MULTIPLE CHOICE.Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Plasma is closest in composition to 1) _______ A) sterile water. B) urine. C) CSF. D) interstitial fluid. E) isotonic saline solution. 2) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the 2) _______ A) differential cell count. B) specific gravity. C) hematocrit. D) viscosity. E) packed volume. 3) Which of the following is a function of the blood? 3) _______ A) defense against toxins and pathogens B) transport of body heat C) transport of nutrients and wastes D) transport of gases E) All of the answers are correct. 4) Which of the following statements about blood is false? 4) _______ A) Blood contains buffers that control pH. B) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements. C) Blood is about 55 percent plasma. D) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. E) Blood is more viscous than water. 5) Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? 5) _______ A) 30 percent B) 20 percent C) 45 percent D) 60 percent E) 55 percent 6) Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? 6) _______ A) hemoglobin–10.7 g/100 ml B) RBCs–5.2 million/µl C) hematocrit–44 percent D) platelets–280,000/µl E) leukocytes–8600/µl 7) The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters. 7) _______ A) 6 to 8 B) 4.4 C) 10 D) 3.8 E) 5.3 8) The most abundant component of plasma is 8) _______ A) ions. B) nutrients. C) water. D) gases. E) proteins. 9) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be 9) _______ A) hypervolemic. B) normovolemic. C) isovolemic. D) hypovolemic. E) antivolemic. 10) The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the 10) ______ A) concentration of glucose. B) concentration of nitrogen wastes. C) concentration of electrolytes. D) concentration of proteins. E) concentration of water. 11) A typical adult hematocrit is 11) ______ A) 75. B) 85. C) 65. D) 25. E) 45. 12) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. 12) ______ A) 92; 55 B) 50; 50 C) 92; 7 D) 55; 92 E) 45; 55 13) Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? 13) ______ A) apolipoprotein B) transport albumin C) metalloprotein D) hormone-binding E) steroid-binding 14) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? 14) ______ A) hormone-binding protein B) apolipoprotein C) transport albumin D) steroid-binding protein E) metalloprotein 15) Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? 15) ______ A) translipin B) gamma globulin C) albumin D) steroid-binding protein E) hormone-binding protein 16) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? 16) ______ A) pancreas B) heart C) brain D) liver E) kidney 17) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are 17) ______ A) transport proteins. B) albumins. C) lipoproteins. D) fibrinogens. E) globulins. E) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. 18) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the 18) ______ A) albumins. B) lipoproteins. C) metalloproteins. D) fibrinogens. E) immunoglobulins. 23) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect 23) ______ A) an increase in red blood cell production. B) the release of erythropoietin. C) a drop in oxygen levels. D) a rise in hematocrit. E) All of the answers are correct. 19) A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is 19) ______ A) lipoprotein C. B) fibrinogen. C) metalloprotein D. D) albumin alpha. E) immunoglobulin A. 24) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause 24) ______ A) thrombocytopenia. B) jaundice. C) pernicious anemia. D) hemophilia. E) leukocytosis. 20) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the 20) ______ A) red bone marrow. B) heart. C) lymph tissue. D) thymus. E) spleen. 25) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that 25) ______ A) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. B) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. C) her hemoglobin level is normal. D) she is suffering from anemia. E) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. 21) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone 21) ______ A) erythropoietin. B) thymosin. C) renin. D) angiotensin. E) M-CSF. 22) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if 22) ______ A) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. B) the diet is deficient in iron. C) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene. D) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. 26) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except 26) ______ A) during anemia. B) at high altitudes. C) during periods of fasting. D) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted. E) as a consequence of hemorrhage. 27) The average life span of a red blood cell is 27) ______ A) 4 months. B) many years. C) 1 month. D) about 1 year. E) 24 hours. 28) The function of red blood cells is to 28) ______ A) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. B) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide. 29) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? 29) ______ A) vitamin B12 deficiency B) iron deficiency C) vitamin B6 deficiency D) vitamin K deficiency E) lack of intrinsic factor 30) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the 30) ______ A) liver. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) yellow bone marrow. E) red bone marrow. 31) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of 31) ______ A) magnesium. B) sodium. C) calcium. D) copper. E) iron. 36) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because 36) ______ A) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury. C) proximal epiphyses of long bones.000 WBC E) A and D taken together 41) The process of red blood cell production is called 41) ______ A) hematopenia. B) liver. C) spleen. 34) ______ A) Leukemia B) Polycythemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia 35) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by 35) ______ A) blood transfusion. D) injections of vitamin B12. red bone marrow is located in the 40) ______ A) sternum and ribs. D) excreted by the intestines. 42) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.000 platelets C) 3.32) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is 32) ______ A) hemoglobin. D) iliac crest.5 million RBC B) 400. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. 33) The function of hemoglobin is to 33) ______ A) stimulate erythropoiesis. D) heme molecules lacking iron. E) stored in yellow bone marrow. C) fibrinogen. 42) ______ A) Myeloblasts B) Erythroblasts C) Band cells D) Reticulocytes E) Normoblasts 38) The waste product bilirubin is produced from 38) ______ A) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. B) injections of iron. C) hemocytosis. B) one alpha and one beta chain. B) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. B) erythrocytosis. B) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. D) bilirubin from hemoglobin recycling has built-up in the bruise. 34) ________ is a condition in which the oxygencarrying capacity of the blood is reduced. E) All of the answers are correct. D) digestive tract. E) All of the answers are correct. E) oral doses of iron. E) spleen.5 million RBC D) 10. C) oral doses of vitamin B12. B) excreted by the liver. C) extensive breakdown of RBCs. C) heme molecules plus iron. B) immunoglobulin. His blood . and bone marrow. liver. D) albumin. D) destruction of hemoglobin. 44) The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from 44) ______ A) the recycling of hemoglobin. B) carry dissolved blood gases. E) erythropoiesis. E) carry bicarbonate ion. C) excreted by the kidneys. E) porphyrin. 45) Which of the following blood count values would be a sign of anemia? 45) ______ A) 5. 46) Bill wants to determine his blood type. 40) In adults. D) erythropenia. B) body of vertebrae. B) globin chains of hemoglobin. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. 39) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is 39) ______ A) recycled to the red bone marrow. E) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. D) produce antibodies. C) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation. E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide. 43) Each hemoglobin molecule contains 43) ______ A) one heme group. 37) Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the 37) ______ A) bone marrow. so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. C) four iron atoms. D) four alpha chains. agglutinins E) agglutinins. B) red bone marrow. C) they are usually Rh negative. 58) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. E) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. 50) Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics: 50) ______ A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. D) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. C) the ABO blood group. B) all Rh negative individuals. B) neutrophils. baby Rh negative C) mother Rh positive. E) monocytes. 55) All of the following are true of neutrophils. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. . C) basophils. 48) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because 48) ______ A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. except that they are 55) ______ A) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. E) granular leukocytes. baby Rh positive E) None of the answers are correct. This means 46) ______ A) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies. E) they usually have very strong immune systems. B) the Kahn blood group. E) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. plasma C) erythrogens. 49) Blood type is identified primarily by 49) ______ A) the Rh blood group. 57) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are 57) ______ A) lymphocytes. D) neutrophils. C) phagocytic. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) all Rh positive individuals. B) shape of the RBCs. 52) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. D) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. E) yellow bone marrow. B) neutrophils. E) size of the RBCs. 52) ______ A) T-cells. D) the intestines. D) both the ABO and Rh blood groups. C) eosinophils. C) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. D) monocytes. antibiotics D) agglutinogens. B-cells B) serum. C) eosinophils. 51) Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of 51) ______ A) all individuals with type AB blood. 47) A person's blood type is determined largely by the 47) ______ A) volume of the RBCs. E) eosinophils. E) basophils. C) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen. 54) Granulocytes form in 54) ______ A) the spleen. C) the thymus. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies. B) important in coagulation. baby Rh negative D) mother Rh negative.cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. 58) ______ A) Eosinophils B) Monocytes C) Lymphocytes D) Neutrophils E) Basophils 59) White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the 59) ______ A) monocytes. B) Bill could receive type B-negative blood in a transfusion. 56) The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the 56) ______ A) lymphocytes. agglutinogens 53) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn: 53) ______ A) mother type A+. B) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody. D) active in fighting bacterial infections. baby type O+ B) mother Rh negative. D) lymphocytes. B) basophils. E) the HB blood system. E) Bill is Rh positive. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? 71) ______ A) eosinophils B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) monocytes 63) Which of the following is true of basophils? 63) ______ A) granules contain heparin B) granules contain histamine C) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs D) attract other defense cells E) All of the answers are correct." 73) ______ A) lymphocyte B) eosinophil C) monocyte D) basophil E) erythrocyte 74) Identify the cell labeled "4. E) All of the answers are correct. 65) An infected wound contains typically contains 65) ______ A) tissue fluids. eosinophils. D) neutrophils. is a function of which blood cells? 69) ______ A) lymphocytes and monocytes B) basophils and eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils." 72) ______ A) eosinophil B) monocyte C) basophil D) lymphocyte E) erythrocyte 73) Identify the cell labeled "6. C) leukocytes. such as phagocytosis. D) dead neutrophils. B) basophils. D) thrombocytes. 71) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. B) pus.60) The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are 60) ______ A) monocytes. B) neutrophils. 68) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the: 68) ______ A) monocytes B) neutrophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) erythrocytes 64) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? 64) ______ A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) often elevated in allergic individuals D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) produce antibodies in response to antigens 69) Non-specific immunity. C) basophils. 70) Which of the following is true of eosinophils? 70) ______ A) allergic patients have many B) have bilobed nucleus C) granules stain with eosin dyes D) constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs E) All of the answers are correct. C) cellular debris. E) lymphocytes." 74) ______ A) monocyte B) neutrophil . 61) Which of the following is not true of neutrophils? 61) ______ A) can make hydrogen peroxide B) attracted to complement-coated bacteria C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) less abundant than lymphocytes 66) Which of the following is not true of monocytes? 66) ______ A) can phagocytize bacteria B) enter tissues and wander C) about same size as basophils D) become macrophages E) are long lived 62) Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? 62) ______ A) helper cells are one type B) produce antibodies in response to antigens C) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium D) often elevated in allergic individuals E) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide 67) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of 67) ______ A) eosinophils. E) reticulocytes. and monocytes E) platelets Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed Elements Use Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions: 72) Identify the cell labeled "5. 78) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called 78) ______ A) myeloblasts. C) release of heparin from the liver. D) the spleen. D) lymphoblasts. .000/µl is suffering from 82) ______ A) thrombocytosis. C) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. C) leukocytosis. D) heparin. E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. 81) Which of these descriptions best matches the function of platelets? 81) ______ A) helper cells are one type B) produce antibodies in response to antigens C) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide D) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium E) often elevated in allergic individuals 82) A person whose platelet count is 40. 89) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is 89) ______ A) phosphokinase. concave nucleus. D) removal of worn out red blood cells. 88) The process of fibrinolysis 88) ______ A) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. B) thrombin. D) forms emboli. E) thrombocytopenia." 75) ______ A) monocyte B) erythrocyte C) basophil D) lymphocyte E) eosinophil 76) Identify the cell labeled "2. C) process called hemostasis. C) the liver. platelets are stored as a reserve in 80) ______ A) bone marrow. C) plasmin. D) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. B) megakaryocytes. E) red cells that lack a nucleus." 76) ______ A) lymphocyte B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) monocyte E) basophil 77) The function of platelets is to assist in the 77) ______ A) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.C) platelet D) basophil E) lymphocyte 75) Identify the cell labeled "3. C) activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen. C) activates fibrinogen. C) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase. B) the kidneys. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. 83) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. D) the heart. E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) hemocytosis. 87) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the 87) ______ A) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. E) immune response during an infection. B) forms thrombi. E) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. 79) Platelets are 79) ______ A) large cells with a prominent. B) megakaryocytes. D) leukopenia. 83) ______ A) Fibrinolysis B) Vascular spasm C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) The platelet phase 84) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by 84) ______ A) platelets. B) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. 85) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the 85) ______ A) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. D) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. C) normoblasts. 86) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the 86) ______ A) release of heparin from the liver. B) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. B) destruction of bacteria. C) the thymus gland. B) blue cells that have a nucleus. D) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) the kidneys. E) dissolves clots. 80) In case of hemorrhage. E) erythroblasts. E) the spleen. C) thrombi. C) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. C) coronary sinus. D) factor VIII. 104) _____ A) the force of contraction .000. B) plasmin. B) foramen ovale. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) embolus. 96) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called 96) ______ A) clots. E) pulmonary valve. 101) _____ A) 100. D) low levels of prothrombin. 90) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. B) initiate clot formation. B) mitral valve. 99) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme 99) ______ A) thrombin. 95) A moving blood clot is called a(n) 95) ______ A) procoagulant. 93) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? 93) ______ A) more blood cells would be produced B) coagulation would be prevented C) the coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation D) coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals E) no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium 94) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? 94) ______ A) vitamin E B) vitamin B C) vitamin A D) vitamin K E) vitamin D C) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. D) ligamentum arteriosus. 90) ______ A) intrinsic B) common C) extrinsic D) fibrinolytic E) retraction 91) Plasma thromboplastin is a factor in the ________ pathway. B) thrombus. as a result 97) ______ A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. 103) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the 103) _____ A) aortic valve. 98) What are common sources of vitamin K? 98) ______ A) whole grains B) green vegetables C) organ meats D) intestinal bacteria E) All of answers are correct.000 E) 1. 91) ______ A) retraction B) extrinsic C) fibrinolytic D) intrinsic E) common 92) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to 92) ______ A) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. D) their coagulation times are too quick. E) interatrial septum. C) cause clots to form faster. E) platelet plug. 102) The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the 102) _____ A) fossa ovalis. B) prolonged bleeding. E) All of the answers are correct.000 97) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII. D) occlusions. D) plaque. 100) A digestive disorder that impairs a person's ability to absorb vitamin K will result in 100) _____ A) low levels of Factor X.000. C) bicuspid valve. 104) Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell. E) prothrombinase.000 C) 10. D) tricuspid valve. B) emboli. E) plaques.000 D) 1.E) fibrinase. C) low levels of thromboplastin. D) mimic heparin. E) they lack a functional common pathway. E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.000 B) 10. 101) The heart beats approximately ________ times each day. B) aorta. C) ventral cavity. 110) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to 110) _____ A) papillary muscles. E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles. 118) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show which of the following? 118) _____ A) release of enzymes into the circulation B) release of CK-MB into the circulation C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation D) switch to anaerobic metabolism E) All of the answers are correct. B) fibrocytes. C) inferior vena cava. 117) When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery. D) close the semilunar valves. D) coronary sulcus. 109) In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart. B) angina pectoris. 119) Blood flowing into the heart from the venae cavae flows next through the ________ valve. 113) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of 113) _____ A) cardiac muscle cells. D) lungs. 105) The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow 105) _____ A) in one direction only. D) mediastinum. E) epitheliocytes. B) right ventricle. great vessels. E) left ventricle. E) left ventricle. C) eject blood from the ventricles. C) smooth muscle cells. B) superior vena cava. 112) The visceral pericardium is the same as the 112) _____ A) mediastinum. B) pericardial space. 106) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the 106) _____ A) right atrium. B) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. C) interatrial septa. 114) The left ventricle pumps blood to the 114) _____ A) right ventricle. C) pulmonary circuit. D) trabeculae carneae. B) epicardium. E) ventricle. D) coronary sinus. B) in opposite directions on the right and left. E) cardiac notch. 116) The right atrium receives blood from the 116) _____ A) systemic circuit. B) chordae tendineae. D) right atrium. E) left ventricle. and trachea called the 109) _____ A) pleural space. the condition is referred to as a(n) 117) _____ A) coronary thrombosis. B) auricle. B) conus arteriosus. E) pulmonary embolism. 119) _____ A) aortic semilunar . E) coronary sulci. C) coronary spasm. E) endocardium. D) left atrium. thymus. C) atricle. C) right atrium. D) myocardial infarction. E) All of the answers are correct. C) from a ventricle to an atrium. 111) Contractions of the papillary muscles 111) _____ A) close the atrioventricular valves. C) right ventricle. 115) The right ventricle pumps blood to the 115) _____ A) right and left lungs. D) parietal pericardium.B) ionic currents C) action potentials D) electrical signals E) All of the answers are correct. B) aorta. C) myocardium. E) in many directions. E) right atrium. 108) The earlike extension of the atrium is the 108) _____ A) coronary sinus. C) left atrium. 107) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the 107) _____ A) left atrium. esophagus. D) conus arteriosus. D) in both directions. D) chondrocytes. pulmonary trunk 8. C) contract. 7. D) pump blood to the lungs. E) right atrium. left atrium B) left ventricle. aorta E) superior vena cava. 3. C) left atrium. 8. C) collect blood. D) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk. left ventricle 5. 7. 3. aorta 7. 8. 131) _____ A) deoxygenated. the left ventricle has all the following characteristics. pulmonary veins. B) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle. 1. B) aorta. 127) _____ A) tricuspid B) bicuspid C) pulmonic D) semilunar E) semicaval 132) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart. 3. D) right ventricle. 123) The ________ deliver(s) blood to the myocardium. 5 C) 5. 3. D) phrenic arteries. right atrium C) right ventricle. C) left coronary artery. right atrium. C) left atrium. 6 D) 1. C) works harder. 1. pulmonary trunk. D) pumps a greater volume. D) brain. 131) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________ . 123) _____ A) cardiac veins B) superior vena cava C) coronary sinus D) carotid arteries E) coronary arteries 128) The function of an atrium is to 128) _____ A) pump blood into the systemic circuit. E) pump blood to the ventricle. B) liver. 4. right atrium 2. 5 E) 5. 7. except that it 129) _____ A) has a thicker wall. 2. right ventricle 4. 2. C) lungs. 1. 8. pulmonary circuit? 130) _____ A) right ventricle. left atrium 122) When the semilunar valves close. venae cavae 6. 127) The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. 130) Which of the following are involved in the 1. . C) between the left atrium and left ventricle. B) pulmonary arteries. 125) The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents 129) Compared to the right ventricle. superior vena cava C) deoxygenated. 120) Coronary veins empty into the 120) _____ A) left ventricle. aorta D) inferior vena cava. D) open. 121) _____ A) 6 B) 2 C) 12 D) 8 E) 4 126) The bicuspid or mitral valve is located 126) _____ A) where the venae cavae join the right atrium. 8. 4. 6. 7. B) conus arteriosus. 6 133) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the 133) _____ A) intestines. D) pulmonary veins. B) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts. left atrium D) oxygenated. B) between the right atrium and right ventricle. 7. the AV valves then 122) _____ A) close. 4. 4. B) make the third heart sound. E) is round in cross section. right lung E) oxygenated. 2. 2. E) right coronary artery. 6 B) 1. pulmonary veins. E) prolapse.B) mitral C) bicuspid D) pulmonary semilunar E) tricuspid backward flow into the 125) _____ A) pulmonary trunk. 8. 124) Blood is supplied to the left atrium by the 124) _____ A) brachiocephalic artery. left atrium 3. left ventricle 121) There are ________ pulmonary veins. pulmonary veins What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation? 132) _____ A) 5. 3. 2. right atrium B) deoxygenated. 4. 6. right atrium. E) right ventricle. E) in the opening of the aorta. B) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. E) calcium ions are not released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 136) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by 136) _____ A) the coronary arteries. B) aorta. C) interventricular artery. 137) _____ A) subclavian B) pulmonary C) circumflex D) coronary E) carotid 138) The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the 138) _____ A) coronary sinus. D) aorta. B) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane." 146) _____ A) pulmonary semilunar valve B) bicuspid valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) cusp of tricuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum 147) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit? 147) _____ A) 5 B) 16 C) 13 D) 10 E) both 5 and 16 ." 145) _____ A) moderator band B) trabeculae carneae C) pectinate muscles D) papillary muscles E) chordae tendineae 146) Identify the structure labeled "6. C) calcium channels remaining open. C) left ventricle. 134) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the 134) _____ A) heart. B) left coronary artery. C) calcium ions do not bind to troponin molecules. B) coronary sinus. D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries." 144) _____ A) bicuspid valve B) ligamentum arteriosum C) aortic semilunar valve D) pulmonary semilunar valve E) tricuspid valve 145) Identify the structure labeled "8. 140) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the 140) _____ A) coronary sinus. B) the coronary sinus. E) brain. D) decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions. 141) In cardiac muscle. Figure 20-1 The Heart Use Figure 20-1 to answer the following questions: 144) Identify the structure labeled "19. C) coronary sulcus. D) interatrial septum. D) increased membrane permeability to potassium ion. C) increased membrane permeability to chloride ions. B) right ventricle. D) calcium ions play no role in the process of contraction. 139) The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the 139) _____ A) right coronary artery. the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of 141) _____ A) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions. D) liver.E) heart. B) calcium ions play an important role in repolarizing the membrane after the depolarization phase. E) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ions. D) right coronary artery. E) superior vena cava. 135) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the 135) _____ A) left atrium. 142) The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to 142) _____ A) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. 137) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries. C) circumflex artery. E) arteries that branch off the subclavian arteries. E) right atrium. 143) In cardiac muscle 143) _____ A) about 20 percent of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell. C) intestines. E) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane. E) left coronary artery. D) inferior vena cava. C) contact with blood in the pumping chambers. B) lungs. E) aorta. 5. E) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize. C) the atria will contract more forcefully. C) are special neurons that convey signals from the A) 3. 3. 1. D) 1. 154) If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node. 149) _____ A) P-R interval B) QRS complex C) R-T interval D) T wave E) P wave 150) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions. E) S wave. 5. 3. B) 800 msec." 148) _____ A) bicuspid valve B) ligamentum arteriosum C) aortic semilunar valve D) tricuspid valve E) pulmonary semilunar valve 149) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing. 160) At a heart rate of 60 beats/minute. 5. 2. C) T wave. B) also contract with the rest of the cells in the heart wall. C) 370 milliseconds. B) cells will hyperpolarize. 2. AV bundle 3. D) the ventricles will beat faster. 4. E) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) depolarization of the atria. 1. 3. 3. C) mitral valve insufficiency. 4. 3. E) 60 milliseconds. The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is 152) _____ A) 3. 161) The first heart sound is heard when the 161) 4. 1. 5. 159) The systolic part (both atrial and ventricular) of a cardiac cycle lasts on average 159) _____ A) 3 seconds. AV node 4. 1. 151) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked. 5. 2. 1. 2. 156) Pacemaker cells in the SA node 156) _____ A) have a well-defined resting potential. 3. D) 1 second. C) 370 msec. 5. 2. 152) The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart. AV bundle branches 153) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from 153) _____ A) depolarization of the SA node. 2. E) The ventricles will stop beating. Purkinje fibers E) 4. Purkinje fibers 2. 4. 4. system of the heart: D) 1. E) All of the answers are correct. 157) Put in correct order the sequence in which B) 4. 2. 4. C) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes. 5. E) 3. 5. B) swirling of blood in the ventricle. B) depolarization of the AV node. B) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. D) QRS complex. D) 100 msec. 5. bundle branches brain to the heart. 155) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the 155) _____ A) P wave. D) can spontaneously depolarize. C) 4.148) Identify the structure labeled "21. 4. E) repolarization of the atria. D) heart rate will increase. how would the ECG be affected? 154) _____ A) The P-R interval will be shorter. AV node 157) _____ 158) A heart murmur might be caused by 158) _____ A) aortic valve insufficiency. B) 4. b . 1. 2. SA node 5. E) 5 seconds. 1. B) 60 seconds. D) depolarization of the ventricles. C) cells will depolarize. 1. 3. B) There will be much bigger P waves. 5. E) All of the answers are correct. the 150) _____ A) heart rate will decrease. 2. D) The QRS duration will be longer. SA node 5. 2. B) PR complex. excitation would move through the conducting C) 3. 151) _____ A) cardiac output will increase. 1. 1. D) pulmonic valve insufficiency. 2. a cardiac cycle lasts 160) _____ A) 630 milliseconds. except 174) _____ A) increased sympathetic stimulation. D) AV valves open. infarction 166) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's 166) _____ A) P wave. B) end-systolic volume. B) cardiac output decreases. C) increase in heart rate. Choose the exception. B) ventricular contraction. E) stroke volume. tachycardia D) Bradycardia. C) contracting. D) relaxing. the ventricles are 169) _____ A) repolarizing. D) QRS complex. D) atrial depolarization. E) is associated with opening of the mitral valve. Figure 20-2 Cardiac Cycle Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: 170) What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the graph? 170) _____ A) AV valve opens B) diastolic filling begins C) semilunar valve opens D) AV valve opens and diastolic filling begins E) ventricle contracts 171) With each ventricular systole. E) QT interval. B) increased venous return. B) is associated with opening of the aortic valve. D) increased parasympathetic stimulation. E) atria contract. C) blood pressure increases. cardiomyopathy E) Angina. C) increased heart rate. E) early diastolic filling phase. D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure. 174) Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output. D) condition of the conducting system. C) blood enters the aorta. 163) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the 163) _____ A) atrial systole. 167) The T wave on an ECG tracing represents 167) _____ A) atrial repolarization. E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure. D) the ventricles fill with blood. E) blood pressure decreases. bradycardia B) Cardiac tamponade. E) increased force of contraction. bradycardia C) Bradycardia. 175) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except one. B) AV valves close. B) heart rate. 164) _____ A) 80–100 B) 20–40 C) 100–140 D) 40–60 E) 140– 180 165) ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate. 171) _____ A) blood pressure remains steady. 173) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the 173) _____ A) end-diastolic volume. 162) The first heart sound ("lub") 162) _____ A) is associated with atrial systole. B) depolarizing. D) is associated with closing of the mitral valve. B) S-T segment. E) duration of the ventricular action potential. C) stroke volume. 168) Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following. except the 168) _____ A) effects of drugs and poisons. 169) During the T wave of the electrocardiogram. D) cardiac output. C) T wave. 172) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to 172) _____ A) decrease in blood pressure. D) systolic ejection phase. C) is associated with closing of the aortic valve. C) ventricular repolarization. E) ventricular depolarization. C) late diastolic filling phase. B) dicrotic phase._____ A) semilunar valves close. C) cardiac reserve. B) decrease in heart rate. E) both repolarizing and relaxing. 165) _____ A) Tachycardia. 164) Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per minute. 175) _____ A) increasing ejection fraction B) decreasing ejection fraction C) increasing heart rate D) increasing stroke volume E) decreasing end systolic volume . 6. E) tunica adventitia. D) decreased end diastolic volume. 6 E) 2. 4. muscular arteries 181) _____ A) 7. 177) If the force of ventricular contraction increases. 6 B) 5. . C) tunica intima. E) increase cardiac output. D) tunica media. elastic arteries 5. 176) Which of these is true about the atrial reflex? 176) _____ A) triggered by atrial mechanoreceptors B) triggered by increasing venous return C) also called Bainbridge reflex D) depends on sympathetic innervation E) All of the answers are correct. 3. C) increase contractility. 3. large veins 7. 3. D) decrease the end-systolic volume. 2. 1. B) hold their shape better when cut. 186) Cardiac output is increased by 186) _____ A) inhibiting the atrial reflex. 2. 187) Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase? 187) _____ A) beta-two receptor B) muscarinic receptor C) alpha-one receptor D) preganglionic E) beta-one receptor 188) Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will 188) _____ A) decrease heart rate. 1. 7. C) decreased venous return. 4 D) 4. 5. B) sympathetic stimulation. arterioles 3. 2. medium veins 6. and the end-systolic volume is 40 ml. 3. 7. 180) Compared to arteries. 7. 6. B) tunica externa. venules 2. 1.1 ml D) 85 ml E) not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume 184) Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125 beats/minute. D) have thinner walls. what will happen to the end-systolic volume? 177) _____ A) reduced to zero B) decrease C) increase D) fluctuate rapidly E) remain the same 178) Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml. 5. B) increase heart rate. Calculate her end-systolic volume. E) increased end systolic volume. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml.250 ml / min B) 21.75 ml / min C) 25 ml / min D) 750 ml / min E) 175 ml / min 179) The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is the 179) _____ A) tunica interna. 2. 1. 184) _____ A) 11. 178) _____ A) 7500 ml / min B) 0.250 ml / min D) 200 ml / min E) 195 ml / min 185) Which of these would cause stroke volume to increase? 185) _____ A) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased B) decrease in heart rate C) when venous return is decreased D) when ventricular contraction is reduced E) All of the answers are correct. 4 C) 6. C) are more elastic.E) have a pleated endothelium. 3. 181) Arrange the structures in the following list in the order that blood will encounter as it flows from the output side to the input side of the cardiovascular flow circuit. 5. veins 180) _____ A) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media. 1. the end-diastolic volume is 130 ml. 6 182) End-systolic volume is defined as the: 182) _____ A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle B) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole C) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate 183) A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml.250 ml / min C) 16. capillaries 4. 5. 183) _____ A) 5000 ml B) 165 ml C) 3. 1. 7. E) All of the answers are correct. D) venous return of blood to the heart. 194) _____ A) somatomotor B) both parasympathetic and sympathetic C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic E) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic 195) Stroke volume depends on 195) _____ A) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. D) thalamus. B) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate. 191) The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons. B) higher centers. 191) _____ A) Both parts of the statement are true. E) All of the answers are correct.189) Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine can be used to 189) _____ A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction. 192) "An increase in end-diastolic volume increases the stroke volume" is a way of stating 192) _____ A) Finch's law of the heart. D) Hawking's law of the heart. 193) Which of the following would increase heart rate? 193) _____ A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node B) increased levels of epinephrine C) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers E) All of the answers are correct. C) medulla oblongata. E) Robin's law of the heart. C) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true. B) produce a negative inotropic effect. B) the contractility of the ventricle. E) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false. C) end diastolic volume. E) pons. 190) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the 190) _____ A) hypothalamus. Figure 20-2 Cardiac Cycle Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions: 196) What volume is labeled "G" on the graph? 196) _____ A) stroke volume B) end-systolic volume C) ejection fraction D) end-diastolic volume E) cardiac output 197) What occurs at "A" on the graph? 197) _____ A) end systolic volume B) AV valve closes C) semilunar valve opens D) AV valve opens E) semilunar valve closes 198) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph? 198) _____ A) end-systolic volume B) end-diastolic volume C) total cardiac volume D) stroke volume E) cardiac output 199) What occurs at the circled label "5" on the graph? 199) _____ A) isovolumetric contraction B) isovolumetric systole C) ventricular refilling D) increased heart rate E) peak systolic pressure 200) What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph? 200) _____ A) semilunar valve opens B) AV valve closes C) ventricular ejection occurs D) semilunar valve closes E) AV valve opens 201) What occurs at the circled label "4" on the graph? 201) _____ A) isovolumetric ventricular contraction B) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation C) ventricular filling D) ventricular ejection E) sympathetic stimulation 202) What occurs at the circled label "7" on the graph? 202) _____ A) ventricular filling B) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation C) ventricular ejection D) sympathetic stimulation E) isovolumetric ventricular contraction 203) What volume is labeled "F" on the graph? 203) . D) Both parts of the statement are false. C) decrease blood pressure. B) Sparrow's law of the heart. 194) The heart is innervated by ________ nerves. D) dilate the coronary arteries. C) Starling's law of the heart. 3. 215) Metabolites exchange by diffusion with tissue cells in which of the following locations? 215) _____ A) venule B) arteriole C) vein D) capillary E) artery 216) List in correct order the sequence of blood vessels that blood would travel in the systemic circuit starting at the aorta. 4 E) 7. D) veins. 1. 1. B) venules. C) arteries. 5. 6. 7. 6. B) arteries. capillaries muscular arteries 4. 1. 7. B) the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries. D) muscular compression. 7. B) capillaries. 2. 211) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which vessel? 211) _____ A) artery B) vein C) arteriole D) venule E) capillary 212) What vessels contain elastic fibers in the walls that are stretched during systole? 212) _____ A) veins B) arteries C) venules D) capillaries E) arterioles 213) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United States. 5. 2. 3. elastic arteries 216) _____ A) 5. arterioles 6. E) arterioles. E) capillaries. venules medium veins 2. 3. large veins 3. except 214) _____ A) the respiratory pump. D) veins. 4. 6 217) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the 217) _____ A) venules. 6 D) 6. 213) _____ A) 50 B) 20 C) 30 D) 60 E) 25 214) Blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following. C) pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein. 1. 1. 2. C) arteries. 4 B) 4. E) valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood. 3. 210) Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in 210) _____ A) capillaries. 5. 2. C) venules. 218) The small vessels that capillaries drain into are called 218) _____ A) veins. 7. 6 C) 2. E) arterioles. 5. 1. . D) arterioles._____ A) end-diastolic volume B) end-systolic volume C) total cardiac volume D) stroke volume E) cardiac output 204) What occurs at the area labeled "C" on the graph? 204) _____ A) semilunar valve closes B) ventricular filling begins C) semilunar valve opens D) AV valve closes E) AV valve opens 205) What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle labeled "2" on the graph? 205) _____ A) left atrium is in systole B) left atrial pressure is decreasing C) left atrium is pressurizing the left ventricle D) left atrium is in diastole E) left atrium is receiving pressure from the left ventricle 206) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers? 206) _____ A) internal elastic membrane B) tunica externa C) external elastic membrane D) tunica intima E) tunica media 207) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel? 207) _____ A) external elastic membrane B) tunica externa C) tunica media D) tunica intima E) internal elastic membrane 208) Venae cavae are the largest of what type of vessel? 208) _____ A) arteriole B) artery C) vein D) capillary E) venule 209) Factors that increase the risk of atherosclerosis include which of the following? 209) _____ A) lack of exercise B) smoking C) obesity D) high cholesterol E) All of the answers are correct. 3. C) viscosity of blood changes. 234) _____ A) pulse B) critical closing C) blood D) mean arterial E) circulatory 235) Edema may occur (only) when 235) _____ . 234) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure. E) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques. 227) When a person rises quickly from a sitting position. 225) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90. D) the same amount of pressure as resistance. D) peripheral pressure. E) arteries. C) capillary hydrostatic pressure. D) flow becomes turbulent. D) elevated levels of epinephrine. B) length of a blood vessel. C) a greater blood flow. E) All of the answers are correct. B) blood pressure is high. E) vein. and resistance (R)? 230) _____ A) F=P+R B) P=(F×R) × 4 C) F=P/R D) F=P-R E) F=R/P 231) Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow? 231) _____ A) viscosity of blood B) vessel length C) venous pressure D) vascular resistance E) turbulence 232) Some of the fluid that is forced out of capillaries is returned to the blood by the: 232) _____ A) muscular arteries B) hepatic portal vein C) liver D) lymphatic system E) venules 233) As blood travels from arteries to veins. 229) In comparison to a vessel with a large diameter. B) arteriovenous pressure. E) pressure increases. C) the carotid baroreceptors become less active. except 224) _____ A) elevated hematocrit. C) blood flow to the kidneys decreases. B) capillaries. 222) Clinically. 224) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance. D) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs. D) blood pressure goes down. C) capillary. 228) When renin is released from the kidney. B) increased sympathetic stimulation. B) heart rate is reflexively elevated. E) All of the answers are correct. 228) _____ A) angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II. B) venule. the term blood pressure usually refers to 222) _____ A) pulse pressure. E) arterial pressure. C) endothelial permeability goes up. 223) Blood pressure is lowest in the 223) _____ A) venules. D) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. E) blood viscosity. C) arterioles. B) less resistance to blood flow. except the 219) _____ A) osmolarity of interstitial fluids. C) vasodilation. a vessel with a small diameter has 229) _____ A) a higher blood pressure. 227) _____ A) venous return is decreased. 233) _____ A) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller.219) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following. 230) Which of the following equations shows the correct relation between blood flow (F). 225) _____ A) 90 B) 210 C) 100 D) 93 E) 105 226) Edema may occur when 226) _____ A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced. D) blood vessel diameter. his mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg. pressure (P). E) angiotensinogen is converted into angiotensin I. D) veins. B) angiotensin I increases salt reabsorption at the kidneys. C) turbulence. D) arteriole. E) a greater resistance to blood flow. B) pressure decreases. 220) In what vessel is blood pressure the highest? 220) _____ A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) vein E) venule 221) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the 221) _____ A) artery. B) left atrium. B) tissue perfusion to the digestive system decreases. B) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. D) pulmonary circuit. B) increased heart rate. C) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. shoulders. 236) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively results in 236) _____ A) stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain. B) prolonged exercise. 241) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the ________. D) internal jugular vein.A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced and capillary endothelium permeability goes up. 241) _____ A) aorta. 243) Branches off the aortic arch include the 243) _____ A) brachiocephalic trunk. E) coronary sinus. left subclavian artery. the subclavian artery becomes the ________ artery. E) right atrium. D) venous return increases. 246) _____ A) common iliac B) popliteal C) tibial D) common carotid E) femoral 247) The vessel that receives blood from the head. C) left subclavian artery and left common carotid artery D) left subclavian artery. C) capillary endothelium permeability goes up. D) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced. 237) Which of the following changes doesn't occur during exercise compared to rest? 237) _____ A) cardiac output is higher B) heart blood flow is higher C) abdominal viscera blood flow is lower D) skin blood flow is lower E) kidney blood flow is lower 238) ADH and aldosterone secretion are part of the body's long-term compensation for 238) _____ A) a serious hemorrhage. E) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced. chest. E) brachiocephalic trunk. C) left atrium. C) hypertension. D) a heavy meal. 239) During exercise 239) _____ A) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. E) a heart attack. E) aorta. 248) Veins of the upper arm include the ________ vein(s). C) superior vena cava. D) venous return increases and vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. C) venous return increases. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. E) All of the answers are correct. D) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. B) lungs. B) left common carotid artery. E) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center. 240) During exercise 240) _____ A) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. the aorta branches to form the ________ arteries. D) lungs. C) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. B) external jugular vein. and arms is the 247) _____ A) inferior vena cava. neck. and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up. C) systemic circuit. 248) _____ A) ulnar B) brachial C) basilic D) cephalic E) All of the answers are correct. and left common carotid artery liver. E) All of the answers are correct. 244) After passing the first rib. 244) _____ A) brachial B) radial C) digital D) axillary E) ulnar 249) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein. 242) Pulmonary veins carry blood to the 242) _____ A) right atrium. 249) _____ A) basilic B) axillary C) brachial D) hemiazygos E) azygos 245) The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the 250) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the . 245) _____ A) hepatic portal vein B) myenteric capillaries C) gastric vein D) hepatic artery E) superior mesenteric vein 246) Near the level of vertebra L4. C) blood vessels. 258) ________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx. 256) Compared to blood capillaries. B) fights infection. B) having larger diameters and looser walls than blood capillaries. except that it 255) _____ A) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. except that it 264) _____ . E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph. C) transports lipids from the digestive tract. C) femoral vein. 252) _____ A) internal iliac B) external iliac C) femoral D) deep femoral E) lumbar 253) The two common iliac veins form the 253) _____ A) hepatic portal vein. Figure 21-1 Arteries Use Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions: 254) Identify the artery labeled "16. E) both blood vessels and adipose tissue. C) shingle-like endothelial cells. 261) _____ A) Immune complexes B) Adenoids C) Peyer patches D) Tonsils E) Lymph glands 262) The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following regions. it becomes the ________ vein. E) All of the answers are correct. B) are frequently irregular in shape. C) right breast. except the 262) _____ A) pelvic viscera. E) inferior vena cava.subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is the ________ vein. D) greater saphenous vein. B) left side of neck. B) hyaline cartilage." 254) _____ A) celiac B) axillary C) inferior mesenteric D) splenic E) superior mesenteric 255) The lymphatic system does all of the following. E) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles. D) are larger in diameter. 264) All of the following are true of the thymus gland. lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following. D) being the starting point of the lymphatic circulation. E) helps maintain normal blood volume. B) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph. D) left breast. 250) _____ A) iliac B) azygos C) hemiazygos D) brachiocephalic E) axillary 251) An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery. 258) _____ A) Tonsils B) Spleens C) Lymph nodes D) Peyer patches E) Immune complexes 259) Lymphatic capillaries are known for 259) _____ A) being the smallest lymphatic vessels. 261) ________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. E) hepatic portal vein. E) left arm and shoulder. except that they 263) _____ A) monitor the contents of lymph. C) produce antibodies. 257) Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the 257) _____ A) right lymphatic duct. D) accumulate cancer cells. C) cisterna chyli. 263) Lymph nodes do all of the following. B) dural sinus. C) have no basement membrane. B) innominate vein. D) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes. 260) Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with 260) _____ A) adipose tissue. D) thoracic duct. 251) _____ A) maxillary B) external carotid C) azygos D) internal carotid E) mental 252) When the popliteal vein reaches the femur. D) sensory nerve endings. except that they 256) _____ A) are smaller in diameter. B) subclavian vein. B) involutes after puberty." 269) _____ A) abdominal aorta B) femoral C) internal iliac D) external iliac E) common iliac Figure 21-2 Veins Use Figure 21-2 to answer the following questions: 270) Identify the vein labeled "9. E) arteriosclerosis. 276) The ________ vein is formed by the fusion of the greater saphenous vein. and deep femoral vein. C) the spleen." 274) _____ A) external iliac B) common iliac C) inferior vena cava D) internal iliac E) femoral 275) Elderly individuals are more prone than are younger individuals to have all of the following. 277) _____ A) azygos B) internal jugular C) vertebral D) external jugular E) innominate 278) The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins forms the 278) _____ A) inferior vena cava. except 275) _____ A) hypertension." 267) _____ A) brachial B) brachiocephalic C) common carotid D) aorta E) axillary 268) Identify the arteries labeled "9." 268) _____ A) aorta B) common carotid C) brachiocephalic D) brachial E) axillary 269) Identify the artery labeled "6. femoral vein. 265) The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following. D) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life. 276) _____ A) common iliac B) azygous C) internal iliac D) inferior vena cava E) external iliac 277) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein. E) activates B cells. D) venous thrombosis. Figure 21-1 Arteries Use Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions: 266) Identify the artery labeled "12. C) problems with the conducting system of the heart.A) lies in the anterior mediastinum. C) produces T cells." 270) _____ A) axillary B) brachial C) basilic D) median cubital E) cephalic 271) Identify the vein labeled "15. except 265) _____ A) the venae cavae." 272) _____ A) thoracic B) pulmonary C) aorta D) inferior vena cava E) superior vena cava 273) Identify the vein labeled "8. the axillary vein becomes the ________ vein. B) increased elasticity of vessel walls. 279) _____ A) subclavian B) external jugular . B) lymphatic vessels. C) azygos vein." 266) _____ A) splenic B) celiac trunk C) superior mesenteric D) inferior mesenteric E) axillary 267) Identify the artery labeled "1." 271) _____ A) axillary B) radial C) basilic D) brachial E) ulnar 272) Identify the vein labeled "10." 273) _____ A) axillary B) external jugular C) brachiocephalic D) subclavian E) superior vena cava 274) Identify the vein labeled "6. D) superior vena cava. D) lymph. E) lymph nodes. 279) At the level of the first rib. E) innominate vein. 293) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue. B) decreased blood pressure. D) parasympathetic stimulation. C) blood pressure. 283) _____ A) the external carotid forms the internal carotid. D) decreased peripheral resistance. E) increased levels of aldosterone. B) the internal carotids fuse with the vertebral arteries. 284) The ________ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta. E) decreased heart rate. 284) _____ A) pericardium B) pleura C) diaphragm D) peritoneum E) mediastinum 285) After entering the arm. 280) _____ A) tibial and popliteal B) femoral and popliteal C) femoral and tibial D) radial and ulnar E) femoral and deep femoral 281) At the knee. C) increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone). C) inhibition of EPO secretion. B) basal ring. B) activation of ADH secretion. E) activation of aldosterone secretion. except 293) _____ A) relaxation of precapillary sphincters. C) heart rate decreases. D) stroke volume increases. E) the common carotid divides into an internal and an external branch. C) veins and arteries anastomose. 292) Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure. C) increased stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center by higher brain centers. D) sodium ion levels in blood. 291) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure. D) decreased peripheral resistance. except 287) _____ A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure. 290) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors slow their discharge. 294) _____ . B) increased hematocrit. E) venous return and preload. 288) Fear can result in 288) _____ A) increased stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center by higher brain centers. 290) _____ A) both heart rate and stroke volume increase. except 291) _____ A) release of renin. B) salt and water loss through the kidneys. 286) _____ A) axillary B) subclavian C) ulnar D) brachiocephalic E) digital 287) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following. E) the heart rate will decrease to lower blood pressure. the axillary artery becomes the ________ artery. C) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). D) increased thirst and water intake. 283) Near the carotid sinus. C) increased blood pressure. 285) _____ A) digital B) subclavian C) brachial D) ulnar E) radial 286) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and ________ arteries. 289) Elevated levels of the hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased 289) _____ 294) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure. D) the aorta gives rise to the common carotids. D) arterial bypass E) cerebral arterial circle. 281) _____ A) deep femoral B) iliac C) peroneal D) popliteal E) tibial 282) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the 282) _____ A) external carotid artery. B) increased levels of angiotensin II.C) cephalic D) innominate E) azygos 280) The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries. D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) increased vessel diameter. B) heart rate increases. except 292) _____ A) increased blood volume. B) decreased levels of aldosterone. A) blood volume. the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery. E) decrease in blood volume. C) common carotid artery. E) number of red blood cells. D) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. C) is always higher than blood pressure. B) precapillary sphincter. E) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases. B) arterioles constrict. 301) Resistance is a force that 301) _____ A) never changes in a blood vessel. 298) _____ A) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. reduces C) decreases. E) venule. reduces . C) concentration of plasma waste products. C) viscosity increases. B) acts with pressure to move blood along a vessel. 299) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the 299) _____ A) veins constrict. C) cardiac output. E) flow becomes turbulent. 302) Which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of the body's blood? 302) _____ A) pulmonary arteries B) systemic arterioles C) veins D) capillaries E) arteries 303) What vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply? 303) _____ A) arteriole B) vein C) artery D) venule E) capillary 304) Arteriosclerosis can lead to 304) _____ A) coronary artery disease. 297) Blood pressure increases with all of the following. D) thoroughfare channel. 305) Which kind of vessel is also called a resistance vessel? 305) _____ A) artery B) capillary C) vein D) arteriole E) venule 307) These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated. 310) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system. C) measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle. 300) Blood pressure is determined by 300) _____ A) measuring the size of the pulse. B) concentration of plasma proteins. 296) Each of the following factors would increase cardiac output. C) plexus. B) tunica media. D) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. which ________ the volume in the arterial and capillary systems. D) tunica mater. B) pressure builds. C) tunica adventitia. E) All of the answers are correct. B) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel.A) mean arterial B) critical closing C) circulatory D) pulse E) blood 295) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the 295) _____ A) concentration of plasma sodium ions. D) force of cardiac contraction. E) stimulation of the heart by epinephrine. E) peripheral resistance. E) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff. except increased 297) _____ A) parasympathetic innervation. B) blood volume. 298) As blood travels from arteries to veins. C) increased venous return. B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. E) tunica intima. C) myocardial infarction. except 296) _____ A) increased blood concentration of glucose. 307) _____ A) veins B) venules C) arterioles D) capillaries E) arteries 308) What structure do RBCs move through single file? 308) _____ A) vein B) artery C) capillary D) arteriole E) venule 309) The layer of the arteriole wall that can produce vasoconstriction is the 309) _____ A) tunica externa. D) listening carefully to the pulse. C) arterioles dilate. D) increases blood flow. 310) _____ A) reduces. increases B) reduces. B) stroke. 306) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the 306) _____ A) vasa vasorum. E) decreases blood flow. D) pressure drops. D) hypertension. D) concentration of plasma glucose. doubles D) increases. B) veins. E) capillaries. C) arterioles. 312) After blood leaves the capillaries. D) arteries. it enters the 312) _____ A) venules. C) channeling blood away from the heart. decreases 311) Venous valves are responsible for 311) _____ A) preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle.E) doubles. D) preventing anterograde flow. B) channeling blood toward the heart. E) regulating blood pressure in veins. 313) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue? 313) _____ A) tunica externa B) external elastic membrane C) tunica intima D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica media .