N.B: Please any suggestions inform me by mail: [email protected] thanks. Saudi Counsel Exams for Lab.Technician Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple choice Questions: General Question 1. One is not found (involve) in colorimetric: 1-Cuvett 2-light source 3-Photo sensor and analyzer 4-fule source 5-Filter 2. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of: 1-Protons and neutrons 2-Protons only 3-Neutrons only 4-Electrons 5-Non of the above 3. Deionization of impure water means: 1-Boiling 2-Filtration 3-Exchange of protons and electrons 4. If you see this sign (symbol) in the lab it means: 1-Flammable 2-Corrosive 3-Oxidizing 4-Explosive 5-Toxic 5. Most common method (technique) used to detect hormone amount in the laboratories : 1-Spectrophotometry 2-Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay (ELIZA) 6. Test should be kept away from light: 1-Serum bilirubin 7. Buffer solution is: 1-Chaing color when chaing pH 2-Resist acidic pH 3-Resist alkaline pH 4-Weak acid + weak base 5-Strong acid + weak base 8. An indicator is: 1-Change color with change pH 2-Resist acidic pH 3-Resist alkaline pH 4-Weak acid + weak base 5-Strong acid + weak base 9. Heparin is: 1-Protein 2-Enzyme 3-Polysaccharide 4-Oligosaccharide 2 5- Non of the above 10. Not find in the flam photometry : Burner Filter Fuel source Cuvete for sample Photo 11. Low effective sterilization with: Ethyl alcohol 70% Methyl alcohol Chloroform 5%phenol 5% cresol 12. Prolonged fast cause: Hyperglycemia Keton in urine 13. Lens near the slid in light microscope : Objective Eye lenses 14. Does not sterile with hot air oven: Dry glassware Oil Powder Waxes Rubber gloves 15. Autoclave sterilize in temp: 121..c-20-30min 16. Alkali skin burn treatment by neutralization with: Sodium bicarbonate powder Boric acid Acetic acid 1% Cold water Hot water 17. You do not take this stage for treatment small cut In emergency : Clean with soap and water Do pressure with piece Immediately rinse mouth well and water Cover it with water dressing Sterilize 18. the (u) unit used to evaluation of : . Protein in serum . Hemoglobin . Hormone assay Enzymatic activity 19. During reaction of two chemical substances , the color produced asses by . Spectrophotometer . Flame photometer 3 20. To detect pH from solution use : . pH meter . Indicator . Micrometer 21. This Symbol means, when you see in laboratory : . acute flammable . Toxic . Corrosive . Explosive 22. The microscope which used in investigate syphilis is? *light microscope *ultra-violet microscope *dark field microscope 23. How much water should we add to 500ml of a solution of 10% of NAOH to bring it to 7.5%? *666 *250 *166 24. Calibrator sera are? *secondary standards *internal standards *primary standards 25. A buffer made of? *a strong acid + a strong salt *a weak acid + a weak salt *a weak acid + a strong salt 26. The difference between plasma & serum is that plasma? *does not contain fibrinogen *has more water *contains fibrinogen (Plasma) 27. Five ml of colored solution has an absorbance of .500nm the absorbance of 10 ml of the same solution is? *1.000nm *0.250nm *0.500nm 28. Plasma or serum should be separated at the earliest time for estimation of g lucose because? *glucose value increases with time *lyses of blood will occur *glucose value decreases with time 29. Wave Length Visible To Naked Eye: 400-700 nm. 30. Purpose of standard deviation : A-to measure external quality control B-to measure internal quality control C-precise & accuracy D-both a & b 31. Substance used in catalyse reaction : H2o2 4 Haematology 1. Neutrophil count is high in: 1-Acute bacterial infection 2- Iron deficiency anemia 3-Megaloblastic anemia 2. HbA2 is consisting of: 1- 3 . chains and 2 . chains 2- 2 . chains and 2 ß chains 3- 2 . chains and 2 d chains 4- 2 . chains and 3 d chains 5- 3 . chains and 2 d chains 3. The main (most) Hb found in adult is: . Hb A . Hb A2 . Hb F 4. Detection of malaria parasite is by: 1- Thick blood film 5. Leukocyte that involve in Adaptive and Acquired immunity: 1- Lymphocyte 2- Neutrophil 3- Monocyte 4- Basophile 5- Eosinophil 6. Normal range of leukocyte is: 1- 4-11 X 10^9 7. Reticulocyte is immature: 1- RBC 2- WBC 3- Platelet 8. Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity: 1- T-lymphocyte 2- B- lymphocyte 3- Monocyte 4- Basophile 5- Eosinophil 9. Malaria infection transmitted by: 1- Male anopheles mosquito 2- Female anopheles mosquito 10. One stage prothrombin time used to detect (diagnose) disorders in: 1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 11. Thrombin time is: 1- Extrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 2- Intrinsic coagulation pathway (factors) 3- The conversion of prothrombin to fibrinogen in addition of thrombin Nutrophile 3. Monocyte . 15% . Leukocyte responsible for response to parasitic and allergic infection: 1. 5. Neutrophil . With Romanowsky stain . Basophile .Plasmodium Falciparum 2.5 12.Plasmodium Malaria 3.Lymphocyte 2.Basophile 5.Plasmodium Ovale 4. Lymphocyte . In presence of clotting defect one of this not measure: Leukocyte count 18. Neutrophil .Neutrophil is a common White blood cell present in blood and the percentage of presence is : . Which of White blood cell give immunoglobulin : . Monocyte .5X 10^9 24. Thrombin time measure: Convert fibrinogen to fibrin with activate of thrombin 17. 90% .Monocyte 4.Eosinophil 14. Normal range of erythrocyte 4. 75% 23. Hormone that cause replication of RBC: Erythropoietin 21. Basophil . Lymphocyte is elevated in : Viral infection Acute bacterial infection Iron deficiency anemia Megaloblastic anemia Non of the above 16. One of these cell the largest leukocyte cell: .Plasmodium Vivax 5. Most sever (serious) malaria infection caused by: 1.All of the above 13. Eosinophil 22. . S hemoglobin is the same defect of thalassemia but the different is : Long B chain Glutamic acid on B chain is substituted with valine Glutamic acid on a chain is substitutes with valine 20.2-5 lobes and give violet or pinkish granules: Nutrophile Eiosinophile Basophile Monocyte 15. Lymphocyte .6. Bleeding time test detect the abnormality in : Defect in vessels and platelets 19. Haemolyzed RBCs 37. Neutrophil Firstly increased in bacterial infections 34. In iron deficiency anaemia : RBCs are smaller than normal = Microcytic 38. Hemophilia man married to normal woman the incidence of his children is? *carrier male *diseased female *carrier female 29. Cycle of heme . Glubin chain 47. In folic acid deficiency what happens to rbcs :A. IVY method of bleeding time For vascular and platelets abnormalities (function) 30. All Cells Are Nucleated EXCEPT:A. Eosinophil 25. The defect of thalassemia occurs in: . Neutrophil Most abundant in WBCs 31.LYMPH B. Malaria does not grow in? *EDTA blood *heparin zed blood *Plasma 28. The malarial sporozoite in man invades:A-white blood cells B-RBCs C-Reticulo-endothelial cells D-all of the above 46. dominant in adult 32. Malaria chizonts are present in? *reticulo-endothelial *leukocyte *RBCs 26.Enlarged RBCs ( Megaloblastic anemia ) = Macrocytic B. Unidirectional movement of WBCs directly to its target is? *sliding *phagocytes *chemo taxis 27.MONOCYTES . Prolonged application of tourniquet Venous stasis .Crenated RBCs C. HbF (Infant heamoglobin) fetal haemoglobin 33.6 . HbA (Adult haemoglobin ) for adult. Best time for collection of blood for malaria :A-before and after paroxsym B-shortly after paroxsym C-later paroxsym D-just before paroxsym 36. increased calcium level 35. calcium 4.Eosin + Alkaline methylene blue 2.Only glucose 2. Pentose phosphate metabolism cycle is important to the cell because it give: 1.ADP 3.Total bilirubin is elevated 2. One is not true about acid: 1.NADPH 6.Clay color of stool 3.Sour taste 4.ATP 4.Glucose + Glucose 5. Progesterone 5.No change in color of urine 4. Presence one from this substance in urine detect abnormal condition.Normal color of stool 4.Corpus luteum . Romanowsky stain consists of: 1.Total bilirubin is elevated 2.Dark color of urine 5.cells . .Maltose + Glucose 7.Eosin only 3.High bilirubin in urine 3.Direct bilirubin is within the normal 5. glucagon 2. Hydrolysis of sucrose result: 1.Direct bilirubin is within the normal 4.Galactose 3. In case of obstructive jaundice one is commonly not found: 1.Fructose + glucose 4.High bilirubin in urine 3.Parathyroid .ß.Turn litmus paper to blue 3.Non of the above 5.Proton donor 2.cells.7 C. One is not correctly paired: 1.Estrogen .RBCS D-NEUTROPHIL 48. Consider ketose: Glucose Fructose Mannose 8.Acetyl CoA 2.NADH 5.a.Methylene blue only 4. In case of Hemolytic jaundice one is not likely to be found: 1.React with alkaline to give water and salt 5. seminiferous tubules 2. insulin 3.Indian Ink Bio-Chemistry 1. Unsaturated fat . In which substance give blood glucose when hydrolysis : . Endoplasmic reticulum . Pyrimidin base: Adenine Guanine Thymine Uric acid Urea 14. Alkaline phosphates is the important enzyme to detect function in : . Does not stimulate with slight hemolysis: Cholesterol 16. Of cholesterol: Chylomicron LDL HDL VLDL Apolipoprtein 11. In cardiac infraction one of the measurements is not benefited: Creatinine 10. Cytoplasm . Mitochondrion . Hyperglycemia . Urea is final product of catabolism of: . Hypercholesterolemia . Non of the above 18. Hyperglycemia hormone Glucagon 13. One is stimulate on serum calcium level: Prolonged application of tourniquet on arm 17. Glycolysis done in : . Hyper secretion of insulin cause: Hypoglycemia 12. Muscle glycogen Liver glycogen . Heart glycogen . One of the above not present in Diabetic mellitus coma : . One of the following has highest conc. High number of ketene in urine . Triglyceride 20. polysaccharide 21. Amino acid . Non of the above 19. cholesterol . triglyceride . Nucleus . One use for measure abnormality in kidney : Creatinine 15.8 Calcium Phosphates Glucose Urates 9. 5mg/dl *1. Heart disease . Liver . One jaundice patient has yellow skin.0mg/dl 27. his billrubin is: *2. Sodium citrate 23. Bone . Diabetic patient has one of the following symptoms? *acidosis *alkalosis *Dryness 29. The diabetic patient is going to comma when blood glucose is? *120 mg/dl *160 mg/dl *Less than 50mg/dl 25. Comma of diabetic patient shows? *glucose grater than 200mg/dl *glucose less than 200mg/dl *glucose grater than 500mg/dl 32. Bone matrix can also call? *vascular tissue *fibrous tissue *Osteon . Heparin . Amylase value is high in the following disease? *salivary glands *pancreas diseases *All of the previous 26. Sodium oxalate . Non of the above 22. Liver and bone . One of the following anticoagulant used for blood glucose : .9 . Insulin is regulating blood sugar by? *Increase the influx of glucose into cells *activate glycogensis *All the previous 30.2mg/dl *5. To check the intestinal efficacy the following test is done? *pepsin *lipase *stool fats 31. Liver disease . Non of the above 24. Acute diabetic patient has? *blood sugar more than 150mg/dl *blood sugar more than 180mg/dl *Glucose & Acetone in urine 28. AST important enzyme to detect abnormality in: . Florida Oxalate . Liver and heart disease . EDTA . Elevated Sodium & Chloride is seen in? *shock *diabetic acidosis *Severe dehydration 35. Serum LDH is elevated in all the following except? *skeletal disease *cardiac/ hepatic diseases *renal disease 34. One of the following heart enzymes is measured after 4-8hr of chest pain? *GOT *LDH *CPK 42. For glucose tolerance test? *collect 5 blood samples only *collect 5 urin samples only *collect 5 blood samples + 5 urin samples 41. Acid phosphate is? *heart enzyme . With age the renal threshold for glucose? *increase *decrease *does not change 37. One of the following is specific diagnostic liver enzyme? *GOT *LDH *GPT 44. Causes of high serum bilirubin are? *overload on liver *haemolysis *all of the previous 38. One of the following enzymes is affected by hemolysis? *SGOT *SGPT *LDH 39. Light effects one of the following? *glucose *urea *billrubin 43. HbA1C of diabetic patient is important for? *he has to come fasting *short term follow up *Long term follow up 40.33. One of the following is important before anesthesia? *alkaline phosphates *acidic phosphates *Pseudocholine esterase 45. Which test is better to diagnose chronic bile duct? *total bilirubin *S-GOT *ALP 36. Na+ is the main? *intra cellular anion *intra cellular cation -----(K) *extra cellular cation 49. In Uric acid estimation? *its affected by carbohydrate meal *no need for fasting *The patient has to come fasting 47. Random blood glucose gives an idea? *to justify blood glucose *fasting patient *blood glucose in urgent cases 54. For GTT in children the dose of glucose is? *30mg *15gram *30gram 53. One of the following electrolytes is affected by hemolisis? *Ca *Mg *k 50.*liver enzyme *Prostatic enzyme 46. All of the following are affected by meal except? *glucose *albumin *Creatininine 48. Exogenous triglyceride is carried on? *VLDL *HDL *Chylomicron 55. Endogenous triglyceride is carried on? *LDL *HDL *VLDL 56. For GTT in adults the dose of glucose is? *50gram *100gram *75gram 52. The best kidney function test? *urea *total protein *creatinine clearance 51. Harmful cholesterol is carried on? *HDL *VLDL *LDL 57. Useful cholesterol is carried on? *chylomicron . Bacteria motile gram-rods: Shigella Bordetela pertusis Pseudomonas aeruginoea Yersenia pestis 4. Strict aerobe bacteria Mycobacterium . Which of the following is protected from light :Abilirubin B-cholesterol C-total protein (TP.) D-bun (blood urea nitrogen) 61. Bacteria can cause pathogenesis to human by: 1-Capsullar 2-Secret enzymes 3-Endogenous toxins 4-Exogenous toxins 5-All of the above 2. Function of pili of the bacteria: 1-Attachment to the host tissue 2-Movement 3-Reproduction (multiplication) 4-Engulf of food 5-All of the above 3. Test Used To Diagnose Obstructive Bile Duct A-Bilirubin B-biliverdin C-urobilinogen D-none of the above 60.*LDL *HDL 58. Purine Associated With A-ADENINE B-GUANINE C-URIC ACID D-RNA Microbiology 1. All of the following can asses the liver function except :AAST B-ALT C-ALP D-Creatinine 62. For lipid investigation patient has to fast? *4-6hr *6-8hr *12-14hr 59. Gram-v bacteria color : Dark purple Pale to dark red Orange .5.coli 4-Salmonella 5-Borditella Pertusis 6. Gram +ve cocci arranged in groups (clusters): 1-Streptococci 2-Staphylococci 15. Best sterilization of Nutrient media done by: 1-Hot air oven 2-Autoclaving 12. One is motile gram ve rods: 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Bacillus anthracis 3-Pseudomonas aerogenes 4-Vibrio cholerae 5-Yersinia Pestis 7. A child diagnosis show scarlet fever the cause is: 1-Streptococcus Pyogenes 2-Staphylococci aureus 9. Org. Confirmatory test of streptococcus pneumonia: 1-Catalase 2-Optochine disc 3-Coagulase 4-Bile insolubility 5-Bacitracin 14. Xylose lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) is: 1-Selective media 2-Simple media 3-Differential media 4-Enriched media 5-Enrichment 10. One is not a Romanowsky stain: 1-Fields stain 2-Gram stain 3-Geimsa stain 4-Leishman stain 11. One is always oxidase +ve 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Pseudomonas aurogenase 16. One is gram +ve oval (cocci): 1-Bacillus anthracis 2-Meningococci 3-Pneumococci 8. One is always non motile gram ve rods: 1-Haemophilus Influenza 2-Shigella 3-E. (bacteria) arranged in Chinese litters: 1-Corynebacteria Diphtheria 2-Bacillus anthraces 13. Meat extract agar . . The most source of ATP in cell is : . Minral salts . Cell wall 27. Blood agar . All of the above 26. Meat extract . Org cause bloody in stool: Shigella sp. One of these is prokaryotic cell: . DCA medium . 21.pallidium (Syphilis) 18. H Ag present in : . Capsule . Chocolate agar . Fungi . Pilli .14 17. Staphylococci . The following is ingredient of culture medium: . Non of the above 29. Non of the above . Cell membrane 28. One of these org gram +ve cocci arranged in pairs : . Bacteria need dark field to detect T. Selective and Differential medium of entero pathogen is: . All of the above Non of the above 30. Bacteria .F: Maconky media 24.N stain use for diagnose : Mycobacterium 23. Disease caused by Pyogen stereptococcus: Scarlet fever. Agar . Use for clean slide: Ethyl alcohol Methyl alcohol 25. Mitochondria . Nutrient agar: Basic media 20. Z. Cytoplasm . Flagella . Entameba histolytica . 22. Citrate test assis : Mycobacterias Staph Strept Colistridia sp 19. Media use for differentiate between L.F and N. Peptone .L. Nucleus . Shigella soni colored in maconkey & EMB? *colorless *red *pink 37. Streptococci . All of the following is true for salmonella except? *motile *produces H2S *oxidase positive 34. The best media for urine culture is? *blood agar *chocolate agar *CLED agar 35. Blood sample is used to diagnose? *C.coli *klebsiella Pneumonia 43.diphteria *non from them 40. The sterilization of autoclave is? *85c for 30min *150c for 30min *121c for 15min 36. The best sample for the culture of children paralysis virus is? *anal swab *blood culture *stool culture 33. Meningococci .coli 42.15 . Substance used in catalyse reaction : H2O2 32. Which of the following culture media is suitable for semi quantitative bacte rial count in urine samples .tetani *C.coli *proteus *Non of the previous 38. Entrococci 31. All the following bacteria are interobacter except? *E. One of the following is capsulated bacteria? *streptococci *E. All the following parameters affecting gram staining except? *use H2SO4 *add absolute alcohol after washing *Delaying the dryness of the slide 39. Which of the following causes UTI & INDOL positive? *klebsiella *staphylococci *E. Serious that causes food poisoning? *staph albus *salmonella typhi *Salmonella enteritidis 41. Some organisms are to said to be pathogenic if they are containing the follo wing features :Acoagulase B-catalase C-sugar D-antibodies 51. Beta hemolysis is enhanced when group B Streptococci is streaked at an angle in blood agar plate with : A-Streptococci b-Staph aureus c-Micrococcus d-Streptococcus epiedermidis e-Corynebacterim diphteriae 48. Confirmatory test for Strept. The following organisms are lactose fomenters except a-E. Organism Soluble In Bile :Astaph B-streptococci C-Pneumococci (streptococcus pneumonia) D-Haemophilous influenzae 53. Pneumoniae : . coli b-Enterobacter cloacae c-Shigella sonnei d-Proteus spp.a-Mc Conkey agar b-Blood agar c-XLD medium d-Mannitol salt agar e-CLED medium 44. Klebsiella pneumonia Capsulated 50. Sterilization is best done by 121c 15 PSI for 15-20 minutes 52. All are true of campylobacter jejuni or Which of the following statements ab out campylobacter is false:aGram negative curved bacilli b-Slow growth c-Grow on XLD medium d-Arranged in pairs 47. 45.5 % NaCl and/or at temperature 46. All is true about Enterobacteriaceae except :aThey are hemolytic and sorbitol b-Ferments Mannitol c-Grow in Methylene blue medium d-Inhibited growth with 6. All statements are true about proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except :Oxidase negative & liquefies gelatin a-Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mc Conkey's agar b-Urease positive c-KCN and N2S positive d-Positive to INDOLE test 49. Thayer-martin media is the choice for the isolation of the following organis m : APseudomonas Aeroginosa B-Haemophilus influenzae C-Nisseria gonorrhoea 54. Streptococci responsible for the majority of human infections are :AGroup A B-beta-haemolytic streptococci C-bacitracin-s and camp ( -) D-all of these E-none of these 63. Faecalis) A-have carbohydrate antigen of group d streptococci B-positive aesculin hydrolysis C-grow in the presence of bile salts D-Do not grow in the presence of 6. Blood culture is indicated in the following bacterial diseases except . B-Haemophilus C-E. The Following Organisms Are Encapsulated Except :APseudomonas aeroginosa B-E.A-Optochin sensitivity disc B-Bacitracin disc sensitivity C-Bile solubility D-Catalase test 55. Specimen suitable for microfilaria A-TISSUE B-BLOOD C-FLUID 56. Coli C-Proteus vulgaris D-Pseudomonas aerginosa E-Enterococcus Faecalis 62. All are true about enterococci except :-(Strept. To differentiate between nisseria gonorrhoea and nisseria meningitidis : A-fermentation of dextrose and lactose B-Fermentation of dextrose and maltose C-fermentation of maltose and lactose D-Fermentation of maltose and sucrose 64. Significant bacteruria . puria . Vi Ag is seen in :ACAPSULE B-PILI C-SPORE D-FLAGELLA 60. Coli C-Haemophilous influenzae D-Streptococcus pneumoniae 59.5 % Nacl nor at 45 c 61. Coli D-Yersinia enterocolitica 57. Which of the following organisms is an anaerobic bacterium :AClostiridium spp. and alkaline urine probably indicate urinar y tract infection due to:: A-Staphylococcus epidermidis B-E. Nutrient agar is :ASelective media B-Differential media C-Special media D-Basic medium 58. A-meningitis B-endocarditis C-Gastroenteritis D-pyelonephritis E-pneumonia 65. The definitive host is an animal: 1-Entamoeba histolitica 2-Toxoplasma Gondii 3-Trypanosoma cruzi 4-E. Which of the following statements about campylobacter jejuni is false A-gram negative curved bacilli B-Arranged in pairs (see-gull) C-slow growth D-Grows on XLD medium E-incubation temperature at 42 c 66. Non motile protozoa: 1-E. The invasiveness of streptococcus pneumoniae is due to the production of: A-haemolsins B-endotoxins C-extotoxins D-Polysaccharide capsule 67. Infective stage of Entrobius Vermicularis is: 1-Larva 2-Cercaria 3-Egg 4-Cyst 5-Metacercaria 2. Parasite can cause fetal cerebral infection: 1-Taenia 2-Toxoplasma gondii 4.coli 2-Entamoeba Histolytica 3-Trypanosoma cruzi 4-Giardia lamblia .coli 5-Giardia lamblia 3. Intracellular parasite: E.coli Toxoplasma gondii Giaradia lamblia Typanosoma cruzi Trichomonas vaginalis 5. Agar is characterized by all the following except? *freezing point is 42c & melting point is 100c *nutritive *un-nutritive Paracytology 1. 5-Trichomonas vaginalis . 7. Shistosoma hematobium diagnosis: Egg in urine with terminal spine 16. Cyst .Anclystoma Dudenal 4.Cell wall 3. Diagnostic stage of Ascaris lumbericoidis: 1. 3. Entameba histolytica .Taenia Sp. Egg . Metacercaria 18.Nuclei 10. Infective stage of Taenia: 1. The worm that causes blood in urine? *ascaris *fasciola *Schistosoma haematobium 19. coli . Generally diagnosed by recovery & identification of typical larva in stool? *hook worms . Gardia lamblia .Finding of a typical fertilized egg in stool 11. infective stage of Ascaris lumbricodes : . Cutaneous Leishmanias is transmitted by: Phlebotomus sand fly 15.Cercaria 3.Metacercaria 8. Blood of Microfilaria infection diagnostic with: Wuchereria bancrofti 13.Chromatoidal bars 2. Autoinfection of human can caused in case of: 1. One of these organism multiply intracellular parasite: .Cyst 5. Iodine stain of Entamoeba cyst used to detect (diagnose): 1. Larva . Parasite can be detected in vaginal and urethral discharge: 1.coli Toxoplasma gondii Giaradia lamblia Typanosoma cruzi 14.Entrobius Vermicularis 2.19 6. Tryponosoma Cruzi . Identification of Leishmania parasite Lymph node aspirate. E.histolytica E. Toxoplasma gondii 17.Ascaris Lumbercoidis 9.Embrocated egg 4. Cercaria .Trichomonas Vaginalis 12.Larva 2. Oocyst benefited to diagnose: E. trichura *s.VDRL & RPR C-RPR ONLY D-VDRL ONLY 29. spiralis 23. vermicularis (Pin Worm) b. The infective stage of Ancylostoma Duodenale is :A.saginata *Pin worm 21. Glactose . Glucose .Cat C-mouse D-all E-none 30.Galactose C.20 *t. Mannose .arabinose D. Polio myeletis is transmitted through? *skin *respiration *Feco-oral 22. The intermediate host of Toxoplasma is :A-dog B. Sugar can not be detected in urine using copper reduction test A.A.stercoralis 20. The causative parasite of Egyptian Bilharisiasis a-Trichomonas Vaginalis b-Schitosoma haematobium c-Schitosoma japonicum d-Schitosoma mansoni e.T.fructose B.E. duodenale c. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine a.All of the above 24.A.Sucrose 27. Identification of fertilized eggs in feces Ascaris Lumbricoides 26.T. lumbricoides d. What practical Cardiolipin is applicable in laboratory work? A-FTA B. Which of the following is not laying eggs in small intestine? *hook worm *t.saginata e.Eggs in stool B-larva in stool C-larva in tissue D-cysticercous bovis 28. Best for identification of parasite if you can not see it in stool ( Negativ e in stool ) Concentration Technique 25. A semen specimen. contain sugar source of the spermatozoa energy is: . Fructose Sucrose 27. IgD is done? serum : Infection & Allergy serum : . ? A-IgM (HEAVIER ) 1St B-IgA C-IgE 7.called Plasma cell 3. Ig ( Immunoglobulin ) Increased In Case Of Parasitic A. One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in .21 . One of the immunoglobulin present in trace amount in . To check the intestinal efficacy the following test *pepsin *lipase *stool fats Immunology 1. IgG . Ig not part of acquired immunity :A-IgM B-IgA C-IgE D-IgG 9. IgD . The smallest molecular weight Ig is: 1-IgG 2-IgM 3-IgD 4-IgE 5-IgA 2. IgM . IgE . Ig can cause HDN :A-IgM B-IgA C-IgE D-IgG 8. IgA 4.IgG B-IgA C-IgM D-IgE 6. IgE . IgG . Immunoglobulin is? *B globulin *Alfa globulin *Gamma globulin 5. B-lymphocyte after attack foreign bodies . IgM . Non of the above 3.IgM 4.22 .Sensitized RBCs in patient blood 2.IgM 4.method used to detect hormone in the laboratory : .EDTA anticoagulant 3. . A standard micro plates in ELISA test has? *98 wells *94 wells *96 wells 2. Direct anti-antibody test used to detect: (Direct Combs Test) 1. The enzyme in ELISA testing is present in the? *buffer *micro plate *conjugate 3. Sensitized Ab in serum detect by: Indirect antiglublin test 4. Washing must be done in all heterogeneous ELISA technique because? *increase the specificity *increase the sensitivity *it removes the excess binding 5.IgG 3.IgG 3.Sensitized antibody in patient serum 5. IgA ELISA 1. ELIZA Blood Bank 1.Citrate Phosphate Dextrose adenine (CPD-A) 2.Saline alanin glucose maltose (SAGM) 2. The label in ELISA tests is? *radio active substance *antibody *enzyme 6. Indirect anti-antibody test used to detect: (Indirect Combs Test) 1.Sensitized RBCs in patient blood 2.Non of the above . Blood medium commonly used in blood bank: 1. Antigen antibody complex are? *weakly bound *no bounds *strongly bound 4.Heparin anticoagulant 4.Sensitized antibody in patient serum 5. 35 days .Antigen 12. Immunoglobulin 15. Store FFPs at -80. Anti-Human Immunoglubin is: 1.120 day 3..E antigen 2. Life span of red blood cells in the circulation (body): 1. In Rh-v person . a_glubulin .Coombs reagent 2. CPD_A anticoagulant used to store blood for: .D antigen 3. Cold agglutination 16. In O+v person No presence of Ag No presence of Ab 13.23 5. fibrinogen .Anti-Ab 3. In Anti human globulin test do wash of RBC because all serum contain : . Reason of false positive ABO in compatibility: . Anti A1B .B antigen 4.Non of the above 6. Rh-ve patient means he dose not have: 1. Albumin .c: 1year 1month 4 year 2 year 6year 11.IgG 4.All of the above 5. Non of the above 14.C antigen Non of the above 7. 45 days . All cause false v ABO blood grouping except Too short incubation 10. 5 days .80 days 2. Use O cell tube on lab for: As control To detect Ag To detect Ab 9. 15 days .130 day 4. In O blood group the Ab in serum is : . this Ag not found : D. b_ globulin .20 day 5.7 days 8. Stimulate contraction of uterus 3.Deteriorated reagent b.ANTI-A B-ANTI-AB C-ANTI-B 23.Not putting antisera c. Non of the above .Gigantism 3. False positive ABO incompatibility/cross matching Cold Agglutinin 21. Increase in Thyroxin Stimulating Hormone (TSH) causes: 1. Increase in growth hormone causes: 1.Under incubation 20.Increase Oogenesis 2. Blood transfusion can transmit? *HIV *CMV *All of the previous 19. Causes false negative ABO incomparability/ cross matching :a. Function of Thyroxin is: 1.Cushing disease 2.Cord Cells D -None of the above 24.Increase Oogenesis 2. Cross-Match in (Major X-Matching) Donor Cells + Patient Serum Hormone 1.Exophthalamic goiter 4. .Gigantism 3. Blood donor selection in KSA are all of the following except? *Hb% 12. Antibody found in blood group Ab individuals : A. Why do we have to wash red blood cells in cross matching To remove an excess antibody present in the sample 22.Cushing disease 2.Hypoglycemia 5.Increase basal metabolic 2.Stimulate contraction of uterus 3. Anti B .24 .Increase basal metabolic 4. All of the above 17.Hypoglycemia 3. Function of Estrogen: 1. Anti A .5-16 *free from syphilis *One year after delivery 18. To differentiate anti i from anti I A-A1 CELLS B-A2 CELLS C. Immunoglobulin pregnancy test related to: .Exophthalamic goiter 4. While using the pregnancy test we are measuring? *total HCG *beta HCG &LH *beta HCG 13. 0.25 1.Human chorionic Gonadotropin 6. Stimulate contraction of uterus . 2.1 1 ug/dl 1 10 mg/dl 10 20 mg/dl 100 -110 mg/dl Laboratory tests of hepatic function include: Serum bilirubin Urine bilirubin Excretory function test .1 1 mg/dl 0. Hyperparathyroidism hormone cause: Elevated ca level Decrease ca level 9. Increase Oogenesis . C. Hyper secretion of cortisol cuase: Cushing disease 8.IgG 2. A. B. Stimulate contraction of uterus . Increase Oogenesis . Target of Prolactin in female: 1. C. E. Increase basal metabolic 12. Function of Cortisol : .Ovary 2. ADH is secreted from? *thyroid gland *anterior pituitary *Posterior pituitary Saudi Counsel Exams for Lab. Oxytocine hormone function : .Mammary glands 7. The concentration of total bilirubin in the serum of normal adult ranges at. A. Regulation of calcium level in serum by: Calcitonine hormone only Parathyroid hormone only Calcionine with parathyroid hormone Vitamin D PTH+Vitamin D+calcitonin 10. B. Technician Instruction: Select one best answer for the following multiple choice Questions: 1. D. Increase basal metabolic 11.IgM 3. D. Ketosis C. Glycogen. Liver and muscle D. Band D 5. Sever diabetes mellitus bring about which condition A. Muscle tissue C. the following biochemical abnor malities appear: A. Acidosis and Ketosis B. the storage form of carbohydrates in the body is predominantly found i n. Inhibiting glycolysis D. Acute pancreatitis C. Moving glucose out of cells into the plasma C. All of the above 7. Liver disease E. All the above mechanisms E. Allowing entry of glucose from plasma in to muscle and fat tissue B. Bone disease B. Non of the above mechanisms 6. Bone E. Salivary gland lesions D. Dehydration D. . Electrolyte imbalance E. Liver tissue B. Band C 4. The hormone insulin helps to maintain constant plasma glucose concentration by: A. Marked elevations in serum amylase levels are seen in: A. In case of uncontrolled sever diabetes mellitus. Acidosis B. Non of the above C. All of the above 3. A. C. FBS >150 B. 50 mg/dl E.Dehydration D. All of the above 8. Presence of sugur in urine 10. The fasting blood sugur level exceeds 150 mg/dl. Electrolyte imbalance E. Test of intestinal function includes: / A test used to assess intestinal functio n: . 70 mg/dl C. A technician working in the clinical chemistry lab must immediately report to hi s supervisor a plasma glucose level equal to: A. OGTT is normal E. The 2-hour postprandial serum glucose level exceeds 180 mg/dl D. 80 mg/dl B. Presence of acidosis and ketosis C. 120 mg/dl 11. B. In chemical or latent type diabetes: A. The glucose tolerance test result is normal E. 60 mg/dl D. 2HPP >180 D. Glucose and ketone bodies are found in the urine. Non of the above statements is correct 9. Which statement is true about chemical or latent diabetes: A. 1 mg/dl Exceeds 2. 16. becomes evident when the bilirubin serum level reaches a concentration of: A. E.36 1. Plasma Na+ concentration / Na+ concentration B. Plasma HCO3 Concentration / HCO3-concentration D. None of the above In spectrophotometeric. 15. Measurement of serum caroteniods D.36 1. 1 mg/dl 0. 136 145 mg/dl / 110 220 meq/l C. BothAand B D. In A. Plasma K+ Concentration / K+ concentration C. C. Non of the above In spectrophotometeric determination. The acetate/acetic acid buffer system E. the amount of light of a specific waveleng th absorbed by a colored solution is: A. Lactose tolerance test B. C.12. None of the above Jaundice. B.45 mg/dl / 20 50 mg/dl E. 17. The phosphate buffer system C. 13.5 mg/dl Exceeds 5 mg/dl None of the above significant bacteriuria the cfu/ml urine is: > 10^5 cfu/ml < 10^5 cfu/ml > 10^3 cfu/ml < 10^3 cfu/ml . A. Inversely proportional to the absorbance E. Directly proportional to the amount of light transmitted B. 1. The hemoglobin buffer system B. Directly proportional to the intensity of the color B.45 mmol/l D. Directly proportional to the concentration of solute in the solution C. Directly proportional to the concentration of the analyte D. Fecal fat analysis E. None of the above / CL-concentration The most important buffer system present in blood is: A. B. 1. Inversely proportional to the emitted color The concentration of Sodium in normal serum is: / normal Sodium in adult 145 mmol/l / 135 145 mmol/l A. D-xylose absorption test C. 14.45 mmol/l /1. None of the above / None of the above The best estimate of plasma osmolality is represented by:/ The Principal of body water osmolality is: A. the amount of light absorbed is: A. D. 19. a condition characterized by deposition of bilirubin in the sclera of the eyes and in the skin. The bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system D.35 1. D. 136 B. 18. Inversely proportional to the amount of solute C. The test used to differentiate pathogenic staphylococci is: A. Catalase B. Oxidase C. Coagulase . The best specimen for recovery of polio virus for culture is: A. +++D. the best anticoagulant is: A. --++ C. Blood clot or throat washing C. ++-B.D. Oxalate C. members of shigella-salmonella group produce sm all colonies which are: A. Black B. . Optochin C. Green C. CSF B. Group A Streptococci are differentiated from other Beta-haemolytic streptococci by disc containing: A. On EMB or Mac Conkiy agar media. Yellow-brown 24. Bacitracin D. Buffy coat D. Feces E. Heparin 22. For blood culture. coli are: A. Neomycin B. Colorless E. ASO test 20. Pink D. None of the above 25. Novobiocin 21. ---+ 23. Citrate B. The IMVIC reaction of E. Sodium polyanesthol sulphonate (SPS) D. Dogs D. Trophozite C. Dwarf tapeworm: A. Hymenolepis nana C. Tsetse fly/ Tsetse fly B.The diagnostic stage for Giardia lamblia in stool is: A. Tania saginata B. Cyst B. Taenia solium D. Mice B. Cyst and/or trophozite D. Sand fly/ Sand fly C. Man may acquire toxoplasma from: A. All Leishmanial infections are transmitted by / Vector for Leismania infection A. Dipylidium caninum . All of the above E. Pigs 27. Horse fly/ Anopheles mosquito 28. House fly/ House fly D. Cats C. Non of the above 26. Corynebacterium diphtheria 32. B. Enterobacter cloacae C. E1. Viruses resemble living thing. MacConkey s agar B. Klebseilla pneumonia D. Blue colonies B. Yellow colonies C. Shigella sonnei D. Are crystalline C. Reproduce 30. Quellung s test is positive with the following organisms EXCEPT: A.29. White colonies 33. Are motile B. Grow D. Mannitol salt agar 31. Growth of vibrio cholera on TCBS medium produces: A. Haemophilus influenza C. All are true for salmonella typhi EXCEPT: A. XLD medium E. . Proteus spp. Streptococcus pneumonia B. Which of the following culture media is suitable for doing semi-quantitative bac terial count of urine specimens? A. they: A. The following organisms are lactose fermenters EXCEPT: A. Green colonies D. CLED medium D. Blood agar C. colli B. Human is the main reservoir or carrier. 34. Slow growth D. Providencia alcalifaciens D. XLD & HE media E. The following are members of Enterobacteriaceae family EXCEP: A. Which of the followings statements about Campylobacter Jejuni is false? A. Gram negative curved bacilli B.Possesses H & O antigen C. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis E. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis B. Campylobacter fetus 37. KCN and phenylalanine negative D. Grows on XLD medium 38. Produces H2 S on TSI. Produces acid from glucose but no gas 35. Direct gram-staining is routinely performed on the following specimens EXCEPT: . Urease. Indole positive 36. Serratia liquefaciens C. the main reservoir is human B. All is true for salmonella EXCEPT A. H2S positive with gas E. Contains O and H antigen C. Arranged in pairs (see-gull) C. Oxidase positive D. 0 um B.002 um Bacteriological culture media are generally sterilized using: A. Dark field microscope C. The auto calve B. 0. 8 um/ 5.22 ù B. Bright field microscope B. 43. 44. CSF C. Polarizing microscope D. Bright field microscope B. Filtration D. 6 um/ 0. 10 B. The oven C. 45. C. sputum D. 121 C /30 min C.60 ù D.22 um/ 0.2 um/ 0.39. 0. Urine E. 47. Dark field microscope C. 90 C/30 min D. Fluorescent microscope The resolution of the bright field microscope is: A.8 ù C. aspirated fluids and discharges B. 2. 100 C /30 min B. 1000 D. Fluorescent microscope Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear stained with a fluorochrose: A. t he total magnification is: A. Dissecting microscope D. 46. Pus.0 ù The temperature-time cycle when using the autoclave to sterilize is: A. 100 C /15 min Which of the following materials would you sterilize using the oven? . 10000 Which of the following microscopes would you use to examine a smear of bacteria stained by Gram stain? A. A. 2. 100 C. 41. 40.02 um D. 0. Stool When using a X10 eye piece and the X10 objective of a bright field microscope. 0. 42.2 um C. Bunsen burner Serum can be sterilized using membrane filter of porosity / Bacterial sterilizat ion of serum can be accomplished by filtration using a porosity of A. Distilled water The primary stain of the gram stain is: . Serum C. Culture media B. Sand D.A. The solidifying agent in bacteriological culture media is: A. Red 50. 10%-11% B. Which color do gram negative bacteria appear? A. Safranin C. Which of the following reagents is not used in the gram staining technique? A. Green C. Wax B. Malachite green D. Agar is used as a solidifying agent in bacterial culture medium at a concentrati on: A. Agar D. Which objective of the microscope requires the use of immersion oil between the slide and the objective? A. 1%-2% . Starch 52. X10 B. Crystal violet B. Iodine 49. Malachite green D. X40 D. 8%-9% C. Yellow D. Blue B. X100 51. Resin C. Crystal violet B.A. Safranin C. X20 C. Iodine 48. What organism that char. Agar solidifies at 42 C D. Halophilic 55. Aureus on blood agar: A.D. Bacteria which has an optimum temperature for growth at 60 C are termed: A. Agar is nutritious C. H. Endolimax nana D. H. Mesophilic B. dueriyi C. Parasite that has a chronatiodal bodies or the cigar shaped: A. E. Which of the following is not true? A. Thermophilic D. Agar melts at 100 C 54. hartmani . Histolytica B. Zoophilic C. Sattelitism around the Staph. E. E. tetani D. None of the above 56. coli C. influenza B. Agar is inert B. Balantidium Cole E. 1%-3% 53. C. trichiurea B. S. RBC / Red blood cell C. are free in urine: A. mansoni 60. Leukocytes D. All of the above 61. A parasite which does not deposit eggs in the intestine: A. A. malaria C. P. S. Schistosoma haematobium C. Hookworm D. Vivax B. Any of the above 64. 2 neg & 1 positive control C. The probable glucose level: 30 mg/dl A. histolytica B. ALT D. Ascaris C. Sprozoite in man invades:/ Sproziote of malaria invades man through the: A. Enlarge RBC: / Which malarial parasite cause enlargement of the RBC: A. ovale 62. CK-MB B. fasciola Hepatiea B. Parasites that neither lay eggs nor: A. In myocardial infection what enzyme are resp. E. P. Trichomonas Vaginalis B. 1 neg & 1 positive control B. The causative parasite of Egyptian bilharzias: A. coli C. 3 neg & 3 positive control 66. 40 mg/dl C. Schistosoma mansoni E. WBC / White Blood cell B. All of the above 63. below 25 B. Endolinax nana 58.57. Egyptians Hematuria: A. japonicum D. S. In Antigen Antibody reaction the panel should have such A. CK-BB 65. Schistosoma japonicum D. Nitritis are positive C. vermicularis . P. E. hematuria B. falciparum D. 60 mg/dl D. In urinary infection the ff. Trichenilla 67. AST C. Reticuloendothelial / RES /Muscle tissue / All of the above 59. hematobium C. E. T. P. Ingestion of RBC in a trophozeite: A. 2 neg & 2 positive control D. D. Growth hormone C. In acute pancreatities what is the test to be determine: A. 100-120 mg/dl C. Glucagon B. That are freely filterable by the glomerular B.B. Trichiuris 69. Minor cross matching B. Of: A. A. Measurement of Clearance of subs. A. Lactate Dehydrogenises C. What is the normal value of FBS if it is 100% venous blood? A. doudenale C. spiralis 68. Hook worm B. 60-80 mg/dl B. Somatostatin 73. 80-120 mg/dl D. Means of clearable of subs. T. Trichinella D. A. Glomerular filtration Rate is indi. Pin worm C. T. Amylase B. ALT 72. Major cross matching 70. 200-210 mg/dl 71. In blood transfusion the patients Red cells and donor plasma are req. AST D. saginata E. lumbricoides D. That are freely filterable by the glomerular that se . Other than Insulin what hormone that maintain the glucose level A. Which of the following neither lays eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal c anal: A. What is the best time to collect blood for malarial smear: A. The trophozoite which contains red blood cells in the cytoplasm belongs to this parasite: A. Esterification of conjugated D. Heart D. Creatinine Determination: A. Any of above D. Skeletal B. All of the above 76. Entamoeba gingivalis C. Muscle C. Increased Serum bilirubin: A. B&C E. Non of the above 77. Overloaded of Bilirubin in the liver B. Dysfunction of hepatocellular C. At the beginning or just when the paroxysm is about to start . All of the above 74. Iodamoeba butschlii E. Entamoeba hystolitica B.cret by tubules and is retainable C. All of the above 75. Entamoeba coli D. 5 g% E. 0. the Sodium Chloride content should be: A. Yersinia pestis C.85 g% B. Non of the above 83. Once stained. Which of the following is an enriched medium: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is called acid fast because: A. Peptone water C. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. MAC C. 0. Chocolate agar C. Selenite broth E. 8. Nutrient broth B. It easily decolorizes after stain D. The only enrichment medium of following is: A.085 g% C. 60 mg/dl B. C. B.5 g% D. Chocolate Agar E. 6. tuberculosis C. Period when the paroxysm starts D. Blood agar B. M. 0.50 g% 85. Normal saline D. Thiocynate broth 80. tularensis E. CLED B. it cannot be removed by acid C. It is easily stained by Grams stain B. It is very easy to stain E. Shigella dysenteriae E. D. BAP D. 120 mg/dl 79. All of the following is a test for liver function except: . 110 mg/dl E. Which of the following indicates a blood agar plate: A. Chocolate agar 82. The technician should inform the physician immediately when the blood glucos e level is: A. diphtheria B. Mac Conkey agar 81. Cystine lactose Electrolyte Deficient (CLED) D. 80 mg/dl D. To obtain an isotonic media. pertussis D. Period before the paroxysm start C. It is stained by an alkaline stain 86. 50 mg/dl C. All are member of the Family Enterobacteriaccae are EXCEPT: A. Period after the paroxysm 78. F. Pseudomonas aeroginosa D.B. Which of the following is an enrichment medium: A. Campylobacter jejni 84. Positive to Indole test 90. Group D E. C. . Bilirubin in Serum C. Oxidase negative and liquefies gelatin B. Excretory function test D. Streptococcus pneumonia B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Micrococcaciae 88. Alpha hemolytic D. Staphylococcus epidermidids E. Micrococcus D. Bilirubin in urine B. All statements are true about Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris except: A. Beta hemolytic C.A. Beta Hemolysis is enhanced when Group B Streptococcus in streaked at an angle in a blood agar plate with: A. Ferments Mannitol and Sorbitol C. All are true about Enterococci except: A. Growth in Methyline Blue medium E. Ureas positive D. Exhibits swarming on BAP and Mackonkey agar C. KCN and H2S positive E. Most of the pathogenic stains of streptococcus belongs to group: A. They are Gamma hemolytic on BAP B. Enzyme test E. diphtheria 89. Reduce litmus milk with acid and coagulation D. Viridan B. All of the above 87. Clostridium tetani B. Beta haemolytic C. Bacitracin-S and CAMP (-) D. Positive esculine-hydrolysis and (+) pyr test C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Do not grow in presence of 6. Fermentation of maltose and lactose C.5 % NaCl nor at 45 C 92. Have carbohydrate antigen or group D streptococci B. infection are: Streptococci responsible for the majority of human A. Fermentation of dextrose and maltose B. Blood culture may be indicated for: A. All are true about Enterococci except: A.Inhabited growth with 6. Corynebacterium diphtheria C. Group A B. Fermentation of maltose and sucrose . None of these 94. Shigella dysinteriae D. The gonococcus and menigococcus can best be differentiated by their: A.5 % NaCl and at temperature 60 C 91. All of these E. Non of the above 93. Grow in the presence of bile salts D. The determination of ASO titer is used in the laboratory diagnosis of: A. coli C. 15-20 nm 101. Microcapsule D. Enterococcus faecalis 98. Trichinella spiralis 96. Gram negative bacilli C. Rickettesia C. Endotoxins are chemically: A. Staphylococcus epedermidis B. E. 3 minutes 104. Bacteria B. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Chlamydia 99. Proteus vulgaris D. 5-10 nm C. Polysacharides 103. Streptococci pharyngitis and cellulites D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa E. Which of the following is biological indicator used to monitor steam steril izers. Chlamydia D. 2-5 nm B.95. Protozoa E. Fungi D. Scarlet fever C. Which contain more peptidoglycan A. Significant bacteriuria. Identified by finding mainly the rhabditiform larvae in fresh stool: A. Toxic shock syndrome B. 45 minutes D. The thickness of bacterial cell wall ranges between A. Enterobiu vermicularis C. Minimum time required for sterilization by moist heat at 136 C is A. Lipopolysacharides D. Pseudomonas aeruginasa . 2 hours B. Acute glomerulonephritis E. Gram positive bacilli B. Which of the following are prokaryotes? A. Slim layer 100. 10-15 nm D. Rickettsiae 102. Strongyloides stercoralis D. 15 minutes E. and alkaline urine probably indicate urinar y infection due to: A. 1 hour C. Mucopeptides B. pyuria. Rheumatic fever 97. Flagella B. Proteins C. The organs of adhesion in bacteria are: A. Fimbriae C. A. The sources of Peptone include: A. All of the following are transport media except: A. India ink preparation B. Neutral Red B. Which of the following is not true about Nutrient agar: A. Hydrogen + Carbon dioxide C. Clostridium difficile 105. Leishman s stain D. 10% D. 2% B. Grams stain C. It doesn t inhibit the growth of bacteria D. Methyl Red C. Best method of staining bacterial capsule is: A. Ammies medium B. Fibrin D. All of the following are oxidase positive except: A. Phenol Red D. The indicator in Mac Conkey agar is: A. Transformation B. All of the above 112. Te rate of decolonization is the fastest in Grams stain with A. Mutation D. Oxygen + Carbon dioxide D. Alkaline peptone water 110. Conjugation 106. Malachite green 108. Bacillus stearothermophilus C. Bacillus anthraces D. 15% 111. Transduction C. It adds nutritive value to the medium 109. Nitrogen + Carbon dioxide B. Bacterial genes are transferred by means of all following except: A. Acetone plus iodine 107. The usual concentration of blood in the blood agar medium is: A. Soya four E. Neisseria gonorrhea . 5% C. Casein C. Heart muscle B. Acetone B. It solidifies at about 34 C C. Alcohol C. Stuart s medium C. Bromophenol Blue 113. It melts at about 95 C B. None of the Above 114. For providing micro aerophilic atmosphere the preferred mixture is: A. Carry Blair s medium D. Mixture of Acetone and Alcohol D.B. Capitis B. Salmonella typhi D. Which of the following can grow on MacConkey agar: A. Neonatal meningitis B. Hydrogen peroxide B. All above 120. Septic abortions D. Escherichia Coli B. Proteus Vulgaris C. Coagulase B. The most commonly tested virulence factor in staphylococci is: A. All of the above 122. Salmonella gallinarum D. intermmedius D. Chromobaterium violaceum B. Respiratory infections C. Haemophilus influenza cause: A. Eikenella corrodens D. S. Chemically the oxidase reagent is: A. Enterotoxin 119. Selective medium used for the isolation of Staphylococcus aureus is: A. Haemophilus parainfluenza C. 2% milk agar B.B. Fibrinolysin D. Brucella 115. S. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. The colonies of Bordetella pertussis look like: A. Conjunctivitis D. S. All following produce oxidase except: A. S. Proached egg . Endocarditis C. Streptococcus haemoliti 117. Eikenella corrodens 124. Tributyrim D. Which of the following produce urease: A. Otitis media E. Thioglycollate broth 118. None of the above 116. Gardnerella vaginalis C. haemolyticus 121. Vibrio cholera E. Hyaluronidase C. Gardnerella vaginalis D. hominis C. 10% Sodium chloride broth C. Tetra methyl-P-phenylene diamine C. Group B streptococci cause: A. Meningitis B. Haemophilus species B. All following species of Staphylococcus do not produce coagulase except A. Chromobacterium species 123. Colistin D. Sliver paints D. Diamidine-penicillin-flouride medium D. Which of the following are typical about morphology of Corynebacterium diph theria: A. Vancomycin C. Which of following is capable of growth at 22 C A. Blood tellurite agar C. Cough plate method C. Neisseria meningitides B. Post nasal swab D. Throat swab 126. Require 5-10% of carbon dioxide for growth D. Linocomycin C. Maltose and sucrose C. Which test is used to ascertain toxigenity of C.B. Neisseria lactamica C. Neisseria catarrhalis D. Loeffler serum slope D. Mercury drops C. All of above 131. The best method of sample collection for Bordetella pertussis: A. diphtheria are best developed on: A. Draughtsman 125. Erythromycin D. Trimethroprim E. All above 134. The best medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is: A. Glucose and maltose B. Teracycline B. Oxidase positive C. Gram positive thin bacilli B. These are Gram negative diplococci B. The chemotherapeutic agents contained in modified New York City (MNYC) medi um are: A. Chocolate agar 133. JK group of corynebacteria are universal sensitivity to: A. Bordet Gangou medium C. Chocolate agar with bacitracin 127. All above 130. Amphotericin B B. Arranged at acute angles E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 128. Neisseria meningitides utilizes: A. Which of the following are true about Neisseria meningitides: A. Blood agar B. Chocolate agar B. Pernasal swab B. Glucose and lactose 129. Presence of metachromatic granule C. Club shaped at the ends D. Morphological features of C. diphtheria: . Sucrose and lactose D. All above 132. 5 minutes B. leprae. Tetrathionate broth B. Dick test C. Salmonella O antigens are also share with: A. Klebsiella C. None of the above 135. Elek s test B. Enterobacter D. 5% sulphuric acid B. 20% sulphuric acid 137. 15 minutes D. 10 minutes C. A smear stained with Ziehl Neelsen stain should not be declared negative unless it has been examined for at least: A. Escherichia coli C. 15% sulphuric acid D. the decolorizing agent used is: A. Citrobacter B. Shigella B. Serratia 138. Proteus E. 20 minutes 136. 10% sulphuric acid C. Voges proskauer (VP) negative organism is: A. All above 139. Schick test D. . In Ziehl Neelsen staining used for M. Selenite F C. Enrichment medium for Salmonella is: A. Shigella D.A. Typhoid encephalopathy C. dysenteriae 142. Intramuscular injection increase the activity of the following enzyme: A. boydii C. IgM is A. Determination of antibodies to Vi antigen in Widal test helps in diagnosis of: A. Virulent form of typhoid fever 141. S. Immunoglobulin in allergic condition C. S. Any of above 140. Alpha globulin 143. S. CPK C. Carrier state D. sonnei D. CK-MB . Flexneri B. ChronicImmunoglobulin D.Strontium chloride broth D. GPT B. S. Early stage of typhoid fever B. ONPG test is positive in all the strains of: A. Acute Immunoglobulin B. Chlamydia C. Pancreatic enzyme C. T diagnose pancreatic disease 149. Bone enzyme D. K and Cl are best measure? A. LDH 144. Cardiac enzyme B. HBDH 150. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase is: A. Trypanosoma D. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme: A. All of the above 145. RIA 147. Live enzyme B. Vaginal discharge occur with all except: A. GOT C. Prostatic enzyme 148. GPT C. To diagnose hemolytic anemia B. To diagnose myocardial infection C. Filariasis C. LDH D. Fructoseamine E. Alkaline Phosphatase is A. Placental enzyme C. All of the above E. Acid phosphates 153. CPK B. CPK D. Candida . Fasting blood glucose B. AMP pathway enzyme D. Non of the above 152. Cardiac LDH can be substituted by one of the following A. PPBS D. CPK 151. GOT D. Na. Female anopheles transmits which disease: A. Estimation of G6PDH is a test A. One of the following is specific diagnostic enzyme A. GGT B. ELISA D. Flame photo meter C. Glycosylated Hb C. In blood Glucose estimation the following is required A. Lishmanisasis B. Lipase C. Malaria 146. Gardenela B.D. GOT B. Spectrophotometer B. None of the above 157. Trypanosoma D. coli D. Pseudopodia B. Anthrax B. Niesseriae C. Sensitivity and specificity are: A. A dichromatic analysis is carried to increase A. Filaria C.D. All of the above 158. Gonorrhea 154. Serious orgasm that cause food poisoning: A. Non of the above 155. Trypnosoma move by A. Directly related B. Flagella D. Specificity B. Salmonella entreritidis C. Giardia move by A. E. Malaria B. Cilia C. One of the following is Gram positive bacilli: A. None of the above 156. Reversely related C. The following parasite can seen in the blood: A. Pseudopadia B. Clostridium spelica D. Sensitivity C. Small intestine C. Trichomonous Vaginalls E. Cilia C. Lishmania E. Stomach B. Albus B. Large intestine D. Flagella D. Non of the above 161. Salmonella typhi . Staph. They men the same D. Linearity D. Non of the above 160. None of the above 159. Entamoeba histolytica cyst is appear in which part of gastrointestinal trac t: A. (Alkaline) Gram + Bacteria on Gram Stain . Acetic acid) An Indicator Means . (Mammary Gland) Estrogen Is Produced By . (Ovary) Causes Of Conjuctivitis Trachoma/ Causative Agent . (Increased K Level) Visceral Leishmaniasis Caused By (Leishmania Donovan) . (wash with 10 % conc. (Bordetela Pertusis) (Border Gongour Medium) Albert Stain Is Good For .For Nisseria Gonorrhoea) Prolactin Is Produced By .43 SAUDIA LICENSE EXAMINATION FOR TIPS FOR HEALTH SPECIALIST (For Lab. (Lowenstein Jensen Medium LJ) Slight Haemolysis Cause . (Proteus Species) Selective and Differential Medium For Enterobacter . (Recovery Of Eggs In Perianal Skin) Causes whopping Cough . DCA (Deoxycholate Citrate A gar) What Is The Function Of Thyroxine (T4) . (Cap) Is Best For Haemophilus Influenzae) (Thayer Martin. (Kala Zar) PTT detects . (It Is Used In Metabolism) Chocolate Agar . (Anterior Pituitary Gland) Target Organ Of Prolactin . (Colored Dark Purple) Iodine Stain for Entamoeba Histolytica . (Coryenbacterium Diphteria) Alkali burns . (Acidic) When It Becomes Blue . (For Identification of Chromatoidal Bod ies) Medium for Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Tb . (Extrinsic Factor Abnormalties ) . Prothrombine Time Detects . (Changes of Color / Ph Range) When It Becomes Red . Technician) Strong Urea s Producers . (Chlamydia Trachomatis) Identification of Enterobius Vermicularis . (intrinsic factor abnormalities). (Differentiate between strept. (Pseudomonas Aeroginosa) Function of Cortisol . (T-Lymphocyte/Lymphocytes) Monocyte . (Staph Aureus) Ziehl Nelson stain is used for . (Ethyl Alcohol) Causes Oriental Scar . (Flagellar Antigen) Causes Scarlet Fever . (ketones in urine ).5) Normal Glucose Level . not in myocardial infarction (MI) .5 . Pneumonia from Strep. (Also Macrophage) Optochin test is used to . Cellular / Cell Immunity . (Leishmania (Cutaneous)) Normal Rbcs Count For Male .6. (Increase only in liver damage. (Ethyl Alcohol) Best Fixative for Thin Smear . (Glycogen) Prevent atherosclerosis . (Tsetse Fly) Identification of malarial parasites & RBCs morphology . (has no D antigen) Storage form of glucose . (Detect Antibody/ Antibody Screening Of Sensitizing Patient's Rbcs) Intermediate host of Leishmania species. (Streptococcus Pyogene) Causes Scalded Skin Syndrome . (Best for Corynebacterium diphteriae) Best for Sterilizing Media . (thin smear) Rh negative patients . Citrate Test Differentiates . (70 . (Phlebotomus sand fly) Intermediate Host Of Trypanosoma . (Metabolsim) Best Fixative for Blood Film . (Autoclave) Oxidase + ..44 Found in hyperglycemic coma . (HDL Cholesterol) Albert stain .140 (Random)) H Antigen . (Best For Diagnosing Both Liver damage & myocardial infarction) ALT/SGPT . Viridans) Chinese letter like bacteria . (Corynebacterium diphteriae) AST/SGOT . (Gram Negative Enterobacteriaceae) Example salmonella is citrate + Indirect antiglobulin test . (4. (Mycobacterium sp). Acknowledgement I m thank full to my ALLAH And also I thank full to my friend Mr. Faiz . Technician NNP. Muhammad Abdul Aziz. KSA 0591-342865 Unis_memon85@yahoo. Sami Khan. Mostfa. Dr. Muhammad Younis Lab. Lab. Thanks. he help me in download these d ata. Rabigh General Hospital. I thank full to Dr.com . KSA. Rabigh. Pathologist. Technician they help me to answers these questions. Al-Nakheel National Clinic and Mr. Pathologist.
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