1 Answer Polity Test 1 StudY LoveR VeeR.

May 7, 2018 | Author: ashutosh singh | Category: Constitutional Amendment, Mandamus, Constitution, Government Of India, Constitutional Law


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StudY LoveR- VeeRAnswer- Polity Test – 1 Marks-100 Time- 1 Hour Q-1- Choose the correct statements from below: a. The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step by British govt to regulate the East India Company. b. The Pitt‘s India Act setup the Supreme Court in Calcutta. c. The Charter Act of 1833 first recognized the company‘s territories in India as British possessions. d. Pitt‘s India Act created the Board of Control to look after political affairs. A. Only a,b,c is correct. B. Only a,c,d is correct. C. Only a,d is correct. D. All are correct. Ans- C Q-2- Correct statement A. The Pitt‘s India Act created Board of Control to manage political affairs. B. The Pitt‘s India Act created the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs. C-Both correct D-Both wrong Ans- A- Pitt‘s India Act created Board of Control to manage political affairs. Q-3- The 15 member Council of India was setup under which act? a. Indian Councils Act,1861 b. Indian Councils Act, 1892 c. Government of India Act,1858. d. Indian Councils Act,1909 Ans- c) Government of India Act,1858. Q-4 . Dadabhai Naoroji b. b.1858.c. Both wrong Ans. c.c. Both correct d.The first person to be inducted into the Viceroy‘s Executive Council was: a.1919.Correct statement? a.1909.Both Correct Q-9 -Correct Statement? a. Both correct d. The Interim Government members formed in 1946 were members of Viceroy‘s Executive Council.correct statement? a. The Constituent Assembly was chaired by Rajendra Prasad when it met as constitution making body. b.c. b.c. c. c. The Constituent Assembly was a legislative body apart from constitution making body. Q-6.Correct Statement? a. 1935.Both Correct Q-8. The Council of India was formed through the Government of India Act. Both wrong Ans. Both wrong Ans. Lord Morley was the Secretary of State and Lord Minto was the Viceroy. The Constituent Assembly was chaired by Sachichiadand Sinha when it met as a legislative body. The Constituent Assembly was a sovereign body.Both Correct Q-7. Sachichidanand Sinha c. b. c. Both correct d.b – Lord Morley was the Secretary of State and Lord Minto was the Viceroy Morley reforms were enacted through the Indian Councils Act. Satyendranath Tagore Ans.Correct statement? a. Both wrong Ans. The Council of India was abolished through the Government of India Act. The President of the Viceroy‘s Executive Council was the Viceroy and Vice-President of the Council was Jawaharlal Nehru in the Interim Government. b. Both correct d. .Satyendra Prasad Sinha Q-5. The Minto-Morley reforms were enacted through the Indian Councils Act. Satyendra Prasad Sinha d. The Universal Adult Franchise is guaranteed under the constitution. c. B-From a 2-tier government.Constituent Assembly was chaired by Rajendra Prasad when it met as constitution making body Q-10.B-Fundamental Rights and DSP Q-13. Q-11.C) Both are correct. both wrong Ans. C-both correct D-both wrong Ans –a-The 73rd and 74th amendment brought in changes in the levels of government Q-12. bringing a new level with each amendment.Correct Statement? a. it changed it to a 4-tier government. The 61st amendment brought the age for voting to 18 years. Both correct d. both correct d. c. b.The feature of Indian constitution borrowed from South African constitution is: A-Procedure established by law B-Procedure for amendment of constitution and election of Rajya Sabha members .Correct Statement? A-The 73rd and 74th amendment brought in changes in the levels of government.At the time of enactment of constitution. the provisions which enabled a secular state were: A-Preamble. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy B-Fundamental Rights and DSP C-Fundamental Rights only D-Directive Principles of State policy only Ans. Both wrong Ans-b. All introduced) Q-16.B-Procedure for amendment of constitution and election of Rajya Sabha members Q-14. C-Method of election of President D-Joint Sitting of the Parliament Ans.Correct Statements? A-Originally the constitution had 14 languages in the 8th schedule.D-None of the above (A.The terms not introduced in the Preamble through the 42nd amendment are: A-Socialist B-Secular C-Integrity D-None of the above Ans.The words justice in the form of social.C-Russian Revolution Q-15.B. .B-Kesavananda Bharati case Q-17. economic and political justice present in the Preamble has been taken from A-American Revolution B-French Revolution C-Russian Revolution D-None of the above Ans.Which case determined that the Preamble is a part of the constitution A -Berubari Union case B-Kesavananda Bharati case C-Golaknath case D-Minerva Mills case Ans.C. Correct Statement A. Against arbitrary executive action. C-both correct D-both wrong Ans. B-The Supreme Court held that laws added after April 24h. C. None. B.C-both correct Q-18.‖ The protection under article 21 is: A. The Tenth Schedule contains provisions for Anti-Defection.1973 can be reviewed.Correct Statements? A-The Ninth Schedule was added to protect laws and legislations from judicial review. C-both correct D-both wrong Ans. Both are correct D. B. D.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct: .Both A & B Q-21. B-Currently there are 22 languages with the last amendment being the 92nd amendment. Both are wrong.Both are Correct Q-20. Ans. C.Article 21 declares that – ―No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. Q-19. Both A & B.C) Both are correct. Against arbitrary legislative action. Ans. Originally the tenth schedule was formed related to Sikkim but was repealed later after Sikkim was made a state. B. Both. Ans. C. A. Prohibition & Certiorari. D. Correct statement/s is/are: A. Q-23. 2. None Ans. 2 only. Prohibition. and private individuals or bodies. 2 only.1. Prohibition & Mandamus.Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. C. Both. D. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency. Right to speedy trial. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in article 19 (1) of the constitution.r. . Certiorari & Mandamus. Right against delayed execution. 2 only.B – Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. None Ans.Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 – ―No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.A – SC is under the ambit of RTI Q-22. Certiorari & Mandamus. 1 only. 2. 1. Consider the following statements w. It is not available against administrative authorities. A. B.‖ 1.Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities? A. C. 1 only. 1 only. C. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI act.D – Only President can suspend this right during national emergency. None. B. D. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR. legislative bodies.C-Both Q-24. Ans.t article 32. Both. 2. HC can also issue writs for enforcement of FR. D. B. The directive principles were made non – justiciable and legally non – enforceable because: 1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles. B. 2 & 3 only. allowances. B. Both. 2 only. 1 only. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them. C. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct. 2. A. None.Q-25. privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by: A. D. B. 2 & 3. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy. None Ans. A. Q.B – FR establishes political democracy. C. D. 2. 1. Ans. 2 only. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.c –Both Q-26. Q-28. 1 only.27. Both. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation. A. Ans. 1. 3.A – Second schedule – Simple majority only.B – FR establishes political democracy. C.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures. D. . 1 only.The emoluments. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment. B. D. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy. Ans. 2. 1 & 3 only. 1. C. Ans. Both. 2. D. 2 & 3 only. 2. B. 2. B. B. A. C.A – Refer Bommai case (1994) . Q-32. 1 & 3 only.D – Resolution approving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority. None of these. 1 & 3 only.Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution. Ans-c Q-31. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority. Supremacy of the Constitution. C. 2 & 3 only. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre & the states. D.2&3 Q-30. Ans-D. 3. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority. A.Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations. Where after general elections to the assembly. 3.1. 1. 1. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by LS only with simple majority. C. B. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the center can give direction to a state on any matter. 2 & 3.Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency. 1 only. D. A. D. C. 1 only. None. 1. Stringent financial exigencies of the state. Ans. A. 1. 1.Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose Presidents rule in a state (Article 356). 2 & 3. no party secures a majority. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority. Rigid Constitution. Serious maladministration in the state. 1 only. 2 only.Q-29. Independent Judiciary. 2 & 3. 1. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected. B.President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker Q-35. B. Elected members of all Union Territories. Q-37. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws. Ans.The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner? . D. Q-34. 3. C. D. The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.The Electoral College for President‘s election consist of: 1.Q-33. Ans. 1 only. C. 2 & 3. 2 only. Elected members of both the houses of parliament. A. Elected members of the legislative assemblies. The President can either reject the bill or return the bill. B.B – An ordinance can alter or amend a tax law however it cannot be issued to amend the constitution. None. 2. 1 & 2. C. 1.C – Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the UT Delhi & Puducherry only. Both. D. The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill. D. Ans.The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are – 1. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker. 2. Ans-c. C. The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.C -President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill Q-36. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker. B.With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill – A. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant – A. A. 3 only. B. A separate Parliamentary Statute. C. B. None. 2. C. Must have completed the age of 35 years. None of the above . 2 only. D. None. D. 3. Q-38. D. A.D – Deputy Chairman of PC is given Cabinet rank. 1. C.The office of the ‗Whip‘ is mentioned in: A. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. 1 & 2 only.The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in: A. 2 & 3. Constitution of India. Ans. In a separate Parliamentary Statute. Parliamentary Secretaries. 1 only. B. D. 2 & 3. Rules of the house. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Q-39. Deputy Ministers. B. 2. D. Constitution of India. Deputy Chairman – Planning Commission. 3. C.Which of the following qualification/s is/are laid down by the constitution for a person to be appointed as the Governor of a state: 1. B. He should be a citizen of India. C.Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. A.D. He shall not belong to the state where he is appointed.The ‗Council of Ministers‘ does not consist of: 1. 1. None of these. Ans-D Q-40. Ans—C Q-41. Rules of the house.A. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. Ans. 2. 2. The President after consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very senior SC judges headed by CJI. President. A. 1 only. C. Q-44. B.B Q-42.Chief Justice of High court is appointed by: A. Ans-D. 1. Chief Justice of India. The President after consultation with the CJI & Governor of state. D. 2 & 3. The President after consultation with the CJI. Ans. The 73rd Amendment act of 1992 (PRI Act) is applicable to all states except J&K. C.Which of the following statements are correct: 1. 1. C.Correct statements with regard to Panchayati Raj Institutions are: 1. Ans-B Q-43.Which of the following officials take the Oath that has the following lines: “To preserve protect and defend the constitution” 1. D. 3. 2. 1 & 3 only. 2 & 3. 1 only. Both. intermediate and district levels. The people directly elect all members of Panchayat at the village. 3. A.Ans. None. President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LS. 2 & 3 only. Governor can remove the State Election Commissioner on the recommendation of the State Legislature.President after consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very senior SC judges headed by CJI Q-45.A – Governor can nominate only one. 1 only. B. A. B. 1 & 2 only. None of the above. 2 only. D. C. D. The Governor on the recommendation of President who in turn consults the CJI. Governor can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LA. Governor. . B. Ans. 1 & 3 only. National Commission for SCs – Article. C. Q-49. The act does not apply to the states of J&K. allowances and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Justice of High Court. 2 & 3. All except 2 & 5. None.All except 1 & 3. A. The salary. C.Ans.A Q-47. CAG – Article 148. 3. allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC. 5. All except 1 & 3. C. Ans. 1 & 2 only. A. Attorney General of India – Article 76. 2. None of the above options are correct. allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner. 1. Both. Right to Vote is not a FR but a Constitutional right. allowances and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Secretary of State Government.Which of the following articles are correctly matched: 1. B. 2 only.A – The salary. D. 2.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct: 1. 324 4.Which of the following statements are correct: 1. 2 & 3 only. The salary. B. Finance Commission – Article 280.A – 2. Ans-B. Nagaland. & Mizoram and certain other areas. D. D. 1 only. He/she can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the SC. Meghalaya. The salary. He/she is the highest law officer of the country. SEC can be removed on like manner as a judge of HC Q-46. . 3. B. 2. 3. Election Commission – Article 338. A.Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India: 1. All except 1 & 5. Q-48. Ans-D-1. 4. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state. 2 only. A. 3 & 4. 2. None. Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its distinct language. B. 2. D. 3 only. 1. 2. C. The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform Civil Code. 1 only. D. 3 & 4. 3. Ans-C-Both Q-50. 2 only. C. A. . Both. 2 & 3 only.Which of the following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State: 1. 1. Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the Right to Vote. 2. B.2. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law.
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