 He was used to drank too much. 3 She used to get up early. 4 If you will put too much water in rice when you cook it, it will get sticky. 3 If you will listen to the question carefully, you will answer them easily. 1 If I have more time, I would have checked my paper again. 2 Her watch has needing repair. 2 Has you written your mother a letter? 3 I am taking this medicine for last six year. 1 We were friends for we were children. 3 He played very well, didn't he? 4 It isn't far from the university, has it? 2 She understood question, doesn't she? 3 He should be enough strong to get off the bed in a few days. 3 He drive so fast, no one likes to ride with him. 2 This composition is more better than your last one. 4 The faster we did finish, the sooner we can leave. 3 The rainy season begins in July. 4 Raza have a part-time job at night. 2 Haris has lots of friends besides his roommate. 4 He borrowed the pen so that that he could finish his essay. 4 I thought he is coming today. 3 We did not received mail yesterday because it was holiday. 3 There has very little rain this summer. 2 Four miles are distance to the office. 3 The staff is meeting in the conference room. 4 Whoever called will not leave his name and number. 1 If one do not work hard, one cannot expect to succeed. 1 If one knew the facts, you would not be so quick to criticize. 2 The money that I have is sufficient for the needs. 2 The class advanced rapidly. 4 The smoke who is rising from that oil refinery is black. 3 He says that he would get up early in the morning. 2 Tariq exclaimed with joy that he have won the match. 3 Either of the boy has did this. 2 He, you and me should do it. 2 I have bought ten dozen eggs at two hundred rupees. 3 I have been confine to bed for a month. 2 In my opinion, this is too soon to make decision. 3 I have been looking forward to meeting you. 4 You better had to hurry if you don't want to miss the bus. 2 I shall buy a pen and the pencil. 3 The higher you go, cooler it is. 3 We didn't meet none of these eight persons. 2 Which is the nearest post office from here? 3 Harder your work, the better will be you result. 3 He makes her obeys his orders. 2 You should regards him your friend. 1 Always he speak the truth. 3 I meet him often at corner of the street. 1 I do not remember not having done it. 4 Ex-office 2 connoisseur 4 hermit 3 butt 2 fratricide 4 hypomania 3 debility 2 philanthropist 3 logo mania 1 subject 3 reprisal 4 sensitive 4 gnaw 2 assemblage 1 accomplice 3 inexplicable 1 altruism 4 artist 2 contextual 2 parable 1 transmute 4 pantechnicon 3 acrobat 1 invective 2 antonym 1 toxin 3 concubine 2 metropolitan 3 nepotism 3 parable 1 amnesty 3 goon 2 evolutionary 3 immeasurable 1 topiary 4 hallucination 2 perennial 2 acrimony 2 verbatim 2 heresy 4 nymphomaniac 3 prodigy 4 deadly 3 hangman 3 optometrist 2 bit 2 truant 4 statement 2 plinth 1 fanatic 3 ideologist 3 moody 1 antiquated 4 stoic 1 cryptography 2 cuckold 4 masochism 1 philanderer 3 arena 3 concubine 2 telepathy 4 pleonasm 4 morphology 3 patriot 3 hypocrite 2 eclipse 3 celibacy 2 tranquilize 3 ambivalent 2 amateur 4 ambiguous 4 martinet 1 frigate 3 veteran 4 expiation 2 kaleidoscope 2 masquerade 3 amnesty 4 physiotherapist 3 incendiary 4 granary 4 invincible 3 highbrow 4 teetotaler 4 pseudonym 4 trough 3 licentious 3 apotheosis 3 vexation 2 agnosticism 3 bursar 4 fundamentalist 3 pirate 2 barbarian 1 prologue 1 legitimate 4 parody 4 franchise 3 logo mania 3 nincompoop 2 immolation 1 imposter 3 chum 3 Elysium 4 hypocrite 2 retired 1 polished 3 lithotomy 4 stupor 4 vacillation 4 mendicant 2 abrogate 4 stoic 1 defector 3 edible 2 autocracy 2 memorandum 4 bibliophilist 3 omniscient 4 ballad 4 formula 3 catalogue 2 isthmus 3 coquina 3 pantry 1 catharsis 1 apprentice 4 hurricane 1 procrastinate 3 excusable 2 agnostic 1 ebullient 2 epicure 2 orchard 4 supernatural 1 hostess 4 duffer 4 malapropism 3 reticence 2 diligent 3 colleague 3 litigant 1 reprimand 1 erotica 3 furrier 3 pugnacious 2 intercede 4 delicate 3 kiln 4 endocrinology 2 ornithologist 4 inheritance 2 gourmand 3 flirt 2 magician 1 carnivorous 3 compensation 2 stenophobia 1 supervisor 3 extrapolation 3 spectators 2 spectators 2 immigrate 4 transparency 4 worldliness 2 hedonist 1 hedonist 3 blasphemy 3 patriot 3 finish 4 matron 3 pompous 1 incendiarist 3 misogynist 2 anatomy 4 camouflage 4 recluse 4 document 3 psychiatrist 2 chord 1 birthday 3 arsenal 4 warden 3 usurer 3 incorrigible 4 vandal 2 intermission 2 sonnet 3 allergy 3 epicurean 3 ancient 3 spendthrift 4 septuagenarian 4 aggressor 1 stroll 2 congregation 3 hermaphrodite 4 parvenu 4 contemporary 2 appendix 2 philanderer 3 infanticide 4 strut 4 yokel 2 yokel 1 store 3 panchromatic 2 sensitive 2 directory 4 niche 2 Amazon 1 avaricious 3 avaricious 2 cavalryman 2 propitiate 3 dictatorship 1 transcript 1 felicitate 4 versatile 4 hierarchy 3 congregation 3 bearable 2 monumental 4 congregation 3 elope 4 sanatorium 4 malignant 1 commerce house 2 agnostic 1 remove 2 astraphobia 1 none 4 21 4 200 4 2.27 4 0.00003 1 67 1 40 1 2423 1 none 4 42 1 a < c 2 3.392 3 0.12 1 30 1 none 4 32 4 33 3 300.4 1 65.81 1 2056 2 2018 3 3932 1 Rs. 28.00 1 Rs. 27.50 4 190 1 39 days 2 20 3/4 days 3 135 2 60 days 4 345,405,210 1 10 minutes 2 57 km/hr 3 24 2 132 cm 3 55 km/hr 2 240 3 42% 3 61.0% 21 1 77 marks 3 140, 190 1 Rs. 9400 1 Rs. 19000 2 27 2 8 1/2 years 1 26% 3 505 2 4 3 49 liters 1 13 1 Rs. 454000 1 3075.75 2 34.76% 1 Rs. 220 1 7.75 2 6300 3 Rs. 1000 3 10% 1 1438.25 1 13 years 3 50 2 Rs. 875 1 Rs. 85 2 1320 4 14% 2 none of these 3 Rs. 22000 1 20.75% 2 Rs. 575 2 80% 2 68.00% 3 345 1 24% 2 RS. 526 3 37 3 3999 2 49 2 10.65 km 2 39 km/h 1 9.58 km 2 Rs. 4.50 1 Rs. 725 1 Rs. 772.50 3 40.6 1 Rs. 425 2 4% loss 4 profit of Rs. 1.40 3 50% 1 20% 3 Rs. 110.00 3 2 hours 1 10 years 2 Rs. 110.00 2 114 1 8 4 2 62 64 1 4 4 35 1 6049 1 6 2 892 2 3750 1 67.5 3 2401 4 168 174 2 10 11 12 13 3 none of these 1 38 1 38 3 19 13 4 8 1 30 1 none of these 3 5 5 3 12 4 4 25 3 30 2 3 8 1 17 3 84 3 130 1 65 35 4 64 2 59 3 35 4 21 3 34 1 30 4 61 4 24 26 1 99 3 23 2 8 15 4 50 3 21 16 2 80 83 1 33 2 15 1 25 3 14 2 9 3 26 2 32 64 3 25 1 31 4 15 2 33 4 5/9 6/5 3 10 1 XK 2 WD 4 NM 3 A 1 J 2 Y 1 T 3 J 4 U 2 U 1 U 4 T 1 M 3 Q 1 N 3 D 3 Y 4 P 3 D 3 I 4 PE 2 S 2 J 4 Y 1 ST 1 M 3 J 4 R 1 K 2 D 4 I 1 I 1 F 2 H 4 E 2 Q 2 P 3 H 1 P 3 11 2 23 1 39 3 12 4 12 4 38 2 40 4 40 1 36 3 60 4 30 2 32 23 3 35 14 2 44 4 -1 4 10 3 476 3 80 3 14 3 2 4 12 4 40 4 14 11 1 10 3 22 29 4 40 1 64 2 27 1 30 2 59 3 64 3 38 2 26 4 -1 4 60 4 21 3 11 10 2 3750 1 36 3 62 3 1056 3 94 2 56 4 16 4 10 3 648 3 2401 4 31 21 2 12 3 34 1 140 100 4 10 14 3 86 2 166 1 252 4 4 1 80 3 64 4 252 4 3 1 5 3 0.5432 3 3264 2 4224 4 114 1 44 4 64 2 6 1 27 1 14 2 15 1 16 40 1 -2 3 892 2 38 2 5 3 5 5 3 5 3 36 3 25 3 30 2 4 1 56 4 2 2 24 3 30 2 59 3 573 2 54 3 130 1 64 2 59 3 73 1 16 4 30 3 28 2 22 2 none 3 677 3 360 3 42 4 60 2 60 2 25 4 16 4 89 1 59 3 14 1 16708 2 92 2 64 3 21 3 264 3 32 3 32 4 1056 3 11 14 3 5 2 55 2 18 4 47 2 36 1 64 1 12 1 17 1 1458 4 1458 2 15 1 31 3 `1/8 2 360 1 72 4 11 2 72 4 24 4 13 3 22 1 100 135 4 16 15 1 46 32 2 21560 1 1548 1 18 2 56635 1 48 1 2.5 1 73 1 17 1 10 14 3 1520 2 1 2 49/343 2 127 1 24 4 22 1 13/12, 15/9 4 36 3 64 1 455 3 1/72 3 1 2 24 3 188 1 47.3 1 1/128 2 72 1 7 8 1 96 2 32 4 8 2 62 2 69 3 24 4 17 2 47.3 3 65563 1 32 64 2 0.7581 2 60 3 4096 4 1 6 2 62 1 4 5 5 5 5 5 4 4 3 8 7 3 48 4 1946 1 P 3 C 4 D 2 F 3 O 1 S 2 L 3 E 1 I 2 R 4 H 1 R 1 K 3 H 3 N 2 Y 4 M 2 D 3 I 1 A 2 ST 1 S 3 T 4 S 2 PE 3 I 4 G 4 L 1 H 4 V 1 R 4 P 2 Q 4 Q 4 H 2 M 4 J 1 J 1 I 4 S 4 H 4 S 3 S 2 I 4 Q 4 L 2 Y 2 P 1 XM 3 X and A 1 E 2 T 4 V 2 O/16 1 EZ 4 XK 1 WD 2 Q 2 D 4 N 4 Z 3 I 2 I 4 DE 3 Q 1 G 2 H 2 O 1 LAO 4 EZ 4 WD 4 I 3 ODQUNM 4 NCJPTG 2 29 2 4 1/2 hours 3 12 km 3 12 km 4 9 km 3 6 km 2 North wards 3 10 km 3 None of the above 1 9 km 3 East 2 13 1 10 rabbits 2 None of the above 1 South 1 20 sec 3 None of the above 1 16 2 15 3 None of the above 2 None of the above 2 None of the above 1 None of the above 2 None of the above 1 10.22 am 3 Thursday 3 aunt 2 both 3 8 km 3 746 watts 4 4.00 am 2 None of the above 2 10 minutes 1 16 3 5 3 Worship of Allah 3 Christian 3 7 3 Fifth pillar of Islam 1 zakat 1 Zakat 2 Zakat 4 Zakat 1 Seven 2 None of them 3 800 times 3 Non of them 1 12th Nabvi 2 Chasht 3 Namaz 4 Hajj 2 Seven 4 None of them 3 Sunnat 1 Sunnat 4 East 3 None of them 2 All of them 2 Qada 1 None of them 1 Death 3 Sunnah 1 Wajib 2 Tahajjud 1 9 2 Wajib 3 Sunnah 2 Nafl 1 Isha & wither 1 Sunnat 3 None of it 1 Fifth 3 None of them 3 5 Hijri 1 None of them 2 10 camels 2 60 2 10-1/2 Tolas 1 55 tolas 2 42 times 2 Hazrat Ali (R.A) 1 None of them 1 To permanence 2 None of them 2 Four 3 11 Hijri 4 None of them 1 8 Hijri 2 13th Zulhajj 1 7 3 Mustahib 1 Between safa and Minna 2 None of them 2 Arafaat 2 67 1 None of them 2 None of these 1 7 2 Hazrat Ezrail (A.S) 3 Ramazan-ul- Mubbarak 4 40 years 11 months 1 None of these 2 5 4 Saeed bin alaa 1 10 days 3 9 stages 3 11 years 2 months 5 days 1 10 years 3 months 3 days 1 22 years 6 months 3 35 surahs 3 Hazrat Umar (R.A) 3 Mukhtar bin Abu Abaid Saqif 2 Hazrat Ali (R.A) 3 Hazrat Safia (R.A) 3 Hazrat Muaz bin Jabel (R.A) 1 570 3 Surah al- Ghashia 2 40 4 Surah maida 3 6688 2 90 2 88 2 Surah Baqra 2 6 2 Dal 1 Zoan 4 30 1 581 A.D 1 None of them 2 Hazrat Aminah 4 None of them 3 None of them 1 Hazrat Aminah 3 Hazrat Khadija 4 632 A.D 1 632 A.D 2 632 A.D 4 55 years 1 Five 3 Five 1 Makah 4 Abu Lahab 1 Imam Muslim 1 Imam Muslim 4 Imam Muslim 2 Imam Muslim 3 Imam Muslim 3 Imam Muslim 1 Imam malik 2 imam malik 3 imam malik 1 imam malik 4 imam malik 2 Imam malik 3 saeed bin sakan 4 275 A.H 1 275 A.H 2 275 A.H 4 385 A.H 3 385 A.H 1 275 A.H 2 385 A.H 4 275 A.H 3 516 A.H 1 275 A.H 2 516 A.H 4 516 A.H 1 None of them 1 To believe that there is no god except Allah 4 To believe I all prophets of Allah 2 To believe in all prophets of Allah 4 to believe that there is no god except Allah 1 Kalima tamjeed 1 kalima tamjeed 2 Kalima tamjeed 4 kalima tamjeed 3 kalima tamjeed 2 kalima tamjeed 1 None of them 2 Ijtihad 3 Ijtihad 2 Sunnat 4 sunnat 2 Hazrat abu baker (R.A) 4 Hazrat abu baker (R.A) 3 Hazrat abu baker (R.A) 1 hazrat Abu Bakar (R.A) 2 656-661 A.D. 1 656-661 A.D. 2 none of them 3 656-661 A.D. 4 661 A.D. 3 none of them 2 634 A.D. 4 661 A.D. 1 Abu hafs 4 634 A.D. 2 661 A.D. 3 None of them 1 none of them 1 None of them 3 Abu turab 4 661 A.D. 3 Safar 1 Safar 4 Safar 3 Jamadi-ul-awal 1 Safar 3 Jamadi-us-sani 4 Safar 2 Jamadi-us-sani 1 Safar 2 Shawwal 4 Shawwal 1 Jamadi-us-sani 3 Hazrat izrail 2 Hazrat izrail 3 Hazrat izraeil 4 none of them 1 none of them 2 Sulimanki barrage 2 Indus 2 Hassan Abdal 3 Punjab 1 NWFP 1 Sindh 2 None of them 3 Baran river 3 19 Oct.,1960 2 Briatain 3 Indus & jehlum ravi 1 Indus & jhelum ravi 1 Sutlej 3 Chashma 3 None of them 3 Jhelum 1 Swan dam 1 2, 543 m 3 600 m 4 144 m 2 13 m.cub.m 1 Tarbela dam 1 1050 mw 2 China 2 None of them 1 None of them 1 None of them 2 60,000 km 1 6 1 None of them 1 Neelum 1 Kabul 1 8 2 28 3 337056 sq. km 1 34 1 Punjab 1 Sulaiman ranges 3 7610358 1 Sindh 3 Pushtuns 2 loralai 2 seraiki 1 mining 3 balochistan 4 all of them 4 Turbat 1 Sindh 2 Gawadar 4 30-May-35 1 38,000 1 None of them 3 NWFP 2 Quetta 4 Makram 3 Koh-e- Hundukush 1 None of them 3 Coal mine 1 2 801,940 sq km 3 81, 716 sq km 3 23,220 km 2 7,774 km 2 1947 1 1970 3 Lahore Agreement 3 2,430 km 3 2,812 km 3 2,812 km 2 409 km 3 1,216 km 2 200 nm 4 None of them 2 Gasherbrem 2 Broad Peak 1 6,677(m) 2 Tirich Mir 4 Himalayan 1 37% 3 161,100 sq km 2 Twelve 3 Ching Chee 2 Pamirs 1 Karakoram 4 Western mountains 1 None of them 1 Kalabagh 4 Haro 3 China 1 NWFP 1 afghanistan 3 Chitral 4 Khyber pass 2 None of them 1 Lowari pass 4 Kirthar Range 1 Pak Afghan border 2 205, 000 sq. miles 2 Seraik belt 1 All of these 1 Tarbela 3 Khaddar 2 Sutlej bias 1 None of them 2 Punjab 2 South Asia 4 Cholistan desret 3 None of them 1 Rachna doab 3 None of them 2 None of them 2 Cholistan Plains 4 Pat 1 Kunhar river 4 Nipal 3 34th 4 Chenab 1 None of them 3 Chenab 2 4 1 Kuram river 1 8 3 5 2 afghanistan 4 NWFP & balochistan 3 Balochistan & punjab 1 7 2 NWFP 3 Jammu and Kashmir 2 Chenab 4 None of them 1 730 km 2 Kashmir 2 2,300 km 1 Jhelum,& chenab, ravi, beas, and satluj 4 None of them 1 Important fish found in indus 4 None of them 3 Kabul 1 Ravi & Jehlum 3 Thal 1 Indus & jehlum 1 Swat 2 Lower chenab canal 1 none of them 2 madhopur (india) 4 Head sulaimanke 1 Jehlum 2 Ravi 3 None of them 1 Mailsi 2 Indus 4 Indus 4 Multan & D.G Khan 1 Sutlej 2 Id Description 1 Physics . : 2 Chemistry . : 3 Mathematics : 4 Biology : 5 General Knowledge : 6 Verbal Ability : 7 Quantitative Ability : 8 Analatical Ability : 9 Islamic Studies 10 Pakistan Studies ChaptId ChaptNo Description SubId 20 Chapter 20 Atomic Spectra : 1 19 Chapter 19 Dawn of Modren Physics : 1 18 Chapter 18 Electronics : 1 17 Chapter 17 Physics of Solids : 1 16 Chapter 16 Alternatng Current : 1 15 Chapter 15 Electromagnetic Induction : 1 14 Chapter 14 Electromagnetism : 1 13 Chapter 13 Current Electricity : 1 12 Chapter 12 Electrostatics : 1 11 Chapter 11 Heat and Thermodynamics : 1 10 Chapter 10 Optical Instruments : 1 9 Chapter 9 Physical Optics : 1 8 Chapter 8 Waves : 1 7 Chapter 7 Oscillations : 1 6 Chapter 6 Fluid Dynamics : 1 5 Chapter 5 Circular Motion : 1 4 Chapter 4 Work : 1 3 Chapter 3 Motion and Force : 1 2 Chapter 2 Vectors and Equilibrium : 1 1 Chapter 1 Measurement : 1 21 Chapter 21 Nuclear Physics : 1 20 Chapter 20 Aromatic Hydrocarbons : 2 19 Chapter 19 Aliphatic Hydrocarbons : 2 18 Chapter 18 Fundamemtal Priciples of organic Chemistry: 2 17 Chapter 17 Transition Elements : 2 16 Chapter 16 The Halogens and the Noble Gases : 2 15 Chapter 15 Group VA and VIA Elements : 2 14 Chapter 14 Group IIIA and Group lVA Elements : 2 13 Chapter 13 s-Block Elements : 2 12 Chapter 12 Periodic Classification of Elements : 2 11 Chapter 11 Reaction Kinetics : 2 10 Chapter 10 Electrochemistry : 2 9 Chapter 9 Solutions : 2 8 Chapter 8 Chemical Equilibrium : 2 7 Chapter 7 Thermochemistry : 2 6 Chapter 6 Chemical Bonding : 2 5 Chapter 5 Atomic Structure : 2 4 Chapter 4 Liquids and Solids : 2 3 Chapter 3 Gases : 2 2 Chapter 2 Experimental Techniques : 2 1 Chapter 1 Basic Concepts : 2 21 Chapter 21 Alkyl Halides : 2 22 Chapter 22 Alcohols, Phenols and Ephers : 2 23 Chapter 23 Aldehydes and Ketons : 2 24 Chapter 24 Carboxylic Acids : 2 25 Chapter 25 Macromolecules : 2 26 Chapter 26 Common Chemical Industries : 2 27 Chapter 27 Environmental Chemistry : 2 1 Chapter 1 Sets and Numbers : 3 2 Chapter 2 Matrics and Determinants : 3 3 Chapter 3 Groups : 3 4 Chapter 4 Equations : 3 5 Chapter 5 Sequences and Series : 3 6 Chapter 6 Propability and Binomial : 3 7 Chapter 7 Trigonometry : 3 8 Chapter 8 Function and Limits : 3 9 Chapter 9 Elements of Plane Analytical Geometry : 3 10 Chapter 10 Differentiation of Algebraic Function : 3 11 Chapter 11 Differentiation of Trig, Log, and Exp : 3 12 Chapter 12 Higher Order Derivatives : 3 13 Chapter 13 Anti-derivatives : 3 14 Chapter 14 Integration by Substitution : 3 15 Chapter 15 Pair of Lines and Circle : 3 16 Chapter 16 Conic SecII, Parabola, Ellipse and Hyperbola: 3 17 Chapter 17 Vectors : 3 18 Chapter 18 Products of Vectors : 3 27 Chapter 27 Man and His Enviroment : 4 26 Chapter 26 Some Major Ecosystems : 4 25 Chapter 25 Ecosystem : 4 24 Chapter 24 Evolution : 4 23 Chapter 23 Biotechnology : 4 22 Chapter 22 Variation and Genetics : 4 21 Chapter 21 Cell Cycle : 4 20 Chapter 20 Chromosomes and DNA : 4 19 Chapter 19 Growth and Developments in Plants : 4 18 Chapter 18 Reproduction : 4 17 Chapter 17 Coordination and Control : 4 16 Chapter 16 Support and Movements : 4 15 Chapter 15 Homeostasis : 4 14 Chapter 14 Transport : 4 13 Chapter 13 Gaseous Exchange : 4 12 Chapter 12 Nutrition : 4 11 Chapter 11 Gioenergetic : 4 10 Chapter 10 Kingdom Animalia : 4 9 Chapter 9 Kingdom Plntae : 4 8 Chapter 8 Fungi ( The Kindom of Recyclers) : 4 7 Chapter 7 Kingdom Protista (Protoctisa ) : 4 6 Chapter 6 Kindom Prokaryoteae ( Monera ) : 4 5 Chapter 5 Variety of Life : 4 4 Chapter 4 The Cell : 4 3 Chapter 3 Enzymes : 4 2 Chapter 2 Biological Molecules : 4 1 Chapter 1 Biology and its Major Fields of Specialization : 4 1 Chapter 1 General Knowledge : 5 1 Chapter 1 Synonyms : 6 2 Chapter 2 Antonyms : 6 3 Chapter 3 Analogy Test : 6 4 Chapter 4 Appropriate Prepositions : 6 5 Chapter 5 Sentence Completion : 6 6 Chapter 6 Correct / Incorrect : 6 7 Chapter 7 Most Suitable " One word " : 6 1 Chapter 1 Numerical Ability Test : 7 2 Chapter 2 Basic Arithmetic's : 7 1 Chapter 1 Number Series : 8 2 Chapter 2 Letter Series : 8 3 Chapter 3 Arithmetic : 8