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1 MCQ Questions Preliminary examination All of these questions are based on what people remembered after exams SO IT CANNOT BERELIEDON 100% but it is the only way to get an idea about the subjects, matters and topics you would beasked about. Please add whatever you can after the exam ends and keep this sample in thehands of any who is sitting the exam. By the way it took me about 4 months to get this organisedthe way it is now.THANKS to all who have contributed to this and to all who will.Hadi 1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to, A. Avoid buccal pulp hornB. Avoid lingual pulp hornC. Remove unsupported enamelD. Conserve lingual dentine 2. For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should, A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistanceB. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cuspC. reduce 2mm for retention form 3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should, A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acidB. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anythingC. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly 4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam restoration is true? A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. 5. The retention Pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed, A. Parallel to the outer wallB. Parallel to the long axis of tooth 6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental Nerve” block is, A. Injecting too lowB. Injecting too high 7. Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation: A. SnF2B. 1.23% APFC. H2SiF2D. CaSiF2E. 8% Stannous fluoride 8. The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is, A. H2O2B. Phosphoric AcidC. Polyacrylic acid 2 9. The most mineralised part of dentine is, A. Peritubular dentine 10. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema of theupper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had the swelling, pain or dentalcomplaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical areaof rarefaction. The patient’s temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is: A. Acute periapical abscessB. Angioneurotic oedemaC. Infectious mononucleosisD. Acute maxillary sinusitisE. Acute apical periodontitis 11. Internal resorption is, A. Radiolucency over unaltered canalB. Usually in a response to traumaC. Radiopacity over unaltered canal 12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see, A. Surface resorption, external resorptionB. Internal resorptionC. Inflammatory resorptionD. Replacement resorptionE. A, C and DF. All of the above 13. The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make in 0.5mm away from pulp is, A. 20%B. 50% 14. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is. Zone of bacterial penetration. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture? A. Elongation of enamel epithelium. A resting lineD. elongation of enamelepithelium. Sharp curvatureC. sclerosis. Perio abscess like appearanceB. sclerosis. demineralisation. differentiation of odontoblast. reparative dentine. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A. elongation of enamel epithelium. demineralisation. dentine formation then enamel formation. 3 17. Differentiation of odontoblast. MesialD. Zone of bacterial penetration. Displacement of fragments 20. reparative dentine. Differentiation of odontoblast. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping? A. Removal of caries has exposed the pulpC. sclerosis. In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards? A.C.B. A reversal lineB. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres? A. enamel formation then dentinformation. Zone of bacterial penetration. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. Elongation of enamel epithelium. dentine formation then enamelformation. 16. A. Distal 19. dentine formation thenenamel formation. Facial / buccal/B. . LingualC.B.D. demineralisation. What is the correct sequence of events A. differentiation of odontoblast. reparative dentineB. A reduction in the number of tubules 15. Afferent & sympathetic 18.C. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics? A. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil 25. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operativelyE. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each packageC. the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should? A. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality 23. 0.1ml of blood from HIV patientC. Review again later B. Following trauma to tooth. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patientD.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0. Extraction of tooth 22. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperativelyC.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly e from the maxilla than from the mandibleextraction siteparalysisl dressing promote a rapid bone growthutans concentration of 10ause of RCT “Root Canal Treatment” failure is:f the upper lip with redness and drynessgingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth . The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present 26. what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred:** A. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient? A. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation? A. Start endodontic treatmentC. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patientE. Patient commonly complain of post operative headacheB.When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ 21. 0. Cleaning debris from root canal 24. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affectsD.1ml of blood from HIV patientB. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth? A. Obtain baseline responseB. Use spore test dailyB. Decalcification of dentineB. The first is true the second is falseD. Retentive part of clasp position is. Below the survey line. What is main reason of ordering another Periapical radiograph of the same tooth: A. A. As far as you can obturateC. 187.5 mm before the apex 192. As close as possible to the gingival margins 193.B. What statement is false: A. Above survey lineC. Both are false 189. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimensionB. 0.is:not an effect of :cutting and a rougher surfacecutting and a rougher surfacercelain jacket crown is.5 t0 1. but Co-Chrome has high modulus of elasticity A. A. To minimize the load on free end saddle partial denture: A. Not to survey when making the crown 188. Canines and premolarsB. At the apexB. Both are trueC. Retentive Clasps: . Overdentures are best used for. To disclose the other rootsB. The first statement is false the second is trueB. To observe tooth from different angle 191. Posterior teeth 190. A.extraction sitecharacterised by:of itching and vesicalis on the upper labiumof:**using 100000 rpm and over rotors is:503 Service Unavailable No server is available to handle this request. Gold clasp is more elastic than Cobalt Chrome. The ideal length of RCT is. Use mucco-compressive impression 194. A. AntibioticsB. One major Gutta Percha pointC. Alloy with high modulus of elasticityB. . Epithelial rests of Malaise 201. Lateral CondensationB. what epithelial cells you can find: A. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)B. Mechanical 203. Internal resorption of RC usually A. Applying hypertonic Fluid on the dentine the transmission of fluid through tubules will be: A. Mummification 197. When doing pulpotomy with Formcresol. Corticosteroid 198. From outside to inside 202. the two most common micro-organisms are: A. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus 25 199. Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by: A. A. In periodontal membrane. From inside to outsideB. AsymptomaticB. In infected root canal. The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the root canal walls providing space for additional Gutta Percha is termed: A. Laterally above condensed 200. you will find: A. Ledermix used in RCT to relieve pain because of. NecrosisB. Painful 196. Clasp arm is gingivally located 195. 204. Contains micro filledB. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teethC. A. In electro surgery.Gate theory about pain control is: A. The occlusal plane should be above the tongueC. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it: A. Better colour matching 212.** A. Weak edge strength and lack of surface detailsB. Cracking of the investment 208. The current intensity is too highB. If the investment is burnout rapidly. . negative thermal tests. negative percussion and negative responseto palpation 205. The current intensity is too low 211. Overdenture advantage is. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:** A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongueB. Puffiness around the eyes. A. Proprioceptors 210. To increase the stability of the lower denture. Angioneurotic oedema. Back pressure porosityB. There is no caries. Dimensional inaccuracy 209. Reduced zoneB. In melting gold. oedema of the upper lip with redness and drynessB. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interactionof afferent fibre synapses. The lingual flanges should be concave 207. the tissue may stick to the electrode because of . Oxidizing zone 206. what will happen: A. which part of flame we will use A. 26 A. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by. 0-3 mmC. “Main feature of suprabony pocket” A. 215. the most common finding is. MarbleB. QuenchedC. TaperingB. Wrought metal is to be. Alveolar boneB. In periodontitis. Acute periodontal abscessB. The commonest elements which are found in periodontal membrane are:** A. Alveolar bone and gingiva 218. Periodontal membraneC. 2-3 mmD. A. A. A. The normal range of gingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth is: A. Through the contacts. Long path of insertion 213. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint: A. 0-5 mm 219. 1-2 mmB. Chronic periodontal abscessC. . Apical abscessD. Periodontitis occurs in. Angular bone loss 217. Horizontal bone resorptionB. Epithelial cellsC. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam: A. Vertical bone resorptionC. FibroblastB. Chronic alveolar abscess 216. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) 214. Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingivae around the remaining teeth. Salivary flowE. Oral flora 222. EDTAD. A. The term false pocket stands for.ErythrocytesD. Application of fluoride without surface preparation 223. Ethyl alcoholE. what your first decision would be: A. Tooth inclination and crowdingD. ChlorhexidineB. Which of the following would be your preferred procedure: A. Surface grinding followed by fluoride applicationB. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 220. The oral hygiene is not good. . Eugenol 224. Vest cells of malaiseE.mainly around the lower bicuspid and anterior teeth. Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparationD. Tooth shapeC. Infra bony pocketB. Cavity preparation for amalgam preparationE. MasticationB. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorationsC. H2O2C. Loss of periodontal attachment 27 C. Hyperplasia of the gum 221. A child with fracture of tooth at the apical third of the root. some areas of cementum appears to be soft. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection: A. What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation “build up”: A. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes 229. Rheumatic fever 230. Which is not an effect of :I. Root canal treatmentC. none of the aboveB. Necrotic pulp 227. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located: A. A. AnalgesiaIV.Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or radiolucencyB. II and IIIE. Leave it and observeD. . Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect in some papers/ . In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the buccal cuspC. I and IID. Apiectomy 225. Capped teethE. General anaesthesia A. Traumatised teethB. Under the disto lingual cusp 228. A. HypnosisV. what is the first thing to consider when you get a patient with intruded 11 and 12: A. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cuspB. Replace intruded teeth in positionB. All of the aboveC. ExtractionD. Excitement III. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with. DiabeticsB. Advice patient about consequencesC. Multi-rooted teethD. X-ray 226. SedationII. 28 A. Just erupted teethC. A. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product: A. Injection into vascular areaC. Pulpal necrosisC. III and IV “check Q137 too” 234. which are is contra indicated:I. . Apical abscessB. Acetyl salicylic acid A.characterised by:of itching and vesicalis on the upper labiumof:**using 100000 rpm and over rotors is:503 Service Unavailable No server is available to handle this request. HistamineC. Intravenous injection 233. The flap designD. Removal of enough boneB. PainB. Preoperative assessmentC. II. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI).I. All of the aboveB. Which of the following may be caused by newly placed restoration which interferes with theocclusion A. Paresthesia cutting and a rougher surfacecutting and a rougher surfacercelain jacket crown is. The use of general anaesthetic 236. I. PethidineIV. Enkephalins 232. BarbiturateII. Local anaestheticIII. IV and V 231. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is. The most important indication of malignant lesions is: A. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. Apical periodontitis 235. Injection without vasoconstrictorsD. Injection in supine positionB. None of the aboveC. SerotoninB. II and IIID. 2. p. p. Info and Rating api_11797_auralilas Share & Embed Related Documents PreviousNext 1. .MCQ 1060 Questions Download this Document for FreePrintMobileCollectionsReport Document This is a private document. p. p. p. p. p. 3. p.p. 4. . 5. p. . p.p. p. p. p. . 7.p. p. 6. p. p. 9. . p. p.p. p. 8. p. . p. p. p.p. 10. p. 11. 12. p. p. . p.p. p. 14.p. 13. p. . p. p. p. p. . p. p. 15. . p. NecrosisB. Gate theory about pain control is: A. From outside to inside 202. Corticosteroid 198. When doing pulpotomy with Formcresol. One major Gutta Percha pointC. Applying hypertonic Fluid on the dentine the transmission of fluid through tubules will be: A. what epithelial cells you can find: A. you will find: A. . Mechanical 203. From inside to outsideB. Painful 196. In periodontal membrane. AntibioticsB. 204. Epithelial rests of Malaise 201. the two most common micro-organisms are: A.A. Angioneurotic oedema. Lateral CondensationB. Laterally above condensed 200. In infected root canal. Mummification 197. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interactionof afferent fibre synapses. The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the root canal walls providing space for additional Gutta Percha is termed: A. Ledermix used in RCT to relieve pain because of. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus 25 199. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)B. Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by: A. A. AsymptomaticB. In melting gold. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by. negative thermal tests. Contains micro filledB. The current intensity is too highB. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it: A. There is no caries. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teethC. Back pressure porosityB. Proprioceptors 210. 26 A. If the investment is burnout rapidly.** A. The lingual flanges should be concave 207. oedema of the upper lip with redness and drynessB. . Better colour matching 212. A. The current intensity is too low 211.A. which part of flame we will use A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongueB. Reduced zoneB. Dimensional inaccuracy 209. Cracking of the investment 208. negative percussion and negative responseto palpation 205. Weak edge strength and lack of surface detailsB. Long path of insertion 213. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:** A. Overdenture advantage is. A. To increase the stability of the lower denture. TaperingB. In electro surgery. what will happen: A. The occlusal plane should be above the tongueC. the tissue may stick to the electrode because of . Oxidizing zone 206. Puffiness around the eyes. 0-3 mmC. ErythrocytesD. Alveolar boneB. Alveolar bone and gingiva 218. Chronic periodontal abscessC. the most common finding is. The normal range of gingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth is: A. The commonest elements which are found in periodontal membrane are:** A. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 220. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) 214. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint: A. Angular bone loss 217. Horizontal bone resorptionB. 2-3 mmD. Epithelial cellsC.Wrought metal is to be. Apical abscessD. “Main feature of suprabony pocket” A. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam: A. 215. Vertical bone resorptionC. In periodontitis. MarbleB. 1-2 mmB. . Vest cells of malaiseE. QuenchedC. A. Acute periodontal abscessB. 0-5 mm 219. A. Periodontitis occurs in. Chronic alveolar abscess 216. Through the contacts. Periodontal membraneC. FibroblastB. Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparationD. MasticationB.mainly around the lower bicuspid and anterior teeth. Application of fluoride without surface preparation 223. Loss of periodontal attachment 27 C. Oral flora 222. Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingivae around the remaining teeth. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorationsC. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection: A. Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or radiolucencyB. What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation “build up”: A. what your first decision would be: A. Tooth shapeC. Apiectomy 225. ChlorhexidineB. Root canal treatmentC. Cavity preparation for amalgam preparationE. . Salivary flowE. ExtractionD. H2O2C. some areas of cementum appears to be soft. Surface grinding followed by fluoride applicationB. Infra bony pocketB. Hyperplasia of the gum 221. Tooth inclination and crowdingD. The oral hygiene is not good. Eugenol 224. A. A child with fracture of tooth at the apical third of the root.The term false pocket stands for. Which of the following would be your preferred procedure: A. Ethyl alcoholE. EDTAD. I and IID. Multi-rooted teethD. X-ray 226. Just erupted teethC. Excitement III. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located: A. SerotoninB. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product: A. HypnosisV. Capped teethE. IV and V 231. General anaesthesia A. none of the aboveB. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes 229. SedationII. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect in some papers/ . In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the buccal cuspC. Leave it and observeD. A. II and IIIE. Rheumatic fever 230. Advice patient about consequencesC. I. All of the aboveC. 28 A. AnalgesiaIV. Traumatised teethB. DiabeticsB. A. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cuspB. Under the disto lingual cusp 228. Necrotic pulp 227. .what is the first thing to consider when you get a patient with intruded 11 and 12: A. Replace intruded teeth in positionB. Which is not an effect of :I. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is. II. PethidineIV. Intravenous injection 233. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. The most important indication of malignant lesions is: A. Preoperative assessmentC. Which of the following may be caused by newly placed restoration which interferes with theocclusion A. All of the aboveB. Tooth resorption 237. Apical abscessB. The flap designD. Apical periodontitis 235. which are is contra indicated:I. Pulpal necrosisC. A. None of the aboveC. Enkephalins 232. II and IIID. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI). Teeth movementD. The use of general anaesthetic 236.HistamineC. Local anaestheticIII. BarbiturateII. Paresthesia 29 C. Injection into vascular areaC. Removal of enough boneB. III and IV “check Q137 too” 234. Injection without vasoconstrictorsD. the . Injection in supine positionB. I. Acetyl salicylic acid A. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is. Patient with lower denture and complaining of paresthesia of the lower lip. PainB. Auricula Temporal NerveB. Sub-mandibular sialolithC. How would you treat Denture Stomatitis A. In cleidocranial dysplasia. ANUGE. A. PemphigusB. The nerve supplies TMJ is. Uni lateral swelling in the floor of the mouth occurs frequently with meal. Lichen PlanusB. what is the possiblediagnosis: A. Keratosis follicularisC. TetracyclineB. RanulaB. Herpes simplexC. you diagnosis is** A. Aphthous ulcer D. Pressure on mental foramenB. CystD. Early lose of primary teethB. Keratotic lesion surrounded by cold web like lines /Wickham’s Striae/ appears as lace-likenetwork on the buccal mucosa.most commoncause is. which of the following would expect to find: A. Pressure on the genioglossi Mylohyoid muscles 238. Mucocele 241. A. Nerve to masseter C. White sponge nevus 243. Nystatin + . Erythema multiforme 242. Erythema migransF. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia 240. Systemic penicillinC. Which two of the following conditions present as complete vesicles A. Facial nerve 239. . Which of the following conditions is not classified as a white lesion: A. LeukoplakiaD. 35. Lichen planus 248. Angular cheilitis in edentulous patient with complete denture is a result of: A.244. Geographic tongueD. An oral prodromal signs of Rubella are:** A. Koplik spotsC. 43 245. vitaminB. HyperparathyroidismC. Fibrous dysplasiaD. 5%-6% 30 B. Low vertical dimension 249. What is the percentage of leukoplakia that turn into cancer:** A. 25% 246. Hyperthyroidism 250. Paget’s diseaseB. Deficiency of .. 12. Osteogenesis imperfectaE. 33. 22B. The absence of lamina dura in radiograph is a feature of all of these except for:** A. 45C. 25D. Fordyce’s granulesB. Smoker’s keratosisC. 15. 10%C. Fordyce’s spotsB. What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth: A. None of the above 247. what would you do: A. Pain when eating hot foodC. Diabetic patient with moist skin. it will betwo days before impression gets to the laboratory for construction of the crown. Excision and extraction of teethC. Lingually 255. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray 252. Which impressionmaterial is preferred? A. . Pain when eating cold foodD. Administer O2C. ExcisionB. Thiokol or meraptan rubber C. Impression without elastomer in custom tray has been taken for crown preparation. Polyether B. How would you diagnose a periapical abscess: A. RotationB. Surgery and radiation 254. Buccally 31 C. moist mouth and weak pulse. Regional lymph nodeB. Administer adrenalineD. Cellulitis 251. Pain on percussionB. RadiationD. How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma: A.Which is usually found when a systemic infection is present: A. Inject insulin 253. Give glucoseB. In which direction you would extract a deciduous upper molar: A. Fever C. Condensation siliconeD. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pins in a vital molar tooth. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that during settingor in function the light cures material tends to: A. . Seal the margins better and completelyB. Posses greater fracture toughness 260. what type of amalgam mix would you prefer: A. 130-150° 259. Arrest of enamel carries by organic sulphidesB. 45-60°B. Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the compositeC. The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgam surface is: A. Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamelD. Undergo greater colour changeD.Vinyl polysiloxane 256. A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualitiesC. The enamel is to return to normal within 7 daysC. Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratiosE. Exhibit less wear on timeC. A large mix to ensure homogeneityB. If the sealant of bonding agent is not placed on part of enamel that has been etched by anacid solution. Salivary pellicle growth at the interfaceE. sequentially trituratedD. Setting contraction of the composite resin 258. 95-110°E. you would expect: A. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resin interface is most likely to be due: A. Several small mixes. A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed 257. Shrink rapidlyE. 45-80°D. 70-85°C. Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the compositeB. Less efficient cutting and a rougher surfaceC. the more number of cutting blades and low speed will result in: A. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceB. . Maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp A. In radiographs. None of the above 264. Prevents encroachment on the lingual pulp hornIV. 4mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceD. which one of the following is theMOST EFFECTIVE means for verifying adequate occlusal clearance A. Larger in radiographs than actual lesionD. I and IIB. I and IIIC. I I a n d I V D. All of the aboveE. Prevents encroachment on the buccal pulp hornIII. 2mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceB. Radiopaque areaB. 2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cuspsC. For an onlay preparation during the restoration of a tooth. Triangle with apex towards the tooth surfaceC.Continued enamel declassification in the etched areaD. an incipient carious lesion limited to the end of the proximal surface of posterior tooth appears as: A. In regards to carbide burs. More efficient cutting and a rougher surface 265. Remove unsupported enamelII. More efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceD. IV only 263. III and IVE. Slight attrition of the opposing tooth 261. Wax bite chew inB. 4mm reduction while following the original contour of the surface 32 262. The bur should be tilted lingually when preparing the occlusal surface of class II cavity on amandibular first premolar in order to:I. When restoring weakened cusps with dental amalgam you should consider: A. Teenager has swelling involving his upper lip. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that is mixed with mercuryE. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the swellingD. one of them is mercuryD. An acute angleB. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teethE. one of them is tin 267. fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on the left side. Anaesthetise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide instant reliefC.Proper depth cutsC. Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until swelling is reduced 269. Good if apex can be sealedC. The term TUGBEN?? is related to : “When used in connection with a master Gutta Percha conein endodontics” . copper and zincB. His body temperature is 39°. At which angle to the external surface of proximal cavity walls in a class II preparation for amalgam should be finished A. tin. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment of the canal 270. What is the first thing you would do after taking history andtemperature: A. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals. Refer him to physician 33 B. An angle of 45° 268. Poor B. The swollen area is soft. A right angleD. Choose statement that correctly defines the term AMALGAM: A. An obtuse angleC. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals. Amalgam is an alloy of two more metals that have been dissolved in each other inthe molten state. Articulating paper 266. Amalgam is a metallic powder composed of silver. Visual inspectionD.C. The prognosis of tooth with apical resorption is : A. the corner of his nose and a region under his left eye. Dependant upon periapical surgeryD. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of thecrownsC. Two canals with one foremanD. Two canals with two foremen 273. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatmentB. The extension of the filling is not critical 272. One canal with one foremanB. Tensile strength of the gutta perchaB. A. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thicknessB. Moisture contaminationB. Excessive firing temperatureC.A. Size of the coneD. Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars MOST COMMONLY have: A. Should extend to the level of the apex to minimize irritationB. compared wit full ceramic crowns for restoring anterior teeth is. Ability to watch the appearance of adjacent natural teeth . Overall conservative for tooth structureC. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain 274. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensiveoral reconstruction is whether. In root canal therapy it is generally accepted that the ideal root filling. Excessive condensation of the porcelainE. A. at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontalsupportD. A. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant theplanned reconstruction 275. One or two canals with one foremanC. Should extend slightly through the apex to ensure a complete sealC. Length of the cone 271. A. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healingD. An advantage of metal-ceramic crowns. The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crown is. Failure to anneal the platinum matrixD. Consistency of gutta perchaC. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mmE. Hardness was too greatC. Be invisibleD. Should be make thicker when short 288. The Fovea Palatinae are: A. Why do you construct a lower removable partial denture with lingual bar: A. Tension temperature was too highE. Plaque accumulation is less than lingual plateC. Which of the following is true regarding preparation of custom tray for elastomericimpression: A. It is used when the space between raised floor. Perforation provides adequate retentionC. Perforations are not made in the area over the prepared tooth 286. mouth and gingival margin isminimalB. Elastic limit was exceeded 285. Restrict tissue movement at the distal extension base of the partial dentureD. Adhesive is preferred over perforationB. Stabilise against lateral movementB.35 A. Prevent settling of major connectorsC. Ultimate tensile strength was too lowD. When a removable partial denture is terminally seated . Morphologically related to the formation of the premaxillaC. Apply retentive force into the body of the teethB. Exert no forceC. Ductility was too lowB. the retentive clasps tips should: A. Located on either sides of the midline close to the junction of the hard and softpalateD. Minimise movement of the base away from the supporting tissue 284. Closely related to the rugae of the palate . Adhesive is applied immediately before procedureD. Foramina covering the lesser palatine nerves and vesselsB. Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture clasp during its clinical use probably indicates that the: A. Resist torque through the long axis of the teeth 287. Greater occlusal loads can be applied by the patientB. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denturetherapy: A. Contour of gingival papillaB. Which statement BEST prescribe plaque: A. The gingivae of child is diagnosed on the basis of all of these except of: A. Contour of Nasmyth membraneD. AmalgamB. Sulcus depthC. 294. Tight filling of gingival collar 295. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can not be rinsed off the teethE. Trauma to extraction site 36 B. . Impossibility for anterior try inD. Excessive resorption of residual ridge 292. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can be rinsed off teethC. Increased the potential of infectionC. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting them from caries andperiodontal diseases 291. It is a soft film composed mainly of none calcified bacteria and can not be rinsed offthe teethD. HyperparathyroidismB. It is a soft film composed mainly of dextran and can be rinsed off teeth. Which one of following statement about Overdenture is not correct: A. Which one of the following statement is correct.289. Von Willebrand’s syndrome 293. Alveolar bone resorption is reducedD. Composite resin 290. It is a soft film composed mainly of food debris and can not be rinsed off teethB. Retention and stability are generally better than with conventional complete dentureC. Brown skin pigmentation does not occur in: A. Which of following restoration material its strength is not effected by pins: A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticleB. The elastic limit may be defined as the **. Denture resin are usually available as powder and liquid that are mixed to form a plastic dough. the microfill resins tend tohave. It is accumulative and cause brain poisonE. It is accumulative and cause liver poisonB. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strengthC. A. Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide Eugenol>Silicone 37 D. . Alginate> Zinc Oxide Eugenol> Silicone> Polysulphide 300. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum XC. The maximum elongation under tension that can be measured before failureC. Mercury is dangerous when it turns into vapour form because of. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strengthD. Silicone> Alginate> Polysulphide> Zinc Oxide EugenolC. A higher coefficient of thermal expansion and a higher crashing strengthB.** A. Alginate> Polysulphide> Silicone> Zinc Oxide EugenolB. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticleD.A. It induces neoplasia in the brain 298. Maximum strain that can be measured. Minimum stress in structureE. Alginate> Silicone> Polysulfide> Zinc Oxide EugenolE. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle 296. A. A. The minimum stress required to induce permanent deformation of a structureD. It induces neoplasia in the liver D. The maximum stress under tension that can be induced without failureB. A lower coefficient of thermal expansion and a lower crashing strength 297. In regards to the glass of quartz particles of filling restorative resin. It is accumulative and cause kidney poisonC. 299. the powder is referred to as. Rank the following impressions materials according to their flexibility A. highly fibrous tissueB. Growth of glass crystalsD. Highly vesiculated tissues 304. Acid-Base reactionB. A.Initiator B. A specially adapted. Slip plane lockingE. Their overall dimensions are slightly smaller than the original impressionC. Polymer C. Chondroitin-6-phosphateD. 302. Which one of the following types of pain is most likely to be associated with craniomandibular disorders: A. Hyaline cartilageC. Exacerbated pain by hot or cold foodB. . Chrome cobalt castsB. Wrought gold 305. A. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of stone dies used for crownfabrication. Monomer E. Glass Ionomer Cement sets because of. Solvent evaporation 303. The strength of the stoneD. Dimer 301. Inhibitor D. The hazard of aspiration of toxic materials during trimming of the dies. claspsconstructed of which material can be engage the deepest under cut: A.** A. When all other removable partial denture consideration remains unchanged. Wrought stainless steelD. The articular surface of the normal temporomandibular joint are lined with. They lack accurate reproduction of surface detailsB. Addition polymerisation reactionC. Nickel chrome castsC. Give him the syrup during sleep timeD. Report the patient is having expectorantC. Deciduous teeth have flatter contact areasC. All of the above 311. Deciduous teeth have a higher pulp horns and larger pulp chambersB. Mechanical equivalent at the compensating curveC. 1. A. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap of upper and lower incisorsB. Associated with muscle tendernessD. The difference between deciduous and permanent teeth are: A.2 ppm 310. Estimated by the equation: Incisal guidance = 1/8 of condylar guidance 307. 8 ppmD. 38 A. Associated with trigger spots related to the trigeminal nerve 306. Chronic inflammation of the pulpB. How many ppm “ Part Per Million” of fluoride are present in water supply in case of temperate climate:** A. The most resistant filling materials to fill class IV cavities are: A.Keeps patient awake at nightC. Necrosis of the pulp 308. 1 ppmB. When immature permanent molars that have been treated with Ledermix pulpcapping. Change sugar to sorbitol sweetener B. the best wayto help preventing caries is. The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:** A. Give him inverted sugar 309. . Same as condylar guidanceD. Child with rampant caries taking medicine with high quantity of sugar. 2 ppmC. the most probable pathology is. Deciduous teeth have thinner enamel surfaceD. Turning the needle 90° between two aspirations 314. you apply: A.D. All of the above 39 316. Silicates 312.Resins with silicone dioxide (SiO2)B. TeethB. Long pressureD. First acid etching to dentine and then bonding agentB. Silico-phosphateD. TMJF. Neuromuscular receptorsE. A. Receptors in periodontal membraneC. How would you extract 35? A. Labially 317. What is the best way to apply aspiration before injection: A. The method you will use to fill root canal of maxillary lateral incisor is: A. Laterally condensedC. Why the method of extracting lower 8’s by directing the extraction lingually isused:** A. Resins with glass or quartzC. Pressure for 2 to 3 secondsC. What controls the occlusion:**?? Check Boucher C. Short. Bonding agent directly to dentineC. Laterally above condensed 315. sharp pressure backwardsB. . LinguallyC. ProprioceptorsD. With dentin bonding agent. RotationB. One major Gutta Percha coneB. Chelating agent (EDTA) and bonding agent 313. Mesial pocketsD. . What are the most common errors when constructing partial denture: A. Resin enamelC. what is TRUE: A. Setting and hydroscopicB. Will require relining more often than a denture supported with teeth 323. Strength and rigidity 321. Below the height of contour B. Sinuous 325. Where is the retentive position on tooth according to the survey line: A. Bad positioning of the occlusal restsC. Buccal pocketsB. 5 mlB. Thinner boneC. Lingual pocketsC. Which periodontal pockets are evident on periapical x rays: A. Distal pocketsE. Incorrect design 324. In regards to distal free end saddle. Lingual deviation 318.Because of the roots directionB. What is the function of gypsum-binder in the investment:** A. 50 mlD. Resin layer 320. Next to gingival margins 322. What the maximum dose of 2% lignocaine without vasoconstrictors:** A. 10 mlC. 100 ml 319. Improper surveyB. Where do Maryland bridges lose retention often: A. Resin-metalB. HypercementosisD. Which Nerve is anesthetised in anterior border of ramus and 1 cm above occlusal plane of lower posterior teeth: . Pulpotomy 328. Zinc Oxide and eugenol ZOEB. Zinc phosphate cement 329. DiazepamB. Produce chelationD. Ca(OH)2C. TriangulationE. Occlusal anatomyB. Bone resorptionB.What factor do you consider the most important when storing the occlusal part of atooth: A. Which material is not compatible with composite resin: A. Tooth under occlusal trauma shows: A. Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia: A. Pulp cappingB. Function 326. Not necessarily produce acid 327. Necrosis of the pulpC. Root canal therapyC. Phenytoin 331. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)C. All dental plaque:** 40 A. All of the above 330. CarboxylateD. ErgotamineD. Treatment of gangrenous tooth: A. Produce acidB. Produce cariesC. Labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold core porcelain jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch. orthodontics problem and hearing lossD. Predispose to speech defects. A. Patients are more likely to have cardiovascular defect than the general population. Which of the following is false in regards to Cleft-Palate? A. the mesio buccal root of upper first molars is elongated which is the result of: A. X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis healingD. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosisB. May be submucousB. Slightly compress soft tissuesB. In an X ray. Too small vertical angulationD. Be clear of soft tissuesC. 334. . Porcelain is thinner than 1mm 336. A communicable diseaseC. Inclusion of platinum foilB. ZoE paste will accelerate healing 335. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is. Just in contact with soft tissues 337. Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal disease:** A. Long buccal nerve 332.A. Use of weak cementumC. More common in males than femalesC. Pontic replaces upper first molars in a bridge should be: A. the crown will appears: A. Voids of porcelainD. High angulation 333. Systemic diseases have no effects on it 41 E. Lingual nerveB. Too big vertical angulationC. Mesio angular horizontalB. 3 to 4 daysD. Dental plaque produces: A. LongC. A. The best location of pin in class II inlay is. PulpotomyD. Quick in setting 339. Dental cariesC.ShortB. NarrowD. the right treatment is: A. PulpectomyC. The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is: A. Not at all 341. Tacky adhesive to wallsB. Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgamB. Radio opaqueC. Contact area 340. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam 342. A. 3 to 4 weeksE. Mesial and distal angleC. Which is NOT characteristics of canal filing materials “obturation material” A. ChelationB. Acids 343. on x rays you find dent in dent. Immediately after applicationC. Where is the biggest thicknessB. Class V composite resin restorations can be polished. Not irritatingD. Caries which is close to the pulp chamber. 24 hours after applicationB. Better marginal sealing . Wide 338. Etching techniques are used always to: A. Small lingual pulpC.5mm 347. IVD. Too expensiveC. Not all sizes availableD. May cause tooth cracking 345. minimise the leakage of restorationsB. IIC. 1mmB. Upper premolar with MO cavity.42 B. The major disadvantage of self-threaded pin is: A. Friction lockedB. Better tensile strengthD. Concavity of distal root surface 348. IB. for aesthetic considerations 349. 1. what is important about the application of thematrix band: “the question has shown too as …. In which class of cavities do composite restorations show most durability: A. Less corrosionC. High lingual pulp hornE. . IIIE. How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp with amalgam: A.What is complicated by” A. High buccal pulp hornD.5mmC. The mesial concavity of the root surfaceB. 2mmD. Higher and immediate compressive strength 344. 2. V 346. Sjogren syndrome is characterised by: A. BleedingC. Why Class IV gold can not be used in cavity as a filling material: 43 A. . Can not be polished “burnished”B. AgranulocytosisB. The corrosive properties 353. the most uncommon result is:** A. Hard 18%B. Blister formationB. Rheumatoid arthritisD. Dryness of the eyesC. A. The type of gold that used for dental bridges is. In regards to Partial dentures. Wax if the remaining teeth occlude 355. Higher flow in room temperature 356. A. Candida Albicans 351. Type IV 75% 354. All of the above 350. Low temperature solidifying pointB. PainB. Long use of Tetracycline is characterised by:** A. In regards to indirect compare to direct wax technique:** A. Hard in room temperatureC. If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture. Paraesthesia 352. A. The most common characteristic symptom of malignant tumours occurring in lower jaw is. how do you establish reliable vertical dimension. Post operative painC.Dryness of the mouthB. Secondary cariesD. Long buccal nerve 360. Immunofluorescence of liquefied layer 44 363. Loss of contactsB. Posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies:** A. Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars will anesthetise: A. Impetigo 362. Denture stomatitis is treated with. Which is not a malignant lesion: A. Herpes simplexB. 8. Recurrent ulceration aphthaeC. Pocket formationD. TMJ problemE. 7 and 6 except the mesio buccal root of 6B. Tetracycline lozengesC. Mycostatin . Lingual NerveB. Band of lymphocytes inflammation and hyper parakeratosisC. AmphotencinB. A.Lower compressive strength 357. your diagnosis would be: A. 7 and 6 361. All of the above 358. LeukoplakiaB. 8. Smooth rete pegsB. patient complains of itching and vesicalis on the upper labium (Vermillion region)every year. Erythema migrans /Geographic tongue/ 359. Slight tiltingC. A. The effects of tooth removal in healthy individuals can show as. What is the typical feature of Lichen planus:** A. Marsupialisation is a technique used in the treatment of: A. Paget’s disease shows in the early stages in jaws: A. Abscesses 369. CystsC. Ground glassC. The most serious complications which may occur from abscess of max canine is: A. RadiographsB. Extra oral swellingC. Thermal 367. Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmed by: A. BiopsyD. Granulomas. Tenderness of tooth to pressureB. Lacrimal duct stenosisD. Blood countD. CellulitisB. Damage to infra orbital nerves 366. Microscopic examination of smearsB. Which antibiotic administered in childhood may result in tooth . cysts and chronic periapical abscesses may mostly be differentiatedby : A. Intermittent pain 368. Orange peelD. Cotton woolB. Electric pulp testC. Cavernous sinus thrombosisC. Beaten copped 365. The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Serological exam 370. PericoronitisB. BiopsyC.364. Streptomycin 371. At the mandibular symphysis 45 372. Ameloblastoma occurs MOST frequently: A. Congestive cardiac failureC. The dentist should consult the patient’s physicianbecause: A. What is theMOST LIKELY diagnosis: A. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operationC. MeaslesB. he presents for multiple extractions. . Erythema multiformC. AnxietyB. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortexC. she has painful cervical lymphadenitisand a temperature of 39°c. oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. Amoxicillin 2 gram an hour before operation orallyB. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment 375. PenicillinB. An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administrationof antibiotic prior to removal of teeth. indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. A patient whose hands fell warm and moist is MOST likely to be suffering from:** A. Thyrotoxicosis 374. A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and a history of steroid therapy.discolouration: A. In the maxillaC. TetracyclineC. Near the angle of the mandibleB. A 12 year old girl complains of sore mouth. until aweek ago. Patient will need haematological evaluation 373. Patient is more susceptible to infectionB. Inject rapidly 378. Quaternary ammonium 379. Sodium hypochloriteB. The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitis is: A. ChlorhexidineC. AgranulocytosisB. Herpes zoster virusD. To reduce the side effects risk of local anaesthetic injections. Stevens-Johnson syndrome 376. Sever uncontrolled diabetesC. 12 times a minuteB. Borrelia vincentii 377. Aplastic anaemiaD. Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. 24 times a minuteC. . Use the smallest effective volumeC. Aspirate before injectionB. Mumps 46 E. Herpes simplex virusC.Herpetic gingivostomatitisD. At what rate is closed chest cardiac compression should be in an adult:** A. 50 times a minuteD. you should follow all of the following EXCEPT: A. GlutaraldehydeD. Leukaemia 380. Herpes simplex bacteriaB. Alcohol 70%E. Use the weakest efficient percentage strengthD. The most potent viricidal properties: “another format of the same answer: Indicatewhich of the following has viricidal properties” A. Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is not used alone as a general anaesthetic agent because of:** A. Which type of cells does an abscess contain: A. Polymorphonuclear leukocytesC. Viral infectionD. X-RayB. How can a periodontal pocket be recognised:** A. Epithelial cells 385. GICC. . Adverse affects on liver C. Sharp explorer F. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentrationB. Avoid OsteomyelitisB. Bitewing radiographE. Periodontal marker D. The presence of sulphur granules is diagnostic of:** A. CandidosisC. EosinophilsD. Mast cellsB. Control pain 387. Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to:** A. Poor analgesics affects 382. ActinomycosisB. Wrought base metal crown 384. Study cast 383. Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe/C. Which is the LEAST likely to cause Xerostomia: A. Composite resinD. Keratocyte 386. AmalgamB. The final material you use for endodontically treated deciduous molars is:** A.80 times a minute 381. Emotional reactionC. Occlusal traumaB. Liver damageC. Antidepressants drugsD. Intact vesicles are MOST likely to be seen in:** A. Herpes simplex infectionB. Cervical cementum 392. Submandibular sialolith 388. Aphthous ulcerationD. Cicatricial pemphigoid 389. The crystal alveolar boneC. Chronic inflammatory periodontal disease originates in: A. Coarse food 393. MucoceleB.Sjogren’s syndromeB. Heart diseaseB. Painful salivary gland are MOST likely to be indicate to:** A. A patient with an acetone odour would be suspected suffering from: A. CalculusC. Which is the most important local factor in the aetiology of periodontal disease: A. MumpsC. The marginal gingivaB. Pemphigus vulgarisE. Sjogren’s syndrome 390. Oral lichenoid reaction 47 C. Which of the following does state BEST the morphology of periodontal ligament fibres: . Diabetes 391. Brushing habitsD. Whole faceC. he has taken insulin in the morning. Which of the following is LEAST to cause toxicity from local anaesthetic injection: A. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling 602. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor D.A. Maxilla 396. MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of deciduous molar is: A. MandibleD. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hoursB. A 65 year old patient needs extraction of 44. Wavy 394. the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occurs: 70 C. Injecting in supine positionB. Loss of facial contour 397. Injecting in vascular areaC. this would MOSTLY affects the growth of:** A. In regards to third molars surgery: A. Loss of speech soundC. ElasticB. What preoperative advice you should give: . Antibiotic cover is compulsory 603. After the age of 6 years. If a child’s teeth do not form. Alveolar boneB. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swellingC. LevityE. Non striatedD. Intravenous injections 395. Loss of arch lengthB. StriatedC. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and aggravated by stress andalcohol. Take more sugar B. A patient 37 year old. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover. Commonly related to radiograph angulation 607. suture when bleeding has stoppedC. A mandibular permanent first molar had to be extracted. Ampicillin cover. give heparin and suture later E. 3g Amoxil. She has????. Indicative of attachment lossC.A. CEJ to base of pocketB. Medication increases preoperatively 604. Both arches the same sideD. The probable diagnosis is: A. Trigeminal neuralgiaD. Associated with periodontal pocketD. What is your management: A. Patient needsextraction. MigraineB. Pathognomonic of periodontal diseaseB. Patient with prosthetic heart valve taking 7. Top of the gingiva to the base 606. with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to hismaxillary posterior teeth. Maintain normal dietC. suture after surgical removalB. Loss of the gingival attachment is measured between: A. Adjacent teethB. Antibiotic 2 hours beforeD. Temporal neuritis 608. Cluster headacheC. stop warfarin. Absence of clearly defined crystal lamina dura is because: A. stop warfarin. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover. Oral exam is negative. Full mouth .5 mg warfarin. this will affect: A. Teeth in the same quadrantC. 3g Amoxil. give heparin and suture later D. stop warfarin and suture later 605. Drug inducedC. What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:** A. Primarily infiltrate of lymphocytesC. What is the histopathology of the pathogenesis of the plaque following 21 days of plaqueaccumulate: A. Plaque inducedD. Apposition of inferior boarder of mandible 71 610. The MOST common cause of gingival enlargement is: A. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient 614. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phaseB. Apposition of alveolar processC. Lymphoma of parotid 611. Resorption of anterior ramus and apposition posteriorlyB. Carcinoma of the parotidC. Infiltrate of neutrophils 612. HereditaryB. Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis 613.609. Infiltrate of plasma cells and early bone involvementD. Primarily infiltrate of plasma cellsB. The places for new erupted mandibular molars are created by: A. This is most likelyto be: A. What is INCORRECT in HIV associated periodontitis:** A. Picture of ANUG superimposed with RPPB. painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topicallyC. Spontaneous bleeding interproximalC. Leukaemia . Pleomorphic adenomaB. A patient comes with a firm. Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytesD. Amelogenesis imperfectaC. Which is wrong in regards to (water jet spray) hydrotherapy: A. Which of the following procedures should beemployed:** A. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct the patient to returnin six monthsB. If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characteristic by:** A. Hypodontia or anodontia 72 619. the tuberosity is fractured. Remove the tuberosity and fill the defect with Gelfoam then suture. gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is youtreatment: A. Removes required pellicle 618.615. chipping andattrition of enamel that would MOSTLY be: A. . Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplastyB. Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses for re-examinationD. Stop medication 616. leave in place and suture 620. During extraction of maxillary third molar. scaling. root planningC. FluorosisB. Removes plaqueC. Oral prophylaxis. Does not harm gingivaeB. Repeat the biopsy 621. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if requiredC. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 617. it remains in place attached to the mucoperiosteum. A patient has improperly formed DEJ. however. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not malignantC. reduction in size of pulp chamber. you would:** A. Remove the tuberosity and sutureB.D. A 13 year old has enlarged gingivae. An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in 50 years oldfemale reveals chronic inflammation. Viral infectionB. 4-6 times a minute 623. What would you do if the systole is elevated:** A. Candidosis 628. Flexion of the neck 73 630. How do treat the cause of airway obstruction: A. Calm down the patient 625. Investigate systemic cause 626. MeaslesD. How many time do you breath in mouth to mouth resuscitation: A. What cause a reduce of pulmonary ventilation: A. 10-12 times a minuteB. Fontanelles 627. DiabetesC. . Extension of the neck B. Koplik’s spots are associated with one of the following: A.What is the MOST common consequence of an allergic response to medication: A. RubellaE. What is Von Reckling hausen disease: A. NeurofibromaB. Which are non-calcified areas in the child’s cranium: A. Skin rash “dermatitis” with swelling of lips and eyes 622. Laryngeal muscle paralysisB. Air way obstruction 624. Necrosis of bone produced by ionizing radiation 629. What would you do if the diastole is elevated: A. Addison’s diseaseC. Mouth to mouth respirationC. supine 636. AspirinD. Cushing’s disease 635. LeucopoeniaB. the signs are. Diabetes mellitusB. Poor surgical techniquesC. LeukocytosisD. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneouslyB. Acute pyogenic bacteria infection may result in:** A. Antibiotic therapyB. shallow respiration.your first management is: A. moist skin. Whooping coughC. weak pulse. Patient has fainted.How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before extraction: A. Bright’s diseaseF. Recumbent position. 6000000 units of benzoyl penicillinB. Multiple myelomaD. LymphocytosisE. . Herpes simplexB. Eosinophilia 633. Codeine 632. Nitro glycerine sub linguallyD. Oral mucosa and skin pigmentation occurs in patient with:** A. Bacterial endocarditis 634. blanched face. NeutropeniaC. Squamous cell carcinomaE. Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated in patient before oral surgery with: A. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively 631. Which is LEAST likely to cause bleeding after surgical operation: A. 639. Which of the following is TRUE: A. OedemaB. In regards to the conditions where you have to prescribe antibiotic prior to dental treatment: A. By passD. All of the above 640. Coxsackie virus 641. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditisC. LeukaemiaC. Valve replacementE. Vitamin K 642. Acute infection 637. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of ANUGB. Rheumatic fever B. Uncontrolled diabetesF. Patient who has WBC count of just over 100000 is most likely suffering from:** A. LeucopoeniaB. Perio disease is a primary cause of loss of teeth after 35 years of age. HaemorrhageC. The main vitamin to synthesis prothrombin is: A. The immediate concern in the management of facial trauma should be: A. Periodontitis is the most common problem in teenageE. Herpangina is caused by: A. Polycythemia 638. Securing a blood units to replace any lossB. . Trauma of occlusal factors causes cleft or fibrous thickening of marginal gingivaeC.Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by: A. All Perio pockets can be detected by x rays 74 D. A young patient presented with rheumatic fever and suspected allergy to penicillin. Checking the breath and insure a free airwaysD. Delayed healingC. colitis during 5 weeks. ChloromycetinB. You will find the same signs of: A. Improper eye sightD. . Fixed dilated pupils 644. LeaningE. Sever headacheF. Erythema multiformeC. OsteoporosisD. Adrenal suppression 646. Shock C. What is NOT A SIGN of neurological trauma: A. EuphoriaH. Esophagitis. Theantibiotic of choice is: A. Achromycin 645.Fixation of fracturesC. ErythromycinE. Adrenal suppressionB. All of the above 647. Buffered penicillinD. ExcitementB. VomitingG. SulphonamideC. Disorder of steroid will result in: A. Patient under treatment with corticosteroids may develop: A. Multiple myeloma 75 B. herpes simplex. Neurological consultation 643. Atrophic oral and gastric mucosaC. Dehydration of DNA 651. Why are streptococci resistant to penicillin:** A. Near the same size . None of the above 649. Iron deficiency is a featureB. AmphetamineD. What does not show in Cleidocranial dysplasia:** A. All of the above 650. 653. Delayed eruption of permanent teethE. In regards to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or “Paterson and Kelly syndrome”: A. Steam under pressure sterilisation is the best method to kill microorganisms. Dysphagia and angular cheilitisD. Patient with morphine coma.AIDS 648. BradykininB. EpinephrineC. what is the medication of choice to reverse its act: A. Retention of maxillaD. When comparing the mesio distal length of second deciduous molar with the length of 2 nd premolar. we will find the deciduous tooth is: A. How does it work: A. Predisposing oral cancer E. Coagulation of plasma proteinB. Delayed closure of fontanellesC. Defective formation of claviclesB. Naloxone 652. Shorter C. They produce penicillinase. Longer B. Hyperdontia can be seen in: A. History 655. BleedingB. HBs AgC. How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand’s disease:** A. Which of the following does not carry a risk of infection from hepatitis B patient: A. Like a haemophilic child 656. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva 838. Protects parotid glandD. Like a diabetic childC. . Origin of masseter muscleB. Origin of temporalisC. Bleeding in periodontal ligament 837. Hypodontia can be seen in: A. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis” 840. Papillon le fever syndromeD. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis”B.654. Down’s syndromeC. Rickets 839. Which is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal disease:** A. Insertion of lateral pterygoid 657. HBs Ag antigensB. How do you diagnose trigeminal neuralgia MOST accurately: A. Down’s syndromeB. The zygomatic process serves as: A. Treatment of patient with herpes simplex:** 94 E. Like a normal childB. regular review and maintenanceC. Loss of the first deciduous molar in 10 years old child required: A. No treatment 845. A patient 8 years old has 3 of first premolars erupted with swelling on the ridge of the un-erupted premolar. Osteomyelitis 847. Nasal antrostomy 846. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to help with eruption 844. Surgical opening of canine fossaC. Remove the dentigerous cystB.HBe Ag 841. What is your management: A. Surgery. Evaluate the case radiographically and then decide whether space maintainer isneeded or notC. Reduce exposure timeB. Odontogenic keratocyteB. Which one of the following is expansile lesion of jaw bone:** A. Oral hygiene. Removes low energy x rays 843. Central haemangioma 95 C. The MOST frequent retained deciduous teeth in permanent dentition are: . Band and loop to maintain spaceB. Which is the MOST conservative treatment for periodontal disease: A. Soft tissues recision to allow eruptionC. sub-gingival debridement. sub-gingival debridement. Oral hygiene. sub-gingival debridement 842. Palatal root displaced into the antrum while extracting. X ray shows a fully developed crown and ¾ roots development with no other pathology. Through the alveolar B. what is your decision to retrieve it: A. Radicular cystD. Filter is used in x ray machine to: A. regular review and maintenanceB. The mandible angleB. The ideal ClassI incisor relationship has been produced and 14. The tensile nodes are located at: A. Glycogen 849. Periapical disease 851. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects 850. Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry DOESNOT give: A. After you have successfully treated an Angle’s Class II division I malocclusion. Full unit Class IIB.A. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a BenzodiazepamC. LivenB. Class ID. What molar occlusion will there be at the end of treatment when all spaces are closed: A. Upper lateral incisorsB. Lower central incisorsD. Upper central incisorsC. ½ unit class IIC. Full unit Class III 852. Formcresol fixation is used in deciduous dentition in: A. Second lower molarsE. The MOST frequently synthesized substance by Streptococcus mutans is: A. Post operative headacheD. Mechanical exposureD. A good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessionsB. The arches are now wellaligned. . FructoseC. Necrotic pulpB. GlucanD. 24 were extracted. Carious exposureC. Second upper molars 848. ½ unit Class IIIE. What is the range of the visible light cure beam: A. Internal carotid level 853. At least 10 minutesC. When restoring with GIC base and composite laminationD. 5 minutes at 20ºCB. Until it clears upD. ImmunofluorescenceB. The fixing time for dental x ray should be: A. 2 minutes at 40ºC 856. When is LEAST required gingival groove: A. 5 minutes at 20ºCB. 200-300 nmC. 470 nm or 450-500 nm 858. Until it clears upD. Reduces the flexibility of filmsB. When restoring with GIC for root cariesC.The jugular-digastric interactionC. Mylohyoideus intersectionD. At least 10 minutesC. Herpangina is the MOST reliable diagnosis is by:** A. 400-430 nmD. Serology 854. Metallic Plato backing the intra oral films are for:** A. . The developing time for dental x ray should be: A. Reduces patient exposure to x raysC. When restoring with GIC for abrasionB. Increases the bending capacity of films 96 855. 2 minutes at 40ºC 857. MicroscopyC. 100-120 nmB. Complete debridement of root canal. Just supragingival whenever is possibleB. ChloridesD. Sulphur oxidesB. Remove restoration. swelling of upper lip and nose. analgesic and antibiotic 97 D.C. OxygenC. Parallel to occlusal planeD. Radiograph shows anenlargement of periodontal ligament space of 11 which has a large restoration without a base. At the junction of tooth and amalgam core 865. Use a flat fissure bur C. Antibiotic. analgesic followed by root canal treatment after remission of acutephase. Which is TRUE in regards to the preparation of occlusal rests: A. At right angle to the long axis of toothE. Repair defect with unfilled resins 861. Replace the defective filingB. When you find ditching in an amalgam filing you would: A. Subgingival to reduce ability of recurrent cariesD. pain. According to the depth of gingival creviceC. The intensity of the blow was too low to cause pulp death 862. Use an inverted cone bur B.When restoring with amalgam 859. . Cervical finish line of full veneer crown preparation should be placed: A. Recision and antibioticB. Corrosion and discolouration of amalgam restorations is usually caused by: A. apply a sedative dressing with corticosteroids 864. What is the reason that pulp calcified after trauma: A. None of the above 863. Over trituration 860.What would your treatment be: A. Patient presents with fever of 39ºC. To increase surface areaB. AestheticB. All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap except of: A. May cause irritation to mucosaB. The adhering of tissues on the surgical electrode usually means: A. Is a thermoplastic material 869. EDTA 871. Mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteumC. Hedstrom fileC. Swallowing 868. Does not really change the surface areaD. Increase the chemical bonding capabilityE.Why do we itch enamel for composite restorations: A. How do remove the smear layer in root canal treatment: A. Zinc oxide impression material: A. Use of 0. Which of the following will NOT be used in determination of vertical dimension: A. To decrease surface areaC. Base has an adequate blood supplyD. Gothic arch tracingD. Base is wider than free marginB. None of the above 870.5% hypochlorite sodiumB. Why do you over pack amalgam: A. Flap wider than bony defect that will be present at conclusion of operationE. Current intensity is too highB. . Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone 867. Dispersion plate not applied to patientD. PhoneticsC. Current intensity is too lowC. Decrease the chemical bonding capability 866. Lingual of upper molarsD. All of the above 875. . Degree of taper E.To ensure excess mercury reaches the surface 872. what is the optimum depth for a pin hole in a tooth: A. Cross sectionC. 4-5mmB. Buccal of upper molars 874. MaterialD. To long 98 873. How will the tooth appear: A. A lateral incisor labial to the arch needs to be restored in normal alignment with PFM retraction. Less than 2mmD. Approximately 2mmC. Which of the following is more prone to crack: A. Right angleC. Buccal of lower molarsB. 45 angle 877. Why are three tripod marked on a cast being surveyed: A. Proximal cavosurface walls in Class II preparation for the reception of an amalgam. Obtuse angleD. 1-1. LengthB. Should befinished at which angle to external surface: A. In vital pulp therapy. Acute angleB.5mm 876. Too wideB. Lingual of lower molarsC. To narrowD. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm depends on: A. Too shortC. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of existing caries 881. To orient cast to surveyor C. An irregular shaped void on surface of a gold cast would indicate that: A. . First molar> first premolar> second premolar B. Burning out of wax was inadequateD. What control tooth or teeth should be used when testing a suspected pulpally involved tooth: A. What effect do fissure sealants have on caries progression: A. Soluble in chloroformB. In regards to connectors on dentures. Contralateral and opposing teethC. What is CORRECT in regards to periodontal surface area in mandibular teeth: A. The MAJOR disadvantage of Gutta Percha is: A. which of the following is correct: A. Major connector should be rigid as possibleB. Adjacent tooth and contralateral teethB.To orient cast to articulator B. Too weak for narrow canals 880. All of the above 883. Air carried into mouldC. The powder/water ratio for the investment was too high 879. A fragment of investment had been carried into the mouldB. Test only suspected tooth/teethE. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of freshly established cariesB. Opposing and adjacent teethD. Minor connector should engage undercuts 99 882. Canine> first premolar> second premolar C. To provide guide planes 878. Canine> lateral incisor> central incisor 884. Secondary caries may develop 886. Use thick mix of cement 885. Masseter muscle 888. BrightnessB. Wait for an hour before pouring 890. discrepancy is about 0. The MAIN CAUSE of gingivitis in partial dentures patients is: A. CondyleC. In regards to marginal leakage in amalgam: A. Plaque accumulation 891. Pit and fissure caries start at: A. After been left in water for an hour D. how long should have been made prior taking impression: A. Value 889. bottom of the fissureB. Relieve cast from the insideB. Take a new impression and make new crownC. Coronoid processB. Burnish marginsD. The wider the gap the better the chance of secondary cariesB.3mm what would you do: A. What interferes with maxillary denture in posterior vestibular fold: A. In regards to shade. Movable component of the non-rigid connector in a fixed bridge is placed. Immediately after fabricating itC. Placement of denturesB. . Acrylic self-cure special trays.Cast crown fits on die but not on tooth. walls of the fissure 887. Chroma is: A. Saturation of hueC. Seal the margin with fissure sealant would prevent further breakdownC. 12 hrsB. Which of thefollowing is contra indicated: A.Which of thefollowing is TRUE: 100 A. Which is the distal attachment ofsuperior hard lateral plate 895. Fixed bridge with canine and central incisor as abutmentB. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced 894. or thin plates. 1mm 898. Relaxation of all muscles so that the only forces on the mandible are the forcesagainst the gravity 896. How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with amalgam onlay: A. Formed of. Contraction of the suprahyoid musclesD. When lateral incisor is lost. Which of the following DOES NOT cause depression of the mandible: A. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten carbide>amalgam>acrylicC. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten Carbide>Amalgam>Acrylic 897. Tungsten carbide>Porcelain>Human enamel>acrylicB. Contraction of temporalisC. The zone where displacing forces are neutralB. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate related to hardness: A. or having. How long it would take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filing for a tooth with a periapical lesion: A. Non-rigid connector with central incisor as abutment 893. Mesial drift causes unseating of the distally placed connector 892. patient has Class II Division II type with deep bite. Which is the neutral zone: A. Contraction of the infrahyoid musclesE. What is the Bilaminar Zone: A. . two laminae. Contraction of lateral pterygoidB. 2 mm to achieve a good retention formB. 2mm to achieve a good resistance formC. Should be placed on the longer retainer B. fistula should be treatedby: A. 27 years old female. Autoclave at 121ºC “250ºF” under 15psi for 20 minsD. shows sudden oedematous rash and collapses after an injection of barbiturates. None of the above 905. o. All of the above will achieve sterilisation 904.Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operativebleeding: A. Antibiotic coverageC. Surgical incisionB. Which of the following procedures will not achieve sterilization: A. . 3 months 899. A & D are correctE. To increase the setting time of phosphate cements you would: 101 A. Gastric ulcer C. Use a cold glass slab 902.M. Your management is: A. Hot air at 160ºC “320ºF” for 90minsB. The major cause of mentalis muscle hyperactivity is: A. The usual root canal procedures for non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula 901.6 monthsB. 50 years old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he “bled all night”. Boiling water at 100ºC “210ºF” for 2 hoursC. Dry heat at 177ºC “350ºF” for 60minsE. 1 monthC. Tongue thrust 900. Class II Division IB. Blood pressure reading of 180/110B. Elevated prothrombin timeD.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline with oxygen administration 903. I. When treating a tooth with a non-vital pulp with a fistula presented. MucoceleB. Lesions may present anywhereD. Heltozygo?? Marrow graftD. painless nodulewithin the substance of parotid gland. Lesions may present on legsE. Use lead collimator 102 910. Benign mixed tumour D. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis 906. firm. Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysisD. Never accompanied with skin lesionsB. Lymphocytic bone graftB. Density of lamina dura 911. Lymph nodeC. Cortical bone graftE. Mitosis of osteoblastC.Long bone growth by: A. What is TRUE in regards to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus: A. This MOST likely is: A. Cancellous bone graft 908. Which is NOT CHARCTERISTIC of dentinogenesis imperfecta: . A patient states that for ALMOST a year now. The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is: A. she has had a rubbery. Sialolith with encapsulations 909. Always accompanied with skin lesionsC. The best reading on radiograph to diagnose ankylosis in deciduous molar is: A. Lesions may present on arms 907. Mitosis in osteoblastB. Squamous cell carcinomaE. Bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenetic potential is: A. Freeze-dried bone graftC. Presence of true pocketD. Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teethD. Presence of subgingival calculusF. The MOST stable area to evaluate the craniofacial growth is: A. DilacerationB. Taurodontism 913. adequate archlength. Child with less than normal number of teeth. Expansion screw plate 915.A. D & E 917. 7 years child with Class I malocclusion. Apical migration of gingival epitheliumE. What is your management: A. Nasal floor B. Dull pain on closingC. Oral screenB. ConcrescenceE. mandibular lateral incisor is larger than usual. . C. your diagnosis is:** A. GeminationC. Cranial vaultC. Hawley plateE. Tongue thrust with tongue to lip swallow is seen in: A. on x rays it shows with two roots and two roots canals. Anterior cranial base 914. MobilityB. Head cap therapyC. Naso maxillary complexE. Occlusal planeD. Incompetent lips 916. Dentinal tubules are more than usual 912. Clinical indications of pathogenic chronic periodontitis: A. slight version of maxillary Class I. FusionD. Mobility caused by excessive forces on normal periodontal ligament 103 919. What is TRUE in regards to primary occlusal trauma: A. Distal flutingB. Split thickness flap 918. Double flapB. In advance periodontitis with marked mobility. Crosses placental barrier B. Apically positioned flapE. Which isthe procedure of choice to obtain coverage of the root surface: A. Sub-epithelial tissue graftC. Modified wide flap 921. the dentist BEST approach for elevatingflap is to use: A. Stripping procedureC.To prevent exposure of a ?????? on a permanent root. exposed wide area of dental roots. To improve comfort and function 920. Long attached gingivaC. Which of the following is not a property of Fluoride ion: A. Apically positioned graftD. Supra bony pockets distal to molars 922. teeth should be splinted: A. . Free gingival graftE. Excretes rapidly by kidneyD. Full thickness flapD. Produces extrinsic tooth stain 923. What does contra indicate distal wedge in molars’ area: A. Bacteria staticE. Deposits in boneC. Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molarsD. Examination reveals area of gingival recession. Free gingival autograftB. Hyper mineralisation and surface dentineB. Under cut area 926. 4 months 930. How long it would take to see the dentinal bridge after direct pulp capping by using Calciumhydroxide:** 104 A. The FIRST advantage of using 100000 rpm and over rotors is: A. Inhibits acid demineralisation of enamel 925. MaterialD. 1:1 . Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm Does not relate to: A. Can not be perforated 927. Effective in incorporated into dental plaqueB. 4 weeksC. LengthB. LEAST use of blood count: A. Infectious mononuclears 928. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities 924. Protrusive movement in wax: A.Two conditions of enamel facilitate post eruptive uptake of fluoride element: A. Less vibration on patient 929. 6-8 monthsD. Degree of taper E. 2:3B. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisationC. In regards to topically applied fluoride : A. The OPTIMUM crown to root ratio for abutment tooth is:** A. Cross sectionC. 6-8 weeksB. Carious exposure of pulp in otherwise asymptomatic toothC. What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping: A. Patient has been coming to your clinic for several times complaining about soreness under the denture. Dividing third lower molars roots 937. Patient comes to you complaining of pain in a tooth. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cementB. Haemangioma 936. Elevators are not used in: A. X ray. Accidental exposure of pulpB. Use of inhalation general anaesthesia: A. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks 938. What is the difference between arcon and non arcon articulator: A. How would you treat hyperaemia “hyperaemic tooth”:** A. What does contraindicate bridge works: A. remove filling and restore with temporarily filling 940. Purplish lesions on the buccal mucosa that have been there since birth. In arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment 935. Calcium hydroxideC. Halothane should not be less than 5%B. Prevents distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth 933. Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps 934. what would you do: A.931. Elasticity of impression material will lead to ideally: A. the diagnosis is: A. Long edentulous span which will lead to damage of abutments 932. what would you do: A. Corticosteroid paste 939. the tooth is filled with composite longtime ago. . Which of the following elements is not found in normal periodontal membrane: A. Epithelial cellsC. Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is likely to be caused by: A. FibroblastB. Vest cells of malaiseE. ErythrocytesD. Top of the gingiva to the base 944. Acromegaly 105 B. CEJ to base of pocketB. Place sealant on newly erupted teeth 943. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 946. Giant cell lesionD. Enough proximal surfaceB.Oxygen must not be less than 30% 941. Primordial cystsE. Periodontal pocket is measured between: A. Too wide bucco lingual embrasureC. Missing proximal contacts 947. For fissure and sealant treatment to be a part of the primarily retentive care: A. Paget’s diseaseC.25N to measure pocket depth: A. . Which of the following situations make periodontal disease more sever: A. Dental cysts 942. When you apply a pressure of 0. The auxiliary occlusal rest on tooth for partial denture should be placed: A. 4 mm indicates periodontitis 945. Place sealant on teeth which are at high risk of cariesB. Angioneurotic oedemaB. . Near fulcrum lineD. In the crown and the rootD. Swallowing will aid in the diagnosis of: A. Between crown and cementB. No dental treatment may be due to neuronic of neoplasmsD. Adjacent to edentulous spaceC. Away from fulcrum line 948. The reason that endodontically treated teeth are weak is: A. where does failureoccur: A. Which is NOT a result of toxic dosage of local anaesthetic: A. RanulaD. The dental management would be: A. 58 years old male has had a 60 yo WM course of radiation given for carcinoma of tongue.Away from edentulous spaceB. HypotensionC. Thyroglossal duct cystC. Loss of blood supplyB. Between core and cementC. Loss of coronal tissues 1005. In the core and the margin preparation 949. A vital tooth has a crown cemented to a pin retained amalgam cored. Hypertension 950. Segmental dental clearance and closure to eliminate problemsC.Patient complains of pain associated with poor dentition. Palatal 1004. Immediate extraction of any poor teeth under local anaesthetic with antibioticcoverageB. Branchial cystB. Respiratory depressionD. Retention cyst 111 D. Oxide Zinc and eugenolC. Too thick application of pure gold surface conditioner B. Occasional sensitivity in a shallow class I amalgam restoration after two days would bemanaged by: A. Between one opaque and two opaque stages 1011. Between opaque and bisque stagesD.Clearance of poor dentition followed by hyperbaric oxygen treatment plus a primaryclosure of wounds under antibiotic coverageE. Replace old filing immediatelyB. Repair with unfilled resinC. Ledermix 1008. PulpalgiaB. Signs of reversible pulpitis 1010. On examination of composite restoration you find a dark attain: A. Contamination at the porcelain metal interfaceC. When should not contaminate metallic framework during fabrication of porcelain fused tometal crown: A. No extraction as radionecrosis is an important sequelae 1006. Replace the compositeB. Tell patient the discomfort will disappear after 4 t o6 weeksE. “Pop off” of a porcelain veneer from under the lying gold crown is due to:** A. The MOST common occurrence after direct pulp capping is: A. Between preheat and opaque stagesC. Apply topical fluoride at the margin 1007. Under firing the opaque layer D. Pulp capping in mature tooth may be followed by:** A. . Between bisque stage and glazing stageB. All of the above 1009. Internal resorptionC. Hypercalcification within root canalsD. Using thicker mix of cementsD. All of the above 1012. Formation of dentine 1013. Bone growthC. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamedB. Regeneration periodontal surgery: . Increased interocclusal distanceC. Building bone around the fundus of alveolar bone and deposition of cementumB. Attrition in elderly. Increase compensate curve 1015. The developing periodontal ligament 1014. Vascular pressureD. Ask patient to come back in six monthsD. Pit and fissureB. Initial condylar guidance of 25 degree was wrong is changed to 45 degree. Reduce cusps heightC. on examination you found a composite restoring a goodcavity preparation without any secondary caries. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulpC. The MOST likely factor contributes to tooth eruption is:** A. Inaccessible area 1016. Smooth surfaceC. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation is LEAST useful in preventing caries of: A. Spoon shape with rounded margin 1018. Decrease incisal guidanceB. The growing rootB. Patient complains of sensitivity. what is your next step: A. Repeat restoration 1017. why do teeth maintain contact: 112 A. What is the shape of occlusal rest: A. What changeswill you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. Desquamative gingivitis 1025. . necrosis and plasma cells at the basal membrane with atrophic thin areas. Hypersecretion of the thyroidB. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque 1021. Hypersecretion of the adrenalC. Viral infection 1022. What is NOT TRUE about gingivitis: A. The elimination half life of Diazepam is in the range of: A. Homo formation is better at high sugar intakeD. Mobility 1020. 5-12 hours 113 C. 48-96 hours 1023. 2-5 hoursB. Long junctional epithelium 1019. Why is the frequency of carbohydrates intake more important quantity: A. Hyposecretion of the adrenal 1024. Myxoedema occurs due to:** A. reduced rete pegs will be diagnosed as: A. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentrationC. Which of the following is seen in benign mucosal membrane pemphigoid:** A. Low number of streptococcus mutansB. Hyposecretion of thyroid-hypothyroidismD. Regeneration of cementumB. 12-30 hoursD. Gingivitis is not caused by: A. Ulcers.A. DiabetesB. 30-48 hoursE. OsteomyelitisD. Only the lesions of the primary and secondary stages are contagiousD. Scarring of the conjunctiva 1026. Ask the patient to come after the deciduous teeth fall off and complete permanentdentition eruptsD. The spirochetes disseminate rapidly throughout the body within 24hour after contactB. Histopathology like aphthous ulcer D. ScarlatinaE. Which of the following is not true about warfarin. Spirochetes disseminate in 24 hours 1027. Perform mixed dentition analysisB. PancreatitisC. Staphylococcus aureus can cause which of the following infection: A. Pneumonia 1030. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin 1029. All of the above 1028. INR of 3 is enough to start any extractionB. Apply a fixed appliancesE. Oral lesions are not seen in less than 1%C. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidlyD. Primary lesion is not contagiousB. In syphilis: A. A 10 year old child presents with crowding of the dentition and desirescorrection. Which of the following is TRUE about syphilis: A. A. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin timeC. Extract the deciduous teethC.Tzanck cellsB. Both the primary chancre and the secondary mucous patch stages of the diseaseare highly infectiousC. Intraepithelial vesiclesC. What your next step would be: A. Review in yearly intervals 114 . ThyroiditisB. Anterior inclined plane on mandibular teethB. Change fro aerobic into anaerobic 1033. What is your management: A. Expansion screwD. Single retroclined upper incisor in 9 years old.1031.The lesion is painless and of normal colour. what is TRUE: A. Patient complains of finger-like growth on the lateral aspect of the tongue. Less than 100 degree 1036. HSV 1B. Less than 90 degreeD. Are predominantly anaerobicB. Liver damage in mild overdose 1032. Maintain airway and place in supine positionB. The MOST PROBABLE . In which of the following conditions vesicles/bullae are never seen prior toulceration: A. Inject adrenaline 1034. In regards to paracetamol: A. Hawley appliance 1035. what is the first thing to do: A. moist skin and dyspnoea. Administer oxygenD. Aphthous ulcer C. Pemphigus 1037. Bite planeC. space is sufficient. Less than 35 degreeB. Patient with weak pulse. Give insulin injectionC. Must always treated by surgeryD. Less than 45 degreeC. Must be treated by antibioticsC. In regards to periapical lesions. The angle of blade for closed curettage is:** A. Folate papillaeB. Directly applied on decalcified enamelB. Keep observingB. What your next step would be: A. Cellular energy production 1039. Child presented to you with sore throat. On HIV patient which of the following IS NOT RECOGNISED: A. UreaB. NeurofibromaD. Perform an excision biopsyC. Topical fluorides are MOST beneficial when: A. Patient shows a lesion on the tongue adjacent to sharp tooth. Osteoarthritis 1041. End product of amino acids metabolism is: A. Collagen synthesisB. fever and joint swelling. You “roundedoff” the sharp area and recall patient after one month to see the lesion turning smaller in size.diagnosis is: A. Prescribe Kenalog and Orabase 1043. . Filiform papillaeC. Allantoin 1042. Clotting factor productionC. Papilloma 1038. Uric acidC. Rheumatic fever B. Rheumatic arthritisC. Epithelial integrityD. Thiamine is useful in: A. Applied after eruption 115 1040. the MOST probable diagnosis is: A. Torus 1047. A patient on dicoumarol treatment needs extraction. Prescribe antibioticsB. Infection with new bone formation is: A. OsteosarcomaD. GingivoplastyD. Indirect retainers 1049. The hamular notch is important in full dentures construction because it aids in the setting position of the artificial teeth A. Flap surgery 1045. The placement of metal stops at a location remote to direct retainers to increase retention istermed: 116 A. The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient is: A. 1048. there is no evidence of failure of the previous root filing. Which of the following isMOST valuable in evaluating surgical risks: A. Clotting timeB. External lymphomaE. HIV gingivitisC. Complete blood cell count 1046. Sedimentation rateE.Squamous cell carcinomaB. . Bleeding timeC. Prothrombin timeD. Kaposi sarcoma 1044. Debridement and antimicrobial rinsesC. You want to place a post on an endodontically treated tooth which has a good silver point “Ag point”. Condensing osteitisC. Remove and replace the Ag point with Gutta Percha before the post preparation. What would you do: A. Garr’s osteomyelitisB. The distal attachments of the lateral pterygoid to the condyle 1056. Allergy because of dentureC. Decrease the angle of the occlusal plane 1052. A systemic allergyB. Decreasing the angle orientation of the occlusal plane 1051. Inadequate interocclusal clearance 1053. Minimise distortionB. When patient bites in protrusion you notice that posterior teeth do not meet. what would youdo to solve this: A.First statement is true. Why would you invest the wax pattern as soon as possible in an indirect inlay fabrication: A. Loss of water and contraction 1058. Two canals and one foramina 1057. but the reason given is false 1050. What is the MOST COMMON configuration of the mesial buccal canal of upper first molar:** A. A complaint of burning tongue in an elderly female would be a result of: A. What does “SYNERESIS” in prosthodontics mean: A. Increase the compensatory curveB. In posterior crossbite situation which are the supporting cusps: A. . The MOST common reason for full denture failure: A. The upper and lower joint spacesB. Psychogenic 1054. Upper buccal and lower lingual cusps 1055. Increasing the anterior posterior occlusal curveB. When setting up teeth for complete dentures having bilateral balanced occlusion. The bilaminar zone in reference to TMJ refers to: A. separation of posterior teeth during protrusion is done by: A. A. Upon palpation which of the following areas would be found to have overlying mucosa: I. Mylohyoid ridgeI I I . None of the aboveE. What statement is false: A. II.QUESTIONS IN DOUBT:131415192426303234374246485859606669737680828991929698*100104105109110111118125136 141142147150152154180181215218223226 118 227223234246249253260265272276284285290294296299301303304 503 Service Unavailable No server is available to handle this request. Mental foramenIV. To disclose the other rootsB. All of the above. I. Avoid expansion 1059. Both are trueC. Midline of the palateII. Posterior teeth 190. IIIC. The first is true the second is falseD. Incisive foramenV. I. Both are false 189. Difficulties in keeping the intraoral pressure. What is main reason of ordering another Periapical radiograph of the same tooth: A.Avoid contractionC. Why do people with cleft palate/lip have speech difficulties: A. 187. The first statement is false the second is trueB. To observe tooth from different angle . 1060. Not to survey when making the crown 188. Overdentures are best used for. Canines and premolarsB. II. Gold clasp is more elastic than Cobalt Chrome. but Co-Chrome has high modulus of elasticity A. ToriA. I and II 117 B. VD. 5 mm before the apex 192. At the apexB. The ideal length of RCT is. Clasp arm is gingivally located 195. Internal resorption of RC usually A. The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the root canal walls providing space for additional Gutta Percha is termed: A. Alloy with high modulus of elasticityB. AntibioticsB. Above survey lineC. the two most common micro-organisms are: A. 0. As close as possible to the gingival margins 193. you will find: A. A. Painful 196. Ledermix used in RCT to relieve pain because of. A.191. A. Use mucco-compressive impression 194. As far as you can obturateC. Retentive part of clasp position is.B. Streptococcus and Staphylococcus 25 199. .5 t0 1. Use teeth with narrow Buccal-Lingual dimensionB. Below the survey line. Retentive Clasps: A. AsymptomaticB. Corticosteroid 198. When doing pulpotomy with Formcresol. To minimize the load on free end saddle partial denture: A. In infected root canal. NecrosisB. Mummification 197. To increase the stability of the lower denture. Cracking of the investment 208. 204. Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by: A. Angioneurotic oedema. What is the DISADVANTAGE of gypsum dies:** . what will happen: A. From outside to inside 202. A. In melting gold. Laterally above condensed 200. Caused by several deep restorations in the anterior teethC. A. One hypothesis of pain modulation is based upon the inhibitory-excitatory interactionof afferent fibre synapses. Gate theory about pain control is: A. Mechanical 203.Lateral CondensationB. negative percussion and negative responseto palpation 205. Puffiness around the eyes. Reduced zoneB. oedema of the upper lip with redness and drynessB. There is no caries. Epithelial rests of Malaise 201. In periodontal membrane. One major Gutta Percha pointC. Applying hypertonic Fluid on the dentine the transmission of fluid through tubules will be: A. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)B. The occlusal plane should be above the tongueC. negative thermal tests. Oxidizing zone 206. From inside to outsideB. Back pressure porosityB. The lingual flanges should be concave 207. The occlusal plane should be below the tongueB. If the investment is burnout rapidly. what epithelial cells you can find: A. which part of flame we will use A. Long path of insertion 213. In young children what is the commonest finding after dental complaint: A. Contains micro filledB. Through the contacts. TaperingB. “Main feature of suprabony pocket” A. A. Vertical bone resorptionC.A. QuenchedC. The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by. The current intensity is too highB. The current intensity is too low 211. . In electro surgery. Chronic alveolar abscess 216. Chronic periodontal abscessC. Proprioceptors 210. Subjected /undergone/ to cold treatment during processing (annealed) 214. Dimensional inaccuracy 209. A. the most common finding is. MarbleB. Overdenture advantage is. Wrought metal is to be.** A. In periodontitis. Acute periodontal abscessB. Better colour matching 212. the tissue may stick to the electrode because of . 215. Weak edge strength and lack of surface detailsB. Where do you use the floss as a guide to the rubber dam: A. Hybrid composite resin is used in posterior teeth because it: A. Horizontal bone resorptionB. Apical abscessD. 26 A. Infra bony pocketB.mainly around the lower bicuspid and anterior teeth. 0-3 mmC. Vest cells of malaiseE. 1-2 mmB. Salivary flowE. The oral hygiene is not good. some areas of cementum appears to be soft. Periodontitis occurs in. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 220. Periodontal membraneC. Loss of periodontal attachment 27 C. Alveolar bone and gingiva 218. The commonest elements which are found in periodontal membrane are:** A. The term false pocket stands for. Tooth inclination and crowdingD. What DOES NOT prevent the calculus formation “build up”: A. . Which of the following would be your preferred procedure: A. Patient presents to you with remarkable resorption of gingivae around the remaining teeth. 0-5 mm 219. Hyperplasia of the gum 221. MasticationB. A. Oral flora 222. A. 2-3 mmD. Epithelial cellsC. Alveolar boneB. ErythrocytesD. Tooth shapeC. FibroblastB.Angular bone loss 217. The normal range of gingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth is: A. X-ray 226. Root canal treatmentC. Necrotic pulp 227. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect in some papers/ . Cavity preparation for amalgam preparationE. A child with fracture of tooth at the apical third of the root. what your first decision would be: A. Traumatised teethB. Leave it and observeD. Surface grinding followed by GIC restorationsC.Surface grinding followed by fluoride applicationB. . Capped teethE. Class V cavity preparation for a GIC preparationD. what is the first thing to consider when you get a patient with intruded 11 and 12: A. Which of the following is not useful for apical infection: A. EDTAD. Advice patient about consequencesC. Application of fluoride without surface preparation 223. Eugenol 224. Replace intruded teeth in positionB. Just erupted teethC. Apiectomy 225. Wait and recall after one month and observe for any necrotic or radiolucencyB. The palatal pulp horn of maxillary molars is located: A. ExtractionD. Multi-rooted teethD. In the pulpchamber opposite the mesio distal fissure of the buccal cuspC. In the pulpchamber under mesiolingual cuspB. A. H2O2C. ChlorhexidineB. Ethyl alcoholE. II and IIIE. All of the aboveC. Rheumatic fever 230. 28 A. Injection without vasoconstrictorsD. Injection into vascular areaC. Excitement III. I. Enkephalins 232. When taking Mono Amino Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI). DiabeticsB. All of the aboveB. HypnosisV. II. A. I. I and IID. HistamineC. IV and V 231. Which is not an effect of :I. Opioid analgesics reduce pain by the release of which naturally appearing product: A. II and IIID. Toxicity as a result of anaesthetic solution can be seen more when: A. which are is contra indicated:I. none of the aboveB. Injection in supine positionB. Intravenous injection 233. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be used for patient with. The most characteristic allergic reaction to drugs is. None of the aboveC. BarbiturateII. Skin rush with swollen of lips and eyes 229. General anaesthesia A. III and IV “check Q137 too” 234. PethidineIV. Acetyl salicylic acid A. SedationII. Local anaestheticIII. Which of the following may be caused by newly placed restoration which interferes with theocclusion .Under the disto lingual cusp 228. SerotoninB. AnalgesiaIV. A. what is the possiblediagnosis: A. The most important factor in surgical removal of impacted teeth is. The use of general anaesthetic 236. The flap designD. Facial nerve 239. the most commoncause is. Teeth movementD. Multiple un-erupted teeth and pseudo anodontia 240. Sub-mandibular sialolithC. Nerve to masseter C. A. Tooth resorption 237. Pressure on the genioglossi Mylohyoid muscles 238. In cleidocranial dysplasia. The most important indication of malignant lesions is: A. Pulpal necrosisC. A. Preoperative assessmentC. PainB. Apical abscessB. which of the following would expect to find: A. Removal of enough boneB.A. Apical periodontitis 235. CystD. Paresthesia 29 C. RanulaB. Patient with lower denture and complaining of paresthesia of the lower lip. Auricula Temporal NerveB. Pressure on mental foramenB. . The nerve supplies TMJ is. Early lose of primary teethB. Uni lateral swelling in the floor of the mouth occurs frequently with meal. Aphthous ulcer D. An oral prodromal signs of Rubella are:** A. Lichen PlanusB. What is the percentage of leukoplakia that turn into cancer:** A. What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth: A. Geographic tongueD. Koplik spotsC. Which two of the following conditions present as complete vesicles A. 15. you diagnosis is** A. PemphigusB. Herpes simplexC. Nystatin + 244. Erythema multiforme 242. 12. 43 245. Erythema migransF. . How would you treat Denture Stomatitis A. 35. TetracyclineB. 25D. ANUGE. 25% 246. White sponge nevus 243. 33. 22B.Mucocele 241. Fordyce’s spotsB. 45C. Keratotic lesion surrounded by cold web like lines /Wickham’s Striae/ appears as lace-likenetwork on the buccal mucosa. Systemic penicillinC. 10%C. 5%-6% 30 B. Keratosis follicularisC. Osteogenesis imperfectaE.. Fibrous dysplasiaD. Pain when eating cold foodD. Which of the following conditions is not classified as a white lesion: A. Low vertical dimension 249. Hyperthyroidism 250. Smoker’s keratosisC. LeukoplakiaD. what would you do: A. Diabetic patient with moist skin. Administer adrenalineD. Pain when eating hot foodC. . moist mouth and weak pulse. Fordyce’s granulesB. The absence of lamina dura in radiograph is a feature of all of these except for:** A. How would you diagnose a periapical abscess: A. Angular cheilitis in edentulous patient with complete denture is a result of: A. Paget’s diseaseB. Cellulitis 251. vitaminB. Fever C. Deficiency of . Administer O2C. Regional lymph nodeB. Give glucoseB. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray 252.None of the above 247. HyperparathyroidismC. Lichen planus 248. Which is usually found when a systemic infection is present: A. Inject insulin 253. Pain on percussionB. Micro-leakage at the attached enamel-composite resin interface is most likely to be due: A. Vinyl polysiloxane 256. Bacterial acid formation dissolving the enamelD. Buccally 31 C. In which direction you would extract a deciduous upper molar: A. Condensation siliconeD. A large with extra mercury to give easier manipulative qualitiesC. it will betwo days before impression gets to the laboratory for construction of the crown. ExcisionB. A basic mix to which additional mercury is added as needed 257. Which impressionmaterial is preferred? A. RadiationD. Lingually 255. Impression without elastomer in custom tray has been taken for crown preparation. A large mix to ensure homogeneityB. Surgery and radiation 254.How would you treat Epidermoid Carcinoma: A. . Polyether B. Salivary pellicle growth at the interfaceE. Hydrolysis of the filler phase of the compositeB. sequentially trituratedD. what type of amalgam mix would you prefer: A. Several small mixes. A large amalgam core is to be condensed around several pins in a vital molar tooth. Hydrolysis of the resin phase of the compositeC. Thiokol or meraptan rubber C. RotationB. Several small mixes with varying mercury/alloy ratiosE. Setting contraction of the composite resin 258. Excision and extraction of teethC. Maintain dentinal support of the lingual cusp A. When restoring weakened cusps with dental amalgam you should consider: A. II a nd IV D. The enamel is to return to normal within 7 daysC. Continued enamel declassification in the etched areaD. Exhibit less wear on timeC. you would expect: A. 130-150° 259. Slight attrition of the opposing tooth 261. III and IVE. Shrink rapidlyE. Seal the margins better and completelyB. 4mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceD. I and IIB. A major difference between light cured and chemical cured composite is that during settingor in function the light cures material tends to: A. 70-85°C.The optimum cavosurface angle for occlusal amalgam surface is: A. The bur should be tilted lingually when preparing the occlusal surface of class II cavity on amandibular first premolar in order to:I. 45-60°B. If the sealant of bonding agent is not placed on part of enamel that has been etched by anacid solution. 4mm reduction while following the original contour of the surface 32 262. 2mm reduction while following the original contour of the cuspsC. I and IIIC. 45-80°D. Arrest of enamel carries by organic sulphidesB. Posses greater fracture toughness 260. Prevents encroachment on the lingual pulp hornIV. 95-110°E. Undergo greater colour changeD. Remove unsupported enamelII. Prevents encroachment on the buccal pulp hornIII. . 2mm reduction while forming a flattened surfaceB. C. Choose statement that correctly defines the term AMALGAM: A. None of the above 264. In regards to carbide burs. An obtuse angleC. Radiopaque areaB. Amalgam is a metallic powder composed of silver. an incipient carious lesion limited to the end of the proximal surface of posterior tooth appears as: A. Proper depth cutsC. In radiographs. one of them is mercuryD. copper and zincB. More efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceD. .IV only 263. tin. one of them is tin 267. Wax bite chew inB. More efficient cutting and a rougher surface 265. A right angleD. All of the aboveE. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals. Larger in radiographs than actual lesionD. which one of the following is theMOST EFFECTIVE means for verifying adequate occlusal clearance A. An acute angleB. Less efficient cutting and a rougher surfaceC. Less efficient cutting and a smoother surfaceB. Articulating paper 266. Amalgam is a metallic substance in powder or tablet from that is mixed with mercuryE. An angle of 45° 268. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals. At which angle to the external surface of proximal cavity walls in a class II preparation for amalgam should be finished A. Amalgam is an alloy of two more metals that have been dissolved in each other inthe molten state. For an onlay preparation during the restoration of a tooth. Visual inspectionD. Triangle with apex towards the tooth surfaceC. the more number of cutting blades and low speed will result in: A. Length of the cone 271. Consistency of gutta perchaC. Should extend to the dento cemental junction for healingD. What is the first thing you would do after taking history andtemperature: A. The term TUGBEN?? is related to : “When used in connection with a master Gutta Percha conein endodontics” A. Two canals with two foremen 273. Should extend slightly through the apex to ensure a complete sealC. The swollen area is soft. The extension of the filling is not critical 272. One canal with one foremanB. . Should extend to the level of the apex to minimize irritationB. Size of the coneD. Take radiograph and test vitality of his teethE. Tensile strength of the gutta perchaB. Anaesthetise all of the maxillary left anterior teeth to provide instant reliefC. Fit of the cone in the apical 1 or 2 mmE. fluctuant and pointed on the labial plate under his lips on the left side. the corner of his nose and a region under his left eye. The prognosis of tooth with apical resorption is : A. Refer him to physician 33 B. Two canals with one foremanD. Dependant upon periapical surgeryD. A. In root canal therapy it is generally accepted that the ideal root filling. Contingent upon systemic antibiotic therapy combined with treatment of the canal 270. Good if apex can be sealedC. Mesiobuccal root of maxillary first molars MOST COMMONLY have: A. Give him an ice pack to be placed on the area to control the swellingD. Write prescription for antibiotics and delay treatment until swelling is reduced 269. His body temperature is 39°. One or two canals with one foremanC. Poor B.Teenager has swelling involving his upper lip. ShortB. Just in contact with soft tissues 337. Labially displaced anterior tooth is restored with a gold core porcelain jacket crown so that it is in line with the arch. Voids of porcelainD. Pontic replaces upper first molars in a bridge should be: A. at least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontalsupportD. the aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant theplanned reconstruction 275. Failure to anneal the platinum matrixD.The most common cause of porosity in porcelain jacket crown is. A. Porcelain is thinner than 1mm 336. Ability to watch the appearance of adjacent natural teeth 41 E. the crown will appears: A. Excessive firing temperatureC. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensiveoral reconstruction is whether. there will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of thecrownsC. The major cause of jacket crown breakage is. A. Moisture contaminationB. Be clear of soft tissuesC. compared wit full ceramic crowns for restoring anterior teeth is. ZoE paste will accelerate healing 335. Slightly compress soft tissuesB. Inadequate condensation of the porcelain 274. Excessive condensation of the porcelainE. A. the inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatmentB. Inclusion of platinum foilB. Use of weak cementumC. A. . An advantage of metal-ceramic crowns. Palatal reduction may be of minimal thicknessB. Overall conservative for tooth structureC. the right treatment is: A. Acids 343. Not irritatingD. Quick in setting 339. NarrowD. Dental cariesC. 24 hours after applicationB. on x rays you find dent in dent. Zinc oxide eugenol cement and amalgamB. A. Radio opaqueC. Better marginal sealing 42 . A. Immediately after applicationC. 3 to 4 weeksE. Class V composite resin restorations can be polished. PulpectomyC.LongC. Mesial and distal angleC. Contact area 340. PulpotomyD. Dental plaque produces: A. Not at all 341. Tacky adhesive to wallsB. Calcium hydroxide on pulp and amalgam 342. Which is NOT characteristics of canal filing materials “obturation material” A. ChelationB. The best location of pin in class II inlay is. Caries which is close to the pulp chamber. The main advantage of amalgam with high content of Cu is: A. 3 to 4 daysD. Where is the biggest thicknessB. Wide 338. Dryness of the mouthB. May cause tooth cracking 345. High buccal pulp hornD. IB.5mm 347. IVD.5mmC. Better tensile strengthD. Small lingual pulpC. Too expensiveC. The major disadvantage of self-threaded pin is: A.B. Etching techniques are used always to: A. 1. 2mmD. The mesial concavity of the root surfaceB. Upper premolar with MO cavity. what is important about the application of thematrix band: “the question has shown too as …. High lingual pulp hornE. Sjogren syndrome is characterised by: A. In which class of cavities do composite restorations show most durability: A.What is complicated by” A. Not all sizes availableD. How much space do you need to cap a weakened cusp with amalgam: A. 2. Friction lockedB. IIC. V 346. Less corrosionC. Higher and immediate compressive strength 344. for aesthetic considerations 349. minimise the leakage of restorationsB. Concavity of distal root surface 348. 1mmB. IIIE. . A. The corrosive properties 353. If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture. In regards to Partial dentures. PainB. A. Hard in room temperatureC. how do you establish reliable vertical dimension. Wax if the remaining teeth occlude 355. In regards to indirect compare to direct wax technique:** A. The most common characteristic symptom of malignant tumours occurring in lower jaw is. the most uncommon result is:** A.Dryness of the eyesC. Rheumatoid arthritisD. Hard 18%B. BleedingC. The type of gold that used for dental bridges is. All of the above 350. AgranulocytosisB. Type IV 75% 354. Post operative painC. Higher flow in room temperature 356. Lower compressive strength . Candida Albicans 351. Paraesthesia 352. Blister formationB. Secondary cariesD. Why Class IV gold can not be used in cavity as a filling material: 43 A. Long use of Tetracycline is characterised by:** A. Can not be polished “burnished”B. Low temperature solidifying pointB. A. 7 and 6 361. A. Impetigo 362. Band of lymphocytes inflammation and hyper parakeratosisC. Recurrent ulceration aphthaeC. 8. 7 and 6 except the mesio buccal root of 6B. Pocket formationD. AmphotencinB. Herpes simplexB. Denture stomatitis is treated with. Which is not a malignant lesion: A. Smooth rete pegsB. patient complains of itching and vesicalis on the upper labium (Vermillion region)every year. Erythema migrans /Geographic tongue/ 359. Tetracycline lozengesC. 8. A. LeukoplakiaB. The effects of tooth removal in healthy individuals can show as. TMJ problemE. Loss of contactsB. Mycostatin 364.357. Immunofluorescence of liquefied layer 44 363. . Slight tiltingC. Lingual NerveB. your diagnosis would be: A. All of the above 358. Long buccal nerve 360. What is the typical feature of Lichen planus:** A. Posterior superior alveolar nerve supplies:** A. Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars will anesthetise: A. Electric pulp testC. Abscesses 369. BiopsyC. PericoronitisB. Diagnosis of oral candidiasis (candidosis) is BEST confirmed by: A. Blood countD. The most prominent feature of acute apical periodontitis is: A. Granulomas. Thermal 367. Cotton woolB. Marsupialisation is a technique used in the treatment of: A. cysts and chronic periapical abscesses may mostly be differentiatedby : A. Orange peelD. CellulitisB. Beaten copped 365. Which antibiotic administered in childhood may result in tooth discolouration: . CystsC. Intermittent pain 368. Extra oral swellingC. Ground glassC.Paget’s disease shows in the early stages in jaws: A. Damage to infra orbital nerves 366. Microscopic examination of smearsB. Serological exam 370. Tenderness of tooth to pressureB. BiopsyD. Cavernous sinus thrombosisC. RadiographsB. Lacrimal duct stenosisD. The most serious complications which may occur from abscess of max canine is: A. Patient will need haematological evaluation 373. Congestive cardiac failureC. In the maxillaC. What is theMOST LIKELY diagnosis: A. Erythema multiformC. An adult patient with a history of bacterial endocarditis requires prophylactic administrationof antibiotic prior to removal of teeth. Patient is more susceptible to infectionB. Ameloblastoma occurs MOST frequently: A. until aweek ago. A patient whose hands fell warm and moist is MOST likely to be suffering from:** A. Streptomycin 371. MeaslesB. The dentist should consult the patient’s physicianbecause: A. A 12 year old girl complains of sore mouth. Amoxicillin 2 gram an hour before operation orallyB. Thyrotoxicosis 374. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before treatment 375. A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and a history of steroid therapy. oral examination shows numerous yellow grey lesions. Herpetic gingivostomatitisD.A. Near the angle of the mandibleB. indicate the pre-operative regimen:** A. she has painful cervical lymphadenitisand a temperature of 39°c. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operationC. At the mandibular symphysis 45 372. AnxietyB. TetracyclineC. . Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortexC. he presents for multiple extractions. PenicillinB. At what rate is closed chest cardiac compression should be in an adult:** A. Herpes simplex bacteriaB. Sever uncontrolled diabetesC. Use the smallest effective volumeC. 24 times a minuteC. Herpes zoster virusD. Leukaemia 380. Use the weakest efficient percentage strengthD. The causative micro organism for Herpetic gingivostomatitis is: A. Quaternary ammonium 379. . GlutaraldehydeD.Stevens-Johnson syndrome 376. 12 times a minuteB. Alcohol 70%E. Mumps 46 E. Herpes simplex virusC. Sodium hypochloriteB. Aplastic anaemiaD. Antibiotics should be used routinely to prevent infection arising from oral surgery in patients suffering from all the following EXCEPT: A. you should follow all of the following EXCEPT: A. 50 times a minuteD. To reduce the side effects risk of local anaesthetic injections. AgranulocytosisB. The most potent viricidal properties: “another format of the same answer: Indicatewhich of the following has viricidal properties” A. Aspirate before injectionB. Borrelia vincentii 377. Inject rapidly 378. 80 times a minute 381. ChlorhexidineC. Periodontal probe / Calibrated probe/C.Nitrous Oxide (N2O) is not used alone as a general anaesthetic agent because of:** A. AmalgamB. Poor analgesics affects 382. Control pain 387. Viral infectionD. X-RayB. Keratocyte 386. Composite resinD. Mast cellsB. The final material you use for endodontically treated deciduous molars is:** A. The presence of sulphur granules is diagnostic of:** A. Avoid OsteomyelitisB. Difficulties in maintaining an adequate O2 concentrationB. How can a periodontal pocket be recognised:** A. . Wrought base metal crown 384. Which type of cells does an abscess contain: A. Which is the LEAST likely to cause Xerostomia: A. Polymorphonuclear leukocytesC. Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to:** A. Sjogren’s syndromeB. Periodontal marker D. Sharp explorer F. EosinophilsD. Study cast 383. Epithelial cells 385. Bitewing radiographE. Adverse affects on liver C. ActinomycosisB. GICC. CandidosisC. Emotional reactionC. Painful salivary gland are MOST likely to be indicate to:** A. Brushing habitsD. Cicatricial pemphigoid 389. Chronic inflammatory periodontal disease originates in: A. MumpsC. Herpes simplex infectionB. Aphthous ulcerationD. A patient with an acetone odour would be suspected suffering from: A. Diabetes 391. Sjogren’s syndrome 390. Cervical cementum 392. Which is the most important local factor in the aetiology of periodontal disease: A. The crystal alveolar boneC. CalculusC. MucoceleB. The marginal gingivaB. Heart diseaseB. Pemphigus vulgarisE. Liver damageC. Which of the following does state BEST the morphology of periodontal ligament fibres: A. Intact vesicles are MOST likely to be seen in:** A. . Coarse food 393. Oral lichenoid reaction 47 C. Occlusal traumaB. Antidepressants drugsD. Submandibular sialolith 388. Injecting in supine positionB. Loss of arch lengthB. this would MOSTLY affects the growth of:** A. LevityE. Antibiotic cover is compulsory 603. It is evident that it will reduce post operative swelling 602.ElasticB. Whole faceC. Loss of speech soundC. Which of the following is LEAST to cause toxicity from local anaesthetic injection: A. Wavy 394. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swellingC. Intravenous injections 395. A 65 year old patient needs extraction of 44. Alveolar boneB. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hoursB. MOST common consequence arising from premature extraction of deciduous molar is: A. Loss of facial contour 397. After the age of 6 years. Non striatedD. Maxilla 396. What preoperative advice you should give: A. Injecting without a vasoconstrictor D. the greatest increase in the size of the mandible occurs: 70 C. StriatedC. . Injecting in vascular areaC. he has taken insulin in the morning. In regards to third molars surgery: A. MandibleD. If a child’s teeth do not form. Patient needsextraction. stop warfarin. Medication increases preoperatively 604. Commonly related to radiograph angulation 607. Ampicillin cover. Teeth in the same quadrantC. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover.Take more sugar B. Temporal neuritis 608. Top of the gingiva to the base 606. Loss of the gingival attachment is measured between: A. She has????. . Maintain normal dietC. The probable diagnosis is: A. Absence of clearly defined crystal lamina dura is because: A. MigraineB. Oral exam is negative. Associated with periodontal pocketD. with paroxysmal pain on the left eye that he thinks is related to hismaxillary posterior teeth. 3g Amoxil. A patient 37 year old. this will affect: A. stop warfarin. The pain comes in recurrent bursts and aggravated by stress andalcohol. 3g Amoxil. Antibiotic 2 hours beforeD. suture after surgical removalB. suture when bleeding has stoppedC.5 mg warfarin. give heparin and suture later E. Adjacent teethB. CEJ to base of pocketB. Patient with prosthetic heart valve taking 7. Gentamycin/vancomycin cover. stop warfarin and suture later 605. give heparin and suture later D. Trigeminal neuralgiaD. Cluster headacheC. A mandibular permanent first molar had to be extracted. Full mouth 609. What is your management: A. Indicative of attachment lossC. Both arches the same sideD. Pathognomonic of periodontal diseaseB. Depression of T4/T8 lymphocytesD. Lymphoma of parotid 611. Carcinoma of the parotidC. Apposition of inferior boarder of mandible 71 610. A patient comes with a firm. Picture of ANUG superimposed with RPPB. painless swelling of lower lobe of parotid which has grown progressively for the past year. Acyclovir inhibits viral transcription when applied in the prodromal phaseB. This is most likelyto be: A. What is the histopathology of the pathogenesis of the plaque following 21 days of plaqueaccumulate: A. Infiltrate of plasma cells and early bone involvementD. Primarily infiltrate of lymphocytesC. . Apposition of alveolar processC. Infiltrate of neutrophils 612. The MOST common cause of gingival enlargement is: A.The places for new erupted mandibular molars are created by: A. What is INCORRECT in HIV associated periodontitis:** A. Pleomorphic adenomaB. Plaque inducedD. Drug inducedC. Primarily infiltrate of plasma cellsB. Spontaneous bleeding interproximalC. Antivirals are contra indicated in immuno-compromised patient 614. What is true in treating a patient with secondary herpes simplex:** A. He complains of paresthesia for the past 2 weeks. Resorption of anterior ramus and apposition posteriorlyB. Leukaemia 615. HereditaryB. Deep Perio-pockets usually seen in advanced periodontitis 613. Idoxuridine is better than acyclovir when applied topicallyC. A patient has improperly formed DEJ. Remove the tuberosity and sutureB. you would:** A. Surgically excise the entire lesion since you know it is not malignantC. Amelogenesis imperfectaC. Oral prophylaxis. Repeat the biopsy 621. it remains in place attached to the mucoperiosteum. Dismiss the patient with instructions for warm saline rinses for re-examinationD. Leave the tuberosity and stabilize if requiredC. Removes plaqueC. Does not harm gingivaeB. Which is wrong in regards to (water jet spray) hydrotherapy: A. chipping andattrition of enamel that would MOSTLY be: A. What is the MOST common consequence of an allergic response to .A 13 year old has enlarged gingivae. If fractured tuberosity is greater than 2 cm. leave in place and suture 620. Removes required pellicle 618. Stop medication 616. Inform the patient and her physician of your findings and instruct the patient to returnin six monthsB.D. An incision biopsy of an ulcerated and intruded clinically suspicious lesion in 50 years oldfemale reveals chronic inflammation. root planningC. Oral prophylaxis and gingivoplastyB. however. reduction in size of pulp chamber. Dentinogenesis imperfecta 617. gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is youtreatment: A. scaling. Which of the following procedures should beemployed:** A. Remove the tuberosity and fill the defect with Gelfoam then suture. Hypodontia or anodontia 72 619. FluorosisB. the tuberosity is fractured. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characteristic by:** A. During extraction of maxillary third molar. Necrosis of bone produced by ionizing radiation 629. How do treat the cause of airway obstruction: A. Calm down the patient 625. Skin rash “dermatitis” with swelling of lips and eyes 622. Air way obstruction 624. What would you do if the diastole is elevated: A. . Fontanelles 627. What would you do if the systole is elevated:** A. Candidosis 628. MeaslesD. Investigate systemic cause 626.medication: A. How do prepare a patient with rheumatic fever before extraction: A. RubellaE. Viral infectionB. Extension of the neck B. NeurofibromaB. Koplik’s spots are associated with one of the following: A. What is Von Reckling hausen disease: A. Flexion of the neck 73 630. 10-12 times a minuteB. Which are non-calcified areas in the child’s cranium: A. 4-6 times a minute 623. DiabetesC. Laryngeal muscle paralysisB. What cause a reduce of pulmonary ventilation: A. How many time do you breath in mouth to mouth resuscitation: A. LeucopoeniaB. Eosinophilia 633. the signs are. Nitro glycerine sub linguallyD. Recumbent position. Bacterial endocarditis 634. Cushing’s disease 635. Acute pyogenic bacteria infection may result in:** A. AspirinD. LymphocytosisE. Multiple myelomaD. Squamous cell carcinomaE.your first management is: A. Herpes simplexB. Which is LEAST likely to cause bleeding after surgical operation: A. Thrombo cytopenic purpura would complicate surgery by: . supine 636. Addison’s diseaseC. blanched face. Mouth to mouth respirationC. Patient has fainted. 2g Amoxicillin pre-operatively 631.6000000 units of benzoyl penicillinB. weak pulse. LeukocytosisD. Diabetes mellitusB. shallow respiration. Oral mucosa and skin pigmentation occurs in patient with:** A. NeutropeniaC. 1 ml adrenaline subcutaneouslyB. Bright’s diseaseF. Poor surgical techniquesC. Antibiotic therapyB. Codeine 632. moist skin. Whooping coughC. Prophylactic administration of antibiotic is indicated in patient before oral surgery with: A. Herpangina is caused by: A. By passD. Securing a blood units to replace any lossB. Uncontrolled diabetesF. LeukaemiaC. Polycythemia 638. Coxsackie virus 641. . HaemorrhageC. All Perio pockets can be detected by x rays 74 D. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of ANUGB. Vitamin K 642. OedemaB. 639. LeucopoeniaB. Patient who has WBC count of just over 100000 is most likely suffering from:** A. Valve replacementE.A. Trauma of occlusal factors causes cleft or fibrous thickening of marginal gingivaeC. All of the above 640. Perio disease is a primary cause of loss of teeth after 35 years of age. Which of the following is TRUE: A. Sub-acute bacterial endocarditisC. In regards to the conditions where you have to prescribe antibiotic prior to dental treatment: A. Fixation of fracturesC. The immediate concern in the management of facial trauma should be: A. Periodontitis is the most common problem in teenageE. The main vitamin to synthesis prothrombin is: A. Acute infection 637. Rheumatic fever B. Delayed healingC. Neurological consultation 643. LeaningE. SulphonamideC. ChloromycetinB. ErythromycinE. ExcitementB. What is NOT A SIGN of neurological trauma: A. Multiple myeloma 75 B. Theantibiotic of choice is: A. AIDS 648. All of the above 647. . Adrenal suppression 646. Disorder of steroid will result in: A. VomitingG. Improper eye sightD. colitis during 5 weeks. A young patient presented with rheumatic fever and suspected allergy to penicillin. OsteoporosisD.Checking the breath and insure a free airwaysD. Adrenal suppressionB. Buffered penicillinD. You will find the same signs of: A. Fixed dilated pupils 644. Achromycin 645. EuphoriaH. Patient under treatment with corticosteroids may develop: A. Sever headacheF. herpes simplex. Esophagitis. Erythema multiformeC. Shock C. EpinephrineC. Delayed eruption of permanent teethE. Why are streptococci resistant to penicillin:** A. AmphetamineD. Steam under pressure sterilisation is the best method to kill microorganisms.What does not show in Cleidocranial dysplasia:** A. How does it work: A. Near the same size 654. 653. Patient with morphine coma. Coagulation of plasma proteinB. Dehydration of DNA 651. . Predisposing oral cancer E. Iron deficiency is a featureB. None of the above 649. Dysphagia and angular cheilitisD. Atrophic oral and gastric mucosaC. Longer B. Naloxone 652. BradykininB. When comparing the mesio distal length of second deciduous molar with the length of 2 nd premolar. we will find the deciduous tooth is: A. what is the medication of choice to reverse its act: A. They produce penicillinase. All of the above 650. Delayed closure of fontanellesC. Retention of maxillaD. In regards to Plummer-Vincent syndrome or “Paterson and Kelly syndrome”: A. Shorter C. Defective formation of claviclesB. Down’s syndromeC. HBs AgC.How do you diagnose trigeminal neuralgia MOST accurately: A. Origin of temporalisC. Like a diabetic childC. Which of the following does not carry a risk of infection from hepatitis B patient: A. BleedingB. Down’s syndromeB. Like a haemophilic child 656. Papillon le fever syndromeD. Protects parotid glandD. Which is the MOST significant clinical feature of periodontal disease:** A. Origin of masseter muscleB. HBe Ag . Bleeding in periodontal ligament 837. HBs Ag antigensB. Insertion of lateral pterygoid 657. Like a normal childB. History 655. Treatment of patient with herpes simplex:** 94 E. True pocket formation and apical migration of attached gingiva 838. How do you treat a child with severe Von Willebrand’s disease:** A. Hypodontia can be seen in: A. Rickets 839. The zygomatic process serves as: A. Hyperdontia can be seen in: A. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis”B. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis” 840. Oral hygiene. sub-gingival debridement. Soft tissues recision accompanied with orthodontic appliance to help with eruption 844. regular review and maintenanceC. Which one of the following is expansile lesion of jaw bone:** A. what is your decision to retrieve it: A. Soft tissues recision to allow eruptionC. Loss of the first deciduous molar in 10 years old child required: A. Removes low energy x rays 843. Filter is used in x ray machine to: A. Surgical opening of canine fossaC. Radicular cystD. Palatal root displaced into the antrum while extracting. Osteomyelitis 847. sub-gingival debridement. Reduce exposure timeB. Remove the dentigerous cystB. Nasal antrostomy 846. Surgery.841. Which is the MOST conservative treatment for periodontal disease: A. regular review and maintenanceB. sub-gingival debridement 842. Central haemangioma 95 C. Evaluate the case radiographically and then decide whether space maintainer isneeded or notC. No treatment 845. What is your management: A. Odontogenic keratocyteB. Through the alveolar B. Oral hygiene. X ray shows a fully developed crown and ¾ roots development with no other pathology. The MOST frequent retained deciduous teeth in permanent dentition are: A. . Band and loop to maintain spaceB. A patient 8 years old has 3 of first premolars erupted with swelling on the ridge of the un-erupted premolar. Necrotic pulpB. Second upper molars 848. GlucanD. What molar occlusion will there be at the end of treatment when all spaces are closed: A. . Carious exposureC. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects 850. The ideal ClassI incisor relationship has been produced and 14. Benzodiazepine and diazepam in 5-10mg oral dose used for oral sedation in dentistry DOESNOT give: A. Upper central incisorsC.Upper lateral incisorsB. FructoseC. Full unit Class IIB. Full unit Class III 852. Lower central incisorsD. After you have successfully treated an Angle’s Class II division I malocclusion. Periapical disease 851. Post operative headacheD. Mechanical exposureD. Glycogen 849. The MOST frequently synthesized substance by Streptococcus mutans is: A. The mandible angleB. ½ unit class IIC. LivenB. 24 were extracted. Second lower molarsE. ½ unit Class IIIE. The arches are now wellaligned. The jugular-digastric interactionC. Class ID. Would be reversed by flumazepil because it is a BenzodiazepamC. Formcresol fixation is used in deciduous dentition in: A. The tensile nodes are located at: A. A good analgesic effect if given 1 hour prior to dental sessionsB. When is LEAST required gingival groove: A. At least 10 minutesC. When restoring with GIC for root cariesC. When restoring with GIC for abrasionB. 5 minutes at 20ºCB. 470 nm or 450-500 nm 858. Increases the bending capacity of films 96 855. Reduces patient exposure to x raysC. The developing time for dental x ray should be: A. 2 minutes at 40ºC 857. 100-120 nmB. At least 10 minutesC. Metallic Plato backing the intra oral films are for:** A. 400-430 nmD. Until it clears upD. When restoring with GIC base and composite laminationD. 2 minutes at 40ºC 856. MicroscopyC. Serology 854. Reduces the flexibility of filmsB. Herpangina is the MOST reliable diagnosis is by:** A. ImmunofluorescenceB. Until it clears upD. What is the range of the visible light cure beam: A. The fixing time for dental x ray should be: A. Internal carotid level 853. 5 minutes at 20ºCB. 200-300 nmC.Mylohyoideus intersectionD. When restoring with amalgam . Repair defect with unfilled resins 861. Complete debridement of root canal. Over trituration 860. Corrosion and discolouration of amalgam restorations is usually caused by: A. Recision and antibioticB. analgesic and antibiotic 97 D. Why do we itch enamel for composite restorations: . Radiograph shows anenlargement of periodontal ligament space of 11 which has a large restoration without a base. According to the depth of gingival creviceC. OxygenC. Subgingival to reduce ability of recurrent cariesD. Use a flat fissure bur C. At right angle to the long axis of toothE. Sulphur oxidesB. Which is TRUE in regards to the preparation of occlusal rests: A. pain.C. When you find ditching in an amalgam filing you would: A. swelling of upper lip and nose. Just supragingival whenever is possibleB. Replace the defective filingB.What would your treatment be: A. Use an inverted cone bur B. Parallel to occlusal planeD. Remove restoration. Antibiotic. What is the reason that pulp calcified after trauma: A. The intensity of the blow was too low to cause pulp death 862. Patient presents with fever of 39ºC. None of the above 863. analgesic followed by root canal treatment after remission of acutephase. apply a sedative dressing with corticosteroids 864. Cervical finish line of full veneer crown preparation should be placed: A. ChloridesD. At the junction of tooth and amalgam core 865.859. Hedstrom fileC.5% hypochlorite sodiumB. Why do you over pack amalgam: A. Does not really change the surface areaD. EDTA 871. Mucoperiosteum is carefully separated from bone 867. Current intensity is too lowC.A. Current intensity is too highB. Flap wider than bony defect that will be present at conclusion of operationE. Swallowing 868. Increase the chemical bonding capabilityE. May cause irritation to mucosaB. Gothic arch tracingD. Decrease the chemical bonding capability 866. Zinc oxide impression material: A. Which of the following will NOT be used in determination of vertical dimension: A. All of the following are requirements of mucoperiosteal flap except of: A. To ensure excess mercury reaches the surface . To increase surface areaB. Use of 0. AestheticB. Mucous membrane carefully separated from periosteumC. To decrease surface areaC. Base is wider than free marginB. The adhering of tissues on the surgical electrode usually means: A. How do remove the smear layer in root canal treatment: A. Is a thermoplastic material 869. Base has an adequate blood supplyD. Dispersion plate not applied to patientD. None of the above 870. PhoneticsC. Lingual of upper molarsD. 45 angle 877. MaterialD. Buccal of upper molars 874. Approximately 2mmC. Buccal of lower molarsB. . 1-1. To long 98 873. In vital pulp therapy. To narrowD. A lateral incisor labial to the arch needs to be restored in normal alignment with PFM retraction. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm depends on: A.5mm 876. Less than 2mmD. How will the tooth appear: A. Why are three tripod marked on a cast being surveyed: A. what is the optimum depth for a pin hole in a tooth: A. Which of the following is more prone to crack: A. All of the above 875. Obtuse angleD. 4-5mmB. Lingual of lower molarsC. LengthB. Should befinished at which angle to external surface: A. Proximal cavosurface walls in Class II preparation for the reception of an amalgam. Degree of taper E.872. Cross sectionC. Acute angleB. To orient cast to articulator B. Too wideB. Right angleC. Too shortC. Adjacent tooth and contralateral teethB. What control tooth or teeth should be used when testing a suspected pulpally involved tooth: A. Minor connector should engage undercuts 99 882. Canine> lateral incisor> central incisor 884. In regards to connectors on dentures. Cast crown fits on die but not on tooth. An irregular shaped void on surface of a gold cast would indicate that: A. Test only suspected tooth/teethE. which of the following is correct: A. First molar> first premolar> second premolar B. Burning out of wax was inadequateD. Contralateral and opposing teethC.3mm what . Major connector should be rigid as possibleB. Air carried into mouldC. All of the above 883. Too weak for narrow canals 880. Opposing and adjacent teethD. Soluble in chloroformB. A fragment of investment had been carried into the mouldB. The MAJOR disadvantage of Gutta Percha is: A. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of freshly established cariesB. To provide guide planes 878. What is CORRECT in regards to periodontal surface area in mandibular teeth: A. discrepancy is about 0.To orient cast to surveyor C. Canine> first premolar> second premolar C. What effect do fissure sealants have on caries progression: A. The powder/water ratio for the investment was too high 879. Reduces new caries and hamper the progress of existing caries 881. Placement of denturesB. bottom of the fissureB. In regards to marginal leakage in amalgam: A. 12 hrsB. Pit and fissure caries start at: A. Movable component of the non-rigid connector in a fixed bridge is placed. BrightnessB. The MAIN CAUSE of gingivitis in partial dentures patients is: A. Relieve cast from the insideB. how long should have been made prior taking impression: A. Secondary caries may develop 886. walls of the fissure 887. Saturation of hueC. CondyleC. Take a new impression and make new crownC. Masseter muscle 888. What interferes with maxillary denture in posterior vestibular fold: A. Wait for an hour before pouring 890. Seal the margin with fissure sealant would prevent further breakdownC. Which of thefollowing is TRUE: . Use thick mix of cement 885. Plaque accumulation 891. Chroma is: A. After been left in water for an hour D. Acrylic self-cure special trays. In regards to shade. Coronoid processB. Value 889. Immediately after fabricating itC. Burnish marginsD. The wider the gap the better the chance of secondary cariesB.would you do: A. Which is the distal attachment ofsuperior hard lateral plate 895. Mesial drift causes unseating of the distally placed connector 892. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten Carbide>Amalgam>Acrylic 897. When lateral incisor is lost. patient has Class II Division II type with deep bite. 1mm 898. two laminae. Contraction of temporalisC. The zone where displacing forces are neutralB. Which is the neutral zone: A. Contraction of the infrahyoid musclesE. or having. 6 monthsB. 1 monthC. Porcelain>Enamel>Tungsten carbide>amalgam>acrylicC. Should be placed on the longer retainer B. How long it would take to notice significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filing for a tooth with a periapical lesion: A. Contraction of the suprahyoid musclesD.100 A. Fixed bridge with canine and central incisor as abutmentB. Which of thefollowing is contra indicated: A. Non-rigid connector with central incisor as abutment 893. . Which of the following DOES NOT cause depression of the mandible: A. Tungsten carbide>Porcelain>Human enamel>acrylicB. Relaxation of all muscles so that the only forces on the mandible are the forcesagainst the gravity 896. How much would you reduce a cusp to be replaced with amalgam onlay: A. Contraction of lateral pterygoidB. 2mm to achieve a good resistance formC. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced 894. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate related to hardness: A. 2 mm to achieve a good retention formB. What is the Bilaminar Zone: A. or thin plates. Formed of. . I. Which of the following procedures will not achieve sterilization: A. When treating a tooth with a non-vital pulp with a fistula presented.M. Boiling water at 100ºC “210ºF” for 2 hoursC. 27 years old female. Hot air at 160ºC “320ºF” for 90minsB. Gastric ulcer C.Which of the following pre existing conditions could be responsible for the post operativebleeding: A. Class II Division IB. 50 years old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining that he “bled all night”. Your management is: A. A & D are correctE. Autoclave at 121ºC “250ºF” under 15psi for 20 minsD. Antibiotic coverageC. Use a cold glass slab 902. All of the above will achieve sterilisation 904.3 months 899. Elevated prothrombin timeD. fistula should be treatedby: A. Tongue thrust 900. Surgical incisionB. None of the above 905. The usual root canal procedures for non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula 901. Dry heat at 177ºC “350ºF” for 60minsE. o. The major cause of mentalis muscle hyperactivity is: A. Long bone growth by: A. Blood pressure reading of 180/110B. shows sudden oedematous rash and collapses after an injection of barbiturates.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline with oxygen administration 903. To increase the setting time of phosphate cements you would: 101 A. Lesions may present on arms 907. Squamous cell carcinomaE. Freeze-dried bone graftC. Lymphocytic bone graftB. The best reading on radiograph to diagnose ankylosis in deciduous molar is: A. Always accompanied with skin lesionsC. Use lead collimator 102 910. Mitosis of osteoblastC. Bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenetic potential is: A. Lesions may present on legsE. MucoceleB. This MOST likely is: A. Cancellous bone graft 908. Dentinal tubules are more than usual . painless nodulewithin the substance of parotid gland. Cortical bone graftE. Lesions may present anywhereD. What is TRUE in regards to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus: A. Which is NOT CHARCTERISTIC of dentinogenesis imperfecta: A.Mitosis in osteoblastB. Sialolith with encapsulations 909. Lymph nodeC. A patient states that for ALMOST a year now. she has had a rubbery. firm. The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is: A. Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysisD. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis 906. Never accompanied with skin lesionsB. Heltozygo?? Marrow graftD. Density of lamina dura 911. Benign mixed tumour D. Tongue thrust with tongue to lip swallow is seen in: A. 7 years child with Class I malocclusion. To prevent exposure of a ?????? on a permanent root. adequate archlength. Apical migration of gingival epitheliumE. MobilityB.912. Taurodontism 913. Nasal floor B. The MOST stable area to evaluate the craniofacial growth is: A. Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teethD. D & E 917. on x rays it shows with two roots and two roots canals. Presence of true pocketD. GeminationC. What is your management: A. Clinical indications of pathogenic chronic periodontitis: A. Child with less than normal number of teeth. C. FusionD. Naso maxillary complexE. Expansion screw plate 915. Presence of subgingival calculusF. Oral screenB. Cranial vaultC. Hawley plateE. mandibular lateral incisor is larger than usual. Anterior cranial base 914. Incompetent lips 916. Head cap therapyC. your diagnosis is:** A. Dull pain on closingC. Occlusal planeD. the dentist BEST approach for elevatingflap is to use: . ConcrescenceE. slight version of maxillary Class I. DilacerationB. Deposits in boneC. In advance periodontitis with marked mobility. Which isthe procedure of choice to obtain coverage of the root surface: A. Free gingival graftE. Excretes rapidly by kidneyD. Modified wide flap 921. Sub-epithelial tissue graftC. Examination reveals area of gingival recession. Produces extrinsic tooth stain 923. Distal flutingB. Split thickness flap 918. Double flapB. Apically positioned flapE. Two conditions of enamel facilitate post eruptive uptake of fluoride element: .A. Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molarsD. Supra bony pockets distal to molars 922. teeth should be splinted: A. What does contra indicate distal wedge in molars’ area: A. Stripping procedureC. Mobility caused by excessive forces on normal periodontal ligament 103 919. What is TRUE in regards to primary occlusal trauma: A. Apically positioned graftD. Long attached gingivaC. Bacteria staticE. exposed wide area of dental roots. Crosses placental barrier B. To improve comfort and function 920. Free gingival autograftB. Full thickness flapD. Which of the following is not a property of Fluoride ion: A. Inhibits acid demineralisation of enamel 925. 6-8 weeksB. Protrusive movement in wax: A. How long it would take to see the dentinal bridge after direct pulp capping by using Calciumhydroxide:** 104 A. LEAST use of blood count: A. 4 months 930. What does contraindicate bridge works: . Less vibration on patient 929. Under cut area 926. 2:3B. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm Does not relate to: A. Can not be perforated 927. The OPTIMUM crown to root ratio for abutment tooth is:** A. In regards to topically applied fluoride : A. LengthB. Effective in incorporated into dental plaqueB. 1:1 931. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities 924. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisationC.A. Degree of taper E. 4 weeksC. MaterialD. Cross sectionC. Hyper mineralisation and surface dentineB. The FIRST advantage of using 100000 rpm and over rotors is: A. 6-8 monthsD. Infectious mononuclears 928. X ray. Purplish lesions on the buccal mucosa that have been there since birth. the tooth is filled with composite longtime ago. In arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment 935. Accidental exposure of pulpB. Prevents distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth 933. Long edentulous span which will lead to damage of abutments 932. Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps 934. Carious exposure of pulp in otherwise asymptomatic toothC. remove filling and restore with temporarily filling 940. How would you treat hyperaemia “hyperaemic tooth”:** A. the diagnosis is: A. Corticosteroid paste 939. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cementB. Oxygen must not be less than 30% 941. What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping: A. Haemangioma 936. What is the difference between arcon and non arcon articulator: A.A. what would you do: A. Calcium hydroxideC. . Patient has been coming to your clinic for several times complaining about soreness under the denture. Halothane should not be less than 5%B. what would you do: A. Patient comes to you complaining of pain in a tooth. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks 938. Elasticity of impression material will lead to ideally: A. Elevators are not used in: A. Dividing third lower molars roots 937. Use of inhalation general anaesthesia: A. ErythrocytesD. Too wide bucco lingual embrasureC. Giant cell lesionD. Place sealant on teeth which are at high risk of cariesB. Which of the following situations make periodontal disease more sever: A. For fissure and sealant treatment to be a part of the primarily retentive care: A. Dental cysts 942. Place sealant on newly erupted teeth 943. Enough proximal surfaceB.25N to measure pocket depth: A. Missing proximal contacts 947. When you apply a pressure of 0. CEJ to base of pocketB. Acromegaly 105 B. Primordial cystsE.Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is likely to be caused by: A. FibroblastB. Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes 946. Top of the gingiva to the base 944. Away from edentulous spaceB. Paget’s diseaseC. The auxiliary occlusal rest on tooth for partial denture should be placed: A. Epithelial cellsC. Periodontal pocket is measured between: A. Vest cells of malaiseE. . Which of the following elements is not found in normal periodontal membrane: A. 4 mm indicates periodontitis 945. HypotensionC. RanulaD.Patient complains of pain associated with poor dentition. The dental management would be: A. Palatal 1004. Respiratory depressionD. Between crown and cementB. Segmental dental clearance and closure to eliminate problemsC. A vital tooth has a crown cemented to a pin retained amalgam cored. Angioneurotic oedemaB. Away from fulcrum line 948. The reason that endodontically treated teeth are weak is: A. Loss of blood supplyB. . Swallowing will aid in the diagnosis of: A. where does failureoccur: A. Hypertension 950. Loss of coronal tissues 1005.Adjacent to edentulous spaceC. Thyroglossal duct cystC. Branchial cystB. Retention cyst 111 D. No dental treatment may be due to neuronic of neoplasmsD. Near fulcrum lineD. Which is NOT a result of toxic dosage of local anaesthetic: A. Between core and cementC. Immediate extraction of any poor teeth under local anaesthetic with antibioticcoverageB. Clearance of poor dentition followed by hyperbaric oxygen treatment plus a primaryclosure of wounds under antibiotic coverageE. In the crown and the rootD. 58 years old male has had a 60 yo WM course of radiation given for carcinoma of tongue. In the core and the margin preparation 949. All of the above 1012. All of the above 1009. Apply topical fluoride at the margin 1007. Internal resorptionC. Between preheat and opaque stagesC. Replace the compositeB. Ledermix 1008. Occasional sensitivity in a shallow class I amalgam restoration after two days would bemanaged by: A. When should not contaminate metallic framework during fabrication of porcelain fused tometal crown: A. . Between opaque and bisque stagesD. Too thick application of pure gold surface conditioner B. “Pop off” of a porcelain veneer from under the lying gold crown is due to:** A.No extraction as radionecrosis is an important sequelae 1006. Contamination at the porcelain metal interfaceC. Between one opaque and two opaque stages 1011. Replace old filing immediatelyB. Pulp capping in mature tooth may be followed by:** A. Between bisque stage and glazing stageB. Tell patient the discomfort will disappear after 4 t o6 weeksE. Under firing the opaque layer D. PulpalgiaB. On examination of composite restoration you find a dark attain: A. Repair with unfilled resinC. Hypercalcification within root canalsD. Oxide Zinc and eugenolC. Using thicker mix of cementsD. The MOST common occurrence after direct pulp capping is: A. Signs of reversible pulpitis 1010. Patient complains of sensitivity. on examination you found a composite restoring a goodcavity preparation without any secondary caries. Bone growthC. Ask patient to come back in six monthsD. Spoon shape with rounded margin 1018. Regeneration of cementumB. What is the shape of occlusal rest: A. Regeneration periodontal surgery: A. . What changeswill you make to achieve balanced occlusion: A. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation is LEAST useful in preventing caries of: A. Increase compensate curve 1015. Decrease incisal guidanceB. Smooth surfaceC. Initial condylar guidance of 25 degree was wrong is changed to 45 degree. Repeat restoration 1017. The growing rootB. Inaccessible area 1016. Vascular pressureD. Pit and fissureB.Attrition in elderly. what is your next step: A. Increased interocclusal distanceC. Reduce cusps heightC. The MOST likely factor contributes to tooth eruption is:** A. Formation of dentine 1013. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulpC. Building bone around the fundus of alveolar bone and deposition of cementumB. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamedB. why do teeth maintain contact: 112 A. The developing periodontal ligament 1014. Low number of streptococcus mutansB. Hyposecretion of the adrenal 1024. 48-96 hours 1023. Hypersecretion of the thyroidB. Gingivitis is not caused by: A. 2-5 hoursB.Long junctional epithelium 1019. Why is the frequency of carbohydrates intake more important quantity: A. Desquamative gingivitis 1025. What is NOT TRUE about gingivitis: A. Hypersecretion of the adrenalC. 5-12 hours 113 C. DiabetesB. 30-48 hoursE. Tzanck cellsB. Ulcers. necrosis and plasma cells at the basal membrane with atrophic thin areas. The elimination half life of Diazepam is in the range of: A. Viral infection 1022. Hyposecretion of thyroid-hypothyroidismD. Homo formation is better at high sugar intakeD. Hetero formation is better at low sugar concentrationC. Which of the following is seen in benign mucosal membrane pemphigoid:** A. Mobility 1020. reduced rete pegs will be diagnosed as: A. Restricted diffusion of acid through plaque 1021. . Myxoedema occurs due to:** A. 12-30 hoursD. Scarring of the conjunctiva 1026. It takes at least 12 hours for Vitamin K to reverse the effects of coumarin 1029.Intraepithelial vesiclesC. Heparin can be given subcutaneously and acts rapidlyD. What your next step would be: A. The spirochetes disseminate rapidly throughout the body within 24hour after contactB. Oral lesions are not seen in less than 1%C. PancreatitisC. Histopathology like aphthous ulcer D. ScarlatinaE. OsteomyelitisD. Which of the following is TRUE about syphilis: A. INR of 3 is enough to start any extractionB. In regards to paracetamol: . Apply a fixed appliancesE. Pneumonia 1030. Review in yearly intervals 114 1031. Staphylococcus aureus can cause which of the following infection: A. A. Primary lesion is not contagiousB. Extract the deciduous teethC. Spirochetes disseminate in 24 hours 1027. Affects extrinsic system and increases prothrombin timeC. Only the lesions of the primary and secondary stages are contagiousD. In syphilis: A. Which of the following is not true about warfarin. Perform mixed dentition analysisB. All of the above 1028. Both the primary chancre and the secondary mucous patch stages of the diseaseare highly infectiousC. A 10 year old child presents with crowding of the dentition and desirescorrection. Ask the patient to come after the deciduous teeth fall off and complete permanentdentition eruptsD. ThyroiditisB. Less than 90 degreeD. what is the first thing to do: A. What is your management: A. HSV 1B. Must be treated by antibioticsC. Bite planeC. Expansion screwD. In regards to periapical lesions. Inject adrenaline 1034. Must always treated by surgeryD. . Change fro aerobic into anaerobic 1033. The MOST PROBABLE diagnosis is: A. moist skin and dyspnoea.A. Single retroclined upper incisor in 9 years old. Liver damage in mild overdose 1032. Less than 45 degreeC. Anterior inclined plane on mandibular teethB. Less than 35 degreeB. In which of the following conditions vesicles/bullae are never seen prior toulceration: A. Aphthous ulcer C. Administer oxygenD. Less than 100 degree 1036. space is sufficient.The lesion is painless and of normal colour. The angle of blade for closed curettage is:** A. Hawley appliance 1035. Patient complains of finger-like growth on the lateral aspect of the tongue. what is TRUE: A. Give insulin injectionC. Pemphigus 1037. Patient with weak pulse. Maintain airway and place in supine positionB. Are predominantly anaerobicB. Folate papillaeB. Keep observingB. End product of amino acids metabolism is: A. HIV gingivitisC. Clotting factor productionC. What your next step would be: A. On HIV patient which of the following IS NOT RECOGNISED: A. UreaB. Perform an excision biopsyC. Cellular energy production 1039. Directly applied on decalcified enamelB. Allantoin 1042. Applied after eruption 115 1040. the MOST probable diagnosis is: A. Patient shows a lesion on the tongue adjacent to sharp tooth. Child presented to you with sore throat. Topical fluorides are MOST beneficial when: A. Uric acidC. Squamous cell carcinomaB. Prescribe Kenalog and Orabase 1043. Collagen synthesisB. You “roundedoff” the sharp area and recall patient after one month to see the lesion turning smaller in size. Rheumatic arthritisC. Epithelial integrityD. NeurofibromaD. fever and joint swelling. Thiamine is useful in: A. Rheumatic fever B. Papilloma 1038. Osteoarthritis 1041. Filiform papillaeC. . Clotting timeB.OsteosarcomaD. The placement of metal stops at a location remote to direct retainers to increase retention istermed: 116 A. What would you do: A. Bleeding timeC. Kaposi sarcoma 1044. but the reason given is false 1050. GingivoplastyD. Debridement and antimicrobial rinsesC. Torus 1047. Condensing osteitisC. Remove and replace the Ag point with Gutta Percha before the post preparation. You want to place a post on an endodontically treated tooth which has a good silver point “Ag point”. Flap surgery 1045. First statement is true. The hamular notch is important in full dentures construction because it aids in the setting position of the artificial teeth A. there is no evidence of failure of the previous root filing. Infection with new bone formation is: A. Prothrombin timeD. Prescribe antibioticsB. Complete blood cell count 1046. The MOST primary treatment of ANUG in HIV patient is: A. 1048. Indirect retainers 1049. A patient on dicoumarol treatment needs extraction. Garr’s osteomyelitisB. Sedimentation rateE. Which of the following isMOST valuable in evaluating surgical risks: A. . External lymphomaE. Upper buccal and lower lingual cusps 1055. Increasing the anterior posterior occlusal curveB.When setting up teeth for complete dentures having bilateral balanced occlusion. Why would you invest the wax pattern as soon as possible in an indirect inlay fabrication: A. Decrease the angle of the occlusal plane 1052. . When patient bites in protrusion you notice that posterior teeth do not meet. The bilaminar zone in reference to TMJ refers to: A. A systemic allergyB. In posterior crossbite situation which are the supporting cusps: A. separation of posterior teeth during protrusion is done by: A. Decreasing the angle orientation of the occlusal plane 1051. The upper and lower joint spacesB. Inadequate interocclusal clearance 1053. Increase the compensatory curveB. The MOST common reason for full denture failure: A. Avoid contractionC. Two canals and one foramina 1057. What does “SYNERESIS” in prosthodontics mean: A. Loss of water and contraction 1058. The distal attachments of the lateral pterygoid to the condyle 1056. A complaint of burning tongue in an elderly female would be a result of: A. Psychogenic 1054. what would youdo to solve this: A. Minimise distortionB. Allergy because of dentureC. What is the MOST COMMON configuration of the mesial buccal canal of upper first molar:** A. Info and Rating Reads: 17. Mylohyoid ridgeIII . II. MCQ 1060 Questions Download this Document for FreePrintMobileCollectionsReport Document Report this document? Please tell us reason(s) for reporting this document Top of Form 300de2355fa558 doc Spam or junk Porn adult content Hateful or offensive If you are the copyright owner of this document and want to report it. I and II 117 B.55556 5 false false 0 (9 Ratings) . All of the above.QUESTIONS IN DOUBT:131415192426303234374246485859606669737680828991929698*100104105109110111118125136 141142147150152154180181215218223226 118 227223234246249253260265272276284285290294296299301303304 503 Service Unavailable No server is available to handle this request. II. IIIC. Upon palpation which of the following areas would be found to have overlying mucosa: I. Rated: Bottom of Form 4. please follow these directions to submit a copyright infringement notice. VD. Why do people with cleft palate/lip have speech difficulties: A. Incisive foramenV. I. 1060.Avoid expansion 1059.714 Uploaded: 10/17/2008 Category: Uncategorized. Report Cancel This is a private document. Difficulties in keeping the intraoral pressure. ToriA. Midline of the palateII. Mental foramenIV. None of the aboveE. I. p. .Copyright: Attribution Non-commercial api_11797_auralilas This is a collapser for Adult Share & Embed Related Documents PreviousNext 1. p. 2. p. p. p. . p. p. 4. p. p. p. 3.p. p.p. . 6. 5. p. p. p. p. . p. p. 8. p. p. 7.p. p. p. . 10. p. p.p. p. 9. p. p. p. 11. p. . p. p. p. 12. p.p. 13. 14. . p. p. p. p. . p. 15. p. .