Question 1 TCP is able to buffer the stream of data to prevent overloading. Which features enable it to do this? a. Flow Control b. Connectionless c. Battery d. Hold Control Answer: A Flow control is a mechanism of TCP that helps provide error free and reliable transport of communications between devices. Question 2 What is the most prominent protocol suite used on the Internet? a. TCP/IP b. Netware c. Linux d. Windows Answer: A TCP/IP has become the most popular protocol suite used on the Internet, and is considered the standard for data transmission. Question 3 Which layer of the OSI model provides error free, reliable transport of information? a. Network Layer – Layer 3 b. Application Layer – Layer 7 c. Physical Layer – Layer 1 d. Transport Layer – Layer 4 Answer: D The transport layer defines two protocols, TCP and UDP. In order to provide error free and reliable delivery of information, TCP is used to ensure data is received, and if not, it will be resent and error checked. Tel: 1 800.418.6789 | www.learnsmartsystems.com Question 4 What layer of the OSI model is responsible for coding and conversion? a. Presentation b. Transport c. Network d. Data-Link Answer: A The presentation layer is responsible for presenting the material in a manner that is able to be viewed by the user up to Layer 7, or preparing it in a manner to be sent down to Layer 5. Question 5 What type of data transmission allows for a single client to send traffic to a specific group of clients? a. Manycast b. Unicast c. Broadcast d. Multicast Answer: D Multicast allows for communications between one device to a specific number of recipients, defined by the sender. This allows for more efficient communications, instead of using a broadcast when trying to send to more than one client. Question 6 True or False - Thicknet and Thinnet are two types of specifications for coax cable deployments. Answer: True While not as popular for network connectivity in a building to users and such, coax is still used heavily for television and for an ISP to deliver Internet connectivity to a modem in an establishment. Tel: 1 800.418.6789 | www.learnsmartsystems.com A straight-through cable is used for a connection from a host to a switch.com .6789 | www. Tel: 1 800. Question 8 True or False . Temporary Domain d. Question 9 Where is the physical port to MAC address mappings stored on a router? a. Collision Domain b. Answer: True A straight-through cable’s pin configuration allows for data to be sent and received properly through communications. ARP table Answer: D The ARP table maintains a mapping of traffic of all MAC address to port locations when it receives traffic in order to efficiently send out traffic out the next time for that particular location. Apple Domain Answer: A The collision domain devices all share bandwidth. Physical table b. and any one device could transmit information that could collide with a transmission from another device.418. PARP table d. Broadcast Domain c. Route table c.learnsmartsystems.Question 7 What is the division in which frames from one networked device could collide with another device? a. However.418.6789 | www. 1-1006 Answer: C VLANs in the normal range are used in any mode of VTP and kept in the VLAN database. extended range VLANs.learnsmartsystems. Tel: 1 800. Question 11 What aspect of a spanning-tree is used to optimize access ports to immediately bring them into a forwarding state? a. PortsFaster Answer: C Portfast enables the port to bypass the listening and learning states of a spanningtree instance. 1006-4094. Fastport b. Switch d. This is only recommended on an access port. 1-1000 b. Router c. immediately putting it into a forwarding state. FastP c. 1-1005 d. are not kept in the VLAN database. Portfast d. and the switch must be in VTP Transparent mode. Bridge b. Hub Answer: B The router has the ability to separate the broadcast domain and route traffic between them if necessary. Question 12 What is the normal range of VLANs? a. 2-1005 c.com .Question 10 Which device has the ability to separate broadcast domains? a. 3 Answer: B 802. which is link aggregation control protocol. PAP c. the trunk will do trunking negotiation. Switchport b. Switchport dynamic auto mode dynamic desirable mode on mode dynamic auto Answer: D In dynamic auto mode. is an Etherchannel standard created by IEEE.1x d.1q offers the native VLAN as a VLAN that is not tagged on a trunk end to end. Question 14 If one side of a trunk was configured as switchport mode dynamic auto. If the other side is set to auto. ISL b. Switchport c.Question 13 What trunking method is IEEE defined and supports a native VLAN? a. Tel: 1 800.learnsmartsystems. CHAP d. what must the other side not be? a. but only if it hears someone trying to negotiate.6789 | www. neither side will initiate the trunk. which is port aggregation control protocol. Switchport d. 802. 802. PAgP b.1q c.com . LACP Answer: A and D PAgP. Question 15 What are the two types of Etherchannel? a. is a Cisco Etherchannel standard. 802. LACP.418. 802. The Route Table CAM Table MAC Table IP Table Answer: B and C The CAM table. switchport mode trunk must be configured to turn on trunking.Question 16 If one end of a trunked link is configured with switchport nonegotiate command. Question 17 What uses MAC address as a reference to decide where to forward traffic when incoming frames reach a device? a. Switchport b. The d. 802.11 b.418. Tel: 1 800. DTP packets will not be sent. the other end must be configured as what? a. Switchport c.2 Answer: C IEEE has defined the Ethernet standard to be 802.1 c. also known as the MAC table. not needing negotiation. The b.com . Therefore. holds for a specific period of time a reference as to where MAC addresses are located in order to send traffic more efficiently when it hits the device. 802. Switchport mode trunk trunk mode trunk desirable Answer: A Since negotiation has been disabled on the trunk link. The c.learnsmartsystems. 802. Switchport d.6789 | www. Question 18 What is the IEEE standard for Ethernet? a.3.3 d. collisions occur because senders must wait to send data before transmission.418. Atom Switching b. regardless of whether or not it is actively sending. Null Switching c.A broadcast domain is the logical separation of networked devices that can be reached via a unicast or broadcast message on the data link layer. Full-Duplex b. even if communication is not flowing through it? a. Answer: True The broadcast domain can be broken up by a router.6789 | www. Packet Switching d. Tel: 1 800. Circuit Switching Answer: D During this time.Question 19 What type of Ethernet is being used when the endpoint must wait for an idle period before transmitting a frame? a. two or more senders will be waiting and sending at the same time. Auto-Duplex Answer: B In a half-duplex scenario. and network devices can then communicate across broadcast domains via the router routing this traffic.learnsmartsystems. Question 20 True or False . Half-Duplex c. the line will remain open for communications to be made across from end to end. Question 21 What provides a dedicated and continuously open line for transmission. Sometimes.com . which can cause a collision. Semi-Duplex d. Allow spanning-tree port blocking over trunks. Create new instances of OSPF. Tel: 1 800. distribute or ignore VLAN updates between switches that are in the same VTP domain.com . or ignore VLAN updates dynamically from a main switch so that all switches would have the proper VLAN information.418. Question 24 What does the VLAN Trunking Protocol enable a switch to do? a. d. Switchport mode access d.Question 22 True or False – The protocol data units at the layer 2 level are called frames. Switchport access Answer: C To make a switchport a specific access port. Answer: True The protocol data units at the layer 2 level are called frames. b.learnsmartsystems. Switchport b.6789 | www. Ignore VLAN updates between devices. Switchport access mode c. Question 23 What is the appropriate way to properly set a switchport into access mode? a. a switch can be configured in one of three modes to either create VLANs. Dynamically learn. delete VLANs. the command switchport mode access is used. Packets at layer 3 and layer 4 are called segments. Answer: B In a switch environment. c. and to not negotiate its role. learn VLANs. and ignore updates from the VTP Server.com . it believes that configuration is superior to its own. Show b. Question 26 True or False . modify and delete VLANs. Show status VTP status VTP status VTP Answer: C Show VTP status will give all pertinent information of the VTP setup. but not the password. Question 27 To look up the domain name and operating mode of VTP. User. the switch would ignore the update because it would not see it as the most recent information. and VTP Transparent which can create. modify and delete VLANs. Show d. If the configuration revision was higher.learnsmartsystems. Show c. and Transparent. Tel: 1 800. including domain name and mode.6789 | www. it would see the information as up to date.The three modes of VTP are Server. what show command would be used? a. VTP client.When a switch receives a configuration change from another switch with a lower revision number.418.Question 25 True or False . Answer: False In this case. which can create. Answer: False The three modes are VTP Server. which can only receive VLAN updates from the server. C and D Discarding is where no user data is sent.The root bridge default bridge ID is 33768.418.Question 28 What are the three port states in a rapid spanning-tree topology? a. This makes RSTP easier to implement within a network using STP.6789 | www. Question 29 True or False . Listening c. Learning d. Answer: False RSTP is backward compatible with STP and will revert to STP if an interface detects STP BPDU.learnsmartsystems. Question 30 True or False – RSTP is not backward compatible with STP. Forwarding Answer: A. Learning is where the port is not forwarding. Tel: 1 800. Discarding b. but is populating the MAC table. Forwarding is fully operational.com . Answer: False The root bridge default bridge ID for a spanning-tree instance is 32768. the DTE. 50 c. Tel: 1 800. DCE c. RSTP helps streamline this process more by improving convergence time.6789 | www. 50 d. DEA d. Answer: True BPDUs are used between switches to determine the root bridges in an STP instance. Question 32 True or False – A BPDU is a bridge protocol data unit used in STP. 30 seconds minutes seconds seconds Answer: C To go from disabled. 10 b.Question 31 What is the convergence time for an STP instance? a.learnsmartsystems. DTE b. DCC Answer: B The DCE is in charge of providing clock signals to the other end of the serial connection. to learning and then to the forwarding state takes 50 seconds to converge.418. Devices still monitor BPDUs to see if there is a need to go back into a blocking state or to transfer into a listening state for convergence. Question 33 Which side of a serial connection handles clocking signals? a.com . to listening. 048. T1 is the North American standard that carries a data rate of 1. DAN b.6789 | www. Tel: 1 800.Question 34 A WAN interconnects one or more of what together? a. T1 Answer: B MPLS works on both layer 2 and layer 3.com . Question 35 What WAN technology uses labels instead of network addresses for communications? a.544 megabits per second. MPLS c. LAN d. IAN c. and is heavily used across the country to streamline communications for companies. This is mostly seen in companies that have offices all over the country.learnsmartsystems.418. Question 36 True or False – An E1 is a North American standard that carries a data rate of 1. VSAT b. YAN Answer: C The WAN interconnects multiple LANs together. in order for these networks to communicate over long distances. and use a WAN to communicate with each of them. It does so by using labels instead of network addresses in order to make the communications more efficient.544 megabits per second. E1 d. Answer: False An E1 is the European standard that carries 32 digital channels and has a data rate of 2. learnsmartsystems. Tel: 1 800. It sends usernames and passwords between the devices to establish a link between the two. is a three-way handshake authentication protocol.Question 37 True or False – Cellular 3G and 4G is provided by your cellular carrier that only provides voice communications. CAP Answer: A and C CHAP. but for data as well. PPP c. CHAP b. is an authentication protocol that is a two way process between the devices. along with wireless antennae on phones.com . Question 38 What are the two types of authentication tools available in a serial PPP connection? a. in which one side of the CHAP process sends a challenge to the other router. not just for voice. Data access on a cell phone is a mainstay now with consumers and 3G and 4G provide a large role in that ability. or Password Authentication Protocol.418. PAP d. Answer: False Cellular 3G and 4G are becoming increasingly popular and used by many. or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol.6789 | www. PAP. network. giving over 2 million possible network options. with one side sending a challenge. Question 40 True or False – The default encapsulation on a serial interface is frame-relay. CHAP d. Tel: 1 800. while the initial router verifies the credentials to allow access. 16-bit d.Question 39 What authentication protocol uses a handshake. The host portion is 8 bits. network. PAP b.418. giving 256 address possibilities for each network. 24-bit b.learnsmartsystems. 24-bit c. sending a challenge to the other device in order to have the other device send its username and password? a. network. PPP c. SAP Answer: C CHAP is a three-way handshake authentication protocol. Question 41 What is the amount of bits used for the network and host field respectively for a Class C network? a. Answer: False The correct answer is HDLC. 16-bit network. HDLC is configured by default on the interface.6789 | www. the receiver sending a username and password. Frame-relay and PPP are two other encapsulation methods available to be configured between serial devices.com . 24-bit host 8-bit host 16-bit host 8-bit host Answer: B A class C address uses 24 bits for a network address. com . 172.254 Answer: D The broadcast address is the last possible address in that particular subnet.16.0/24 a. The last usable address in this case. 172. is 172.25.16.24.The ability to subnet enables a network’s address space to be further divided down into a smaller network.255 c. Broadcast c.16. Question 43 True or False .learnsmartsystems. Answer: True The ability to subnet enables to break down a network into further. more efficient uses of networks to fight against waste. 172. Experimental b. Multicast d.1 b. Tel: 1 800.255 d.6789 | www.16.16. 172.418.16. Unicast Answer: C Multicast communications use Class D addresses in order to communicate with hosts.24.24.24.24. Question 44 What is the broadcast address for the following subnet? 172.Question 42 What are the Class D networks reserved for? a.254. Answer: False As an IPv6 rule.10110011 d.10110011 b.168. 11000001. 64 bit d. 128 bit b.learnsmartsystems. 48 bit Answer: A An IPv6 address is a 128-bit address that will help alleviate the address space issue of IPv4.10101000.11001001.6789 | www. 32 bit c.10101001. 11111000.11001001. 11000001.10110011 c.201. Question 47 True or False . which is a 32-bit address.10101000. this replacement of 0s can only be done once per IPv6 address. This is the only answer that properly translates to the IP address.418.11001010.179? a.Any string of two or more consecutive groups of all hex 0s can be replaced with a double colon more than once. Question 46 What is the length in bits of an IPv6 address? a.10110011 Answer: D The other answers do not properly translate binary to decimal form. 11000000.com .11001001.Question 45 What is the binary address of the following IP address? 193.10101001. Tel: 1 800. FE11::/60 b.418. They must be translated to a public address. Unique b. but not to be used publically over the Internet. Unique c. Tel: 1 800. FA01::A c. FF01::A d. AB11::/128 c. and can be used by any company privately? a. therefore not assignable to any company. Question 50 What is the IPv6 multicast address for EIGRPv6? a.6789 | www.Question 48 What type of address is not registered. with the address of FF02::A. FF02::A b. FE80::/10 d.com . Unique local local local local anycast multicast broadcast unicast Answer: D Unique local unicast addresses act like IPv4 private IP addresses. FE02::A Answer: A EIGRPv6 uses a particular address to communicate via multicast to particular users. BC14::/32 Answer: C The link-local address of FE80::/10 is defined as the only format to be used for IPv6 addresses that are link-local configured. These can be configured by anyone internally. Unique d. Question 49 Which answer correctly depicts what the first 10 bits of a link-local address can be? a.learnsmartsystems. Question 51 What are the two sections of an IPv4 address called? a. 1-128 c. Class B is within the address range of 128. Question 52 True or False . 128-192 d.6789 | www. Answer: False An IPv4 address is a 32-bit address.An IPv4 address is a 64-bit number. Enterprise d. 128-191 Answer: D IPv4 addresses are broken up into multiple classes.0. Tel: 1 800.255. which is the specific entity’s IP address. The last part of the address is the host address. Network b. 1-127 b.255.learnsmartsystems. Question 53 What is the range of a class B network? a.0.0 through 191.418.com . A through E.255. divided into four octets. Host c. Global Answer: A and B The network portion of the address is the first part of the address. 0.1 d.1 Answer: B 127. 192.1 is reserved for any loopback functions that would be required to be used. but need to bring them together as one route? a.0.0.You cannot subnet a Class A address. Summarization Answer: D Summarization is sometimes required to summarize a group of smaller IP addresses into one large IP address. Subnetting b.1 c.0. Tel: 1 800.1.0.Question 54 What is the practice called when you have multiple subnets. 1.1. 224.com . This lessens what is currently in the routing table.1. Answer: False Any network in any class can be subnetted in order to both adequately and efficiently use address space for a particular entity or group.6789 | www.0. Question 56 True or False . Question 55 What IPv4 address network is reserved for loopback functions? a. Link-Local c. and is therefore not assignable as an address to a particular entity. and provides the router with less to go through when trying to look up a particular route.1 b.418.learnsmartsystems. 127. Null d.1. they can be used by anyone internally. not used for normal traffic. There is no such thing. but do not participate in the delivery of normal traffic. Global unicast d. Question 58 Which of the following are the two options in an IPv6 address? a. Unique local addresses are private addresses. Tel: 1 800. Unique multicast c. c. b. Used by IPv6 to communicate with other hosts and send normal traffic data.418. Unique local Answer: C and D The Global unicast address is similar to a public IPv4 address and blocks of these addresses are registered to particular entities. d.6789 | www.com .Question 57 What is the purpose of a link-local address? a.learnsmartsystems. Global broadcast b. and are not assignable. Used by protocols and routing to transmit information. Answer: B Link-local addresses are used between interfaces on devices to deliver pertinent data on protocols and routing. Used by IPv4 to talk about protocols between hosts. Therefore. is done when the device first powers on to verify that all parts of the device are working properly. Question 61 What is the process called when a router and switch power on and verifies that all components are properly working? a. or POST. Global prefix b. UDP b.Question 59 What is a reserved block of IPv6 addresses called? a. TCP d. Answer: False Just like an IPv4 address. RADIUS Answer: B The Power On Self Test. IPv6 addresses have host portions to be able to identify particular hosts on an IPv6 network. IPv6 prefix Answer: B The Global routing prefix is the block of addresses reserved for a particular entity to be able to communicate publically.418.There is no host portion of an IPv6 address.com . Global routing prefix c.6789 | www. POST c. Routing prefix d.learnsmartsystems. Question 60 True or False . Tel: 1 800. Show c.Question 62 How can you view what particular Cisco IOS image is running on your switch or router? a. but needs to be unlocked with a software activation in order to use them. Question 63 What IOS version gives you the full feature set available on Cisco IOS software? a. IOS images require a particular size of RAM and memory to be used.com . Question 64 True or False . but requires more hardware ability on the device. and costs more to have this image installed. Tel: 1 800.learnsmartsystems.In newer IOS images. and can be verified before installing.6789 | www. Answer: True In newer devices. This information can be retrieved after it is purchased from the Cisco License Portal. one of them being the hardware components and the IOS image that is currently installed. Show IOS startup-config running-config version Answer: D The show version command will enable the user to view particular attributes about the device. Advanced Enterprise Services b. the universal image includes all sets of features for the router and switch. Show b. Advanced IP Services c. the universal image allows for one image to be installed and features to be unlocked via activation with Cisco. Show d.418. This is most advantageous. IP Base Answer: A Advanced Enterprise Services enables all features on the device for the user to configure. Advanced Base Services d. 6789 | www. The config-register can be changed within the configuration as well to provide an ability to bypass the startup configuration. Erase start Answer: A Write erase gives the ability to erase the configuration that starts up when the device turns on.418. Write erase b. 0x2142 b. Question 66 What is the command that can be used to delete the startupconfiguration on the command line? a.learnsmartsystems.com . 0x3320 c. Erase config d. 0x2100 d. This can be dangerous and should be used with caution.Question 65 What configuration register provides a stable boot using your saved configuration? a. Erase write c. 0x2102 Answer: C This config-register provides a normal boot by loading the startup configuration when the device is turned on and booting. Tel: 1 800. and they can be activated with specific software keys to unlock features. b. Answer: False Cisco requires you to purchase the capability to install the license on your machine for old IOS images. Question 69 True or False . VGA port Answer: A The serial port is needed for a console cable to connect from the device to the user’s machine. you have to purchase an entirely new device. Ethernet port d. Talks to Cisco.com . Tel: 1 800. For new devices.com about what’s installed on the device.learnsmartsystems.418. IOS images can be installed with a specific universal image. A USB to Serial adapter can also be used instead. c. Question 68 What is the main purpose of a Cisco IOS image? a. d. It downloads images from Cisco’s website. It is the image for an iPhone. Parallel port c.6789 | www. It can be upgraded or downgraded based on the user’s needs for the environment. Answer: B The IOS image is the underlying operating system on a router or switch which provides specific features.Question 67 What is needed on a client machine that is attempting to use a console cable to connect to the console port of a router or switch? a. because most laptops no longer have serial ports on them.To upgrade an IOS image. It is the operating system of a Cisco router or switch. Serial port b. TCP c.418. Telnet sends traffic in clear text and should not be used when a user is trying to connect to a device remotely. Tel: 1 800.Question 70 True or False . the device can be configured to bypass the startup configuration.6789 | www. and save it to the startup-configuration for future use. User exec mode allows a user to view items but not modify them. Question 71 True or False .com . Range d.Enable mode allows a user to view items but not modify them. Answer: True By entering ROMMON mode. therefore providing a base configuration when getting to the command line. Answer: False Enable or privileged mode allows a user to modify the configuration. This enables the user to configure the running configuration with new password information. Telnet b.learnsmartsystems. making changes to how devices are run as soon as the commands are entered. SSH Answer: D SSH is the most secure method because it sends the traffic to and from the device. Question 72 What is the most secure method of accessing the CLI of a device? a.Entering ROMMON mode assists in the password recovery process. you must save your configuration or a reload will remove the changes made since the last saved configuration. hop by hop. the command is immediately being used in the running configuration and saved in the startup configuration. Pingroute d. Ping b.com . Tab b. Exclamation Point d. Comma Answer: A Tab can be used to autocomplete a command once entered in order to save typing time. Question 74 True or False . Question Mark c.6789 | www.Question 73 What connectivity testing tool allows the user to gain an understanding of where on the network communications may be dropping from the source to destination? a.Once you type a command in the command line and hit enter. Route c. Tel: 1 800. this only works if the command can be finished and there are no alternatives to the beginning characters entered. testing connectivity as well. But. Traceroute Answer: D Traceroute enables the user to see.418. what key can be pressed to autocomplete the command? a. however. Answer: False The configuration is immediately sent into the running-configuration. Question 75 When typing commands in the command line.learnsmartsystems. the path in which a device takes to reach the endpoint. Question 77 True or False . 10 Answer: A Level 0 is the Emergency level. d. It reloads the device.learnsmartsystems. ICMP messages are sent for requests and replies. It lists all of the current commands available within the mode and configuration you are in. b. Tel: 1 800. they will not be listed.6789 | www.com . c. Answer: A The question mark is a useful tool to help the administrator reveal what configuration options are available with some of the configuration already entered.418.Question 76 What is the purpose of using a question mark when typing a command? a. If there are no commands available. 0 b. 1 d.Ping is a TCP protocol that uses TCP messages for requests and replies. It provides syslog information that is extremely important. 7 c. It enables the command. Answer: False ICMP is the protocol used by ping. It finishes the command that is currently entered. Question 78 What is the level and name of the highest security level of a syslog message? a. SNMPv3 encrypts this traffic to and from the device. V2 sends messages in clear text. The agent reports information back to the manager with different variables.418. Member Answer: A and C The manager is a network management tool that monitors and manages groups of hosts and devices. Question 81 True or False . Administrator c. Agent d. Answer: True When the logging console is configured. does not send messages.com . Question 80 Which of the following are the two elements to the SNMP communications? a.learnsmartsystems. which can be a security breach waiting to happen.6789 | www. This can be very useful when trying to troubleshoot or configure the device. sends messages in clear text. does not use communities. Manager b. you can view messages on the command line via the console and see the output as things happen. V2 b.Question 79 What is the main difference between SNMPv2 and SNMPv3? a. Answer: A SNMPv2 sends syslog information in clear text. Tel: 1 800. V2 c.Syslog messages can be viewed in real-time on the console line. V3 d. com . By sending this information back to software.418. in enabled mode. Show buffer log buffer log log buffer Answer: B Show log. provides the user with all syslog messages sent to the buffer. Tel: 1 800. Show b.learnsmartsystems. Show d.Question 82 What command enables you to see messages saved to the logging buffer? a. Answer: True NetFlow enables engineers to have a better grasp of what is traveling through interfaces on the network. Question 84 True or False . or both traffic flows in order to gain knowledge of whether or not information is going through the interface. Show c.The interface in which the user wants to analyze traffic for NetFlow must be configured. Answer: True When configuring NetFlow. Question 83 True or False . egress.6789 | www. engineers can view possible causes of bottlenecks and slowness in network traffic. the user must go into interface configuration mode to configure ingress.The purpose of NetFlow is to track data flows that would help reduce bottlenecks from occurring. learnsmartsystems. however. 9999 b. Routing b.418.Question 85 What is the default port to send traffic to on NetFlow? a. 9996 d. to do this. This helps connect two or more different networks together to allow for communications to occur.com . this port can be changed from the default.6789 | www. Administrative Distance c. 96 Answer: C The default port sending traffic to for NetFlow is 9996. Tel: 1 800. Question 86 A routing protocol can learn routes from another routing protocol. RADIUS Answer: C Redistribution enables one routing protocol to learn about other routing protocols routes. 996 c. Redistribution d. what must occur between the two routing protocols? a. which could result in network outages. Therefore. Doing so could cause a loop in routing. Split Routing Answer: A Split Horizon prevents the routing protocol from sending an update about the route through the interface in which it was learned.In all OSPF instances. which is area 0. Split Horizon b. Tel: 1 800. Question 88 True or False . In some cases. Answer: True All areas must go through the backbone.418. a virtual link may be needed in order to reach area 0. Split Redistribution d.com .Question 87 What is the routing loop mechanism that prevents a route from being advertised back out on the same interface it was received? a. areas other than area 0 must touch area 0.6789 | www.EIGRP chooses a Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR). Redistribution Horizon c. it is imperative that one exists as the devices receive the information through the DR. Answer: False OSPF chooses a DR and BDR in order to communicate with all other devices in it’s area.learnsmartsystems. Question 89 True or False . Question 90 Which of the following was developed by Cisco in order to optimize the way the internal processes of a router determine how to forward packets? a. and increase the load on the router. BAM Answer: A CEF optimizes the internal processes of how a router forwards data.418. Question 92 True or False . Question 91 True or False . it uses the destination IP in order to determine where to send the traffic based upon the match in the routing table.When a packet is received by a router. It is turned on by default on newer devices. STP c.The larger the routing table. Answer: True Where there is a larger routing table. Tel: 1 800. RAM d. it will compare the source IP address to the routing table in order to find a match to send traffic to. Summarization is one of the tools used to decrease this load. routing look ups take a great amount of time.learnsmartsystems. the more CPU processing it requires to look up routes. The information is organized in the routing table and searched through using advanced algorithms.6789 | www. Answer: False When a packet is received. CEF b.com . Router b.6789 | www. Tel: 1 800. The default can be used to do this. and will be used if there are no other routes in the routing table that match the traffic currently being sent. Layer 2 switch d.Question 93 Which of the following are two ways in which a router makes a decision to route a packet? a. defaulting all traffic to this route if there is no match.learnsmartsystems. Manual route d. Layer 3 switch c. a static route has a better administrative distance. Question 94 True or False . Static route b. then send all traffic out to the external network. Dependent route Answer: A and B Static and dynamic routes are both used when determining a routing decision. Answer: True This situation is used a great deal in dealing how to route Internet traffic out of a company’s network. Hub Answer: A and B A router and a layer 3 switch offer layer 3 services that will route packets between broadcast domains that were segmented by installing VLANs. and therefore is believed more.418.A default route can be created that matches all traffic.com . Question 95 Which of the following two devices are needed in order to route packets between VLANs? a. If traffic does not match a destination internally. Dynamic route c. However. To choose the backup method of how to get to a route. The configuration that is loaded when the device is turned on is the startup-config.com . c.Question 96 True or False . Tel: 1 800. This can be done for many different protocols. Answer: B Routing protocols provide the best routes to destinations by dynamically learning and updating routes based on conditions in a network environment. Startup-config b. Device-config d. To statically choose the best route for traffic.Routing metrics can be manipulated manually by an administrator on a router.418. Running-config c. To dynamically choose the best route for traffic to get to a remote network. b. Answer: True The ability to manipulate the routing protocols decision on which route to take to a distant network is advantageous for many engineers. d.learnsmartsystems. Routing protocols should not be used as they are unreliable. Console-config Answer: B The configuration currently being used by a device is the running-config. Question 97 What command provides the user with the configuration currently being used by the device? a.6789 | www. Question 98 What is the purpose of a routing protocol? a. Question 99 True or False .6789 | www. Tel: 1 800. like BGP. No manual configuration is needed unless static routes are used. Question 100 True or False .When a route fails. connect one autonomous system to other autonomous systems.418. Interior gateway protocols are used to route within an autonomous system itself. to find the best next route to a particular network. Answer: False The purpose of the routing protocol is to dynamically update if a route updates. Answer: False Exterior gateway protocols.com .An exterior gateway protocol is a routing protocol used internally within one autonomous system. a routing protocol will need to be manually configured to choose the next available route by an administrator.learnsmartsystems.